The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970

1. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, excludes from the definition of
‘contractor’ one who:
(a) Undertakes to produce a given result for an establishment through contract labour.
(b) Supplies contract labour for any work of the establishment.
(c) Supplies goods and articles of manufacture to an establishment.
(d) Is a subcontractor.
 Answer: (c)
_____________________________________________________________________________
2. As per Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, what is the minimum number
of contract laborers ordinarily to be employed by a contractor so that the employer must provide
a canteen?
(a) 100
(b) 150
(c) 250
(d) 500
 Answer: (a)
______________________________________________________________________________
3. Which one of the following is the maximum spread over of the daily hours of work including
interval for rest, time spent in waiting for work under the Child and Adolescent Labour
(Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986?
(a) Five hours
(b) Six hours
(c) Seven hours
(d) Three hours
Answer:  (b)
_____________________________________________________________________________
4. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 is applicable to establishments in
which:

1. A minimum of fifty workmen are employed or were employed on any day of the
preceding twelve months as contract labour.
2. Work of an intermittent nature is performed for more than one hundred twenty days in
the preceding twelve months.
3. Work of seasonal character is performed for more than sixty days in a year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (b)
______________________________________________________________________________

10. What are the other facilities are needed for employees by an organization, as per the Contract
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970

(a) Drinking Water

(b) Washing Facilities
(c) Latrines and Urinals
(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952

1. Minimum ……….. Persons must be employed in as establishment for the applicability of the
PF act.
A. 15
B. 20
C. 35
D. 50
Answer: B
2. The term “Appropriate Government” is defined in which section of the PF Act?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (d)
D. Section 2 (e)
Answer: A
3. Bonus is part of Basic Wages as defined in the respective section in the PF Act.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
4. Can an agent, of the owner of a factory, be termed as an employer?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
5. A person engaged as an apprentice under the Apprentices Act, 1961 will not be considered as
an employee.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
6. The term “Exempted Employee” is defined under section ……. of the PF Act, 1952
A. 2 (gg)
B. 2(hh)
C. 2(ff)
D. 2(cc)
Answer: C
7. Which of the following statements about The Employees’ Provident Funds and
(Miscellaneous Provisions) Act are true?
a. The Act is not applicable to cooperative societies employing less than 50 persons working
with the aid of power.
b. It makes provision for pension scheme, including family pension.
c. There is no wage limit to be covered under the Act.
d. The Act has a provision relating to Employees’ Deposit-linked Insurance Scheme.
A. a, b & d
B. a & c
C. a, c & d
D. b, c & d
Answer: A
9. What is the present wage limit to be eligible to be covered under the Employees’ Provident
Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
A. Rs. 12,500
B. Rs. 15,000
C. Rs. 6,500
D. Rs. 6,000
Answer: B
10. The chairman and members of Central Board constituted under Employees Provident Fund
are appointed by
A. Supreme Court
B. State Government
C. Central Government
D. None of the above
Answer: C
11. The contribution which shall be paid by the employer to the Fund shall be
A. 5%
B. 7%
C. 12%
D. 10%
Answer: C
12. An employer who contravenes or makes default in complying with the provisions of section
6 of this act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to _____ years
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948

1. Which of the following labour legislations is implemented only by the Central Implementation
Machinery?
A. Trade Unions Act
B. Maternity Benefit Act
C. Industrial Disputes Act
D. Employees’ State Insurance Act
Answer D
2. Under Section 2(12) the Act is applicable to non-seasonal factories employing---------- persons
A. 10 or more
B. 25 or more
C. 20 or more
D. 5 or more
Answer A
3. Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year
A. 1976
B. 1961
C. 1923
D. 1948
Answer A
4. The Payment of Gratuity Act was introduced in the year
A. 1961
B. 1923
C. 1972
D. 1976
Answer C
5. The Maternity Benefit Act was introduced in the year
A. 1961
B. 1923
C. 1976
D. 1948
Answer A
6. Which of the following benefits is covered under social security schemes?
A. Medical facilities
B. Retirement benefits
C. Compensation facilities
D. All of the above
Answer D
7. Making peace with employees by fulfilling all their needs without any resistance is the essence
of the
A. Appeasement theory
B. Policing theory
C. Benevolence theory
D. Religious theory
Answer A
8. The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance
Act has now been enhanced from 18 years to
A. 22 years
B. 24 years
C. 20 years
D. 25 years
Answer D
9. Employees who are getting a daily average wages up to ________ are exempted from
contributing employees’ share of ESI contribution.
A. Rs 70
B. Rs 384.60
C. Rs 100
D. Rs 50
Answer C
10. The employer’s share of contribution under the ESI Act is
A. 8.33 %
B. 0.75 %
C. 12 %
D. 3.25%
Answer D
11. As per the latest amendment under the ESI Act, 1948 medical treatment is now available to
persons under voluntary retirement scheme also.
A. True
B. False
C. Partly True
D. The Act is silent
Answer A
12. Which of the following legislations in India is governed by a tripartite organization
consisting of representatives of labour, management and Government?
A. Payment of Bonus Act
B. Industrial Disputes Act
C. ESI Act
D. Maternity Benefit Act
Answer C
13. What is the wage limit for employees to be covered under the Employee State Insurance Act
as per the latest amendment?
A. Rs. 25,000 per month
B. Rs. 18,000 per month
C. Rs. 21,000 per month
D. Rs. 20,000 per month
Answer C
14. Employees’ share of contribution under the ESI Act is
A. 0.75 %
B. 3.25%
C. 12%
D. 8.33%
Answer A
15. Which of the following legislations extends some sort of benefit to retired employees also?
A. Employees’ State Insurance Act
B. Payment of Bonus Act
C. Maternity Benefit Act
D. Employees’ Compensation Act
Answer A
16. ’Unemployment allowance’ payable is stated in
A. Factories Act, 1948
B. Unorganised Sector Workers Social Security Act, 2005
C. Employee State Insurance Act, 1948
D. None of the above
Answer C
17. Which of the following legislations was based on the recommendations of the B.P. Adarkar
Committee Report?
A. Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
B. Employees’ Provident Funds Act
C. Maternity Benefit Act
D. Employees’ Compensation Act
Answer A
18. Who is an ‘exempted employee’ under the Employee’s state Insurance Act, 1948?
A. Employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution
B. Minor employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution
C. Employee who is minor
D. None of the above
Answer A
19. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the
Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
A. If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the
Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
B. Together can be applicable
C. The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time
D. The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable
at a time.
Answer A
20. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?
A. List of occupational diseases.
B. List of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.
C. List of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.
D. None of the above
Answer D
21. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical
Council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend
A. Three consecutive meetings
B. Three meetings intermittently
C. Four consecutive meetings
D. Two consecutive meetings
Answer A
22. Which of the following benefits have not been provided under the Employee’s State
Insurance Act, 1948?
A. Disablement Benefit
B. Children’s’ Allowance
C. Sickness Benefit
D. Unemployment Allowance
Answer B
23. Which one of the following Labour Legislations provides comprehensive benefits to
industrial workers in India?
A. Maternity Benefit Act
B. Employees’ State Insurance Act
C. Employee Provident Funds Act
D. Employees’ Compensation Act
Answer B
24. An employer is liable to pay his contribution in respect of every employee and deduct
employee’s contribution from wages bill and shall pay these contributions at the specified rates
to the Corporation within -----------days of the last day of the Calendar month in which the
contributions fall due.
A. 21
B. 30
C. 7
D. 15
Answer D
25. Dependents’ Benefit paid at the rate of ----------% of wage in the form of monthly payment to
the dependents of a deceased Insured person in cases where death occurs due to employment
injury or occupational hazards.
A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 90%
D. 75%
Answer C
26. If an Insured Women or an I.P. in respect of his wife confinement occurs at a place where
necessary medical facilities under ESI Scheme are not available, how much amount shall be
payable per case for two confinements only.
A. Rs. 5000/-
B. Rs. 7500/-
C. Rs. 2500/-
D Rs.10000/-
Answer A
27. How much amount is payable to the dependents for funeral expenses?
A. Rs.15,000/-
B. Rs.10000/-
C. Rs.12000/-
D. Rs.5000/-
Answer A
28. Minimum wage limit for Physically Disabled Persons for availing ESIC Benefits is
A. Rs.20000/-
B. Rs.50000/-
C. Rs.15000/-
D. Rs.25000/-
Answer D
29. Maternity Benefit for confinement/pregnancy is payable for three months, which is
extendable by further one month on medical advice at the rate of full wage subject to
contribution for -------- days in the preceding year.
A. 65 days
B. 70 days
C. 91 days D. 75 days
Answer B
30. Enhanced Sickness Benefit equal to full wage is payable to insured persons undergoing
sterilization for --------- days for male and ________ female workers respectively.
A. 7 days and 14 days
B. 14 days and 7 days
C. 5 days and 10 days
D. 6 days and 14 days
Answer A
31. Extended Sickness Benefit (ESB) is extendable upto two years in the case of 34 malignant
and long-term diseases at an enhanced rate of -------- percent of wages.
A. 90%
B. 85%
C. 75%
D. 80%
Answer D

The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972

1. When did The Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, come into force?

A) 01 April 1955
B) 01 March 1955
C) 01 May 1955
D) 16 September 1972.

Answer –D

2. Which section of The Payment of Gratuity Act 1972 deals with the Mode of payment of
gratuity?

A. Section 12 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972

B. Section 9 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
C. Section 14 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
D. Section 20 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972

Answer B.

3. Which section of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972 deals with Maintenance of records of
cases by the controlling authority._?
A. Section 16 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
B. Section 14 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
C. Section 13 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
D. Section 18 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972

Answer – A.

4. Section 17 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972 deals with_______?

A. Direction for payment of gratuity
B. Direction for payment of gratuity
C. Mode of payment of gratuity
D. Administration of oath

Ans- B.

5. Procedure for dealing with application for direction, is provided in section____ of the Payment
of Gratuity Act 1972

A. Section 24 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972

B. Section 11 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
C. Section 21 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
D. Section 23 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972

Ans- B.

6. According to Section 2 (b) of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, completed year of service”
means continuous service for_______year

A) 2
B) 4
C) 1
D) 4

Answer –C)

7. The employer shall arrange to pay the amount of gratuity within ______days from the date it
becomes payable to the person to whom the gratuity is payable.

A) 30
B) 15
C) 45
D) 60
Answer –A

8. Which section of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972 deals with Place and time of hearing?

A. Section 17 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972

B. Section 14 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
C. Section 12of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
D. Section 19 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
Answer – C.

9. Which section of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972 deals with Application to controlling
authority for direction?

A. Section 17 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972

B. Section 14 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
C. Section 10 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
D. Section 19 of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972

Answer – C.

10. What is the maximum gratuity payable under the Act?

A) 20 lakh
B) 15 lakh
C) 45 lakh
D) 60 lakh

Answer –A

Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act

2013
1. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act
2013 received the assent of the President on?
A) 08 March 2013
B) 22 April 2013
C) 08 Dec 2012
D) 22 March 2013
Answer: D
2. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act
2013 is Act ___ of 2013?

A. 14
B. 37
C. 32
D. 9

Answer: A

3. What is the purpose of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition,

and Redressal) Act 2013?

A. provide protection against sexual harassment of women at workplace

B. prevention and redressal of complaints of sexual harassment
C. Both a and b above
D. None of these

Answer: C

4. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act,

2013 came into force on?

A. 22 April 2013
B. 9 December 2013
C. 21 August 2014
D. 22 January 2015

Answer: B

5. “Chairperson” under Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition,

and Redressal) Act 2013 means?

A. Chairman of Parliamentary Committee on Women

B. Minister of Women and Child Development
C. Chairperson of National Women’s Commission
D. Chairperson of the Local Complaints Committee

Answer: D

6. “Employee” under Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and

Redressal) Act 2013 means?

A. regular employee
 B. temporary employee
C. adhoc/daily wage employee
D. All the above

Answer: D

7. Which among the following is a “sexual harassment” as defined under Sexual Harassment of
Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act 2013?

A. physical contact and advances

B. a demand or request for sexual favours
C. showing pornography
D. All the above

Answer: D

8. Which among the following does not come under the meaning “workplace” under Sexual
Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act 2013?

A. any private sector organization

B. hospitals or nursing homes
C. any sports institute, stadium, sports complex
D. None of these

Answer: D

9. Which of the following may amount to sexual harassment under Sexual Harassment of
Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act 2013?

A. implied or explicit promise of preferential treatment in her employment

B. implied or explicit threat of detrimental treatment in her employment
C. humiliating treatment likely to affect her health or safety
D. All the above

Answer: D

10. Section 4 of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and

Redressal) Act 2013 deals with?

A. Complaint of sexual harassment

B. Inquiry into complaint.
C. Constitution of Internal Committee
D. Prohibition of publication or making known contents of complaint and inquiry
proceedings
Answer: C
The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
1. Which of the following statements is not correct as per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?
(a) It is applicable to construction industry.
(b) It does not apply to employees in Life Insurance Corporation of India.
(c) Allocable surplus means 67% of the available surplus.
(d) Employee means any person including apprentice.

Answer: D
2. The ceiling on wage or salary for calculation of Bonus under the Payment of Bonus Act 1965
is
(a) Rs. 2,500
(b) Rs. 3,500
(c) Rs. 7,000
(d) Rs. 6,500

Answer: C

3. Under the payment of Bonus Act, 1965, the gross profits derived by an employer from an
establishment in respect of any accounting year shall be computed
(a) In case of Banking Company according to schedule II and in any other case schedule I.
(b) In case of Banking Company according to schedule I and in any other case schedule II.
(c) In case of Banking Company and in any other case schedule I.
(d) In case of Banking Company and in any other case schedule II.

Answer: B
4. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 is applicable to an employee who draws wage or salary of
(a) Rs. 3500 in case of apprentice
(b) Rs. 5000 in case of apprentice and employee
(c) Rs. 7500 in case of employee only
(d) Rs. 10,000 in case of employee only

Answer: D
5. Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is applicable to every factory and to every other establishment
where ---------- workmen are employed on any day during an accounting year
(a) 20 or more
(b) 10 or more
(c) 50 or more
(d) 30 or more
Answer: A
6. Every employee receiving salary or wages upto RS. 7000 p.m. and engaged in any kind of
work whether skilled, unskilled, managerial, supervisory etc. is entitled to bonus for every
accounting year if he has worked for at least ---------- days in that year.
(a) 15 working days
(b) 30 working days
(c) 60 working days
(d) 90 working days
Answer: B
7. The minimum bonus which an employer is required to pay even if he suffers losses during the
accounting year or there is no allocable surplus is --------- % of the salary or wages during the
accounting year
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 8.33 %
(d) 6.33%
Answer: C
8. If in an accounting year, the allocable surplus calculated after taking into account the amount
‘set on’ or the amount ‘set of’ exceeds the minimum bonus, the employer should pay bonus in
proportion to the salary or wages earned by the employee in that accounting year subject to a
maximum of ------- % of such salary or wages.
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 10%
(d) 20%
Answer: D
9. The bonus should be paid in cash within ----------- months from the close of the accounting
year
(a) 8 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 3 months
Answer: A
10. An employer has the following rights:

1. Right to forfeit bonus of an employee, who has been dismissed from service for fraud,
riotous or violent behaviour, or theft, misappropriation or sabotage of any property of the
establishment.
2. Right to make permissible deductions from the bonus payable to an employee, such
as, festival/interim bonus paid and financial loss caused by misconduct of the employee.
3. Right to refer any disputes relating to application or interpretation of any provision of
the Act, to the Labour Court or Labour Tribunal.
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1, 2 & 3
(c) 2 & 3
(d) 1 & 2
Answer: B
11. The employer has to submit an annul return of bonus paid to employees during the year, in
Form D, to the Inspector, within ---------- of the expiry of the time limit specified for payment of
bonus.
(a) 10 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 60 days
Answer: C
12. The contravention of the provisions of the Act or rules may attracts the punishment of 
(a) imprisonment upto 3 months, or fine up to Rs.500, or both
(b) imprisonment upto 2 months, or fine up to Rs.1000, or both
(c) imprisonment upto 6 months, or fine up to Rs.10000, or both
(d) imprisonment upto 6 months, or fine up to Rs.1000, or both
Answer: D
13. Excess allocable surplus remain after paying the maximum bonus of 20% on the wage or
salary of the employee, should be carried forward to the next following year for utilizing
the payment of bonus in case of the shortage of the allocable surplus or losses occur. This is
called as 
(a) Set-On 
(b) Set-Off
(c) Take-On 
(d) Set-Off
Answer: A
14. Which section states about the classes of employees where Payment of Bonus Act is not
applicable?
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 32
(c) Section 22
(d) Section 30
Answer: B
15. When there are no profits or the amount falls short or deficiency for payment of minimum
bonus to employees, such deficiency amount should be adjusted to the current accounting year
from the Set-On amount which was carried forward in case of excess allocable surplus in the
previous year. This is called as . 
(a) Set-On
(b) Set-Off
(c) Take -On
(d) Take –Off
Answer: B
Workmen’s compensation Act, 1923
1. Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(A) Individual manager subordinate to an employer cannot act as managing agent.
(B) Managing agent includes an individual manager subordinate to an employer.
(C) Only employer can act as managing agent.
(D) The appropriate government shall appoint managing agent.

Answer: D
2. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees
State Insurance Act, 1948
(A) Together can be applicable.
(B) The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a
time.
(C) The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable
at a time.
(D) If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the
Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.

Answer: D
3. Assertion (A): Provisions of Employees’ compensation Act and Maternity Benefit Act do not
apply to all industries.
Reason (R): Employees’ Compensation Act is a comprehensive social security legislation.
(A) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(B) (A) is right, but (R) does not related to the (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are right, and (R) validates the (A).
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: C
4. While working at the construction of a multi-storeyed building of a company, a worker
employed by a ‘contractor’, supplied by a ‘sirdar’, faced an accident and became temporarily
disabled. For paying compensation to the worker, who shall be held responsible as per law?
(A) The contractor who employed the worker
(B) The sirdar who supplied the worker
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Answer: A
5. No contribution is required for getting benefit under which of the following legislations?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Employees’ Compensation Act
(C) Both under (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above

Answer: C
6. If the money is due from the employer under the settlement or award, the workman or his
assignee can make an application to the appropriate government for the recovery within the
period given below.
(A) One year.
(B) One year and also after the said period of the appropriate government is satisfied that the
applicant has sufficient cause for not making the application within one year.
(C) Two years.
(D) Three years.

Answer: B
7. The name of which of the following legislations has been recently changed?
(A) Workmens’ Compensation Act
(B) Employees’ State Insurance Act
(C) Maternity Benefit Act
(D) Payment of Gratuity Act

Answer: A
8. Which of the following statements relating to the Employees’ Compensation Act is not
correct?
(A) This Act has a link with the Workmen’s Compensation Act
(B) This act is the outcome of the amendment that was made to the Workmen’s Compensation
Act
(C) This act does not have any provision relating to temporary disablement of workmen
(D) This act has a provision relating to permanent partial disablement
Answer: C
9. Assertion (A): Industrial accidents occur inter-alia due to fatigue.
Reason (R): Fatigue is the result of personal health condition of the worker as well as by
overwork, monotony and boredom as part of work experience.
Codes:
(A) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is right and the (R) rightly explains the (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is right

Answer: B
10. If there is willful removal or disregard by the workman of any safety guard or other device
which he knew to have been provided for the purpose of securing safety of workman,
(A) Employer is liable to pay compensation
(B) Employer is not liable to pay compensation
(C) Appropriate government is liable to pay compensation
(D) The Trade Union is liable to pay compensation

Answer: B
11. In case of fatal accident if the commissioner serves notice to the employer based on his
source
(a) The employer can neglect the notice.
(b) If the employer thinks liable, he shall make the deposit within sixty days of the service of
notice.
(c) If the employer thinks liable, he shall make the deposit within thirty days of the service of
notice.
(d) If the employer is not liable, he shall in his statement indicate the grounds on which he
disclaims liability.

(A) All statements are correct.

(B) All statements are incorrect.
(C) Only (a) and (d) are correct.
(D) Only (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: D
12. Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, which of the following are considered as
dependent of deceased workman for the purpose of paying compensation?
(i) a minor brother or an unmarried sister or a widowed sister 
(ii) a widowed daughter-in-law 
(iii) a minor child of a pre-deceased son 
(iv) a minor child of a pre-deceased daughter where no parent of the child is alive 
(v) a paternal grandparent if no parent of the workman is alive; 
(A) i, ii & v
(B) i, ii. iii & iv
(C) i, ii, iii & v
(D) i, ii, iii, iv & v

Answer: D
13. Under this Act, employer shall not be liable to pay compensation in respect of any injury
which does not result in the total or partial disablement of the workman for a period exceeding
------- days;
(A) 7
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 2

Answer: B
15. Under this Act, employer shall not be liable to pay compensation in respect of any injury not
resulting in death or permanent total disablement caused by an accident 
(A) under the influence of drink or drugs
(B) Due to the wilful disobedience of the workman to an order expressly given or to a rule
expressly framed for the purpose of securing the safety of workmen
(C) Due to the wilful removal or disregard by the workman of any safety guard or other device
he knew to have been provided for the purpose of securing the safety of workman
(D) All the above

Answer: D