ICLES’ Motilal Jhunjhunwala College, Vashi

Department of Biotechnology

Biophysics Paper / USBT301 Question Bank (210 MCQ)

1. The distance from the vertex to the focal point is called

A. Principal axis
B. Focal point
C. Focal length
D. Optical point

2. The point at which the incident parallel rays converge is called

A. Principal axis
B. Focal point
C. Focal length
D. Optical point

3. 1/u + 1/v = 1/f is called

A. Gauss formula
B. Snell's law
C. Avogadro’s law
D. All the above

4. The position of the object in the image is the mutually interchangeable point
which can interchange their position are called
A. Conjugate points
B. Converge points
C. Disconverge point
D. All the above
5. When the object is at infinity the image is formed at the point
A. Infinity
B. Focus
C. Between Focus and optical point
D. Behind focus

6. When the object is between infinity and point Center of curvature the image
formed is real inverted and smaller in size than the object. The image form is
A. Infinity
B. center of curvature
C. Between the center of curvature and focus
D. At focus

7. When the object is at the center of curvature the image form is at

A. center of curvature
B. Infinity
C. Focus
D. Behind focus

8. When the object between the center of curvature and Focus

the image formed is larger in size than the object and the image is at
A. center of curvature
B. Infinity
C. Focus
D. Behind focus

9. When the object is at the focus the image form is at

A. Centre of curvature
B. Focus
C. Behind focus
D. Infinity
10. The lack of image sharpness caused by the spherical mirror surface is called
A. Spherical aberration
B. Curve aberration
C. Aperture
D. Numerical aberration

11. The real reflected by the mirror intersect along a conical surface and
produce a bright curve all the reflection
A. Numerical curve
B. Caustic curve
C. Curve mirror
D. All the above

12. Spherical aberration cannot be eliminated completely, but by proper design

of the surface it can be suppressed for certain positions called
A. Anti-Anastigmatic
B. Free from astigmatism
C. Coma
D. Anastigmatic

13. The angle of incidence for which the refracted ray imports tangent to the
surface is called the
A. Critical angle
B. Refracted angle
C. Reflected angle
D. Incident angle
14. The critical angle the ray cannot pass into the upper matter it is trapped in
the door material was completely reflected at the boundary surface this is called
total
A. Internal refraction
B. External reflection
C. Internal reflection
D. External refraction

15. Dependence of wave speed and index of refraction on wavelength is called

A. Diffusion
B. Dispersion
C. Converge
D. Scattering

16. A graph of the index of refraction versus wavelength is called a

A. Diffusion curve
B. Converging curve
C. Refracting curve
D. Dispersion curve

17. Which flight is diverted the most

A. Red light
B. Green light
C. Violet light
D. Yellow light

18. Which flight is diverted the least

A. Red light
B. Green light
C. Violet light
D. Yellow light
19. The white light is said to be dispersed into a spectrum this effect is known
to be
A. Chromatic diffusion
B. Chromatic dispersion
C. Chroma dispersion
D. All the above

20. The angle subtended by the direction of two colors is called

A. Angular dispersion
B. Angular diffusion
C. Angle dispersion
D. Angle diffusion

21. Wave having a single frequency and wavelength are called

A. Single chroma
B. Chromatic wave
C. Single chromatic wave
D. Monochromatic wave

22. The alternative dark and bright bands are called

A. Interference fringes
B. Two bands
C. Dark - Light fringes
D. Fringe

23. The phenomena of redistribution of light energy due to superposition of

light waves from two or more coherent source is known as
A. Coherent interference
B. Interference
C. Interference fringes
D. All the above
24. The region of brightness is known as
A. Maxima
B. Minium
C. Maximum
D. Minima

25. The region of darkness is known as

A. Maxima
B. Minium
C. Maximum
D. Minima

26. It is the average time during which the wave remains sinusoidal and the
phase of the wave packet can be predicted reliably is called
A. Coherence time
B. Coherence
C. Coherence length
D. Coherence curve

27. The length of the wave packet over which it may be assumed to be
sinusoidal and has a predictable phase
A. Coherence time
B. Coherence
C. Coherence length
D. Coherence curve
28. Select the correct condition for sustained interference

A. The way from the to the source must be of the same frequency
B. The two light waves must be coherent
C. The path difference between the overlapping waves must be less than the
coherence length of the wave
D. All the above

29. Select the condition for the formation of a distinct fringe pattern
A. The two coherent sources must lie close to each other in order to discern
the fringe pattern
B. The distance of the screen from the two sources must be large
C. The vector sum of the overlapping electrical field vector should be 0 in
the dark region
D. All the above

30. When the light ray is incident on an ordinary prism the ray is bent towards
an angle called
A. Angular diversion
B. Angle of diversion
C. Angular diffusion
D. Angular dispersion

31. The spread of color is called

A. Diffusion of light
B. Dispersion of light
C. Dispersion of colors
D. All the above
32. The spread of white light form a prism forms an image on the screen is
called a
A. Spectra
B. Wavelength
C. Virtual
D. Spectrum

33. The medium which produces dispersion is called

A. Dispersive medium
B. Diffusion medium
C. Surface medium
D. Angular dispersion

34. The maximum displacement in a waveform is known as

A. Wavelength
B. Amplitude
C. Angle dispersion
D. Waveform

35. The distance between the corresponding points such as two successive crest
in the successive waveform is called
A. Wavelength
B. Angle dispersion
C. Waveform
D. Spectra

36. Instrument based on the principle of interference of light is known as an

A. Spectrometer
B. Interferometer
C. Anemometer
D. All the above
37. The spectrum consists of visible and invisible regions. The visible region of
the colors is from
A. Red to Violet
B. Violet to Green
C. Violet to Red
D. Green to Violet

38. Select the correct property of the Plane Mirror.

A. The image formed by a plane mirror is Real and erect.
B. The image is as far away from the object.
C. The right side of the object is transformed into the left side of the image.
D. The image is smaller than the Object.

39. When the image rotates through an angle, the reflected beam will move
through the angle that is
A. Triple to the first angle
B. Double to the first angleYes
C. Same as the first
D. Four times greater than the first
40. Plane mirror can be used in
A. Galvanometer
B. Chopper
C. Beam deflectors
D. All of these

41. The size of the reflector must be much larger than the wavelength of the
incident light; otherwise, the light will be
A. Reflected back in all direction
B. Refracted
C. Scattered in all directions
D. Converge at a point
42. When the reflection takes place from the inner surface of the spherical
segment, then the mirror is called a
A. Convex mirror
B. Plane Mirror
C. Curved Mirror
D. Concave Mirror

43. If the light is reflected from the outer bulging surface of the spherical
segment, then the mirror is called a
A. Convex mirror
B. Plane Mirror
C. Curved Mirror
D. Concave Mirror

44. In Conduction, heat transfer takes place through

A. Medium
B. Vacuum
C. Matter
D. All the above

45. When heat is transferred by direct contact is called

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Direct transfer

46. The transfer of energy due to infrared and electromagnetic rays

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Ray transfer
47. The movement of heat energy from one substance to another is
A. Heat transfer
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Radiation

48. Heat transfer by the through the fluid (liquid and gases) movement of
current
A. Fluid transfer
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Radiation

49. The amount of heat in the body or system is

A. Pressure
B. Heat
C. Temperature
D. Radiation

50. Select the correct scales to measure the temperature

A. Kelvin
B. Celsius
C. Fahrenheit
D. All of the above

51. The migration of charged particles or molecules in a medium under the

influence of an applied electric field is
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electrolysis
C. Electrolyte
D. All the above
53. Electrophoretic system involves
A. Two Electrodes
B. Buffer
C. Current
D. All the above

54. The speed of migration of ions in an electric field depends upon:

A. Shape and size of the molecule
B. The magnitude of charge and shape of the molecule
C. The magnitude of charge shape and mass of the molecule
D. The magnitude of charge and mass of a molecule

55. Which of the following statements is true about the migration of

biomolecules?
A. The rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of the
medium
B. The rate of migration is directly proportional to current
C. Low voltage is used for the separation of high mass molecules
D. The rate of migration is inversely proportional to current

56. Which technique separates charged particles using an electric field?

A. Hydrolysis
B. Electrophoresis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Protein denaturing

57. Which of the following factors does not influence electrophoretic mobility?
A. Molecular weight
B. Shape of molecule
C. Size of molecule
D. Stereochemistry of molecule
58. When light bounces off an object is known to be
A. Refraction
B. Reflection
C. Scattering
D. Converging

59. Q. When light rays pass through the surface known to be

A. Refraction
B. Reflection
C. Scattering
D. Converging

60. When light rays pass through the surface, the rays are known to be
A. Refracted rays
B. Reflected rays
C. Scattering rays
D. Converging rays

61. The right side of the object in the plane mirror

A. Is transformed into the left side
B. Remains on the right side
C. The plane mirror does not form the image
D. All the above

62. The image formed by the plane mirror is

A. Virtual
B. Real
C. Erect
D. Both A and C
63. The mirror used in the galvanometer is
A. Concave
B. Convex
C. Plane mirror
D. All of these

64. Why the plane mirror is coated

A. For proper reflection
B. So the light can be scattered
C. For the protection of the reflecting surface
D. Light cannot travel through the glass

65. The Mirrors are made by coating the glass with

A. Hydrogen
B. Silica Yes
C. Aluminum
D. Silver

66. Select the correct parts for the Concave/Convex mirror

A. Centre of curvature
B. Focus
C. Focal length
D. All the above

67. In Conduction, heat transfer takes place through

A. Medium
B. Vacuum
C. Matter
D. All the above
68. In radiation the heat transfer takes place due to
A. Medium
B. Vacuum
C. Matter
D. All the above

69. In radiation the heat transfer takes place due to

A. (A) Medium
B. (B) Vacuum
C. (C) Matter
D. All the above

70. In radiation the heat transfer takes place due to

A. Medium
B. Vacuum
C. Matter
D. All the above

71. In radiation the heat transfer takes place due to

A. Medium
B. Vacuum
C. Matter
D. All the above

72. In radiation the heat transfer takes place due to

A. Medium
B. Vacuum
C. Matter
D. All the above
73. In radiation the heat transfer takes place due to
A. Medium
B. Vacuum
C. Matter
D. All the above

74. The migration of charged particles or molecules in a medium under the

influence of an applied electric field is
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electrolysis
C. Electrolyte
D. All the above

75. Which of the following statement is true?

A. An increase in the potential-difference decrease the current
B. The movement of ions doesn’t depend upon the charge and mass
C. The bigger the molecule, the lesser is the frictional and
D. electrostatic force.
E. The higher the charge, the greater is the electrophoretic mobility

76. Electrophoresis apparatus consists of

A. Gel
B. Buffer
C. Electric field
D. All the above

77. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the migration of

biomolecules?
A. The rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance
B. of medium
C. The rate of migration is directly proportional to current
D. High voltage is used for the separation of high mass molecules
E. The rate of migration is directly proportional to current
78. Which of the following is the separation technique on the basis of ions and
mass.
A. Hydrolysis
B. Electrophoresis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Protein denaturing

79. Which of the following factors influence electrophoretic mobility?

A. Molecular weight
B. The shape of the molecule
C. Size of molecule
D. All the above

80. Image formed by the mirror is similar to the size of

A. Focal Length
B. Radius of curvature
C. Object
D. Center point

81. Select the terms used in the Concave/Convex mirror

A. Focal Length
B. Radius of curvature
C. Diameter
D. All the above

82. The center of the sphere from which the mirror is cut. The midpoint
of the aperture is the pole of the mirror
A. Focal Length
B. Radius of curvature
C. Centre of curvature
D. Pole length
83. Select the types of mirror
A. Plane Mirror
B. Concave Mirror
C. Convex Mirror
D. All the above

84. Light can pass through the Opaque object and can undergo
A. Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Both A and B
D. Light cannot pass

85. A mirror converges light to a focal point.

A. Plane Mirror
B. Concave Mirror
C. Convex Mirror
D. All the above

86. The image form by the plane mirror is

A. Real and virtual
B. Real and erect
C. Virtual and erect
D. Real and inverted

87. ​______uses platinum for determining the temperature.

A. PTR
B. ATR
C. Thermocouple
D. Transistor
88. Full form of PTR
A. Platinum thermocouple resistance
B. Platinum thermistor resistance
C. Platinum thermal resistance
D. Plain thermal resistance

89. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of

A. 200°C to 1200°C.
B. -200°C to 200°C.
C. 200°C to 2200°C.
D. 200°C to 900°C.

90. ​______ is an unreactive metal and can easily be drawn into fine wires.
A. Silver
B. Mercury
C. Platinum
D. Sodium

91. The platinum sensing coil is enclosed inside a bulb which is either made of
A. Glass or Plastic
B. Pyrex or Plastic
C. Glass or Pyrex
D. Only Plastic

92. The insulator deposit on the surface of the glass tube is also used for sensing
the
A. Heat
B. Temperature
C. Pressure
D. All the above
93. The ________ cap is placed at the open end of the tube.
A. Rubber
B. Ebonite
C. Sulfur
D. Copper

94. Select the correct advantage of PTR

A. The temperature measurement through a platinum resistance

thermometer is easier as compared to the gas thermometer.
B. The meter gives a precise reading of Heat.
C. The thermometer has a wide range from 200 to 600° Celsius.
D. All the above

95. The ​resistance​ of platinum _______ linearly with the temperature.

A. Decrease
B. Remain constant
C. Increases
D. Does Not change

96. The​ thermocouple principle​ mainly depends on the three effects namely

A. Seebeck
B. Peltier
C. Thompson
D. All the above
97. Comprises two different metal wires that are connected together at the
junction end is

A. PTR
B. ATR
C. Thermocouple
D. Transistor

100. Select the correct advantage of thermocouple

A. Accuracy is moderate
B. It is Robust and can be used in environments like harsh as well as high
vibration.
C. The thermal reaction is slow
D. All the above

101. __________are used as a heat pump for performing thermoelectric cooling.

A. PTR
B. ATR
C. Thermocouple
D. Transistor

102. A two terminal solid state thermally sensitive transducer, that allows a
significant change in its resistive value with respect to change in ambient
temperature.
A. PTR
B. ATR
C. Thermocouple
D. Transistor
103. ​Audible sound waves have frequencies between
A. 40 to 20000 Hz
B. 20 to 20000 Hz
C. 60 to 20000 Hz
D. 10 to 20000 Hz

104. Sound waves with frequencies less than 20 Hz are called

A. Ultrasonic waves
B. Infrasonic waves
C. Audible waves
D. Hypersonic waves

104. Sound waves with frequencies less than 20000 Hz are called
A. Ultrasonic waves
B. Infrasonic waves
C. Audible waves
D. Hypersonic waves

105. Wavelength decreases as frequency _______

A. Increases
B. Decrease
C. Does Not affect
D. Frequency will be constant.

106. Sound waves can travel through

A. Solids
B. Liquids
C. Gases
D. All the above
107. Sound waves generally travel
A. Faster through solids than through gases.
B. Slow in gases
C. Same in both
D. Does Not travel through Gases

108. Ultrasonic waves can be used for

A. Cleaning
B. Echocardiography
C. Ultrasonography
D. All the above

109. Ultrasonic images are known as

A. Chromograms
B. Sonography
C. Sonograms
D. All the above

110. ________ waves are used to break stones in the kidney.

A. Ultrasonic waves
B. Infrasonic waves
C. Audible waves
D. Hypersonic waves

111. Buffers are used to maintain the

A. pH
B. Temperature
C. Ions
D. Movement
112. Electrophoresis can be divided into two main techniques
A. Movemable electrophoresis or zone electrophoresis
B. Free electrophoresis or zone electrophoresis
C. Microelectrophoresis or Moving boundary electrophoresis.
D. Free electrophoresis or Microelectrophoresis

113. Electrophoretic technique that involves the observation of motion of small

particles in an electric field with a microscope
A. Movemable electrophoresis
B. Free electrophoresis
C. Microelectrophoresis
D. Moving boundary electrophoresis.

114. The separation technique employing the stabilizing media.

A. Zone electrophoresis
B. Free electrophoresis
C. Microelectrophoresis
D. Moving boundary electrophoresis.

115. In which electrophoresis, filter paper is used as a stabilizing medium

A. Zone electrophoresis
B. Paper electrophoresis
C. Microelectrophoresis
D. Moving boundary electrophoresis.

116. Paper of good quality should contain at least ________ and

should have only a very slight adsorption capacity.
A. 85% of cellulose
B. 95% of cellulose
C. 99% of cellulose
D. 84% of cellulose
117. The paper is made transparent by immersion in organic mixtures of known
A. Reflective index
B. Refractive index
C. Glass index
D. Paper index

118. Cellulose acetate is especially used for clinical investigations such as

separation of _________ from blood
A. Glycoproteins
B. Lipoproteins
C. Hemoglobins
D. All the above

119. __________ is not very hydrophilic and thus holds very little buffer.
A. Cellulose phosphate
B. Cellulose acetate
C. Lignocellulosic
D. All the above

120. Select the types of gel used in electrophoresis

A. Starch gel
B. Agar gel
C. Polyacrylamide gel
D. All the above

121. Full form of AGE

A. Acryl gel electrophoresis
B. Agarose gel electrophoresis
C. Acrylamide gel electrophoresis
D. Amide gel electrophoresis
122. PAGE full form
A. Persulphate gel electrophoresis
B. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
C. Polyamide gel electrophoresis
D. Polyacryl aniline gel electrophoresis

123. Full form of RFLP

A. Restriction Fragment Length Polymer
B. Restriction Fragment Long Polymer
C. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
D. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism

124. ​Which of the following statements about agarose gel electrophoresis is

False?
A. Electrophoresis in agarose is a common way to separate DNA molecules
according to size.
B. Ethidium bromide is used to detect DNA.
C. Under the influence of the electrical field, positively charged DNA will
migrate towards the negative charged end of the gel.
D. All the above

125. ​Which of the following is the most preferred buffer condition for agarose
gel electrophoresis?
A. Buffer of pH 4.
B. Buffer of pH 5.
C. Buffer of pH 7.
D. Buffer of pH 9.
126. ​Ethidium bromide is a stain that specifically binds to DNA or RNA and
appears _______ if viewed under ultraviolet light.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Orange
D. Blue

127. Proteins can be visualized directly in gels by

A. Staining them with the dye
B. using electron microscope only
C. measuring their molecular weight
D. All the above

128. In SDS-PAGE, the protein sample is first

A. Treated with a reducing agent and then with anionic detergent followed
by fractionation by electrophoresis
B. Fractionated by electrophoresis then treated with an oxidizing agent
followed by anionic detergent.
C. Treated with a oxidizing agent and then with anionic detergent followed
by fractionation by electrophoresis
D. All the above

129. In a native PAGE, proteins are separated on the basis of

A. net negative charge
B. net charge and size
C. net positive charges size
D. All the above

130. Proteins are separated in an SDS-PAGE experiment on the basis of their

A. Positively charged side chains
B. Molecular weight
C. Negatively charged side chains
D. Different isoelectric points
131. The instruments that measure the wavelength distribution of light.
A. Spectroscope
B. Spectrophotometers
C. Mass spectrophotometer
D. Photometer

132. In double beam spectrophotometer, the beam from the light source is split
in
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. Infinity

133. A microscope that uses a beam of accelerated electrons as a source of

illumination.
A. Fluorescent microscope
B. Electron microscope
C. Transmission electron microscope
D. Scanning electron microscopy

134. The ______________ is used to view thin specimens through which

electrons can pass generating a projection image.
A. Fluorescent microscope
B. Electron microscope
C. Transmission electron microscope
D. Scanning electron microscopy
135. __________ is in the form of a tall vacuum column which is vertically
mounted.
A. Fluorescent microscope
B. Electron microscope
C. Transmission electron microscope
D. Scanning electron microscopy

136. The _______ is a heated tungsten filament, which generates electrons.

A. Lamp
B. Light
C. Electron gun
D. All the above

137. The electron beam coming out of the specimen passes down the second of
magnetic coils called
A. Condenser
B. Objective lens
C. Aperture
D. Specimen Holder

138. Is an extremely thin film of carbon or collodion held by a metal grid.

A. Condenser
B. Objective lens
C. Aperture
D. Specimen Holder

139. Select the advantage of electron microscope

A. Very high magnification
B. Incredibly high resolution
C. Material rarely distorted by preparation
D. All the above
140. An optical microscope that uses fluorescence and phosphorescence instead
of, or in addition to, reflection and absorption to study properties of organic or
inorganic substances.

A. Fluorescent microscope
B. Electron microscope
C. Transmission electron microscope
D. Scanning electron microscopy

141. Fluorescent dye is also name to be

A. Fluorophores
B. Fluorochromes
C. Chromophore
D. Both A and B

142. _________ uses a much higher intensity light to illuminate the sample.
A. Fluorescent microscope
B. Electron microscope
C. Transmission electron microscope
D. Scanning electron microscopy

143. Is a fluorescent chemical compound that can re-emit light upon light
excitation.
A. Fluorophores
B. Auxophore
C. Chromophore
D. Auxochrome
144. A very accurate color filter used to selectively pass light of a small range of
colors while reflecting other colors.
A. Fichroic filter
B. Dichroic filter
C. Monochromatic filter
D. All the above

145. Select the correct advantage of fluorescent microscopy

A. Cells are susceptible to phototoxicity, particularly with short-wavelength
light.
B. The sensitivity is high enough to detect as few as 50 molecules per cubic
micrometer.
C. Photobleaching occurs as the fluorescent molecules accumulate chemical
damage from the electrons excited during fluorescence.
D. All the above

146. Fluorophores lose their ability to fluoresce as they are illuminated in a

process called
A. Bleaching
B. Photobleaching
C. Chromobleaching
D. Fluro Bleaching

147. A light source used in fluorescent microscope is

A. Xenon lamps
B. Mercury lamps
C. LED
D. All the above
148. ​Surface tension of water also manifests as the so-called
A. Hydrophilic effect
B. Hydrophobic effect
C. Polar hydrophilic effect
D. Non-polar hydrophilic effect

149. ________ is a property of liquids that arises from unbalanced molecular

cohesive forces at or near a surface.
A. Surface area
B. Surface energy
C. Surface tension
D. All the above

150. _________ is the process where sound waves and echoes are used to
determine objects in space.
A. Echolocation
B. Ultrasonography
C. Lithotripsy:
D. Sonar

151. ​________ waves are used to break stones in the kidney.

A. Transmission waves
B. Ultrasonic waves
C. Transverse waves
D. All the above

152. Ultrasonic images are known as

A. Chromograms
B. waveform ​graph
C. Sonograms
D. All the above
153. ​Which of the following is used in electron microscope?
A. electron beams
B. magnetic fields
C. light waves
D. electron beams and magnetic fields

154. Which of the following are true for electron microscopy?

A. specimen should be thin and dry
B. image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen
C. electron beam must pass through evacuated chamber
D. specimen should be thin and dry, image is obtained on a phosphorescent
screen and electron beam must pass through evacuated chamber

155. Which among the following helps us in getting a three-dimensional picture

of the specimen?
A. Transmission Electron Microscope
B. Scanning Electron Microscope
C. Compound Microscope
D. Simple Microscope

156. The resolving power of TEM is derived from _______________

A. electrons
B. specimens
C. power
D. ocular system

157. ​Name the characteristic of the sound which distinguishes a sharp sound
from a grave or dull sound?
A. Intensity
B. Echo
C. Pitch
D. Resonance
158. ​Which of the following statements is or are correct about longitudinal
mechanical waves?
A. The longitudinal mechanical waves which lie in the frequency range
20 Hz to 20000 Hz are called audible or sound waves.
B. The longitudinal mechanical waves having frequencies less than 20 Hz
are called infrasonic.
C. The longitudinal mechanical waves having frequencies greater than
20,000 Hz are called ultrasonic waves.
D. All of the above are correct

159. ​_______ are often used for quality control and failure analysis.
A. Fluorescent microscope
B. Electron microscope
C. Transmission electron microscope
D. Scanning electron microscopy

160. ​A thermistor, physical changes (change in its temperature) tend to change

its electrical properties (like resistance), it can be also referred to as a
A. Condenser
B. Transducer
C. Objective lens
D. Monochrome

161. ​________ is the frequency of an audible sound wave that determines how
high or low we perceive the sound to be
A. Intensity
B. B. Echo
C. C. Pitch
D. D. Resonance
162. An in situ localization of antigens (molecules) at the ultrastructural level
using specific antibodies or similar reagents is called _________
A. Fluorescent microscope
B. Immuno-electron microscope
C. Transmission electron microscope
D. Scanning electron microscopy

163. The most commonly used antibodies belong to the

A. Immunoglobulin F class.
B. Immunoglobulin G class.
C. Immunoglobulin M class.
D. Immunoglobulin E class.

164. General Preparation of Samples for Immuno-electron Microscopy involves

A. Fixation
B. Dehydration
C. Embedding and sectioning
D. All the above

165. _______ are usually infiltrated at ambient temperature and polymerized at

temperatures above 60C.
A. Epoxy
B. Resins
C. Epoxy resins
D. Silica
166. The prism that produce dispersion but no diversion is called
A. Spectrum
B. Direct vision prism
C. Indirect vision prism
D. Visible prism

167. A system of white or dark Fringes without any colour obtained by white
light is called
A. Unchromatic Fringes
B. Chromatic Fringes
C. Achromatic Fringes
D. All the above

168. Give the full form of laser

A. Light Amplification Through Stimulated Emission Of Radiation
B. Light Amplitude Through Stimulated Emission Of Radiation
C. Light Amplification Through Spectrum Emission Of Radiation
D. Low Amplification Through Stimulated Emission Of Radiation
169. ________ is a photonic device
A. Microscope
B. Laser
C. Spectrometer
D. Spectrophotometer

170. A microwave amplifier based on simulated immersion of radiation is called

A. Laser
B. Maser
C. Spectrum
D. Spherical mirror
171. The reduction in intensity with distance in a medium is called attenuation
of light

172. To achieve high percentage of stimulated immersion and artificial situation

known as _______ is to be created in the medium
A. Population divergent
B. Population inversion
C. Population erect
D. All the above

173. The process of supplying energy to the laser medium with a view to
transfer it into the state of population inversion is called
A. Hardening
B. Rolling
C. Pumping
D. Population transfer

174. ________ is the agency which supplies the energy.

A. Pipes
B. Pump
C. Hardeners
D. All the above

175. The electric field cause ionization of the medium and rises it to excite state
is a
A. Harding method
B. Pumping Method
C. Electrical discharge method
D. Electrical method
176. The energy given through the pumping agent is utilised to the latest
possible extent in exciting the ground level atom this is denoted by
A. Discharge efficiency
B. Electrical efficiency
C. Hardening Efficiency
D. Pumping efficiency

177. The cross-sectional dimensions of laser cavity are called

A. Longitudinal mode
B. Transverse mode
C. Inverse mode
D. Direct mode

178. The laser mode governed by the axial dimension of the resonant cavity are
called
A. Longitudinal mode
B. Transverse mode
C. Inverse mode
D. Direct mode

179. Solid-state lasers are electrically non-conductive and called to be

A. Dropped insulator lasers
B. Doped insulator lasers
C. Doped conducting lasers
D. Dropped conducting lasers

180. Full form of YAG

A. Yttrium aluminum garnet
B. Young aluminum garnet
C. Yttrium aluminum gadget
D. Young aluminum gadget
181. YAG laser is one of the most popular type of
A. Solid and liquid state laser
B. Gas state laser
C. Liquid state laser
D. Solid state laser

182. Light from conventional source spread out in the form of spherical wave
front and hence it is slightly
A. Convergent
B. Refracted
C. Divergent
D. Reflected

183. If the light coming from a source has only one frequency of oscillation the
light is said to be
A. Achromatic
B. Dichromatic
C. Monochromatic
D. All the above

184. The source for the monochromatic is known to be _______ source.

A. Achromatic
B. Dichromatic
C. Monochromatic
D. All the above

185. __________ is the joining of two or more pieces into a single unit.
A. Hardening
B. Rolling
C. Pumping
D. Welding
186. The ________ hits the edge of two plates to their melting point and causes
them to fuse together where they are in contact.
A. Laser beam
B. Maser beam
C. Light rays
D. Refracted rays

187. _________ uses lasers in the manufacturing of electronic components and

integrated circuits.
A. Detergent industry
B. Food industry
C. Pharmaceuticals
D. Electronic industry

188. Give the full form of LIDAR

A. Light Divergent And Ranging
B. Light Directory And Ranging
C. Light Detection And Ranging
D. Light Detection And Reversion

189. Laser is very useful tool for the measurement of concentration of various
atmospheric pollutants
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon monoxide
C. SO2
D. All the above

190. Select the modes of laser beam

A. Resonant modes
B. Longitudinal modes
C. Transverse mode
D. All the above
191. Select the characteristics of laser beam
A. High monochromaticity
B. High intensity
C. Directionality
D. All the above

192. If the object is held between two or more plane mirrors multiple ________
are formed
A. Erect images
B. Real images
C. Virtual images
D. Inverted images

193. In order to specify the position of the object and the image we need a
reference point and sign convention

194. The light source used in _________ is deuterium and tungsten lamps.
A. Single beam spectrophotometer
B. Double beam spectrophotometer
C. Spectrophotometry
D. All the above

195. The wavelength where the absorbance is maximum is known to be

A. Lambda Min
B. Lambda Max
C. Maximum absorbance
D. Minimum absorbance

196. The double beam spectrophotometer contains cell compartment for

A. Reference
B. Blank/sample
C. Both A and B
D. Sample
197. The single beam spectrophotometer contains cell compartment for
A. Reference
B. Sample/blank
C. Either sample/blank/reference
D. Blank

198. Which is the correct statement for a double beam spectrophotometer?

A. The sample and blank can be compare at a time
B. Is fast then single beam spectroscopy
C. It is not time consuming
D. All the above

199. Which is the correct statement for a single beam spectrophotometer?

A. The sample and blank can be compare at a time
B. Is fast then single beam spectroscopy
C. It is time consuming
D. All the above

200. ​_______ ​can be defined as any technique that uses antibodies, or molecules
that interact with antibodies.
A. Fluorescent microscope
B. Immuno-electron microscope
C. Transmission electron microscope
D. Scanning electron microscopy

201. Give the full form of SEM

A. Scanning electric microscope
B. Source electron microscope
C. Source electric microscope
D. Scanning electron microscope
202. Give the full form of TEM
A. Transfer electron microscope
B. Traverse e;ectron microscope
C. Transmission electron microscope
D. Transmission electric microscope

203. The rate and resolution of the electrophoretic separation

can be effectively reduced by
A. Adsorption
B. Mobility
C. Charge
D. Mass

204. In electrophoresis the buffers used are

A. Formate
B. Citrate
C. EDTA
D. All the above

205. ​_______ ​is the most commonly ​used dye for DNA and RNA detection in
gels.
A. Ethidium bromide
B. Bromophenol blue
C. Crystal violet
D. Saffraine

206. The dye tracking dye used in electrophoresis

A. Ethidium bromide
B. Bromophenol blue
C. Crystal violet
D. Saffraine
207. Cellulose acetate as a medium for electrophoresis was introduced by
______
A. John in1999
B. John in 1958
C. Kohn in 1958
D. Kohn in 1999

208. Select the correct advantages of cellulose acetate

A. It is chemically pure; it does not contain lignins, hemicelluloses or
nitrogen
B. Cellulose strips are translucent and this makes them suitable for direct
photoelectric scanning for separated bands of components
C. The very low content of glucose these strips are suitable for
electrophoresis of polysaccharides
D. All the above

209. The buffers used for cellulose acetate electrophoresis are essentially the
same as used for
A. Paper electrophoresis
B. Zone electrophoresis
C. Cellulose electrophoresis
D. Microelectrophoresis

210. Potato starch is hydrolyzed in acidified ______ at 37°C to obtain starch gel.
A. Toluene
B. Acetone
C. Ethylene
D. Methane

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