MD Reading 3 4
MD Reading 3 4
MD Reading 3 4
D. 1220
4. In majority of machine members, the damping capacity of the material should be:
A. low
B. zero
C. high
D. could be anything
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D. Copper-aluminum
7. A babbit is:
A. a eutectic of iron and iron phosphide
B. a gadget for measuring volume
C. a measure of magnetic induction produced in a material
D. antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
10. In case of a knuckle joint the pin is most likely to fail in:
A. compression
B. shear
C. tension
D. double shear
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A. kennedy key
B. tangent key
C. sunk key
D. none of the above
19. Treating the welds as a line, the moment of inertia about a center of gravity of a circular weld of diameter
would be:
A. Ttd 2/36 B. Ttd/6
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C. Ttd 3/36 D.
Ttd 3/4
20. A single ply leather belt running at a belt velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to transmit per inch of width:
A. 2.5 HP B. 5.0 HP C. 4.0 HP D. 3.0 HP
The answer is: C
21. For butt welding of two plates each of which is 25 mm thick, the best process would be:
A. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
C. Gas welding
D. Electro slag welding
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c. 60 D.
120
31. Is the radial distance from the addendum circle to the working depth circle.
A. whole depth
B. addendum depth
C. working depth D. none of these
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33. The type of Cam used for low and moderate speed engines is generally:
A. Harmonic cam
B. Tangent
C. Involute D. Flat
37. All of the following are processes used to surface-harden steel except A. carburizing. B. cyaniding. C. flame
hardening.
D. tempering.
40. As pump speed increases, its (NPSH) net positive suction head requirement:
A. Increases
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B. Remains the same
C. None of the above D. Decreases
44. The working load (P) for a chain for crane application is expressed in terms of diameter of link 'd' in
cm as follows:
A. P = 1.5d2
B. p = 50d 2
c. P =
2
500d D. p =
25d 2
45. If a square key and the shaft are to be of the same material and of equal strength, the length of key
would be
(d = shaft diameter)
A. d B.
1.5d
c.
D. 1.23d
46. In a standard coarse thread bolt the stress concentration is maximum at:
A. Root
B. Flank
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C. All over the surface
D. Top surface
49. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can be used at:
A. 2 mm
B. 3mm
C. 7mm
D. 5mm
50. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can be made in single pass is:
A. 6 mm B.
12 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 3 mm
51. A rolled steel flat designated as 50 ISF 8 means: A. The flat is 50 mm long and 8 mm thick
B. The flat is 50 mm wide and 8 mm thick
C. The flat has cross section 50 sq. mm and width 8 mm
D. The flat has cross section 50 sq. mm and depth 8 mm.
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53. Zero axial thrust is experienced in:
A. Helical gears
B. Spiral gears C. Herringbone gears D. Bevel gears
55. A shaft rotating in anti-clockwise direction at slow speed inside a bearing will be:
A. At bottom most of bearing
B. Towards left side of bearing metal to metal contact
C. Towards left side of bearing and making no metal to metal contact
D. Towards right side of bearing and making no metal to metal contact.
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The answer is: A
60. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron at:
A. 9700C B.
9100C
c. 4400C
D. 16390C
63. If a material recovers its original dimensions, when the load is removed it is called:
A. Plastic
B. Elastic
C. Brittle
D. Annealed
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66. The ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and to return to it when unloaded,
is known as:
A. Creep
B. Fatigue strength
C. Hardness
D. Resilience
71. The constituent that has a powerful softening effect on cast iron and its presence in cast iron reduces
the ability of the iron to retain carbon in chemical combination is:
A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Carbon
D. Sulphur
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A. 40-60 MPa B.
150-180 MPa
c. 480-500 MPa
D. 1500-1600 Mpa
76. In powder metallurgy the process of heating the cold pressed metal powder is called:
A. Sintering
B. Granulation
C. Deposition
D. Precipitation
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The answer is: D
80. Compressive strength of gray cast iron in tonnes/cm 2 is of the order of:
A. 3-5
B. 7-10
c. 15-22 D.
5-7
81. Surface hardening to produce a hard outer surface with a ductile interior is desirable for metal (steel) products
subjected to:
A. high tensile
loads. B. shock. C.
fatigue.
D. high compressive loads.
82. Steel with 80% carbon and 100% pearlite is known as:
A. eutectoid B.
Hyper-eutectoid
C. Austenite D.
Solidus
The answer is: A
83. For steel shafting design in an average condition, the maximum distance in feet between bearing to
avoid excessive linear deflection is by formulas, L = 8.95 [) 2/3 for shaft subjected to no bending except
its own weight but for shafting with bending action of pulleys, etc. the formula then will be L
B. 7.0 D2/3
C. 5.2 D2/3
D. 6.0 D2/3
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85. In calculation using standard structural shapes of I-beams, it is assumed that the shear stress is carried
by the A. entire cross-sectional area. B. web only.
C. top flange only when in compression.
D. flanges only.
86. In a beam of rectangular cross section, the maximum shear stress when related to the average shear stress is A.
150% higher.
B. 50% higher.
C. 33% higher.
D. 50% lower.
88. The absolute viscosity of the fluid divided by its density expressed in the same terms of units is also
called
A. centistokes
B. kinematic viscosity C. Petroffs equation
D. light petroleum oil
A. 76.2
B. 63.5
C. 2
1/4
inch
D.
68.5
The answer is: B
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91. Formed by the intersection of the adjacent flanks of adjacent threads when extended is called.
A. crest apex
B. all of these C. sharp root
D. sharp crest
92. In designing the spoke or wheel of a flywheel, it is ideal to consider that the cross-sectional area of the
spoke at rim side should not be less than of the cross area at the hub side.
A. 80%
B. 2/3
c. 90%
D. 3/8
93. The cutting up to 700 is best for drilling extremely hard metals and for soft materials
degrees may be applied.
A. 60
B. 45
C. 40
D. 48
The answer is: C
94. What is the material stress for brittle materials, in the calculation of allowable stress from the formula?
allowable stress = material stress/factor of safety
A. yield strength
B. ultimate strength
C. endurance strength
D. mean stress
95. Failure of slender columns occurs when A. applied stress exceeds yield strength B. applied stress
exceeds ultimate strength. C. allowable stress exceeds the factor of safety.
D. the load exceeds the critical or Euler load (and the column buckles sideways).
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97. Opposite directional force equal in magnitude and parallel is called:
A. non coplanar
B. centro
C. couple
D. coplanar
98. All of the following are recognized types of beam failure except A. excessive deflection.
B. local buckling. C.
rotational buckling.
D. longitudinal buckling.
100. All of the following are feasible methods for calculating truss deflections of statically indeterminate
trusses except the
A. strain energy method.
B. virtual work method.
C. unit load method.
D. table look-up method.
101. The method of superposition for calculating beam deflections due to multiple loads is valid as long as
A. none of the deflections are excessive. B. stresses are less than the yield strength.
C. none of the deflections are excessive and stresses are less than the yield strength.
D. deflections are negligibly small.
A. carbon
B. tin
C. steel
D. iron
103. The easiest, most straight-forward method for determining beam deflection is the A. double integration method.
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B. moment area method. C.
strain energy method.
D. table look-up method.
104. The ratio of the worm speed to the worm gear speed may range from 1.5 or even less up to
A. 25 or more
B. 50 or more
C. 75 or more
D. 100 or more
105. As a general rule, a ratio of is about the maximum recommended for a single worm and worm
gearing operation.
A. 30 B.
40
c. 50
D. 60
106. The conjugate beam method of calculating beam deflection allows the deflection to be found by drawing A. shear
diagrams. B. shear stress diagrams. C. moment diagrams.
D. shear and moment diagrams.
107. The number of threads on the worm ordinarily varies from one to
A. 6 or 8
B. 8 or 10
c. 12 or 14
D. 14 or 16
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109. The strain energy method of calculating beam deflection at a point of load application equates the total
internal strain energy to the external A. deflection. B. force.
C. moment.
D. work.
111. When an axial stress is applied eccentrically to a beam, the combined stress due to compression
(tension) and bending may be found by A. simple addition. B. combined stress theory. C. Mohr's
circle.
D. finite element analysis.
112. When load is applied to a beam axially but not at the centroid of the cross section, the beam is said to
be loaded
A. eccentrically
B. concentrically. C. dynamically.
D. pseudostatically.
113. The maximum bending stress a beam experiences occurs at the A. neutral axis.
B. surface furthest removed from the neutral axis.
C. end of the beam.
D. middle of the beam.
115. A positive moment on a beam causes what kind of stress in the upper fibers of the beam?
A. compression
B. tension C. shear
D. fatigue
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116. Which of the following statements about shear diagram is not true?
A. The shear at any point is equal to the sum of the loads and reactions from the point to the left
end. B. The magnitude of the shear at any point is equal to the slope of the moment line at that
point.
C. Loads and reactions upward are positive.
D. The shear diagram is straight and sloping over uniformly distributed loads.
118. The disadvantage of using the Goodman design criterion instead of the Soderberg design criterion is
that it A. applies only for brittle materials.
B. is the more conservative of fluctuating stress theories.
C. is acceptable for metals only below their critical temperature.
D. requires the material's ultimate strength to be known.
121. The "slenderness ratio" of a column is generally defined as the ratio of its:
A. length of its minimum width
B. unsupported length to its maximum radius of gyration
C. length of its moment of inertia
D. unsupported length to its least radius of gyration
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122. The relationship between the extension of a spring and the force required to produce the extension is:
A. F = ma
B. F = gN
C. F = mv2/R
123. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the:
A. modulus of elongation
B. plastic range C. irreversible range D. elastic range
128. The amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth on the
pitch circle of the gear: A. clearance
B. tip relief
C. backlash
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D. chordal addendum
129. An impact test for which the specimen is supported at one end as a cantilever:
A. Izod test
B. Charpy test
C. Brinell test
D. Endurance test
133. Steel that has been deoxidized with a strong deoxidizing agent such as silicon or aluminum in order to
eliminate oxygen and carbon reaction during solidification:
A. rimmed steel
B. stainless steel
C. killed steel D. monel
134. A kind of gear used for heavy duty work where a large ratio of speed is required and are extensively
used in speed reducer.
A. hypoid gear
B. cycloid gear
C. bevel gear
D. worm gear
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135. A group of thin steel strip for measuring clearances:
A. depth gage B. line center gage
C. feeler gage
D. lay-out gage
136. An imaginary circle passing thru the points at which the teeth of meshing gears contact each other.
A. pitch circle
B. base circle
C. addendum circle D. dedendum
139. Distance from the center of one tooth of a gear to the center of the next consecutive tooth measured on
the pitch:
A. diametral pitch
B. pitch circle
C. circular pitch D. module
140. The process of heating a piece of steel to a temperature within or above the critical range and cooling
rapidly:
A. annealing
B. normalizing
C. hardening
D. quenching
141. Vickers, Knoop, and Brinell are all names of: A. Nobel prize in winners in metallurgy
B. thermodynamic constants
C. hardness tests
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D. magnetic constants
142. Which of the following is not a method by which a single lap rivet joint usually falls?
A. The rivets shear
B. The plate fails in bearing
C. The plate fails in tension D. The rivets fail in tension
143. Which of the following will work to some extent in all metals?
A. austenitizing
B. annealing
C. work hardening D. shot-peening
145. The hardness of steel may be increases by heating to approximately 1500 0 F and quenching in oil or water if:
A. the carbon content is above 3.0% B. the carbon content is from 0.2% to 2.0%
C. the carbon content is below 0.2%
D. all carbon is removed, and the steel contains only chromium, nickel, manganese, or a
combination of these.
146. One of the main differences between cast iron and steel is that:
A. steel has a higher silicon content
B. steel always contains alloying metals such as nickel, chromium, manganese and vanadium
C. steel cannot be annealed whereas cast iron can
D. steel has a lower carbon content
147. Which of the following factors will affect the hardenability of steel?
A. composition only
B. grain size only
C. composition and grain size
D. cooling rate
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148. The mechanical deformation of a material at a temperature above its re-crystallization temperature is commonly
known as:
A. hot working
B. strain aging
C. grain growth
D. cold working
149. Under very slow deformation and at high temperature, it is possible to have some plastic flow in a
crystal at a shear stress lower than the critical shear stress. What is the phenomenon called?
A. slip
B. shear
C. creep
D. bending
151. A special metal formed when two or more metals are melted together.
A. alloy
B. compound
C. titanium D. brass
152. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane and to the pitch plane.
A. transverse plane
B. pitch plane
C. angular plane
D. none of these
153. The curve formed by the path of a point on the extension of the radius of a circle as it rolls along the
curve or line.
A. cycloid
B. copoid
C. tantroid
D. trochoid
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154. A condition in generated gear teeth when any part of the fillet curve lies inside of a line drawn tangent
to the working profile as its lowest point.
A. overcut
B. supercat C. tomcat
D. undercut
155. The total depth of a tooth space, equal to addendum plus dedendum, also equal to working depth plus
clearance.
A. whole depth
B. addendum depth
C. dedendum depth D. none of these
157. Like the Soderberg criterion, the Goodman criterion should be used with all of the following materials
except A. steel. B. aluminum. C. titanium.
D. cast iron.
158. A vertically loaded beam, fixed at one end and simply supported at the other is indeterminate to what
degree?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth
159. A thin walled pressurized vessel consists of a right circular cylinder with flat ends. Mid way between
the ends, the stress is greater in what direction?
A. longitudinal
B. circumferential
C. radial
D. at an angle of 450 to the longitudinal
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B. difference between the moments on one side of the section and the opposite side
C. sum of the moments of all external forces on both sides of the section
D. sum of the moments of all external forces between supports
163. Hooke's Law for an isotropic homogenous medium experiencing one dimensional stress is:
A. Stress = E(Strain)
B. Strain = E(Stress)
C. Force(Area) = E(Change in length/length)
D. Strain energy = E(internal energy)
165. A thin homogenous metallic plate containing a hole is heated sufficiently to cause expansion. If the coefficient of
surface expansion is linear, the area of the will:
A. Increase at twice the rate the area of the metal increases
B. Increase at the same rate as the area of the metal increases
C. stay the same
D. decrease at the same rate as the area of the metal increases
166. The maximum bending moment of a beam simply supported at both ends and subject to a total load W
uniformly distributed over its length L is expressed by the formula:
A. WL/8 B. WL2/8 C. WL/2
D. WL2/2
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The answer is: B
169. The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any two points on the beam is equal to the:
A. change in shear between the two points
B. total shear beyond the two points
C. average moment between the two points
D. change in moment between the two points
171. Young's modulus of elasticity for a material can be calculated indirectly from which of the following
properties of the material?
A. Temperature, coefficient of expansion and dielectric constant
B. Temperature, coefficient of expansion and specific heat
C. Density and velocity of sound in the material
D. Density and inter-atomic spacing in the material
172. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the:
A. modulus of elasticity
B. plastic range C. irreversible range D. elastic range
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B. a measure of a materials ability to store strain energy
C. the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity D. a measure of the deflection of a member
174. Imperfections within metallic crystal structures may be all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. lattice vacancies, or extra interstitial atoms
B. ion pairs missing in ionic crystals
C. displacement atoms to interstitial sites
D. linear defects, or slippage dislocations caused by shear.
175. All of the following statements about strain energy are correct, EXCEPT:
A. It is caused by generation and movement of dislocation through shear or plastic formation
B. It results from trapped vacancies in the crystal lattice
C. It is proportional to the length of dislocation. Shear modulus, and shortest distance between
equivalent lattice sites.
D. It is less for sites at grain boundaries than for internal sites within the crystal structure.
176. When a metal is cold worked all of the following generally occur EXCEPT:
A. Re-crystallization temperature decreases
B. Ductility decreases
C. Grains become equi-axed
D. Tensile strength increases
177. All of the following statements about strain hardening are correct, EXCEPT:
A. Strain hardening strengthens metals. Resistance to deformation increases with the amount of strain present.
B. Strain hardening is relieved during softening, annealing above the re-crystallization temperature C. Strain
hardening is produced by cold working (deformation below the re-crystallization temperature)
D. More strain hardening requires more time temperature exposure for relief.
178. All of the following processes strengthens metals, EXCEPT: A. Annealing above the recrystallization temperature.
B. Work hardening by mechanical deformation below the re-crystallization temperature. C. Heat
treatments such as quenching and tempering, for production of a finer microstructure.
D. Increasing the carbon content of low carbon steels.
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The answer is: D
180. Steels can be strengthened by all of the following practices, EXCEPT:
A. annealing
B. quenching and tempering
C. work hardening
D. grain refinement
181. If 1080 steel (0.80 wt. % C) is annealed by very slow cooling from 1000 0C (18320 F) to ambient temperature, its
microstructure will consist almost solely of:
A. austenite
B. bainite
C. cementite D. pearlite
183. In the design of reinforced concrete structure, tensile strength of the concrete is normally:
A. Determined by split cylinder tests
B. Determined by beam tests
C. Neglected
D. Assumed to be 200 psi
184. All of the following statements about rusting of iron are correct, EXCEPT: A. Contact with water, and
oxygen are necessary for rusting to occur.
B. Contact with a more electropositive metal reduces rusting.
C. Halides aggravate rusting, a process which involves electrochemical oxidation-reduction reactions.
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic areas, and the rust is deposited nearby.
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186. On Mohr's circle for stress the extreme shear stresses are indicated by the ordinate at point
A.
B.
c. c
D.
187. At quite low temperatures (say-75 0C) the notched bar impact value of steel:
A. increases significantly
B. decreases significantly C. remains unchanged
D. depends on heat treatment carried out.
188. All of the following shapes can lead to stress concentration except A. stepped shafts. B. plates with
holes.
C. gently tapered parts with large fillets and radii.
D. shafts and keyways.
189. Stress concentration factors are not normally applied to any of the following configurations except A. static loading
of ductile materials.
B. applications with local yielding around discontinuities. C.
applications where stresses are kept low by design.
D. long grooves where the ratio of groove radius to shaft diameter is small.
190. If the applied stress is known as a function of O, then the principal stresses may be found by the
mathematical process of
A. reduction by partial fractions. B. addition. C. differentiation.
D. integration.
191. A foundation bolt with a circular end is secured to the floor by means of a steel cotter. If the pull on the
bolt is 14000kg, the diameter of the bolt should be:
A. 10 mm B. 30 mm C. 20 mm D. 60 mm
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193. In case of sunk key:
A. The key is cut in both shaft and hub
B. The keyway is cut in hub only
C. The keyway is cut in shaft only
D. The key is helical along the shaft
194. Materials with low values of thermal expansion are desirable for A. Pyrex glassware. B. barometers.
C. thermometers.
D. railroad rails.
195. Very low values of the coefficient of thermal expansion lead to A. very low values of thermal expansion.
B. no thermal expansion. C. high values of thermal expansion.
D. very high values of thermal expansion.
199. The sum of the strains in the three orthogonal directions (G G G ) in accordance with Poisson's ratio is
A. Hooke's law.
B. the modulus of elasticity.
C. dilation.
D. the shear modulus.
200. The constant of proportionality relating the linear expansion of an object to its change in temperature
is called its
A. modulus of elasticity.
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B. shear modulus. C. bulk modulus.
D. coefficient of linear expansion.
201. The constant of proportionality relating the volumetric expansion of an object to its change in temperature is called
its
A. modulus of elasticity.
B. shear modulus. C. bulk modulus.
D. coefficient of linear expansion.
202. The thermal stress in a bar that is allowed to expand freely when heated to a higher temperature is A.
large and positive. B. small and positive. C. zero.
D. small and negative.
203. Which of the following is not a method of non-destructive testing of steel casting and forging?
A. radiography
B. magnetic particle C. ultrasonic
D. chemical analysis
206. The amount of force required to cause a unit deformation (displacement) -often called the spring constant is the
A. modulus of elasticity. B. normal stress. C. shear stress.
D. stiffness.
207. When more than one spring or resisting member shares the load, the relative stiffness is the A. modulus
of elasticity. B. normal stress. C. stiffness.
D. rigidity.
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208. When a steel is described as SAE 1320:
A. it is plain carbon steel
B. it is nickel-chromium steel
C. it contains 18% to 23 % carbon
D. it contains 0.18% to 0.23% carbon
209. In roller chain drive, the chain should extend around at least degrees of the pinion
circumference, and this maximum amount of contact is obtained for all center distances provided the
ratio is less than 3 1/2 to 1.
A. 90 B. 105
c. 120
D. 135
212. Tooth width measured along the chord at the pitch circle
A. flank
B. face width
C. width of space
D. chordal thickness
213. It is the difference of addendum and dedendum with equivalent to the whole depth less working depth:
A. fillet space
B. fillet radius
C. clearance D. backlash
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c. Fit D. None
of the above
215. Reinstalled or secondhand boilers shall have a minimum factor of safety of:
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
219. Ratio of the lateral strain to longitudinal strain when loaded longitudinally in tension.
A. Poisson's ratio
B. Strain Modulus
C. Strain ratio
D. Tension ratio
220. A shaft is to be checked for concentricity. A suitable method of performing the check is by:
A. bench micrometer
B. snap gage
C. manometer
D. bench centers and dial indicator
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B. soldering
C. casting
D. brazing
227. A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates and the feed is stationary is called:
A. planning
B. shaping
C. turning
D. reaming
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The answer is: B
228. The clearance between tooth profiles of gear tooth
A. rack
B. dedendum
C. addendum D. backlash
232. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting threads in holes.
A. Tapping tap
B. Plug tap
C. Taper tap
D. Bottoming tap
233. A material is to be drawn into a wire. It must therefore possess the property of:
A. toughness
B. ductility
C. malleability D. hardness
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D. it is strong in tension
236. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth travels from the point of contact with the mating tooth to
the pitch point of a gear:
A. arc of recess
B. arc of action
C. arc of approach D. arc of relief
237. The process of working metals by the application of sudden blows on by a steady pressure.
A. casting
B. forging
C. tempering D. peening
241. When machining nickel alloys the best type of cutting fluid is:
A. sulfurized oil
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B. straight mineral
C. soluble oil
D. all of these
242. Hardening the surface of iron-based alloys by heating them below the melting point in contact with the
carbonaceous substance:
A. Nitriding
B. Cyaniding
C. Carburizing D. Quenching
244. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to alternating or repeated loading without
causing failure:
A. elasticity
B. endurance stress
C. yield stress
D. ultimate stress
245. A material that can wear away a substance softer than itself:
A. tungsten B. abrasive
C. corrosive
D. carbon
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C. Insulators
D. Conductors
249. Total deformation measured along in the direction of the line of stress:
A. stress
B. strain
C. elongation D. yield line
253. A machine tool used principally to machine flat or plane surfaces with a single pointed cutting tool.
A. shaper
B. planer
C. hack saw D. drill
254. The maximum stress to which a material can be subjected to without a trace of any permanent set
remaining upon a complete withdrawal of the stress.
A. yield strength
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B. elastic limit
C. fracture
D. ultimate strength
256. A hollow shaft made of plain carbon steel contains 0.35% carbon is mounted on bearings 20 ft apart.
The material of the shaft will be composed of:
A. UNS G 1035
B. SAE 1030
c. AISI C 1035
D. SAE 6150
257. Fluid film desire between two surfaces having relative sliding motion:
A. grease
B. lubrication
C. margin
D. clearance
260. Which of the following would most likely require a steel containing 0.6% carbon that has been
spheroidized, cold-drawn, and slightly tempered?
A. a ball bearing
B. a bridge beam
C. a water pipe
D. a cutting tool
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The answer is: D
262. A structure has five unknown reactions acting on the structure. Three equations of static equilibrium
have been written. To complete the analysis, which of the following equations would be needed?
A. two dynamic equilibrium equations
B. three-member deformation equations
C. three more static equilibrium equations D. two-member deformation equations
D. 0.40 to 0.50
265. A kind of chuck which has five reversible jaws which could be adjusted properly:
A. universal chuck
B. live chuck
C. chuck connors
D. independent chuck
266. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as:
A. Modulus of Elasticity
B. Plastic Range
C. Elastic Range
D. none of the above
267. The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any two points of the beam is equal to the:
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A. change in shear between two points
B. average moment between the two points
C. change on moment between the two points
D. change in the deflection between the two points
273. Which of the following has the highest specific strength of all structural materials?
A. magnesium alloys B. chromium alloys
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C. none of the
above D. titanium
alloys
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The answer is: D
284. The most important element that controls the physical properties of steel is:
A. silicon
B. manganese
C. tungsten D. carbon
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The answer is: D
292. Choose the one that will have the highest cutting speed.
A. cast iron
B. tool steel
C. brass
D. aluminum
293. When large number of components are turned and parted off from a bar, the chuck generally used is:
A. four jaw chuck
B. two jaw chuck
C. collet chuck
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D. magnetic chuck
297. Unlike materials or materials of different thickness can be butt welded by:
A. control of pressure and current
B. adjusting time duration of current
C. adjusting initial gap D. all of the above
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300. For a completely corrosion-resistant stainless steel, what minimum percentage of chromium in the alloy is
required?
A. 3.2% B. 7.3%
c. 11%
D. 15%
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READINGS MD 3
1. When the number of teeth in a pair of meshing gears are such that they do not have a common
divisor.
A. dummy
B. LCD
C. addit
D. hunting
2. For internal gears having a 200 pressure angle and full depth teeth, the difference between the
number of teeth in a gear and pinion should not be less than
A. 10 B. 14
c. 12 D.
16
3. Zero bevel gears of 20 degrees angle should have a pinion either no less than
A. 15 teeth B. 17 teeth C. 16 teeth D. 18 teeth
4. are machine elements that transmit motion by means of successively engaging teeth.
A. shafts
B. sprockets
C. splines D. gears
5. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the distance between the pitch circle and the top of the
tooth.
A. addendum B. dedendum
C. total depth D.
root depth
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7. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth travels from the first point of contact with the
mating tooth to the pitch point.
A. line of action
B. arc of action
C. arc of circle D. pitch arc
8. Is the angle through which the gear turns from the time a given pair of teeth are in contact at the
pitch point until they pass out the mesh.
A. angle of contact
B. angle of approach
C. position angle
D. angle of recess
The answer is: D
9. Is the angle through which the gear turns from the time a particular pair of teeth come into
contact until they go out the contact.
A. pitch angle
B. angle of action
C. angle of approach D. none of these
10. Is the angle through which the gear turns from the time a particular pair of teeth come into
contact until they are in contact at the pitch point.
A. angle of approach
B. angle of recess
C. angle of contact
D. angle of tangent
11. Arc of the circle through which a tooth travels from the point of contact with the mating tooth
to the pitch point.
A. angle of arc
B. arch of contact
C. arc of approach
D. none of the above
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13. In a pair of gears, it is the plane that contains the two axes, in a single gear, it may be any plane
containing the axis and the given point.
A. axial plane
B. pitch plane
C. surface plane D. bottom land
14. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth travels from its contact with the mating tooth at
the pitch point to the point where the contact ceases.
A. arc of recess
B. arc of approach
C. arc of contact
D. arc of intersection
15. The amount by which the width of the tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth
on the pitch circles.
A. clearance
B. backlash
C. difference
D. tooth difference
17. The angle, at the base cylinder if an involute gear, that the tooth makes with the gear axis.
A. pitch angle
B. approach angle
C. helix angle
D. None of these
18. In an involute gear it is the pitch on the base circle or along the line of action.
A. critical pitch
B. helix pitch C. diametral pitch D. base pitch
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A. normal base pitch
B. tangential pitch
C. total pitch
D. intersecting pitch
21. The distance between the parallel axes of spur gears and parallel helical gears, or between the
crossed axes of helical gears and worm gears.
A. vertical distance
B. horizontal distance
C. displacement
D. center distance
22. In a worm gear, this is a plane perpendicular to the gear axis and contains the common perpendicular of
the gear and the worm axis.
A. Inner plane
B. central plane
C. pitch plane
D. angular plane
24. The height from the top of the tooth to the chord subtending the circular-thickness arc.
A. addendum height
B. tangential height
C. chordal addendum D. addendum circle
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C. circular arc
D. contact arc
26. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the mating gear makes contact.
A. inside diameter
B. outside diameter
C. nominal diameter D. contact diameter
27. The maximum compressive stress within the contact area between mating gear tooth profiles.
A. contact stress B. hoop stress
C. bearing stress
D. tangential stress
28. The lowest permissible water level shall be at a point of the height of the shell.
A. 1/2 B. 1/3
c. 1/4 D.
1/5
30. Also known as tooth thickness or the length of the arc between the two sides of a gear tooth, on
the pitch circles unless otherwise specified.
A. tooth thickness
B. space thickness
C. circular thickness
D. clearance thickness
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The answer is: B
32. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the mating gear makes.
A. pitch diameter
B. circular diameter
C. tangential diameter D. central diameter
35. The curved formed by the path of a point on a circle as it rolls along a straight line.
A. epicycloid
B. trochoid
C. hypocycloid D. cycloid
36. The depth of tooth space below the pitch circle or the radial dimension between the pitch circle
and the bottom of the tooth space.
A. dedendum B. addendum
C. total depth
D. pitch depth
38. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number of millimeters of pitch diameter.
A. module
B. circular pitch
C. diametral pitch
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D. none of the above
39. Is the diametral pitch calculated in the normal plane and is equal to the pitch divided by the
cosine of helix angle.
A. tangential diametral pitch
B. normal diametral pitch
C. flank pitch
D. none of these
40. That portion of the face width that actually comes into contact with mating teeth, as occasionally
one member of a pair of gears may have a greater face width than the other.
A. backlash
B. top land
C. pitch land
D. effective face width
41. The actual torque ratio of a gear set divided by its gear ratio.
A. ratio and proportion
B. contact ratio
C. stress ratio D. efficiency
44. That surface of the tooth which is between the pitch circle to the top of the tooth.
A. bottom land B. top land
C. face of tooth
D. surface of tooth
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45. The length of the teeth in axial plane.
A. tooth thickness
B. clearance C. face width D. clearance
46. Is the surface of the tooth between the pitch cylinder and the addendum cylinder.
A. surface B. face
C. contact
D. none of the above
47. The concave portion of the tooth profile where it joins the bottom of the tooth space. The
approximate radius of this curve is called the fillet radius.
A. fillet curve
B. conjugate curve
C. half curve
D. none of these
50. Is the surface of the tooth between the pitch and root cylinders
A. flank
B. surface finish C. flank of tooth
D. none of these
51. Is the number of teeth in the gear divided by the number of teeth in the pinion.
A. diametral pitch ratio
B. tooth ratio
C. gear ratio
D. none of these
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The answer is: C
52. The angle that a helical gear tooth makes the gear axis.
A. pitch angle
B. worm angle
C. helix angle
D. none of the above
53. The effective face width of a helical gear divided by the gear axial pitch
A. rivet overlap
B. welded overlap
C. helical overlap D. none of these
57. The curved formed by the path of a point on a straight line, called the generatrix, as it rolls along
a convex base curve.
A. helix
B. involute
C. trochoid D. pitch
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B. bottom land
C. surface land
D. island
59. Is the surface of the gear between the fillets of adjacent teeth.
A. top land
B. common land
C. stress land
D. bottom land
60. The distance a helical gear or worm would thread along its axis one revolution of it were free to
move axially.
A. pitch
B. lead
C. speed
D. none of these
62. The distance on an involute line of action through which the point of contact moves during the
action of the tooth profile.
A. distance of action
B. length of action
C. line of action
D. approach action
63. Is the ratio of pitch diameter in millimeter to the number of teeth, mm.
A. diametral pitch
B. module
C. circular pitch
D. none of these
64. A plane normal to the tooth surfaces at a point of contact, and perpendicular to the pitch plane.
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A. normal plane B. pitch plane
C. x and y plane
D. tangential plane
66. The distance between similar, equally spaced tooth surfaces, in a given direction and along a
given curve or line.
A. axial B. arc
C. lead
D. pitch
69. A circle the radius of which is equal to the distance from the gear axis to the pitch point.
A. addendum circle
B. dedendum circle
C. root circle
D. pitch circle
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D. none of these
71. In a pair of gears, it is the plane perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent to the axial plane
and tangent to the pitch surfaces.
A. addendum plane
B. pitch plane
C. surface
D. none of the above
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73. The angle between the tooth profile and a radical line at its pitch point. In involute teeth, the
angle between the line of action and the line tangent to the pitch circle.
A. pitch angle
B. pressure angle
C. contact angle D. helix angle
74. These are the pitch plane, axial plane, and traverse plane, all intersect at a point and mutually
perpendicular.
A. reference plane
B. pitch plane
C. principal reference plane
D. contrast
75. A gear with teeth spaced along a straight line, and suitable for straight line motion.
A. rock
B. rack
C. space width
D. none of these
76. The angle subtended at the center of the base circle from teeth origin of an involute to the point
of tangency of the generatrix from any point on the same involute.
A. pitch angle
B. helix angle
C. control angle D. roll angle
77. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the bottoms of the tooth spaces.
A. minimum circle
B. root circle
C. outside circle
D. none of these
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A
79. An arbitrary modification of a tooth profile whereby a small amount of material is removed
near the tip of the gear tooth.
A. tip
B. relief
C. tip relief
D. undercut
81. The space between the teeth measured along the pitch circle.
A. three-dimensional space
B. contact space
C. free space
D. tooth space
83. Is the radial distance from the addendum circle to the working depth circle.
A. whole depth
B. addendum depth
C. working depth D. none of these
84. The length of l, of a column divided by r is one of the terms in the equation for the buckling of
a column under compression loads. What does r stand for in the l/r ratio?
A. radius of the column
B. radius of gyration
C. moment of inertia
D. slenderness
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B
85. All of the following are nondestructive tests except A. ultrasonic tests.
B. infrared inspection tests. C.
Shore hardness tests.
D. Mohr's tests.
86. The machinery operation whereby done with the work accurately fastened has a reciprocating
(forward and backward) motion and the tool head is stationary.
A. shaping
B. planning
C. turning
D. reaming
90. A type of coupling that allows slight amount of torsional/angular flexibility due to introduction
with some elastic material cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in the flange.
A. Simple elastic bonded coupling
B. Elastic-material bushed coupling C. Elastic material bonded coupling
D. All of these
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B
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91. In a uniformly loaded beam, the maximum vertical shearing force occurs
A. at the center
B. at the section of maximum moment
C. at beam bottom fiber D. at either end support
94. All of the following are destructive hardness tests except A. Mohr's tests. B. file hardness tests. C. Shore
hardness tests.
D. cutting hardness tests.
95. The section modulus of a rectangle of base "b" and height "h" about its base is:
A. bh 2/6
B. bh 3/3
C. bh 2/12 D. bh 3/12
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The answer is: A
98. The center of gravity of a solid pyramid or cone with a total height of H is:
A. 1/4 H B. 3/5 H C. 1/3 H D. 1/2 H
100. What is the property of a material which resists forces acting to pull the material apart?
A. shear strength
B. tensile strength
C. torsional strength
D. compressive strength
104. The board should submit to the Commission, the ratings obtained by each candidate within
days after
the examination.
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A. 5
B. 10
c. 15
D. 20
105. Types of V-belts to use in a driving pulley with speed of 360 rpm and transmitting 5 hp:
A. Type C belts B. Type B belts
C. Type A belts
D. Type D belts
106. The grade of Mechanical engineering that could handle 250 kw.
A. CPM
B. CPM & ME
c. PME
D. CPM, ME, PME
108. An object thrown upward will return to earth with the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal
to:
A. zero
B. one-half the initial velocity
C. twice the initial velocity
D. the initial velocity
110. Commonly used in parallel-shaft transmission especially when a smooth, continuous section is
essential as in high speed drives up to 12,000 fpm:
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A. bevel gear
B. herringbone gear
C. spur gear
D. helical gear
111. The hardness of helical and herringbone gear teeth after heat treatment is 210 to 300 Brinell
Hardness, for gear and pinion is at:
A. 360 Brinell min
B. 400 Brinell max C. 340-350 normally D. all of the above
112. One of the powers and duties of the Board is to in connection with the successful examinees entering
the practice of Mechanical Engineering.
A. supervise
B. give duty
C. seal
D. administer oath
114. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces that cause twisting?
A. torsional strength
B. modulus of elasticity
C. twisting moment
D. elasticity
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B. seals
C. felts
D. packings
119. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids, normally under dynamic condition:
A. nylon
B. seal
C. Teflon
D. packing
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The answer is: C
124. Split pulley or pulley made of separate sections bolted together at the rim, the maximum speed
should be limited to about % of the maximum speed of solid pulley.
A. 65 to 75% B. 45 to 50%
c. 55 to 60% D.
80 to
126. Type of bolt commonly used in the construction that is threaded in both ends:
A. stud bolt
B. acme threaded bolts
C. square threaded bolts
D. hex bolts
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B. low carbon steel
C. cast iron D. nylon
130. Safety features that must be placed and maintained at machine, blacksmith, welding and
foundry shop:
A. safety goggle
B. walkway guide
C. safety notices in markings
D. all of these
131. The angle, at the base cylinder of an involving gear, that the tooth makes with the gear axis:
A. base helix angle
B. pressure angle
C. arc or recess
D. arc of approach
134. Alloy steel known for its resistance to corrosion, abrasion and wear that is usually ideal for mill
grinding of ore in cement and concentrator application. It is usually combined with
molybdenum to increase the depth hardening:
A. manganese chromium steel
B. chromium molybdenum steel
C. chrome-nickel-moly steel D. manganese-moly steel
135. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft material available in the market with carbon content of 0.28 to 0.34%C.
A. SAE 4132 B. SAE 4320
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c. SAE 1030
D. SAE 4130
136. The buckling load of intermediate columns (too tall to be piers, but too short to be slender
columns) can be determined by
A. the Euler load with fixed-end conditions.
B. computing allowable stress from the yield strength. C. computing allowable stress from the
ultimate strength.
D. the secant formula.
138. Processes to relieve the internal stresses in the manufacture of steel include all of the following except A.
full annealing processes. B. normalizing processes. C. tempering processes.
D. carburizing processes.
140. The addition of steel to concrete is primarily to A. increase material density. B. increase torsional strength.
C. increase tensile strength.
D. increase abrasion resistance.
141. A boiler that has a maximum allowable working pressure of 7.03 kg/cm 2, 405 mm inside
diameter and 1,065 mm overall length.
A. power boiler
B. locomotive boiler
C. steam boiler
D. miniature boiler
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The answer is: D
142. The length of arc between the two sides of a gear tooth on the pitch circle:
A. circular thickness
B. axial plane
C. helix angle
D. chordal angle
143. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is being heated to a very high temperature then suddenly
subjected to rapid cooling to improve hardenability or wear resistance is called:
A. normalizing
B. axial plane
C. quenching D. annealing
144. To reduce cost in the manufacturing of large worm gears the materials to utilize:
A. alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron spider
B. bronze rim with cast steel spider
C. all of these
D. cast iron with bronze spider
148. All of the following are characteristics of coarse-grained structures except A. less toughness. B. less
ductility. C. more machinability.
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D. less corrosion resistance.
149. An oil storage tank roof formed to approximately a spherical surface, supported only at its periphery:
A. self-supporting umbrella roof
B. self-supporting cone roof
C. self-supporting
D. supported cone roof
152. Have the same thermal and minimum film thickness limitation as sleeve bearing:
A. ball bearing
B. roller bearing
C. thrust bearing
D. oil whip
153. Test is designed primarily for application to electric-welded tubing for detection of lack of
penetration or overlaps resulting from flash removal in the weld:
A. butt weld
B. paste
C. lap weld
D. double butt weld
154. Is a form of correction that develop on a highly localized areas on a metal surface:
A. crevice
B. erosion
C. galvanic D. pitting
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The answer is: D
159. The temperature above which the alloy is liquid and will run:
A. melting point
B. flow point
C. pour point D. liquidus
160. A weld made to hold the parts of a weldment in proper alignment until the final welds are made:
A. butt weld B. tack weld
C. fillet weld
D. full-fillet weld
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The answer is: A
162. The total amount of permanent extension of the gage length measured after the specimen has
fractured and is expressed as percentage increase of the original gage length:
A. elongation
B. strain
C. stress
D. elastic limit
166. The ratio of stress to the corresponding strain below the proportional limit:
A. stress-strain diagram B. gage method
C. modulus of elasticity D.
tensile strength
167. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the thickness of the thinner joint member:
A. butt weld B. tack weld
C. Butt weld
D. full-fillet weld
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The answer is: D
169. Gearing in which the motion or power that is transmitted depends upon the friction between the
surface in contact:
A. bevel cones
B. spur friction wheels
C. evans friction cones D. friction gearing
170. Wheels are sometimes used for the transmission of high power when an approximately constant velocity
ratio is desired:
A. bevel cones
B. friction gearing
C. spur friction wheels
D. evans friction cones
171. A corrosion occurs within the or adjacent to a crevice formed by contact with another piece of the same
or another metal:
A. pitting
B. galvanic
C. erosion D. crevice
172. A weld of approximately triangular cross-section that join two surfaces at approximately right
angles as in lap joint, tee joint, corner joint:
A. single welded lap joint
B. fillet weld C. tack weld D. butt weld
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C. Flange
D. Bend
176. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of rotation:
A. cam curves
B. cylindrical cam
C. tangential cam D. radial cam
177. Strength of a material that is of a stress intensity determined by considering the maximum test
load to act over the original area of the test specimens:
A. yield point
B. ultimate strength
C. breaking strength
D. elastic limit
178. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the cam:
A. radial cam
B. cylindrical cam C. cam curves
D. tangential cam
180. A joint between two overlapping members in which the overlapped edge of one member is
welded with a fillet weld:
A. a single welded lap joint
B. double-welded lap joint
C. a single-welded lap joint with backing
D. tack weld
B. 1/32 in
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C. 1/4 in
D. 1/16 in
184. The size of an equal-leg length fillet weld shall be based on the length of the largest:
A. isosceles right triangle
B. square
C. right triangle D. rectangle
185. Milling machine accessories are used to hold milling cutter in the milling machine:
A. spindle-nose tooling
B. milling machine vise
C. vertical milling attachment D. milling machine arbors
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188. An important accessory of milling machines:
A. milling machine vise
B. cutters
C. ram
D. vertical milling attachment
189. Gears used to transmit power between shafts axis of which intersect:
A. spur gear
B. bevel gear
C. helical gear
D. straight bevel gear
192. An iron in which most of the carbon is chemically combined with the iron:
A. cast iron
B. gray iron
C. white iron
D. malleable iron
194. The area in the machine shop whose metal is being melted to form a new shape is the:
A. foundry area B. tool and die
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C. welding area
D. mass production area
196. The machine which can flatten surface on a horizontal, vertical or angular plane is:
A. drilling machine
B. shaper machine
C. power saw
D. lathe machine
198. One important skill that operators of machine tools must have an understanding of measurement
which demands:
A. speed
B. neatness
C. precision
D. sociability
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201. What process does not belong to the group?
A. brazing
B. soldering
C. hardening
D. resistance welding
202. A machinery operation whereby the tool rotates while the feed is stationary:
A. shaping B. milling
C. turning
D. reaming
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The answer is: D
210. All of the following materials are used in the quenching process for steel manufacturing except
A. air
B. brine
C. hydrogen D. water
212. Steel used as a wire in concrete is for A. increased material density. B. increased yield strength. C.
shrinkage and expansion control.
D. increased abrasion resistance.
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The answer is: D
215. One of the following is not common terms relating to the classification of fits:
A. tunking
B. snug
C. medium force fit D. bound
216. The use of mixtures (hydrated lime, fly ash, etc.) with concrete is to A. reduce weight.
B. increase durability.
C. improve workability, hardening, or strength characteristics
D. accelerate curing.
218. It is generally recommended and normal for a designer to add a hunting tooth to evenly
distribute the wear on meshing teeth like a 53 teeth gears mesh with 30 teeth pinion. Find the
rotation of pinion to mesh with same pair of teeth again.
A. 120
B. 81 C. 61 D. 53
219. A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates, and the feed is stationary, is called:
A. Planning
B. Shaping
C. Turning
D. Reaming
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C. standard wall pipe
D. standard diameter
225. The kind of center which is being attached and meshed to the tailstock spindle which is also
static while the work is rotating is:
A. dead center B. live center
C. focal center
D. work center
227. During the quenching process in heat treating steel, agitation of the fluids used in the quenching has what
effect on the severity of the quenching? A. increases quenching severity. B. decreases quenching severity.
C. has no effect on quenching severity.
D. reverses quenching severity
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228. The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear stress for a circular section equal to:
B. 2/3
c. 3/2 D.
3/4
230. The ratio of Bulk modulus to shear modulus for Poisson's ratio of 0.25 will be equal to:
A. 3/2
B. 5/6
c. 1
D. 6/3
231. The stress strain curve for a glass rod during tensile test is:
A. A straight line
B. A parabola
C. A sudden break
D. An irregular curve
232. When shear force is zero along a section, the bending moment at that section will be:
A. Zero
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. Minimum or maximum
233. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel as compared to its ultimate compressive stress will be:
A. Same
B. More
C. Less
D. More or less depending on other factors
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234. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known as:
A. Unit stress
B. Bulk modulus
C. Modulus of rigidity
D. Modulus of elasticity
239. The size of hole that is drilled in plates for riveting is:
A. Equal to the diameter of rivet shank
B. Slightly smaller than the diameter or rivet shank
C. 1.5 to 2 mm smaller than the diameter of rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size
D. 1.5 to 2 mm larger than the diameter of the rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size.
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240. The horsepower that can be transmitted by a shaft 60 mm diameter at 180 rpm with permissible shear stress of 850
kg/cm2 shall be approximately:
A. 30-35 B. 35-50
c. 50-60 D.
60-85
242. Which one is the correct statement about true stress-strain method?
A. There is no such phenomenon like true stress or true strain.
B. True stress is load per unit area(actual) and similarly true strain is determined under actual
conditions.
C. This method can be used for compression test as well
D. It is more sensitive to changes in mechanical conditions.
244. A material that is capable of absorbing a large quantity of energy before fracture is called:
A. Ductility
B. Toughness
C. Resilience
D. Shock proof
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246. Two shafts made up of mild steel one having circular cross section and the other being hollow circular
with inner diameter half of the outer diameter. The ratio of the torque that can be transmitted in two
cases given by:
A. 2 B. 17/16
c. 1
D. 15/16
248. In laminated spring the strips are provided in different lengths for:
A. Economy
B. Reduction in weight C. Improved appearance
D. Equal distribution of stress.
249. Select the one for which diamond riveted joint can be adopted;
A. Butt joint
B. Lap joint
C. Double riveted lap joints
D. All types of joints
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The answer is: D
253. The value of shear stress changes is induced in the shaft because of the applied couple that:
A. From maximum at the center to zero at the circumference
B. From zero at the center to maximum at the circumference
C. From maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference D. From minimum at the center to
maximum at the circumference
255. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder is:
A. Maximum at inner surface and decreases towards outer surface
B. Minimum at inner surface and increases towards outer surface
C. Minimum at inner and outer surface and maximum in middle
D. Maximum at inner and outer surfaces and minimum in middle
258. If the areas of cross sections of square and circular beams are same and both are put to equal bending moment,
then the correct statement is:
A. The circular beam is more economical
B. The square beam is more economical C. Both the beams are equally strong
D. Both the beams are equally economical.
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C. Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio D. Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity
ratio
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A. Always greater than the dynamic friction
B. Always less than the dynamic friction
C. Always equal to the dynamic friction
D. Either greater or more than the dynamic friction
267. When two forces that act at a point are such that if the direction of one is reversed, the direction of the
resultant is turned through 90 0 , the forces must be:
A. Equal in magnitude
B. Inclined at less than 90 0
C. Inclined at more than 90 0
D. Acting at 1800
269. If the only force acting on two bodies is their mutual interactions and if both bodies start from rest, the
distance travelled by each will be a:
A. Proportional to the masses of the bodies
B. Inversely proportional to the masses of the bodies
C. Inversely proportional to the square of the masses of the bodies D. Directly proportional to the square of
the masses of the bodies
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272. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a:
A. Lower pair B. sliding pair
C. higher pair
D. cylindrical pair
274. The mechanism used to enlarge or reduce moments for reproducing drawings to different scales is called:
A. Clinograph
B. Tri-square
C. Graphometer D. Bantograph
275. When a ship traveling in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous?
A. Rolling
B. Pitching
C. steering
D. All of the above
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279. A cam with a roller follower would constitute, which type of pair?
A. Lower pair
B. Higher pair
C. Open pair D. Close pair
285. In case of cross helical worm, the axes of two shafts are:
A. Parallel
B. Intersecting
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C. Non-parallel
D. Non-parallel-non-intersecting
291. Which of the following dynamometer is widely used for absorption of wide range of powers at wide
range of speeds?
A. Hydraulic
B. Belt transmission
C. Rope brake
D. Electric generator
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292. In a balancing machine the units for unbalance measurements are:
A. cps
B. gram
C. gm-cm-cps D. gm-cm
293. The supply of working fluid to the engine to suit the load continuous can be controlled by:
A. expansion valve
B. slide valve
C. flywheel
D. Governor
296. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between two shafts whose axes are:
A. Parallel
B. Non-coplanar
C. Non-intersecting
D. None of the above
297. If D and T are the pitch circle diameter and no. teeth of a gear, then its circular pitch:
A. D/T B. ITT/D C. T/D
D. TtD/T
298. If DI and Tl be the diameter and no. of teeth of gear 1 and D2 and T2 the corresponding values of other
gear in mesh, then speed ratio NI/N2 will be equal to:
A. DI/D2
B. DI/D2 x
C. Tl/T2
D. D2/D1
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The answer is: D
300. The notch angle of the Izod impact test specimen is:
A. 200 B. 300
c. 100
D. 450
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