Solved SRCC GBO 2017 Paper With Solutions

SRCC GBO 2017
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Verbal Ability
Instructions
Study the passages below to answer the questions that follow each passage.
Passage-I
India needs an effective safety case regulatory regime. There are over 1,900 major accident hazard (MAH) control units or facilities in
India. There are also thousands of registered hazardous factories below MAH criteria. There are numerous factories in unorganised
sectors storing and handling hazardous chemicals, posing serious and complex risks to people, property and the environment. Major
chemical and petrochemical disasters, killing many, have occurred almost every year since the 1984 Bhopal gas leak disaster. In addition
to the loss of lives;these disasters have eroded the manufactured, human and natural capital base of the Indian economy. Adverse
impacts to the banking and finance sector are also significant. Insurers and underwriters carrpotentially become insolvent if disasters of
the scale of the Bhopal gas leak were to occur. India should formulate and implement a comprehensive safety case legislative
framework. At present, various elements of safety are dispersed in various rules that have become antiquated, when compared to current
industry best practice and community expectations. India should consolidate the intent and the principles underpinning various Acts and
Rules relevant to MAH control units, and develop a self-contained and an integrated legislative framework. There are also Acts and Rules
p ulgated by the Petroleum and Explosive Safety Organisation (PESO) and the Oil Industry St? irectorate (OISD) that lie outside the realm
of MAH Rules. There is a need to bring togeth e best elements from these acts and rules to develop a cohesive regulatory framework.
The control rules do not explicitly consider safety management systems, while major accident have been occurring invariably point
towards systemic failures at the facilities. The ntrol rules must define what constitutes a safety management system and demonstrate
ho key requirements are being met. Implementing these reforms and measures will be critic achieving process safety excellence.
Process safety excellence is a key difFerentiator to competitive advantage in global markets as it can lead to consistently high quality
and rehab supplies. It can also restore public confidence in safety governance and encourage collaboration and partnership with local
communities on industrial and spatial safety planning. At present, safety audits are primarily focused on occupational safety and health
issues and lack sufficient technical rigour. The audit scope, and methodology should be expanded to include auditing of major incident
event scenarios and controls identified and assessed for each scenario. The audits should seek evidence on performance assurance of
safety controls. Investigative and technical rigour should be enhanced in the inspections that are being undertaken by the inspectorate.
There should be a national capacity building programme for inspectors in process safety, incident investigation, and auditing and
inspections. Universities and professional institutions should contribute to the long-term skill development of inspectorates. To 'achieve
drastic reductions in the frequency and number of major accidents, India should transform its safety regulatory system and build
professional capacities within the inspectorate. As a tide benefit, this will also enable its strong and vibrant chemical and petrochemical
industry to become world class, both in market and safety performance.
Question 1
What is the primary/main focus of this article?
A India has numerous factories/facilities which pose major accident hizards.
B There is a legislative framework formulated for industrial safety.
C Recurring industrial accidents point to systemic failures necessitating a major transformation in our safety regulatory system.
D Indian industry does not have a good safety record.
Answer: E
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Question 2
Why should India formulate and implement a comprehensive safety legislative framework?
A To reduce loss of lives and adverse impact on the Indian economy.
B To instill confidence in the workers, and general public about our safety governance.
C To gain golbal competitive advan through highsuaiund reliablesupplies
D All these
Answer: E

Question 3
Accordingto the author, currently ooui1r MAH rules are
A cohesive, integrated and self-contained.
B dispersed and not in conformity with current best practices in the industry.
C as per the expectations of society
D considering all aspects affecting safety management.
Answer: E
Question 4
In the opinion of the author, what needs to be done to transform our safety regulatory system?
A Integrate relevant elements of all applicable acts and rules and develop a self-contained legislative framework.
B Establish a holistic safety audit system and develop skilled professionals to undertake the same.
C Define the elements of a safety management system and how they are being met.
D All these
Answer: E
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Question 5
According to the author, presently our safety audit systems
A adequately cover all aspects of an accident/incident.
B have appropriate/sufficient technical orientation.
C concentrate on health and individual occupational safety.
D are holistic and evaluate the implementation of the safety management system.
Answer: E
Instructions
Study the passages below to answer the questions that follow each passage.
Passage II:
A global shift is clearly underway. Many organisations are finding themselves in short supply of the right talent as their operations
expand globally. The problem is only going to be exacerbated further over time.
According to a recent research report, in order to sustain economic growth, by 2030, the US will need to add more than 25 million
workers and in other western countries, a further 45 million employees will be required. However, due to the uneven quality of education
systems, only 25 per cent of Indian professionals are currently considered employable by multinationals. Something must be done in
India to ensure our talent is able to take their seat at the table in an increasingly competitive global talent market.
The realisation has dawned on Indian leaders that effective performance management is not only a key to delivering results (perhaps the
most powerful HR tool in doing so), but also plays a fundamental role in developing talent in the right direction and promoting employee
engagement and retention. Companies are moving away from the ‘competitive assessment’ model and are inching towards a ‘coaching
and development’ model of performance management. The competitive assessment model assumes that organisations improve
through a process of ‘rigid individualism’ in which employees are ranked and rated against each other, thus driving performance on a
comparative basis. The coaching and development model assumes that people perform best through careful selection, then coaching,
development and continuous focus on job fit.

Executive coaching, leadership coaching and performance coaching form the crux of all coaching and development models:
Executive coaching reserved for the top tier of the organisation. The purpose of this coaching is to help executives improve both their
performance and leadership abilities. It is provided by someone outside the firm who holds an unbiased perspective towards the
executive.
Leadership coaching that focuses on helping managers throughout the organisation become better leaders in order to prepare them for
the next level of leadership.
Performance coaching is for all employees that focuses on improving employees’ performance in their current jobs. This coaching is
frequently, but not always, reserved for those who are, at a minimum, meeting expectations.
Most organisations struggle to effectively leverage performance coaching - senior leaders do it infrequently and managers do not do it
well. Further, HR often fails to adequately support it. The most severe performance management challenge is managers’ inability to
coach their employees. It has been found that organisations highly effective at teaching managers to engage in on-going coaching and
the ones who provide excellent cultural support for coaching, reported significantly higher employee productivity.
A high-impact coaching culture is like a three-legged stool, with leaders, employees, and HR each having important responsibilities to
fulfill. HR’s role is to create the environment for coaching, do the needful and then measure the impact. Senior leaders must
communicate the importance of coaching through their actions and words. Finally, employees of all levels need to adequately prepare
for and actively manage their performance and their development.
Question 6
In the opinion of the author,
A multinational can employ only a limited number of Indian professionals because of our education system.
B there is a shortage ofright talent to meet likely future needs.
C India needs to act to avail this market opportunity.
D All these
Answer: E
Question 7
According to the article, which of the following statements is true?

I. The competitive assessment model focuses only on the comparative performance of employees.
II. Indian leaders consider performance managementas a very powerful HR tool.
II. Most Indian companies feel that the competitive assessment model adequately meets the HRIneeds of their organization.
A Both I and II
B Both II and III
C Both I and III
D All these
Answer: E
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Question 8
Which of the following statements is not true?
A An outsider should conduct executive coaching.
B Leadership coaching focuses on improving an employee's current performance.
C Employee productivity is directly affected by the managers ability/inability to coach.

Both the US and other Westem countries require large number of employees to sustain their economies.
D
Answer: E
Question 9
Coaching will be fruitful if
A the employees are very qualified.
B capable professional trainers are hired by HR.
C leaders, HR department and employees are fully involved
D leadership is strict.
Answer: E
Question 10
An effective performance management system should enable an organization to
A objectively assessindividual perfotmyance.
B identify development needs.
C decide on retention/employability.
D All these
Answer: E
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Instructions
Fill in the blanks.
Question 11
Ironically,the normally ....... speaker became shy and ..... when confronted with the approbatory stares of her eager audience.
A quiet, passionate
B garulous, reticent
C dispassionate, passionate
D humble, supercilious
Answer: E
Question 12
Although the whole team acted in unison, each member was ......... for a/an ........ of the production process.
A reliable, source
B responsible, element
C appointed, article
D agreeable, felony
Answer: E

Question 13
The studies of the children were ........ and ......... was the result of it.
A neglected, ignorance
B interrupted, incongruences
C off tracked, alienation
D instructed, genius
Answer: E
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Question 14
Confused and ......... Gaurav fumbled to make sense of seemingly inconsistent statements, ...... the impatience of his listeners.
A prostrate, listening to
B muddled, aware of
C philosophical, overlooking
D incoherent, oblivious to
Answer: E
Question 15
Just as a highway automobile accidentleaves lasting marksof spilled coolant, ........ and oil, the smashing together of gigantic land
masses releases and redirects fluids that flow, heat, ......... and deposit, leaving an enduring record of their presence.
A petrol, disappear
B fuel, evaporate
C paint, mark
D anti-freeze, drip
Answer: E
Instructions
Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
Question 16
They shunned him because he was a lecherous man always looking for an opportunity to cheat others.
A deceptive
B lustful
C dishonest
D cunning
Answer: E

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Question 17
Sunil employed my friend only when I agreed to avouch for his honesty.
A pay
B guarantee
C vow
D affirm
Answer: E
Question 18
They knew by his sophomoric remarks that he was still naive in the field.
A unpalatable
B casual
C immature
D ignorant
Answer: E
Instructions
Each of these questions has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of
the text.
Question 19
This decade has heralded the arrival of China and the rise of India on the world stage. Due to global recession, the balance of power is
shifting from the West to East. China has alreddy occupied second place in the world’s biggest economies. But India is still struggling
with - formidable challenges like crushing poverty of millions, uneven growth, pervasive corruption and crumbling governance. Can
we, in all honesty aspire to be a genuine super power?
A Economic meltdown in the West has tilted the balance of economic power towards Asia.
B China's Gross Domestic Product is next only to that of The United States of America.
C Even though India is a fast growing economy, it has te cross many hurdles before becoming a Super Power.
D Corruption and poverty in India are the main hindrances to its economic growth.
Answer: E
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Question 20
Get your grammar right! Live in the active voice rather in the passive, thinking more about what you do than about what happens to you.
Live in the presenttense, facing the duty at hand without regret for the past or worrying about the future. Live in the first person,
criticizing yourself rather than finding faults with others.
A Self-introspection is always better than beingcritical of others.

The past is gone, future is uncertain; so live for the present.
B
C Do your duty eamestly without worrying about the outcome.
D Be optimistic, confident, hard working and self-introspective.
Answer: E
Question 21
Alexander technique is a therapy in complementary medicine for improving health by teaching people to move,sit and stand efficiently.
It is designed to release unnecessary muscle tensions in order to eliminate or reduce the severity of wide rangeof disorders like back
pain, asthma, repetitive strain, injury and stuttering. Training is carried ott m one to one sessions under a qualified teacher. The
technique was started by F Matthias Alexander in 1890 for his breathing problem and: hoarseness.
A Alexander technique is a 120 years old therapyee by F Matthias Alexander for his self-treatment.
B Alexander technique theraphy is practiced in one to one session under the guidance of an expert.
In Alexander technique, a qualified-teacher works on the postures of a person, releasing muscular tension, to cure a number of
C
disorders.
D Alexander technique is helpful in pains, lung problems, spinal problems and speech disorders.
Answer: E
Question 22
As things stand now, each country's financial system is being sustained and supported by its own government. Governments- are
primarily concerned with their own economies. This gives rise to financial protectionism, which threatens to disrupt and perhaps
destroy global financial markets.. So regulations must become international in scope. Otherwise, global financial markets will be
destioYed by.regulatory arbitrage.
A Global markets need global regulations but each nation is rooted in the principle of national sovereignty.
B Financial protectionism damages the concept of globalization.
C Global markets need international guidelines for the smooth running of global trade.
D Every country tries to protect its own financial interests.
Answer: E
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Question 23
Leadership is somewhat indefinable quality. It has so many dimensions and attributes. It demands vision, courage, understanding,
determination and decisiveness. Integrity, communication skills and openness are the other must have virtues of a leader. It cannot
exist devoid of a sense of timing, a capacity to act and above all an ability to inspire. A leader is eventually judged by his mettle in the
rises, Those who have left their mark are always winners after overcoming Crises.
A Leadership is a multidimensional quality which requires a large array of attributes in one person.
B Leadership is influencing others to achieve a common goal.
C Leadership is foundation of all organizations whether corporate, non-profit or government.
D Leadership is tested and provenin times of trial and adversity and those who surmount these go down in the annals of history.
Answer: E
Instructions

Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
Question 24
Her impetuous behavior was attributed to her unbringing.
A sluggish
B swift
C rash
D sensible
Answer: E
Question 25
There was no altruistic motive that prompted him to help her.
A brutal
B selfish
C inhuman
D wicked
Answer: E
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Question 26
According to a great philosopher magnanimity in a man implies many other qualities.
A jealousy
B enmoty
C meanness
D poverty
Answer: E
Instructions
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the words/sentence.
Question 27
Large scale departure of people
A immigration
B Exodus
C piracy
D Transfer
Answer: E

Question 28
A short stay at a place
A Sojoum
B Interlude
C Gap
D Interval
Answer: E
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Instructions
Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph.
Question 29
A. India, on the other hand, would have adequate young manpower to even overtake China after sometime:
B. But, a direct consequence ofthese is a situation where China would not nay enough young workforce to further develop its economy
after a few years.
C. China’s population is much larger thanthat of India.
D. As a result, China has been able to check its population growth effectively.
E. However, in the past two decades or so, China enforced strict measures to control its population growth.
A EBACD
B CBDAE
C BDEAC
D CEDBA
Answer: E
Question 30
A. Therefore, hiring the services of a coordinator to execute the associated tasks is a good idea.
B. The fact is, a well planned wedding would be a remembrance for a life time.
C. With myriad functions taking place, a wedding ceremony is nothing shortof a theatrical production.
D. Indian weddings are usually elaborate affairs.
E. With many details for each function to be considered, it becomes so important to plan to streamline the process.
A EBCAD
B ADECB
C DCEAB
D BDCAE
Answer: E
Question 31
A. This is the reason for achieving high academic excellence.

B. All these professors are highly qualified.
C. This university has completed 100 years.
D. Initially, the university had only six departments.
_E. Now, it has 100 professors working in 30 departments.

A DEABC
B CDEBA
C CBAED
D EABCD
Answer: E
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Question 32
A. Presently, we have thirteen IIMs.

B. The first IIM was established in 1961 in Kolkata.
C. At the time of independence, India did not have any management institute of high repute.
D. However, the need to have more IIMs was still felt.
E. Subsequently, a few more IIMs were set up at various locations in India.
A EDBAC
B DBACE
C CBDEA
D BCADE
Answer: E
Question 33
A. The house is quite old and in a bad shape.

B. Through it, I can see an old woman seated in a chair.
C. Far away in a narrow street there is a house.
D. Her face is worn and full of wrinkles.
E. One of the windows is open.
A DBCAE
B CAEBD
C ECDAB
D BEACD
Answer: E
Instructions
Identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English.
Question 34
A To reach the destination, the man followed the route given in the map because he was confused.
B As he became confused, the man had to follow the route given in the map to reach the destination.
C The man was confused, so he followed the route-given in the map to reach the destination.
D To reach the destination, as the man was confused, he followed the route given in the map.
Answer: E

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Question 35
A New words could be used, if required, to express the full forceof exclamation.
B If necessary, new words should be used to express the full force of exclamation.
C To express the full force of exclamation, if necessary, new words will be used,
D New words are used, if required, to express the full force of exclamation.
Answer: E
Question 36
A Neither he comes nor he writes a letter now.
B Neither does he comenor he writes a letter now.
C Neither he comes nor does he write letter now.
D Neither does he come nor does he write a letter now.
Answer: E
Question 37
A Emily but saw him turning again to the pa a and shestopped hastily retiring.
B Emily washastily retiring; but she saw,tum again-to the papers, and she stopped.
C Emily stopped retiring; but she sawpian again to the papers.
D She saw him turing again to the papers, and she stopped, and went again to retire.
Answer: E
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Question 38
A At first the jury was divided in opinion, but finally it returned a unanimous verdict.
B At first the jury were divided in opinion, but finally it returned a unanimous verdict.
C At first the jury was divided, in opinion, but finally they retumed a unanimous verdict.
D At first the jury were divided in opinion, but finally they retumed a unanimous verdict.
Answer: E
Instructions
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase in the sentence.
Question 39
Why you should always be the one to cast the first stone ?
A be deeply involved

be the first to attack
B
C praise first of all
D start a fight
Answer: E
Question 40
While I have a bath, you may chew the cud.
A think carefully about something
B go through legalities
C have breakfast
D kill time
Answer: E
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Quantitative Ability
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Question 41
Two coal loading machines, each working 12 hours per day for 8 days, handle 9000 tonnes of coal with an efficiency of 90%; while 3
other coal loading machines at an efficiency of 80% are set to handle 12000 tonnes of coal in 6 days. How many hours per day should
each machine
work?
A 18 h/day
B 16 h/day
C 20 h/day
D 14 h/day
Answer: B
Explanation:
M 1 D1 H1 M 2 D2 H2
Using, W1 = W2
Let t hours per day each machine should work

2×8×12 3×6×t
=> 9000 × 90 = 12000 × 80
=> 16 × 12 = 12t
=> t = 16
∴ The machine should work 16 h/day
=> Ans - (B)
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Question 42
Six pipes are fitted to a water tank. Some of these are inlet pipes and the others outlet pipes. Each inlet pipe can fill the tank in 9 hours
and each outlet pipe can empty the tank in 6 hours. On openingall the pipes, an empty tank is filled in 9 hours. The number of inlet
pipes is .......
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let number of inlet pipes be x and number of outlet pipes = (6 − x)
According to ques,
x (6−x) 1
=> 9 − 6 = 9
6x−54+9x 1
=> 54 = 9
=> 15x − 54 =6
=> 15x = 60
60
=> x = 15 =4
∴ There are 4 inlet pipes.
=> Ans - (A)
Question 43
A student purchased a computer system and a colour printer. If he sold the computer system at 10% loss and the colour printer at
20%gain, he would not lose anything. But if he sells the computer system at 5% gain and the colour printer at 15% loss, he would lose
₹800 in the bargain. How much did hepayfor the colour printer?
A ₹16000
B ₹8000
C ₹9000
D ₹5334
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let cost price of color printer = Rs. 100x and C.P of computer system = Rs. 100y
Case 1 : SP of color printer when sold at 20% profit = Rs. 120x
Similarly, SP of computer system = Rs. 90y
According to ques, => 100x + 100y = 120x + 90y
=> 10y = 20x
=> y = 2x -----------------(i)
Case 2 : SP of color printer at 15% loss = Rs. 85x
SP of computer system = Rs. 105y
=> Loss = (100x + 100y) − (85x + 105y) = 800

=> 15x − 5y = 800
=> 3x − y = 160
Substituting value from equation (i), => x = 160
∴ Cost Price of color printer = Rs. 16,000
=> Ans - (A)
Question 44
Suppose that a maximum of 25 gm of salt dissolves in 100 gm of water. Any more salt, if added, remains undissolved and a sediment
falls at the bottom. Now, water is evaporated from 1 kg of a 4% solution at the rate of 28 gm per hour. After how long will it start
sedimenting
approximately?
A 29 hours
B 31 hours
C 35 hours
D 23 hours
Answer: E
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Question 45
Ina defective 6 faced die with numbers 1 to 6 inscribed, the probability of getting an odd number is twice the probability of getting an
even number. Find the probability of getting a 2 digi prpe numberon ans 2 successive throws of the die.
2
A 81
4
B 81
1
C 3
1
D 9
Answer: E
Question 46
1
The fuel indicator in a car shows 5 th of the fuel tank as full. When 22 more litres of fuel is poured into the tank, the indicator rests at
three-fourth of the full mark. What is the capacity of the fuel tank?
A 40 litres
B 30 litres
C 25 litres
D 35 litres
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let capacity of fuel tank = 100x
According to ques,
1 3
1 3
=> 5 × 100x + 22 = 4 × 100x
=> 20x + 22 = 75x
=> 75x − 20x = 55x = 22
2
=> x = 5
2
∴ Capacity = 100 × 5 = 40 litres
=> Ans - (A)
Question 47
A sum of money is accumulating at compoundinterest at a certain rate of interest. If simple interest instead of compound were
reckoned, the interest for the first two years would be diminished by ₹20 and that for thefirst three years by ₹61. What is the sum?
A ₹7500
B ₹7000
C ₹8000
D ₹6500
Answer: C
Explanation:
Pr2
Difference between S.I. and C.I. for two years = 100 2 = 20 ------------(i)
2
Pr r
Difference for three years = 100 2 (3 + 100 ) = 61 -----------(ii)
r
Substituting value from equation (i) in equation (ii), => 20 × (3 + 100 ) = 61
r 61
=> 3 + 100 = 20 = 3.05
r
=> 100 = 3.05 − 3 = 0.05
=> r = 5%
25
Substituting back in equation (i), => P× 100×100 = 20
=> P = 20 × 400 = Rs. 8, 000
=> Ans - (C)
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Question 48
A jar full of milk contains 40% water, A part of this milk is replaced by another containing 19% water and now the percentage of water
is found to be 26%. The quantity of milk replaced is ........
2
A 3
1
B 3
3
C 7
4
D 7
Answer: A
Explanation:
By rule of alligation, we have

So, ratio of first and second quantities = 7:14 = 1:2
2
Thus, Required quantity replaced = 3
=> Ans - (A)
Question 49
A fair coin is tossed repeatedly, If head appears on the first four tosses, then the probability of appearance of tail on the fifth toss is
..........
1
A 2
1
B 7
3
C 7
2
D 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
1
When the coin is flipped fifth time, there is a chance of getting either head or tail. So, probability of getting head on fifth toss is 2 . It
doesn't depend on first four outcomes.
=> Ans - (A)
Question 50
The electricity bill of a certain establishment is partly fixed and partly varies with the number of units of electricity consumed. When in
a certain month 540 units are consumed, the bill is ₹1800. Im another month 620 units are consumed and the bill 16 ₹2040. In yet
another month 500 units are consumed. Thebill for that month would be ..........
A ₹1680
B ₹1560
C ₹1840
D ₹1950
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let constant amount each month = Rs. A and for x units consumed it is Rs. B
=> For a month, total bill = A + Bx
According to ques, => A + 540B = 1800 ------------(i)
and A + 620B = 2040 ---------(ii)
Subtracting equation (i) from (ii), => 80B = 240
=> B =3
Substituting above value in equation (i), => A = 1800 − 1620 = 180
∴ Bill for 500 units consumed = 180 + (500 × 3) = 180 + 1500 = Rs. 1680
=> Ans - (A)

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Question 51
A booster pump can be used forfilling as well as forigmptying a tank. The capacity of the tank is 2400 m 3 . The emptying capacity of the
tank is 10 m 3 per minute higher than its filling capacity and the pump needs 8 minutes lesser toeuiipty the tank than it needs to fill it,
What is the filling capacity of the pump?
A 60 m3 /min
B 50 m3 /min
C 72 m3 /min
D None of these
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question 52
A and walk around a circulartrack, They start at 8 a.m. from the samepoint in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of
Founds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively How many timesshall they cross eaghother before 9.30 a.m.?

A 6
B 5
C 7
D 8
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question 53
The dimensions of a room are 10 m x 7m x 5 m. There are 2 doors and 3 windows in the room. The dimensions of the doors are 1 m x 3
m. One window is of size 2 m x 1.5 m and the other two windows are of size 1 m x 1.5 m. The cost of painting the walls at ₹3 per m2 is
........

A ₹578.50
B ₹474
C ₹684
D ₹894
Answer: E
Explanation:


Question 54
There are two bags, one of which contains 3 black and 4 white balls, while the other contains 4 black and 3 white balls. A dice is cast, if
the face 1 or 3 tums up, a ball is taken from the first bag and if any other face turns up, a ball is chosen from the second bag. The
probability of choosing a black ball is .........
11
A 21
10
B 21
12
C 21
9
D 21
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question 55
2
A runs 1 3 times as fast as B. If A gives B a start of 80 m, how far must the winning post be so that A and B reach it at the same time?

A 300 m
B 200 m
C 270 m
D 160 m
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question 56
A cistern, open at the top, is to be lined with lead sheet which weighs 27 kg/m 2 . The cistern is 4.5 m long and 3 m wide and holds 50 m
3 . The weight of lead required is ............

A 1764.60 kg
B 1864.62 kg
C 1660.62 kg
D 1860.62 kg
Answer: E

Question 57
A cylindrical tub of radius 12 cm contains water up to a depth of 20 cm. A spherical iron ball is dropped into the tub and thus the level
of water is raised by 6.75 cm. The radius of the ball is .......
A 6 cm
B 4.5 cm
C 7.25 cm
D 9 cm
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question 58
What per cent selling price would be 34% of the cost price if the gross profit is 26% of the selling price?

A 74.00%
B 25.16%
C 17.16%
D 88.40%
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question 59
1
The present worth of a bill due 7 months hence is ₹1200. If the bill were due at the end of 2 2 years, its present worth would be ₹1016.
What is the rate per cent of the bill?

A 8%
B 10%
C 16%
D 18%
Answer: E
Explanation:

About CAT exam

Question 60
If the ages of P and R are added to twice theage of Q, the total becomes 59. If the ages of Q and R are added to thrice the age of P, the
total becomes 68, and if the age of P is added to thrice the age of Q and thrice the age of R, the total becomes 108 What is the age of
P?
A 19 years
B 15 years
C 17 years
D 12 years
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 61
If 6 years are subtracted from the present sate and the remainder is divided by 18, then the present age of his grandson Anupis
obfainéd. If Anup is 2 years younger to Mahesh whose age is 5 years, whatis the age of Shyam?
A 48 years
B 60 years
C 84 years
D 96 years
Answer: B

Explanation:
Present age of Mahesh = 5 years
Present age of Anup = 5 - 2 = 3 years
Let present age of Suresh = S
Now,
S−6
18 =3
S - 6 = 54
S = 60 years
Question 62
There are two concentric circular tracks of radii 100 m and 102 m respectively. A runs on the inner track and goes once round the
track in 1 minute 30-seconds, while B runs on the outer track in 1 minute 32 seconds. Whoruns faster?
A A
B B
C Cannot be determined
D Both run at same speed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let speed of A and B is 'a' m/s and 'b' m/s respectively.
Circumference of inner track = 2πr = 200π m

Circumference of outer track = 2πr = 204π mNow,
200π
a= 90 = 2.22π m/s (Approx)
204π
b= 92 = 2.21π m/s (Approx)
Hence, A is faster than B.

Question 63
A man observes that when he movesup distance C metres on a slope, the angle of depression of a point on the horizontal plane from
the base of the slope is 30∘ , and when he moves up a further distance of C metres, the angle of depression of that point is 45∘ . The
angle of inclination of the slope with the horizontal is ..........
A 45∘
B 60∘
C 75∘
D 30∘
Answer: E
Question 64
Out of 20 consecutive positive integers, two are chosen at random. The probability that their sum is odd is ..........

10
A 19
1
B 20
19
C 20
9
D 19
Answer: A
Explanation:
Out of 20 consecutive positive integers, 10 are even numbers and 10 odd numbers.
Sum is odd when one number of even and other is odd.
Favourable cases = 10C1 ∗ 10C1 = 10 * 10

Total cases = 20C2 = 10 * 19
10∗10 10
Required probability = 10∗19 = 19
Question 65
A man covers a certain distance on a toy train. If the train moved 4 km/hr faster, it would take 30 minutes less. If it moved 2 km/hr
slower, it would have taken 20 minutes more, What is the distance covered?
A 65 km
B 60 km
C 70 km
D 75 km
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the time taken to cover 'D' km with speed S km/h is T hours.
D = ST
30
D = (S + 4) ∗ (T − 60 )
S 4
D = ST − 2 + 4T − 2
S 4
D=D− 2 + 4T − 2
8T - S = 4 ......... (1)
20
D = (S − 2) ∗ (T + 60 )
S 2
D = ST + 3 − 2T − 3
S 2
D=D+ 3 − 2T − 3
S - 6T = 2 ......... (2)
From (1) and (2):
T = 3 and S = 20
D = ST = 60 km

Question 66
Two trains, 130 and 110 metres long, are going in the same direction. The faster train takes one minute to pass the other completely.
If they are moving in opposite directions, they pass each other completely in 3 seconds. What is the speed of the faster train?
A 42 m/sec
B 38 m/sec
C 46 m/sec
D 50 m/sec
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let speed of faster and slower train is 'x' m/sec and 'y' m/sec respectibvely.
Now,
130 + 110 = (x - y) * 60
x-y=4
130 + 110 = (x + y) * 3
x + y = 80
4+80
Speed of faster train = 2 = 42 m/sec
Question 67
The average age of all the students of a class is 18 years, The average age of boys of the class is 20 years and that of the girls is 15
years. If the number of girls in the class is 20, then what is the number of boys in the class?
A 30
B 15
C 45
D 50
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let total number of boys in the class = B
Now,
20∗B+15∗20
Average age of the class = 18 = B+ 20
18(B + 20) = 20B + 300
18B + 360 = 20B + 300
2B = 60
B = 30
Question 68
The total tractors in a State. are 294000, out of which 150000 are made by Mahindra & Mahindra. Out of every 1000: Mahindra
tractors, 98 are red in colour, But only 5.3% of the total tractors are red. Find the percentage of non-Mahindrer tractors that are red.
A 6.125%
B 5.025%

C 5.130%
D 6.140%
Answer: A
Explanation:
Total tractors = 294000
Mahindra & Mahindra tractors = 150000
Non-Mahindra tractors = 294000 - 150000 = 144000

98
Total red colour Mahindra tractors = 150000 * 100 = 147000
Total red colour tractors = 53% of 294000 = 155820
Total red colour Non-Mahindra tractors = 155820 - 147000 = 8820

8820
Required percent = 144000 ∗ 100 = 6.125%

Question 69
A merchant makesa profit of 20% by selling an article. What would be the approx. percentage change in the profit per cent had he paid
16% less for it and the customer paid 10% more for it?
A 120%
B 125%
C 133.33%
D 150%
Answer: C
Explanation:
Price at which merchant purchased = 100x
Price at which merchant sold = 120% of 100x = 120x
New price at which merchant purchased = 90% of 100x = 90x
New price at which merchant sold = 110% of 120x = 132x

132−90
New profit percent = 90 ∗ 100 = 46.67%
Difference between profit percents = 46.67 - 20 = 26.67%
26.67
Required percent = 20 ∗ 100 = 133.33%
Question 70
If 15 men or 24 women or 36 boys wah do a piece of work in 12 days, working 8 hours a day, how many men must be associated with
1
12 women and 6 boys to do another piece of work 2 4 times as great in 30 days working 6 hours a day?
A 6
B 4
C 8
D 10
Answer: C

Explanation:
15 men or 24 women or 36 boys wah do a piece of work in 12 days.
15M = 24W
5
1W = 8 M
15M = 36B
5
1B = 12 M
Let 'x' men are required.
Now,
1
2 4 ∗ 15M ∗ 12 ∗ 8 = (xM + 12W + 6B) ∗ 30 ∗ 6
9∗15M ∗12∗8
4 = (xM + 7.5M + 2.5M) ∗ 30 ∗ 6
(x + 10) = 18
x=8
Question 71
The horizontal distance between two towers is 60 m. The angular elevation of the top of the taller tower as seen from the top of the
shorter one is 30°. If the height of the taller tower is 150 m, the height of the shorter one is ..........
A 100 m
B 116 m
C 106 m
D None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let height of shorter tower = CD = AB = x
∠ACP = 300
AP = PB - AB = 150 - x
AC = BD = 60 m
Now,
AP
tan300 = AC
1 150−x
3 = 60
60
150 − x = 3 = 20 3
x = 150 − 20 3
x = 150 - 34.64
x = 115.36 = 116 m

Question 72
Aboat travels upstream from B to A and downstream from Ato B in 3 hours. If the speed of the boat in still water is 9 km/hour and the
speed of the current is 3 kn/hour, what is the distance between A and B?
A 6 km
B 4 km
C 8 km
D 12 km
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the distance between A and B = 'D' km
Sspeed of the boat in still water =9 km/h
Sspeed of the current =3 km/h
Upstream speed = 9 - 3 = 6 km/h
Downstream speed = 9 + 3 = 12 km/h
Now,
D D
6 + 12 =3
2D + D = 36
D = 12 km
Question 73
Out of the total production of iron from hematite, an ore of iron, 20% of the ore gets wasted. Out of the remainingiron, only 25% is pure
iron If the pure iron obtained in a year from a mine of hematite was 80000 kg, then the quantity of hematite mined in the year is .........
A 400000 kg
B 500000 kg
C 450000 kg
D 600000 kg
Answer: A
Explanation:
Total amount of ore in a year = 100x
Wasted ore = 20% off 100x = 20x
Remaining ore = 100x - 20x = 80x
Amount of pure iron = 25% of 80x = 80000
20x = 80000
x = 4000
Qquantity of hematite mined in the year = 100x = 400000 kg
Question 74
A car driver, driving in a fog, passes a pedestrian who was walking at the rate of 2 km/h in the same direction. The pedestrian could
see the cat for 6 minutes and it was visible to him up to a distance of 0.6 km. What was the speed of the car?

A 15 km/h
B 30 km/h
C 20 km/h
D 8 km/h
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let speed of car = 'x' km/h
Effective speed when car and pedestrian travelling in the same direction = (x - 2)
Since the pedestrian could see the car up to a distance of 0.6 km. So, total distance distance = 0.6 km
Now,
6
(x − 2) ∗ 60 = 0.6
(x - 2) = 6
x = 8 km/h

Question 75
37
A, B and C working together completed a job in 10 days. However, C only worked for the first three days when 100 of the job was done.
Also, the work done by A in 5 daysis equalto the work done by B in 4 days.. How many days would be required by the fastest worker to
complete the entire work?
A 25 days
B 20 days
C 30 days
D 40 days
Answer: B
Explanation:
Since the work done by A in 5 days is equal to the work done by B in 4 days.
So, time taken by A and B alone to do the work is 5x and 4x respectively.
Time taken by C alone to do the work = C
Now,
10 10 3
5x + 4x + C = 1 ........ (1)
3 3 3 37
5x + 4x + C = 100 ...... (2)
From (1) and (2):

7 7 37
5x + 4x =1− 100
28+35 63
20x = 100
x = 5 and C = 30
Time taken by A alone to do the work = 5x = 25 days
Time taken by B alone to do the work = 4x = 20 days
Time taken by C alone to do the work = C = 30 days

Hence, the time required by the fastest worker to complete the entire work = 20 days
Question 76
Three different containers contain different quantities of a mixture of milk and water, whose measurements are 403 litres, 434 litres
and 465 litres. What biggest measure mustbe there to measure all the different quantities exactly?
A 70 litres
B 51 litres
C 31 litres
D 41 litres
Answer: C
Explanation:
The volume of three containers are 403 litres, 434 litres and 465 litres.
The biggest measure that can measure all the different quantities exactly = HCF of 403, 434, 465.
403 = 13 * 31
434 = 2 * 7 * 31
465 = 3 * 5 * 31
HCF = 31
Hence, required measure = 31 litres
Question 77
The radius of the base of a conical tent is 5m. If the tent is 12 m high then the area of the canvas required in making the tent is .........
A 300πm2
B 60πm2
C 90πm2
D None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
Radius of conical tent = r = 5 m
Height of conical tent = h = 12 m
Lateral height = l = r2 + h2 = 52 + 122 = 13 cm

Aarea of the canvas required in making the tent = Curved Surface area = πrl = π ∗ 5 ∗ 13 = 65πm2

Question 78
5
At a point on level ground, the angle Griensios of a vertical tower is found to be such that its tangent is 12 . On walking 192 m towards
3
the tower, the tangent of the angle of elevation is 4 The height of the tower is ..........
A 96 m
B 150 m
C 180 m

226 m
D
Answer: C
Explanation:
BC = 192 m
AP
tanθ = AB+ BC
5 AP
12 = AB+192
5AB + 960 = 12AP .......... (1)

AP
tanα = AB
3 AP
4 = AB
3AB = 4AP
9AB = 12AP .......... (2)
From (1) and (2):
5AB + 960 = 9AB
AB = 240
From equation (2):
9 * 240 = 12AP
AP = 180 m
Question 79
In a medical certificate, by mistake a candidate gave his height as 25% more than actual. In the interview panel, he clarified that his
height was 5. feet 5 inches, What is the percentage correction madeby the candidate from his stated height to his actual height?
A 28.56
B 20
C 25
D None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let actual height = 100x
Stated height = 125% of 100x = 125x
Correction made by candidate from the stated height = 125x - 100x = 25x
25x
Required percent = 125x ∗ 100 = 20%
Question 80
A manufacturer of a certain item can sell all he can produceat the selling price of ₹60 each. It costs him ₹40 in materials and labour to
produce each item ‘and he has overhead expenses of ₹3000 per week in order to operate that plant. The number of units he should
produce and sell in order to makea profit ofat least ₹1000 per week is ..............

A 300
B 400
C 250
D 200
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the number of units produced = x
Materials and labour cost of 'x' units = 40x
Total cost price = 40x + 3000
Total selling price = (40x + 3000) + 1000 = 60x
20x = 4000
x = 200
Hence, he must produce and sell 200 units.
Reasoning and Logical Ability

Instructions
Study the following information to answer these questions.
A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a
day,there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch.
Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.:

Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II : by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on.
Question 81
If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
A Work hard to for succeed night and day
B Hard work for and succeed night to day
C Work hard for to succeed night and day
D Hard work for to succeed night and day
Answer: E

Question 82
If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-codes for the fifth batch, ‘ zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for
which of the following batches ?
A II
B IV

I
C
D III
Answer: E
Question 83
Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth,batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been
pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second batch ?
A Rush do not avoid to run very fast
B Rush not do avoid to run very fast
C Avoid mush not do to run very fast
D Data inadequate
Answer: E
Instructions
Each of these questions consists of six statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order.
Choose the option which indicates a valid argument containing logically related statements that is, where the third statement is a
conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
Question 84
A ACD
B BEF
C CDE
D CEF
Answer: E

Question 85
A ACB
B AEC
C FEC
D DFA
Answer: E
Instructions

Study the following information to answer the questions that follow.
The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain areas are to be floored either with marble or
wood. All rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be renovated comprisesa hall for customer transaction measuring 23 m by
29 m, branch manager's room measuring 13 m by 17 m, a pantry measuring 14 m by 13 m, a record keeping cum server room measuring
21 m by 13 m and locker area measuring 29 m by 21 m. The total area of the bank is 2000 sq m. The cost of wooden flooring is ₹170 per
sq m and the cost of marble flooring is ₹190 per sq. m. The locker area, record keeping cum server room and pantry are to be floored
with marble. The branch manager's room andthe hall for customer transaction are to be floored with wood. No other area is to be
renovated in terms of flooring.
Question 86
What is the respective ratio of the total cost of wooden flooring to the total cost of marble flooring?
A 1879 : 2527
B 1887 : 2386
C 1887 : 2527
D 1829 : 2527
Answer: E
Question 87
If the four walls and ceiling of the branch manager's room (the height of the room is 12 m) are to be painted at the cost of ₹ 190 per sq
m, how much will be the total cost of renovation of the branch manager's room including the cost of flooring?
A ₹136800
B ₹216660
C ₹178790
D None of these
Answer: E

Question 88
If the remaining area of the bank is to be carpeted at the rate of ₹ 110 per sq m, how much will be the increment in the total cost of
renovation of bank premises?
A ₹5280
B ₹4848
C ₹3689
D None of these
Answer: E
Question 89
What is the percentage area of the bank that is not to be rengvated?
A 2.2%
B 2.4%

4.2%
C
D 4.4%
Answer: E
Question 90
What is the total cost of renovation of the hall for customer transaction and the locker area?
A ₹229100
B ₹230206
C ₹216920
D ₹242440
Answer: E

Instructions
These questions are based on the following letters/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully to answer these questions.
A8B6#7HU%3$FVR2I@ ↑41WE9 L5
Question 91
Which of the following is seventh to the right of fifteenth from the right end?
A 4
B ↑
C 1
D W
Answer: E
Question 92
If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be eighth from the left end?
A F
B R
C U
D 3
Answer: E
Question 93
How many suchsymbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a consonant and also
immediately preceded by a number?
A None

One
B
C Two
D Three
Answer: E

Question 94
How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel butnot immediately me
a number?
A None
B One
C Two
D Three
Answer: E
Question 95
Three of the following fourare alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group.
Whichis the onethat does not belong to the group?
A B7#
B F2R
C 95L
D W E
Answer: E
Instructions
Each of these questions has a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions.
Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement. Mark answer as
Question 96
Statement: Until our co oN chieves economic equality, political freedom and democracy would be meaningless.
Conclusions: I. Political freedom and democracy go hand in hand.
II. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and democracy.
A if conclusion I follows.
B if conclusion II follows.
C if either conclusion I or II follows.
D if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Answer: E

Question 97
Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music.
Conclusions: I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.
II. Even though your voiceis not good, one can keep practising.
Answer: E
Question 98
Statement: Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of indigenous crude oil.
Conclusions: I. Crude oil must be imported.
II. Domestic demand should be reduced.
Answer: E
Instructions
In each of these questions, two statements I & II are given. These may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent
causes or be the effects of independent causes. Read the statements and mark answer as
Question 99
Statement I: British surgeons have carried out what they claim is the world’s first lung transplant on a 20 year-old woman patient
Becky Jones who was suffering from two fungal conditionsin the lungs.
Statement II: Lung transplant patients have never before beenable to have the transplant operation while suffering from aspergillus
and multiple fungal balls. Jones is in perfect health and is able to breath freely again.
A if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
C if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
D if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Answer: E

Question 100
Statement I:. Because of very difficult questions in one of the sections, a sizeable number of students claimed to have failed to clear
the cut off of Civil Services Prelim Exams.
Statement II: Government allowed all the stubfeto write the paper again.

Answer: E
Question 101
Statement I: A chaotic situation has Seen created in Delhi Railway Station due to the excessive vehicles parked every where outside
the station.
Statement II: Northern Railway has floated a tender to auction parking space in all Railway stations in Delhi and NCR.
Answer: E
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Question 102
Shiv visited Ramesh on vacation. In the moming, they both would go for yoga. In the evenings they would play tennis. To have more
fun, they indulge only in one activity per day,i.e., either they went for yoga or playedtennis each day. There were days when they were
lazy and stayed home all day long. There were 24 mornings when they did nothing, 14 evenings when they stayed at home,and a total
of 22 days when they did yoga or played tennis. For how many days Shiv stayed with Ramesh?
A 32
B 24
C 30
D None of these
Answer: E

Question 103
Number S is obtained by squaring the sum of digits of a two-digit number D. If difference between S and is 27, then the two digit
number D is ............
A 24
B 54
C 34
D 45
Answer: E

Question 104
The owner of a local jewellery store hired 3 watchmen to guard his diamonds, but a thief still got in and stole some diamonds. On the
1
wayout, the thief met each watchman, one at a time. To each he gave 2 of the diamonds he had then, and 2 more besides. He escaped
with one diamond. How manydid hesteal originally?
A 40
B 36
C 25
D None of these
Answer: E
Question 105
Mani, Mita, Lata and John bought a motorbike for $60.00. Mani paid one half of the sum of the amounts paidby the other boys: 'Mita
paid onethird of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys; and Lata paid onefourth of the sum of the amounts paid by the other
boys. How much did John have to pay?
A $15
B $13
C $17
D None of these
Answer: E

Instructions
Read the following Information to answer these questions.
Ankit is decorating his room andtrying to arrange six paintings on the east and west walls in his room. The paintings are each
multicolour representations of one of the letters of the alphabets E, H, M, O, R, T. Ankit does not wantthe three letters on each wall to
make any common English word. Also, the colours of O and E do not look good next to eachpier, nor do T and O go well together.
Question 106
If Ankit puts E, H and M onthe east wall, which of the following must be true ?
A R and M cannot face each other.
B O cannot be in the centre of the west wall.
C E cannot be in the centre of the east wall.
D T and M cannot face each other.
Answer: E
Question 107
If Ankit’s mother is comingto visit and he decides to celebrate the visit by having his paintings spell “MOTHER”, starting with the
leftmost painting on the east wall and going around the room, which of the following will be false ?
A O is opposite to E

H is next to E
B
C T is next to O
D T is opposite to R
Answer: E
Question 108
Which of the following is not possible ?
A T and O to be opposite to each other.
B T, H and E to be on the same wall.
C H, M and R to be on the same wall
D M and O to be opposite to each other.
Answer: E

Question 109
If Ankit trades his M painting for another O painting just like the one he has now, which of the following must be false?
A O can be on opposite walls in the middle.
B Either R or H will be next to an O.
C Either R or H will be next to either T or E.
D T will be opposite to either O or E.
Answer: E
Instructions
Read the following information to answer these questions.
(i) There is a group of seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

(ii) There are four males, three females, two married couples and three unmarried persons in the group.
(iii) The seven persons are seated in.a row on the bench.
(iv) Their professions are engineer, teacher, doctor, psychologist, businessman, architect and student.
(v) B isnot married and another person, the psychologist, 1is the most intelligent.
(vi) The engineer is married to the teacher, who is theleast intelligent of the group.
(vii) D is an architect. Heis sitting on the leftmost corer.
(viii) The student is sitting on the rightmost comerofthe bench.
(ix) The doctor is married to C. C is the second most intelligent of the group followed by her husband.
(x) Theleast intelligent of the group is Sitting on the immediate right of D, followed by the most intelligent.
(xi) There are as many more intelligent persons than theengieapinest as there are less intelligent.
(xii) On the bench followed by D, there are three females sittingiin succession.
(xiii) The psychologistis a female.
(xiv) The student is more intelligent than the architect who is more intelligent than only one person, F.
(xv) Neither A nor G is a female.
Question 110
Who is sitting on the immediate right of D?
A F

E
B
C C
D Can't say
Answer: E
Question 111
Which two are sitting together?
A D and E
B E and A
C Teacher and businessman
D Engineer and doctor
Answer: E
About CAT exam

Question 112
The engineer is not more intelligent than
A student.
B architect.
C teacher.
D businessman.
Answer: E
Question 113
Which of these cannot be a married couple?
A A-F
B A-C
C G-F
D None of these
Answer: E
Question 114
Which of these represents the correct order of intelligence(in the decreasing sequence)?
A EBF
B CDF
C ECB

None of these
D
Answer: E

Instructions
Each of these questions has an assertion (A) and a reason (R). Mark answer as
Question 115
Assertion (A): There was no country known as ‘Bangladesh’ when India was partitioned in 1947.
Reason (R): ‘Bangladesh’ was a part of Pakistan at the time of partition of India in 1947.
A if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C if (A) is true but (R) is false.
D if (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: E
Question 116
Assertion (A) : India should adopt presidential type of government.

Reason (R) : Yes, it will bring political order in the country.
Answer: E
Question 117
Assertion(A): States of India should be giventTyore autonomy/freedom.

Reason (R) : No, because it will encourage separatist tendencies.
Answer: E

Question 118
Assertion (A): Indian National Flag is known as tricolor.

Reason (R): Indian National Flag has three colours.

Answer: E
Instructions
Each of the following questions is based on a set of propositions I-IV. Select the best answer to each question.
I. All Ps are Q.
II. Some Ps are not Q.
III. Some, but not all, Ps are Q.
IV. No Ps are Q.
Question 119
Considered only by themselves, which of the following pairs of statements might either both be true or both be false ?
A I and II
B II and III
C I and III
D I and IV
Answer: E
Question 120
Considered only by themselves, all of the followind pairs of statements might both be false but could not both be true except
A I and II.
B I and III.
C I and IV.
D II and IV.
Answer: E
Data Interpretation
Instructions
Study the following graphs to answer these questions.
Pie-charts below show the percentage of different types of vehicles A, B, C, D, E and F in state in two consecutive years (2015 and 2016).

Question 121
In the year 2015, the number of vehicles of type A and D together is what per cent of the number of vehicles type F and A together in
2016?
A 68.83%
B 52.13%
C 60.23%
D 70%
Answer: E

Question 122
From 2015 to 2016, in the case of whigh of the following types of vehicles, the change was maximum?
A A
B B
C C
D E
Answer: E
Question 123
What was the difference in the number of B type of vehicles during 2015 and 2016?

A 11321
B 11491
C 30205
D 15200
Answer: E
Question 124
If the number of D type of vehicles in 2015 was 5000, what would have been its approximate percentage in the state?
A 3.49%
B 10%
C 5.20%
D 2.56%
Answer: E

Question 125
The number of A type of vehicle in 2016 was approximately what per cent of the number of A type of vehicles in 2015?
A 137%
B 120%
C 100%
D 110%
Answer: E
Instructions
Study the following graphs to answer these questions.
The bar graph below shows the revenue generated by six banks during 2016. The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of revenue
earned through different modes.
Interest earned through - Business Loans (P), Home Loans (Q), Personal Loans (R), Auto Loans (S), deposits in other financial institute
(T), Changes for providing services (U) and Others (V).

Question 126
The bank that earned ₹78 crore as interest fromhose loans in 2016 is ..............
A A
B B
C C
D D
Answer: E
Question 127
Out of the total interest earned through business loans, bank A and C earn 45%from small scale industries (SSI) and the rest through
cottage industries (CI) whereas B and D earn 55% from SSI and the rest through CI. Which bank earns the least through any of these
industries?
A A, through CI
B D, through CI
C A, through SSI
D D, through SSI
Answer: E

Question 128
The Interests earned through car ( a subset of Auto loan) loan by B, D, E and F are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 3 : 4 and the total interest earned
by these four banks for car loan is ₹36 crore. The bank that earned interest which is 8.8% of the interest earned by it through Auto
loans is ..............
A B
B D
C E
D F
Answer: E
Question 129
Bank B and F earn interest by depositing their amounts in the financial institutes X, Y and Z. B earns interest from them in the ratio 2 :
3 : 1 and F in the ratio 4 : 3 : 3. By what percent F's earning from X is more/less than B's earning from X?
A 28.4% more
B 26.13% less
C 28.4% less
D 22.13% more
Answer: E
Question 130
By what percent is the largest amount eamed by a bank through U and V together more than the least amount through U & V together
by any of these banks?
A 34.25%
B 52.08%
C 26.15%
D 35.42%
Answer: E

Instructions
Study the following graph to answer these questions.
The following bar graph shows the revenue generated by three realty firms A, B and C during 2012 to 2016. Each of these firms builds
Low Income Group (LIG) apartments, Middle Income Group (MIG) apartments and High Income Group (HIG) apartments.

Question 131
The firms A, B and C saw tise of 15%, orpand 9% respectively in 2012 from 2011. Whose revenue was least in 2011?
A A
B B
C C
D Equal revenues
Answer: E
Question 132
In the year 2014 the firms B, A and C invested ₹2011 crore, ₹1600 crore and ₹2300 crore respectively. The difference between
maximum and minimum profit per cent in 2014 is ...........
A 38.58
B 53.17
C 14.6
D 51
Answer: E
Question 133
By what per cent should C increase its revenue in 2017 to make it 10% more than the average revenue of all the firms in 2016?
A 10%
B 11.86%
C 13.47%
D 17.34%
Answer: E

Question 134
1
If the profit earned by A in 2015 is 6 th of the average of the revenues of A in 2015, B in 2013 and C in 2012, the investment of A in
2015 is ..........
A ₹1229 crore
B ₹893 crore
C ₹1392 crore
D ₹2977 crore
Answer: E
Question 135
In 2013, A got 27% of its revenue through LIG housing whereas in the same year B earned 42% of its revenue through MIG housing.
Both the companies spent ₹350 crore less than these revenues obtained. The difference in percentage profits thus earned by A and B
is .........
A 50.24%
B 34.1%
C 23.6%
D 15%
Answer: E
Instructions
Study the following graph to answer these questions:
The percentage profits of four leading airliners A, B, C and D for six years 18 shown in the line graph below.
Question 136
In 2011, company A invested ₹830 crore. Whereas C invested an amount which bears a ratio of 3 : 2 with that of A. The revenue
generated by C in 2011 is ...........
A ₹1643.4 crore
B ₹730.5 crore
C ₹1456.7 crore

D ₹647.5 crore
Answer: E

Question 137
The total revenue generated by all the companies jn-2014 is ₹3600 ctore. The revenue of C is 30% of the total revenue. The revenue
7 2 8
generated by A, B and D in the same year is 25 , 5 and 25 respectively of the remaining revenue. The maximum investment in that year
is made by ...........
A A
B C
C B
D D
Answer: E
Question 138
In 2015, companies B and D invested a total amount of ₹946 crore. They earned theif revenues by carrying passengers and goods.
The profit earned by B through passenger traffic is 43% of the total profit earned by B and the remaining part through goods traffic.
The profit earned by D through goods traffic iis 38% of the total profit earned by it and the remaining part of the profit is through
passenger traffic. If the investments made by them are in the ratio 5 : 6, the actual profit of B through goods traffic is ...... than the
passenger traffic of D.
A less by ₹46.44 crore.
B more by ₹38.0808 crore.
C less by ₹33.9528 crore.
D more by ₹46.44 crore.
Answer: E
Question 139
2 3
In 2015 Airliner C invested: an amount of ₹630 crore, 3 of this amount was invested by B. A invested 4 of the amount invested by B
3
and D invested 1 5 of A in the same year. The revenue generated by A and D is .......... than that by B and C.
A more by ₹276.99 crore.
B more by ₹48.09 crore.
C less by ₹48.09 crore.
D less by ₹276.99 crore.
Answer: E

Question 140
In 2016, investment made by’ ₹437 crore. B invests 20% more than A, C invests 20% than B and D invests 20% more than C. If the
profit earned by each is the average profit per cent in 2016, who earns least revenue?

A D
B A
C B
D C
Answer: E
Instructions
Study the following graph to answer these questions.
The following table shows the subscriber base of six Direct to Home (DTH)TV service companies with at to some popular channels aired
by them.
Question 141
Which of the companies shows the maximum percentage difference in the viewership of its channels I and III with respect to channel
I?
A E
B B
C A
D F
Answer: E
Question 142
2
Two-fifth of the viewers of channel V of a shifted to channel V of B and E; 3 of these to B and the remaining to E. One-fourth of viewer
3
of channel V of C have now started watching channel V of D and F; 7 of it D and the rest F. In the new distribution, which of the
companies has maximum viewers for channel V?
A B
B C
C F
D A
Answer: E

Question 143
The daily revenue generated through advertisment by chatinal III of companies A, C and F is in the same proportion as the ratio of their
viewership. The total amount collected in a day by them is ₹340 crore. The revenue generated bye channel II of D which is 8% more
than that of channel III of C is .........
A ₹11.75 crore.
B ₹10.88 crore.
C ₹12.03 crore.
D ₹146.88 crore.
Answer: E
Question 144
Informative programme of channel II of B is watched by 27% of viewers of this channel, rest watch entertainment programmes. If the
viewers of informative programmes of channel III of C is less by 35% of viewers of entertainment programmes of channel II of B, then
the number of viewers of entertainment programmes of channel III of C is ........... than that of channel II of B.
A 3022100 more
B 3325900 more
C 352900 less
D 3022100 less
Answer: E
Question 145
For paying the fees of the staff and other expenees in a day, channel IV of company A has to pay 14% of its revenue collected of that
day. This amount is ₹2500000 more than for channel V of C. The revenve generated per day by channel I of F is twice its viewership
figure and is less by 10% than channel IV of A. The amount spent by channel V of C in a day is .........
A ₹2819600
B ₹5319000
C ₹4836000
D ₹7819600
Answer: E

Instructions
Study the following graph for answer these questions.
The bar graph shows the performance of 3 political parties A, B and C in terms of votes acquired in the elections in a constituency during
2012- 2016

Question 146
By what per centis the average number of votes acquired by B more/less than that of A during 2012-2016 ?
A 13% more
B 13% less
C 15% less
D 15% more
Answer: E
Question 147
How many more votes are requiredby C in 2017 than in 2016 to make the ratio of votes with A, 3:2, keeping the votes of A same as in
2016 ?
A 12.45 lakh
B 4.725 lakh
C 6.225 lakh
D 1.27 lakh
Answer: E
Question 148
By what per cent should votes of B increase/decrease in 2016 to equal its average during the previous 4 years ?
A Increase by 4.6%
B Increase by 5.8%
C Decrease by 5.8%
D Decrease by 4.6%
Answer: E

Question 149
In 2015, by wha tper cent should the votes of C increase to exceed the votes of B in the same year by 12% ?
A 51%
B 33.9%
C 89.9%
D 53%
Answer: E
Question 150
What per cent votes were acquired by C with respect to the total votes acquired by all the three parties in 2013?
A 25.33%
B 41.33%
C 33.33%
D 61.2%
Answer: E
Instructions
Each of these questions consists of a problem followed by two statements numbered as I and II. Decide whether the data in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Mark answer as
Question 151
A citrus fruit grower receives ₹980 for each crate of lemon shipped and ₹1500 for each crate of oranges shipped. How many crates of
oranges did the grower ship last week?
I. Last week the numberof crates of lemon that the grower shipped was 20 more than twice the number of crates of orange shipped.
II. Last week the grower received a total of ₹387000 from the crates of lemon and oranges shipped.
A if statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B if statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
C if both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D if statements I and II together are not sufficient, and additional. data is necded to answer the question.
Answer: E

Question 152
If a total of 84 students are enrolled in two sections of a calculus course, how many of the 84 students are female?
2
I. 3 of the students in Section 1 are female.
1
II. 2 of the students in Section 2 are female.

if statements I and II together are not sufficient, and additional. data is necded to answer the question.
D
Answer: E
Question 153
Company R's annual profit has increased neo amount each calendar year since 2009. What was Company R's annual profit in 2015?
I. In 2009, Company R's annuali ₹21200000; in 2013, Company R's annual profit was ₹24200000.
I. Company R's annualprofit has increased by ₹750000 each year since 2009.
Answer: E
Question 154
The figure below shows the shape of a flower bed. If arc QR is a semicircle and PQRS a rectangle with QR > RS, what is the perimeter
of the flower bed?
I. The perimeter of rectangle PQRS is 28 feet.

II. Each diagonal of rectangle PQRS is 10 feet long.
Answer: E

Question 155
Committee X and Committee Y, which have no common members, will combine to form Committee Z. Does Committee X have more
members than Committee Y?
I. The average (arithmetic mean) age of the members of Committee X is 25.7 years and the average age of the members of Committee
Y is 29.3 years.
II. The average (arithmetic mean) age of the members of Committee Z will be 26.6 years.

Answer: E
Instructions
In each of these questions, two quianitties A and B are given: Compare the two quantities and mark answer as
Question 156
The measures of the angles in triangle P are in the ratio of 2:4:6

The measuresof the angles in triangle Q are in the ratio of 1:2:6.
A: The measurementsof the largest angle in triangle P
B: The measurementsofthe largest angle in triangle Q
A if quantity A is greater than quantity B
B if quantity B is greater than quantity A.
C if quantities A and B are equal.
D if comparison cannot be made.
Answer: E
Question 157
Two circles with the same radius are blocked inside a rectangle.
A: The area of the shaded region.

B: The area of one and a half circles.
Answer: E

Question 158
Aditi bought X sell colored pencils and Y red ones.

Ajitha bought 15 pencils fewer than two third Of the total number of Pencils that Aditi bought.
A: The number of pencils that Ajitha bought
(2X −45+2Y )
B: 3

Answer: E

Question 159
The concentration of alcohol in Tequila is half of the concentration in Vodka. A cocktail consists of Tequila, Vodka and water only.
A: The amount of alcohol in a litre of cocktail, which consists of 50% Tequila and 30% Vodka
B: The amount of alcohol in a litre of cocktail, which consists of 30% Tequila and 50% Vodka
Answer: E
Question 160
A box of cards contains 2 blue cards and 2 red ones

A: The minimum number of cards that are needed to be taken out of iesbox: in order to get two cards with the same colour.
B: The minimum number of cards that are meet in to be taken out of the box in order to get two cards with different colours
Answer: E
About CAT exam


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C Employee productivity is directly affected by the managers ability/inability to coach.

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An effective performance management system should enable an organization to

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D Be optimistic, confident, hard working and self-introspective.

B Financial protectionism damages the concept of globalization.

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B Leadership is influencing others to achieve a common goal.

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