Most Important Questions on

Indian Penal Code,1860

Code of Criminal Procedure,1973
Indian Evidence Act,1872

Indian Penal Code

1. A kills C thinking C is B. A is guilty of offence punishable under Section:
(a) 301
(b) 304 Part-I
(c) 302
(d) 304 Part-2

2. In the Indian Penal Code, the word ‘woman’ denotes:

(a) A major woman
(b) An unmarried woman
(c) A woman of any age
(d) A married woman

3. The limit to which a person can be ordered to undergo solitary confinement:

(a) 6 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 2 months

4. Which hurt is not a grievous one?

(a) Permanent privation of the sight of either eye
(b) Dislocation of any bone
(c) Permanent impairing of the powers of any joint
(d) Suffering of fifteen days from severe bodily pain

5. 'A’ by putting 'B' in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces ‘B' to sign on a blank paper und deliver it to ‘A’. 'A’ has
committed the office of:
(a) Cheating
(b) Extortion
(c) Criminal breach of trust
(d) Forgery

6. Which section of IPC is based on the maxim "de minimis non curat tex" (the law takes no account of trifles)?
(a) Section 91
(b) Section 92
(c) Section 94
(d) Section 95

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7. The accused was entrusted with some silver for the purpose of making ornaments and he dishonestly mixed copper
into the ornaments. The offence committed is;
(a) Fraud
(b) Cheating
(c) Extortion
(d) Criminal breach of trust

8. Under which provision of the IPC appropriate Government may commute the punishment of imprisonment for life?
(a) Section 52
(b) Section 53
(c) Section 54
(d) Section 55

9. According to Indian Penal Code, Any man who monitors the use by a woman of the internet, email. or any other form
of electronic communication commits the offence of:
(a) Voyeurism
(b) Stalking
(c) Watching
(d) Searching

10. In which of the following sets of sections of the I.P.C. even death can be caused in exercise of right of private defense
of person and property?
(a) Sections 100 and 101
(b) Sections 100 and 102
(c) Sections 100 and 103
(d) Sections 100 and 105

11. A throws acid on B and causes grievous hurts to him. Under IPC, A is liable for minimum punishment of?
(a) 7 Years
(b) 5 Years
(c) 10 Years
(d) 3 Years

12. Removal of ornaments dishonesty from the body of deceased person-

(a) Robbery U/s. 392 of IPC
(b) Theft U/s, 379 of IPC
(c) Cheating U/s. 417 of IPC
(d) An offence under section 404 of IPC

13. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C'. ‘B’ refuses to do so. ‘A’ is guilty of:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide
(c) Abetment of murder
(d) No offence

14. In IPC punishment for rioting is provided under :

(a) Section 145
(b) Section 146
(c) Section 147
(d) Section 148

15. Which of the following Section of Indian Penal Code is related to the offence of "Voyeurism"?
(a) 354A
(b) 354B
(c) 354C
(d) 354D

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16. A police officer detains a person in the lock-up despite production of a bail order from the Court. The police officer is
guilty of:
(a) Abduction
(b) Wrongful confinement
(c) Wrongful restrain
(d) Kidnapping

17. If offence is punishable only with fine and amount of fine shall not exceed Rs. 50/- how much maximum imprisonment
in the default of payment of fine court may impose?
(a) 15 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 2 months
(d) 4 months

18. A is a blacksmith who seized by a gang of dacoits and forced, by threat of instant death to force open the door of B's
house for the dacoits to enter and plunder it. What offence A committed under IPC?
(a) Conspiracy of dacoity
(b) Dacoity
(c) Abetment of dacoity
(d) No offence

19. Under IPC, if the offence is punishable with fine only, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall be-
(a) Rigorous
(b) Simple
(c) According to discretion of Court
(d) Partly rigorous & partly simple

20. In which of the Section of the Indian Penal Code “stalking” of a woman by any man is punishable?
(a) 354-A
(b) 354-8
(c) 354-D
(d) 354-C

21. "A" makes a false entry in his shop-book for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in a Court. A committed
the offence punishable-
(a) Under Section 191
(b) Under Section 192
(c) Under Section 193
(d) Under Section 194

22. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860:

(a) Creates a substantive offence
(b) Is a rule of evidence
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

23. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Cade, 1860 punishment for wrongful confinement has been
provided?
(a) Sec. 340
(b) Sec. 341
(c) Sec. 342
(d) Sec. 350

24. The principle of doli incapax under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is an exception to criminal liability under which of the
following sections?
(a) Sec. 81
(b) Sec. 82
(c) Sec. 84
(d) Sec. 87

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25. Section 76 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence, which is done by a person who is or who by reason of—
(a) Mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
(b) Mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
(c) Mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
(d) All these

26. A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause 7’s death,
induces B to fire at the bust. B fires and kills Z. What offence has been committed by A and B?
(a) A and B both would be guilty of committing offence punishable under Section 302 IPC
(b) While A would be guilty of committing offence under Section 302 IPC, B would be guilty of committing offence
under Section 304 Part II, IPC
(c) A would be guilty of committing offence punishable under Section 302 IPC, B would be guilty of no offence
(d) A and B both would be guilty of committing offence punishable under Section 304 Part-l of the IPC

27. A is working in a field with a spade. The iron head of the spade flies off and hits a person who dies:
(a) A cannot be prosecuted of any offence
(b) A can be accused of murder
(c) A can be accused of attempt to murder
(d) A’s act is not an offence if it is found that he had taken proper caution

28. “A, with the intention to kill, shoots aiming at "B", instead "C" gets killed. The principle for holding "A" liable is known
as:
(a) The doctrine of intention
(b) The doctrine of transferred malice
(c) The doctrine that no one can escape
(d) None of these

29. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of Indian Penal Code is:
(a) That whereas in-Section 34 there must at least be five persons, Section 149 requires only two persons
(b) That Section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Section 34 creates a specific offence and provides for its
punishment
(c) That Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149 requires mere passive membership
of the unlawful assembly
(d) That Section 34 need not be joined with the principle offence, whereas Section 149 must be combined with the
Principle offence

30. Voyeurism has been criminalized in India by virtue of which amendment to IPC?
(a) 2015
(b) 1983
(c) 1870
(d) 2013

31. "Acid Attack" has been made a separate offence in India in year:
(a) 2003
(b) 2010
(c) 2014
(d) 2013

32. Kidnapping of a female from lawful guardianship can be committed, if she is:
(a) Under 16 years of age
(b) Under 18 years of age
(c) Under 21 years of age
(d) Under 14 years of age

33. The distinction between ‘similar intention’ and ‘common intention’ was clarified in the case of:
(a) Barindra Kumar Ghosh v. King Emperor
(b) Mahboob Shah v. Emperor
(c) Shrinivas Mali v. Emperor
(d) All of the ‘above

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34. Under Section-230 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 which of the following is not or has not been a “Coin”-
(a) The coin denominated as the company’s rupee
(b) The-Farrukhabad Rupee
(c) A metal used for the time being as money and stamped and issued by the authority of some state or sovereign
power
(d) Lumps of unstamped Metal used as money

35. Difference between murder and culpable homicide was laid down in the case of-
(a) Reg vs. Govinda
(b) Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab
(c) Tapti Prasad vs. King Emperor
(d) K.M. Nanawati vs. State of Maharashtra

36. Voluntarily causing hurt on grave and sudden provocation to a person is punishable under?
(a) Sec. 331 IPC.
(b) Sec. 332 IPC.
(c) Sec. 333 IPC.
(d) Sec. 334 IPC.

37. A hangman who hangs the prisoner pursuant to the order of the Court, is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of?
(a) Section 77 IPC
(b) Section 79 IPC
(c) Section 78 IPC
(d) Section 76 IPC

38. Which of the following punishments cannot be awarded under Section 53 of IPC?
(a) Forfeiture of property
(b) Rigorous imprisonment
(c) Transportation for life
(d) Death

39. Appropriate government is defined in section-

(a) 354A
(b) 55A
(c) 54A
(d) 53A

40. A finds a ring belonging to Z on a table in house which Z occupies. Here ring is Z's Possession and if A dishonestly
removes it A commits-
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Dacoity
(d) Dishonest misappropriation

41. Which one of the following cased is related to defense of necessity?

(a) M.C Naughten case
(b) D.P.P. Vs. Beard
(c) R. V. Dudley and Stephan
(d) K.M. Nanavati Vs. State of Bombay

42. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment imprisonment for life shall be reckoned as equivalent to—
(a) 20 years
(b) 80 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 30 years

43. Disclosure of identity of victim of rape is punishable under-

(a) Section 376-D, IPC
(b) Section 229, IPC
(c) Section 228, IPC
(d) Section 228-A IPC
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44. A knowing that B has murdered Z assists B to hide body with intention of screening B from punishment A is punishable-
(a) Under section 201
(b) Under section 202
(c) Under section 203
(d) Under section 204

45. Case of Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab is related to?

(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide
(c) Attempt to suicide
(d) Attempt to commit suicide

46. A snake charmer while showing his play claims to cure snake bite; deceased got himself a snake bite believing an
assurance of snake charmer. Snake charmer could not cure deceased; snake charmer is liable for-
(a) Murder
(b) Cheating
(c) May be liable for culpable homicide
(d) Liable for nothing

47. K.M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra is a leading case on -

(a) Insanity
(b) Accident
(c) Forgery
(d) Grave and sudden provocation.

48. A introduces water into ice house belonging to Z and thus causes ice to melt intending wrongful loss to Z. A has
committed-
(a) Cheating
(b) Cheating by presentation.
(c) Mischief
(d) Theft.

49. Electronic Record under IPC is defined in:

(a) Section 29
(b) Section 29A
(c) Section 29B
(d) Section 29D

50. Which one of the following defenses is related to McNaughtens Case (1843)?
(a) Infancy
(b) Insanity
(c) Intoxication
(d) Consent

51. The maxim volenti non fit injuria has been incorporated in which section of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Section 87
(b) Section 90
(c) Section 92
(d) None of the above

52. Under Section 98 of the IPC a person can claim right of Private defense against:
(a) A child below 7 years of age
(b) A person of unsound mind
(c) One who is acting under a mistake of fact?
(d) All of the above

53. The abetment of abetment is an offence. It can be directly deducible from:

(a) Section 107, IPC
(b) Section 108, IPC
(c) Section 109, IPC
(d) Section 110, IPC
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54. Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of sedition?
(a) Dishonest intention
(b) Mala fide intention
(c) Words spoken must cause public disorder by acts of violence
(d) Words spoken must be capable of exciting disaffection towards the government

55. Unlawful Assembly has been defined in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under-
(a) Section 141
(b) Section 146
(c) Section 149
(d) Section 159

56. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code deals with vicarious liability?
(a) Section 120A
(b) Section 121
(c) Section 154
(d) Section 159

57. Bribery is defined in:-

(a) Section 170 of IPC
(b) Section 171B of IPC
(c) Section 171D of IPC
(d) Section 171E of IPC

58. Assault or criminal force with intent to outrage the modesty of women is dealt under ............. Of the Indian Penal
Code, 1860.
(a) Section 363
(b) Section 509
(c) Section 354
(d) Section 511

59. Offences against human body are provided under which of the following chapters of IPC
(a) Chapter XI
(b) Chapter XII
(c) Chapter XIII
(d) Chapter XVI

60. Preparation of which of the following offences is punishable:-

(a) Robbery
(b) Extortion
(c) Riot
(d) Dacoity

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 Code of Criminal Procedure

61. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the term “offence” has been defined?
(a) Section 40
(b) Section 2(n)
(c) Section 2(w)
(d) None of the above

62. The State Government may by notification declare any city or town for the purposes of CrPC as a ‘Metropolitan’,
whose population:
(a) Exceeds ten lacs
(b) Below ten lacs
(c) Is five lacs
(d) None of the above

63. Which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides sentence of imprisonment by the
Court of Magistrate in default of fine?
(a) Section 30
(b) Section 31
(c) Section 32
(d) Section 34

64. Under which section of CrPC a police officer can arrest a person without an order from a Magistrate and without
warrant?
(a) Section 42
(b) Section 40
(c) Section 51
(d) Section 41

65. It is mandatory for a police officer to inform the person arrested, the grounds of arrest and right of bail if the offence
is not-bailable, under:
(a) Section 49 of CrPC
(b) Section 50 of CrPC
(c) Section 51 of CrPC
(d) Section 54 of CrPC

66. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate, with 24 hours of his arrest, under:
(a) Section 56 of CrPC
(b) Section 57 of CrPC
(c) Section 58 of CrPC
(d) Section 59 of CrPC

67. Under which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 summons to produce documents may
be issued to the person in whose possession they are?
(a) Section 90
(b) Section 95
(c) Section 94
(d) Section 91

68. Period of appearance for proclamation issued under Section 82 of CrPC is not less than ___.
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days

69. Which Section of the CrPC resembles with the writ of habeas corpus?
(a) Section 96
(b) Section 97
(c) Section 98
(d) Section 99
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70. Under which section of Criminal Procedure Code, provision for security for keeping the peace on conviction exists?
(a) Section 108
(b) Section 106
(c) Section 109
(d) Section 111

71. Under which section of Code of Criminal Procedure, security is taken of good behavior from habitual offenders?
(a) Section 109
(b) Section 110
(c) Section 111
(d) Section 112

72. According to Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, a Magistrate of the first class can order a monthly
allowance for maintenance of persons mentioned therein for:
(a) Not more than Rs. 500 7
(b) Not mere than Rs. 1, 500
(c) Not more than Rs. 5,000
(d) There is no Limit.

73. In which of the following cases it was held by the Supreme Court that Section 125 CrPC was applicable to all
irrespective of their religion?
(a) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(b) Mohd. Umar Khan v. Gulshan Begum
(c) Subana alias Saira Banu v. A. M. Abdul Gafoor
(d) Sirajmohmed Khan v. Hafizunnissa Yaseen Khan

74. Under which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 monthly allowances or the interim
allowances for maintenance can be altered?
(a) Section 125
(b) Section 126
(c) Section 127
(d) Section 128

75. A Magistrate has power to deal with urgent cases of apprehended danger or nuisance under
(a) Section 133, CrPC
(b) Section 144, CrPC
(c) Section 145, CrPC
(d) Section 107, CrPC

76. An inquest report must contain :

(a) The names of accused
(b) The apparent cause of death
(c) The details of weapons
(d) The details of incident

77. Under which provision of CrPC on receipt of First Information Report for the commission of an offence, the officer-in-
charge of the police station will send the copy to the concerned Magistrate?
(a) Under Section 154 CrPC
(b) Under Section 159 CrPC
(c) Under Section 156 CrPC
(d) Under Section 157 CrPC

78. The investigating police officer in a case has power to require attendance of a person acquainted with the facts and
circumstances of the case under:
(a) Section 158 of CrPC
(b) Section 159 of CrPC
(c) Section 160 of CrPC
(d) Section 161 of CrPC

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79. Statement recorded by police officer during investigation under Section 161 of the Criminal Procedure Code can be
used during trial
(a) For contradicting the witness
(b) For corroborating the witness
(c) Both for (a) and (b)
(d) Neither for (a) nor (b)

80. Who may record a confessional statement under Section 164 CrPC?
(a) Police Officer
(b) Executive Officer
(c) Judicial Magistrate who jurisdiction only
(d) Any Judicial Magistrate

81. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a Criminal Court may under Section 166-A of CrPC issue
a:
(a) Search warrant
(b) Letter of request
(c) Summon
(d) None of the above

82. A Magistrate may not remand the accused to police custody for
(a) More than 24 hours
(b) More than 7 days
(c) More than 14 days
(d) More than 15 days

83. Under Section 167 of the CrPC, the Magistrate can authorize detention for a total period of 90 days during
investigation in cases of offences punishable
(a) With death
(b) With imprisonment for life
(c) With imprisonment for a term not less than 10 years
(d) All the above

84. Which section of the CrPC, 1973 is applied when the officer-in-charge of a police station receives information that a
person has committed suicide?
(a) Section-174
(b) Section-181
(c) Section-154
(d) Section-147

85. Under Section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, cognizance of offence is taken by the:
(a) Judicial Magistrate
(b) Session Judge
(c) High Court
(d) District Magistrate

86. Which one of the following sections provides prosecution of judges under CrPC 1973?
(a) Section 195
(b) Section 196
(c) Section 197
(d) Section 198

87. A case can be committed to the Court of Sessions, by a Magistrate under:

(a) Section 209 of CrPC
(b) Section 323 of CrPC
(c) Section 324 of CrPC
(d) Both (a) and (b)

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88. Filing of list of witnesses by the complainant before issuance of summons or warrant to the accused under Section
204 of CrPC is
(a) Mandatory
(b) Directory
(c) Neither mandatory nor directory
(d) Either mandatory or directory

89. The provision relating to the charge is given under CrPC:

(a) Chapter XVII, Sections 211-224
(b) Chapter XVIII, Sections 211-235
(c) Chapter XVI, Sections 211-224
(d) None of the above

90. For every distinct offence of which any person is accused, there shall be a separate charge, where is the exception
to this rule in CrPC?
(a) Section 219
(b) Sections 220 and 222
(c) Sections 219, 220 and 222
(d) Sections 219, 220, 221 and 223

91. Addition or alteration of charge has been provided under:

(a) Section 214 CrPC
(b) Section 215 CrPC
(c) Section 216 CrPC
(d) Section 218 CrPC

92. The procedure for summons cases is provided in the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code:
(a) Sections 260 to 265
(b) Sections 251 to 259
(c) Sections 238 to 250
(d) Sections 266 to 271

93. Provisions relating to “plea bargaining” is applicable to

(a) Offences affecting socio-economic conditions of India
(b) Offences committed against women
(c) Offences against children below 14 years of age
(d) None of the above

94. Examination of witness in the absence of accused can be done, under:

(a) Section 299 CrPC
(b) Section 321 CrPC
(c) Section 224 CrPC
(d) Section 298 CrPC

95. The Court can record demeanor of a witness under which section of Criminal Procedure Code?
(a) Section 260
(b) Section 279
(c) Section 278
(d) Section 281

96. Which section the CrPC provides that a person once convicted or acquitted cannot be tried again for the same
offence?
(a) Section 304
(b) Section 300
(c) Section 321
(d) Section 302

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97. Which one of the following Sections of CrPC provides free legal aid to the accused?
(a) Section 304
(b) Section 306
(c) Section 301
(d) Section 302

98. Under which section of the CrPC the Court has power to summon any person as a witness at any stage of trial?
(a) Section 309
(b) Section 175
(c) Section 310
(d) Section 311

99. During trial, statements of an accused person are recorded by the court under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,
under:
(a) Section 311
(b) Section 312
(c) Section 313
(d) Section 314

100. When the person competent to compound an offence under Section 320 CrPC is dead, then:
(a) The offence cannot be compounded
(b) The offence can be compounded by the prosecutor
(c) Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the Court
(d) None of the above

101. Which section of CrPC permits the public prosecutor in charge of a case to withdraw prosecution?
(a) Section 304
(b) Section 321
(c) Section 313
(d) Section 323

102. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court has given directions for the medical treatment of the victim of
acid attack?
(a) State of M.P. v. Madan Lal
(b) Laxmi v. Union of India
(c) Jagdar Singh v. State of Haryana
(d) None of the above

103. What is the maximum default sentence that can be awarded in case of non-payment of compensation under Section
358 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973;
(a) 60 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days

104. Which section of CrPC requires confirmation by the High Court of an order of death sentence passed by the Sessions
Court?
(a) Section 366
(b) Section 368
(c) Section 369
(d) Section 371

105. In computing the period of limitation, the period which may be excluded includes the
(a) Time during which any person has been prosecuting with due diligence another prosecution on the same facts,
in good faith and in a court without jurisdiction
(b) Period for which the prosecution in respect of such offence has been stayed by an injunction or order
(c) Period during which the application of the accused for release on bail was pending
(d) Both (a) and (b)

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106. Under Section 372 of CrPC a victim
(a) Can file an appeal against the order of acquittal
(b) Can file an appeal only after obtaining leave from the Appellate Court
(c) Has no right to file an appeal
(d) Should approach the District Magistrate and Public Prosecutor for filing an appeal

107. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the power of Sessions Judge to transfer cases and
appeals?
(a) Section 409
(b) Section 408
(c) Section 407
(d) Section 406

108. Jurisdiction to grant ‘anticipatory bail’ vests with

(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) The Court of Sessions only
(c) The High Court only
(d) Both (b) and (c)

109. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached, can claim the property or the proceeds of the sale, on
appearance:
(a) Within six months
(b) Within two years
(c) Within three years
(d) Within one year

110. Under Section 482 CrPC inherent powers can be exercised by

(a) Sessions Court
(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) High Court
(d) Both by the High Court and Sessions Court

111. No wife shall be-entitled to m maintenance from her husband Section 125 of CrPC if:
(a) She has obtained a divorce from her husband and has not remarried
(b) She is unable to maintain herself
(c) She refused to live with her husband on the ground that keeps a mistress
(d) She is living in adultery

112. Period of limitation for execution of the order of maintenance under Section 125 of CrPC is
(a) One year from the date on which it becomes due
(b) Three years from the date on which it becomes due
(c) Six months from the date on which it becomes due
(d) Three months from the date on which it becomes due

113. Who is authorized for removal of public nuisance?

(a) Judicial Magistrate Ist Class
(b) Judicial Magistrate iind Class
(c) Executive Magistrate
(d) Sessions Judge

114. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Police to prevent Section
(a) -
cognizable offences 149
Power to arrest to prevent
Section
(b) the commission of -
151
cognizable offence
Power to certain armed
Section
(c) forces officers to -
131
dispense assembly
(d) Arrest by Magistrate - Section 45

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115. In a first information an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable the whole case shall be deemed to be:
(a) Cognizable
(b) Non-cognizable
(c) It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
(d) It is to be seen whether it is a summons case

116. A Magistrate has a power to direct the police to investigate into an offence under:
(a) Section 156 (1) CrPC
(b) Section 156 (2) CrPC
(c) Section 156 (3) CrPC
(d) All of these

117. Police diary in an investigation is necessary under

(a) Section 171, CrPC
(b) Section 172, CrPC
(c) Section 173, CrPC
(d) Section 174, CrPC

118. 'A' who is a citizen of India commits murder in Uganda. He is arrested in Delhi. He can be tried and convicted of
murder:
(a) Only in Uganda
(b) Only in that country of which the deceased was a citizen
(c) In any one of the above
(d) In Delhi

119. Section 173 (8) of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with
(a) Fresh investigation
(b) Further investigation
(c) Re investigation
(d) None of the above

120. Section 183 of Criminal Procedure Code

(a) Applies to voyage on the high seas.
(b) Does not apply to voyage on high seas.
(c) Applies to voyage within India as well as on voyage on high seas.
(d) Has been declared unconstitutional.

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 Indian Evidence Act
121. The case of Kashmira Singh v. State of Madhya Pradesh relates to—
(a) Dying declaration
(b) Privileged communication
(c) Confession to police officer
(d) Confession of a co-accused

122. As per section 1 of Indian Evidence Act, the Act came into force on
(a) March 15, 1872
(b) September 1, 1872
(c) September 15, 1872
(d) October 1, 1872

123. ‘Document’ produced for the inspection of the court includes-

1. A written document
2. A caricature
3. An electronic record
4. An inscription on stone
Select the correct answer using the codes given below-
Codes:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

124. What is the meaning of “Not proved” under Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Fact does not exist
(b) Non-existance probable
(c) Court has doubt
(d) Neither proved nor disproved

125. In relation to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Court includes arbitrators
(b) An inscription on a metal-plate is a document
(c) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved
(d) The state of a person’s health is a fact

126. Fact in issue mans the fact, existence or non-existence of which is:
(a) Admitted by the parties
(b) Disputed by the parties
(c) Non-disputed by the parties
(d) None of the above

127. A is accused of the murder of B by beating him. What is not admissible as evidence?
(a) Whatever was said by A or B or by standers at the time of beating
(b) A has intention for murder of B
(c) Marks on the ground of struggle between A and B
(d) A is a man of bad character

128. ’Res gestae’ is an exception to the...........

(a) Hearsay Rule
(b) Relevancy Rule
(c) Circumstantial evidence
(d) None of the above

129. Alibi is governed by

(a) Section 9 of Evidence Act
(b) Section 12 of Evidence Act
(c) Section 10 of Evidence Act
(d) Section 11 of Evidence Act
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130. Provisions relating to estoppel are given under?
(a) Chapter 7 of the Evidence Act
(b) Chapter 8 of the Evidence Act
(c) Chapter 9 of the Evidence Act
(d) Chapter 10 of the Evidence Act

131. The case Dudhnath Pandey v. State of UP is related to

(a) Res Gestae
(b) Plea of alibi
(c) Admission
(d) Accomplice

132. In the Indian Evidence Act previous conviction of a person is relevant under which of the following Sections?
(a) Section 14 Explanation I
(b) Section 14 Explanation II
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 16

133. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act defines admission?
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 17
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 18

134. If an accused voluntarily consents for brain mapping and nacre-analysis, then such information is relevant under
which Section of Evidence Act?
(a) Section 7
(b) Section 17
(c) Section 27
(d) Section 30

135. Which provision of the Indian Evidence Act lays down the rule that in certain circumstances admission can be proved
by or on behalf of the person making it?
(a) Section 18
(b) Section 19
(c) Section 20
(d) Section 21

136. Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

(a) Relevance of admissions in civil cases.
(b) Relevance of oral admissions as to contents of documents
(c) Relevance of oral admissions as to contents of electronic documents
(d) None of the above

137. In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 27 was challenged for violation of Article 20(3) of the
Constitution?
(a) State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu
(b) Mirza Akbar v. King Emperor
(c) State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhaya
(d) Queen Emperor v. Abdullah

138. The constitutionality of which Section of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged in “State of U.P. v. Deoman
Upadhyaya” for the violation of Article 14 of the Constitution?
(a) Section 25
(b) Section 26
(c) Section 27
(d) Section 28

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139. Confession of an accused is admissible against the other co-accused
(a) Under Section 28 of the Evidences Act
(b) Under Section 29 of the Evidence Act
(c) Under Section 30 of the Evidence Act
(d) Under Section 31 of the Evidence Act

140. Admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but they may operate as:
(a) Res judicata
(b) Estoppels
(c) Res gestae
(d) All of these

141. Provisions Section 32(1) of Evidence Act are attracted, where—what is not true?
(a) The cause of death is required to be ascertained
(b) The deceased statement is related to the cause of death
(c) To circumstances connected with death
(d) Verbal statement is not admissible

142. A dying declaration is admissible

(a) Only in criminal proceedings
(b) Only in civil proceedings
(c) Both in civil as well as criminal proceedings
(d) In criminal proceedings alone and not in civil proceedings

143. ‘Necessity rule’ as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in

(a) Section 61 of Evidence Act
(b) Section 60 of Evidence Act
(c) Section 32 of Evidence Act
(d) Section 31 of Evidence Act

144. The principle of ‘res judicata’ is provided in which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Section 140
(b) Section 40
(c) Section 160
(d) Section 164

145. The presumption under Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act is

(a) A presumption of fact
(b) A rebuttable presumption of law
(c) An irrebuttable presumption of law
(d) A presumption of law and fact

146. Expert opinion is relevant under Section ............. Of the Indian Evidence Act
(a) Section 41
(b) Section 43
(c) Section 44
(d) Section 45

147. The ‘relationship’ in Section 50 of the Evidence Act means:

(a) Relationship by blood only
(b) Relationship by blood or marriage
(c) Relationship by blood or marriage or adoption
(d) None of the above

148. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act bad character of an accused is not relevant?
(a) Section 54
(b) Section 52
(c) Section 53
(d) Section 118

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149. Confession can be result of self-talk, communication of confession to another person is not necessary, was held in
the case of
(a) Sankaria v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Butta Singh v. State of Punjab
(c) Sahoo v. State of U.P.
(d) Nishikant Jha v. State of Bihar

150. A, who is unable to speak, gives evidence in writing in an open court. Evidence so given by A shall be considered.
(a) Documentary evidence
(b) Circumstantial evidence
(c) Oral evidence
(d) Secondary evidence

151. Which of the following facts need not to be proved?

(a) The facts which are covered under the Doctrine of Res gestae.
(b) The facts which are written in the police statement.
(c) The facts which are admitted.
(d) None of the above

152. Contents of a documents under Section 59 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(a) Can be proved by oral evidence
(b) Cannot be proved by oral evidence
(c) May or may not be proved by oral evidence
(d) Can only be proved by oral evidence under the orders of the court

153. The primary evidence in respect of a document, which is prepared in many original copies, will be:-
(a) First original copy
(b) All original copies
(c) All copies are secondary evidence
(d) None of the above

154. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act the contents of electronic records may be proved?
(a) Section 65-A
(b) Section 65-B
(c) Section 66
(d) Section 67

155. For proving execution of a registered will-

(a) Be necessary to call at least two attesting witness
(b) Be necessary to call at least one attesting witness
(c) Not necessary to call any attesting witness
(d) Be necessary to call the registrar

156. In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 73 of the Evidence Act was challenged for violation of
Article 20(3) of the Constitution?
(a) State of Bombay v. Kathikalu
(b) Rattan Singh v. Himachal Pradesh
(c) Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P.
(d) None of the above

157. Which of the following Section defines public documents?

(a) Section 34
(b) Section 35
(c) Section 74
(d) Section 78

158. The provision relating to presumption as to telegraphic message is embodied in the Evidence Act vide Section-
(a) 83
(b) 85
(c) 87
(d) 88
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159. Which provision of the Evidence Act relates to presumption as to document thirty years old (Ancient documents)?
(a) Section 89
(b) Section 90
(c) Section 90A
(d) Section 91

160. Chapter V of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

(a) Oral evidence
(b) Documentary evidence
(c) Burden of proof
(d) Witnesses

161. “Written document must be proved by writing only”, this maxim has been incorporated under which of the following
sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(a) Section 87
(b) Section 91
(c) Section 121
(d) None of the above

162. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is not on ‘shifting of burden of proof’?
(a) Section 101
(b) Section 102
(c) Section 105
(d) Section 108

163. ‘A’ wishes to prove a dying declaration by ‘B’. The burden to prove that ‘B’ is dead is on:
(a) The state
(b) Family members of ‘B’
(c) Legal Heir of ‘B’
(d) ‘A’

164. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is related with doctrine of ‘Res ipsa loquitor’?
(a) Section 102
(b) Section 104
(c) Section 106
(d) Section 108

165. The presumption of continuance of life is contained in Section...............of the Evidence Act
(a) 107
(b) 108
(c) 207
(d) 115

166. Legitimacy of child born during valid marriage is presumed under which Provision of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Section-115
(b) Section-114
(c) Section-112
(d) Section-113.

167. Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act was added in:
(a) Year 1982
(b) Year 1983
(c) Year 1988
(d) Year 1980

168. Presumption under Section 113A of Indian Evidence Act pertains to

(a) Dowry death
(b) Custodial death
(c) Abatement of suicide by a married Woman
(d) Absence of consent in certain prosecutions for rape

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169. Presumption as to dowry death is laid down in
(a) Section 113-B
(b) Section 114
(c) Section 117
(d) Section 118

170. Which case relates to estoppel?

(a) Mohiribibi v. Dharam Das Ghoush
(b) Hadley v. Bexandale
(c) Pickard v. Sears
(d) Lalman Shuklu v. Gauri Dutt

171. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the evidence of a dumb witness is taken into
consideration?
(a) Section 116
(b) Section 117
(c) Section 118
(d) Section 119

172. Under which Section of the Evidence Act, a Judge cannot be compelled to answer any question as to his own conduct
in court as such Judge:-
(a) Section 123
(b) Section 122
(c) Section 121
(d) Section 120

173. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a public servant shall not be compelled to disclose
communication made to him in official confidence?
(a) Section 123
(b) Section 124
(c) Section 125
(d) Section 126

174. Which of the following is a mismatch?

(a) Matrimonial communication—Section 122
(b) Official communication—Section 124
(c) Professional communication—Section 126
(d) Confidential communication with legal advisor—Section 127

175. “An accomplice is a competent witness against an accused” is provided in which of the following Section of Indian
Evidence Act?
(a) Section 130
(b) Section 131
(c) Section 132
(d) Section 133

176. One of the most important principles of the law of evidence is that “evidence is to be weighed and not to be counted.”
This has been incorporated under which Section of Indian Evidence Act, ' 1872 mainly under
(a) Section 132
(b) Section 133
(c) Section 123
(d) Section 134

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177. Leading questions can be asked:
1. In cross-examination
2. On matters which are undisputed
3. In re-examination
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

178. The provision relating to “hostile witness” is provided in:

(a) Section 154 of the Evidence Act
(b) Section 155 of the Evidence Act
(c) Section 114 of the Evidence Act
(d) Section 133 of the Evidence Act

179. Under which Section of Evidence Act the witness has been given right to refresh his memory?
(a) Section 145
(b) Section 159
(c) Section 165
(d) Section 157

180. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, a judge is empowered to ask any question relevant or irrelevant to
a witness or a party to a suit?
(a) Section 164
(b) Section 165
(c) Section 166
(d) None of the above

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 Answer Key

IPC

1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. c
11. c 12. d 13. c 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. c
21. b 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. d
31. d 32. b 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. a
41. c 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. b
51. a 52. d 53. b 54. b 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. d

CrPC

61. a 62. a 63. a 64. d 65. b 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. b 70. b
71. b 72. d 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. b 77. d 78. c 79. a 80. d
81. b 82. d 83. d 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. a 89. a 90. d
91. c 92. b 93. d 94. a 95. a 96. b 97. a 98. d 99. c 100. c
101. b 102. b 103. b 104. a 105. d 106. a 107. b 108. d 109. b 110. c
111. d 112. a 113. c 114. d 115. a 116. c 117. b 118. d 119. b 120. b

IEA
121. d 122. b 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. b 127. d 128. a 129. d 130. b
131. b 132. b 133. b 134. c 135. d 136. a 137. a 138. c 139. c 140. b
141. d 142. c 143. c 144. b 145. c 146. d 147. c 148. a 149. c 150. c
151. c 152. b 153. b 154. b 155. b 156. a 157. c 158. d 159. b 160. b
161. b 162. a 163. d 164. c 165. a 166. c 167. b 168. c 169. a 170. c
171. d 172. c 173. b 174. d 175. d 176. d 177. c 178. a 179. b 180. b

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