BOYLESTAD 103pages
BOYLESTAD 103pages
BOYLESTAD 103pages
2
SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE c. 3
d. 4
1. How many terminals does a diode have?
a. 1 9. One eV is equal to _____ J.
b. 2 a. 6.02 × 10
23
c. 3 b. 1.6 × 10
–19
d. 4 c. 6.25 × 10
18
–24
d. 1.66 × 10
2. What is the resistor value of an ideal diode
in the region of conduction? 10. Which of the following elements is most
a. 0 frequently used for doping pure Ge or Si?
b. 5 k a. Boron
c. Undefined b. Gallium
d. Infinity c. Indium
d. All of the above
3. What is the state of an ideal diode in the
region of nonconduction? 11. The diffused impurities with _____ valence
a. An open circuit electrons are called donor atoms.
b. A short circuit a. 4
c. Unpredictable b. 3
d. Undefined c. 5
d. 0
4. The diode _____.
a. is the simplest of semiconductor 12. In what state is a silicon diode if the voltage
devices drop across it is about 0.7 V?
b. has characteristics that closely a. No bias
match those of a simple switch b. Forward bias
c. is a two-terminal device c. Reverse bias
d. All of the above d. Zener region
5. The ideal diode is a(n) _____ circuit in the 13. What unit is used to represent the level of a
region of nonconduction. diode forward current IF?
a. open a. pA
b. short b. nA
c. A
6. Which of the following is an atom d. mA
composed of?
a. Electrons 14. Which of the following ratings is true?
b. Protons a. Si diodes have higher PIV and
c. Neutrons narrower temperature ranges than
d. All of the above Ge diodes.
b. Si diodes have higher PIV and
7. How many orbiting electrons does the wider temperature ranges than Ge
germanium atom have? diodes.
a. 4 c. Si diodes have lower PIV and
b. 14 narrower temperature ranges than
c. 32 Ge diodes.
d. 41 d. Si diodes have lower PIV and wider
temperature ranges than Ge
8. How many valence electrons does a silicon diodes.
atom have?
a. 1
15. It is not uncommon for a germanium diode
with an Is in the order of 1–2 A at 25°C to 23. Which capacitance dominates in the
have leakage current of 0.1 mA at a forward-bias region?
temperature of 100°C. a. Diffusion
a. True b. Transition
b. False c. Depletion
d. None of the above
16. Calculate static resistance RD of a diode
having ID = 30 mA and VD = 0.75 V. 24. At what kind of operating frequency
a. 25 diffusion or transition is a capacitor
b. 40 represented in parallel with the ideal
c. 0.04 diode?
d. 0.025 a. Low frequency
b. Moderate frequency
17. Calculate ID if RD = 30 and VD = 0.84 V. c. Mid frequency
a. 28 mA d. Very high frequency
b. 0.028 mA
c. 2.8 A 25. What is the value of the transition
d. 280 A capacitance for a silicon diode when VD =
0?
18. Refer to Figure 1.27. Calculate the dynamic a. 1 pF
resistance rd of a diode having ID = 27.5 b. 3 pF
mA. c. 5 pF
a. 0 d. 10 pF
b. 2
c. 5 26. Which of the following devices can check
d. 26 the condition of a semiconductor diode?
a. Digital display meter (DDM)
19. Determining rd to a high degree of accuracy b. Multimeter
from a characteristic curve is very accurate. c. Curve tracer
a. True d. All of the above
b. False
27. What does a high resistance reading in both
20. The _____ diode model is employed most forward- and reverse-bias directions
frequently in the analysis of electronic indicate?
systems. a. A good diode
a. ideal device b. An open diode
b. simplified c. A shorted diode
c. piecewise-linear d. A defective ohmmeter
21. Calculate the power dissipation of a diode 28. The condition of a semiconductor diode can
having ID = 40 mA. be determined quickly using a _____.
a. 28 mW a. DDM
b. 28 W b. VOM
c. 280 mW c. curve tracer
d. Undefined d. Any of the above
22. Which capacitance dominates in the 29. Determine the nominal voltage for the
reverse-bias region? Zener diode at a temperature of 120° C if
a. depletion the nominal voltage is 5.1 volts at 25° C and
b. conversion the temperature coefficient is 0.05%/° C.
c. 40 Diffusion a. 4.6 V
d. 140 None of the above b. 4.86 V
c. 5.1 V 37. The term _____ is often used when
d. 5.34 V comparing the resistance level of materials.
a. permittivity
30. Calculate the temperature coefficient in %/° b. inductivity
C of a 10-V nominal Zener diode at 25° C if c. conductivity
the nominal voltage is 10.2 V at 100° C. d. resistivity
a. 0.0238
b. 0.0251 38. In the atomic lattice the _____ and _____
c. 0.0267 form the nucleus.
d. 0.0321 a. electrons, neutrons
b. electrons, protons
31. In which of the following color(s) is (are) c. neutrons, protons
LEDs presently available? d. None of the above
a. Yellow
b. White 39. An increase in temperature of a
c. Orange semiconductor can result in a _____ in the
d. All of the above number of free electrons in the material.
a. substantial increase
32. 32.What is the maximum power rating for b. substantial decrease
LEDs? c. slight decrease
a. 150 mW d. no change
b. 500 mW
c. 1 W 40. Ge and Si have a(n) _____ coefficient in
d. 10 W forward bias.
a. positive temperature
33. In which of the following is the light b. negative temperature
intensity measured? c. absolute temperature
a. Candela d. temperature free
b. Efficacy
c. Flux 41. Any electron that has left its parent atom
d. Illumination has _____ energy state relative to any
electron in the atomic structure.
34. What is the range of the operating voltage a. the same
level for LEDs? b. a lower
a. 5–12 mV c. a higher
b. 1.7–3.3 V d. an undefined
c. 5–12 V
d. 20–25 V 42. Introducing those impurity elements that
have _____ valence electrons creates the n-
35. In general, LEDs operate at voltage levels type material.
from _____ V to _____ V. a. 0
a. 1.0, 3.0 b. 3
b. 1.7, 3.3 c. 4
c. 0.5, 4.0 d. 5
d. None of the above
43. In n-type material the _____ is called the
36. A(n) _____ is the simplest of semiconductor majority carrier.
devices. a. electron
a. diode b. hole
b. transistor c. proton
c. operational amplifier d. neutron
d. SCR
44. The diffused impurities with _____ valence 51. The _____ the current through a diode, the
electrons are called acceptor atoms. _____ the dc resistance level.
a. 0 a. higher, lower
b. 3 b. lower, lower
c. 4 c. lower, higher
d. 5 d. higher, higher
45. The reverse-saturation current level is 52. Varying the _____ can control the location
typically measured in _____. of the Zener region.
a. pA a. forward current
b. µA b. doping levels
c. mA c. forward voltage
d. A d. dc resistance
46. The depletion width _____ in the forward 53. The test current in a Zener diode IZT is the
bias, which results in having a majority flow current defined by the _____ power level.
across the junction. a. 0.25
a. widens b. 0.5
b. remains unchanged c. 0.75
c. shrinks d. 1.00
d. widens and shrinks alternatively
54. The heavier the current in a Zener diode in
47. The forward characteristics curve of a diode reverse bias, _____ dynamic resistance
grows in _____ form. value.
a. linear a. the more the
b. exponential b. the less the
c. logarithmic c. there is substantially more
d. sinusoidal d. there is no change in the
48. The potential at which the characteristics 55. The intensity of LED is greatest at _____
curve vertical rise occurs is commonly degrees and the least at _____ degrees.
referred to as the _____. a. 0, 90
a. offset b. 45, 90
b. threshold c. 0, 45
c. firing potential d. 90, 180
d. All of the above
56. The temperature coefficient can be _____
49. The reverse saturation current Is will just for different Zener levels.
_____ in magnitude for every 10° C increase a. positive
in temperature. b. negative
a. double c. zero
b. remain the same d. All of the above
c. halve
d. triple 57. The reverse recovery time of most
commercial switching diodes is in the range
50. Diodes are connected _____ to increase the of _____.
current-carrying capacity. a. picoseconds
a. in series b. a few nanoseconds
b. in parallel c. several microseconds
c. in parallel-series d. milliseconds
d. None of the above
58. The ac resistance of a diode is the _____ of
the characteristic curve at the Q-point of
operation.
a. reciprocal of the slope
b. slope
c. midpoint
d. average value
a. 0V
b. 0.09 V
c. 0.2 V
d. 0.44 V
a. 0 mA
b. 4.3 mA
c. 5 mA
d. 10 mA
8. Determine V2.
a. 0A
b. 4.76 mA
c. 5 mA
d. 5A
a. 3.201 V
b. 0V
c. 4.3 V
d. 1.371 V
a. 29.40 mA
b. 30.30 mA
c. 14.70 mA
d. None of the above
a. 4.65 mA
13. Determine ID1. b. 9.3 mA
c. 18.6 mA
d. 0.7 mA
16. Determine Vo if E1 = E2 = 10 V.
b. Positive logic OR gate
c. Negative logic AND gate
d. Negative logic OR gate
a. 9.3 V
b. 10 V
a. Full-wave rectifier
c. –10 V
b. Half-wave rectifier
d. 0V
c. Clipper
d. Clamper
17. What is the logic function of this circuit?
20. Determine the peak value of the current
through the load resistor.
a. 2.5 mA
a. Positive logic AND gate b. 0 mA
c. 1.37 mA
d. 1.479 mA
a. 16 V, –4 V
b. 16 V, 4 V
c. –16 V, 4 V
d. –16 V, –4 V
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Series and parallel a. Full-wave rectifier
d. None of the above b. Half-wave rectifier
c. Clipper
24. Determine the peak value of the output d. Clamper
waveform.
27. Determine the total discharge time for the
capacitor in a clamper having C = 0.01 µF
and R = 500 kΩ.
a. 5 ms
b. 25 ms
c. 2.5 ms
d. 50 ms
a. 2 mA, 0 mA
b. 4 mA, 2 mA
c. 2 mA, 2 mA
d. 2 mA, 4 mA
33. What is the voltage measured from the
29. With this Zener diode in its "on state," what negative terminal of C4 to the negative
is the level of IZ for the maximum load terminal of the transformer?
resistance?
a. –10 V
a. 0 mA b. –20 V
b. Undefined c. 10 V
c. Equal to IRL d. 20 V
d. IZM
34. In a voltage-multiplier circuit, the number
30. In a voltage regulator network with fixed RL of diodes is directly proportional to the
and R, what element dictates the minimum multiplicative voltage factor.
level of source voltage? a. True
a. VZ b. False
b. IZ
c. IZM 35. Rectifiers are commonly used in battery
d. None of the above chargers.
a. True
31. Which element dictates the maximum level b. False
of source voltage?
36. The intersection of the load line with the
characteristic curve determines the _____
of the system.
a. point of operation
b. load-line analysis
c. characteristic curve
d. forward bias
32. What is the peak inverse voltage across 38. The load line is defined by the _____ and a
each diode in a voltage doubler? characteristic curve is defined by the _____.
a. Vm a. quiescent point, device
b. 2Vm b. device, network
c. 0.5Vm c. network, device
d. 0.25Vm d. None of the above
43. A germanium diode is approximated by 50. For the ideal diode the transition between
_____ equivalent for voltages less than 0.3 states will occur at the point on the
V. characteristic curve when VD = _____ V and
a. a short circuit ID = _____ A.
b. a series circuit a. 0.3, 0
c. a parallel circuit b. 0, 0
d. an open circuit c. 0.7, 0
d. 0.7, 0.3
44. A diode is in the _____ state if the current
established by the applied sources is such 51. A clamping network must have _____.
that its direction matches that of the arrow a. a capacitor
in the diode symbol and VD > 0.7 V. b. a diode
a. off c. a resistive element
b. reverse bias d. All of the above
c. on
d. transition 52. The ratio of the total swing of the output of
a clamper to its input total swing is _____.
45. The combination of a short circuit in series a. 1
with an open circuit always results in a(n) b. 2
_____ circuit. c. 0.5
a. open d. 0
b. short
c. neither short nor open
53. For the "off" state of a Zener diode, the 57. A Zener diode is in a _____ impedance
voltage across the diode should be _____. region in the forward bias while it has a
a. greater than VZ _____ impedance region in the reverse bias.
b. zero a. very large, low
c. less than VZ but greater than zero b. very large, very large
d. None of the above c. low, low
d. low, very large
54. Once the Zener diode is in the "on" state,
VZ is always _____ VL. 58. In a half-wave voltage doubler, the voltage
across output capacitor C2 drops across the
load during the _____ half cycle and the
capacitor is recharged up to _____ during
the _____ half cycle.
a. larger than
b. smaller than
c. the same as
d. None of the above a. negative, 2Vm, positive
b. positive, Vm, negative
55. Zener diodes are used in regulator networks c. positive, 2Vm, negative
to _____. d. negative, Vm, positive
a. generate voltage
b. consume power 59. The full-wave voltage doubler provides
c. maintain a fixed voltage across the _____ filtering action than (as) the half-
load resistor wave voltage doubler.
d. protect the load a. better
b. poorer
56. With the Zener diode in the "on" state, c. the same
increasing IL will _____ IZ and _____IR. d. None of the above
a. decrease, increase
b. increase, decrease
c. decrease, keep the same level of
d. increase, keep the same level of
a. odd, even
b. even, odd
c. odd, odd
d. even, even
8. Which component of the collector current
BIPOLAR JUNCTION IC is called the leakage current?
TRANSISTOR a. Majority
b. Independent
1. In what decade was the first transistor c. Minority
created? d. None of the above
a. 1930s
b. 1940s 9. For a properly biased pnp transistor, let IC =
c. 1950s 10 mA and IE = 10.2 mA. What is the level of
d. 1960s IB?
a. 0.2 A
2. How many layers of material does a b. 200 mA
transistor have? c. 200 µA
a. 1 d. 20.2 mA
b. 2
c. 3 10. Calculate minority current ICO if IC = 20.002
d. 4 mA and IC majority = 20 mA.
a. 2 µA
3. What is the ratio of the total width to that b. 0.002 µA
of the center layer for a transistor? c. 2 nA
a. 1:15 d. 2 pA
b. 1:150
c. 15:1 11. Which of the following regions is (are) part
d. 150:1 of the output characteristics of a transistor?
a. Active
4. Which of the following is (are) the b. Cutoff
terminal(s) of a transistor? c. Saturation
a. Emitter d. All of the above
b. Base
c. Collector 12. In which region are both the collector-base
d. All of the above and base-emitter junctions forward-biased?
a. Active
5. List the types of bipolar junction transistors. b. Cutoff
a. ppn, npn c. Saturation
b. pnp, npn d. All of the above
c. npp, ppn
d. nnp, pnp 13. How much is the base-to-emitter voltage of
a transistor in the "on" state?
6. Transistors are _____-terminal devices. a. 0 V
a. 2 b. 0.7 V
b. 3 c. 0.7 mV
c. 4 d. Undefined
d. 5
14. In the active region, while the collector-
7. How many carriers participate in the base junction is _____-biased, the base-
injection process of a unipolar device? emitter is _____-biased.
a. 1 a. forward, forward
b. 2 b. forward, reverse
c. 0 c. reverse, forward
d. 3 d. reverse, reverse
6. The saturation region is defined by 11. Determine the reading on the meter when
VCE _____ VCEsat. VCC = 20 V, RC = 5 kΩ, and IC = 2 mA.
a. >
b. <
c. ≤
d. ≥
a. 18 V
b. 9.22 V
c. 3.23 V
d. None of the above
a. −12.12 V
b. 16.35 V
c. −3.65 V
a. –4.52 V d. 10 V
b. 4.52 V
c. –9 V 22. Calculate Rsat if VCE = 0.3 V.
d. 9V
a. 1.4 V, 59.7 µA
b. –1.4 V, 59.7 µA
c. –9.3 V, 3.58 µA
d. 9.3 V, 3.58 µA
24. In the case of this circuit, you must assume 30. Which of the following is (are) a stability
that VE = 0.1·VCC in order to calculate RC and factor?
RE. a. S(ICO)
b. S(VBE)
c. S(β)
d. All of the above
50. In a collector feedback bias circuit, the 57. As the temperature increases, β _____,
current through the collector resistor is VBE _____, and ICO _____ in value for every
_____ and the collector current is _____. 10ºC.
a. IC’ IC a. increases, decreases, doubles
b. IB + IC’ IC b. decreases, increases, remains the
c. IB’, IC same
d. None of the above c. decreases, increases, doubles
d. increases, increases, triples
51. _____is the least stabilized circuit.
a. Fixed bias 58. A significant increase in leakage current due
b. Emitter-stabilized bias to increase in temperature creates
c. Voltage divider _____between IB curves.
d. Voltage feedback a. smaller spacing
b. larger spacing
52. _____ is less dependent on the transistor c. the same space as at lower
beta. temperature
a. Fixed bias d. None of the above
b. Emitter bias
c. Voltage divider 59. The _____the stability factor, the
d. Voltage feedback _____sensitive the network is to variations
in that parameter.
53. In a transistor-switching network, the level a. higher, more
of the resistance between the collector and b. higher, less
emitter is _____ at the saturation and is c. lower, more
_____at the cutoff. d. None of the above
a. low, low
b. low, high 60. In an emitter-bias configuration, the _____
c. high, high the resistance RE’, the _____ the stability
d. high, low factor, and the _____ stable is the system.
a. smaller, lower, less
b. larger, more, more
c. smaller, more, more
d. larger, lower, more
7. Which of the following is (are) true
BJT AC ANALYSIS regarding the input impedance for
frequencies in the midrange ≤ 100 kHz of a
1. Which of the following techniques can be BJT transistor amplifier?
used in the sinusoidal ac analysis of a. The input impedance is purely
transistor networks? resistive.
a. Small-signal b. It varies from a few ohms to mega
b. Large-signal ohms.
c. Small- or large-signal c. An ohmmeter cannot be used to
d. None of the above measure the small-signal ac input
impedance.
2. What is the limit of the efficiency defined d. All of the above
by = Po / Pi?
a. Greater than 1 8. Which of the following is (are) true
b. Less than 1 regarding the output impedance for
c. Always 1 frequencies in the midrange ≤ 100 kHz of a
d. None of the above BJT transistor amplifier?
a. The output impedance is purely
3. Which of the following define(s) the resistive.
conversion efficiency? b. It varies from a few ohms to more
a. Ac power to the load/ac input than 2 MΩ.
power c. An ohmmeter cannot be used to
b. Ac power to the load/dc power measure the small-signal ac output
supplied impedance.
c. Dc output power/ac input power d. All of the above
d. All of the above
9. What is the range of the current gain for BJT
4. Which of the following should be done to transistor amplifiers?
obtain the ac equivalent of a network? a. less than 1
a. Set all dc sources to zero b. 1 to 100
b. Replace all capacitors by a short- c. above 100
circuit equivalent. d. All of the above
c. Remove all elements bypassed by
the short-circuit equivalent. 10. The input impedance of a BJT amplifier is
d. All of the above purely _____ in nature and can vary from a
few _____ to _____.
5. The _____ model suffers from being limited a. resistive, ohms, megohms
to a particular set of operating conditions if b. capacitive, microfarads, farads
it is to be considered accurate. c. inductive, millihenrys, henrys
a. hybrid equivalent d. None of the above
b. re
c. β 11. For BJT amplifiers, the _____ gain typically
d. Thevenin ranges from a level just less than 1 to a level
that may exceed 1000.
6. The _____ model fails to account for the a. voltage
output impedance level of the device and b. current
the feedback effect from output to input. c. impedance
a. hybrid equivalent d. All of the above
b. re
c. β 12. What is the unit of the parameter ho?
d. Thevenin a. Volt
b. Ohm
c. Siemen
d. No unit
20. What does the negative sign in the voltage
13. Which of the h-parameters corresponds to gain of the common-emitter fixed-bias
re in a common-base configuration? configuration indicate?
a. hib a. The output and input voltages are
b. hfb 180º out of phase.
c. hrb b. Gain is smaller than 1.
d. hob c. Gain is larger than 1.
d. None of the above
14. What is the range of the input impedance
of a common-base configuration? 21. For the common-emitter fixed-bias
a. A few ohms to a maximum of 50 Ω configuration, there is a _____ phase shift
b. 1 kΩ to 5 kΩ between the input and output signals.
c. 100 kΩ to 500 kΩ a. 0º
d. 1 MΩ to 2 MΩ b. 45º
c. 90º
15. What is the typical value of the current gain d. 180º
of a common-base configuration?
a. Less than 1 22. Which of the following configurations has
b. Between 1 and 50 an output impedance Zo equal to RC?
c. Between 100 and 200 a. Fixed-bias common-emitter
d. Undefined b. Common-emitter voltage-divider
with bypass capacitor
16. What is the controlling current in a c. Common-emitter voltage-divider
common-base configuration? without bypass capacitor
a. Ie d. All of the above
b. Ic
c. Ib 23. Which of the following configurations has a
d. None of the above voltage gain of –RC /re?
a. Fixed-bias common-emitter
17. What is the typical range of the output b. Common-emitter voltage-divider
impedance of a common-emitter with bypass capacitor
configuration? c. Fixed-bias common-emitter and
a. 10 Ω to 100 Ω voltage-divider with bypass
b. 1 kΩ to 5 kΩ capacitor
c. 40 kΩ to 50 kΩ d. Common-emitter voltage-divider
d. 500 kΩ to 1 MΩ without bypass capacitor
18. Under which of the following conditions is 24. Which of the following configurations has
the output impedance of the network the lowest output impedance?
approximately equal to RC for a common- a. Fixed-bias
emitter fixed-bias configuration? b. Voltage-divider
a. ro ≥ 10RC c. Emitter-follower
b. ro < 10RC d. None of the above
c. ro < ro
d. ro > ro 25. The _____ configuration is frequently used
for impedance matching.
19. Under which of the following condition(s) is a. fixed-bias
the current gain Av ≈ β? b. voltage-divider bias
a. ro ≥ 10RC c. emitter-follower
b. RB ≥ 10re d. collector feedback
c. ro ≥ 10RC and RB ≥ 10re
d. None of the above
26. The emitter-follower configuration has a a. True
_____ impedance at the input and a _____ b. False
impedance at the output.
a. low, low 33. The smaller the level of RL, the larger the
b. low, high level of ac voltage gain.
c. high, low a. True
d. high, high b. False
27. Which of the following gains is less than 1 34. Which of the following is (are) true to
for a common-base configuration? achieve a good overall voltage gain for the
a. Ai circuit?
b. Av a. The effect of Rs and RL must be
c. Ap considered as a product.
d. None of the above b. The effect of Rs and RL must be
considered as a product and
28. Which of the following conditions must be evaluated individually.
met to allow the use of the approximate c. The effect of Rs and RL must be
approach in a voltage-divider bias evaluated individually.
configuration? d. None of the above
a. βre > 10R2
b. βRE > 10R2 35. The _____ the source resistance and/or
c. βRE < 10R2 _____ the load resistance, the less the
d. βre < 10R2 overall gain of an amplifier.
a. smaller, smaller
29. Which one of the following configurations b. smaller, larger
has the lowest input impedance? c. larger, smaller
a. Fixed-bias d. larger, larger
b. Common-base
c. Emitter-follower 36. The current gain for the Darlington
d. Voltage-divider connection is _____.
a. β1 • (β2/2)
30. For the collector dc feedback configuration, b. β1 • β2
there is a _____ phase shift between the c. β1 / β2
input and output signals. d. β1 • (β2 – 1)
a. 0º
b. 45º 37. What is the voltage gain of a feedback pair
c. 90º connection?
d. 180º a. 1
b. –1
31. Which of the following represent(s) the c. 100
advantage(s) of the system approach over d. –100
the r-model approach?
a. Thevenin's theorem can be used. 38. Which of the following is referred to as the
b. The effect of changing the load can reverse transfer voltage ratio?
be determined by a simple a. hi
equation. b. hr
c. There is no need to go back to the c. hf
ac equivalent model and analyze d. ho
the entire network.
d. All of the above 39. In an unbypassed emitter bias configuration
hie replaces _____ in the re model.
32. The loaded voltage gain of an amplifier is a. re
always more than the no-load level. b. β
c. βre 46. One junction of an operating transistor is
d. Ib _____ and the other one is _____.
a. forward-biased, forward-biased
40. The _____ of the input signal is one of the b. forward-biased, reverse-biased
first concerns in the sinusoidal ac analysis of c. reverse-biased, reverse-biased
transistor networks. d. None of the above
a. period
b. frequency 47. For a common-base configuration, the input
c. magnitude impedance is relatively _____ and the
d. None of the above output impedance quite _____.
a. high, small
41. The _____ model(s) is (are) commonly used b. small, high
in the small-signal ac analysis of transistor c. small, small
networks. d. high, high
a. re
b. hybrid equivalent 48. The output voltage and the input voltage
c. re and hybrid equivalent are _____ for the common-base
d. None of the above configuration.
a. 45º out of phase
42. The peak value of the ac input signal is b. 90º out of phase
controlled by the _____ in a transistor c. 180º out of phase
network for the frequencies in the low to d. in phase
midrange.
a. resistors 49. In a common-emitter configuration _____ is
b. applied dc voltage the controlling current while _____ is the
c. capacitors controlled current.
d. None of the above a. IC, IB
b. IC, IE
43. _____ can be applied to determine the c. IB, IC
response of the ac equivalent circuit. d. None of the above
a. Mesh analysis
b. Node analysis 50. The level of re is determined by _____.
c. Thevenin's theorem a. α
d. All of the above b. IE
c. β
44. For transistor amplifiers, the no-load d. IB
voltage gain is _____ the loaded voltage
gain. 51. The output voltage and the input voltage
a. smaller than are _____ for the common-emitter
b. greater than configuration.
c. the same as a. in phase
d. None of the above b. 45º out of phase
c. 90º out of phase
45. The input and output signals are _____ for d. 180º out of phase
the typical transistor amplifier at
frequencies that permit ignoring the effects 52. The common-emitter configuration has a
of the reactive elements. _____ level of input impedance with a
a. in phase _____ voltage and current gain.
b. 180º out of phase a. moderate, high
c. either in phase or 180º out of b. low, moderate
phase c. low, low
d. None of the above d. high, low
53. _____ refers to the forward transfer current
ratio. 60. In an emitter-follower, the output voltage is
a. hi _____ with the input voltage.
b. hr a. 45º out of phase
c. hf b. 90º out of phase
d. ho c. 180º out of phase
d. in phase
54. For the common-emitter and common-base
configurations, the magnitude of _____ and 61. An emitter-follower has _____ impedance
_____ is often not included in the model. at the input and _____ impedance at the
a. hr, ho output.
b. hi, he a. high, high
c. hi, hr b. low, high
d. he, ho c. high, low
d. low, low
55. In a fixed-bias network, the input signal Vi is
applied to the _____ of the transistor while 62. _____ is slightly affected if the condition
the output Vo is off the _____. ro ≥ 10RE is not satisfied in the analysis of an
a. base, collector emitter-follower configuration.
b. base, emitter a. Zi
c. emitter, collector b. Zo
d. None of the above c. Av
d. Ai
56. In a voltage-divider bias configuration, the
voltage-divider equation is used to 63. A common-base configuration has _____
determine the _____. impedance at the input and _____
a. ac level of Vb impedance at the output.
b. dc level of IB a. high, high
c. dc level of VB b. high, low
d. ac level of Ib c. low, low
d. low, high
57. In a voltage-divider bias configuration,
there can be a measurable difference in the 64. In a common-base configuration, the input
results for _____ if the condition ro ≥ 10RC is and output voltages are _____ and the
not satisfied. output and input currents are _____.
a. Zo a. 180º out of phase, 180º out of
b. Av phase
c. Ai b. 180º out of phase, in phase
d. All of the above c. in phase,180º out of phase
d. in phase, in phase
58. The bypass capacitor in a common-emitter
configuration _____ the voltage gain. 65. Ideally, the changes in the load resistor or
a. significantly decreases the source resistor should have _____
b. significantly increases effect on all the parameters of the two-port
c. slightly increases model.
d. slightly decreases a. a great
b. a moderate
59. In an emitter-follower, the voltage gain is c. no
_____. d. None of the above
a. slightly less than 1
b. slightly more than 1 66. The loaded voltage gain of an amplifier is
c. a very large value _____ the no-load level.
d. None of the above a. always more than
b. always less than c. hre
c. always the same as d. hoe
d. None of the above
74. In a hybrid equivalent circuit, ______ is
67. The coupling capacitor places the load and determined to make it easier to find the
collector resistors in a _____ arrangement. other parameters.
a. series a. Zi
b. parallel b. Zo
c. series-parallel c. Ai
d. None of the above d. Av
a. 3.70 V
b. 5.36 V
c. 7.36 V
d. 2.36 V
a. 3 kΩ
b. 3.3 kΩ
c. 4 kΩ
d. 5 kΩ
a. 250 Ω
a. 2.400 kΩ
b. 500 Ω
b. 5.167 kΩ
c. 10 MΩ
c. 6.167 kΩ
d. None of the above
d. 6.670 kΩ
15. For what value of R2 is VGSQ equal to 1 V?
12. Calculate the value of VDS’.
a. 0V a. 10 MΩ`
b. 0.35 V b. 100 MΩ
c. 3.8 V c. 110 MΩ
d. 33.5 V d. 220 MΩ
13. Which of the following describe(s) the 16. Depletion-type MOSFETs do not permit
difference(s) between JFETs and depletion- operating points with positive values of
type MOSFETs? VGS and levels of ID that exceed IDSS.
a. VGS can be positive or negative for a. True
the depletion-type. b. False
b. ID can exceed IDSS for the depletion-
type. 17. For what value of RS can the depletion-type
c. The depletion-type can operate in MOSFETs operate in enhancement mode?
the enhancement mode.
20. What are the voltages across RD and RS?
a. 2.4 kΩ
b. 5 kΩ
c. 6.2 kΩ
d. None of the above
a. 0 V, 0 V
18. Determine the value of VDSQ. b. 5 V, 5 V
c. 10 V, 10 V
d. 20 V, 20 V
a. 3.5 V
b. 4.86 V
c. 7.14 V
d. 10 V
a. 0V
b. 20 V
c. 30 V
d. 40 V
a. 2 kΩ, 2 kΩ
b. 1 kΩ, 5.3 kΩ
c. 3.2 kΩ, 400 Ω
a. 0V
d. 2.5 kΩ, 5.3 kΩ
b. 6V
c. 16 V
26. Calculate the value of RS. Assume VGSQ =
d. 11 V
−2V.
24. Calculate VCE’.
a. 0 kΩ
b. 1.68 kΩ
c. 6.81 kΩ`
d. 8.5 kΩ
a. 2 kΩ
b. 3 kΩ
c. 3.5 kΩ
d. 4.13 kΩ
28. In the design of linear amplifiers, it is good 32. Calculate VDSQ.
design practice to choose operating points
that do not crowd the saturation level or
cutoff regions.
a. True
b. False
a. –3.48
b. –3.56
c. –3.62
d. –4.02
a. 300.2 Ω
b. 330.4 Ω
c. 340.5 Ω
d. 350.0 Ω 31. Referring to this figure, calculate Zo if rd = 19
kΩ.
28. Which of the following is (are) related to
depletion-type MOSFETs?
a. VGSQ can be negative, zero, or
positive.
b. gm can be greater or smaller than
gm0’.
c. ID can be larger than IDSS’.
d. All of the above
a. 1.75 kΩ
b. 1.81 kΩ
c. 1.92 kΩ
d. 2.00 kΩ
a. –7.29
b. –7.50
c. –8.05
d. –8.55
a. 2.42 MΩ
b. 2.50 MΩ
c. 2.53 MΩ
d. 2.59 MΩ
37. The depletion MOSFET circuit has a _____
input impedance than a similar JFET
configuration.
a. much higher
b. much lower
c. lower
d. higher
17. What is the ratio of the capacitive reactance 22. A change in frequency by a factor of
XCS to the input resistance RI of the input RC ________ is equivalent to 1 octave.
circuit of a single-stage BJT amplifier at the a. 2
low-frequency cut-off? b. 10
a. 0.25 c. 5
b. 0.50 d. 20
c. 0.75
d. 1.0 23. A change in frequency by a factor of
________ is equivalent to 1 decade.
18. In the input RC circuit of a single-stage BJT, a. 2
by how much does the base voltage lead b. 10
the input voltage for frequencies much c. 5
larger than the cut-off frequency in the low- d. 20
frequency region?
a. About 0º 24. For the low-frequency response of a BJT
b. 45º amplifier, the maximum gain is where
c. About 90º ________ .
d. None of the above a. RB = 0 Ω
b. RC = 0 Ω
19. In the input RC circuit of a single-stage BJT, c. RE = 0 Ω
by how much does the base voltage lead
the input voltage at the cut-off frequency in 25. Which of the low-frequency cutoffs
the low-frequency region? determined by CS, CC, or CE will be the
a. About 0º predominant factor in determining the low-
b. 45º frequency response for the complete
c. About 90º system?
d. None of the above a. Lowest
b. Middle
c. Highest
d. None of the above b. fβ
c. 1
26. Determine the lower cut-off frequency of d. 2
this network.
a. 15.8 Hz 33. What is the range of the capacitors Cgs and
b. 46.13 Hz Cgd?
c. 238.73 Hz a. 1 to 10 pF
d. 1575.8 Hz b. 1 to 10 nF
c. 1 to 10 F
27. Which of the following elements is (are) d. 1 to 10 F
important in determining the gain of the
system in the high-frequency region? 34. What is the range of the capacitor Cds?
a. Interelectrode capacitances a. 0.01 to 0.1 pF
b. Wiring capacitances b. 0.1 to 1 pF
c. Miller effect capacitance c. 0.1 to 1 nF
d. All of the above d. 0.1 to 1 F
28. In the ________-frequency region, the 35. Which of the following statements is true
capacitive elements of importance are the for a square-wave signal?
interelectrode (between terminals) a. It is composed of both even and
capacitances internal to the active device odd harmonics.
and the wiring capacitance between the b. It is composed only of odd
leads of the network. harmonics.
a. Low c. It is composed only of even
b. Mid harmonics.
c. High d. The harmonics waveforms are also
square waves.
29. Which of the following capacitors is (are)
included in Ci for the high-frequency region 36. Logarithms taken to the base _____ are
of a BJT or FET amplifier? referred to as common logarithms, while
a. Input wiring capacitance CWi logarithms taken to the base _____ are
b. The transition capacitance (Cbe/Cqs) referred to as natural logarithms.
c. Miller capacitance CMi a. 10, e
d. All of the above b. e, 10
c. 5, e
30. In the hybrid pi or Giacoletto model, which d. 10, 5
one of the following does rb include?
a. Base spreading resistance 37. The logarithm of a number _____ than 1 is
b. Base contact always _____.
c. Base bulk a. greater, negative
d. All of the above b. less, positive
c. less, negative
31. Which of the following configurations does d. None of the above
(do) not involve the Miller effect
capacitance? 38. The decibel (dB) is defined such that _____
a. Common-emitter decibel(s) = _____ bel(s).
b. Common-base a. 1, 10
c. Common-collector b. 10, 1
d. All of the above c. 1, 1
d. 10, 10
32. A 3-dB drop in hfe will occur at a frequency
defined by ________. 39. The resistance associated with the 1-mW
a. fα power level is _____ , chosen because it is
the characteristic impedance of audio c. 10-dB
transmission lines. d. 20-dB
a. 100
b. 250 46. A change in frequency by a factor of 10
c. 400 results in a _____ change in the ratio of the
d. 600 normalized gain.
a. 3-dB
40. The decibel gain of a cascaded system is the b. 6-dB
_____ of the decibel gains of each stage. c. 10-dB
a. sum d. 20-dB
b. difference
c. product 47. In the low-frequency region, the _____ low-
d. quotient frequency cut-off determined by CS, CC, or
CE will have the greatest impact on the
41. Voltage gains of _____ dB or higher should network.
immediately be recognized as being quite a. highest
high. b. average
a. 3 c. lowest
b. 6 d. None of the above
c. 20
d. 50 48. The _____ region produces the maximum
voltage gain in a single-stage BJT or FET
42. For the RC-coupled amplifier, the drop in amplifier.
gain at low frequencies is due to the a. low-frequency
increasing reactance of _____. b. mid-frequency
a. CC c. high-frequency
b. Cs d. None of the above
c. CE
d. All of the above 49. For any inverting amplifier, the impedance
capacitance will be _____ by a Miller effect
43. To fix the frequency boundaries of relatively capacitance sensitive to the gain of the
high gain, _____ was chosen to be the gain amplifier and the interelectrode
at the cut-off levels. capacitance.
a. 0.5Av mid a. unaffected
b. 0.707Av mid b. increased
c. Av low c. decreased
d. 0.5Av high d. None of the above
44. In the input RC circuit of a single-stage BJT 50. The Miller effect is meaningful in the _____
or FET amplifier, as the frequency _____, amplifier.
the capacitive reactance _____ and _____ a. inverting
of the input voltage appears across the b. noninverting
output terminals. c. inverting/noninverting
a. increases, decreases, more d. None of the above
b. increases, decreases, less
c. increases, increases, more 51. With a BJT amplifier in the high-frequency
d. decreases, decreases, less region, the capacitance Cbe is the _____ of
the parasitic capacitances while Cce is the
45. A change in frequency by a factor of 2 _____.
results in a _____ change in the ratio of the a. smallest, largest
normalized gain. b. largest, smallest
a. 3-dB c. smallest, medium
b. 6-dB d. None of the above
58. The bandwidth _____ in a multistage
52. At very high frequencies, the effect of C i is amplifier compared to an identical single-
to _____ the total impedance of the parallel stage amplifier.
combination of R1, R2, R3, and Ci. a. increases
a. increase b. decreases
b. maintain c. remains the same
c. decrease d. None of the above
d. None of the above
59. The _____ in the Fourier series has the
53. If the parasitic capacitors were the only same frequency as the square wave itself.
elements to determine the high cut-off a. fundamental
frequency, the _____ frequency would be b. third harmonic
the determining factor. c. fifth harmonic
a. lowest d. seventh harmonic
b. highest
c. lowest or highest 60. The magnitude of the third harmonic is
d. None of the above _____ of the magnitude of the
fundamental.
54. The _____ configuration displays improved a. 1
high-frequency characteristics over the b. 0.5
_____ configuration. c. 0.33
a. common-collector, common- d. 0.25
emitter
b. common-emitter, common-base
c. common-emitter, common-
collector
d. common-base, common-emitter
a. single-ended input
b. double-ended (differential) input
c. double-ended output
d. common-mode operation
a. single-ended input
3. This circuit is an example of a _____. b. double-ended (differential) input
c. double-ended output
d. common-mode operation
12. If Rf = R1’, the voltage gain is _____. 15. What is the voltage gain of the unity
follower?
a. 0
b. 1
c. –1
d. Infinity
a. 1
b. –1
c. 10
d. very small
a. –50 mV
b. –5 mV
c. 550 mV
d. 50 mV
a. –1
b. –10
c. 11
d. 9
a. inverting amplifier
a. –1.5 V
b. noninverting amplifier
b. 1.5 V
c. differentiator
c. 0.5 V
d. integrator
d. –0.5 V
22. This circuit is referred to as a(n) _____.
18. What is the scale multiplier (factor) of a
basic integrator?
a. R / C
b. C / R
c. –RC
d. –1 / RC
49. An ideal op-amp circuit has _____input 56. Inverting amplifier connection is more
impedance, _____ output impedance, and widely used because it has _____.
_____ voltage gain. a. higher gain
a. zero, infinite, infinite b. better frequency stability
b. infinite, zero, zero c. unit gain
c. zero, zero, infinite d. None of the above
d. infinite, zero, infinite
57. The output offset voltage is determined by
50. The _____ amplifier is the most widely used _____.
constant-gain amplifier circuit. a. the input offset voltage and input
a. inverting offset current
b. noninverting b. the closed-loop gain
c. differential c. both the input offset voltage and
d. None of the above the closed-loop gain
d. None of the above
51. The feedback component of an integrator is
a(n) _____. 58. The ratio of the unity-gain frequency to the
a. resistor cutoff frequency is numerically equal to the
b. capacitor level of _____.
c. inductor a. CMRR
d. diode b. common-mode gain
c. closed-loop gain
52. _____ is the unit for the slew rate, SR. d. open-loop gain
a. V/ms
b. ms/V 59. When both input signals are the same, a
c. V common signal element due to the two
d. V/s inputs can be defined as the _____ of the
two signals.
53. The maximum frequency at which an op- a. difference
amp may operate depends on the _____. b. sum
a. bandwidth (BW) c. average of the sum
b. slew rate (SR) d. product
c. unity-gain bandwidth
d. All of the above 60. The common-mode rejection ratio (CMRR)
is defined by _____.
54. As the supply voltage increases, the voltage a. Ad / Ac
gain of the circuit _____ and the power b. Ac / Ad
consumption _____. c. Ad × Ac
a. increases, increases d. Ad + Ac
b. increases, decreases
c. decreases, decreases 61. Ideally, the value of the CMRR is _____.
d. decreases, increases Practically, the _____ the value of CMRR,
the better the circuit operation.
a. zero, smaller
b. infinite, larger
c. zero, larger
d. infinite, smaller
c. 6.12 mV
OP-AMP APPLICATIONS d. –6.12 mV
1. Determine the output voltage for this circuit 4. Calculate the input voltage when Vo = 11 V.
with a sinusoidal input of 2.5 mV.
a. –0.25 V
b. –0.125 V a. 1.1 V
c. 0.25 V b. –1.1 V
d. 0.125 V c. –1 V
d. 1V
2. Calculate the input voltage for this circuit if
Vo = –11 V. 5. Calculate the output voltage.
a. 3.02 V
b. 2.03 V
c. 1.78 V
a. 1.1 V d. 1.50 V
b. –1.1 V
c. –1 V 6. Calculate the output of the first-stage op-
d. 1V amp when V1 = 25 mV.
a. –1.05 V
b. 0.075 V
c. 0.06 V
d. 4.2 V
a. –6.00 mV
b. 6.0 mV
7. Calculate the output of the second stage 11. A number of op-amp stages can be used to
op-amp if V1 = 25 mV. provide separate gains.
a. True
b. False
a. –0.075 V
b. 0.525 V
c. 0.06 V
d. 4.2 V
a. –1.05 V
b. 0.525 V
c. 0.168 V
d. 4.2 V
a. 0V
b. –6.6 V
c. –4 V
d. 2V
a. 0V
a. 0V b. –12 V
b. –6.6 V c. 12 V
c. –4 V d. –4 V
d. 2V
19. Calculate the output voltage if V1 = V2 = 700
16. Calculate the output voltage if V1 = –0.2 V mV.
and V2 = 0 V.
a. 0V
b. –6.6 V a. 0V
c. –4 V b. –12 V
d. 2V c. 12 V
d. –8 V
17. Determine the output voltage.
20. Refer to Fig. Calculate the output voltage Vo
if V1 = –V2 = 300 mV.
a. 10(V2 – Vi)
b. –10(V2 – V1)
c. –10(V1 – V2) a. 0V
b. –12 V
c. 12 V
d. –8 V
a. 0V
b. –2 V
c. 1V
d. 2V
a. 0V a. 2
b. –2 V b. 3
c. 1V c. 4
d. 2V d. 1
23. Determine the output voltage when V1 = – 26. How many op-amps are required to
V2 = –1 V. implement this equation?
a. 2 a. dc voltmeter
b. 3 b. display driver
c. 4 c. ac voltmeter
d. 1 d. All of the above
27. How many op-amps are required to 31. This circuit is an example of a(n)________.
implement this equation?
Vo = V1
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1
a. dc voltmeter
b. display driver
c. instrumentation amplifier
d. None of the above
29. Calculate the output voltage for this circuit 33. Calculate the cutoff frequencies of a
when V1 = 2.5 V and V2 = 2.25 V. bandpass filter with R1 = R2 = 5 kΩ and C1 =
C2 = 0.1 μF.
a. fOL = 318.3 Hz, fOH = 318.3 Hz
b. fOL = 636.6 Hz, fOH = 636.6 Hz
c. fOL = 318.3 Hz, fOH = 636.6 Hz
d. fOL = 636.6 Hz, fOH = 318.3
38. When a number of stages are connected in 45. Op-amps can be used to form _____
series, the overall gain is the _____ of the circuit(s).
individual stage gains. a. voltage-controlled voltage source
a. sum b. voltage-controlled current source
b. product c. current-controlled voltage source
c. difference d. All of the above
d. average
46. _____ in a current-controlled voltage
39. _____ build a multistage connection. source circuit.
a. Only an inverting op-amp circuit a. The input current depends on the
must be used to output voltage
b. Only a noninverting op-amp circuit b. The input current depends on the
must be used to input voltage source
c. Both inverting and noninverting c. The output voltage depends on the
op-amp circuits can be used to input current.
d. Neither inverting nor noninverting d. The output current depends on the
op-amp circuits must be used to output voltage source
40. A voltage summing amplifier has _____. 47. _____ can be used as a voltage-controlled
a. several inputs and several outputs voltage source.
b. several inputs and one output a. Only an inverting op-amp circuit
c. one input and several outputs b. Only a noninverting op-amp circuit
d. one input and one output c. Neither inverting nor noninverting
op-amp circuits
41. The voltage gain of a voltage buffer is _____ d. Both inverting and noninverting
. op-amp circuits
a. 1
b. 0 48. In a current-controlled voltage source using
c. –1 the inverting op-amp circuit, the controlled
d. –5 output current is _____ with the input
voltage source.
42. The output voltage of a voltage buffer is a. in phase
_____ with the input voltage. b. 45º out of phase
a. in phase c. 90º out of phase
b. 45º out of phase d. 180º out of phase
c. 90º out of phase
d. 180º out of phase 49. Op-amp circuits are used in _____
voltmeters.
a. only dc
b. only ac b. passes frequencies from zero up to
c. both ac and dc the cutoff frequency
d. neither ac nor dc c. rejects all frequencies above the
cutoff frequency
50. In a current-controlled current source, the d. All of the above
controlled current Io depends on _____.
a. I1 57. A filter that passes signals that are above
b. R1 one ideal cutoff frequency and below a
c. R2 second cutoff frequency is called _____.
d. All of the above a. low-pass
b. high-pass
51. In a dc millivoltmeter, the amplifier c. bandpass
provides a meter with _____ input d. band reject
impedance and a scale factor dependent on
_____ value and accuracy. 58. The roll-off for a first-order high-pass filter
a. high, resistor is _____.
b. low, resistor a. –20 dB/decade
c. high, capacitor b. –6 dB/octave
d. None of the above c. either –20 dB/decade or –6
dB/octave
52. In a millivoltmeter, the diodes and the d. None of the above
capacitor are used in _____ parts of the
circuit. 59. The roll-off for a second-order high-pass
a. the dc filter is _____.
b. the ac a. either –20 dB per decade or –6 dB
c. both the dc and ac per octave
d. neither the dc nor ac b. either –40 dB per decade or –12 dB
per octave
53. In an instrumentation amplifier, the output c. either –60 dB per decade or –18 dB
voltage is based on the _____ times a scale per octave
factor. d. None of the above
a. summation of the two inputs
b. product of the two inputs 60. A bandpass filter uses _____ circuit.
c. difference between the two inputs a. a high-pass
d. None of the above b. a low-pass
c. a high-pass and a low-pass
54. A(n) _____ is not a component of a passive d. neither a low-pass nor a high-pass
filter.
a. op-amp
b. capacitor
c. inductor
d. resistor
30. Which of the following instruments allows 36. Power amplifiers primarily provide
more precise measurement of the harmonic sufficient power to an output load, typically
components of a distorted signal? from _____ to _____.
a. Digital multimeter a. a few kW, tens of kW
b. Spectrum analyzer b. 500 W, 1 kW
c. Oscilloscope c. 100 W, 500 W
d. Wave analyzer d. a few W, tens of W
31. What is the maximum temperature rating 37. The main feature(s) of a large-signal
for silicon power transistors? amplifier is (are) the _____.
a. 50º to 80º a. circuit's power efficiency
b. 100º to 110º b. maximum amount of power that
c. 150º to 200º the circuit is capable of handling
d. 250º to 300º c. impedance matching to the output
d. All of the above
45. In a class A transformer-coupled power
38. In _____ power amplifiers, the output signal amplifier, _____ winding resistance of the
varies for a full 360º of the cycle. transformer determine(s) the dc load line
a. class A for the circuit.
b. class B or AB a. the ac
c. class C b. the dc
d. class D c. both the ac and dc
d. neither the ac nor dc
39. In class B power amplifiers, the output
signal varies for _____ of the cycle. 46. The slope of the ac load line in the class A
a. 360º transformer-coupled transistor is _____.
b. 180º a. –1/RL (load resistor)
2
c. between 180º and 360º b. 1/(a RL)
2
d. less than 180º c. –1/(a RL)
d. 1/RL
40. _____ amplifiers have the highest overall
efficiency. 47. The amount of power dissipated by the
a. Class A transistor is the _____ of that drawn from
b. Class B or AB the dc supply (set by the bias point) and the
c. Class C amount delivered to the ac load.
d. Class D a. product
b. difference
41. Class D operation can achieve power c. average
efficiency of over _____.
a. 90% 48. A class A amplifier dissipates _____ power
b. 78.5% when the load is drawing maximum power
c. 50% from the circuit.
d. 25% a. the least
b. about the same
42. The beta of a power transistor is generally c. the most
_____. d. None of the above
a. more than 200
b. 100 to 200 49. In a class A transformer-coupled amplifier,
c. less than 100 the _____ the value of VCEmax and the _____
d. 0 the value of VCEmin, the _____ the efficiency
to (from) the theoretical limit of 50%.
43. A form of class A amplifier having maximum a. larger, smaller, farther
efficiency of _____ uses a transformer to b. larger, smaller, closer
couple the output signal to the load. c. smaller, larger, closer
a. 90% d. None of the above
b. 78.5%
c. 50% 50. In class B operation, the current drawn from
d. 25% a single power supply has the form of _____
rectified signal.
44. The reflected impedance seen from one a. a full-wave
side of the transformer to the other side is b. a half-wave
_____. c. both a full-wave and a half-wave
a. N1/N2 d. None of the above
2
b. (N1/N2)
1/3
c. (N1/N2) 51. The highest efficiency is obtained in class B
d. N1× N2 operation when the level of VL(p) is equal to
_____.
a. 0.25VCC
b. 0.50VCC
c. VCC 58. The _____ has the hottest temperature in a
d. 2VCC power transistor.
a. heat sink
52. _____ transistors can be used to build a b. case
class B amplifier. c. junction
a. npn and pnp d. None of the above
b. nMOS and pMOS
c. Both npn and pnp or nMOS and 59. A heat sink provides _____ thermal
pMOS resistance between case and air.
d. None of the above a. a high
b. a low
53. The complementary Darlington-connected c. the same
transistor for a class B amplifier provides d. None of the above
_____ output current and _____ output
resistance. 60. A _____ power amplifier is limited to use at
a. higher, higher one fixed frequency.
b. higher, lower a. class A
c. lower, lower b. class B or AB
d. lower, higher c. class C
d. class D
54. The fundamental component is typically
_____ any harmonic component.
a. larger than
b. the same as
c. smaller than
d. None of the above
18. What is the maximum conversion time of a 23. Calculate the frequency of this circuit.
clock rate of 1 MHz operating a 10-stage
counter in an ADC?
a. 1.024 s
a. 635 Hz a. Monostable multivibrator
b. 450 Hz b. Astable multivibrator
c. 228 Hz c. Bistable multivibrator
d. 128 Hz d. Free-running multivibrator
24. The 555 timer IC is made up of a 27. Which of the following best describes the
combination of linear comparators and output of a 566 voltage-controlled
digital flip-flops. oscillator?
a. True a. Square-wave
b. False b. Triangular-wave
c. Both square- and triangular-wave
25. Which application best describes this 555 d. None of the above
timer circuit?
28. Which of the following best describes
limitations for the 566 VCO?
a. 2 kΩ ≤ R1 ≤ 20 kΩ
+ +
b. 0.75 V ≤ Vc ≤
c. fo < 1 MHz
d. All of the above
a. Monostable multivibrator
b. Astable multivibrator
c. Bistable multivibrator
d. One-shot multivibrator
5. What is the ratio of the output impedance 11. Referring to this figure, calculate the
with series feedback to that without amplification gain with feedback for the
feedback? following circuit values: R1 = 80 kΩ, R2 = 20
a. 1 kΩ, Ro = 10 kΩ, RD = 61 kΩ, and gm = 4000
b. 1 + βA μS.
c. βA
d. A
a. –20.0
b. –21.5
c. –23.5
d. –25.5
a. –11.2
b. –8.57
c. –6.75
d. –3.25
21. Which of the following is required for 25. In the IC phase-shift oscillator, what should
oscillation? the ratio of feedback resistor Rf to R1 be?
a. βA > 1 a. Zero
b. The phase shift around the b. Greater than –29
feedback network must be 180º. c. Less than 29
c. Both βA > 1 and the phase shift d. Any value
around the feedback network must
be 180º. 26. This circuit is a _____ oscillator.
d. None of the above
24. Given gm = 5000 µS, rd = 40 kΩ, R = 10 kΩ, 27. For a phase-shift oscillator, the gain of the
and A = 35. Determine the value of RD for amplifier stage must be greater than _____.
oscillator operation at 1 kHz. a. 19
b. 29
c. 30
d. 1
a. 1560.34 Hz
b. 3120.70 Hz
c. 4681.07 Hz
d. 6241.37 Hz
a. phase-shift
b. Wien bridge
30. Calculate the resonant frequency of this
c. Colpitts
Wien bridge oscillator if R1 = 25 kΩ, R2 = 40
d. Hartley
kΩ, C1 = 0.001 µF, and C2 = 0.002 µF.
33. Which of the following oscillators is (are)
tuned oscillators?
a. Colpitts
b. Hartley
c. Crystal
d. All of the above
a. 1560.3 Hz
b. 1779.4 Hz
c. 3120.7 Hz
d. 3558.8 Hz
42. A feedback amplifier has a _____ upper 3- 49. In the phase-shift oscillator, the operating
dB frequency and a _____ lower 3-dB frequency is determined by _____.
frequency compared to an amplifier a. resistance only
without feedback. b. capacitance only
a. smaller, higher c. LC combinations
d. RC combinations
a. inductors, capacitor
b. capacitors, inductor
c. capacitors, resistor
d. inductors, resistor
51. In the Colpitts oscillator, the frequency is 55. Since the crystal losses represented by R are
determined by _____ . small, the equivalent crystal Q (quality
factor) is _____.
a. resistance only
a. very low
b. inductance only
c. capacitance only b. low
d. both inductance and a capacitance c. medium
d. high
52. In the Colpitts oscillator, the elements
X1 and X2 are _____ and X3 is a(n) _____. 56. The series-resonant impedance of a crystal
oscillator is _____.
a. very low
b. low
c. medium
d. very high
5. Calculate the ripple voltage of a full-wave 11. If a peak rectified voltage for the full-wave
rectifier with a 75-µF filter capacitor filter circuit is 40 V, calculate the filter dc
connected to a load drawing 40 mA. voltage if C = 75 µF and load current is 40
a. 1.20 V mA.
b. 1.28 V a. 27.9 V
c. 1.32 V b. 32.12 V
d. 1.41 V c. 37.78 V
d. 40 V
6. What is the ratio of the period of the output
voltage to the period of the input voltage in 12. Calculate the ripple of a capacitor filter for a
a full-wave rectifier? peak rectified voltage of 40 V, a capacitor
a. 0 value C = 75 µF, and a load current of 40
b. 0.5 mA.
c. 1 a. 3.2%
d. 2 b. 3.59%
c. 4.03%
d. 4.59%
13. What is the ratio of the peak ripple voltage 19. For a full-wave rectifier with ac ripple at 120
level to its rms voltage level? Hz, the impedance of a capacitor can be
a. √3 calculated using XC = _____.
b. √2 a. 0.707 ÷ C
c. √3/2 b. 1.414 ÷ C
d. √2/2 c. 1.3 ÷ C
d. 0.785 ÷ C
14. The larger the value of the capacitor, the
smaller the peak current drawn through the 20. In a simple series regulator circuit, which of
rectifying diodes. the following components is the controlling
a. True element?
b. False a. Load resistor
b. Zener diode
15. What is the purpose of an additional RC c. Transistor Q1
filter section in a power supply circuit? d. None of the above
a. Increase the dc voltage component
b. Increase the ac voltage component 21. In this improved series regulator circuit,
c. Decrease the ac voltage which of the following components is the
component sampling circuit?
d. None of the above
a. True a. Op-amp
b. False b. Transistor Q1
c. R1 and R2 resistors
d. Zener diode d. None of the above
23. What regulated output voltage is provided 28. What is the typical dropout voltage for the
for the following circuit elements: R1 = 15 7812 fixed positive voltage regulator?
kΩ, R2 = 35 kΩ, and VZ = 11.2 V? a. 4 mV
b. 100 mV
c. 1.5 V
d. 2 V
37. The output resulting from a rectifier is a(n) 44. In a half-wave rectifier, the dc voltage level
_____. is _____ the ripple voltage level.
a. ac voltage a. smaller than
b. pure dc voltage b. the same as
c. pulsating dc voltage c. larger than
d. None of the above d. None of the above
38. The _____ the ac variation with respect to 45. In a full-wave rectifier, the dc voltage level
the dc level, the _____ the filter circuit's is _____ the ripple voltage level.
operation. a. smaller than
a. smaller, better b. the same as
b. larger, better c. larger than
c. smaller, worse d. None of the above
d. None of the above
46. In a full-wave rectifier, if no load were
39. A dc voltmeter reads the _____ while connected across the capacitor, the output
measuring a pulsating dc voltage. voltage would ideally be a(n) _____.
a. ac component of the signal a. ac voltage
b. average of the signal b. constant dc voltage
c. peak of the pulsating signal c. pulsating dc voltage
d. None of the above d. ramp voltage
40. The filter output voltage of a power supply 47. The output of a loaded power supply is
_____ when load current is drawn from the _____ that of the unloaded.
supply. a. the same as
a. remains the same b. larger than
b. is increased c. smaller than
c. is reduced d. None of the above
d. None of the above
48. The charging and discharging of the
41. The _____ the voltage regulation, the _____ capacitor filter take _____ of the period of
the operation of the voltage supply circuit. the input voltage.
a. smaller, better a. 0.25
b. larger, better b. 0.5
c. smaller, worse c. 0.75
d. None of the above d. 1
42. A full-wave rectified signal has _____ dc 49. The frequency of the output voltage of a
component and _____ ripple than (as) the full-wave rectifier is _____ the frequency of
half-wave rectified voltage. its input voltage.
a. a larger, more a. the same as
b. a smaller, less b. twice
c. the same, less c. one-half
d. a larger, less d. one-third
a. reference source
50. The ripple voltage Vr is a result of the b. comparator amplifier
_____. c. control device and overload
a. conduction of the diode(s) protection
b. transformer windings d. All of the above
c. charging and discharging of the
capacitor 57. IC units provide regulation of _____.
d. load resistor a. a fixed positive voltage
b. a fixed negative voltage
51. The _____ values of capacitor filter provide c. an adjustably set voltage
_____ ripple and _____ average voltage. d. All of the above
a. larger, more, higher
b. smaller, less, lower 58. The specification sheet for the 7812 fixed
c. smaller, more, higher positive voltage regulator shows that the
d. larger, less, higher output voltage could be as low as _____ or
as high as _____.
52. The _____ the diode conduction time, the a. 11.5 V, 12.5 V
_____ the amount of the charging current b. 11.2 V, 12.2 V
through the capacitor filter. c. 11 V, 13 V
a. shorter, larger d. 8 V, 15 V
b. shorter, smaller
c. longer, larger 59. The series 7900 ICs are _____.
d. None of the above a. positive voltage regulators
b. negative voltage regulators
53. In a current-limiting circuit, _____ c. both positive and negative voltage
provide(s) the limiting of the maximum load regulators
current. d. adjustable-set voltage regulators
a. the Zener diode
b. the short-circuit resistor Rsc 60. The _____ is (are) an adjustable voltage
c. the transistor Q1 regulator.
d. both the short-circuit resistor a. series 7800 ICs
Rsc and transistor Q2 b. series 7900 ICs
c. LM317
54. In a foldback configuration, limiting the d. None of the above
current reduces _____, protecting the load
from overcurrent as well as protecting the
regulator.
a. the output voltage
b. the output current
c. both the output voltage and
output current
d. None of the above
32. Which of the following materials is (are) 39. The barrier at the junction for a Schottky
used in the manufacturing of thermistors? diode is _____ that of the p-n junction
a. Ge device in both the forward- and reverse-
b. Si bias regions.
c. A mixture of oxides of cobalt, a. the same as
nickel, strontium, or manganese b. more than
d. All of the above c. less than
d. None of the above
33. What is the resistance of thermistors at
room temperature (20ºC)? 40. A Schottky diode has _____ level of current
a. 5 kΩ at the same applied bias compared to that
b. 1 kΩ of the p-n junction at both the forward- and
c. 100 Ω reverse-bias regions.
d. 1 Ω a. a lower
b. a higher
34. What is the resistance of thermistors at c. the same
boiling temperature (100ºC)? d. None of the above
a. 5 kΩ
b. 1 kΩ 41. The PIV of Schottky diodes is usually _____
c. 100 Ω that of a comparable p-n junction unit.
d. 1 Ω a. 1/2
b. 1/3 48. In the negative-resistance region of tunnel
c. 1/4 diodes, as the terminal voltage increases,
d. 1/5 the diode current _____.
a. remains the same
42. Varactor diodes are _____. b. decreases
a. semiconductor devices c. increases
b. voltage-dependent d. is undefined
c. variable capacitors
d. All of the above 49. The p-n junction of a tunnel diode is doped
at a level from _____ to _____ times that of
43. In varactor diodes, as the reverse-bias a typical semiconductor diode.
potential increases, the width of the a. one, several
depletion region _____, which in turn _____ b. several, ten
the transition capacitance. c. more than ten, several hundred
a. increases, increases d. one hundred, several thousand
b. decreases, reduces
c. increases, reduces 50. The negative-resistance region of tunnel
d. decreases, increases diodes can be used in the design of _____.
a. oscillators
44. The normal range of reverse-bias voltage b. switching networks
VR for varactor diodes is limited to about c. pulse generators
_____. d. All of the above
a. 15 V
b. 20 V 51. The wavelength is usually measured in
c. 25 V _____.
d. 40 V a. angstrom units
b. micrometers
45. In the reverse-bias region of varactor c. both angstrom units and
diodes, the resistance RR in parallel with the micrometers
varying capacitor is _____ and the series d. None of the above
resistance RS is _____.
a. very large, very small 52. In photodiodes, an increase in light intensity
b. very large, very large _____ the reverse current.
c. very small, very large a. increases
d. very small, very small b. decreases
c. maintains
46. The majority of power diodes are d. None of the above
constructed using silicon because of its
higher _____ rating(s). 53. Ge has a _____ dark current and a _____
a. current level of reverse current than silicon.
b. temperature a. higher, lower
c. PIV b. higher, higher
d. All of the above c. lower, higher
d. lower, lower
47. The current capability of power diodes can
be increased by placing two or more of the 54. The response time for cadmium selenide
diodes in _____, and the PIV rating can be (CdSe) is _____.
increased by stacking the diodes in _____. a. 100 ms
a. parallel, parallel b. 50 ms
b. series, parallel c. 25 ms
c. parallel, series d. 10 ms
d. series, series
55. A decrease in illumination _____ the
resistance Rλ of a photoconductive cell.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. maintains
d. None of the above
a. SCR
b. SCS
c. GTO
d. DIAC
20. An advantage of the SCR over the SCS is the 27. Which of the following devices does not
reduced turn-off time. have a cathode terminal?
a. True a. SCR
b. False b. SCS
c. Triac
d. Shockley diode 33. How many terminals does a programmable
unijunction transistor (PUT) have?
28. Today, the SCR is more widely used than a. 4
the TRIAC. b. 3
a. True c. 2
b. False d. 1
29. Which of the following devices has a 34. Determine RB1 for a silicon PUT if it is
negative-resistance region in its determined that h = 0.84, VP = 11.2 V, and
characteristics curve? RB2 = 5 kΩ.
a. SCR a. 12.65 kΩ
b. SCS b. 16.25 kΩ
c. Unijunction transistor c. 20.00 kΩ
d. Phototransistor d. 26.25 kΩ
30. What is the range of the variable resistor in 35. The two-layer semiconductor diode has led
the equivalent circuit of a unijunction to _____layer devices.
transistor? a. three-
a. 50 Ω to 5 kΩ b. four-
b. 6 kΩ to 10 kΩ c. five-
c. 5 Ω to 50 Ω d. All of the above
d. 1 Ω to 5 Ω
36. The four-layer devices with a control
31. This is an example of a high-isolation _____ mechanism are commonly referred to as
gate. _____.
a. thyristors
b. transistors
c. diodes
d. None of the above