24/02/2021 CoE-XII

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Test – 07

Topics covered in various subjects:

Physics : Current Electricity, Moving charges and Magnetism, Magnetism & Matter
Chemistry : Surface Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
Botany : Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and Populations, Ecosystem
Zoology : Biotechnology: Principles and Processes, Biotechnology and Its Applications

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer: (2) Negative ions only
1. In a closed circuit to maintain a steady current, (3) Positive ions only
an external agency moves electrical charge
from (4) Positive and negative ions
(1) Lower to higher potential energy 4. Read the statements carefully and choose the
correct option
(2) Higher to lower potential energy
Statement A: Kirchhoff’s junction rule is
(3) Lower to higher potential based on conservation of
(4) Higher to lower potential charge.
Statement B: Bending or reorienting the wire
2. Electromotive force is
changes the validity of
(1) A force Kirchhoff’s junction rule.
(2) The voltage difference between the two (1) Statement A is correct only
terminals of a source (2) Statement B is correct only
(3) The voltage difference between the two (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
terminals of a source in closed circuit
(4) Neither statement A nor B is correct
(4) The voltage difference between the two
5. The storage battery of a car have emf of 16 V
terminals of a source in open circuit
and internal resistance of 0.5Ω. If the terminals
3. In ionic crystals and electrolyte liquids, the of the battery are short circuited, then the
carrier of current may be current from the battery is
(1) Electrons only (1) 32 A (2) 16 A
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(3) 8 A (4) Zero 13. A storage battery of emf 12 V and internal
6. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω is being charged by 124 V
of non-uniform cross-section. Which of these dc supply using a series resistor of 11.4 Ω. The
quantities is constant along the conductor? terminal voltage of the battery is
(1) Current density (2) Drift speed (1) 17.6 V (2) 6.4 V
(3) Electric field (4) Current (3) 12 V (4) 124 V
7. The relation between V and I is not unique. It 14. The resistivity of a typical insulator amber is
means there is more than one value of V for greater than that of a metal by a factor of the
the same current I. A material exhibiting such order of
22 11
behaviour is (1) 10 (2) 10
(1) Copper (2) Aluminium (3) 1019 (4) 1023
(3) Gallium arsenide (4) Diode 15. On increasing the temperature, the resistivity of
8. If a battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance the alloy manganin
0.2Ω draws a maximum current, then the (1) Increases linearly
terminal voltage of the battery is
(2) Decreases
(1) 6 V (2) Zero
(3) Is nearly independent of temperature
(3) 4 V (4) 12 V
(4) Increase exponentially
9. A negligibly small current is passed through a
wire of length 12 m and uniform cross-section 16. If n resistor each of resistance R are combined,
4.0 × 10–7 m2, and its resistance is measured to then the ratio of the minimum to maximum
be 4Ω. The resistivity of material at the effective resistance is
temperature of the experiment is
–7 –7
1
(1) 4 × 10 Ωm (2) 3 × 10 Ωm (1) n (2) n
–7 –7
(3) 1.3 × 10 Ωm (4) 1.2 × 10 Ωm
1
10. The number density of free electrons in a 2
28 –3 (3) n (4) n2
copper conductor is 8.5 × 10 m . If area of
–6 2
cross-section of the wire is 10 m and it is 17. In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf
carrying a current of 1.0 A, then the time taken 2.25 V gives a balance point at 45.0 cm length
by the electrons to drift from one end of the of the wire. If the cell is replaced by another
wire 5.0 m long to its other end is cell and the balance point shifts to 99.0 cm.
4 3 Then the emf of the second cell is
(1) 6.8 × 10 s (2) 6.8 × 10 s
(1) 2.25 V (2) 4.95 V
(3) 1.68 × 104 s (4) 1.68 × 105 s
(3) 4.25 V (4) 2.34 V
11. A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance
2Ω is connected to a resistor. If the current in 18. Six lead-acid type of secondary cells each of
the circuit is 0.6 A, then terminal voltage of the emf 3.0 V and internal resistance 0.02Ω joined
battery is in series to provide a supply to a resistance of
8.88Ω. The terminal voltage of the supply is
(1) 12 V (2) 11 V
(1) 17.76 V (2) 11.92 V
(3) 10.8 V (4) 13.2 V
(3) 16.35 V (4) 14.24 V
12. A carbon resistor of (74 ± 7.4) kΩ is to be
marked with rings of different colours for its 19. An unknown resistance R is connected to left
identification. gap of a meter bridge and another unknown
The colour code sequence will be resistance S connected to right gap, balance
point from left end is at 30 cm. If now a
(1) Yellow-green-violet-gold resistance of 2Ω is connected in parallel with S,
(2) Green-orange-violet-gold the null point occurs at 40 cm. The value of S is
(3) Yellow-violet-orange-silver (1) 2 Ω (2) 3.2 Ω
(4) Violet-yellow-orange-silver (3) 1.1 Ω (4) 4Ω

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20. A wire has a resistance of 1Ω at 27°C, and a and the direction of the field is from the
resistance of 1.6Ω at 100°C. The temperature geographic south to geographic north. If a very
coefficient of resistance of the wire is nearly long straight conductor carrying steady current
of 2A (from east to west) is placed on a
(1) 0.008/°C (2) 0.009/°C horizontal table, then the force per unit length
(3) 0.006/°C (4) 0.004/°C on it is
–5
(1) 4 × 10 N upwards
21. The order of a magnitude of magnetic field on (2) 4 × 10–5 N downwards
the earth’s surface is (3) 2 × 10–5 Nm–1 downwards
(1) 10–2 T (2) 10–1 T (4) 4 × 10–5 Nm–1 downwards
28. A circular coil of magnetic moment of 20A m 2 is
(3) 10–5 T (4) 10° T placed in a vertical plane and is free to rotate
–31
22. An electron (mass 9 × 10 kg and charge 1.6 about a horizontal axis which coincides with its
–19
× 10 C) is moving at a speed of 2 × 10 m/s
6 diameter. A uniform magnetic field of 1T in the
–4
in a magnetic field of 2 × 10 T perpendicular horizontal direction exists such that initially the
to it. The radius of the path of the electron is axis of the coil is in the direction of the field. If
the coil has rotated by 90°, then angular speed
(1) 5.625 m (2) 56.25 m acquired by the coil is
(The moment of inertia of the coil is 0.1 kg m2)
(3) 562.5 m (4) 5.625 cm
(1) 10 rad/s (2) 5 rad/s
23. Read the statements carefully and choose the (3) 20 rad/s (4) 40 rad/s
correct option 2
29. A circular coil of 20 turns and area of 0.2 m
Statement A: Electrostatic field lines
carrying a current of 4A is suspended vertically
originate at a positive charge
in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of
and terminate at a negative
charge or at infinity. magnitude 1.0 T. The field lines make an angle
60° with the plane of the coil. The magnitude of
Statement B: Magnetic field lines always
the counter torque to prevent the coil from
form closed loop.
turning is
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) 8 Nm (2) 4 Nm
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct (3) 8 3 Nm (4) 80 Nm
(4) Neither statement A nor B is correct
30. Read the statements carefully and choose the
24. The smallest value of magnetic moment is correct option
–24 –14
(1) 18.54 × 10 J/T (2) 9.27 × 10 J/T
–24 Statement A: A moving coil galvanometer
(3) 9.27 × 10 J/T (4) 18.54 × 10–20 J/T
can be converted into an
25. Read the statements carefully and choose the
ammeter by introducing a
correct option
shunt resistance of the small
Statement A: Ampere’s circuital law is value in series.
independent of the Biot-
Savart law. Statement B: A moving coil galvanometer
Statement B: Ampere’s circuital law can can be converted into a
be derived from the Biot- voltmeter by introducing a
Savart law. resistance of a large value in
series.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct (2) Only statement B is correct
(4) Neither statement A nor B is correct (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
26. A solenoid of length 0.4 m has a radius of 1 cm
and is made up of 400 turns. It carries a current (4) Neither statement A nor B is correct
of 4A. The magnitude of the magnetic field 31. A charged particle enters an environment of a
inside the solenoid is strong and non-uniform magnetic field varying
–3 –4 from point to point both in magnitude and
(1) 5.2 × 10 T (2) 5.2 × 10 T
(3) 5.02 × 10 T–5
(4) 5.02 × 10–3 T direction, and comes out of it following a
27. The horizontal component of the earth’s complicated trajectory. If it suffered no
–5
magnetic field at a certain place is 2 × 10 T
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collisions with the environment, then its final north tip pointing down at 60° with the
speed is horizontal. If the horizontal component of the
(1) Equal to initial speed earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.20 G.
Then the earth’s magnetic field at the place is
(2) Two times the initial speed
(1) 0.25 G (2) 0.15 G
(3) Half of the initial speed (3) 0.23 G (4) 0.40 G
(4) Different from initial speed 39. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of
32. An electron travelling east to west enters a 0.24 JT–1. The difference in the magnitude of
chamber having a uniform electrostatic field in the magnetic field at a distance of 10 cm from
south to north direction. If electron is not the centre of the magnet, on the axis and the
deflecting from its straight-line path, then the equatorial line (normal bisector) of the magnet
direction of a uniform magnetic field B is is
(1) Vertically upward (1) 0.24 T (2) 0.48 T
(3) 0.24 G (4) 0.48 G
(2) Vertically downward
40. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 3.75 ×
(3) Towards North 10–2 JT–1 is placed with its axis perpendicular to
(4) Towards South the earth’s field direction. If at a distance of 5
33. A 3.0 cm wire carrying a current of 10 A is cm from the centre of the magnet, the resultant
placed inside a solenoid parallel to its axis. The field is inclined at 45° with earth’s field on its
magnetic field inside the solenoid is given to be normal bisector then the magnitude of the
0.27 T. The magnetic force on the wire is earth’s field is
–2
(1) 2.1 × 10 N (2)
–2
8.1 × 10 N (1) 0.3 T (2) 0.6 T
–2 (3) 0.3 G (4) 0.6 G
(3) Zero (4) 4.2 × 10 N
41. A solenoid has a core of material with relative
34. Two long and parallel straight wires A and B permeability 200. The windings of the solenoid
carrying currents of 4A and 2A in the same are insulated from the core and carry a current
direction are separated by a distance of 2 cm. of 4A. If the number of turns is 500 per metre,
The force on a 10 cm section of wire A is then the magnetic intensity is
(1) 8 × 10–5 N (2) 8 × 10–7 N
–6 –8 (1) 1 A/m (2) 2 × 103 A/m
(3) 8 × 10 N (4) 8 × 10 N
(3) 0.5 A/m (4) 0.1 A/m
35. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 10 Ω
and the meter shows full scale deflection for a 42. Read the statements carefully and choose the
current of 2 mA. The resistance needed to correct option
convert into voltmeter of range 0 to 9 V, is Statement A: Magnetic field arises due to
(1) 4490 Ω connecting in series charges in motion.
(2) 4500 Ω connecting in series Statement B: A system can have magnetic
(3) 4490 Ω connecting in parallel moments even though its net
(4) 4500 Ω connecting in parallel charge is zero.
36. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment M = (1) Only statement A is correct
0.15 J/T is placed in a uniform magnetic field of (2) Only statement B is correct
0.15 T. The potential energy of the magnet in
unstable equilibrium is (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
–4 –2
(1) 2.25 × 10 J (2) – 2.25 × 10 J (4) Neither statement A nor B is correct
–2 –4
(3) 2.25 × 10 J (4) – 2.25 × 10 J 43. The geographic meridian is defined as
37. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 37° (1) The vertical plane containing the latitude
with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.5 T circle and the axis of rotation of earth
experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 1.5
× 10–2 J. The magnitude of magnetic moment (2) The horizontal plane containing the latitude
of the magnet is circle and the axis of rotation of earth
–2
(1) 5 × 10 J/T
–2
(2) 3.75 × 10 J/T (3) The vertical plane containing the longitude
–2 –2 circle and the axis of rotation of earth
(3) 6 × 10 J/T (4) 1.73 × 10 J/T
38. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical (4) The horizontal plane containing the
plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its longitude circle and the axis of rotation of
earth
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44. Read the statements carefully and choose the (2) Only statement B is correct
correct option (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
Statement A: Magnetostatic field lines can (4) Neither statement A nor B is correct
never form closed loops
around empty space. 45. The magnetic susceptibility is positive for
Statement B: A closed loop of static (1) Diamagnetic material only
magnetic field line must (2) Paramagnetic material only
enclose a region across (3) Ferromagnetic material only
which a current is passing.
(4) Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic material
(1) Only statement A is correct
CHEMISTRY
46. Consider the following statements about (2) Glucose and Fructose
adsorption (3) Glucose only
(a) It causes decrease in residual forces on the (4) Fructose only
surface
52. Consider the following reaction
(b) It is an endothermic process
(c) It is accompanied by decrease in entropy of Ni
Vegetable oils + A  Vegetable ghee
the system
A in the reaction is
The correct statements are
(1) H2 (2) H2SO4
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) (3) O2 (4) NO

47. Incorrect statement about physisorption is 53. Product obtained when carbon monoxide
reacts with hydrogen in presence of copper
(1) It is reversible in nature catalyst is
(2) It arises because of van der Waals’ forces
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Methyl alcohol
(3) It is highly specific in nature
(3) Formic acid (4) Methane
(4) It results into multimolecular layer
54. Consider the following statements about
48. For Freundlich adsorption isotherm, slope of zeolites
x
(a) They have honeycomb like structure
the graph, log m vs log P is
(b) They are used as catalysts in
1 petrochemical industries
log
(1) log k (2) k (c) ZSM-5 is used to convert gasoline into
1 alcohols
(3) n (4) n The incorrect statement(s) is/are
49. Decomposition of KClO3 is accelerated in
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
presence of
(3) (c) only (4) (a) only
(1) Silica gel (2) Fe
55. Diastase converts starch into
(3) Al2O3 (4) MnO2
50. In the Haber’s process for manufacture of (1) Ethyl alcohol (2) Lactose
ammonia, promoter used in the reaction is (3) Maltose (4) Glucose
(1) Molybdenum (2) Nickel 56. In contact process for the manufacture of
(3) Palladium (4) Copper sulphuric acid the catalyst used is

51. Hydrolysis of C12H22O11 in presence of catalytic (1) V2O5 (2) Fe2O3

amount of H2SO4 gives (3) AlCl3 (4) Cu2Cl2
(1) Glucose and Mannose 57. Which among the following is an example of
gel?
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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
(1) Cell fluids (2) Butter (b) Combination of two layers of opposite
charges around the colloidal particle is
(3) Cheese (4) Froth
called Helmholtz electrical double layer
58. Consider the following statements
(c) Colligative properties shown by colloidal
(a) Sol of gelatine is a reversible sol particles are of small order as compared to
values shown by true solutions of same
(b) Gold sol is lyophilic sol
concentrations
(c) Lyophobic sols need stabilising agents for
The correct statement(s) is/are
their preservation
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
The correct statements are
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (c) only
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
66. In coagulating a positive sol, the order of
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c) 3– – 2–

59. Which among the following is multimolecular flocculating power of PO4 , NO3 , SO4 and
4–
colloid? [Fe(CN)6] is
– 2– 3– 4–
(1) Sulphur sol (1) NO3 > SO4 > PO4 > [Fe(CN)6 ]
(2) Sol of starch 3– 4– 2– –
(2) PO4 > [Fe(CN)6 ] > SO4 > NO3
(3) Sol of proteins
2– 3– – 4–
(4) Sol of sodium stearate (3) SO4 > PO4 > NO3 > [Fe(CN)6 ]
60. The given reaction for the preparation of As2S3 4– 3– 2– –
sol is called (4) [Fe(CN)6 ] > PO4 > SO4 > NO3
As2O3 + 3H2S → As2S3(sol) + 3H2O 67. In coagulating gold sol, the coagulating power
of which ion is highest?
(1) Hydrolysis 3+ 2+
(1) Al (2) Ba
(2) Oxidation
3–
(3) PO4
–
(3) Reduction (4) Br
(4) Double decomposition 68. Which among the following is an ore of iron?
61. Which among the following is/are method(s) of (1) Siderite (2) Malachite
preparation of colloidal sol? (3) Calamine (4) Bauxite
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Peptization
69. Which among the following is not used as
(3) Dialysis (4) Both (1) and (2) collector in froth floatation process?
62. For hair cream, dispersed phase and (1) Cresols (2) Pine oils
dispersion medium respectively are
(3) Fatty acids (4) Xanthates
(1) Liquid and solid (2) Solid and liquid
70. Reagent used in leaching alumina from bauxite
(3) Liquid and liquid (4) Solid and gas is
63. For soaps, the critical micelle concentration (1) NaOH (2) H2SO4
range is
–4 –3 (3) NaCN (4) NH4OH
(1) 1.0 to 0.5 M (2) 10 to 10 M
71. The metal which is used for galvanising iron is
(3) 10–6 to 10–4 M (4) 1 to 2 M
(1) Zinc (2) Copper
64. Positively charged sol among the following is
(3) Nickel (4) Cobalt
(1) Methylene blue sol (2) Silver sol
72. Metal which is refined by Mond’s process is
(3) CdS sol (4) Congo red sol
(1) Ni (2) In
65. Consider the following statements
(3) Al (4) Zr
(a) When Kl solution is added to AgNO3
solution, negatively charged sol is obtained 73. In van Arkel method for refining metal, titanium
is heated with
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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
(1) CO (2) I2 (1) Mercury (2) Tin
(3) Br2 (4) Charcoal (3) Chromium (4) Lead
74. In Brass, percentage of Zn and Cu respectively 83. Metal which is absent in german silver is
are (1) Cr (2) Cu
(1) 60% and 40% (2) 75% and 25% (3) Zn (4) Ni
(3) 40% and 60% (4) 25% and 75% 84. Metal which is extracted using self reduction
method is
75. In extraction of gold the reducing agent used is
(1) Al (2) Fe
(1) Coke (2) Zn
(3) Cu (4) Zn
(3) Fe (4) CO
85. Blister copper is obtained due to evolution of
76. Which among the following is an example of
homogeneous catalysis? (1) CO2 (2) SO2

Fe(s)
(3) SO3 (4) H2S
(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g)   2NH3(g)
86. Consider the following statements about froth
(2) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)
Pt(s)
  4NO(g) + floatation method
6H2O(g) (a) This method is employed for removing
Ni(s)
gangue from sulphide ores
(3) CO(g) + 3H2(g)   CH4(g) + H2O(g)
(b) Aniline is used as froth stabiliser
HCl(I)
(4) CH3COOCH3(l)   CH3COOH(aq) + (c) Mineral particles become wet by water
CH3OH(aq) while gangue particles by oils
77. The metal which is not purified by zone refining The correct statements are
is
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) Gallium (2) Indium
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Germanium (4) Aluminium
87. Depressant used in the separation of ZnS from
78. Copper matte contains PbS is
(1) Cu2O and FeS (2) Cu2S and FeS (1) NaCN (2) NaOH
(3) Cu2S and FeO (4) Cu and Cu2S (3) Phenol (4) Ammonia
79. Carbon content in cast iron is approximately 88. Which one of the given methods is not
(1) 4% (2) 3% employed in concentration of ores?
(3) 6% (4) 1% (1) Hydraulic washing
80. In the extraction of iron using Blast furnace, (2) Magnetic separation
which of the given reactions does not occur at (3) Leaching
(500-800) K temperature range?
(4) Roasting
(1) FeO + CO → Fe + CO2
89. Water vapours are adsorbed by
(2) Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2
(1) Anhydrous calcium chloride
(3) 3Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3O4 + CO2
(2) NaCl
(4) Fe3O4 + 4CO → 3Fe + 4CO2
(3) Charcoal
81. In extraction of iron using blast furnance flux
used is (4) Silica gel

(1) Limestone (2) Silica 90. The metal which is refined by liquation is

(3) Alumina (4) Haematite (1) Tin (2) Silver

82. Which metal is refined by distillation? (3) Gold (4) Zinc

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NBTS-07 CoE-XII

BOTANY
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
91. All of the given statements are true w.r.t. lactic
acid bacteria (LAB), except 96. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select
the correct option
(1) Grow in milk and convert it to curd Column-I Column-II
(2) Produce acid that coagulate and partially A. Aspergillus niger (i) Ethanol
digest the milk proteins B. Acetobacter aceti (ii) Butyric acid
(3) Improves nutritional quality of curd by C. Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric acid
increasing Vitamin E content D. Saccharomyces (iv) Acetic acid
(4) Check disease - causing microbes in our cerevisiae
stomach
A B C D
92. The puffed-up appearance of dough during (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
making foods such as dosa and idli is due to
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) Multiplication of bacteria
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Production of CO2 gas
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Death of yeast 97. Which of the given bioactive molecules is/are
produced by bacteria?
(4) Addition of black gram
(A) Streptokinase, (B) Cyclosporin-A, (C)
Statins
93. Which of the given food/beverage products is
obtained with the help of bacteria? (1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) and (C)
(1) Swiss cheese (2) Roquefort cheese (3) Both (B) and (C) (4) Only (C)
(3) Bread (4) Beer 98. Which of the given bioactive molecules has
been commercialised as blood-cholesterol
94. Which of the given alcoholic drinks are lowering agent?
obtained without distillation of fermented broth?
(1) Penicillin (2) Amylase
(1) Whisky (2) Brandy
(3) Statin (4) Protease
(3) Rum (4) Wine
99. Match the Column-I with Column-II w.r.t.
95. Read the following statements and select the bioactive molecules and their uses and select
option which is true for them. the correct option
Statement A: Antibiotics are chemical Column-I Column-II
substances, which are produced
by some microbes and can kill A. Lipase (i) Clot buster
or retard the growth of other B. Pectinase (ii) Detergent
(disease-causing microbes). formulation
Statement B: Antibiotic means ‘against life’ (in C. Streptokinase (iii)
the context of disease-causing Immunosuppressi
organisms); whereas with ve agent
reference to human beings, they
are ‘pro-life’ and not against. D. Cyclosporin A (iv) Clarifying bottled
juices
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct A B C D

(3) Both the statements A and B are correct (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
(4) Have no negative impacts on plants,
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
mammals, birds, fish or even on non-target
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) insects.
104. During sewage treatment, which of the given
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) bacteria is commonly found in anaerobic
sludge?
100. Read the statements (A-C) stating them true
(T) or false (F) and select the correct option. (1) Anabaena
(2) Methanobacterium
A A major component of waste water is
human excreta. (3) Nostoc

B The municipal waste-water is also called (4) Oscillatoria

sewage.
105. Which of the given gases is predominantly
C Sewage contains large amount of organic found in biogas?
matter and microbes. (1) CH4 (2) CO2
(1) A-T, B-T, C-T (2) A-F, B-T, C-F (3) H2 (4) H2S

(3) A-T, B-T, C-F (4) A-F, B-F, C-T 106. The study of the interactions among organisms
and between the organism and its physical
101. During sewage treatment, which of the given (abiotic) environment is called
microorganisms are involved in flocs
(1) Genetics (2) Ecology
formation?
(3) Morphology (4) Physiology
(1) Aerobic bacteria and fungi
107. The salinity (in parts per thousand) is less than
(2) Anaerobic bacteria and fungi 5 in

(3) Symbiotic bacteria and algae (1) Inland water (2) Sea
(4) Unicellular algae and anaerobic fungi (3) Hypersaline lagoons (4) Ocean
102. During primary treatment of sewage, all solids 108. Refer the figure given below showing
that settle forms the A , and the supernatant organismic response to abiotic factors. Identify
forms the B . X, Y and Z respectively and select the correct
o
Select the correct option to fill ‘A’ and ‘B’. p
ti
(1) A – Primary sludge, B – Primary effluent o
(2) A – Primary effluent, B – Primary sludge n

(3) A – Activated sludge, B – Flocs

(4) A – Flocs, B – Activated sludge
103. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
‘Baculoviruses’.
(1) Are pathogen that attack insects and other
arthropods.
(2) Majority of Baculoviruses used as
biological control agents are in the genus
Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
(3) Are excellent candidates for species-
specific, broad spectrum insecticidal
application.
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X Y Z

Partial
(1) Regulators Conformers
regulators

Partial (1) Stable population

(2) Conformers Regulators
regulators
(2) Declining population
Partial (3) Vanishing population
(3) Conformers Regulators
regulators
(4) Expanding population
Partial 115. Which of the given pairs w.r.t. population
(4) Regulators Conformers
regulators attribute contribute to an increase in population
109. In aquatic animals, the osmotic concentration density?
of body fluids change with that of ambient (1) Mortality and Natality
water osmotic concentration. To which of the
(2) Mortality and Emigration
given group, these organisms belong?
(1) Regulator (2) Conformer (3) Natality and Emigration
(3) Partial regulator (4) Eurythermal (4) Natality and Immigration
110. Mammals from colder climates generally have 116. The population grows in an exponential or
shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. geometric fashion
This is called the
(1) Allen’s rule (2) Jordan’s rule (1) When resources in the habitat are unlimited
(3) Rensch’s rule (4) Bergmann’s rule (2) When there is a competition between
111. Consider the following four conditions (a-d) and individuals for limited resource
select the correct pair of them as adaptation to (3) Results in a sigmoid growth curve
environment in Kangaroo rat.
(4) When the population density reaches the
(a) Meets all its water requirement through its carrying capacity
internal fat oxidation
(b) Basks in sun when temperature is low 117. The integral form of exponential population
growth is expressed by the equation
(c) Ability to concentrate its urine
(d) Presence of thick layer of fat below the skin (1) = 0 (2) =
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) 1
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) (3) = (4) =

112. If in a pond there are 50 fishes last year and 118. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction,
through reproduction 20 new fishes are added, ‘–’ sign for detrimental and ‘0’ for neutral
taking the current population to 70, calculate interaction, then the population interaction
the birth rate (in terms of offsprings per fishes represented by ‘+’ ‘0’ refers to
per year). (1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.1 (3) Competition (4) Commensalism
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.5 119. Match the Column-I with Column-II w.r.t.
113. Number of death in the population during a population interactions
given period is called Column-I Column-II
(1) Natality (2) Mortality A. Predation (i) Fig tree and wasp
(3) Immigration (4) Emigration B. Parasitism (ii) Visiting
114. Which type of growth status of human flamingoes and
population is reflected by the age pyramid resident fishes in
shown below in the figure? South American
lakes
C. Mutualism (iii) Cuscuta growing
on hedge plants
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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
D. Competition (iv) Tiger and deer (2) It is highly resistant to microbial action
(3) It undergoes decomposition at an
A B C D
extremely fast rate
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) It is colloidal in nature

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 127. Which of the given factors favours the
decomposition of detritus?
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (A) Sugar and nitrogen rich detritus

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (B) Warm and moist environment
(C) Anaerobiosis
120. Some species have evolved adaptation to
avoid unfavourable condition by escaping in (D) Low temperature
time includes all of the given, except (1) (A) and (B) (2) (C) and (D)
(1) Migration (2) Aestivation (3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (D)
(3) Hibernation (4) Diapause 128. The base of each ecological pyramid
represents the A while the apex represents B .
121. Which of the given is an aquatic ecosystem?
Select the option which correctly fills ‘A’ and
(1) Forest (2) Grassland
‘B’.
(3) Desert (4) Estuary
(1) A – Top level consumer, B – Producer
122. Vertical distribution of different species
(2) A – Producer, B – Top level consumer
occupying different levels in an ecosystem is
called (3) A – Primary consumer, B – Producer
(1) Stratification (2) Homeostasis (4) A – Tertiary consumer, B – First trophic
(3) Food chain (4) Food web level
129. Read the following statements and select the
123. Net primary productivity is the available
option which is true for them.
biomass for consumption to which of the given
trophic levels and/or organisms? Statement A: Pyramid of energy is always
upright.
(A) T1 (B) T2
Statement B: The pyramid of biomass in sea
(C) T3 (D) Decomposers
is generally inverted.
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (B) and (D)
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Only (D) (4) Both (B) and (C)
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
124. The rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers is called (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Gross primary productivity 130. Which of the given organisms is primary as well
(2) Primary productivity as secondary consumer?
(1) Grasshopper (2) Cow
(3) Net primary productivity
(4) Secondary productivity (3) Goat (4) Sparrow
131. Xerarch succession progress from
125. The annual net primary productivity of the
whole biosphere is approximately A (dry (1) Xeric to mesic condition
weight) of organic matter. Select the correct
(2) Mesic to xeric condition
option which fills ‘A’.
(3) Mesic to hydric condition
(1) 170 billion tonnes (2) 55 billion tonnes
(4) Hydric to mesic condition
(3) 115 billion tonnes (4) 155 billion tonnes
132. During succession, pioneer communities on
126. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ’Humus’.
rocks are usually
(1) It is a dark coloured amorphous substance
(1) Lichens (2) Bryophytes

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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
(3) Shrubs (4) Forest
133. What percentage of PAR is captured by plants?
(1) 100% (2) 50%
(3) 2-10% (4) 1-5%
134. In which of the given areas, secondary
succession begins?
(1) Burned forest (2) Bare rock
(3) Newly created pond (4) Newly cooled lava
135. Refer the given simplified model of phosphorus
cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem. Identify A, B
and C respectively and select the correct
option
A B C

(1) Weathering Detritus Litter fall

(2) Litter fall Detritus Weathering

(3) Detritus Weathering Litter fall

(4) Decomposers Litter fall Detritus

ZOOLOGY
136. Read the following statements carefully. (1) Genetic engineering only
(a) Stanley Cohen, a Stanford scientist, studied (2) Traditional breeding only
some useful restriction enzymes of E.coli
bacterium (3) Modern molecular biotechnology only
(4) Both traditional and modern molecular
(b) Herbert Boyer, at the University of California
biotechnology
at San Francisco, developed a method of
removing plasmids and reinserting in other 139. Read the following statements and choose the
cells option which correctly represents True(T) and
False(F) statements.
(c) Biotechnological products brought qualitative
improvement in health and food production (a) Traditional hybridisation procedures often
lead to inclusion of undesirable genes
(d) First recombinant DNA was made by Stanley
Cohen and Herbert Boyer in the year 1972 (b) Biotechnology allows inclusion of only
How many of the above statements are correct? desirable genes
(1) Four (2) Three (c) Bioprocess engineering involves
maintenance of microbial contamination free
(3) Two (4) One ambience
137. All of the following techniques are included in (d) An alien piece of DNA is linked with origin of
biotechnology except replication site so that it can make multiple
(1) Developing a DNA vaccine identical copies
(2) Curd making (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) In vitro fertilisation leading to a ‘test-tube (1) T T T F
baby (2) T T T T
(4) Improving crop varieties by classical plant (3) T F T F
breeding
(4) F F T T
138. EFB definition of biotechnology encompasses
140. Choose the mismatch.
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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
(1) Basmati rice – 27 varieties in
3'— CTT↑AAG— 5'
India
↓
(2) Rosie cow – 1997 (2) 5'— G AATTC— 3'
(3) Patent on – 1997
Basmati rice 3'— C↑TTAAG— 5'

by an American ↓
(3) 5'— G AATTC— 3'
company
(4) First clinical gene – 1901 3'__ CTTAA↑G__ 5′
therapy ↓
(4) 5'— GAA TTC— 3'
141. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the
plasmid vector became possible with the enzyme
3'— CTTAA↑G— 5'
(1) Restriction endonuclease
(2) DNA ligase 146. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
recombinant DNA technology. Choose the option
(3) DNA polymerase which correctly represents A, B and C
(4) Reverse transcriptase respectively
142. First recombinant DNA was made by linking
____I___ gene with plasmid of ____II_____.
Choose the correct option for I and II.
I II
(1) Antibiotic Salmonella typhimurium
sensitive
(2) Antibiotic Escherichia coli
resistant
(3) Antibiotic Salmonella typhimurium
resistant
(4) Antibiotic Escherichia coli
sensitive
143. Enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of
bacteriophage in E. coli were isolated in the year
(1) 1963 (2) 1972
(3) 1990 (4) 1997
144. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Hind II.
(1) First restriction endonuclease
(2) Recognition sequence is 8 bp long
(3) Isolated and characterised five years later
after the discovery of restriction enzymes
(4) Isolated from Haemophilus influenzae
145. Which of the following correctly represents the
site at which EcoR I makes cut?
↓
(1) 5'— GAA TTC— 3'

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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
147. If a restriction enzyme cuts the strand of DNA a 151. Read the following statements and choose the
little away from the centre of the palindromic site, correct option
then which type of ends will not produce? Statement A: Copy number of
(1) Sticky ends bacteriophages is very high.
(2) Single stranded portions at the ends Statement B: Copy number depends on ori
(3) Overhanging stretches on each strand gene.
(4) Blunt ends (1) Only statement A is correct
148. DNA fragments are ______charged molecules, (2) Only statement B is correct
and move towards ______ under an electric field. (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
Choose the option which correctly fill the blanks (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
respectively.
152. If we ligate alien piece of DNA in a plasmid
(1) Negatively, cathode whose copy number is 15, then how many copies
(2) Positively, anode of alien piece of DNA we can obtain per cell?
(3) Negatively, anode (1) 15 (2) 30
(4) Positively, cathode (3) 150 (4) 60
149. A typical agarose gel electrophoresis is shown 153. Select the correct statement.
below, identify the lane in which smallest (1) Native E.coli cells are resistant to
fragment is present and choose the correct chloramphenicol and Kanamycin
option
(2) A cloning vector should have many
recognition sites for single restriction enzyme
(3) Presence of cloning sites for different
restriction enzymes in a cloning vector is a
desirable feature
R
(4) Recognition site of Pvu II is present in amp
in pBR322
154. If we introduce alien piece of DNA at Hind III
restriction site in cloning vector pBR322, then the
resultant recombinants will show
(1) Lane 1 (2) Lane 2
(a) Resistance to ampicillin
(3) Lane 3 (4) Lane 4
(b) Resistance to tetracycline
150. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose
the correct option (c) Sensitivity to ampicillin
(d) Sensitivity to tetracycline
Which of the above are correct?
(1) a and b (2) c and d
(3) a and d (3) b and c
155. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cloning
vectors.
(1) Replication starts from ori sequence
(2) Rop gene codes for the proteins involved in
the replication of the plasmid
(3) The ligation of alien DNA is done at a
restriction site which is not present in the
selectable marker gene
(4) Size of vector should be small
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
156. A research student was using pBR322 as cloning
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i vector. He ligated gene of interest at SaI I site.
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii Based on this, choose the correct option.
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
(1) Non-transformants will grow on both 162. All of the following are methods of direct gene
ampicillin and tetracycline containing medium transfer except
(2) Transformants will grow on ampicillin (1) Micro-injection
containing medium (2) Disarmed pathogen vectors
(3) Non-recombinants will not grow on (3) Biolistic
tetracycline containing medium
(4) Gene gun
(4) Recombinants will not grow on ampicillin
containing medium 163. Read the following statements
157. One antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting (a) DNA is a hydrophobic molecule
the ___A___, whereas the other antibiotic (b) In micro-injection, DNA is injected into
resistance gene gets inactivated due to insertion nucleus of an animal
of alien DNA, helps in selection of ___B___. (c) In Biolistics, cells are bombarded with high
Choose the option which correctly fill the blanks. velocity micro-particles of DNA coated with
A B gold or tungsten
(1) Transformants Recombinants (d) Gene gun is suitable for plant cells
(2) Recombinants Transformants How many of the above statements are correct?
(3) Non-recombinants Non-transformants (1) Three (2) Four
(4) Non-transformants Non-recombinants (3) Two (4) One
158. In blue-white screening of recombinants, gene of 164. Arrange the following steps of process of
interest is ligated in the coding sequence of recombinant DNA technology in correct
(1) Ampicillin (2) Tetracycline sequence and choose the correct option.
(3) β-galactosidase (4) Kanamycin (a) Isolation of desired DNA fragment
159. Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of (b) Fragmentation of DNA by restriction
several ___A___ plants is able to deliver a piece endonucleases
of DNA known as ___B___. Choose the option (c) Formation of recombinant vector
which correctly fill the blanks. (d) Large scale production of host cells
A B (e) Transferring the recombinant DNA into the
(1) Dicot Ti plasmid host
(2) Monocot Ti plasmid (1) a → b → c → e → d
(3) Dicot T-DNA (2) b → a → c → e → d
(4) Monocot T-DNA (3) b → c → a → d → e
160. Which of the following vector is suitable for (4) a → b → c → d → e
delivering a DNA fragment into animal cells?
165. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. isolation of DNA.
(1) A. tumifaciens
(2) Retrovirus (1) Bacteria – Lysozyme
(3) pBR322 (2) Fungus – Chitinase
(4) Bacteriophage (3) Plant cells – Cellulase
161. Select the correct sequence of making bacterial (4) Animal cell – DNase
cells competent. 166. In PCR, __A__ bonds break during denaturation
(a) Incubation of bacterial cells with recombinant step, ___B___ bonds are formed during
DNA on ice annealing step and __C__ bonds are formed by
(b) Treatment with Ca+2 ions Taq polymerase in extension step. Identify A, B
and C and choose the correct option.
(c) Heat shock at 42°C
A B C
(d) Putting them back on ice
(1) a → c → d → b (1) Hydrogen Hydrogen Phosphodiester
(2) b → a → c → d
bonds bonds bonds
(3) b → d → a → c
(4) a → d → b → c (2) Phosphodiester Hydrogen Sugar-
phosphate

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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
bonds bonds sugar bonds 173. Select the incorrect w.r.t. Bt cotton.
(3) Sugar- Phosphodiester
Hydrogen (1) Alkaline pH of the cotton bollworm solubilize
the crystals
phosphate bonds bonds
sugar bonds (2) Activated toxin binds to the mouth parts and
(4) Phosphodiester Hydrogen Hydrogen create pores in cotton bollworm
Bonds bonds bonds (3) Protein encoded by cry I Ac and cry II Ab
167. In which of the following culture system cells are control cotton bollworms
maintained in their physiologically most active
(4) Bt toxins are insect group specific
log/exponential phase?
(1) Closed culture system 174. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option
(2) Continuous culture system Statement A: RNA interference (RNAi) takes
(3) Batch fermentation place in all prokaryotic
organisms as a method of
(4) Culture system in which nutrients are added cellular defense.
only once
Statement B: RNAi prevents transcription of
168. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. downstream the mRNA.
processing. (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Large scale production of host cells (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Include separation and purification (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Quality control testing
175. Meloidogyne incognitia could not survive in a
(4) Done after biosynthetic stage transgenic tobacco expressing
169. All of the following are applications of (1) Specific sense mRNA only
biotechnology except (2) Specific interfering RNA
(1) Recombinant therapeutics (3) Specific interfering protein
(2) Bioremediation (4) Specific interfering nucleotide
(3) Tailor made plants 176. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. SCID.
(4) Disease diagnosis by conventional methods (1) It is a hereditary disease
170. GM crops are useful in many ways except (2) It is due to duplication of the gene for ADA
(1) Reduced post harvest losses (3) Can be treated by bone marrow
(2) Reduced efficiency of mineral usage by transplantation
plants which prevents early exhaustion of (4) ADA enzyme is crucial for the immune
fertility of soil system to function
(3) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides 177. Which host was used by Eli Lilly company to
(4) Crops are made tolerant to abiotic stresses produce human insulin?
171. Bt toxin is produced by (1) Entamoeba coli
(1) Thermus aquaticus (2) Escherichia coli
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) Salmonella typhimurium
(4) Transgenic mice
(3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
178. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. the
(4) Meloidegyne incognitia
advantage of human insulin over insulin
172. Bt toxin does not kill the bacteria which produces extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle
it because and pigs?
(1) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin (1) Do not induce unwanted immunological
(2) Toxin remains inactive in bacteria responses
(3) Toxin exist as nucleic acid crystal (2) Free from risk of infection
(4) Toxin is enclosed in a protective sac (3) Large scale production is not possible
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NBTS-07 CoE-XII
(4) Structure of recombinant human insulin is 180. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the
absolutely identical to that of natural correct option
molecule Column-I Column-II
179. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the (a) GEAC (i) Early
correct option diagnosis of
Column-I Column-II disease
(a) α-1 antitrypsin (i) Transgenic mice (b) Biopiracy (ii) Validity of GM
(b) α-lactalbumin (ii) Emphysema research
(c) Safety of polio (iii) Cystic fibrosis (c) ELISA (iii) Antigen-
vaccine antibody
(d) Transgenic (iv) Rosie cow interaction
model (d) Recombinant (iv) Unlawful use of bio
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii DNA technology resources
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
❑❑❑

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