Agri Demo Work

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AIMCAT 2009
VARC
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of four
questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
It is a platitude that cultures change over time. Researchers study the nature of these changes.
Modern cultural evolutionary theory portrays the human capacity for cultural change as both a
product of genetic evolution and an evolutionary process. The parameters of the cultural
evolutionary process are tuned by genetic evolution to lead to outcomes enhancing genetic fitness.
The evolutionary-biologist Edward Wilson claimed that human culture is held on a genetic leash:
imagine a dog-walker (gene) struggling to retain control of a mastiff (culture)!
The term “dual inheritance theory” signifies a more symmetrical relationship between genetic and
cultural evolution as two streams of information that replicate across generations and mutually
influence each other. That the cultural stream evolved by genetic evolution says little about their
current relationship. The genetic stream of inheritance can someday be controlled by the cultural
stream.
Where have cultural anthropologists been during the development of dual inheritance theory? For
the most part, absent! This theory is like a party thrown by evolutionary theorists where cultural
anthropologists weren’t invited/ didn’t want to come. …
Robert Paul is the first cultural anthropologist brave enough to apply [the principles of his field] to
dual inheritance theory without apology. He wants to make the cultural stream of inheritance come to
life with ethnographic examples chosen from different cultures. If we invert Wilson’s leash metaphor
by associating genetic evolution with “dog” and cultural evolution with “man”, then Paul provides
many examples of “man bites dog”, or cultural evolution circumscribing genetic evolution.
For example, a surprising number of cultures in the past have perpetuated themselves by importing
children (i.e., through immigration) rather than through biological reproduction. … The incoming
children must adopt the culture’s customs…
Paul rightly understands that the great challenge (and genetic payoff) of the cultural stream of
inheritance is to suppress disruptive forms of competition within groups so that the group can
function as a cooperative unit. .... The implication for anthropology, Paul says, is that evolutionary
theorists should consider the critical work the cultural system does in human social life, while cultural
anthropologists should consider the need facing any human socio-cultural system to sustain
biological reproduction, and forge an effective compromise. The prospects of this happening are
rather dim; but only because the dynamics Wilson has identified are also operative in the society of
anthropologists: for isn’t it the genetic program and the cultural program duking it out once again and
preventing us from seeing that a complete account of human social life cannot be “either/or,” but
must be “both/and”?
Q1. Which of the following would serve as the most appropriate title for the passage?
a) Contemporary Cultural Anthropology versus Historical Anthropology
b) Cultural Anthropology and History: A Winning Combination
c) Dual Inheritance Theory: A Cultural Anthropologist’s perspective
d) Man Bites Dog: The Exegesis of Culture

Q2. In the question below, column A presents sentences or fragments taken from the passage.
Column B presents certain literary devices or possible terminologies that can be associated with the
fragments given in column A, when considered in the context of the passage. Match the columns
and select the most appropriate pair from among those given in the options.
a) 1 – b, 2 – g, 3 – a, 4 – i
b) 2 – c, 3 – e, 4 – h, 1 – d
c) 3 – a, 1 – c, 2 – e, 4 – i
d) 3 – e, 4 – a, 1 – f, 2 – c
Q3. Which of the following can most reasonably be inferred from the passage?
a) Robert Paul would approve of a middle ground to minimise the seeming umbrage between
evolutionary theorists and cultural anthropologists.
b) Edward Wilson has extricated culture from the genetic leash and now opines that the genetic
stream of inheritance can come under the control of the cultural stream.
c) Bemoaning the general immaturity of contemporary cultural anthropologists would be as obtuse

as declaring the field of cultural anthropology the most important field ever.
d) Though there can be congruency between the two schools of thought, namely the cultural stream
and the evolutionary stream of inheritance, it is now known that cultural traits are spread in ways that
differ significantly from genes.
Q4. Which of the following best describes the approach of the author in writing the passage?
a) The author discusses two streams of inheritance, likens them and then favours one particular
stream while providing a warning about the other.
b) The author examines the current relationship between two streams of inheritance in a new light
and then describes it from a cultural anthropologist’s perspective.
c) The author gives an overall view about a concept, explains the changes in its definition over the
years and then refutes a certain meaning by raising pertinent questions.
d) The author compares two different interpretations about a concept and then urges us to
incorporate both of them to analyse the concept as either of them alone is insufficient.
DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 7: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of three
Remembering the deaths of 4 June 1989 is no neutral task. It is a civic duty, an act of resistance in
countering a state-level lie that risks spreading far beyond China’s borders. On that day, the
Communist party sent tanks to clear protesters from Tiananmen Square in the centre of Beijing,
killing maybe more than a thousand. In the intervening years, China has systematically erased the
evidence and memory of this violent suppression using its increasingly hi-tech apparatus of
censorship and control.
…Journalists generally shy away from taking political or ideological positions and yet, since China
has for 30 years tried to deny its crime, the simple act of writing about it unwittingly tips us into
activism…
…How does one remain detached and objective when the topic is politically charged? This dilemma
is becoming increasingly widespread among journalists and academics, with whole fields of study
being pushed into activism by Beijing’s coercive actions. A case in point are the Xinjiang scholars:
with one million Uighurs held in political indoctrination camps in the north-west, these academics
studying a once obscure speciality have become some of the loudest voices advocating for the
Uighur community. For them, activism is not just a moral duty but a professional responsibility, since
the culture to which they have devoted their scholarly lives risks being annihilated by Beijing’s
assault…
…China is retrofitting its history into a vision that starts in the stone age and ends with the
Communist party, a single continuum that serves to legitimise the current leadership and its narrative
of the past, the present and the future… Scholars working inside China have been funded by the
state to prove the existence of a mythological dynasty called the Xia (presumed dates 2070 to
1600BC). The Xia-Shang-Zhou chronology project underpins the state’s narrative of 5,000 years of
uninterrupted civilisation. It’s a project that has been widely criticised as unscientific and politically
driven…
…[We] are witnessing with China an attempt to write a whole civilisation into the linear history of a
single nation…In this climate, where silence is acquiescence, speaking of forbidden histories
becomes a moral choice.
Q5. The author believes that ‘speaking of forbidden histories becomes a moral choice’ because
a) China has systematically erased the evidence and memory of the violent suppression at
Tiananmen Square.
b) journalists generally shy away from taking political or ideological positions.
c) whole fields of study are being pushed into activism by Beijing’s coercive actions.
d) it is a civic duty, an act of resistance to counter a state-level lie.
Q6. The author mentions the example of the Xinjiang scholars to demonstrate that
a) Beijing’s assault on academic liberty is turning many scholars against the government.
b) the unfair treatment of the Uighur community by Beijing is making activists out of scholars.
c) scholars are making a moral choice in advocating for the Uighur community held in political
indoctrination camps.
d) the Uighur culture is at the risk of being annihilated by the coercive actions of the Chinese
government.
Q7. The passage makes all of the following claims EXCEPT:
a) The Chinese government is altering the history of China to suit its own narrative.
b) The Chinese state uses technology to censor information that it doesn’t want to be circulated.
c) China’s current leadership stands to benefit from research that proves the mythical nature of the
Xia dynasty.
d) The Chinese state orchestrated a mass massacre at the Tiananmen Square.

DIRECTIONS for questions 8 to 13: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six
For all avid readers who have been self-medicating with great books their entire lives, it comes as no
surprise that reading books can be good for your mental health and your relationships with others…
[E]xactly why and how is now becoming clearer, thanks to new research on reading’s effects on the
brain. Since the discovery, in the mid-nineties, of “mirror neurons” – neurons that fire in our brains
both when we perform an action ourselves and when we see an action performed by someone else
– the neuroscience of empathy has become clearer. A 2011 study published in the Annual Review of
Psychology, based on analysis of fMRI brain scans of participants, showed that, when people read
about an experience, they display stimulation within the same neurological regions as when they go
through that experience themselves. We draw on the same brain networks when we’re reading
stories and when we’re trying to guess at another person’s feelings.
Other studies published in 2006 and 2009 showed something similar – that people who read a lot of
fiction tend to be better at empathizing with others, even after the researchers had accounted for the
potential bias that people with greater empathetic tendencies may prefer to read novels. And, in
2013, an influential study published in Science found that reading literary fiction (rather than popular
fiction or literary nonfiction) improved participants’ results on tests that measured social perception
and empathy, which are crucial to “theory of mind”: the ability to guess with accuracy what another
human being might be thinking or feeling, a skill humans only start to develop around the age of four.
Keith Oatley, a novelist and emeritus professor of cognitive psychology at the University of Toronto
[writes that] “Fiction is a kind of simulation, one that runs not on computers but on minds: a
simulation of selves in their interactions with others in the social world…based in experience, and
involving being able to think of possible futures.” This idea echoes a long-held belief among both
writers and readers that [books] give us a chance to rehearse for interactions with others in the
world, without doing any lasting damage…
But not everybody agrees [that] fiction-reading [has] the ability to make us behave better ... In her
2007 book, “Empathy and the Novel,” Suzanne Keen takes issue with this “empathy-altruism
hypothesis,” and is sceptical about whether empathetic connections made while reading fiction really
translate into altruistic, prosocial behaviour in the world. She also points out how hard it is to really
prove such a hypothesis… “As any bookworm knows, readers can also seem antisocial and
indolent. Novel reading is not a team sport.” Instead, she urges, we should enjoy what fiction does
give us, which is a release from the moral obligation to feel something for invented characters – as
you would for a real, live human being in pain or suffering – which paradoxically means readers
sometimes “respond with greater empathy to an unreal situation and characters because of the
protective fictionality.”…
…Even if you don’t agree that reading fiction makes us treat others better, it is a way of treating
ourselves better. Reading has been shown to put our brains into a pleasurable trance-like state,
similar to meditation… “Fiction and poetry are doses of medicines,” the author Jeanette Winterson
has written. “What they heal is the rupture reality makes on the imagination.”
Q8. Which of the following summarises the “potential bias” that the author refers to in the second
para?
a) A willingness to read novels could be found even in those who are not empathetic.
b) The scope of the studies included only those who read and are empathetic.
c) The studies exclude the set of people whose empathy is a direct consequence of their reading
habit.
d) A willingness to read novels could be the by-product of being an empathetic person.

Your answer is correct
Q9. The 2011 study of fMRI brain scans mentioned in the first para demonstrated that
a) empathy and reading stimulate the same neurological regions in the brain. Your
answer is correct
b) habitual readers show greater empathy than others.
c) reading sparks imagination which helps us guess another person’s feelings better.
d) it is possible to self-medicate by reading great books.

Q10. Suzanne Keen feels that it is hard to prove the empathy-altruism hypothesis because
a) novel reading is a solitary activity.
b) readers are falsely perceived to be introverted and rude. Your answer is incorrect
c) book-reading and empathetic prosocial behaviour are not always connected.
d) not all book readers are necessarily nice people.

Q11. The last para of the passage
a) explains why reading fiction makes us treat others better.
b) highlights the therapeutic benefits of reading. Your answer is correct
c) points how reading helps close the gap between reality and imagination.
d) shows how reading fiction is a good substitute for medication.

Q12. Keith Oatley compares fiction and simulation because
a) fiction helps one meditate about social interactions.
b) fiction allows us to predict the future.
c) fiction is always based on real-life experiences.
d) fiction allows us to train our minds while avoiding actual social interactions. Your
answer is incorrect
Q13. The author mentions ‘protective fictionality’ to possibly highlight that
a) readers need not take the risks that their favourite characters in fiction take while deriving
a voyeuristic pleasure out of the same.
b) readers can experience situations which are based in real life without undergoing any
lasting damage.
c) readers may empathise more with an invented character because of the freedom to not
subscribe to a particular expected reaction. Your answer is correct
d) readers are protected from negative feelings of loss, betrayal and pain due to the
fictionality of their favourite characters.
DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 18: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of five
How did we humans manage to build a global civilization on the cusp of colonizing other planets? It
seems like such an unlikely outcome. After all, we were prone to cycles of war and famine for
millennia and have a meagre capacity for society-wide planning and coordination – among other
problems.
Maybe it’s our unique capacity for complex language and storytelling, … or [the] political and
religious institutions we have created. However, perhaps the most significant answer is something
else entirely: code. Humanity has survived, and thrived, by developing productive activities that
evolve into regular routines and standardized platforms – which is to say we have survived, and
thrived, by creating and advancing code. …
“Code” as I intend it incorporates elements of computer code, genetic code, cryptologic code, and
other forms as well... Code captures the algorithmic nature of instructions as well as their
evolutionary character. …
… As code advances, higher-level technologies feed on more fundamental technologies. …

Platforms provide essential structures for the code economy: The infrastructure that underlies a city
is a standardized platform. Written language is a standardized platform... Human civilization has thus
advanced through the creation and improvement of code, which is built on layers of platforms that
accumulate like the pipes and tunnels that lie below a great city.
In the past 200 years, the complexity of code has increased by orders of magnitude. Death rates
began to fall rapidly in the middle of the 19th century, due to a combination of increased agricultural
output, improved hygiene, and the beginning of better medical practices – all different dimensions of
the advance of code. …
By the 20th century, the continued advance of code seemed to necessitate the creation of
…bureaucracies and corporations… that employed vast numbers of people. … To structure work
within such large, complex organizations, humans began to define occupations in terms of specific
task-defined roles rather than by artisanal trades, as had been the case throughout human history.
We came to call these task-defined roles “jobs.” Jobs were very different from the trades, in that they
were designed to optimize institutional operations rather than to perpetuate and advance inherited,
mostly unwritten production practices…
Two broad categories of epochal change occurred as a result of this evolution of the economy from
simplicity to complexity. One is that our capabilities grew, individually and collectively. For instance,
we can now fly. … We can carry on conversations with people anywhere around the world… But
that’s not all.
The second epochal change related to the advance of code is that we have, to an increasing degree,
ceded to other people – and to code itself – authority and autonomy, which for millennia we had kept
unto ourselves and our immediate tribal groups as uncodified cultural norms. We now obey written
laws and rules. ... We respect elected officials (in our actions if not always our thoughts) and the
elected officials respect electoral processes (in their words if not always their actions). ... We depend
for our survival on an ever-growing array of services provided by others, who in turn are ceding an
increasing amount of their authority to code…
Code is at once a force, or a means, of liberation and constraint. Its advance is perhaps as integral
to the unfolding of human history as every head of state has been, combined. We cannot understand
the dynamics of the economy – its past or its future – without understanding code.
Q14. Which of the following is not mentioned to be a consequence of the increase in the complexity
of code?
a) There was a rapid fall in the mortality rates.
b) There was a fall in the popularity of artisanal trades.
c) It resulted in the formation of large corporations.
d) It led to better health and hygiene practices.

Q15. The primary difference between jobs and trades is that
a) jobs perpetuate procedures for optimising institutional operations, while trades

perpetuate unwritten production practices.
b) jobs are task-defined roles in a formal business setting, while trades are defined for an
informal setting.
c) jobs focus on bettering operations in corporations, while trades improve on production

practices handed down from generation to generation.
d) jobs take place in complex organisations, while trades are perpetuated in simpler
organizations.
Q16. Which of the following can be inferred from the penultimate para of the passage?
a) Ceding authority and autonomy is a prerequisite for the evolution of code.
b) Our survival depends on ceding authority to code.
c) We kept the code to a tightly knit group for millennia.
d) If a person obeys written rules and laws, it indicates that he/she is ceding authority and
autonomy to others.
Q17. It can be inferred that the standardized platform, introduced in para 2, is important for the
code economy because it
a) acts as a fundamental technology that feeds higher-level technologies.
b) acts as a higher-level technology that feeds on more fundamental technologies.
c) helps in charting an optimal path for the evolution of code.
d) is important for city infrastructure and written language.

Q18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of code, as described in the passage?
a) Code includes the set of instructions that defines a productive activity.
b) Code is responsible for humanity surviving wars and famines, which lasted for millennia.
c) Understanding code will help in understanding the future of the economy.
d) The longer humanity survives, the more complex code will become.
DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six
Are chess and bridge sports? The International Olympic Committee thinks that they are, and
regularly considers them for inclusion in the [Olympics]. … Neither chess nor bridge has as yet
managed to win a place, but their governing bodies are indefatigable in pursuit of that goal.
In my view, however, chess and bridge shouldn’t even be eligible, let alone included. They are
games, not sports. The requirements are different. …
The philosopher Ludwig Wittgenstein once claimed that games were undefinable, defying anybody
to produce a set of necessary and sufficient conditions for the concept. It is a pity that he did not live
to read the Canadian philosopher Bernard Suits’s book The Grasshopper: Games, Life and Utopia
(1978), which responds to Wittgenstein’s challenge with this neat definition: ‘the voluntary attempt to
overcome unnecessary obstacles’.
Suits’ idea is that all games specify some agreed target state – such as reaching the final square in
snakes and ladders, or getting your golf ball in the hole – and then place arbitrary restrictions on the
means allowed – you must go down the snakes but not up; you must propel the ball with your clubs
and not carry it down the fairway.
As an account of games, this seems spot-on. Suits is on less solid ground, however, when he
argues that all sports are games. While sports that do have arbitrary rules, such as golf and tennis,
fit his definition of a game, Suits has trouble with freeform activities such as skiing or surfing. He tries
to crowbar them into his definition by focusing on the rules that structure competitive versions of
these sports. Still, what about recreational skiing and surfing? In most people’s eyes, these are still
sports all right, even without any rules to make them games.
Suits’s emphasis on rules also leads him astray when it comes to the value of sport. As he sees it,
the point of sports, along with all other games, is to meet the challenge of the ‘unnecessary
obstacles’ placed in the way of the agreed target state. This is unconvincing. I’d say that, if
something isn’t worth doing, it isn’t worth doing even when it’s made difficult. There must be more to
sports than overcoming unnecessary obstacles.
The real point of sports is the exercise of physical abilities. Pride in physical performance is a
deep-seated feature of human nature. Humans hone their physical talents and take delight in using
them. I would say that a sport is any activity that facilitates the display of physical skills.
Even when a sport is a game, like tennis, the value of the activity lies in the physical expertise, not
the structure of the game. Top-spin crosscourt backhands are good because they are admirably
skillful, not because you have to overcome tennis’s arbitrary rules in order to win a point.
In line with this, it is noteworthy how many sports have grown out of everyday physical activities.
Adepts start to develop their talents for rowing – or archery, fencing – and soon enough these
become organised sports. It is only natural that someone who takes pride in their ability to row fast
should want to see if they can row faster than others.
This is why chess and bridge are not sports. You could argue that physical energy is expended in
moving the pieces or playing the cards – perhaps even more energy than in static sports such as
target shooting. However, that’s not what the competitors are trying to be good at. … Sports are
essentially physical, in a way that chess and bridge are not. …
Q19. Which of the following is a claim made by Suits with which the author disagrees?
a) To call an activity a game, it must have arbitrary restrictions placed on it. Your answer is
incorrect
b) All sports must have arbitrary restrictions placed on them.

c) There are some games in which there are no arbitrary restrictions.
d) Some sports, which do not have arbitrary restrictions, cannot be called games.
Q20. According to the author, the value of sport primarily lies in
a) the innate human desire to showcase our physical abilities.
b) measuring how much better one is at a sport compared to others.
c) the need to demonstrate human expertise in everyday physical activities. Your

answer is incorrect
d) the physical adroitness that sport demands.
Q21. With which of the following statements will the author most likely agree, with respect to sports
that can also be called games?
a) The physical expertise exhibited in the confines of the rules of the sport is what adds
value to all such sports.
b) Among the sports that are also games, tennis is one of the rare games in which physical
expertise is important.
c) The physical expertise that such sports require is more important than the structure of the
sport. Your answer is correct

d) The structure of the sport is defined keeping in mind the physical expertise that the
players should exhibit.
Q23. Which of the following will allay the author’s concerns on “unnecessary obstacles” in sports (in
para 6)?
a) The “unnecessary obstacles” in sports make rules of the sports easier to understand.
b) The “unnecessary obstacles” in sports demand that the players exhibit superior physical
expertise.
c) If an activity is made more difficult by adding “unnecessary obstacles”, it attracts fewer

people to participate in it.
d) “Unnecessary obstacles” are inherent to the structure of any game.

Q24. Which of the following, if true, invalidates the assumption made by the author in making his
recommendation in the second para of the passage?
a) Only those activities that are considered sports are included in the Olympics.
b) The governing bodies of chess and bridge consider the two to be sports.
c) The inclusion or exclusion of a game or sport in Olympics depends only on the number of
countries that participate in the game or sport. Your answer is correct

d) The governing bodies of chess and bridge impose certain restrictions on the minimum
levels of physical fitness of the players of these games.
Q25. DIRECTIONS for question 25: The paragraph given below is followed by four summaries.
Choose the option that best represents the author’s primary position in the paragraph.
The further philosophy distances itself from the concerns of non-philosophers, the more it detaches
itself from what made it come to life in the first place, which is its continuity with the general human
longing to get our bearings in the largest sense possible: to figure out the nature of this reality we
find ourselves in, to figure out the nature of what we ourselves are and how we fit into this reality, to
figure out how to pursue a life genuinely worthy for us to live, a life that does justice to our longing to
matter, not necessarily to matter more than others, and not necessarily to matter to the universe at
large.
a) In order to continue the general human yearning to figure out how our lives matter,
philosophy shouldn’t ignore non-philosophers.
b) Philosophers cannot distance themselves from non-philosophers as that would mean

distancing themselves from the general human longing to matter to others and to the
universe.
c) Philosophy owes its origin to the human longing to find meaning in one’s life.
d) Drifting away from the concerns of non-philosophers, pushes philosophy farther from that
which led to its inception, our longing to fathom the essence of reality and our life.
Q26. DIRECTIONS for question 26: The sentences given in the following question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the
proper order for the four sentences and key in the sequence of four numbers as your answer, in the
input box given below the question.
1. In the city, our thoughts are likely to turn on work, relationships, and personal finances; in the
wilderness we look to the horizons, contemplating issues such as freedom and death.
2. At the same time, many of us are plainly drawn to the wilderness as an arena in which to
experience life’s more equivocal feelings – a place to plunge beneath the surface of things.
3. In fact, we are more likely to think about death while in the wild than in any other general
environment; Koole and van den Berg go so far as to say that “wilderness is intrinsically
associated with death.”
4. It turns out that the wilderness is a pretty existential place.
Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
According to Plato (in the Phaedrus), Theut, or Hermes, the alleged inventor of writing, presented his
invention to the pharaoh Thamus, praising his new technique that would allow human beings to
remember what they would otherwise forget. But the pharaoh was worried that, with this invention,
people would not be obliged any longer to train memory. They would remember things not because
of an internal effort, but by mere virtue of an external device. Writing was dangerous because it
decreased the powers of mind by offering human beings a petrified soul, a caricature of mind, a
vegetal memory. Nowadays, nobody shares these fears. We know that books are not ways of
making somebody else think in our place; on the contrary, they are machines that provoke further
thoughts. Only after the invention of writing was it possible to write such a masterpiece on
spontaneous memory as Proust's Recherche du temps perdu. Also, if once upon a time people
needed to train their memory in order to remember things, after the invention of writing they had also
to train their memory in order to remember books.
a) Today, no one shares the preoccupations of the pharaoh Thamus when it comes to writing
and books because the training of memory, which could not be achieved successfully in the
past, has come full circle today, with masterpieces written and published.
b) While the pharaoh Thamus believed that memory was a great gift that ought to be kept
alive by training it continuously, Hermes was of the view that books and writing challenge
and improve memory.
c) While the pharaoh Thamus was instantiating an eternal fear that a new technological
development would destroy the human thinking capacity, the continued use of the writing
technology has, over the years, killed that fear – our memories have improved after reading
great masterpieces.
d) While the pharaoh Thamus believed that writing would have made torpid the mental
powers that it replaced, no one shares this preoccupation today; books challenge and
improve memory, and writing promotes the creation of books, the remembering of which,
involves a training of one’s memory.
Q28. DIRECTIONS for question 28: Five sentences related to a topic are given in the question
below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify
the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.
1. When all ideas of the future collapse, as they did first in Russia and now have done in the
USA, then why would facts be necessary anymore?
2. Indeed, 'facts' were perhaps only necessary in the Cold War because they were there to
prove that one supposedly rational, 'scientific' ideology, communism or democratic
capitalism, was doing better than the other.
3. The Cold War was waged on political, economic, and propaganda fronts and had only limited
recourse to weapons.
4. The last thing that politicians, who peddle nostalgia as the ideal for the future, want is facts.
5. Facts are necessary when you have a rational version of the future that you are trying to
'prove' is being fulfilled.
1. Merton, furthermore, argued that in the scientific community the Matthew effect reaches
beyond simple reputation to influence the wider communication system, playing a part in
social selection processes and resulting in a concentration of resources and talent.
2. In the sociology of science, the sociologist Robert K. Merton called this phenomenon the
Matthew effect to describe how, among other things, eminent scientists will often get more
credit than a comparatively unknown researcher, even if their work is similar; it also means
that credit will usually be given to researchers who are already famous.
3. The old saying does often seem to hold true: the rich get richer while the poor get poorer,
creating a widening gap between those who have more and those who have less.
4. He gave as an example the disproportionate visibility given to articles from acknowledged
authors, at the expense of equally valid or superior articles written by unknown authors, and
noted that the concentration of attention on eminent individuals can lead to an increase in
their self-assurance, pushing them to perform research in important but risky problem areas.
5.
1. I have grown fond of semicolons in recent years.
2. The period tells you that ‘that’ is that; even if you didn’t get all the meaning you wanted or
expected, anyway you got all that that writer intended to parcel out and now you have to
move along.
3. But with a semicolon there you get a pleasant little feeling of expectancy; there is more to
come; read on; it will get clearer.
4. The semicolon tells you that there is still some question about the preceding full sentence;
something needs to be added.
5. It is almost always a greater pleasure to come across a semicolon than a period.
1. Other measures were equally idiosyncratic.

2. Lengths were divided up into feet, palms, spans and smaller units derived from the human
hand.
3. Now the International Bureau of Weights and Measures in Paris is set to give the metric
system its biggest shake-up yet.
4. Mediterranean traders, for centuries, used the weight of grains of wheat or barley to define
their units of mass: the Roman libra, forerunner of the pound, was 1,728 siliqua (carats),
each the weight of a carob seed (possibly because they were thought, erroneously, to be
less variable in mass than the seeds of other species).
5. Throughout much of human history, man has been the measure of many, if not all, things.
1. But it struck me forcibly that the seemingly reassuring surface connecting clifftop to clifftop,
strung in tension over the dizzying void below, had been cut.
2. I can’t explain why, in the face of all the seductive images and lyrical descriptions of the new
Tintagel footbridge, I’ve become fixated on a small incision slashed through the surface of
the walkway in the middle of the bridge.
3. Was this an actual moment of the sublime?
4. I know it’s technically the meeting point between the two cantilevered segments, a 40 mm
expansion joint in an impeccably engineered structure.
Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Autobiographical (or as psychologists call it, episodic) memory is necessarily flawed. The
colloquialisms used to describe it – “etched into my brain,” “seared into my memory,” “if memory
serves,” “never forget” – might emphasise its reliability. Psychologists who study the mysteries of
memory speak with a tellingly different lexicon. Transience, misattribution, binding failure and positive
illusions – terms that point to the messiness of recollection – present memory as it really is: a
necessarily flawed reconstruction of past experience rather than a carbon copy retrieved from a
static cognitive archive. “Binding failures” which happen when memory latches onto an inaccurate
detail and deems it true, create confusions between events we actually experience and those we
only think about or imagine. Our innate suggestibility tempts us to weave extraneous details from
subsequent events into the fabric of our original recollection. The gist remains (you know you landed
in a helicopter in a desert amid a frisson of danger) but, the specifics can blur into impressions that
in some cases disappear altogether. It's not exactly a comforting thought, but every time we return to
the incident, we take a different route to reach it and, in turn, come home with a slightly different
story.
a) Considerable research into the neurobiology of memory retrieval supports the idea that
our recollections are inherently shaky even as the mental architecture involves strong
crystallised knowledge segregating compartments – this changing nature of a particular
memory can be attributed to “binding failure”.
b) While certain catchphrases liken memory to an ageless photograph, psychologists think

of memory as a murky, flawed reconstruction of past experience – the mind never travels the
same way twice while retrieving and recounting the past events because figments of our
imagination bind to and tend to colour our actual experiences.
c) Memories are formed in the brain as networks of neurons that fire when stimulated by an
event: the more times the network is employed, the more it fires, however, many fluid things
such as perceptions and finer details of events get modified when we rethink about them.
d) If retrieving memory is a process – and recounting it a performance – then there are

numerous ways its accuracy can be derailed and “binding failure” is one of them.
1. This is a difficult truth to learn, because we are naturally fearful of loss, and therefore
attached to the possibility of eternal restoration.
2. The problem with eternity is not that it doesn’t exist but that it is undesirable and incoherent;
it kills meaning and collapses value.
3. An eternity based on the “absence of change” would not be a rescue from anything but an
end of everything meaningful.
4. But once we seriously consider the consequences of existence without end, the prospect is
not only horrifying but meaningless.
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V worked in the same organization and went to the cafeteria during their snacks
break between 3:00 pm and 3:30 pm, not all at the same time. The following is known about the
order in which they visited the cafeteria:
i. P came out of the cafeteria immediately after he entered. When he was coming out, there
were two persons inside it.
ii. When Q entered the cafeteria, he found two persons inside.
iii. R did not have any companion when he entered or when he came out and did not see
anyone inside.
iv. T and V were already present there, when S entered the cafeteria along with Q.
v. When T entered the cafeteria, he did not find anyone else in it.
vi. U came out of the cafeteria with Q and V and at that time only S was inside it.
vii. V went to the cafeteria with P and found that T was already there.
Q1. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 3: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
Based on the information given, which of the following is the correct order in which P, Q, S and T
came out of the cafeteria?
a) P, Q, S, T
b) P, Q, T, S Your answer is incorrect
c) Q, P, U, S
d) P, T, Q, S
If U was the last person to enter the cafeteria, then who was the last person to come out of the
cafeteria?
a) P
b) Q
c) S
d) U
Q4. DIRECTIONS for question 4: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.
If T was the 2nd person to come out of the cafeteria, then how many persons entered the cafeteria
before Q did?
DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table gives the percentage change in the number of students of two tutorials – “Secure
Your Future” and “Winners Everywhere” – who secured government jobs in the year 2018-19.
i. The percentage values shown in the brackets indicate the percentage change in the number
of students who secured government jobs from that tutorial from 2017-18 to 2018-19.
ii. Secure Your Future had centres in 12 states where as Winners Everywhere had centres in 9
states.
In 2018-19, the total number of students who secured government jobs from the given six states
from Secure Your Future represent 80% of that from all the states where it has its centres. Further,
the percentage increase in the total number of students who secured government jobs from Secure
Your Future (in all the 12 states) in 2018-19 as compared to that in 2017-18 is %. The total
number of students who secured government jobs from Secure Your Future in the states other than
those given in the table
a) increased by 10 % from 2017-18 to 2018-19.
b) decreased by 20 % from 2017-18 to 2018-19.
c) increased by 118.75 % from 2017-18 to 2018-19.

d) increased by 45.71% from 2017-18 to 2018-19.
Considering the six states given in the graph, if ‘a’ indicates the number of states in which the
number of students who secured government jobs from Secure Your Future is more than that from
Winners Everywhere in 2018-19 and ‘b’ represents the number of states in which the number of
students who secured government jobs from Secure Your Future is less than that from Winners
Everywhere in 2017-18, then
a) a = b.
b) a = b – 2.
c) a + 1 = b.
d) a + b = 5.
If the number of students of Winners Everywhere from Andhra Pradesh who secured government
jobs in the year 2017-18 represents 10% of the total number of students who secured government
jobs from all the tutorials in Andhra Pradesh in that year, then which of the following could be the
maximum number of tutorials in Andhra Pradesh in that year, given that the number of students who
secured government jobs in that year was the least for Winners Everywhere?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
If the total number of students who took coaching from Winners Everywhere in 2017-18 for the
states of West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh was in the ratio of 5 : 4 , then what was the ratio of the
number of students from these two states who took coaching from Winners Everywhere, but were
not able to secure Government jobs in the year 2017-18?
a) 5 : 4
b) 4 : 5
c) 1 : 2
d) 3 : 2
DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
The following table gives some financial details of twelve Indian companies.
Each of the above twelve companies belongs to exactly one of the four sectors – Pharmaceuticals,
Automobiles, Mobiles and Construction. It is also known that, there are at least two of the above
twelve companies in each of the four sectors.
Further, it is also known that,
i. for any two mobile companies X and Y, if sales of X are more than Y, the expenditure of X
will be more than that of Y and the other income of X will be less than that of Y.
ii. for any two automobile companies X and Y, if the expenditure of X is less than that of Y, the
liquidity ratio of X will be more than that of Y.
iii. for any two pharmaceutical companies X and Y, if the other income of X is more than that of
Y, the net profit of X is more than that of Y.
iv. for any two construction companies X and Y, if the liquidity ratio of X is less than that of Y, the
net profit of X is more than that of Y.
Further,
○ for every pharmaceutical company, the sales are more than Rs.5000 crore.
○ for every mobile company, the liquidity ratio is more than 1.6.
○ for every construction company, the other income is more than Rs.1000 crore.
○ for every automobile company, the net profit is more than Rs.700 crore
Which among the following must be a construction company?
a) I
b) D
c) J
d) C
Which among the following cannot be a pharmaceutical company?
a) A
b) E
c) B
d) J
If there are four companies in sector S, then S can be
a) only Pharmaceuticals
b) only Automobiles
c) only Pharmaceuticals or Mobiles
d) only Construction or Pharmaceuticals

If all the four sectors have the same number of companies, then which of the following is true?
a) B is a pharmaceutical company.
b) F is a mobile company.
c) I is a construction company.
d) None of the above
DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information
given below.
The answer-key of a medical common entrance test held nationwide was leaked to a group of
unscrupulous people. The CBI team arrested a total of twelve persons – P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6, P7,
P8, P9, P10, P11, and P12 – in this matter. On interrogating them, the following facts have been
obtained regarding their operation. Initially, P1 obtained the correct answer key. All the others
created their answer-keys in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or more
persons who already possess the same. These people are called his/her "advisors". If a person has
more than one advisor, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from each of his/her
advisors. If the key to a question from each of the advisors is identical, then it is copied. Otherwise it
is left blank. If a person has only one advisor, then he/she copies the advisor"s answers into his/her
copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong
answer in his/her answer-key.
The paper contained 100 questions. The CBI team has ruled out the possibility of two or more of
them deliberately introducing wrong answers to the same question. The CBI team has a copy of the
correct answer-key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent the answer numbers.
Which of the following persons can have three advisors?
a) P2
b) P6
c) P5
d) P2, P5 and P6.

How many people (excluding P1) needed to make answer-keys before P9 could make his/her
answer-key?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Both P3 and P12 were advisors to
a) P6.
b) P9.
c) P10.
d) P11.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
a) P8 introduced the wrong answer to question 31.
b) P10 introduced the wrong answer to question 38.
c) P11 introduced the wrong answer to question 57.
d) Both (A) and (B)
below.
In a shop, five articles – P, Q, R, S and T – are to be sold. The cost price and the selling price of
each of the five articles are among Rs.650, Rs.700, Rs.750, Rs.850 and Rs.900. The cost price of
each of the articles is different and also the selling price of each of the articles is different. For any
article, the selling price is not equal to its cost price.
The following information is known about the cost prices and selling prices of the articles:
i. The cost price of article R is equal to the selling price of article T. While selling R as well as T
the shopkeeper incurred a loss.
ii. The cost price of Q is more than that of S and the shopkeeper obtained a profit by selling Q.
iii. If a profit is made on selling any article, it must be more than Rs.50. The profit made on any
two articles is not the same. The loss incurred on any two articles is not the same.
iv. On only two articles did the shopkeeper make a profit. The profit/loss made on any article is
not Rs.150.
Q17. DIRECTIONS for question 17: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the
question.
What is the difference (in Rs.) between the cost price and the selling price of article S?
Which article was sold for Rs.700?
a) Q
b) R
c) S
d) T Your answer is correct

below.
In a shop, five articles – P, Q, R, S and T – are to be sold. The cost price and the selling price of
each of the five articles are among Rs.650, Rs.700, Rs.750, Rs.850 and Rs.900. The cost price of
each of the articles is different and also the selling price of each of the articles is different. For any
article, the selling price is not equal to its cost price.
The following information is known about the cost prices and selling prices of the articles:
i. The cost price of article R is equal to the selling price of article T. While selling R as well as T
the shopkeeper incurred a loss.
ii. The cost price of Q is more than that of S and the shopkeeper obtained a profit by selling Q.
iii. If a profit is made on selling any article, it must be more than Rs.50. The profit made on any
two articles is not the same. The loss incurred on any two articles is not the same.
iv. On only two articles did the shopkeeper make a profit. The profit/loss made on any article is
not Rs.150.
Which of the following statements is true?
a) The selling price of S is Rs.700.
b) The profit made by selling P is Rs.200.
c) The cost price of T is not Rs.750. Your answer is correct

Which of the following items was sold for a profit?
a) S
b) Q
c) P
d) More than one of the above
DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Answer the questions on the basis of information given below.
A company has four sales outlets – L, M, N and O. The financial details of these sales outlets are
given below.
Which outlet has the highest profit percentage?
a) L
b) M
c) N
d) O Your answer is correct
Which of the following is/are true?
a. The fixed costs of L are more than the marketing costs of O.

b. The marketing costs of N are more than the fixed costs of N.
c. The total salary of employees of L is more than the marketing costs of O.
a) Only (a)
b) Only (b)
c) Only (c) Your answer is correct
d) (a) and (b)

If the number of employees in L, M, N and O are 10, 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then the average salary
per employee of which outlet is the second highest?
a) L
b) M Your answer is correct
c) N
d) O
For which company is the difference between the Total Sales and the Total Salaries the highest?
a) L
b) M Your answer is correct
c) N
d) O
below.
The following table provides details of 4,200 people, who participated in an opinion poll related to
Indian politics, conducted by CNN. The opinion poll comprised four queries – i, ii, iii and iv, and each
person who participated in the poll answered at least one query. The first number in each cell is the
number of people from that city who participated in the poll. The minimum and maximum age of the
person in each group is given in brackets. (For example, in Mumbai, there is at least one person
whose age is 25 years and one person whose age is 60 years, both of whom answered Query i)
Note that no person belonged to more than one city and a person might have answered more than
one query.
Q25. DIRECTIONS for question 25: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
What is the maximum percentage of persons from Delhi, who participated in the poll and answered
more than one query?
a) 11.7%
b) 12.1%
c) 12.9%
d) 13.5%
Q26. DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 28: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the
question.
What is the minimum number of persons from the four cities together who answered more than one
query?
question.
What is the maximum number of persons from Chennai who answered exactly three queries?
question.
The maximum number of persons who answered query i and whose age is greater than 20 years
and less than 50 years is
Q29. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 and 30: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
If D is the only senior player selected, then who among the following cannot be selected?
a) A
b) K
c) G Your answer is correct
d) F
If exactly four non-senior players are selected and G is one of them, then who among the following
must be selected?
a) B
b) I
c) A
d) K Your ans
Q31. DIRECTIONS for questions 31 and 32: Type in your answer in the input box provided below
the question.
If three senior players are selected, in how many ways can a team with neither D nor G be selected?
Your Answer:11 Your answer is correct
the question.
If both D and A are selected, in how many ways can a team be selected?
Your Answer:23
The number 75 in the decimal system when expressed in the number system to the base 7,
comprises
a) two consecutive digits.
b) two non-consecutive digits.
c) three consecutive even digits.
d) three consecutive odd digits. Your answer is correct
a) Your answer is incorrect
b)
c)
d)
Find the minimum possible sum of four prime numbers which are in arithmetic progression.
Your Answer:56
a) Your answer is correct
b) 76
c)
d)
In a triangle ABC, medians AD and BE are perpendicular to each other. If the length of the median
AD is 8 cm and the area of the triangle is 144 sq. cm, find the length (in cm) of the median BE.
Your Answer:6
Which of the following points does not lie on the graph of
a)
(2, 3)
b)
c)
(3, 4)
Your answer is correct
d)
For how many natural numbers less than 105 is the sum of their digits equal to 10?
If a certain sum, invested under compound interest, amounts to twice as much at the end of the
seventh year as it would at the end of the second year, then the amount at the end of the 64th year
will be how many times that at the end of the 49th year?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 4
The angles subtended by two flagstaffs, of heights 10 m and 15 m respectively, at a certain point P,
on the ground between them, are complementary. If the distance of P from the foot of the flagstaff of
height 10 m is 5 m, find the distance (in m) between the two flagstaffs.
a) 30
b) 24
c) 35
d) 40
a) 125
b) 3125
c) 625
d) 15625 Your answer is correct

question.
If N is the smallest four-digit odd number which leaves the same remainder when divided by 3, 4, 5
or 6, then the sum of the digits of N is
If the price of a commodity increases by 20%, by what percent should a family reduce its
consumption of that commodity, such that the expenditure by the family on the commodity increases
by only 8%?
a) 8%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 25%
a) 100
b) 150 Your answer is incorrect
c) 1000
d) Cannot be determined
the question.
When the sum of two natural numbers is added to their LCM, a sum of 89 is obtained. How many
such pairs of numbers exist?
Q16. DIRECTIONS for questions 15 and 16: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the
question.
Find the sum of the series: S = 1002 – 992 + 982 – 972 + 962 – 952 +…+ 22 – 12
If A is 25% as efficient as B and can complete a certain work taking 15 days more than the time
taken by B, in how many days will both A and B together complete the work?
a) 4 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 10 days
A is five years older than B and five years younger than C. If the average of the ages of A, B and C
is 19 years, what is the age of B?
a) 14 years
b) 9 years
c) 19 years
d) 13 years
Which of the following best describes the value of log245?
a) A rational number less than 5.5
b) An irrational number less than 5.5
c) A rational number more than 5.5
d) An irrational number more than 5.5

a) 14
b) 7
c) 10
d) 17
question.
In a right angled isosceles triangle, of area 90 sq. cm, a rectangle of maximum possible area is
inscribed, such that the length of the rectangle is twice its breadth. Find the area (in sq. cm) of the
rectangle.
You did not answer this question

If f (x) = x2 + ax + b (a, b ≠ 0) is a quadratic expression, such that the positive difference between the
roots of f (x) = 0 is three times that of f (x) = –2, which of the following gives the minimum value of f
(x)?
a)
b)
c)
A total of 315 students appeared for the Board exam from a school. If the ratio of the number of
students who failed to those who passed in the exam is 1 : n3, where n is a natural number, how
many students passed in the examination?
a) 35 Your answer is incorrect
b) 140
c) 280
question.
A certain quantity, a, varies as the sum of two quantities, of which one varies directly with another
quantity b, whereas the other varies inversely with b. If when b = 1 or 3, a = 16, find the value of a,
when b = 6.
a) obtuse angled.
b) right angled.
c) equilateral. Your answer is correct
d) None of the above.

The graph of y = log 9x intersects the graph of y = 3 log x at
a) exactly one point.
b) exactly two distinct points.
c) exactly three distinct points.
d) no point.
Two sellers, A and B, sell the same product but at a profit of 15% and 12% respectively. If the cost
price of A is 85% of the cost price of B, then find the ratio of the selling prices charged by A and B.
a) 25 : 28
b) 28 : 25
c) 391 : 448 Your answer is correct
d) 447 : 526
question.
If the cost of painting the walls of a cuboidal room of length 15 ft and breadth 12 ft, at Rs.25 per sq.ft,
is Rs.10,800, find the height (in ft) of the room (Ignoring any doors and windows in the room).
a) b is the arithmetic mean of a and c.
b) b is the geometric mean of a and c.
c) b is the harmonic mean of a and c.

question.
If x and y are two real numbers satisfying the inequalities 3x + 2y ≤ 6, 2x − y + 2 ≥ 0, x ≥ 2 and y ≥ 0,

then the number of ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying the given condition is
The cost of 11 pencils and 11 erasers is Rs.99. Mukesh has Rs.33 with him, which is exactly
sufficient to purchase three pencils and five erasers. However, he wants to purchase five pencils and
three erasers for his daughter. How much extra money would Mukesh require?
a) Rs.6 Your answer is correct
b) Rs.12
c) Rs.24
d) Rs.39
question.
If A and B are two sets, with n(A) = 5 and n(B) = 3, the number of functions possible from A to B,
which are not surjections is
Starting simultaneously from the same point on a circular track, two runners, A and B, will meet for
the first time after 24 seconds, if they are travelling in the same direction, and after 8 seconds, if they
are travelling in opposite directions. The speed of the faster runner is how many times the speed of
the slower runner?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d)
Find the area (in sq. units) of the triangle bounded by the lines x = y, x = –y and x = 5.
a) 25 Your answer is correct

b) 40
c) 50
d) 12.5

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CAT Preparation - CAT-O-PEDIA Public Group

a) Contemporary Cultural Anthropology versus Historical Anthropology

b) Cultural Anthropology and History: A Winning Combination

c) Dual Inheritance Theory: A Cultural Anthropologist’s perspective

d) Man Bites Dog: The Exegesis of Culture

c) Bemoaning the general immaturity of contemporary cultural anthropologists would be as obtuse

b) journalists generally shy away from taking political or ideological positions.

d) The Chinese state orchestrated a mass massacre at the Tiananmen Square.

d) A willingness to read novels could be the by-product of being an empathetic person.

b) habitual readers show greater empathy than others.

d) it is possible to self-medicate by reading great books.

a) novel reading is a solitary activity.

c) book-reading and empathetic prosocial behaviour are not always connected.

d) not all book readers are necessarily nice people.

a) explains why reading fiction makes us treat others better.

b) highlights the therapeutic benefits of reading. Your answer is correct

d) shows how reading fiction is a good substitute for medication.

a) fiction helps one meditate about social interactions.

b) fiction allows us to predict the future.

c) fiction is always based on real-life experiences.

subscribe to a particular expected reaction. Your answer is correct

… As code advances, higher-level technologies feed on more fundamental technologies. …

a) There was a rapid fall in the mortality rates.

b) There was a fall in the popularity of artisanal trades.

c) It resulted in the formation of large corporations.

d) It led to better health and hygiene practices.

a) jobs perpetuate procedures for optimising institutional operations, while trades

c) jobs focus on bettering operations in corporations, while trades improve on production

a) Ceding authority and autonomy is a prerequisite for the evolution of code.

b) Our survival depends on ceding authority to code.

c) We kept the code to a tightly knit group for millennia.

a) acts as a fundamental technology that feeds higher-level technologies.

b) acts as a higher-level technology that feeds on more fundamental technologies.

c) helps in charting an optimal path for the evolution of code.

d) is important for city infrastructure and written language.

a) Code includes the set of instructions that defines a productive activity.

c) Understanding code will help in understanding the future of the economy.

b) All sports must have arbitrary restrictions placed on them.

Q20. According to the author, the value of sport primarily lies in

a) the innate human desire to showcase our physical abilities.

b) measuring how much better one is at a sport compared to others.

c) the need to demonstrate human expertise in everyday physical activities. Your

sport. Your answer is correct

c) If an activity is made more difficult by adding “unnecessary obstacles”, it attracts fewer

d) “Unnecessary obstacles” are inherent to the structure of any game.

countries that participate in the game or sport. Your answer is correct

b) Philosophers cannot distance themselves from non-philosophers as that would mean

1. Other measures were equally idiosyncratic.

b) While certain catchphrases liken memory to an ageless photograph, psychologists think

d) If retrieving memory is a process – and recounting it a performance – then there are

b) P, Q, T, S Your answer is incorrect

a) increased by 10 % from 2017-18 to 2018-19.

b) decreased by 20 % from 2017-18 to 2018-19.

c) increased by 118.75 % from 2017-18 to 2018-19.

Further, it is also known that,

Which among the following cannot be a pharmaceutical company?

If there are four companies in sector S, then S can be

c) only Pharmaceuticals or Mobiles

d) only Construction or Pharmaceuticals