Q.no 1. Cutting Fluids Mostly Used For Machining Steel Is

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testNo=1230&code=1052000&showTest=319&actForm=edit&set=1

Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Cutting fluids mostly used for machining steel is…….

A : Distilled Water

B : Soluble oil

C : Hydraulic oil

D : Heavy oil

Q.no 2. The tool material best suited for machining of 0.2% Carbon steel at high speed (100-
300 m/min.) is

A : Co-WC

B : Diamond

C : HSS

D : CBN

Q.no 3. Which of the following is a not a surface finishing process?

A : Honing

B : Buffing
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C : Lapping

D : Turning

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not element of Jigs and fixtures

A : tool guiding frame and bushes

B : base and body or frame

C : cutter

D : indexing plates

Q.no 5. The jigs and fixtures reduces

A : unskilled labor

B : pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out, etc.

C : manual
handling operations

D : set-up time

Q.no 6. Fixtures are used

A : for holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping operations

B : for holding the work in milling, grinding, planing or turning operations

C : to check the
accuracy
of workpiece

D : only guiding the tool

Q.no 7. The device which is used to remove workpiece from close-fitting locators, after the
workpiece has been removed is called as

A : remover

B : escaper

C : ejector

D : blocker

Q.no 8. The following is(are) the advantage(s) of cast jigs or fixtures

A : No heat treatments are required for the cast jigs and fixtures

B : If cast jigs or fixture drops down, they don’t get misaligned or de-shaped, although it may break

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C : It prevents the
occurrence
of tool chatter
in milling

D : All of the above

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a locating device?

A : nesting

B : flathead

C : pins

D : strap

Q.no 10. Which of the following code is used to specify Spindle start forward / Clockwise
rotation in milling and drilling?

A : M12

B : M01

C : M15

D : M03

Q.no 11. The time (in minutes) for a drilling a hole is given by t= (depth of hole+
h)/Feed×RPM, where h is

A : length of the drill

B : drill diameter

C : flute length of the drill

D : cone height of the drill

Q.no 12. The operation which is not performed on a shaper machine is

A : machining horizontal surface

B : machining vertical surface

C : machining angular surface

D : Turning

Q.no 13. Twist drills are made of

A : High speed steel

B : Carbon steel

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C : Stainless steel

D : Either (1) or (2)

Q.no 14. End of program (Reset)

A : M33

B : M31

C : M32

D : M30

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not an application of EBM process?

A : Machining

B : Welding

C : Engraving

D : Surface Hardening

Q.no 16. Fixtures are not used in

A : Milling

B : Shaping

C : Turning

D : drilling

Q.no 17. In CNC programing, block of Information G indicates

A : Sequence command

B : Preparatory commandr

C : Miscellaneous command

D : Machine type

Q.no 18. The material which on machining produces chips with built
up edge is

A : Brittle material

B : Tough material

C : Hard material

D : Ductile material

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Q.no 19. Which of the following process is based on Faradays law of Electrolysis?

A : Electrochemical Machining

B : Abrasive Jet Machining

C : Ultrasonic Machining

D : Laser Beam Machining

Q.no 20. Jigs and fixtures are

A : machining tools

B : precision tools

C : both

D : none of the above

Q.no 21. The cutting speed for counter-boring should be __________ that of drilling operation

A : equal to

B : less than

C : greater than

D : Not have any relation based on operation

Q.no 22. Which of the following code is used to specify Peck-Drilling Cycle in milling and
drilling?

A : G73

B : G76

C : G87

D : G83

Q.no 23. In drilling softer materials, the cutting speed is __________ as compared to harder
materials

A : same

B : low

C : high

D : Very low

Q.no 24. The angle between side cutting edge and end cutting edge is called as

A : approach angle
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B : nose angle

C : side relief angle

D : end relief angle

Q.no 25. Which of the following code is used to specify feed per revolution in milling and
drilling?

A : G69

B : G10

C : G00

D : G95

Q.no 26. In which type of locator having depression /recess same as the shape of the job ?

A : Pin locator

B : Nesting locator

C : Solid surface

D : Adjustable locator

Q.no 27. A fixture does not

A : Holds the workpiece

B : Locate the workpiece

C : Guide the tool

D : All of the above

Q.no 28. Generally adjustable locators used to locate which surface ?

A : grinding

B : Rough

C : machined

D : superfinished

Q.no 29. Part-programming mistakes can be avoided in

A : NC (Numerical Control) machine tool

B : CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool

C : Both a. and b

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D : Conventional machining

Q.no 30. Which of the following operation, we can’t perform on drilling machine?

A : reaming

B : tapping

C : lapping

D : Turning

Q.no 31. The jigs and fixtures can be constructed through

A : Casting

B : Fabrication

C : Welding

D : All of the above

Q.no 32. The device, fed to the control unit of NC machine tool which sends the position
command signals to sideway transmission elements of the machine, is called as

A : controller

B : tape

C : feedback unit

D : Leadscrew

Q.no 33. A device, in which a component is held and located for a specific operation and
bushes are integrated that guide the tool, is called as

A : fixture

B : jig

C : clamps

D : none of the above

Q.no 34. The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one plane

A : Template jig

B : Box type jig

C : indexing jig

D : Open type jig

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Q.no 35. Larger the shear plane length, power required for cutting the same
material will be

A : Larger

B : smaller

C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 36. Use of tail stock in cylindrical grinding machine is___________

A : To drive the
work piece

B : To give feed to
the wheel head

C : Speed of
grinding wheel

D : To support the
other end of the
work piece

Q.no 37. Which of the following specified grinding wheel will have
Silicon carbide abrasive?

A : Z 46 K 5 B 17

B : C 600 K 5 B 17

C : A 8 K 5 B 17

D : A 80 K 5 B 17

Q.no 38. Carbide and ceramic tips are used in ________

A : slab mill

B : face mill

C : fly mill

D : Gang Mill

Q.no 39. A point to point control system is suitable only for one of the following applications

A : Milling profile

B : Turning

C : Drilling

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D : Grinding

Q.no 40. Cemented carbide tool of straight Co-WC is not suitable for steel cutting, because

A : Steel has high hardness

B : Cutting of steel
generates very
high temperature

C : Steel contains Fe
which reacts with
C and promote
diffusive wear

D : Steel contains
Fe which reacts
with Co and
promote
abrasive wear

Q.no 41. The process of improving the cutting action of the grinding
wheel is called

A : Truing

B : Dressing

C : Facing

D : Clearing

Q.no 42. This type of jig is employed on multi-spindle machines

A : Index jig

B : Universal jig

C : Open type jig

D : Multi-station jig

Q.no 43. Feed control system is responsible for which action in ECM?

A : Giving feed to tool

B : Electrolyte supply

C : Power supply

D : Workpiece holding

Q.no 44. Which of the following specified grinding wheel will have
Aluminum oxide abrasive?

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A : Z 46 K 5 B 17

B : C 600 K 5 B 17

C : C 8 K 5 B 17

D : A 80 K 5 B 17

Q.no 45. How is material removed in Electro discharge machining?

A : Melt and evaporate

B : Corrode and break

C : Mechanical erosion takes place

D : Abrassive action

Q.no 46. The angle formed by the leading edge of the land with a plane having the axis of the
drill, is called

A : helix or rake angle

B : point angle

C : chisel edge angle

D : lip clearance angle

Q.no 47. What is the material removal mechanism of Laser beam machining process?

A : Melt and evaporate

B : Electro chemical corrosion

C : Mechanical erosion of materials

D : Electro chemical dissolution

Q.no 48. The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting
forces

A : Clamping device

B : Locating device

C : fixing devices

D : Guiding device

Q.no 49. Any number of equal divisions can be obtained on milling machine by

A : Direct Indexing

B : Simple Indexing
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C : Compound Indexing

D : Differential Indexing

Q.no 50. In NC (Numerical Control) machine tool, the position feedback package is connected
between

A : control unit and programmer

B : programmer and machine tool

C : control unit and machine tool

D : programmer and process planning

Q.no 51. The following type of jig is used to drill a series of equidistant hole along a circle

A : Plate type jig

B : Index jig

C : Open type jig

D : Pot type jig

Q.no 52. The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one plane

A : Template jig

B : Plate type jig

C : Box type jig

D : Open type jig

Q.no 53. As the abrasive flow rate increases, what happens to the volumetric removal rate in
AJM?

A : Increases

B : Decreases

C : Increase and then decrease

D : Decrease and then increase

Q.no 54. Which are the suitable hole circles from index plate 2 to index 69 divisions by
compound indexing

A : 21 and 23

B : 23 and 27

C : 23 and 29

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D : 23 and 31

Q.no 55. In a drilling operation using a twist drill, the lip angle is 120 degree (standard), the
spindle speed is 300 rpm, the feed is 0.2 mm/rev and the drill diameter is 10 mm,calculate
machining time to drill a hole of 30 mm long ?

A : 0.88 min

B : 0.54 min

C : 1.2 min

D : 3 min

Q.no 56. In an orthogonal machine test on a steel, rake angle 20 degrees, uncut chip thickness
is 0.1 mm,
cut chip thickness is 0.25 mm calculate shear angle approximately equals to

A : 23 Degrees

B : 33 Degrees

C : 43 Degrees

D : 13 Degrees

Q.no 57. The device which place the workpiece in the same position, in jig and fixture, cycle
after cycle is called as

A : placing device

B : locating device

C : Guiding device

D : fixing device

Q.no 58. In CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40….,
G91 refer to

A : Absolute dimension

B : Incremental dimension

C : Rapid Feed

D : Linear interpolation

Q.no 59. In Abrasive jet machining, work piece material of removed by which of the following
means?

A : Vaporization

B : Electro plating

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C : Mechanical abrasion

D : Corrosion

Q.no 60. A grinding wheel is said to be of _________ if it holds the


abrasive grains more securely

A : Soft grade

B : Medium grade

C : Hard grade

D : very soft grade

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a


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Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

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Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The device which is used to remove workpiece from close-fitting locators, after the
workpiece has been removed is called as

A : remover

B : escaper

C : ejector

D : blocker

Q.no 2. The operation of machining several surfaces of a workpiece simultaneously is called

A : profile milling

B : gang milling

C : saw milling

D : helical milling

Q.no 3. Which type of pin used when tolerances are not too tight for reducing cost and time or
production.?

A : Doweled pin

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B : V pin

C : Nesting

D : None of this

Q.no 4. Jigs are not used in

A : Drilling

B : Milling

C : Reaming

D : Tapping

Q.no 5. The basic purposes of developing and using suitable jigs and fixtures are

A : to eliminate marking, positioning, alignments etc.

B : to eliminate maching process

C : to check the accuracy of workpiece

D : to resharpem the cutting tool

Q.no 6. When the metal is removed by erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges
between the tool and work, the process is known as

A : Electrochemical machining

B : Electro-discharge machining

C : Ultrasonic machining

D : Plasma Machining

Q.no 7. Return to reference position command is

A : G28

B : G40

C : G41

D : G42

Q.no 8. The main purpose of a boring operation, as compared to drilling, is to

A : Drill a hole

B : Finish the drilled hole

C : Correct the hole

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D : Enlarge the existing hole

Q.no 9. Jigs and Fixtures are used for

A : Mass production

B : Identical parts production

C : both

D : Job Production

Q.no 10. Twist drills are made of

A : High speed steel

B : Carbon steel

C : Stainless steel

D : Either (1) or (2)

Q.no 11. Rough grinding process is commonly used for

A : removing
excess material
from casting

B : cutting materials
that are too
hard to be
machined by
other
conventional tools

C : producing surfaces
on parts to higher
dimensional accuracy

D : obtaining
finer finish

Q.no 12. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole is known as

A : counter-sinking

B : counter-boring

C : trepanning

D : spot facing

Q.no 13. In which of the following machine, the work is usually rotated while the drill is fed
into work

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A : Sensitive drilling machine

B : Radial drilling machine

C : Gang drilling machine

D : Deep hole drilling machine

Q.no 14. ______ is equal to half the diameter of the drill used.

A : feed

B : depth of cut

C : machining time

D : Spndle Speed

Q.no 15. What is broaching?

A : A machining process used for increasing the size of the existing hole

B : A machining process used for grinding hardened steel

C : A machining process used for making intricate holes accurately

D : A machining process for removal of a layer of material of desired width and depth

Q.no 16. With the use of Jigs and fixture

A : decreases electricity charges

B : less skills of labour required

C : increases electricity charges

D : high skills of labour required

Q.no 17. Which of the following code is used to cancel offset compensation for cutter radius?

A : G40

B : G02

C : G42

D : G00

Q.no 18. The method of grinding used to produce internal cylindrical


holes and tapers, is

A : Internal cylindrical grinding

B : Form grinding

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C : External cylindrical grinding

D : Surface grinding

Q.no 19. As the cutting speed increases, the tool cutting forces

A : decreases

B : remain constant

C : increases

D : first increases and then decreases

Q.no 20. With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost of production

A : Increases

B : Decreases

C : Remains same

D : Jigs are not used in any production process

Q.no 21. Which of the following code is used in programming in absolute coordinates?

A : G90

B : G32

C : G92

D : G01

Q.no 22. Surface grinding is done to produce

A : tapered surface

B : flat surface

C : internal cylindrical
holes

D : Threaded
surfaces

Q.no 23. Which of the following code will give circular interpolation in Counterclockwise
direction?

A : G00

B : G56

C : G69

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D : G03

Q.no 24. Reflectivity of the materials depends on which of the following factors in LBM?

A : Wave length

B : Properties of material

C : Surface finish

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Chip breakers are used to

A : Increase tool life

B : Remove chips from bed

C : Break the chips into short segments

D : To minimize heat generation

Q.no 26. This type of jig is employed on multi-spindle machines

A : Index jig

B : Universal jig

C : Open type jig

D : Multi-station jig

Q.no 27. Which type of mechanism is used in shaper machine?

A : Indexing mechanism

B : Four-bar chain mechanism

C : Quick return mechanism

D : Crank and Slider Mechanism

Q.no 28. The usual value of the helix angle of a drill is

A : 20°

B : 30°

C : 45°

D : 60°

Q.no 29. The jigs and fixtures can be constructed through

A : Casting
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B : Fabrication

C : Welding

D : All of the above

Q.no 30. Which of the following process has highest rate of metal removal

A : Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)

B : Electro-Chemical Machining (ECM)

C : Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

D : Laser Beam Machining (LBM)

Q.no 31. A twist drill is specified by its

A : Shank, material and diameter

B : Shank, lip angle and size of flute

C : Material, length of body and helix angle

D : Diameter only

Q.no 32. Number of the degree of freedom of a workpiece in space is equal to

A : 10

B : 12

C : 16

D : 20

Q.no 33. Which of the following represents the correct symbol of


vertified bond in a specification of grinding wheel?

A:V

B:R

C:B

D:S

Q.no 34. With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost of production

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Remains same

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D : not affected

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not correct about fixture?

A : It is used to hold the work

B : It is used to position the work the work

C : It does not guide cutting tool.

D : It assures high accuracy of parts

Q.no 36. The materials are added to cutting tools to increase their properties.
Match the following
1. Tungsten a. Hardness
2. Carbon b. Hot hardness
3. Vanadium c. Wear resistance

A : 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

B : 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

C : 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

D : 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

Q.no 37. Which type of locator is used to locate job by its internal surface/diameter ?

A : Solid locators

B : Internal locator

C : Adjustable
locators

D : Equalizing locators

Q.no 38. A grinding ratio of 200 implies that the

A : grinding wheel wears 200 times the volume of the material removed

B : grinding wheel wears 0.005 times the volume of the material removed

C : aspect ratio of abrasive particles used in the grinding wheel is 200

D : ratio of volume
of abrasive particle to that of grinding wheel is 200

Q.no 39. Which type of locator generally used to locate cylindrical job ?

A : V- locator

B : Nesting locator

C : Pin locator
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D : Internal locator

Q.no 40. The point angle of a drill, for drilling stainless steel, is

A : 90°

B : 118°

C : 135°

D : 150°

Q.no 41. The device, fed to the control unit of NC machine tool which sends the position
command signals to sideway transmission elements of the machine, is called as

A : controller

B : tape

C : feedback unit

D : Leadscrew

Q.no 42. Lapping is an operation of__________

A : Making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole

B : Smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole

C : Sizing and finishing a small diameter hole

D : Producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool

Q.no 43. Consider the following actions:


1. Mechanical abrasion
2. Diffusion
3. Plastic deformation
4. Oxidation
Which of the above are the causes of tool wear?

A:2&3

B:1&2

C : 1, 2 & 4

D:1&3

Q.no 44. NC contouring is example of

A : Continuous path positioning

B : Point-to-point positioning

C : Absolute positionng
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D : Incremental positioning

Q.no 45. Feed control system is responsible for which action in ECM?

A : Giving feed to tool

B : Electrolyte supply

C : Power supply

D : Workpiece holding

Q.no 46. Which of the following operation, we can’t perform on drilling machine?

A : reaming

B : tapping

C : lapping

D : Turning

Q.no 47. Which of the following is basically a polishing operation?

A : Soft grinding

B : Lapping

C : Honing

D : Buffing

Q.no 48. Which of the following statements about programming of NC machine is correct?

A : Programming is only possible on cebtral server

B : Programming can be entered on control panel and can be read from tape

C : Modification of the programme on the control panel is not possible

D : Entering the programme is only possible directly on the control panel

Q.no 49. Which of the following process have the lowest metal
removal rate?

A : Drilling

B : Reaming

C : Milling

D : Honing

Q.no 50. A fixture does not

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A : Holds the workpiece

B : Locate the workpiece

C : Guide the tool

D : All of the above

Q.no 51. Calculate the cutting speed of drilling operation when diameter of drill is 10 mm and
rotational speed of drill is 200 r.p.m.

A : 6.283 m/min

B : 3.142 m/min

C : 8.362 m/min

D : 10.216 m/min

Q.no 52. In Abrasive jet machining, what may be the size of the abrasive grains used?

A : 10 – 40 μm

B : 50 – 100 μm

C : 100 – 150 μm

D : 200 – 300 μm

Q.no 53. In CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40….,
G02 refer to

A : Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction

B : Circular interpolation in clockwise direction

C : Linear interpolation

D : Rapid feed

Q.no 54. The following material is commonly used for making locating and clamping devices

A : High carbon steel

B : Low carbon steel

C : High speed steel

D : Die steel

Q.no 55. The following jig can be used for several different work pieces and operations

A : Index jig

B : Template jig
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C : Universal jig

D : Multi-station jig

Q.no 56. Glazing in grinding wheels takes place when the

A : Wheel is too hard or wheel revolves at a very high speed

B : Wheel is too soft or wheel revolves at a very slow speed

C : Wheel is too hard and wheel revolves at very slow speed

D : Wheel is too soft and wheel revolves at a very high speed

Q.no 57. Which are the suitable hole circles from index plate 2 to index 69 divisions by
compound indexing

A : 21 and 23

B : 23 and 27

C : 23 and 29

D : 23 and 31

Q.no 58. In Abrasive jet machining, work piece material of removed by which of the following
means?

A : Vaporization

B : Electro plating

C : Mechanical abrasion

D : Corrosion

Q.no 59. Restricts the movement a cylinder placed in a V- block for 3-2-1 principle ?

A : 1 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

B : 2 (Translational) 1 (Rotary)

C : 2 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

D : 1 (Translational) 3 (Rotary)

Q.no 60. In CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40….,
G91 refer to

A : Absolute dimension

B : Incremental dimension

C : Rapid Feed

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D : Linear interpolation

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c


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Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

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Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?

A : Grinding

B : Milling

C : Turning

D : Electro chemical machining

Q.no 2. In oblique cutting chips are in form of

A : Long curl

B : Flat spiral

C : Brittle

D : Short & thick

Q.no 3. Fixtures are not used in

A : Milling

B : Shaping

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C : Turning

D : drilling

Q.no 4. Which of the following code is used to specify Spindle start forward / Clockwise
rotation in milling and drilling?

A : M12

B : M01

C : M15

D : M03

Q.no 5. In metal cutting operation, maximum heat is generated in

A : the shear zone

B : the chip-tool interface zone

C : the tool-work interface zone

D : machined surface

Q.no 6. The cutting speed for counter-boring should be __________ that of drilling operation

A : equal to

B : less than

C : greater than

D : Not have any relation based on operation

Q.no 7. The angle between side cutting edge and end cutting edge is called as

A : approach angle

B : nose angle

C : side relief angle

D : end relief angle

Q.no 8. The jigs and fixtures reduces

A : unskilled labor

B : pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out, etc.

C : manual
handling operations

D : set-up time
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Q.no 9. In case of tool changer for CNC machines ATC means

A : Anti Tool changer

B : Automatic Tool Changer

C : Automatic Turret Changer

D : Automatic Tool Command

Q.no 10. Surface grinding is done to produce

A : tapered surface

B : flat surface

C : internal cylindrical
holes

D : Threaded
surfaces

Q.no 11. Which of the following operation is performed to provide


recess for bolt heads or nuts?

A : Counterboring

B : Spot Facing

C : Tapping

D : Countersinking

Q.no 12. ______ is equal to half the diameter of the drill used.

A : feed

B : depth of cut

C : machining time

D : Spndle Speed

Q.no 13. In an orthogonal cutting, the depth of cut is halved and the
feed rate is double. If the chip thickness ratio is unaffected
with the changed cutting conditions, the actual chip thickness
will be

A : halved

B : doubled

C : independent

D : unchanged
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Q.no 14. The relation between tool life (T) and cutting speed (V) is
VTn = Constant. In this relation, the value of n depends upon

A : Work material

B : Tool material

C : Type of chip produced

D : Working conditions

Q.no 15. Which of the following does not come under the main components of ECM?

A : Feed control system

B : Work piece holding devices

C : Electrolyte supply system

D : Dielectric flushing

Q.no 16. Which of the following code is used to specify Peck-Drilling Cycle in milling and
drilling?

A : G73

B : G76

C : G87

D : G83

Q.no 17. In Electron beam machining, workpiece is held in

A : vacuum chamber

B : dielectric medium

C : electrolyte

D : air

Q.no 18. When cutting face of tool is 90° to the line


of action of tool then it is known as

A : Oblique cutting

B : Orthogonal cutting

C : face cutting

D : inverse cutting

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not element of Jigs and fixtures

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A : tool guiding frame and bushes

B : base and body or frame

C : cutter

D : indexing plates

Q.no 20. What is broaching?

A : A machining process used for increasing the size of the existing hole

B : A machining process used for grinding hardened steel

C : A machining process used for making intricate holes accurately

D : A machining process for removal of a layer of material of desired width and depth

Q.no 21. The code for Incremental programming is

A : G90

B : G91

C : M 90

D : M 91

Q.no 22. Which of the following code is used in programming in absolute coordinates?

A : G90

B : G32

C : G92

D : G01

Q.no 23. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during
machining of

A : brittle metals

B : ductile metals

C : non metals

D : hard metals

Q.no 24. Work material tends to adhere or cold weld with the cutting edge in case of

A : Continuous chips

B : Discontinuous chips

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C : Segmented chips

D : Continuous chips with built up edges

Q.no 25. In metal cutting operations, secondary deformation occurs at

A : Chip-tool interface

B : Below tool tip

C : In uncut chip away from tool tip

D : All of the above

Q.no 26. Which of the following is a surface finishing operation?

A : Drilling

B : Lapping

C : Milling

D : Turning

Q.no 27. Which of the following is basically a polishing operation?

A : Soft grinding

B : Lapping

C : Honing

D : Buffing

Q.no 28. The tungsten filament cathode is heated to what temperatures in EBM?

A : 1000 to 1500 ᵒC

B : 1500 to 2000 ᵒC

C : 2500 to 3000 ᵒC

D : 3500 to 5000 ᵒC

Q.no 29. How is material removed in Electro discharge machining?

A : Melt and evaporate

B : Corrode and break

C : Mechanical erosion takes place

D : Abrassive action

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Q.no 30. It is desired to perform the operations like drilling, reaming, counter-boring etc. on a
work piece. Which of the following machine will be used?

A : Sensitive drilling machine

B : Radial drilling machine

C : Gang drilling machine

D : Multiple spindle drilling machine

Q.no 31. A twist drill is specified by its

A : Shank, material and diameter

B : Shank, lip angle and size of flute

C : Material, length of body and helix angle

D : Diameter only

Q.no 32. Which of the following method is not used for holding tool in drilling machine?

A : by a sleeve

B : by chucks

C : by a socket

D : By tool holder

Q.no 33. In which of the following methods, an electrolyte is used?

A : Ultrasonic Machining

B : Electrochemical Machining

C : Abrasive Jet Machining

D : Laser Beam Machining

Q.no 34. Larger the rake angle, power requirement for cutting the same material is

A : Larger

B : smaller

C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 35. In direct indexing, the operation may be performed in______

A : Plain dividing head

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B : universal dividing head

C : both plain and universal dividing head

D : Compound Dividing head

Q.no 36. The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one plane

A : Template jig

B : Box type jig

C : indexing jig

D : Open type jig

Q.no 37. The correct sequence of the following parameters in order of their maximum to
minimum influence on tool life is

A : Feed rate, depth of cut, cutting speed

B : Depth of cut, cutting speed, feed rate

C : Cutting speed, feed rate, depth of cut

D : Feed rate, cutting speed, depth of cut

Q.no 38. A grinding ratio of 200 implies that the

A : grinding wheel wears 200 times the volume of the material removed

B : grinding wheel wears 0.005 times the volume of the material removed

C : aspect ratio of abrasive particles used in the grinding wheel is 200

D : ratio of volume
of abrasive particle to that of grinding wheel is 200

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?

A : Higher flexibility

B : Improved quality

C : Reduced scrap rate

D : Improved strength of the components

Q.no 40. Which of the following represents the correct symbol of


vertified bond in a specification of grinding wheel?

A:V

B:R

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C:B

D:S

Q.no 41. In centreless grinding, work place centre will be

A : Above the line joining the two wheel centres

B : Below the line joining the two wheel centres

C : On the line joining the two wheel centres

D : At the intersection of the line joining the wheel centres with the work place pla

Q.no 42. Larger the shear plane length, power required for cutting the same
material will be

A : Larger

B : smaller

C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 43. The material removal rate in grinding operation is small due to

A : only a small
portion of
abrasives are
involved in cutting

B : positive rake angle

C : zero rake angle

D : material removal rate does not depend on the rake angle

Q.no 44. Carbide and ceramic tips are used in ________

A : slab mill

B : face mill

C : fly mill

D : Gang Mill

Q.no 45. Feed is measured in units of _____

A : length/revolution

B : degree/revolution

C : length
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D : velocity

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a function of electrolyte in ECM?

A : It completes the circuit

B : It helps in electrochemical reaction

C : It carries away heat and waste product

D : It provide non reactive environment

Q.no 47. Part-programming mistakes can be avoided in

A : NC (Numerical Control) machine tool

B : CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool

C : Both a. and b

D : Conventional machining

Q.no 48. Which of the following process has the lowest cutting speed?

A : Slotting

B : Lapping

C : Milling

D : Reaming

Q.no 49. If Larger the rake angle, Shear plane length is

A : Shorter

B : Larger

C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 50. In drilling aluminium, a drill with

A : zero helix angle is used

B : low helix angle is used

C : high helix angle is used

D : any helix angle can be used

Q.no 51. The following type of jig suits best for drilling of holes in hollow cylindrical
components, with relatively smaller outside and inside diameters, such as bushes

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A : Box type jig

B : Open type jig

C : Index jig

D : Pot type jig

Q.no 52. The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one plane

A : Template jig

B : Plate type jig

C : Box type jig

D : Open type jig

Q.no 53. In a drilling operation using a twist drill, the lip angle is 120 degree (standard), the
spindle speed is 300 rpm, the feed is 0.2 mm/rev and the drill diameter is 10 mm,calculate
machining time to drill a hole of 30 mm long ?

A : 0.88 min

B : 0.54 min

C : 1.2 min

D : 3 min

Q.no 54. Which of the following will be better to use for machining of
soft work piece?

A : V-bond

B : R-bond

C : Both V and R bond

D : Anyother

Q.no 55. In face milling,What is the cutting speed when main axis spindle speed is 350 rpm
and the cutter diameter is 125 mm ?

A : 137.4 m/min

B : 142 m/min

C : 150.2 m/min

D : 130 m/min

Q.no 56. The device which place the workpiece in the same position, in jig and fixture, cycle
after cycle is called as

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A : placing device

B : locating device

C : Guiding device

D : fixing device

Q.no 57. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 51 divisions by compound indexing

A : 17 and 18

B : 15 and 16

C : 16 and 18

D : 18 and 19

Q.no 58. As the abrasive flow rate increases, what happens to the volumetric removal rate in
AJM?

A : Increases

B : Decreases

C : Increase and then decrease

D : Decrease and then increase

Q.no 59. In Abrasive jet machining, what may be the size of the abrasive grains used?

A : 10 – 40 μm

B : 50 – 100 μm

C : 100 – 150 μm

D : 200 – 300 μm

Q.no 60. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 87 divisions by compound indexing

A : 37 and 49

B : 15 and 33

C : 23 and 29

D : 29 and 33

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c


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Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

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Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which the following code will produce dwell for a specified time?

A : G18

B : G65

C : G04

D : G45

Q.no 2. Jigs are not used in

A : Drilling

B : Milling

C : Reaming

D : Tapping

Q.no 3. Jigs and Fixtures are used for

A : variable parts production

B : Identical parts production

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C : only in inspection

D : sharpening of cutting tool

Q.no 4. Which of the following code is used to specify Coolant ON in milling and drilling?

A : M30

B : M07

C : M02

D : M09

Q.no 5. Fixtures are used

A : for holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping operations

B : for holding the work in milling, grinding, planing or turning operations

C : to check the
accuracy
of workpiece

D : only guiding the tool

Q.no 6. M00 code in part programming stands for-

A : End of programme

B : Programme stop

C : End of tape

D : Clamp slide

Q.no 7. Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?

A : Grinding

B : Milling

C : Turning

D : Electro chemical machining

Q.no 8. The cutting speed for counter-boring should be __________ that of drilling operation

A : equal to

B : less than

C : greater than

D : Not have any relation based on operation


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Q.no 9. As the cutting speed increases, the tool cutting forces

A : decreases

B : remain constant

C : increases

D : first increases and then decreases

Q.no 10. End of program (Reset)

A : M33

B : M31

C : M32

D : M30

Q.no 11. Which operation can correct hole location, size or alignment of the hole which is
already drilled in workpiece?

A : Boring

B : Rimming

C : Both a. and b

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. Automatic tool change in CNC Machine code

A : M05

B : M06

C : M07

D : M09

Q.no 13. Which of the following code is used in programming in incremental coordinates?

A : G90

B : G91

C : G92

D : G94

Q.no 14. In case of tool changer for CNC machines ATC means

A : Anti Tool changer

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B : Automatic Tool Changer

C : Automatic Turret Changer

D : Automatic Tool Command

Q.no 15. The code for Incremental programming is

A : G90

B : G91

C : M 90

D : M 91

Q.no 16. Command G00 Means

A : Feed motion in a circular path

B : Rapid Motion

C : Feed motion in Stright line

D : Slow-motion

Q.no 17. The main purpose of a boring operation, as compared to drilling, is to

A : Drill a hole

B : Finish the drilled hole

C : Correct the hole

D : Enlarge the existing hole

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not an application of EBM process?

A : Machining

B : Welding

C : Engraving

D : Surface Hardening

Q.no 19. Cutting fluids mostly used for machining steel is…….

A : Distilled Water

B : Soluble oil

C : Hydraulic oil

D : Heavy oil
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Q.no 20. When cutting face of tool is 90° to the line


of action of tool then it is known as

A : Oblique cutting

B : Orthogonal cutting

C : face cutting

D : inverse cutting

Q.no 21. The time (in minutes) for a drilling a hole is given by t= (depth of hole+
h)/Feed×RPM, where h is

A : length of the drill

B : drill diameter

C : flute length of the drill

D : cone height of the drill

Q.no 22. What is broaching?

A : A machining process used for increasing the size of the existing hole

B : A machining process used for grinding hardened steel

C : A machining process used for making intricate holes accurately

D : A machining process for removal of a layer of material of desired width and depth

Q.no 23. Chip breakers are used to

A : Increase tool life

B : Remove chips from bed

C : Break the chips into short segments

D : To minimize heat generation

Q.no 24. When the metal is removed by erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges
between the tool and work, the process is known as

A : Electrochemical machining

B : Electro-discharge machining

C : Ultrasonic machining

D : Plasma Machining

Q.no 25. The vector sum of cutting velocity and chip velocity is
__________ shear velocity.
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A : equal to

B : less than

C : Double than

D : more than

Q.no 26. Point-to-point systems are used for _____

A : Drilling

B : parting

C : grooving

D : facing

Q.no 27. Which of the following is a surface finishing operation?

A : Drilling

B : Lapping

C : Milling

D : Turning

Q.no 28. This type of jig is employed on multi-spindle machines

A : Index jig

B : Universal jig

C : Open type jig

D : Multi-station jig

Q.no 29. The effect of setting a boring tool above center height leads to

A : Increase in the effective rake angle and a decrease in the effective clearance angle

B : Increase in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle

C : Decrease in the effective rake angle and an increase in the effective clearance angle

D : Decrease in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle

Q.no 30. The device, fed to the control unit of NC machine tool which sends the position
command signals to sideway transmission elements of the machine, is called as

A : controller

B : tape

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C : feedback unit

D : Leadscrew

Q.no 31. Give the locating and clamping principles ?

A : Reduce operation time

B : Increase Productivity

C : Reduce the cost of production

D : All of the above

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a function of electrolyte in ECM?

A : It completes the circuit

B : It helps in electrochemical reaction

C : It carries away heat and waste product

D : It provide non reactive environment

Q.no 33. Several machine tool can be controlled by a central computer in

A : CNC

B : DNC

C : NC

D : CCNC

Q.no 34. Which of the following symbol’s range of alphabet represent


soft grain in grinding wheel?

A:A–H

B:I–P

C:Q–T

D:T–Z

Q.no 35. Which of the following process have the lowest metal
removal rate?

A : Drilling

B : Reaming

C : Milling

D : Honing
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Q.no 36. The tungsten filament cathode is heated to what temperatures in EBM?

A : 1000 to 1500 ᵒC

B : 1500 to 2000 ᵒC

C : 2500 to 3000 ᵒC

D : 3500 to 5000 ᵒC

Q.no 37. Which of the following statements about programming of NC machine is correct?

A : Programming is only possible on cebtral server

B : Programming can be entered on control panel and can be read from tape

C : Modification of the programme on the control panel is not possible

D : Entering the programme is only possible directly on the control panel

Q.no 38. The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting
forces

A : Clamping device

B : Guiding device

C : Locating device

D : Indexing device

Q.no 39. Which of the following processes is generally applied for dentistry work like to drill
fine holes of particular shape in teeth?

A : Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM)

B : Electron Beam Machining (EBM)

C : Laser Beam Machining (LBM)

D : Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

Q.no 40. Which of the following represents the correct symbol of


vertified bond in a specification of grinding wheel?

A:V

B:R

C:B

D:S

Q.no 41. The type of tool magazines used in CNC machines are

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A : Drum

B : Pallet

C : Box

D : Turret

Q.no 42. CNC machines are not normally operated. They are controlled by means of a:

A : Programme

B : Operator

C : Cam

D : Pulg board system

Q.no 43. A better machinable metal is one which gives

A : lower chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle

B : higher chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle

C : lower chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle

D : higher chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle

Q.no 44. What are the values of material removal rates in EDM?

A : 0.001 to 0.1 mm3/min

B : 0.1 to 400 mm3/min

C : 400 to 1000 mm3/min

D : 1000 to 5000 mm3/min

Q.no 45. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

A : Increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

B : Decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

C : Increasing the length of the arm

D : Decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?

A : Higher flexibility

B : Improved quality

C : Reduced scrap rate


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D : Improved strength of the components

Q.no 47. Number of the degree of freedom of a workpiece in space is equal to

A : 10

B : 12

C : 16

D : 20

Q.no 48. Soft materials can not be economically ground due to

A : High temperature involved

B : Frequent wheel clogging

C : Rapid wheel wear

D : Low work piece stiffness

Q.no 49. What is the material removal mechanism of Laser beam machining process?

A : Melt and evaporate

B : Electro chemical corrosion

C : Mechanical erosion of materials

D : Electro chemical dissolution

Q.no 50. The usual value of the helix angle of a drill is

A : 20°

B : 30°

C : 45°

D : 60°

Q.no 51. The method of grinding used to produce a straight or tapered


surface on a workpiece, is

A : Internal cylindrical grinding

B : Form grinding

C : External cylindrical grinding

D : Surface grinding

Q.no 52. Frequency of tool’s oscillation in USM ranges between?

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A : 5-10 kHz

B : 10-15 kHz

C : 18-20 kHz

D : 25-50 kHz

Q.no 53. In centerless grinders, the regulating wheel is inclined at

A : 0° to 8°

B : 9° to 15°

C : 16° to 20°

D : 21° to 25°

Q.no 54. In an orthogonal cutting operation, chip thickness ration is 0.61 and rake angle is 20
degrees, then shear angle approximately equals to

A : 23 Degrees

B : 36 Degrees

C : 43 Degrees

D : 26 Degrees

Q.no 55. The following type of jig suits best for drilling of holes in hollow cylindrical
components, with relatively smaller outside and inside diameters, such as bushes

A : Box type jig

B : Open type jig

C : Index jig

D : Pot type jig

Q.no 56. The device which place the workpiece in the same position, in jig and fixture, cycle
after cycle is called as

A : placing device

B : locating device

C : Guiding device

D : fixing device

Q.no 57. What is the general life of Tungsten carbide material nozzle in AJM?

A : 1 – 8 hrs

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B : 2 – 5 hrs

C : 10 – 15 hrs

D : 25 – 40 hrs

Q.no 58. In drilling bakelite and fibrous plastics, the point angle of a drill is

A : 90°

B : 118°

C : 135°

D : 150°

Q.no 59. The following type of jig is used to drill a series of equidistant hole along a circle

A : Plate type jig

B : Index jig

C : Open type jig

D : Pot type jig

Q.no 60. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 51 divisions by compound indexing

A : 17 and 18

B : 15 and 16

C : 16 and 18

D : 18 and 19

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d


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Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

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Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole is known as

A : counter-sinking

B : counter-boring

C : trepanning

D : spot facing

Q.no 2. The relation between the tool life (T) in minutes and cutting
speed (V) in m/min is (where n = An exponent, which depends
upon the tool and workpiece, and C = A constant)

A : VnT = C

B : VTn = C

C : V/Tn = C

D : Vn/T = C

Q.no 3. The cutting speed for counter-boring should be __________ that of drilling operation

A : equal to

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B : less than

C : greater than

D : Not have any relation based on operation

Q.no 4. A dynamo-meter is a device used for the measurement of

A : Chip thickness ratio

B : Forces during metal cutting

C : Wear of the cutting tool

D : Deflection of the cutting tool

Q.no 5. Which of the following code is used to specify Coolant ON in milling and drilling?

A : M30

B : M07

C : M02

D : M09

Q.no 6. Which of the following does not come under the main components of ECM?

A : Feed control system

B : Work piece holding devices

C : Electrolyte supply system

D : Dielectric flushing

Q.no 7. Chip breakers are used to

A : Increase tool life

B : Remove chips from bed

C : Break the chips into short segments

D : To minimize heat generation

Q.no 8. In American Standard Association (A S A) system, if the tool nomenclature is 8-6-5-5-


10-15-2 mm, then the side rake angle will be

A : 5°

B : 6°

C : 8°

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D : 10°

Q.no 9. The enlarging of an existing circular hole with a rotating single point tool is called

A : boring

B : drilling

C : reaming

D : internal turning

Q.no 10. The device which is used to remove workpiece from close-fitting locators, after the
workpiece has been removed is called as

A : remover

B : escaper

C : ejector

D : blocker

Q.no 11. The operation of machining several surfaces of a workpiece simultaneously is called

A : profile milling

B : gang milling

C : saw milling

D : helical milling

Q.no 12. The command in CNC machine for straight line

A : G00

B : G01

C : G02

D : G04

Q.no 13. The operation which is not performed on a shaper machine is

A : machining horizontal surface

B : machining vertical surface

C : machining angular surface

D : Turning

Q.no 14. The surface of the single point cutting tool on which the chips formed in cutting
operation slide is called as
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A : flank

B : heel

C : face

D : shank

Q.no 15. The basic purposes of developing and using suitable jigs and fixtures are

A : to eliminate marking, positioning, alignments etc.

B : to eliminate maching process

C : to check the accuracy of workpiece

D : to resharpem the cutting tool

Q.no 16. In Electron beam machining, workpiece is held in

A : vacuum chamber

B : dielectric medium

C : electrolyte

D : air

Q.no 17. What is broaching?

A : A machining process used for increasing the size of the existing hole

B : A machining process used for grinding hardened steel

C : A machining process used for making intricate holes accurately

D : A machining process for removal of a layer of material of desired width and depth

Q.no 18. The thickness of layer material removed in one pass of workpiece under the cutter is
called as

A : single pass cut

B : depth of cut

C : width of cut

D : face cut

Q.no 19. Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?

A : Grinding

B : Milling

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C : Turning

D : Electro chemical machining

Q.no 20. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during
machining of

A : brittle metals

B : ductile metals

C : non metals

D : hard metals

Q.no 21. Which operation can correct hole location, size or alignment of the hole which is
already drilled in workpiece?

A : Boring

B : Rimming

C : Both a. and b

D : None of the above

Q.no 22. Fixtures are not used in

A : Milling

B : Shaping

C : Turning

D : drilling

Q.no 23. The operation of producing grooves around the periphery of a cylindrical or conical
workpiece is called

A : profile milling

B : gang milling

C : saw milling

D : helical milling

Q.no 24. What happens to the material removal rate when reflectivity is higher in LBM?

A : Will decrease

B : Will increase

C : Will enhance

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D : Remains same

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a locating device?

A : nesting

B : flathead

C : pins

D : strap

Q.no 26. Which of the following processes is generally applied for dentistry work like to drill
fine holes of particular shape in teeth?

A : Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM)

B : Electron Beam Machining (EBM)

C : Laser Beam Machining (LBM)

D : Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

Q.no 27. The materials are added to cutting tools to increase their properties.
Match the following
1. Tungsten a. Hardness
2. Carbon b. Hot hardness
3. Vanadium c. Wear resistance

A : 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

B : 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

C : 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

D : 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

Q.no 28. With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost of production

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Remains same

D : not affected

Q.no 29. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

A : Increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

B : Decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

C : Increasing the length of the arm

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D : Decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever

Q.no 30. Feed control system is responsible for which action in ECM?

A : Giving feed to tool

B : Electrolyte supply

C : Power supply

D : Workpiece holding

Q.no 31. Lapping is an operation of__________

A : Making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole

B : Smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole

C : Sizing and finishing a small diameter hole

D : Producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool

Q.no 32. This type of jig is employed on multi-spindle machines

A : Index jig

B : Universal jig

C : Open type jig

D : Multi-station jig

Q.no 33. Cemented carbide tool of straight Co-WC is not suitable for steel cutting, because

A : Steel has high hardness

B : Cutting of steel
generates very
high temperature

C : Steel contains Fe
which reacts with
C and promote
diffusive wear

D : Steel contains
Fe which reacts
with Co and
promote
abrasive wear

Q.no 34. Larger the rake angle, power requirement for cutting the same material is

A : Larger

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B : smaller

C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 35. The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions like
depth of cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control system itself, is called

A : Computer Numerical Control System

B : Direct Numerical Control System

C : Machining Centre System

D : Adaptive Control System

Q.no 36. A better machinable metal is one which gives

A : lower chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle

B : higher chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle

C : lower chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle

D : higher chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle

Q.no 37. What are the values of currents used in EBM process?

A : 1 to 20 mA

B : 20 to 100 mA

C : 100 to 200 mA

D : 200 to 400 mA

Q.no 38. Which type of locator is used to locate job by its internal surface/diameter ?

A : Solid locators

B : Internal locator

C : Adjustable
locators

D : Equalizing locators

Q.no 39. In Super finishing operation

A : The work rotates,


the abrasive
block reciprocates

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B : The abrasive
block rotates,
the work reciprocates

C : Both abrasive
block and
work rotates

D : Both abrasive
block and work
reciprocates

Q.no 40. Which of the following symbol’s range of alphabet represent


soft grain in grinding wheel?

A:A–H

B:I–P

C:Q–T

D:T–Z

Q.no 41. A tool used to withdraw a drill from the sleeve is called

A : drill remover

B : drill puller

C : drift

D : drill drawer

Q.no 42. Larger the shear plane length, power required for cutting the same
material will be

A : Larger

B : smaller

C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 43. Give the locating and clamping principles ?

A : Reduce operation time

B : Increase Productivity

C : Reduce the cost of production

D : All of the above

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Q.no 44. The correct sequence of the following parameters in order of their maximum to
minimum influence on tool life is

A : Feed rate, depth of cut, cutting speed

B : Depth of cut, cutting speed, feed rate

C : Cutting speed, feed rate, depth of cut

D : Feed rate, cutting speed, depth of cut

Q.no 45. Soft materials can not be economically ground due to

A : High temperature involved

B : Frequent wheel clogging

C : Rapid wheel wear

D : Low work piece stiffness

Q.no 46. In Electro discharge machining, materials with low melting point have which type of
material removal rate?

A : Very low

B : Low

C : Medium

D : High

Q.no 47. Crack in grinding wheel is developed due to

A : High temperature developed at the contact of the wheel face and work

B : Grinding hard work

C : Low speed of wheel

D : High speed of whee

Q.no 48. In machining operation, Uncut chip thickness t0= 0.8 mm and Chip thickness tc=1.2
mm. The correct option for the chip thickness ratio (r) is

A : 0.4

B : 0.66

C : 1.5

D : 0.83

Q.no 49. Part-programming mistakes can be avoided in

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A : NC (Numerical Control) machine tool

B : CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool

C : Both a. and b

D : Conventional machining

Q.no 50. Which of the following process has highest rate of metal removal

A : Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)

B : Electro-Chemical Machining (ECM)

C : Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

D : Laser Beam Machining (LBM)

Q.no 51. In CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40….,
G91 refer to

A : Absolute dimension

B : Incremental dimension

C : Rapid Feed

D : Linear interpolation

Q.no 52. Frequency of tool’s oscillation in USM ranges between?

A : 5-10 kHz

B : 10-15 kHz

C : 18-20 kHz

D : 25-50 kHz

Q.no 53. The method of grinding used to produce a straight or tapered


surface on a workpiece, is

A : Internal cylindrical grinding

B : Form grinding

C : External cylindrical grinding

D : Surface grinding

Q.no 54. Which are the suitable hole circles from index plate 2 to index 69 divisions by
compound indexing

A : 21 and 23

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B : 23 and 27

C : 23 and 29

D : 23 and 31

Q.no 55. Which of the following will be better to use for machining of
soft work piece?

A : V-bond

B : R-bond

C : Both V and R bond

D : Anyother

Q.no 56. In CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40….,
G02 refer to

A : Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction

B : Circular interpolation in clockwise direction

C : Linear interpolation

D : Rapid feed

Q.no 57. In an orthogonal cutting operation, chip thickness ration is 0.61 and rake angle is 20
degrees, then shear angle approximately equals to

A : 23 Degrees

B : 36 Degrees

C : 43 Degrees

D : 26 Degrees

Q.no 58. In the Taylor’s tool life equation, VT^n = C, the value of n=0.5. The tool life has a life
of 180 minutes at a cutting speed of 18 m/min. If the tool life is reduced to 45 minutes, then
the cutting speed will be

A : 9 m/min

B : 18 m/min

C : 36 m/min

D : 72 m/min

Q.no 59. In centerless grinders, the regulating wheel is inclined at

A : 0° to 8°

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B : 9° to 15°

C : 16° to 20°

D : 21° to 25°

Q.no 60. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 51 divisions by compound indexing

A : 17 and 18

B : 15 and 16

C : 16 and 18

D : 18 and 19

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d


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Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

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Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Surface which face the workpiece is known as…... Of the


tool.

A : Flank

B : Base

C : Heel

D : Referance

Q.no 2. The following is(are) the function(s) of a jig

A : Holding, guiding and locating

B : only Guiding

C : only Locating

D : only holding

Q.no 3. Which operation can correct hole location, size or alignment of the hole which is
already drilled in workpiece?

A : Boring

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B : Rimming

C : Both a. and b

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. A process which uses a multi-point cutting tool is

A : Boring

B : Hobbing

C : turning

D : Necking

Q.no 5. Lead angle in the single point cutting tool is the angle between

A : the end cutting edge and the normal to the tool shank

B : . the portion of side shank immediately below the side cutting edge and the line perpendicular to
the base of the tool

C : the tool face and the parallel to the base of the tool

D : side cutting edge and the side of the tool shank

Q.no 6. Which of the following code is used to cancel offset compensation for cutter radius?

A : G40

B : G02

C : G42

D : G00

Q.no 7. Which of the following code is used to specify Spindle start forward / Clockwise
rotation in milling and drilling?

A : M12

B : M01

C : M15

D : M03

Q.no 8. Rough grinding process is commonly used for

A : removing
excess material
from casting

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B : cutting materials
that are too
hard to be
machined by
other
conventional tools

C : producing surfaces
on parts to higher
dimensional accuracy

D : obtaining
finer finish

Q.no 9. Chip breakers are used to

A : Increase tool life

B : Remove chips from bed

C : Break the chips into short segments

D : To minimize heat generation

Q.no 10. Jigs and Fixtures are used for

A : variable parts production

B : Identical parts production

C : only in inspection

D : sharpening of cutting tool

Q.no 11. The angle between side cutting edge and end cutting edge is called as

A : approach angle

B : nose angle

C : side relief angle

D : end relief angle

Q.no 12. Which of the following material cannot be machined using electro chemical
machining?

A : Iron

B : Aluminum

C : Copper

D : Wood

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Q.no 13. The following is(are) the advantage(s) of cast jigs or fixtures

A : No heat treatments are required for the cast jigs and fixtures

B : If cast jigs or fixture drops down, they don’t get misaligned or de-shaped, although it may break

C : It prevents the
occurrence
of tool chatter
in milling

D : All of the above

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a locating device?

A : nesting

B : flathead

C : pins

D : strap

Q.no 15. The operation of producing grooves around the periphery of a cylindrical or conical
workpiece is called

A : profile milling

B : gang milling

C : saw milling

D : helical milling

Q.no 16. Jigs and fixtures are

A : machining tools

B : precision tools

C : both

D : none of the above

Q.no 17. A dynamo-meter is a device used for the measurement of

A : Chip thickness ratio

B : Forces during metal cutting

C : Wear of the cutting tool

D : Deflection of the cutting tool

Q.no 18. Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?


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A : Grinding

B : Milling

C : Turning

D : Electro chemical machining

Q.no 19. In metal cutting operations, secondary deformation occurs at

A : Chip-tool interface

B : Below tool tip

C : In uncut chip away from tool tip

D : All of the above

Q.no 20. Burnishing is a process__________.

A : Cold working

B : Hot working

C : Press working

D : Metal cutting

Q.no 21. The tool material best suited for machining of 0.2% Carbon steel at high speed (100-
300 m/min.) is

A : Co-WC

B : Diamond

C : HSS

D : CBN

Q.no 22. The use of jigs and fixtures

A : Facilitates deployment of less skilled labour for production

B : Eliminates pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out etc.

C : reduced manual
handling operation

D : All of the above

Q.no 23. In an orthogonal cutting, the depth of cut is halved and the
feed rate is double. If the chip thickness ratio is unaffected
with the changed cutting conditions, the actual chip thickness
will be

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A : halved

B : doubled

C : independent

D : unchanged

Q.no 24. The surface of the single point cutting tool on which the chips formed in cutting
operation slide is called as

A : flank

B : heel

C : face

D : shank

Q.no 25. The cutting speed for counter-boring should be __________ that of drilling operation

A : equal to

B : less than

C : greater than

D : Not have any relation based on operation

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not true for radial drill?

A : it can work with jobs, which are odd shaped

B : the tubular column is very thick and has small diameters

C : drill is mounted on drilling spindle

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Number of the degree of freedom of a workpiece in space is equal to

A : 10

B : 12

C : 16

D : 20

Q.no 28. The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting
forces

A : Clamping device

B : Guiding device
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C : Locating device

D : Indexing device

Q.no 29. The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one plane

A : Template jig

B : Box type jig

C : indexing jig

D : Open type jig

Q.no 30. Removing dull grains in order to make grinding wheel sharp
is known as

A : Loading

B : Glazing

C : Dressing

D : Trueing

Q.no 31. Point-to-point systems are used for _____

A : Drilling

B : parting

C : grooving

D : facing

Q.no 32. Soft materials can not be economically ground due to

A : High temperature involved

B : Frequent wheel clogging

C : Rapid wheel wear

D : Low work piece stiffness

Q.no 33. The correct sequence of the following parameters in order of their maximum to
minimum influence on tool life is

A : Feed rate, depth of cut, cutting speed

B : Depth of cut, cutting speed, feed rate

C : Cutting speed, feed rate, depth of cut

D : Feed rate, cutting speed, depth of cut


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Q.no 34. Cemented carbide tool of straight Co-WC is not suitable for steel cutting, because

A : Steel has high hardness

B : Cutting of steel
generates very
high temperature

C : Steel contains Fe
which reacts with
C and promote
diffusive wear

D : Steel contains
Fe which reacts
with Co and
promote
abrasive wear

Q.no 35. In NC (Numerical Control) machine tool, the position feedback package is connected
between

A : control unit and programmer

B : programmer and machine tool

C : control unit and machine tool

D : programmer and process planning

Q.no 36. The usual value of the helix angle of a drill is

A : 20°

B : 30°

C : 45°

D : 60°

Q.no 37. Which of the following process has highest rate of metal removal

A : Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)

B : Electro-Chemical Machining (ECM)

C : Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

D : Laser Beam Machining (LBM)

Q.no 38. Feed is measured in units of _____

A : length/revolution

B : degree/revolution
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C : length

D : velocity

Q.no 39. Which type of locator is used to locate job by its internal surface/diameter ?

A : Solid locators

B : Internal locator

C : Adjustable
locators

D : Equalizing locators

Q.no 40. The material removal rate in grinding operation is small due to

A : only a small
portion of
abrasives are
involved in cutting

B : positive rake angle

C : zero rake angle

D : material removal rate does not depend on the rake angle

Q.no 41. How is material removed in Electro discharge machining?

A : Melt and evaporate

B : Corrode and break

C : Mechanical erosion takes place

D : Abrassive action

Q.no 42. In __________ operation, the chip thickness is minimum at the beginning of the cut
and it reaches to the maximum when the cut terminates

A : conventional milling

B : climb milling

C : face milling

D : end milling

Q.no 43. Crack in grinding wheel is developed due to

A : High temperature developed at the contact of the wheel face and work

B : Grinding hard work

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C : Low speed of wheel

D : High speed of whee

Q.no 44. The system which holds the workpiece against the cutting forces without causing any
damage to it, is called ?

A : Clamping

B : Location

C : indexing

D : None of this

Q.no 45. The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions like
depth of cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control system itself, is called

A : Computer Numerical Control System

B : Direct Numerical Control System

C : Machining Centre System

D : Adaptive Control System

Q.no 46. Which of the following method is not used for holding tool in drilling machine?

A : by a sleeve

B : by chucks

C : by a socket

D : By tool holder

Q.no 47. 3-2-1 principle is also known as ?

A : 6 point location

B : Principle of holding

C : x-x-z location of principle

D : Principle of clamping

Q.no 48. A better machinable metal is one which gives

A : lower chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle

B : higher chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle

C : lower chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle

D : higher chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle


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Q.no 49. In Electro discharge machining, materials with low melting point have which type of
material removal rate?

A : Very low

B : Low

C : Medium

D : High

Q.no 50. Carbide and ceramic tips are used in ________

A : slab mill

B : face mill

C : fly mill

D : Gang Mill

Q.no 51. Using the Taylor equation VT^n=c, calculate the percentage increase in tool life
when the cutting speed is reduced is reduced by 50% (n=0.5 and c=400)

A:3

B:4

C:1

D : 0.5

Q.no 52. In AJM, surface roughness value will vary between which values?

A : 0.01 – 0.10 μm

B : 0.15 – 1.5 μm

C : 2.0 – 5.0 μm

D : 7.0 – 10.0 μm

Q.no 53. In CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40….,
G02 refer to

A : Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction

B : Circular interpolation in clockwise direction

C : Linear interpolation

D : Rapid feed

Q.no 54. In centerless grinders, the regulating wheel is inclined at

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A : 0° to 8°

B : 9° to 15°

C : 16° to 20°

D : 21° to 25°

Q.no 55. In face milling,What is the cutting speed when main axis spindle speed is 350 rpm
and the cutter diameter is 125 mm ?

A : 137.4 m/min

B : 142 m/min

C : 150.2 m/min

D : 130 m/min

Q.no 56. As the abrasive flow rate increases, what happens to the volumetric removal rate in
AJM?

A : Increases

B : Decreases

C : Increase and then decrease

D : Decrease and then increase

Q.no 57. What is the value of abrasive grain flow rate in Abrasive jet machining?

A : 0.1 – 2 g/min

B : 3 – 20 g/min

C : 30 – 56 g/min

D : 68 – 85 g/min

Q.no 58. Calculate the cutting speed of drilling operation when diameter of drill is 10 mm and
rotational speed of drill is 200 r.p.m.

A : 6.283 m/min

B : 3.142 m/min

C : 8.362 m/min

D : 10.216 m/min

Q.no 59. If l=length of travel of the drill in mm, n=rpm of the drill, s= feed per revolution of
the drill in mm. Then machining time can be given as_____

A : (l*n)/s
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B : (l*s)/n

C : l/(n*s)

D : (1+n)/s

Q.no 60. Which of the following will be better to use for machining of
soft work piece?

A : V-bond

B : R-bond

C : Both V and R bond

D : Anyother

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c


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Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

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Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following code will give circular interpolation in Counterclockwise
direction?

A : G00

B : G56

C : G69

D : G03

Q.no 2. The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for removing material is

A : Ultrasonic Machining

B : Electrochemical Machining

C : Abrasive Jet Machining

D : Laser Beam Machining

Q.no 3. With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost of production

A : Increases

B : Decreases
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C : Remains same

D : Jigs are not used in any production process

Q.no 4. Command G00 Means

A : Feed motion in a circular path

B : Rapid Motion

C : Feed motion in Stright line

D : Slow-motion

Q.no 5. ______ is equal to half the diameter of the drill used.

A : feed

B : depth of cut

C : machining time

D : Spndle Speed

Q.no 6. Which of the following code is used to specify Coolant ON in milling and drilling?

A : M30

B : M07

C : M02

D : M09

Q.no 7. Automatic tool change in CNC Machine code

A : M05

B : M06

C : M07

D : M09

Q.no 8. Which of the following meat is difficult to machined by Laser Beam Machining?

A : Steel

B : Alumninium

C : Metal alloys

D : Cast Iron

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Q.no 9. The material which on machining produces chips with built


up edge is

A : Brittle material

B : Tough material

C : Hard material

D : Ductile material

Q.no 10. Which of the following operation is performed to provide


recess for bolt heads or nuts?

A : Counterboring

B : Spot Facing

C : Tapping

D : Countersinking

Q.no 11. Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?

A : Grinding

B : Milling

C : Turning

D : Electro chemical machining

Q.no 12. Jigs and fixtures are

A : machining tools

B : precision tools

C : both

D : none of the above

Q.no 13. The angle between side cutting edge and end cutting edge is called as

A : approach angle

B : nose angle

C : side relief angle

D : end relief angle

Q.no 14. Tool compensation off command is

A : G28
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B : G40

C : G41

D : G42

Q.no 15. Which of the following code is used to specify Coolant OFF in milling and drilling?

A : M30

B : M07

C : M02

D : M09

Q.no 16. The enlarging of an existing circular hole with a rotating single point tool is called

A : boring

B : drilling

C : reaming

D : internal turning

Q.no 17. M00 code in part programming stands for-

A : End of programme

B : Programme stop

C : End of tape

D : Clamp slide

Q.no 18. In metal cutting operation, maximum heat is generated in

A : the shear zone

B : the chip-tool interface zone

C : the tool-work interface zone

D : machined surface

Q.no 19. Rough grinding process is commonly used for

A : removing
excess material
from casting

B : cutting materials
that are too
hard to be
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machined by
other
conventional tools

C : producing surfaces
on parts to higher
dimensional accuracy

D : obtaining
finer finish

Q.no 20. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during
machining of

A : brittle metals

B : ductile metals

C : non metals

D : hard metals

Q.no 21. Which of the following does not come under the main components of ECM?

A : Feed control system

B : Work piece holding devices

C : Electrolyte supply system

D : Dielectric flushing

Q.no 22. The thickness of layer material removed in one pass of workpiece under the cutter is
called as

A : single pass cut

B : depth of cut

C : width of cut

D : face cut

Q.no 23. Lead angle in the single point cutting tool is the angle between

A : the end cutting edge and the normal to the tool shank

B : . the portion of side shank immediately below the side cutting edge and the line perpendicular to
the base of the tool

C : the tool face and the parallel to the base of the tool

D : side cutting edge and the side of the tool shank

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Q.no 24. The vector sum of cutting velocity and chip velocity is
__________ shear velocity.

A : equal to

B : less than

C : Double than

D : more than

Q.no 25. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole is known as

A : counter-sinking

B : counter-boring

C : trepanning

D : spot facing

Q.no 26. In Super finishing operation

A : The work rotates,


the abrasive
block reciprocates

B : The abrasive
block rotates,
the work reciprocates

C : Both abrasive
block and
work rotates

D : Both abrasive
block and work
reciprocates

Q.no 27. Which type of locator is used to locate job by its internal surface/diameter ?

A : Solid locators

B : Internal locator

C : Adjustable
locators

D : Equalizing locators

Q.no 28. Removing dull grains in order to make grinding wheel sharp
is known as

A : Loading

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B : Glazing

C : Dressing

D : Trueing

Q.no 29. What are the values of currents used in EBM process?

A : 1 to 20 mA

B : 20 to 100 mA

C : 100 to 200 mA

D : 200 to 400 mA

Q.no 30. A tool used to withdraw a drill from the sleeve is called

A : drill remover

B : drill puller

C : drift

D : drill drawer

Q.no 31. At high cutting speed, high temperature at tool-chip interface is caused by
1. Heat generation rate increases with an increase in cutting speed
2. Friction coefficient (μ) decreases with an increase in cutting speed
3. The time required to transfer the heat decreases with an increase in cutting speed
4. Localization of heat takes place with an increase in cutting speed

A : 1,3 &4

B : 1,2,3 &4

C : 1,2,& 3

D : 2,3 &4

Q.no 32. Several machine tool can be controlled by a central computer in

A : CNC

B : DNC

C : NC

D : CCNC

Q.no 33. If Larger the rake angle, Shear plane length is

A : Shorter

B : Larger
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C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 34. The correct sequence of the following parameters in order of their maximum to
minimum influence on tool life is

A : Feed rate, depth of cut, cutting speed

B : Depth of cut, cutting speed, feed rate

C : Cutting speed, feed rate, depth of cut

D : Feed rate, cutting speed, depth of cut

Q.no 35. The effect of setting a boring tool above center height leads to

A : Increase in the effective rake angle and a decrease in the effective clearance angle

B : Increase in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle

C : Decrease in the effective rake angle and an increase in the effective clearance angle

D : Decrease in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle

Q.no 36. The angle formed by the leading edge of the land with a plane having the axis of the
drill, is called

A : helix or rake angle

B : point angle

C : chisel edge angle

D : lip clearance angle

Q.no 37. Which type of locator generally used to locate cylindrical job ?

A : V- locator

B : Nesting locator

C : Pin locator

D : Internal locator

Q.no 38. How is material removed in Electro discharge machining?

A : Melt and evaporate

B : Corrode and break

C : Mechanical erosion takes place

D : Abrassive action
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Q.no 39. Carbide and ceramic tips are used in ________

A : slab mill

B : face mill

C : fly mill

D : Gang Mill

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not correct about fixture?

A : It is used to hold the work

B : It is used to position the work the work

C : It does not guide cutting tool.

D : It assures high accuracy of parts

Q.no 41. Point-to-point systems are used for _____

A : Drilling

B : parting

C : grooving

D : facing

Q.no 42. The usual value of the point angle of a drill is

A : 70°

B : 100°

C : 118°

D : 130°

Q.no 43. The system which holds the workpiece against the cutting forces without causing any
damage to it, is called ?

A : Clamping

B : Location

C : indexing

D : None of this

Q.no 44. It is desired to perform the operations like drilling, reaming, counter-boring etc. on a
work piece. Which of the following machine will be used?

A : Sensitive drilling machine


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B : Radial drilling machine

C : Gang drilling machine

D : Multiple spindle drilling machine

Q.no 45. In which of the following methods, an electrolyte is used?

A : Ultrasonic Machining

B : Electrochemical Machining

C : Abrasive Jet Machining

D : Laser Beam Machining

Q.no 46. The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one plane

A : Template jig

B : Box type jig

C : indexing jig

D : Open type jig

Q.no 47. A grinding ratio of 200 implies that the

A : grinding wheel wears 200 times the volume of the material removed

B : grinding wheel wears 0.005 times the volume of the material removed

C : aspect ratio of abrasive particles used in the grinding wheel is 200

D : ratio of volume
of abrasive particle to that of grinding wheel is 200

Q.no 48. The device which is used to remove workpiece from close-fitting locators, after the
workpiece has been removed is called as

A : escaper

B : blocker

C : remover

D : ejector

Q.no 49. NC contouring is example of

A : Continuous path positioning

B : Point-to-point positioning

C : Absolute positionng
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D : Incremental positioning

Q.no 50. Feed control system is responsible for which action in ECM?

A : Giving feed to tool

B : Electrolyte supply

C : Power supply

D : Workpiece holding

Q.no 51. Frequency of tool’s oscillation in USM ranges between?

A : 5-10 kHz

B : 10-15 kHz

C : 18-20 kHz

D : 25-50 kHz

Q.no 52. In face milling,What is the cutting speed when main axis spindle speed is 350 rpm
and the cutter diameter is 125 mm ?

A : 137.4 m/min

B : 142 m/min

C : 150.2 m/min

D : 130 m/min

Q.no 53. In Abrasive jet machining, what may be the size of the abrasive grains used?

A : 10 – 40 μm

B : 50 – 100 μm

C : 100 – 150 μm

D : 200 – 300 μm

Q.no 54. In AJM, surface roughness value will vary between which values?

A : 0.01 – 0.10 μm

B : 0.15 – 1.5 μm

C : 2.0 – 5.0 μm

D : 7.0 – 10.0 μm

Q.no 55. In an orthogonal cutting operation, chip thickness ration is 0.61 and rake angle is 20
degrees, then shear angle approximately equals to
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A : 23 Degrees

B : 36 Degrees

C : 43 Degrees

D : 26 Degrees

Q.no 56. In an orthogonal machine test on a steel, rake angle 20 degrees, uncut chip thickness
is 0.1 mm,
cut chip thickness is 0.25 mm calculate shear angle approximately equals to

A : 23 Degrees

B : 33 Degrees

C : 43 Degrees

D : 13 Degrees

Q.no 57. Which are the suitable hole circles from index plate 2 to index 69 divisions by
compound indexing

A : 21 and 23

B : 23 and 27

C : 23 and 29

D : 23 and 31

Q.no 58. In which process the material is removed due to the action of abrasive grains?

A : Electron Beam Machining (EBM)

B : Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

C : Laser Beam Machining (LBM)

D : Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM)

Q.no 59. The following type of jig suits best for drilling of holes in hollow cylindrical
components, with relatively smaller outside and inside diameters, such as bushes

A : Box type jig

B : Open type jig

C : Index jig

D : Pot type jig

Q.no 60. Calculate the cutting speed of drilling operation when diameter of drill is 10 mm and
rotational speed of drill is 200 r.p.m.

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A : 6.283 m/min

B : 3.142 m/min

C : 8.362 m/min

D : 10.216 m/min

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a


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Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

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Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Jigs are not used in

A : Drilling

B : Milling

C : Reaming

D : Tapping

Q.no 2. The tool material best suited for machining of 0.2% Carbon steel at high speed (100-
300 m/min.) is

A : Co-WC

B : Diamond

C : HSS

D : CBN

Q.no 3. With the same tool life, the maximum material per minute is
removed by

A : Increasing the cutting speed

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B : Decreasing the cutting speed

C : Increasing the feed rate

D : Increasing the depth of cut

Q.no 4. The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for removing material is

A : Ultrasonic Machining

B : Electrochemical Machining

C : Abrasive Jet Machining

D : Laser Beam Machining

Q.no 5. Which of the following code is used to specify feed per minute in milling and drilling?

A : G69

B : G10

C : G00

D : G94

Q.no 6. What happens to the material removal rate when reflectivity is higher in LBM?

A : Will decrease

B : Will increase

C : Will enhance

D : Remains same

Q.no 7. Which of the following material cannot be machined using electro chemical
machining?

A : Iron

B : Aluminum

C : Copper

D : Wood

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a locating device?

A : nesting

B : flathead

C : pins

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D : strap

Q.no 9. The use of jigs and fixtures

A : Facilitates deployment of less skilled labour for production

B : Eliminates pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out etc.

C : reduced manual
handling operation

D : All of the above

Q.no 10. Burnishing is a process__________.

A : Cold working

B : Hot working

C : Press working

D : Metal cutting

Q.no 11. The device which is used to remove workpiece from close-fitting locators, after the
workpiece has been removed is called as

A : remover

B : escaper

C : ejector

D : blocker

Q.no 12. The method of grinding used to produce internal cylindrical


holes and tapers, is

A : Internal cylindrical grinding

B : Form grinding

C : External cylindrical grinding

D : Surface grinding

Q.no 13. The relation between tool life (T) and cutting speed (V) is
VTn = Constant. In this relation, the value of n depends upon

A : Work material

B : Tool material

C : Type of chip produced

D : Working conditions
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Q.no 14. Which of the following code is used in programming in absolute coordinates?

A : G90

B : G32

C : G92

D : G01

Q.no 15. The following is(are) the function(s) of a jig

A : Holding, guiding and locating

B : only Guiding

C : only Locating

D : only holding

Q.no 16. Return to reference position command is

A : G28

B : G40

C : G41

D : G42

Q.no 17. Automatic tool change in CNC Machine code

A : M05

B : M06

C : M07

D : M09

Q.no 18. In order to achieve a specific surface finish


in single point turning the most important factor to be controlled is

A : Depth of cut

B : Cutting speed

C : Feed

D : Tool rake angle

Q.no 19. Reflectivity of the materials depends on which of the following factors in LBM?

A : Wave length

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B : Properties of material

C : Surface finish

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Fixtures are not used in

A : Milling

B : Shaping

C : Turning

D : drilling

Q.no 21. Which of the following code is used to specify Tool Change in milling and drilling?

A : M00

B : M06

C : M05

D : M18

Q.no 22. Diffusion wear is caused because of


I. High temp. near tool-chip interface
II. Compositional gradient across the tool-chip interface

A : Both (I) and (II)

B : Only (I)

C : Only (II)

D : Neither (I) nor (II)

Q.no 23. When the metal is removed by erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges
between the tool and work, the process is known as

A : Electrochemical machining

B : Electro-discharge machining

C : Ultrasonic machining

D : Plasma Machining

Q.no 24. The operation of producing grooves around the periphery of a cylindrical or conical
workpiece is called

A : profile milling

B : gang milling
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C : saw milling

D : helical milling

Q.no 25. For CNC machining skilled part programmers are needed.

A : true

B : false

C : SOMETIME

D : NOT AT ALL

Q.no 26. In centreless grinding, work place centre will be

A : Above the line joining the two wheel centres

B : Below the line joining the two wheel centres

C : On the line joining the two wheel centres

D : At the intersection of the line joining the wheel centres with the work place pla

Q.no 27. Which of the following grinding machine will give a better
result for rough machining?

A : Fine grain

B : Very fine grain

C : Coarse grain

D : Ultra fine grain

Q.no 28. Give the locating and clamping principles ?

A : Reduce operation time

B : Increase Productivity

C : Reduce the cost of production

D : All of the above

Q.no 29. In Electro discharge machining, materials with low melting point have which type of
material removal rate?

A : Very low

B : Low

C : Medium

D : High
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Q.no 30. Soft materials can not be economically ground due to

A : High temperature involved

B : Frequent wheel clogging

C : Rapid wheel wear

D : Low work piece stiffness

Q.no 31. What are the values of currents used in EBM process?

A : 1 to 20 mA

B : 20 to 100 mA

C : 100 to 200 mA

D : 200 to 400 mA

Q.no 32. It is desired to perform the operations like drilling, reaming, counter-boring etc. on a
work piece. Which of the following machine will be used?

A : Sensitive drilling machine

B : Radial drilling machine

C : Gang drilling machine

D : Multiple spindle drilling machine

Q.no 33. The tool angle which helps in reducing the rubbing of the machined surface to the
flank of the tool is

A : Rake angle

B : Cutting edge angle

C : Clearance angle

D : Nose radius

Q.no 34. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

A : Increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

B : Decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

C : Increasing the length of the arm

D : Decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever

Q.no 35. A tool used to withdraw a drill from the sleeve is called

A : drill remover
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B : drill puller

C : drift

D : drill drawer

Q.no 36. Which of the following statements about programming of NC machine is correct?

A : Programming is only possible on cebtral server

B : Programming can be entered on control panel and can be read from tape

C : Modification of the programme on the control panel is not possible

D : Entering the programme is only possible directly on the control panel

Q.no 37. Which of the following process have the lowest metal
removal rate?

A : Drilling

B : Reaming

C : Milling

D : Honing

Q.no 38. The material removal rate in grinding operation is small due to

A : only a small
portion of
abrasives are
involved in cutting

B : positive rake angle

C : zero rake angle

D : material removal rate does not depend on the rake angle

Q.no 39. Consider the following statements: Chipping of a cutting tool is due to
1. Tool material being too brittle
2. Hot hardness of the tool material
3. High positive rake angle of the tool
Which of these statements are correct?

A : 1, 2 & 3

B:1&3

C:2&3

D:1&2

Q.no 40. The usual value of the helix angle of a drill is


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A : 20°

B : 30°

C : 45°

D : 60°

Q.no 41. Which of the following is a surface finishing operation?

A : Drilling

B : Lapping

C : Milling

D : Turning

Q.no 42. Which of the following operation, we can’t perform on drilling machine?

A : reaming

B : tapping

C : lapping

D : Turning

Q.no 43. The point angle of a drill, for drilling stainless steel, is

A : 90°

B : 118°

C : 135°

D : 150°

Q.no 44. In CNC machine tool, the part program entered into the computer memory

A : can be used only once

B : can be used again and again

C : can be used again but it has to be modified every time

D : cannot say

Q.no 45. In NC (Numerical Control) machine tool, the position feedback package is connected
between

A : control unit and programmer

B : programmer and machine tool

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C : control unit and machine tool

D : programmer and process planning

Q.no 46. Which type of mechanism is used in shaper machine?

A : Indexing mechanism

B : Four-bar chain mechanism

C : Quick return mechanism

D : Crank and Slider Mechanism

Q.no 47. Which of the following is basically a polishing operation?

A : Soft grinding

B : Lapping

C : Honing

D : Buffing

Q.no 48. With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost of production

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Remains same

D : not affected

Q.no 49. The device which is used to remove workpiece from close-fitting locators, after the
workpiece has been removed is called as

A : escaper

B : blocker

C : remover

D : ejector

Q.no 50. Of the following properties of nozzle, which of them does not influence the MRR in
AJM?

A : Size

B : Wear

C : Outside temperature

D : Distance from work piece


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Q.no 51. As the abrasive flow rate increases, what happens to the volumetric removal rate in
AJM?

A : Increases

B : Decreases

C : Increase and then decrease

D : Decrease and then increase

Q.no 52. In Abrasive jet machining, work piece material of removed by which of the following
means?

A : Vaporization

B : Electro plating

C : Mechanical abrasion

D : Corrosion

Q.no 53. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 87 divisions by compound indexing

A : 37 and 49

B : 15 and 33

C : 23 and 29

D : 29 and 33

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a media of energy transfer on which the advanced
machining processes are classified?

A : Reactive atmosphere

B : Electrons

C : Electrolyte

D : Chemical ablation

Q.no 55. The following type of jig is used to drill a series of equidistant hole along a circle

A : Plate type jig

B : Index jig

C : Open type jig

D : Pot type jig

Q.no 56. If n=number of divisions required, then find the number of holes to be moved in
direct indexing
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A : 12/n

B : 24/n

C : 12*n

D : 24*n

Q.no 57. The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one plane

A : Template jig

B : Plate type jig

C : Box type jig

D : Open type jig

Q.no 58. In Abrasive jet machining, what may be the size of the abrasive grains used?

A : 10 – 40 μm

B : 50 – 100 μm

C : 100 – 150 μm

D : 200 – 300 μm

Q.no 59. Which of the following will be better to use for machining of
soft work piece?

A : V-bond

B : R-bond

C : Both V and R bond

D : Anyother

Q.no 60. Restricts the movement a cylinder placed in a V- block for 3-2-1 principle ?

A : 1 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

B : 2 (Translational) 1 (Rotary)

C : 2 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

D : 1 (Translational) 3 (Rotary)

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c


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Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

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Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Surface grinding is done to produce

A : tapered surface

B : flat surface

C : internal cylindrical
holes

D : Threaded
surfaces

Q.no 2. Which of the following code is used to specify Coolant ON in milling and drilling?

A : M30

B : M07

C : M02

D : M09

Q.no 3. Broaching is not applied for machining

A : internal and external surfaces

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B : round or irregular shaped holes

C : external flat and contoured surfaces

D : Spherical surfaces

Q.no 4. In a milling operation, two side milling cutters are mounted with a desired distance
between them so that both sides of a workpiece can be milled simultaneously. This set up is
called

A : gang milling

B : straddle milling

C : string milling

D : side milling

Q.no 5. The method of grinding used to produce internal cylindrical


holes and tapers, is

A : Internal cylindrical grinding

B : Form grinding

C : External cylindrical grinding

D : Surface grinding

Q.no 6. The tool material best suited for machining of 0.2% Carbon steel at high speed (100-
300 m/min.) is

A : Co-WC

B : Diamond

C : HSS

D : CBN

Q.no 7. Which of the following code is used in programming in incremental coordinates?

A : G90

B : G91

C : G92

D : G94

Q.no 8. Twist drills are made of

A : High speed steel

B : Carbon steel
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C : Stainless steel

D : Either (1) or (2)

Q.no 9. Chip breakers are used to

A : Increase tool life

B : Remove chips from bed

C : Break the chips into short segments

D : To minimize heat generation

Q.no 10. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole is known as

A : counter-sinking

B : counter-boring

C : trepanning

D : spot facing

Q.no 11. The following is(are) the function(s) of a jig

A : Holding, guiding and locating

B : only Guiding

C : only Locating

D : only holding

Q.no 12. The angle between side cutting edge and end cutting edge is called as

A : approach angle

B : nose angle

C : side relief angle

D : end relief angle

Q.no 13. The code for Incremental programming is

A : G90

B : G91

C : M 90

D : M 91

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Q.no 14. Which of the following code is used to specify Spindle start forward / Clockwise
rotation in milling and drilling?

A : M12

B : M01

C : M15

D : M03

Q.no 15. The relation between tool life (T) and cutting speed (V) is
VTn = Constant. In this relation, the value of n depends upon

A : Work material

B : Tool material

C : Type of chip produced

D : Working conditions

Q.no 16. The basic purposes of developing and using suitable jigs and fixtures are

A : to eliminate marking, positioning, alignments etc.

B : to eliminate maching process

C : to check the accuracy of workpiece

D : to resharpem the cutting tool

Q.no 17. In which of the following machine, the work rotates and the tool is stationary?

A : Vertical boring machine

B : Horizontal boring machine

C : Precision Boring Machine

D : Jig Boring Machine

Q.no 18. In which of the following machine, the work is usually rotated while the drill is fed
into work

A : Sensitive drilling machine

B : Radial drilling machine

C : Gang drilling machine

D : Deep hole drilling machine

Q.no 19. Which of the following code is used to specify Coolant OFF in milling and drilling?

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A : M30

B : M07

C : M02

D : M09

Q.no 20. Command G00 Means

A : Feed motion in a circular path

B : Rapid Motion

C : Feed motion in Stright line

D : Slow-motion

Q.no 21. Diffusion wear is caused because of


I. High temp. near tool-chip interface
II. Compositional gradient across the tool-chip interface

A : Both (I) and (II)

B : Only (I)

C : Only (II)

D : Neither (I) nor (II)

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not element of Jigs and fixtures

A : tool guiding frame and bushes

B : base and body or frame

C : cutter

D : indexing plates

Q.no 23. Surface which face the workpiece is known as…... Of the
tool.

A : Flank

B : Base

C : Heel

D : Referance

Q.no 24. ______ is equal to half the diameter of the drill used.

A : feed

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B : depth of cut

C : machining time

D : Spndle Speed

Q.no 25. The use of jigs and fixtures

A : Facilitates deployment of less skilled labour for production

B : Eliminates pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out etc.

C : reduced manual
handling operation

D : All of the above

Q.no 26. Several machine tools can be controlled by a central computer in

A : NC (Numerical Control) machine tool

B : CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool

C : DNC (Direct Numerical Control) machine tool

D : CCNC (Central-Computer Numerical Control) machine tool

Q.no 27. In which type of locator having depression /recess same as the shape of the job ?

A : Pin locator

B : Nesting locator

C : Solid surface

D : Adjustable locator

Q.no 28. Which of the following process has the lowest cutting speed?

A : Slotting

B : Lapping

C : Milling

D : Reaming

Q.no 29. In CNC machine tool, the part program entered into the computer memory

A : can be used only once

B : can be used again and again

C : can be used again but it has to be modified every time

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D : cannot say

Q.no 30. Several machine tool can be controlled by a central computer in

A : CNC

B : DNC

C : NC

D : CCNC

Q.no 31. This type of jig is employed on multi-spindle machines

A : Index jig

B : Universal jig

C : Open type jig

D : Multi-station jig

Q.no 32. The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting
forces

A : Clamping device

B : Locating device

C : fixing devices

D : Guiding device

Q.no 33. In drilling aluminium, a drill with

A : zero helix angle is used

B : low helix angle is used

C : high helix angle is used

D : any helix angle can be used

Q.no 34. NC contouring is example of

A : Continuous path positioning

B : Point-to-point positioning

C : Absolute positionng

D : Incremental positioning

Q.no 35. What are the values of material removal rates in EDM?

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A : 0.001 to 0.1 mm3/min

B : 0.1 to 400 mm3/min

C : 400 to 1000 mm3/min

D : 1000 to 5000 mm3/min

Q.no 36. The effect of setting a boring tool above center height leads to

A : Increase in the effective rake angle and a decrease in the effective clearance angle

B : Increase in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle

C : Decrease in the effective rake angle and an increase in the effective clearance angle

D : Decrease in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle

Q.no 37. Which of the following specified grinding wheel will have
Silicon carbide abrasive?

A : Z 46 K 5 B 17

B : C 600 K 5 B 17

C : A 8 K 5 B 17

D : A 80 K 5 B 17

Q.no 38. Which of the following represents the correct symbol of


vertified bond in a specification of grinding wheel?

A:V

B:R

C:B

D:S

Q.no 39. Dovetailing can be performed more effectively by ______ milling machine.

A : horizontal

B : vertical

C : can’t say anything

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

A : Increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

B : Decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin


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C : Increasing the length of the arm

D : Decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever

Q.no 41. 3-2-1 principle is also known as ?

A : 6 point location

B : Principle of holding

C : x-x-z location of principle

D : Principle of clamping

Q.no 42. The process of improving the cutting action of the grinding
wheel is called

A : Truing

B : Dressing

C : Facing

D : Clearing

Q.no 43. Which of the following is basically a polishing operation?

A : Soft grinding

B : Lapping

C : Honing

D : Buffing

Q.no 44. The system which holds the workpiece against the cutting forces without causing any
damage to it, is called ?

A : Clamping

B : Location

C : indexing

D : None of this

Q.no 45. It is desired to perform the operations like drilling, reaming, counter-boring etc. on a
work piece. Which of the following machine will be used?

A : Sensitive drilling machine

B : Radial drilling machine

C : Gang drilling machine

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D : Multiple spindle drilling machine

Q.no 46. Generally adjustable locators used to locate which surface ?

A : grinding

B : Rough

C : machined

D : superfinished

Q.no 47. If Larger the rake angle, Shear plane length is

A : Shorter

B : Larger

C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 48. The usual value of the point angle of a drill is

A : 70°

B : 100°

C : 118°

D : 130°

Q.no 49. Largest amount of material is used in

A : Buffing

B : Lapping

C : Honing

D : Superfinishing

Q.no 50. Carbide and ceramic tips are used in ________

A : slab mill

B : face mill

C : fly mill

D : Gang Mill

Q.no 51. Calculate the cutting speed of drilling operation when diameter of drill is 10 mm and
rotational speed of drill is 200 r.p.m.

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A : 6.283 m/min

B : 3.142 m/min

C : 8.362 m/min

D : 10.216 m/min

Q.no 52. The following type of jig suits best for drilling of holes in hollow cylindrical
components, with relatively smaller outside and inside diameters, such as bushes

A : Box type jig

B : Open type jig

C : Index jig

D : Pot type jig

Q.no 53. The following type of jig is used to drill a series of equidistant hole along a circle

A : Plate type jig

B : Index jig

C : Open type jig

D : Pot type jig

Q.no 54. V-blocks (Vee locators) are used for clamping as well as locating when faces are
inclined upto degrees

A : 30

B : 12

C : 16

D:3

Q.no 55. Maching time for drilling four holes of 16 mm diameter each on a flange of 32 mm
thickness with cutting speed 24m/min, feed 0.2 mm/rev using radial drilling machine is

A : 0.54 mins

B : 2.54 mins

C : 1.54 mins

D : 0.74 mins

Q.no 56. In a drilling operation using a twist drill, the lip angle is 120 degree (standard), the
spindle speed is 300 rpm, the feed is 0.2 mm/rev and the drill diameter is 10 mm,calculate
machining time to drill a hole of 30 mm long ?

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A : 0.88 min

B : 0.54 min

C : 1.2 min

D : 3 min

Q.no 57. Which of the following will be better to use for machining of
soft work piece?

A : V-bond

B : R-bond

C : Both V and R bond

D : Anyother

Q.no 58. The following material is commonly used for making locating and clamping devices

A : High carbon steel

B : Low carbon steel

C : High speed steel

D : Die steel

Q.no 59. In centerless grinders, the regulating wheel is inclined at

A : 0° to 8°

B : 9° to 15°

C : 16° to 20°

D : 21° to 25°

Q.no 60. The relief or clearance at the cutting edge of a flat drill varies from

A : 3° to 8°

B : 20° to 30°

C : 60° to 90°

D : 90° to 120°

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b


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Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

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Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Fixtures are used

A : for holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping operations

B : for holding the work in milling, grinding, planing or turning operations

C : to check the
accuracy
of workpiece

D : only guiding the tool

Q.no 2. Which of the following code is used to specify feed per revolution in milling and
drilling?

A : G69

B : G10

C : G00

D : G95

Q.no 3. Which of the following is a not a surface finishing process?

A : Honing

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B : Buffing

C : Lapping

D : Turning

Q.no 4. In an orthogonal cutting, the depth of cut is halved and the


feed rate is double. If the chip thickness ratio is unaffected
with the changed cutting conditions, the actual chip thickness
will be

A : halved

B : doubled

C : independent

D : unchanged

Q.no 5. Jigs and fixtures are

A : machining tools

B : precision tools

C : both

D : none of the above

Q.no 6. The code for Incremental programming is

A : G90

B : G91

C : M 90

D : M 91

Q.no 7. The time (in minutes) for a drilling a hole is given by t= (depth of hole+
h)/Feed×RPM, where h is

A : length of the drill

B : drill diameter

C : flute length of the drill

D : cone height of the drill

Q.no 8. Broaching is not applied for machining

A : internal and external surfaces

B : round or irregular shaped holes


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C : external flat and contoured surfaces

D : Spherical surfaces

Q.no 9. To achieve proper location.

A : 3-2-1 method

B : Keep minimum locating points

C : Make fool proof location

D : All of the above

Q.no 10. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during
machining of

A : brittle metals

B : ductile metals

C : non metals

D : hard metals

Q.no 11. In drilling softer materials, the cutting speed is __________ as compared to harder
materials

A : same

B : low

C : high

D : Very low

Q.no 12. Twist drills are made of

A : High speed steel

B : Carbon steel

C : Stainless steel

D : Either (1) or (2)

Q.no 13. A dynamo-meter is a device used for the measurement of

A : Chip thickness ratio

B : Forces during metal cutting

C : Wear of the cutting tool

D : Deflection of the cutting tool


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Q.no 14. In CNC programing, block of Information M indicates

A : Sequence command

B : Preparatory commandr

C : Miscellaneous command

D : Machine type

Q.no 15. Which of the following code is used to specify Tool Change in milling and drilling?

A : M00

B : M06

C : M05

D : M18

Q.no 16. The surface of the single point cutting tool on which the chips formed in cutting
operation slide is called as

A : flank

B : heel

C : face

D : shank

Q.no 17. The operation which is not performed on a shaper machine is

A : machining horizontal surface

B : machining vertical surface

C : machining angular surface

D : Turning

Q.no 18. M00 code in part programming stands for-

A : End of programme

B : Programme stop

C : End of tape

D : Clamp slide

Q.no 19. Which of the following code is used to specify Coolant ON in milling and drilling?

A : M30

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B : M07

C : M02

D : M09

Q.no 20. Surface which face the workpiece is known as…... Of the
tool.

A : Flank

B : Base

C : Heel

D : Referance

Q.no 21. Which of the following code is used in programming in absolute coordinates?

A : G90

B : G32

C : G92

D : G01

Q.no 22. In CNC programing, block of Information G indicates

A : Sequence command

B : Preparatory commandr

C : Miscellaneous command

D : Machine type

Q.no 23. Automatic tool change in CNC Machine code

A : M05

B : M06

C : M07

D : M09

Q.no 24. Jigs are not used in

A : Drilling

B : Milling

C : Reaming

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D : Tapping

Q.no 25. Honing is used for finishing_________

A : External
cylindrical surface

B : Internal cylindrical
surface

C : Flat Surfaces

D : Curved Surfaces

Q.no 26. A point to point control system is suitable only for one of the following applications

A : Milling profile

B : Turning

C : Drilling

D : Grinding

Q.no 27. The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions like
depth of cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control system itself, is called

A : Computer Numerical Control System

B : Direct Numerical Control System

C : Machining Centre System

D : Adaptive Control System

Q.no 28. In direct indexing, the operation may be performed in______

A : Plain dividing head

B : universal dividing head

C : both plain and universal dividing head

D : Compound Dividing head

Q.no 29. In Super finishing operation

A : The work rotates,


the abrasive
block reciprocates

B : The abrasive
block rotates,
the work reciprocates

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C : Both abrasive
block and
work rotates

D : Both abrasive
block and work
reciprocates

Q.no 30. In which type of locator having depression /recess same as the shape of the job ?

A : Pin locator

B : Nesting locator

C : Solid surface

D : Adjustable locator

Q.no 31. In drilling aluminium, a drill with

A : zero helix angle is used

B : low helix angle is used

C : high helix angle is used

D : any helix angle can be used

Q.no 32. Dielectric medium in EDM is acts as

A : an electrolyte

B : To make the medium conducting

C : To decrease the material removal rate

D : Insulator till reached to breakdown votlage

Q.no 33. The material removal rate in grinding operation is small due to

A : only a small
portion of
abrasives are
involved in cutting

B : positive rake angle

C : zero rake angle

D : material removal rate does not depend on the rake angle

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?

A : Higher flexibility

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B : Improved quality

C : Reduced scrap rate

D : Improved strength of the components

Q.no 35. Lapping is an operation of__________

A : Making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole

B : Smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole

C : Sizing and finishing a small diameter hole

D : Producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool

Q.no 36. Largest amount of material is used in

A : Buffing

B : Lapping

C : Honing

D : Superfinishing

Q.no 37. In which of the following operation jigs are preferred over fixture?

A : Grinding

B : Milling

C : Turning

D : Drilling

Q.no 38. In centreless grinding, work place centre will be

A : Above the line joining the two wheel centres

B : Below the line joining the two wheel centres

C : On the line joining the two wheel centres

D : At the intersection of the line joining the wheel centres with the work place pla

Q.no 39. At high cutting speed, high temperature at tool-chip interface is caused by
1. Heat generation rate increases with an increase in cutting speed
2. Friction coefficient (μ) decreases with an increase in cutting speed
3. The time required to transfer the heat decreases with an increase in cutting speed
4. Localization of heat takes place with an increase in cutting speed

A : 1,3 &4

B : 1,2,3 &4
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C : 1,2,& 3

D : 2,3 &4

Q.no 40. Which of the following material/s cannot be used for making of nozzle in Abrasive
jet machining?

A : Tungsten Carbide

B : Steel alloy

C : Sapphire

D : Synthetic sapphire

Q.no 41. Soft materials can not be economically ground due to

A : High temperature involved

B : Frequent wheel clogging

C : Rapid wheel wear

D : Low work piece stiffness

Q.no 42. The type of tool magazines used in CNC machines are

A : Drum

B : Pallet

C : Box

D : Turret

Q.no 43. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

A : Increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

B : Decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

C : Increasing the length of the arm

D : Decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever

Q.no 44. The tungsten filament cathode is heated to what temperatures in EBM?

A : 1000 to 1500 ᵒC

B : 1500 to 2000 ᵒC

C : 2500 to 3000 ᵒC

D : 3500 to 5000 ᵒC

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Q.no 45. Removing dull grains in order to make grinding wheel sharp
is known as

A : Loading

B : Glazing

C : Dressing

D : Trueing

Q.no 46. Any number of equal divisions can be obtained on milling machine by

A : Direct Indexing

B : Simple Indexing

C : Compound Indexing

D : Differential Indexing

Q.no 47. Which of the following grinding machine will give a better
result for rough machining?

A : Fine grain

B : Very fine grain

C : Coarse grain

D : Ultra fine grain

Q.no 48. The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting
forces

A : Clamping device

B : Locating device

C : fixing devices

D : Guiding device

Q.no 49. Which of the following is the most common bond used in
grinding wheels?

A : Vitrified bond

B : Shellac bond

C : Rubber bond

D : Pakelite
bond

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Q.no 50. CNC machines are not normally operated. They are controlled by means of a:

A : Programme

B : Operator

C : Cam

D : Pulg board system

Q.no 51. In which process the material is removed due to the action of abrasive grains?

A : Electron Beam Machining (EBM)

B : Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

C : Laser Beam Machining (LBM)

D : Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM)

Q.no 52. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 87 divisions by compound indexing

A : 37 and 49

B : 15 and 33

C : 23 and 29

D : 29 and 33

Q.no 53. The abrasive recommended for grinding materials of low


tensile strength is

A : Silicon carbide

B : Aluminium oxide

C : Sand stone

D : Diamond

Q.no 54. In drilling bakelite and fibrous plastics, the point angle of a drill is

A : 90°

B : 118°

C : 135°

D : 150°

Q.no 55. Frequency of tool’s oscillation in USM ranges between?

A : 5-10 kHz

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B : 10-15 kHz

C : 18-20 kHz

D : 25-50 kHz

Q.no 56. In CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40….,
G02 refer to

A : Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction

B : Circular interpolation in clockwise direction

C : Linear interpolation

D : Rapid feed

Q.no 57. In CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40….,
G91 refer to

A : Absolute dimension

B : Incremental dimension

C : Rapid Feed

D : Linear interpolation

Q.no 58. Using the Taylor equation VT^n=c, calculate the percentage increase in tool life
when the cutting speed is reduced is reduced by 50% (n=0.5 and c=400)

A:3

B:4

C:1

D : 0.5

Q.no 59. In centerless grinders, the regulating wheel is inclined at

A : 0° to 8°

B : 9° to 15°

C : 16° to 20°

D : 21° to 25°

Q.no 60. The following jig can be used for several different work pieces and operations

A : Index jig

B : Template jig

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C : Universal jig

D : Multi-station jig

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is c


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Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

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Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following code is used to specify Peck-Drilling Cycle in milling and
drilling?

A : G73

B : G76

C : G87

D : G83

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a not a surface finishing process?

A : Honing

B : Buffing

C : Lapping

D : Turning

Q.no 3. A drill bit of 20 mm diameter rotating at 500 r.p.m. with a feed rate of 0.2
mm/revolution is used to drill a through-hole in a mild steel plate 20 mm thickness. The depth
of cut in this drilling operation is

A : 0.2 mm

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B : 10 mm

C : 20 mm

D : 100 mm

Q.no 4. Small nose radius

A : increases tool life

B : produces chipping and decreases tool life

C : results in excessive stress concentration and greater heat generation

D : decreases tool life

Q.no 5. A dynamo-meter is a device used for the measurement of

A : Chip thickness ratio

B : Forces during metal cutting

C : Wear of the cutting tool

D : Deflection of the cutting tool

Q.no 6. ______ is equal to half the diameter of the drill used.

A : feed

B : depth of cut

C : machining time

D : Spndle Speed

Q.no 7. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole is known as

A : counter-sinking

B : counter-boring

C : trepanning

D : spot facing

Q.no 8. As the cutting speed increases, the tool cutting forces

A : decreases

B : remain constant

C : increases

D : first increases and then decreases


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Q.no 9. In CNC programing, block of Information G indicates

A : Sequence command

B : Preparatory commandr

C : Miscellaneous command

D : Machine type

Q.no 10. Jigs are not used in

A : Drilling

B : Milling

C : Reaming

D : Tapping

Q.no 11. Twist drills are made of

A : High speed steel

B : Carbon steel

C : Stainless steel

D : Either (1) or (2)

Q.no 12. Reflectivity of the materials depends on which of the following factors in LBM?

A : Wave length

B : Properties of material

C : Surface finish

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Lead angle in the single point cutting tool is the angle between

A : the end cutting edge and the normal to the tool shank

B : . the portion of side shank immediately below the side cutting edge and the line perpendicular to
the base of the tool

C : the tool face and the parallel to the base of the tool

D : side cutting edge and the side of the tool shank

Q.no 14. Which of the following code is used to return to a reference point Home position?

A : G23

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B : G28

C : G14

D : G19

Q.no 15. The command in CNC machine for straight line

A : G00

B : G01

C : G02

D : G04

Q.no 16. Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?

A : Grinding

B : Milling

C : Turning

D : Electro chemical machining

Q.no 17. In metal cutting operations, secondary deformation occurs at

A : Chip-tool interface

B : Below tool tip

C : In uncut chip away from tool tip

D : All of the above

Q.no 18. Fixtures are not used in

A : Milling

B : Shaping

C : Turning

D : drilling

Q.no 19. Grinding wheel Tool signature consists of __________ elements

A:4

B:5

C:2

D:7
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Q.no 20. Which operation can correct hole location, size or alignment of the hole which is
already drilled in workpiece?

A : Boring

B : Rimming

C : Both a. and b

D : None of the above

Q.no 21. Which of the following code will give circular interpolation in Counterclockwise
direction?

A : G00

B : G56

C : G69

D : G03

Q.no 22. Which of the following code is used to specify feed per minute in milling and
drilling?

A : G69

B : G10

C : G00

D : G94

Q.no 23. A process which uses a multi-point cutting tool is

A : Boring

B : Hobbing

C : turning

D : Necking

Q.no 24. The angle between side cutting edge and end cutting edge is called as

A : approach angle

B : nose angle

C : side relief angle

D : end relief angle

Q.no 25. The use of jigs and fixtures

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A : Facilitates deployment of less skilled labour for production

B : Eliminates pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out etc.

C : reduced manual
handling operation

D : All of the above

Q.no 26. In drilling aluminium, a drill with

A : zero helix angle is used

B : low helix angle is used

C : high helix angle is used

D : any helix angle can be used

Q.no 27. The materials are added to cutting tools to increase their properties.
Match the following
1. Tungsten a. Hardness
2. Carbon b. Hot hardness
3. Vanadium c. Wear resistance

A : 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

B : 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

C : 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

D : 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

Q.no 28. The following operation is performed after polishing

A : Buffing

B : Superfinishing

C : Tumbling

D : Burnishing

Q.no 29. The system which holds the workpiece against the cutting forces without causing any
damage to it, is called ?

A : Clamping

B : Location

C : indexing

D : None of this

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not true for radial drill?
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A : it can work with jobs, which are odd shaped

B : the tubular column is very thick and has small diameters

C : drill is mounted on drilling spindle

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. A coarse grained grinding wheel is used to grind

A : A coarse grained
grinding wheel
is used to grind

B : Soft and ductile materials

C : Hard and ductile materials

D : Soft and brittle materials

Q.no 32. Side milling cutter is an example of ______ milling cutter.

A : arbor type

B : shank type

C : special type

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. The point angle of a drill, for drilling stainless steel, is

A : 90°

B : 118°

C : 135°

D : 150°

Q.no 34. A point to point control system is suitable only for one of the following applications

A : Milling profile

B : Turning

C : Drilling

D : Grinding

Q.no 35. Feed is measured in units of _____

A : length/revolution

B : degree/revolution
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C : length

D : velocity

Q.no 36. A grinding ratio of 200 implies that the

A : grinding wheel wears 200 times the volume of the material removed

B : grinding wheel wears 0.005 times the volume of the material removed

C : aspect ratio of abrasive particles used in the grinding wheel is 200

D : ratio of volume
of abrasive particle to that of grinding wheel is 200

Q.no 37. Which of the following is basically a polishing operation?

A : Soft grinding

B : Lapping

C : Honing

D : Buffing

Q.no 38. NC contouring is example of

A : Continuous path positioning

B : Point-to-point positioning

C : Absolute positionng

D : Incremental positioning

Q.no 39. This type of jig is employed on multi-spindle machines

A : Index jig

B : Universal jig

C : Open type jig

D : Multi-station jig

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not correct about fixture?

A : It is used to hold the work

B : It is used to position the work the work

C : It does not guide cutting tool.

D : It assures high accuracy of parts

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Q.no 41. In which type of locator having depression /recess same as the shape of the job ?

A : Pin locator

B : Nesting locator

C : Solid surface

D : Adjustable locator

Q.no 42. In machining operation, Uncut chip thickness t0= 0.8 mm and Chip thickness tc=1.2
mm. The correct option for the chip thickness ratio (r) is

A : 0.4

B : 0.66

C : 1.5

D : 0.83

Q.no 43. The process of improving the cutting action of the grinding
wheel is called

A : Truing

B : Dressing

C : Facing

D : Clearing

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?

A : Higher flexibility

B : Improved quality

C : Reduced scrap rate

D : Improved strength of the components

Q.no 45. Which type of locator generally used to locate cylindrical job ?

A : V- locator

B : Nesting locator

C : Pin locator

D : Internal locator

Q.no 46. The tungsten filament cathode is heated to what temperatures in EBM?

A : 1000 to 1500 ᵒC
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B : 1500 to 2000 ᵒC

C : 2500 to 3000 ᵒC

D : 3500 to 5000 ᵒC

Q.no 47. In Super finishing operation

A : The work rotates,


the abrasive
block reciprocates

B : The abrasive
block rotates,
the work reciprocates

C : Both abrasive
block and
work rotates

D : Both abrasive
block and work
reciprocates

Q.no 48. At high cutting speed, high temperature at tool-chip interface is caused by
1. Heat generation rate increases with an increase in cutting speed
2. Friction coefficient (μ) decreases with an increase in cutting speed
3. The time required to transfer the heat decreases with an increase in cutting speed
4. Localization of heat takes place with an increase in cutting speed

A : 1,3 &4

B : 1,2,3 &4

C : 1,2,& 3

D : 2,3 &4

Q.no 49. Which of the following process has the lowest cutting speed?

A : Slotting

B : Lapping

C : Milling

D : Reaming

Q.no 50. If Larger the rake angle, Shear plane length is

A : Shorter

B : Larger

C : Same

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D : Not affected

Q.no 51. V-blocks (Vee locators) are used for clamping as well as locating when faces are
inclined upto degrees

A : 30

B : 12

C : 16

D:3

Q.no 52. Circumference of a work piece is to be divided into 60 equal divisions using simple
indexing method having 40 worm wheel teeth. Indexing movement will be

A : 12 holes on 18 hole circle

B : 16 holes on 18 hole circle

C : 12 holes on 21 hole circle

D : 16 holes on 21 hole circle

Q.no 53. If l=length of travel of the drill in mm, n=rpm of the drill, s= feed per revolution of
the drill in mm. Then machining time can be given as_____

A : (l*n)/s

B : (l*s)/n

C : l/(n*s)

D : (1+n)/s

Q.no 54. Which of the following range of numbers represents dense


structure of abrasives?

A : 0 to 7

B : 8 to 10

C : 10 to 12

D : 12 to 16

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not a media of energy transfer on which the advanced
machining processes are classified?

A : Reactive atmosphere

B : Electrons

C : Electrolyte

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D : Chemical ablation

Q.no 56. Restricts the movement a cylinder placed in a V- block for 3-2-1 principle ?

A : 1 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

B : 2 (Translational) 1 (Rotary)

C : 2 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

D : 1 (Translational) 3 (Rotary)

Q.no 57. In an orthogonal machine test on a steel, rake angle 20 degrees, uncut chip thickness
is 0.1 mm,
cut chip thickness is 0.25 mm calculate shear angle approximately equals to

A : 23 Degrees

B : 33 Degrees

C : 43 Degrees

D : 13 Degrees

Q.no 58. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 51 divisions by compound indexing

A : 17 and 18

B : 15 and 16

C : 16 and 18

D : 18 and 19

Q.no 59. The following is a quick acting clamp

A : Hinged clamp

B : Cam operated clamp

C : Bridge clamp

D : Edge clamp

Q.no 60. The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one plane

A : Template jig

B : Plate type jig

C : Box type jig

D : Open type jig

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a


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Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

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Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. For which of the following operations, broaching can be used?

A : Threading

B : Grinding

C : Spline cutting

D : Increasing the size of the existing hole for a certain length

Q.no 2. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during


machining of

A : brittle metals

B : ductile metals

C : non metals

D : hard metals

Q.no 3. Honing is used for finishing_________

A : External
cylindrical surface

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B : Internal cylindrical
surface

C : Flat Surfaces

D : Curved Surfaces

Q.no 4. Broaching is not applied for machining

A : internal and external surfaces

B : round or irregular shaped holes

C : external flat and contoured surfaces

D : Spherical surfaces

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a locating device?

A : nesting

B : flathead

C : pins

D : strap

Q.no 6. For CNC machining skilled part programmers are needed.

A : true

B : false

C : SOMETIME

D : NOT AT ALL

Q.no 7. Cutting fluids mostly used for machining steel is…….

A : Distilled Water

B : Soluble oil

C : Hydraulic oil

D : Heavy oil

Q.no 8. When cutting face of tool is 90° to the line


of action of tool then it is known as

A : Oblique cutting

B : Orthogonal cutting

C : face cutting
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D : inverse cutting

Q.no 9. The angle between side cutting edge and end cutting edge is called as

A : approach angle

B : nose angle

C : side relief angle

D : end relief angle

Q.no 10. Which of the following code will give circular interpolation in Counterclockwise
direction?

A : G00

B : G56

C : G69

D : G03

Q.no 11. In CNC Absolute system command

A : G90

B : G91

C : G92

D : G93

Q.no 12. Which of the following code is used to specify Spindle start reverse / Counter-
clockwise rotation in milling and drilling?

A : M12

B : M01

C : M15

D : M04

Q.no 13. Which of the following code is used to specify Coolant ON in milling and drilling?

A : M30

B : M07

C : M02

D : M09

Q.no 14. End of program (Reset)


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A : M33

B : M31

C : M32

D : M30

Q.no 15. Which of the following code is used to specify feed per minute in milling and
drilling?

A : G69

B : G10

C : G00

D : G94

Q.no 16. The following is(are) the advantage(s) of cast jigs or fixtures

A : No heat treatments are required for the cast jigs and fixtures

B : If cast jigs or fixture drops down, they don’t get misaligned or de-shaped, although it may break

C : It prevents the
occurrence
of tool chatter
in milling

D : All of the above

Q.no 17. The method of grinding used to produce internal cylindrical


holes and tapers, is

A : Internal cylindrical grinding

B : Form grinding

C : External cylindrical grinding

D : Surface grinding

Q.no 18. The basic purposes of developing and using suitable jigs and fixtures are

A : to eliminate marking, positioning, alignments etc.

B : to eliminate maching process

C : to check the accuracy of workpiece

D : to resharpem the cutting tool

Q.no 19. In an orthogonal cutting, the depth of cut is halved and the
feed rate is double. If the chip thickness ratio is unaffected
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with the changed cutting conditions, the actual chip thickness


will be

A : halved

B : doubled

C : independent

D : unchanged

Q.no 20. With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost of production

A : Increases

B : Decreases

C : Remains same

D : Jigs are not used in any production process

Q.no 21. In oblique cutting chips are in form of

A : Long curl

B : Flat spiral

C : Brittle

D : Short & thick

Q.no 22. In case of tool changer for CNC machines ATC means

A : Anti Tool changer

B : Automatic Tool Changer

C : Automatic Turret Changer

D : Automatic Tool Command

Q.no 23. A dynamo-meter is a device used for the measurement of

A : Chip thickness ratio

B : Forces during metal cutting

C : Wear of the cutting tool

D : Deflection of the cutting tool

Q.no 24. Which of the following operation is performed to provide


recess for bolt heads or nuts?

A : Counterboring
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B : Spot Facing

C : Tapping

D : Countersinking

Q.no 25. The main purpose of a boring operation, as compared to drilling, is to

A : Drill a hole

B : Finish the drilled hole

C : Correct the hole

D : Enlarge the existing hole

Q.no 26. In which of the following methods, an electrolyte is used?

A : Ultrasonic Machining

B : Electrochemical Machining

C : Abrasive Jet Machining

D : Laser Beam Machining

Q.no 27. In which of the following operation jigs are preferred over fixture?

A : Grinding

B : Milling

C : Turning

D : Drilling

Q.no 28. Consider the following actions:


1. Mechanical abrasion
2. Diffusion
3. Plastic deformation
4. Oxidation
Which of the above are the causes of tool wear?

A:2&3

B:1&2

C : 1, 2 & 4

D:1&3

Q.no 29. Number of the degree of freedom of a workpiece in space is equal to

A : 10

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B : 12

C : 16

D : 20

Q.no 30. Which of the following material/s cannot be used for making of nozzle in Abrasive
jet machining?

A : Tungsten Carbide

B : Steel alloy

C : Sapphire

D : Synthetic sapphire

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not true for radial drill?

A : it can work with jobs, which are odd shaped

B : the tubular column is very thick and has small diameters

C : drill is mounted on drilling spindle

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. The point angle of a drill, for drilling stainless steel, is

A : 90°

B : 118°

C : 135°

D : 150°

Q.no 33. The tool angle which helps in reducing the rubbing of the machined surface to the
flank of the tool is

A : Rake angle

B : Cutting edge angle

C : Clearance angle

D : Nose radius

Q.no 34. Which of the following is a surface finishing operation?

A : Drilling

B : Lapping

C : Milling
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D : Turning

Q.no 35. Cemented carbide tool of straight Co-WC is not suitable for steel cutting, because

A : Steel has high hardness

B : Cutting of steel
generates very
high temperature

C : Steel contains Fe
which reacts with
C and promote
diffusive wear

D : Steel contains
Fe which reacts
with Co and
promote
abrasive wear

Q.no 36. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

A : Increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

B : Decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

C : Increasing the length of the arm

D : Decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever

Q.no 37. In NC (Numerical Control) machine tool, the position feedback package is connected
between

A : control unit and programmer

B : programmer and machine tool

C : control unit and machine tool

D : programmer and process planning

Q.no 38. The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions like
depth of cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control system itself, is called

A : Computer Numerical Control System

B : Direct Numerical Control System

C : Machining Centre System

D : Adaptive Control System

Q.no 39. The device, fed to the control unit of NC machine tool which sends the position
command signals to sideway transmission elements of the machine, is called as

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A : controller

B : tape

C : feedback unit

D : Leadscrew

Q.no 40. Side milling cutter is an example of ______ milling cutter.

A : arbor type

B : shank type

C : special type

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. The effect of setting a boring tool above center height leads to

A : Increase in the effective rake angle and a decrease in the effective clearance angle

B : Increase in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle

C : Decrease in the effective rake angle and an increase in the effective clearance angle

D : Decrease in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle

Q.no 42. The tungsten filament cathode is heated to what temperatures in EBM?

A : 1000 to 1500 ᵒC

B : 1500 to 2000 ᵒC

C : 2500 to 3000 ᵒC

D : 3500 to 5000 ᵒC

Q.no 43. A point to point control system is suitable only for one of the following applications

A : Milling profile

B : Turning

C : Drilling

D : Grinding

Q.no 44. In __________ operation, the chip thickness is minimum at the beginning of the cut
and it reaches to the maximum when the cut terminates

A : conventional milling

B : climb milling

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C : face milling

D : end milling

Q.no 45. Larger the shear plane length, power required for cutting the same
material will be

A : Larger

B : smaller

C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 46. Which of the following grinding machine will give a better
result for rough machining?

A : Fine grain

B : Very fine grain

C : Coarse grain

D : Ultra fine grain

Q.no 47. The device which is used to remove workpiece from close-fitting locators, after the
workpiece has been removed is called as

A : escaper

B : blocker

C : remover

D : ejector

Q.no 48. In centreless grinding, work place centre will be

A : Above the line joining the two wheel centres

B : Below the line joining the two wheel centres

C : On the line joining the two wheel centres

D : At the intersection of the line joining the wheel centres with the work place pla

Q.no 49. In Super finishing operation

A : The work rotates,


the abrasive
block reciprocates

B : The abrasive
block rotates,
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the work reciprocates

C : Both abrasive
block and
work rotates

D : Both abrasive
block and work
reciprocates

Q.no 50. Use of tail stock in cylindrical grinding machine is___________

A : To drive the
work piece

B : To give feed to
the wheel head

C : Speed of
grinding wheel

D : To support the
other end of the
work piece

Q.no 51. Restricts the movement a cylinder placed in a V- block for 3-2-1 principle ?

A : 1 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

B : 2 (Translational) 1 (Rotary)

C : 2 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

D : 1 (Translational) 3 (Rotary)

Q.no 52. In face milling,What is the cutting speed when main axis spindle speed is 350 rpm
and the cutter diameter is 125 mm ?

A : 137.4 m/min

B : 142 m/min

C : 150.2 m/min

D : 130 m/min

Q.no 53. In CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40….,
G91 refer to

A : Absolute dimension

B : Incremental dimension

C : Rapid Feed

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D : Linear interpolation

Q.no 54. Frequency of tool’s oscillation in USM ranges between?

A : 5-10 kHz

B : 10-15 kHz

C : 18-20 kHz

D : 25-50 kHz

Q.no 55. A mild steel material is being turn for 50 mm length with a feed rate of 0.15 mm/rev
and spindle speed of 1400 rpm. The time required to cut the material in miniutes is

A : 0.13

B : 0.33

C : 0.23

D : 0.43

Q.no 56. As the abrasive flow rate increases, what happens to the volumetric removal rate in
AJM?

A : Increases

B : Decreases

C : Increase and then decrease

D : Decrease and then increase

Q.no 57. Which are the suitable hole circles from index plate 2 to index 69 divisions by
compound indexing

A : 21 and 23

B : 23 and 27

C : 23 and 29

D : 23 and 31

Q.no 58. V-blocks (Vee locators) are used for clamping as well as locating when faces are
inclined upto degrees

A : 30

B : 12

C : 16

D:3
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Q.no 59. The relief or clearance at the cutting edge of a flat drill varies from

A : 3° to 8°

B : 20° to 30°

C : 60° to 90°

D : 90° to 120°

Q.no 60. The device which place the workpiece in the same position, in jig and fixture, cycle
after cycle is called as

A : placing device

B : locating device

C : Guiding device

D : fixing device

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c


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Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

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Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following code is used to specify Tool Change in milling and drilling?

A : M00

B : M06

C : M05

D : M18

Q.no 2. The method of grinding used to produce internal cylindrical


holes and tapers, is

A : Internal cylindrical grinding

B : Form grinding

C : External cylindrical grinding

D : Surface grinding

Q.no 3. When the metal is removed by erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges
between the tool and work, the process is known as

A : Electrochemical machining

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B : Electro-discharge machining

C : Ultrasonic machining

D : Plasma Machining

Q.no 4. Which of the following does not come under the main components of ECM?

A : Feed control system

B : Work piece holding devices

C : Electrolyte supply system

D : Dielectric flushing

Q.no 5. In CNC programing, block of Information G indicates

A : Sequence command

B : Preparatory commandr

C : Miscellaneous command

D : Machine type

Q.no 6. The cutting speed for counter-boring should be __________ that of drilling operation

A : equal to

B : less than

C : greater than

D : Not have any relation based on operation

Q.no 7. When using of Jigs and fixture at shop floor

A : reduced quality

B : increase machining time

C : decrese machining time

D : increase labour expenses

Q.no 8. Lead angle in the single point cutting tool is the angle between

A : the end cutting edge and the normal to the tool shank

B : . the portion of side shank immediately below the side cutting edge and the line perpendicular to
the base of the tool

C : the tool face and the parallel to the base of the tool

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D : side cutting edge and the side of the tool shank

Q.no 9. Which of the following code is used in programming in absolute coordinates?

A : G90

B : G32

C : G92

D : G01

Q.no 10. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during
machining of

A : brittle metals

B : ductile metals

C : non metals

D : hard metals

Q.no 11. In Electron beam machining, workpiece is held in

A : vacuum chamber

B : dielectric medium

C : electrolyte

D : air

Q.no 12. In which of the following machine, the work rotates and the tool is stationary?

A : Vertical boring machine

B : Horizontal boring machine

C : Precision Boring Machine

D : Jig Boring Machine

Q.no 13. A process which uses a multi-point cutting tool is

A : Boring

B : Hobbing

C : turning

D : Necking

Q.no 14. In CNC Absolute system command

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A : G90

B : G91

C : G92

D : G93

Q.no 15. Which of the following code is used to specify feed per revolution in milling and
drilling?

A : G69

B : G10

C : G00

D : G95

Q.no 16. Return to reference position command is

A : G28

B : G40

C : G41

D : G42

Q.no 17. Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?

A : Grinding

B : Milling

C : Turning

D : Electro chemical machining

Q.no 18. Surface which face the workpiece is known as…... Of the
tool.

A : Flank

B : Base

C : Heel

D : Referance

Q.no 19. In case of tool changer for CNC machines ATC means

A : Anti Tool changer

B : Automatic Tool Changer


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C : Automatic Turret Changer

D : Automatic Tool Command

Q.no 20. The surface of the single point cutting tool on which the chips formed in cutting
operation slide is called as

A : flank

B : heel

C : face

D : shank

Q.no 21. Tool life in orthogonal cutting is

A : more than the tool life in oblique cutting

B : less than the tool life in oblique cutting

C : equal to the tool life in oblique cutting

D : cannot be predicted

Q.no 22. Which of the following code is used to select x y plane in milling?

A : G18

B : G17

C : G10

D : G04

Q.no 23. In drilling softer materials, the cutting speed is __________ as compared to harder
materials

A : same

B : low

C : high

D : Very low

Q.no 24. The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for removing material is

A : Ultrasonic Machining

B : Electrochemical Machining

C : Abrasive Jet Machining

D : Laser Beam Machining


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Q.no 25. Which of the following process is based on Faradays law of Electrolysis?

A : Electrochemical Machining

B : Abrasive Jet Machining

C : Ultrasonic Machining

D : Laser Beam Machining

Q.no 26. Soft materials can not be economically ground due to

A : High temperature involved

B : Frequent wheel clogging

C : Rapid wheel wear

D : Low work piece stiffness

Q.no 27. In direct indexing, the operation may be performed in______

A : Plain dividing head

B : universal dividing head

C : both plain and universal dividing head

D : Compound Dividing head

Q.no 28. The process of improving the cutting action of the grinding
wheel is called

A : Truing

B : Dressing

C : Facing

D : Clearing

Q.no 29. In CNC machine tool, the part program entered into the computer memory

A : can be used only once

B : can be used again and again

C : can be used again but it has to be modified every time

D : cannot say

Q.no 30. Carbide and ceramic tips are used in ________

A : slab mill

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B : face mill

C : fly mill

D : Gang Mill

Q.no 31. Larger the rake angle, power requirement for cutting the same material is

A : Larger

B : smaller

C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 32. CNC machines are not normally operated. They are controlled by means of a:

A : Programme

B : Operator

C : Cam

D : Pulg board system

Q.no 33. The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting
forces

A : Clamping device

B : Locating device

C : fixing devices

D : Guiding device

Q.no 34. A grinding wheel becomes glazed (i.e. cutting edge takes a
glass-like appearance) due to

A : Wear of bond

B : Breaking of abrasive grains

C : Wear of abrasive grains

D : Cracks on grinding wheel

Q.no 35. Which of the following material/s cannot be used for making of nozzle in Abrasive
jet machining?

A : Tungsten Carbide

B : Steel alloy

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C : Sapphire

D : Synthetic sapphire

Q.no 36. In machining operation, Uncut chip thickness t0= 0.8 mm and Chip thickness tc=1.2
mm. The correct option for the chip thickness ratio (r) is

A : 0.4

B : 0.66

C : 1.5

D : 0.83

Q.no 37. How is material removed in Electro discharge machining?

A : Melt and evaporate

B : Corrode and break

C : Mechanical erosion takes place

D : Abrassive action

Q.no 38. Removing dull grains in order to make grinding wheel sharp
is known as

A : Loading

B : Glazing

C : Dressing

D : Trueing

Q.no 39. Which of the following symbol’s range of alphabet represent


soft grain in grinding wheel?

A:A–H

B:I–P

C:Q–T

D:T–Z

Q.no 40. In drilling aluminium, a drill with

A : zero helix angle is used

B : low helix angle is used

C : high helix angle is used

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D : any helix angle can be used

Q.no 41. Generally adjustable locators used to locate which surface ?

A : grinding

B : Rough

C : machined

D : superfinished

Q.no 42. The type of tool magazines used in CNC machines are

A : Drum

B : Pallet

C : Box

D : Turret

Q.no 43. The tungsten filament cathode is heated to what temperatures in EBM?

A : 1000 to 1500 ᵒC

B : 1500 to 2000 ᵒC

C : 2500 to 3000 ᵒC

D : 3500 to 5000 ᵒC

Q.no 44. What are the values of currents used in EBM process?

A : 1 to 20 mA

B : 20 to 100 mA

C : 100 to 200 mA

D : 200 to 400 mA

Q.no 45. A fixture does not

A : Holds the workpiece

B : Locate the workpiece

C : Guide the tool

D : All of the above

Q.no 46. In CNC machine tool, the part program entered into the computer memory

A : can be used only once


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B : can be used again and again

C : can be used again but it has to be modified every time

D : cannot say

Q.no 47. A tool used to withdraw a drill from the sleeve is called

A : drill remover

B : drill puller

C : drift

D : drill drawer

Q.no 48. Lapping is an operation of__________

A : Making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole

B : Smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole

C : Sizing and finishing a small diameter hole

D : Producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool

Q.no 49. NC contouring is example of

A : Continuous path positioning

B : Point-to-point positioning

C : Absolute positionng

D : Incremental positioning

Q.no 50. Point-to-point systems are used for _____

A : Drilling

B : parting

C : grooving

D : facing

Q.no 51. The abrasive recommended for grinding materials of low


tensile strength is

A : Silicon carbide

B : Aluminium oxide

C : Sand stone

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D : Diamond

Q.no 52. In an orthogonal cutting operation, chip thickness ration is 0.61 and rake angle is 20
degrees, then shear angle approximately equals to

A : 23 Degrees

B : 36 Degrees

C : 43 Degrees

D : 26 Degrees

Q.no 53. In drilling bakelite and fibrous plastics, the point angle of a drill is

A : 90°

B : 118°

C : 135°

D : 150°

Q.no 54. A mild steel material is being turn for 50 mm length with a feed rate of 0.15 mm/rev
and spindle speed of 1400 rpm. The time required to cut the material in miniutes is

A : 0.13

B : 0.33

C : 0.23

D : 0.43

Q.no 55. Maching time for drilling four holes of 16 mm diameter each on a flange of 32 mm
thickness with cutting speed 24m/min, feed 0.2 mm/rev using radial drilling machine is

A : 0.54 mins

B : 2.54 mins

C : 1.54 mins

D : 0.74 mins

Q.no 56. Frequency of tool’s oscillation in USM ranges between?

A : 5-10 kHz

B : 10-15 kHz

C : 18-20 kHz

D : 25-50 kHz

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Q.no 57. The following type of jig suits best for drilling of holes in hollow cylindrical
components, with relatively smaller outside and inside diameters, such as bushes

A : Box type jig

B : Open type jig

C : Index jig

D : Pot type jig

Q.no 58. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 87 divisions by compound indexing

A : 37 and 49

B : 15 and 33

C : 23 and 29

D : 29 and 33

Q.no 59. The hardness of a grinding wheel is determined by the

A : Hardness of abrasive grains

B : Ability of the bond to retain abrasives

C : Hardness of the bond

D : Ability of the grinding wheel to penetrate the work piece

Q.no 60. In an orthogonal machine test on a steel, rake angle 20 degrees, uncut chip thickness
is 0.1 mm,
cut chip thickness is 0.25 mm calculate shear angle approximately equals to

A : 23 Degrees

B : 33 Degrees

C : 43 Degrees

D : 13 Degrees

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b


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Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

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Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following code is used in programming in absolute coordinates?

A : G90

B : G32

C : G92

D : G01

Q.no 2. ______ is equal to half the diameter of the drill used.

A : feed

B : depth of cut

C : machining time

D : Spndle Speed

Q.no 3. Lead angle in the single point cutting tool is the angle between

A : the end cutting edge and the normal to the tool shank

B : . the portion of side shank immediately below the side cutting edge and the line perpendicular to
the base of the tool
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C : the tool face and the parallel to the base of the tool

D : side cutting edge and the side of the tool shank

Q.no 4. A drill bit of 20 mm diameter rotating at 500 r.p.m. with a feed rate of 0.2
mm/revolution is used to drill a through-hole in a mild steel plate 20 mm thickness. The depth
of cut in this drilling operation is

A : 0.2 mm

B : 10 mm

C : 20 mm

D : 100 mm

Q.no 5. The material which on machining produces chips with built


up edge is

A : Brittle material

B : Tough material

C : Hard material

D : Ductile material

Q.no 6. With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost of production

A : Increases

B : Decreases

C : Remains same

D : Jigs are not used in any production process

Q.no 7. Which of the following is not a locating device?

A : nesting

B : flathead

C : pins

D : strap

Q.no 8. Chip breakers are used to

A : Increase tool life

B : Remove chips from bed

C : Break the chips into short segments

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D : To minimize heat generation

Q.no 9. Which type of chips form while machining of brittle materials?

A : continuous chips

B : discontinuous chips

C : Built-up chips

D : intricate

Q.no 10. Rough grinding process is commonly used for

A : removing
excess material
from casting

B : cutting materials
that are too
hard to be
machined by
other
conventional tools

C : producing surfaces
on parts to higher
dimensional accuracy

D : obtaining
finer finish

Q.no 11. Which of the following code is used to specify Tool Change in milling and drilling?

A : M00

B : M06

C : M05

D : M18

Q.no 12. Diffusion wear is caused because of


I. High temp. near tool-chip interface
II. Compositional gradient across the tool-chip interface

A : Both (I) and (II)

B : Only (I)

C : Only (II)

D : Neither (I) nor (II)

Q.no 13. Tool compensation off command is

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A : G28

B : G40

C : G41

D : G42

Q.no 14. The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for removing material is

A : Ultrasonic Machining

B : Electrochemical Machining

C : Abrasive Jet Machining

D : Laser Beam Machining

Q.no 15. What is broaching?

A : A machining process used for increasing the size of the existing hole

B : A machining process used for grinding hardened steel

C : A machining process used for making intricate holes accurately

D : A machining process for removal of a layer of material of desired width and depth

Q.no 16. Jigs and fixture

A : decrease interchangeability of parts

B : decreases rate of production

C : decreases the accuracy of the parts.

D : increases the accuracy of the parts.

Q.no 17. Which of the following operation is performed to provide


recess for bolt heads or nuts?

A : Counterboring

B : Spot Facing

C : Tapping

D : Countersinking

Q.no 18. Honing is used for finishing_________

A : External
cylindrical surface

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B : Internal cylindrical
surface

C : Flat Surfaces

D : Curved Surfaces

Q.no 19. The device which is used to remove workpiece from close-fitting locators, after the
workpiece has been removed is called as

A : remover

B : escaper

C : ejector

D : blocker

Q.no 20. What happens to the material removal rate when reflectivity is higher in LBM?

A : Will decrease

B : Will increase

C : Will enhance

D : Remains same

Q.no 21. In CNC programing, block of Information G indicates

A : Sequence command

B : Preparatory commandr

C : Miscellaneous command

D : Machine type

Q.no 22. Small nose radius

A : increases tool life

B : produces chipping and decreases tool life

C : results in excessive stress concentration and greater heat generation

D : decreases tool life

Q.no 23. In oblique cutting chips are in form of

A : Long curl

B : Flat spiral

C : Brittle
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D : Short & thick

Q.no 24. Jigs and Fixtures are used for

A : variable parts production

B : Identical parts production

C : only in inspection

D : sharpening of cutting tool

Q.no 25. A dynamo-meter is a device used for the measurement of

A : Chip thickness ratio

B : Forces during metal cutting

C : Wear of the cutting tool

D : Deflection of the cutting tool

Q.no 26. Side milling cutter is an example of ______ milling cutter.

A : arbor type

B : shank type

C : special type

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. A grinding ratio of 200 implies that the

A : grinding wheel wears 200 times the volume of the material removed

B : grinding wheel wears 0.005 times the volume of the material removed

C : aspect ratio of abrasive particles used in the grinding wheel is 200

D : ratio of volume
of abrasive particle to that of grinding wheel is 200

Q.no 28. Dovetailing can be performed more effectively by ______ milling machine.

A : horizontal

B : vertical

C : can’t say anything

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. The system which holds the workpiece against the cutting forces without causing any
damage to it, is called ?
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A : Clamping

B : Location

C : indexing

D : None of this

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not true for radial drill?

A : it can work with jobs, which are odd shaped

B : the tubular column is very thick and has small diameters

C : drill is mounted on drilling spindle

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. The jigs and fixtures can be constructed through

A : Casting

B : Fabrication

C : Welding

D : All of the above

Q.no 32. How is material removed in Electro discharge machining?

A : Melt and evaporate

B : Corrode and break

C : Mechanical erosion takes place

D : Abrassive action

Q.no 33. In CNC machine tool, the part program entered into the computer memory

A : can be used only once

B : can be used again and again

C : can be used again but it has to be modified every time

D : cannot say

Q.no 34. The angle formed by the leading edge of the land with a plane having the axis of the
drill, is called

A : helix or rake angle

B : point angle

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C : chisel edge angle

D : lip clearance angle

Q.no 35. Several machine tools can be controlled by a central computer in

A : NC (Numerical Control) machine tool

B : CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool

C : DNC (Direct Numerical Control) machine tool

D : CCNC (Central-Computer Numerical Control) machine tool

Q.no 36. Which of the following is a surface finishing operation?

A : Drilling

B : Lapping

C : Milling

D : Turning

Q.no 37. The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting
forces

A : Clamping device

B : Guiding device

C : Locating device

D : Indexing device

Q.no 38. The usual value of the helix angle of a drill is

A : 20°

B : 30°

C : 45°

D : 60°

Q.no 39. Which type of locator generally used to locate cylindrical job ?

A : V- locator

B : Nesting locator

C : Pin locator

D : Internal locator

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Q.no 40. At high cutting speed, high temperature at tool-chip interface is caused by
1. Heat generation rate increases with an increase in cutting speed
2. Friction coefficient (μ) decreases with an increase in cutting speed
3. The time required to transfer the heat decreases with an increase in cutting speed
4. Localization of heat takes place with an increase in cutting speed

A : 1,3 &4

B : 1,2,3 &4

C : 1,2,& 3

D : 2,3 &4

Q.no 41. Part-programming mistakes can be avoided in

A : NC (Numerical Control) machine tool

B : CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool

C : Both a. and b

D : Conventional machining

Q.no 42. Which of the following operation, we can’t perform on drilling machine?

A : reaming

B : tapping

C : lapping

D : Turning

Q.no 43. This type of jig is employed on multi-spindle machines

A : Index jig

B : Universal jig

C : Open type jig

D : Multi-station jig

Q.no 44. Crack in grinding wheel is developed due to

A : High temperature developed at the contact of the wheel face and work

B : Grinding hard work

C : Low speed of wheel

D : High speed of whee

Q.no 45. Feed is measured in units of _____


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A : length/revolution

B : degree/revolution

C : length

D : velocity

Q.no 46. The usual value of the point angle of a drill is

A : 70°

B : 100°

C : 118°

D : 130°

Q.no 47. In Super finishing operation

A : The work rotates,


the abrasive
block reciprocates

B : The abrasive
block rotates,
the work reciprocates

C : Both abrasive
block and
work rotates

D : Both abrasive
block and work
reciprocates

Q.no 48. A better machinable metal is one which gives

A : lower chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle

B : higher chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle

C : lower chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle

D : higher chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle

Q.no 49. Number of the degree of freedom of a workpiece in space is equal to

A : 10

B : 12

C : 16

D : 20
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Q.no 50. The device, fed to the control unit of NC machine tool which sends the position
command signals to sideway transmission elements of the machine, is called as

A : controller

B : tape

C : feedback unit

D : Leadscrew

Q.no 51. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 87 divisions by compound indexing

A : 37 and 49

B : 15 and 33

C : 23 and 29

D : 29 and 33

Q.no 52. In Abrasive jet machining, work piece material of removed by which of the following
means?

A : Vaporization

B : Electro plating

C : Mechanical abrasion

D : Corrosion

Q.no 53. The hardness of a grinding wheel is determined by the

A : Hardness of abrasive grains

B : Ability of the bond to retain abrasives

C : Hardness of the bond

D : Ability of the grinding wheel to penetrate the work piece

Q.no 54. V-blocks (Vee locators) are used for clamping as well as locating when faces are
inclined upto degrees

A : 30

B : 12

C : 16

D:3

Q.no 55. Which are the suitable hole circles to index 51 divisions by compound indexing

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A : 17 and 18

B : 15 and 16

C : 16 and 18

D : 18 and 19

Q.no 56. What is the value of abrasive grain flow rate in Abrasive jet machining?

A : 0.1 – 2 g/min

B : 3 – 20 g/min

C : 30 – 56 g/min

D : 68 – 85 g/min

Q.no 57. In the Taylor’s tool life equation, VT^n = C, the value of n=0.5. The tool life has a life
of 180 minutes at a cutting speed of 18 m/min. If the tool life is reduced to 45 minutes, then
the cutting speed will be

A : 9 m/min

B : 18 m/min

C : 36 m/min

D : 72 m/min

Q.no 58. In an orthogonal cutting operation, chip thickness ration is 0.61 and rake angle is 20
degrees, then shear angle approximately equals to

A : 23 Degrees

B : 36 Degrees

C : 43 Degrees

D : 26 Degrees

Q.no 59. Using the Taylor equation VT^n=c, calculate the percentage increase in tool life
when the cutting speed is reduced is reduced by 50% (n=0.5 and c=400)

A:3

B:4

C:1

D : 0.5

Q.no 60. Lapping is not suitable for

A : Tungsten
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B : Lead

C : Brass

D : Copper

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c


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Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

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Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11668_ MANUFACTURING PROCESS II


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following code is used to specify Coolant ON in milling and drilling?

A : M30

B : M07

C : M02

D : M09

Q.no 2. Work material tends to adhere or cold weld with the cutting edge in case of

A : Continuous chips

B : Discontinuous chips

C : Segmented chips

D : Continuous chips with built up edges

Q.no 3. When cutting face of tool is 90° to the line


of action of tool then it is known as

A : Oblique cutting

B : Orthogonal cutting
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C : face cutting

D : inverse cutting

Q.no 4. Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?

A : Grinding

B : Milling

C : Turning

D : Electro chemical machining

Q.no 5. Automatic tool change in CNC Machine code

A : M05

B : M06

C : M07

D : M09

Q.no 6. Jigs are not used in

A : Drilling

B : Milling

C : Reaming

D : Tapping

Q.no 7. Jigs and fixture

A : decrease interchangeability of parts

B : decreases rate of production

C : decreases the accuracy of the parts.

D : increases the accuracy of the parts.

Q.no 8. The cutting speed for counter-boring should be __________ that of drilling operation

A : equal to

B : less than

C : greater than

D : Not have any relation based on operation

Q.no 9. ______ is equal to half the diameter of the drill used.


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A : feed

B : depth of cut

C : machining time

D : Spndle Speed

Q.no 10. Grinding wheel Tool signature consists of __________ elements

A:4

B:5

C:2

D:7

Q.no 11. Lead angle in the single point cutting tool is the angle between

A : the end cutting edge and the normal to the tool shank

B : . the portion of side shank immediately below the side cutting edge and the line perpendicular to
the base of the tool

C : the tool face and the parallel to the base of the tool

D : side cutting edge and the side of the tool shank

Q.no 12. DNC stands for_____

A : Digital Numerical control

B : Direct Numerical Control

C : Double Numerical Control

D : Direct Numerical Code

Q.no 13. The use of jigs and fixtures

A : Facilitates deployment of less skilled labour for production

B : Eliminates pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out etc.

C : reduced manual
handling operation

D : All of the above

Q.no 14. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during
machining of

A : brittle metals

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B : ductile metals

C : non metals

D : hard metals

Q.no 15. The jigs and fixtures reduces

A : unskilled labor

B : pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out, etc.

C : manual
handling operations

D : set-up time

Q.no 16. In metal cutting operations, secondary deformation occurs at

A : Chip-tool interface

B : Below tool tip

C : In uncut chip away from tool tip

D : All of the above

Q.no 17. When the metal is removed by erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges
between the tool and work, the process is known as

A : Electrochemical machining

B : Electro-discharge machining

C : Ultrasonic machining

D : Plasma Machining

Q.no 18. What is broaching?

A : A machining process used for increasing the size of the existing hole

B : A machining process used for grinding hardened steel

C : A machining process used for making intricate holes accurately

D : A machining process for removal of a layer of material of desired width and depth

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not element of Jigs and fixtures

A : tool guiding frame and bushes

B : base and body or frame

C : cutter
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D : indexing plates

Q.no 20. In case of tool changer for CNC machines ATC means

A : Anti Tool changer

B : Automatic Tool Changer

C : Automatic Turret Changer

D : Automatic Tool Command

Q.no 21. The angle between side cutting edge and end cutting edge is called as

A : approach angle

B : nose angle

C : side relief angle

D : end relief angle

Q.no 22. The surface of the single point cutting tool on which the chips formed in cutting
operation slide is called as

A : flank

B : heel

C : face

D : shank

Q.no 23. Which of the following operation is performed to provide


recess for bolt heads or nuts?

A : Counterboring

B : Spot Facing

C : Tapping

D : Countersinking

Q.no 24. The time (in minutes) for a drilling a hole is given by t= (depth of hole+
h)/Feed×RPM, where h is

A : length of the drill

B : drill diameter

C : flute length of the drill

D : cone height of the drill

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Q.no 25. Which of the following does not come under the main components of ECM?

A : Feed control system

B : Work piece holding devices

C : Electrolyte supply system

D : Dielectric flushing

Q.no 26. Any number of equal divisions can be obtained on milling machine by

A : Direct Indexing

B : Simple Indexing

C : Compound Indexing

D : Differential Indexing

Q.no 27. The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting
forces

A : Clamping device

B : Guiding device

C : Locating device

D : Indexing device

Q.no 28. In Electro discharge machining, materials with low melting point have which type of
material removal rate?

A : Very low

B : Low

C : Medium

D : High

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not true for radial drill?

A : it can work with jobs, which are odd shaped

B : the tubular column is very thick and has small diameters

C : drill is mounted on drilling spindle

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. What are the values of material removal rates in EDM?

A : 0.001 to 0.1 mm3/min


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B : 0.1 to 400 mm3/min

C : 400 to 1000 mm3/min

D : 1000 to 5000 mm3/min

Q.no 31. Dielectric medium in EDM is acts as

A : an electrolyte

B : To make the medium conducting

C : To decrease the material removal rate

D : Insulator till reached to breakdown votlage

Q.no 32. Which type of locator generally used to locate cylindrical job ?

A : V- locator

B : Nesting locator

C : Pin locator

D : Internal locator

Q.no 33. Feed is measured in units of _____

A : length/revolution

B : degree/revolution

C : length

D : velocity

Q.no 34. The correct sequence of the following parameters in order of their maximum to
minimum influence on tool life is

A : Feed rate, depth of cut, cutting speed

B : Depth of cut, cutting speed, feed rate

C : Cutting speed, feed rate, depth of cut

D : Feed rate, cutting speed, depth of cut

Q.no 35. The material removal rate in grinding operation is small due to

A : only a small
portion of
abrasives are
involved in cutting

B : positive rake angle


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C : zero rake angle

D : material removal rate does not depend on the rake angle

Q.no 36. Which of the following is basically a polishing operation?

A : Soft grinding

B : Lapping

C : Honing

D : Buffing

Q.no 37. The point angle of a drill, for drilling stainless steel, is

A : 90°

B : 118°

C : 135°

D : 150°

Q.no 38. The type of tool magazines used in CNC machines are

A : Drum

B : Pallet

C : Box

D : Turret

Q.no 39. What are the values of currents used in EBM process?

A : 1 to 20 mA

B : 20 to 100 mA

C : 100 to 200 mA

D : 200 to 400 mA

Q.no 40. The usual value of the helix angle of a drill is

A : 20°

B : 30°

C : 45°

D : 60°

Q.no 41. Side milling cutter is an example of ______ milling cutter.


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A : arbor type

B : shank type

C : special type

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 42. Lapping is an operation of__________

A : Making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole

B : Smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole

C : Sizing and finishing a small diameter hole

D : Producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool

Q.no 43. Part-programming mistakes can be avoided in

A : NC (Numerical Control) machine tool

B : CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool

C : Both a. and b

D : Conventional machining

Q.no 44. Dovetailing can be performed more effectively by ______ milling machine.

A : horizontal

B : vertical

C : can’t say anything

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 45. The process of improving the cutting action of the grinding
wheel is called

A : Truing

B : Dressing

C : Facing

D : Clearing

Q.no 46. Larger the rake angle, power requirement for cutting the same material is

A : Larger

B : smaller

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C : Same

D : Not affected

Q.no 47. The system which holds the workpiece against the cutting forces without causing any
damage to it, is called ?

A : Clamping

B : Location

C : indexing

D : None of this

Q.no 48. Cemented carbide tool of straight Co-WC is not suitable for steel cutting, because

A : Steel has high hardness

B : Cutting of steel
generates very
high temperature

C : Steel contains Fe
which reacts with
C and promote
diffusive wear

D : Steel contains
Fe which reacts
with Co and
promote
abrasive wear

Q.no 49. 3-2-1 principle is also known as ?

A : 6 point location

B : Principle of holding

C : x-x-z location of principle

D : Principle of clamping

Q.no 50. In drilling aluminium, a drill with

A : zero helix angle is used

B : low helix angle is used

C : high helix angle is used

D : any helix angle can be used

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Q.no 51. In Abrasive jet machining, work piece material of removed by which of the following
means?

A : Vaporization

B : Electro plating

C : Mechanical abrasion

D : Corrosion

Q.no 52. Frequency of tool’s oscillation in USM ranges between?

A : 5-10 kHz

B : 10-15 kHz

C : 18-20 kHz

D : 25-50 kHz

Q.no 53. Which of the following range of numbers represents dense


structure of abrasives?

A : 0 to 7

B : 8 to 10

C : 10 to 12

D : 12 to 16

Q.no 54. Lapping is not suitable for

A : Tungsten

B : Lead

C : Brass

D : Copper

Q.no 55. Calculate the cutting speed of drilling operation when diameter of drill is 10 mm and
rotational speed of drill is 200 r.p.m.

A : 6.283 m/min

B : 3.142 m/min

C : 8.362 m/min

D : 10.216 m/min

Q.no 56. Maching time for drilling four holes of 16 mm diameter each on a flange of 32 mm
thickness with cutting speed 24m/min, feed 0.2 mm/rev using radial drilling machine is
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A : 0.54 mins

B : 2.54 mins

C : 1.54 mins

D : 0.74 mins

Q.no 57. Which are the suitable hole circles from index plate 2 to index 69 divisions by
compound indexing

A : 21 and 23

B : 23 and 27

C : 23 and 29

D : 23 and 31

Q.no 58. Restricts the movement a cylinder placed in a V- block for 3-2-1 principle ?

A : 1 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

B : 2 (Translational) 1 (Rotary)

C : 2 (Translational) 2 (Rotary)

D : 1 (Translational) 3 (Rotary)

Q.no 59. Glazing in grinding wheels takes place when the

A : Wheel is too hard or wheel revolves at a very high speed

B : Wheel is too soft or wheel revolves at a very slow speed

C : Wheel is too hard and wheel revolves at very slow speed

D : Wheel is too soft and wheel revolves at a very high speed

Q.no 60. The following is a quick acting clamp

A : Hinged clamp

B : Cam operated clamp

C : Bridge clamp

D : Edge clamp

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a


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Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

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Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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