Subject: Automobile Engineering - Ii Branch: Mechanical Engineering Class: BE Semester: VIII

MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Subject: AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING - II
Branch: MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q.1.When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
A. Mechanical energy
B. Heat energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Potential energy
Ans.: B
Q. 2.The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on

A. The weight of vehicle
B. The deceleration rate
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q.3.The following is not a drum brake

A. External contracting brake
B. Internal expanding brake
C. Disc brake
D. All of the above
Ans.: C
Q.4.The hand brake of the automobile is usually

C. Disc brake
D. All of the above
Ans.: A
Q.5.In disc brake, the disc is attached to the
A. Wheel
B. Axle
C. Suspension system
Ans.: B
Q.6. The mechanical brakes are operated by means of

A. Levers
B. Bell cranks
C. Cams
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.7. In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of

A. Atmospheric valve
B. Vacuum valve
C. Both (A) and (B)
Ans.: C
Q.8. Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of
A. Law of conservation of momentum

B. Law of conservation of energy
C. Pascal’s law
Ans.: C
Q.9. The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to

A. Builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
B. Maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
C. Serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.10. Tandem master cylinder consists of

A. One cylinder and one reservoir
B. Two cylinders and one reservoir
C. One cylinder and two reservoirs
D. Two cylinders and two reservoirs
Ans.: D
Q.11. Hand brake is applicable to

A. Only front wheels
B. Only rear wheels
C. Both front and rear wheels
D. All of the above
Ans.: B
Q.12. Brake is used to ____ the energy possessed by a moving system or mechanism by
means of friction.
A. Absorb
B. Release
C. Minimize
D. Maximize
Ans.: A
Q.13. The energy absorbed by the brake is

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Both (A) and (B)
Ans.: C
Q.14. Internal and External expanding shoe brakes are

A. Radial brakes
B. Axial brakes
C. Both (A) and (B)
Ans.: A
Q.15. Brake capacity depends upon

A. The coefficient of friction
B. The contacting area of braking surface
C. The unit pressure between braking surfaces
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.16. The process of removing air from the brake system is known as
A. Energization
B. Bleeding
C. Self energizing
D. Servo action
Ans.: B
Q.17. The power brake may be exerted by

A. Air pressure
B. Engine vacuum
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.18. The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes
A. Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes
B. Area of brake linings
C. Radius of car wheel
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.19. In brakes, the wear occurs on the
A. A Brake drum
B. B Friction lining
C. C Both (A) and (B)
D. D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q.20.The brake drum is made of

A. Cast iron
B. Steel
C. Aluminium
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.21.In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
A. Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
B. Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
C. Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
D. Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
Ans.: A
Q.22.The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage
current upto about
A. 10,000 volts
B .17,000 volts
C. 25,000 volts
D.35,000 volts
Ans.: C
Q.23.In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary
windings is about
A. 1 to 50
B. 1 to 100
C. 1 to 200
D. 1 to 400
Ans.: B
Q.24. The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system
A. It operates break and make mechanism
B .It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
C. Both (A) and (B)
Ans.: C
Q.25. The _____ provides a reservoir for the current induced in the primary circuit
at the time of break.
A.Induction coil
B. Distributor
C. Condenser
D. Governor
Ans.: C
Q.26.In Magneto Ignition system

A. No battery is required
B. Engine starting is rather difficult
C. used in high speed engines
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.27. The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’

A. Battery coil ignition system
B. Magneto Ignition system
C. Electronic Ignition system
D. Capacitive discharge Ignition system
Ans.: C
Q.28. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following

A. Battery
B. Alternators
C. Lighting systems
D. All of the mentioned
Ans.: D
Q.29. At the start of the engine, the charging voltage is _______

A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Same
D. Zero
Ans.: B
Q.30. What is the material of an alternator frame?

A. Cast iron
B. Brass
C. Copper
D Aluminum
Ans.: D
Q.31. If the lead-acid cell has a total of 17 cells, then what is the number of positive
plates?
A. 9
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6
Ans.: B
Q.32. Active materials of a lead acid cell are

A. Spongy lead
B. Lead peroxide
C. Dilute H2SO4
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.33. Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs due to

A. Heavy charging
B. Fast charging
C. Trickle charging
D. Incomplete charging
Ans.: D
Q.34. During the charging of a lead acid cell

A. It's voltage increases
B. It gives out energy
C. It's cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
D. Specific gravity of H2 SO4 decreases
Ans.: A
Q.35. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead acid battery
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. Becomes zero
Ans.: A
Q.36. When a lead acid battery is in fully charged condition the colour of its
positive plate is
A. Dark green
B. Brown
C. Dark brown
Ans.: C
Q.37. Which of the following instrument is used to measure the specific gravity of
Electrolyte?
A. Barometer.
B. Hygroscope.
C. Hydroscope.
D. Lactometer.
Ans.: C
Q.38. Which of the following is the advantage of alkaline battery?
A High energy density
B. Good discharge characteristics over a wide range of temperature
C.The specific gravity of electrolyte remains the same
D.Cheap raw materials are used
Ans.: C
Q.39. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of

A. Current rating
B. Voltage rating
C. Ampere hour rating
Ans.: C
Q.40. On over charging a battery
A. It will bring about chemical change in active materials

B. It will increase the capacity of the battery
C. It will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
Ans.: D
Q.41.In engine _____ period of a cycle is required for cooling the engine.
A. 1/10
B.3/10
C. ½
D.9/10
Ans.: D
Q.42. In engine about ______ % of the heat energy is actually converted into
mechanical work.
A. 25
B. 40
C. 55
D. 70
Ans.: A
Q.43. The greater the temperature difference
A. Higher is the heat transfer rate

B. Lower is the heat transfer rate
C. There is no difference in heat transfer rate
D. Any of the above
Ans.: A
Q.44. An antifreeze mixture is used to achieve
A. Freezing point depression

B. Boiling point elevation
C. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Ans.: C
Q.45. The following is (are) used as antifreeze is
A. Ethylene glycol
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Methyl Alcohol
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.46. The following is (are) the advantage(s) of water cooling over air cooling system.
A. Mechanical noise is reduced
B. Temperature of engine parts is more uniform
Ans.: C
Q.47. The purpose of radiator is ______ of heat to the atmosphere.

A. Dissipation
B. Radiation
C. Convection
D. Conduction
Ans.: A
Q.48. In radiator…….
A. Relatively small amount of water are brought into contact with large surface areas of
metal
B. Relatively large amount of water are brought into contact with small surface areas of metal
C. Equal amount of water are brought into contact with equal surface areas of metal
D. Any of the above
Ans.: A
Q.49. The following carries coolant between the engine water jackets and the radiator.
A. Heater hose
B. Radiator hose
C. Engine hose
Ans.: B
Q.50. A typical cooling system circuit has the thermostat between
A. Engine outlet and radiator
B. Radiator outlet and engine inlet
Ans.: C
Q.51. Radiators are

A. Heat exchangers
B. Economizers
C. Pre-heaters
Ans.: A
Q.52. The following type of pump is used in car to circulate coolant in forced water
cooling system.
A. Vane type
B. Gear type
C. Screw type
D. Centrifugal type
Ans.: D
Q.53. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temperature of

A. Engine piston
B. Engine cylinder
C. Lubricating oil
D. Jacket cooling water
Ans.: D
Q.54. water circulation in thermosyphon cooling system is caused by

A. Conduction currents
B. A belt driven water impeller
C. A gear driven water pump
D. The change in density of water
Ans.: D
Q.55. The thermostat used in the majority of modern engine cooling system is a type
called
A.wax
B. Bellows
C. Bi-metal
D. Alcohol
Ans.: A
Q.56. The device in the cooling system that increases the boiling point of the water in the
system is called
A. Radiator
B. Drain plug
C. Water jacket
D. Pressure Cap
E. Vaccume valve
Ans.: D
Q.57. Exhaust Gas Leakage in to the Cooling system is most likely to be due to Defective
A. Cylinder head gasket
B. Manifold gasket
C. water pump
D. Radiator
E. Any of the above
Ans.: A
Q.58. Radiator tubes are generally made up of

A. Steel
B. Brass
C. Cast iron
D. Plastics
E. Rubber
Ans.: B
Q.59. which of the following method is used in engine cooling?

A. Air cooling
B. Water cooling
C. Both A & B
Ans.: C
Q.60. which of the following is much better Heat Conductor

A. Cast iron
B. Steel
C. Aluminium
Ans.: C
Model Question Paper
Subject: Automobile Engg - II
Branch:Mechanical
Class-B.E
Semester-VIII
1.The radiator tubes are manufactured byusing

a. Cast irontubes
b. Aluminumtubes
c. Brass tubes
d. Steel tubes
Ans:c
2. Ifweknowtheenginespeed,,stroke,numberofcylindersandm.e.pinthecylinders,wecancalculate
a. FHP
b. IHP
c. BHP
Ansb
3. Knowing the IHP and FHP of an engine, we cancalculate

a. Compressionratio
b. rpm
c. SAF
d. BHP
Ans:d
4. Which one of the following is not a trade name of tractor inIndia

a. Kirloskar
b. Escort
c. Standard
d. HMT
Ans:c
5. Theratiobetweenthepoweroutputofanengineandtheenergyinthefuelburnedtoproducethatpoweriscalled
a. Volumetricefficiency
b. Thermalefficiency
c. Mechanicalefficiency
Ans:b
6. TheairvolumeinthecylinderwiththepistonatB.D.Cdividedbytheclearancevolumeiscalled
a. Compressionratio
b. Pistondisplacement
c. Cylinder ratio
Ans:a
7.The power used in overcoming friction in the engine iscalled

a. BHP
b. IHP
c. FHP
Ans:c
8. The
averagepressureduringthepowerstrokeminustheaveragepressureduringtheintake,compres
sion and exhaust strokes iscalled
a. IHP
b. Compressionratio
c. BHP
d. m.e.p.
Ans:d
9. IHP minus FHPequals

a. BHP
b. SAF
c. HP
d.m.e.p
Ans:a
10. Engine torque is highestat

a. Highspeed
b. Lowspeed
c. Intermediate speed
Ans:c
11. BHP divided by IHPis

a. Thermalefficiency
b. Mechanicalefficiency
c. Volumetricefficiency
Ans:b
12. Thepercentageoftheenergyinthepetrolburntintheenginewhichisactuallyutilizedinp
ropellingthe car is as littleas
a.25%
b.60%
b.35%
d.15%
Ans:a
13. Inthedieselengine,thecompressionratioisashighas
a.10:1
b.15:1
c.5:1
Ans: b
14. The device for smoothing out the power impulses from the engine is calledthe
a. Flywheel
b. Camshaft
c. Crankshaft
d.Clutch
Ans:a
15. Theamountofairfuelmixturetakeninbytheengineonthesuctionstrokeisameasureoftheengine’s
a. Compressionratio
b. Volumetricefficiency
c. Clearance
d. volume
Ans:b
16. The size of an engine cylinder is referred to in terms ofits

a. Diameter andbore
b. Bore andlength
c. Bore and stroke
Ans:c
17. In an operating engine, the hottest part of the piston isthe

a. Head
b. Ringgrooves
c. Skirt
d. Pin bosses
Ans:a
18. In normal operation the part of the exhaust valve that gets the hottestis
a. Face
b. Middle ofStem
c. Centre ofhead
d. Edge of
margin
Ans:c
19. The power developed inside the engine cylinder iscalled

a. IHP
b. FHP
c. BHP
Ans:a
20. The ratio of the cylinder volume at BDC and the clearance volume iscalled
a. Clearanceratio
b. Volumetricratio
c. Compression ratio
Ans:c
21. Asarulewhencomparingthefrontandrearwheelcylinderpistons,itwillbefoundthatthep
istonsinthe front wheel cylindersare
a. The samesize
b. Larger indiameter
c. Smaller indiameter
Ans:b
22. Twisting and untwisting of the crankshaft iscalled

a. Torsionalvibration
b. Powerimpulsion
c. Torsional
balance Ans:a
23. The rotating effect of the connecting rod on the connecting rod bearingproduces
a. Pressureload
b. Inertiaload
c. Centrifugal load
Ans:c
24. Important bearing characteristicsinclude

a. Embeddability, compression andfatigue
b. Exbeddability,conformabilityandfatiguere
sistance
Ans:b
25. In the engine there must be relative motion between the piston and the connectingrod
a. Atmospheric pressure, inertia and torsionalvibration
b. Centrifugal force, inertia and combustionpressure
c. Inertia,enginespeedandcentrifugalforce
Ans:b
26. Two of the three connecting rod bearing loads that increase as engine speeds increaseare
a. Centrifugal and inertialoads
b. Torsional and pressureloads
c. Pressure and inertialoads
d. Pressure and
centrifugalloads
Ans:a
27. Whendifferentforcesactatanglesonconnectingrodbearing,thecombiningoftheseforcesproducesa
a. Remainingforce
b. Cancelingforce
c. Resultant force
Ans:c
28.The active material in a charged negative plateis

a. Leadsulphate
b. Leadperoxide
c. Leadmetal
d. Lead perchloride
Ans:c
29. The tree general types of friction bearingsare

a. Journal, ball androller
b. Journal, guide andthrust
c. Journal, shaft
andthrust
Ans:b
30. Petrol and Gasoline is called a hydrocarbon because it consists essentiallyof

a. Carbon andHydrogen
b. Oxygen andHydrogen
c. Carbon andOxygen
Ans:a
31. Almost all bearing used in automotive enginesare

a. Guidebearings
b. Frictionbearings
c. Antifriction bearings
Ans:b
32. The brake shoes are curved to conform to the inner diameter ofthe
a. Tyre
b. Wheel
c. Pedal
d. Brake drum
Ans:d
33. It is cheaper if we use gasketsof

a. Rubber asbestostype
b. Copper asbestostype
c. Steel asbestostype
Ans:a
34. With an increase in temperature the resistance of carbonis

a. Unchanged
b. Decreased
c. Increased
Ans: c
35. When petrol burns completely, two of the compounds that are formedare
a. Carbon dioxide andwater
b. Water andoxygen
c. Hydrocarbon andoxygen
Ans:a
36. Due to heat of combustion, with increase in temperature themolecules

a. Moveslower
b. Vaporize
c. Move faster
Ans:c
37. When air is heated,it

a. Contractsand becomesheavier
b. Expands and becomesheavier
c. Expands and becomeslighter

Ans:c
38.Changing position of an object against an opposing force iscalled

a. Power
b. Torque
c. Energy
d. Work
Ans:d
39. A liquid that boils at a relatively high temperature is said tohave

a. A lowviscosity
b. A highviscosity
c. A highvolatility
d. A lowvolatility
Ans:d
40. The ease with which a liquid changes to a vapour is calledits

a. Vapourability
b. Boilingpoint
c. Viscosity
d. Volatility
Ans:d
41. Thepumppartthatrotatesandcauseswatercirculationbetweentheradiatorandengineiscalled
a. Impeller
b. Fan
c. Bypass
Ans:a
42. The bearing having the least friction isthe

a. Sleevebearing
b. Antifrictionbearing
c. Friction
bearing
Ans:b
43. Conformability of an engine bearingis

a. Ability of a bearing to withstand the wear andtear
b. Resistivity tocorrosion
c. Ability of the bearing to adjust itself to variations in shaft alignment and journalshape
d. Abilityofabearingtopermitforeignparticlestoembedinit
Ans:c
44. The most commonly used material for tyre tubesis

a. Butyl
b. Naturalrubber
c. Butane
Ans:a
45. When the plates of battery cell are made larger in size, we get increased…………
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Cellresistance
Ans:a
46. When preparing electrolyte, it is important to rememberthat

a. Acidand water should be pouredtogether
b. Water should be poured intoacid
c. Acid should be poured intowater

Ans:c
47. Aluminum alloy pistons are preferredbecause

a. They are good absorbers ofshock
b. They are having lessweight
c. Theyhave good waterresistance
d. Theyareverystrongintension
Ans:b
48. The material used for the piston of modern passenger carsare
a. Brasspistons
b. Cast ironpistons
c. Aluminiun alloypistons
d. Steel pistons
Ans:c
49. Piston compression rings are manufacturedby

a. Aluminium
b. Castiron
c. Steel
d. Bronze
Ans:b
50.Gudgeon pins or piston pins are madeby

a. Piston materialitself
b. Cork
c. Castiron
d. Hardened and groundsteel
Ans:d
51 The radiator tubes are manufactured byusing
a. Cast irontubes
b. Aluminumtubes
c. Brass tubes
d. Steel tubes
Ans:c
52 Ifweknowtheenginespeed,bore,stroke,numberofcylindersandm.e.pinthecylinders,wecancalculate
a. FHP
b. IHP
c. BH
Ans :b
53 Knowing the IHP and FHP of an engine, we cancalculate

a. rpm
b. SAF
c. BHP
d. Compression ratio
Ans:c
54 Which one of the following is not a trade name of tractor inIndia

a. Kirloskar
b. Escort
cStandard
Ans:c
55. The ratio between the power output of an engine and the energy in the fuel burned to produce that
power is called
a. Volumetric efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency
c. Mechanical efficiency
Ans:b
56. The air volume in the cylinder with the piston at B.D.C divided by the clearance volume is called
a. Compression ratio
b. Piston displacement
c. Cylinder ratio
Ans:a
57. The power used in overcoming friction in the engine is called

a. BHP
b. IHP
c. FHP
Ans:c
58. The average pressure during the power stroke minus the average pressure during
the intake, compression and exhaust strokes is called
a. IHP
b. Compression ratio
c. BHP
d. m.e.p.
Ans:d
59. IHP minus FHP equals

a. BHP
b. SAF
c. HP
d. m.e.p
Ans:a
60. Engine torque is highest at

a. High speed
b. Lows peed
c. Intermediate speed
Ans:c
Subject – Automobile Engineering – II
UNIT – I
1-When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Potential energy
(Ans: B)
2-The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on

(A) the weight of vehicle
(B) the deceleration rate
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)
3-The following is not a drum brake

(A) External contracting brake
(B) Internal expanding brake
(C) Disc brake
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)
4-The hand brake of the automobile is usually

(C) Disc brake
(Ans: A)
5-In disc brake, the disc is attached to the

(A) wheel
(B) axle
(C) suspension system
(D) none of the above
(Ans: B)
6-The mechanical brakes are operated by means of

(A) levers
(B) bell cranks
(C) cams
(D) all of the above
(Ans: D)
7-In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of

(A) Atmospheric valve
(B) Vacuum valve
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(Ans: C)
8-Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of

(A) Law of conservation of momentum
(B) Law of conservation of energy
(C) Pascal’s law
(Ans: C)
9-The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to

(A) Builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
(B) Maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
(C) Serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
(Ans: D)
10-Tandem master cylinder consists of

(A) One cylinder and one reservoir
(B) Two cylinders and one reservoir
(C) One cylinder and two reservoirs
(D) Two cylinders and two reservoirs
(Ans: D)
11-Hand brake is applicable to

(A) Only front wheels
(B) Only rear wheels
(C) Both front and rear wheels
(Ans: B)
12-The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes

(A) Area of brake linings
(B) Radius of car wheel
(C) Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes
(Ans: D)
13-Servo action is to
(A) The amplification of braking forces
(B) Increase force of friction between shoe and wheel
(C) Transfer of weight during stop
(Ans: A)
14-The power brake may be exerted by

(A) Electrical energy
(B) Engine vacuum
(C) Air pressure
(Ans: A)
15-The process of removing air from the brake system is known as

(A) Bleeding
(B) self-energizing
(C) Servo action
(D) Energization
(Ans: A)
16-Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?

a) Drum brake
b) Disk brake
c) Shoe brake
d) Double shoe
(Ans: B)
17- The metering valve is used to proportion the braking effect between the front
and the rear axle.
(A) True
(B) False
(Ans B)
18- On what principle does the braking system in the car work?
(A) Frictional force
(B) Gravitational force
(C) Magnetic force
(D) Electric force
(Ans A)
19- In a disc brake, which component provides the pad-to-disc adjustment?
(A) Bleed screw
(B) Piston
(C) Caliper
(D) Piston seal
(Ans D)
20- -The brake drum is made of
(A)Cast iron
(B)Steel
(C)Aluminium
(D)All of the above
(Ans D)
UNIT – II
1- Automotive Battery is also known as___________

(A) Lithium iron battery
(B) Lead-Acid storage battery
(C) Zinc carbon battery
(D) Weston cell battery
(Ans:B )
2- What is present inside the battery?
(A) Electrolyte
(B) Fluid
(C) Acid
(D) Steam
(Ans: A)
3- How many key switch position are there in general in ignition switch
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(Ans: D)
4- The magneto ignition system
(A) No battery is required
(B) Engine starting is rather difficult
(C) Used in high speed engine
(Ans: D)
5- In four cylinder in-line engine , the probable firing order is
(A) 1-3-4-2
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-4-1-3
(D) 2-1-3-2
(Ans:A )
6- The following is known as “Breakless ignition system”
(A) Battery coil ignition system
(B) Magneto ignition system
(C) Electronic ignition system
(D) Capacitive discharge ignition system
(Ans: C)
7- When insulating material is commonly used in spark plug?
(A) Polystyrene
(B) Polyisocyaurate
(C) Porcelain
(D) Polyurethane
(Ans: C)
8- A starting system include,
(A) A battery, a starter and an ignition switch
(B) A battery, a distributor and an ignition switch
(C) A battery, a starter and a distributor
(D) A distributor, a starter and an ignition switch
(Ans: A)
9- At zero in an induction motor
(A) Motor runs as a generator
(B) Motor does not run
(C) The motor runs an at synchronous speed
(D) Slip produced is zero
(Ans: B)
10- The cheapest starter for induction motor is
(A) Starter resistance starter
(B) Autotransformer starter
(C) Star-delta starter
(D) Rotor resistance starter
(Ans: C)
11- instrument is used for adjusting the ignition timing
(A) Accurate clock
(B) Tachometer
(C) Stopwatch
(D) Stroboscopic light
(Ans: D)
12- Which of the following firing order is commonly used for the four-cylinder
vertical engine?
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 3-4-1-2
(C) 4-3-2-1
(D) 1-3-4-2
(Ans: D)
13- What is the dwell time?

(A) It is the time for which the contact breaker points remain closed
(B) It is the time for which the contact breaker points remain open
(C) The time during which inlet and exhaust valves open
(D) The time during which inlet and exhaust valves close
(Ans: A)
14- Which of the following is not considered while deciding the optimum firing
order of the engine?
(A) Engine vibration
(B) Engine cooling
(C) Development of the backpressure
(D) Engine configuration
(Ans: D)
15- Why is the Dwell meter used?

(A) To set the spark plug gap
(B) To set the ignition advance
(C) To set the contact breaker gap
(D) To set ignition timing
(Ans: C)
16- Which of the following is the disadvantage of the magneto ignition system?
(A) Magneto ignition system has a poor quality of spark during starting
(B) Magneto ignition system occupies more space
(C) Magneto ignition system has more maintenance problems
(D) Magneto ignition system is used largely in four wheels
(Ans: A)
17- For how many times the contact breaker must make and break the circuit for
a four-cylinder engine operating at N rpm?
(A) N times
(B) 1.5N times
(C) N/2 times
(D) 2N times
(Ans: D)
18- Which of the following is the wrong statement?

(A) In the exhaust, retarded timing causes burning of the hydrocarbons
(B) The retarded timing improves fuel economy
(C) The retarded timing requires the small opening for correct burning of
the fuel
(D) The exhaust gas temperature becomes higher due to retarded time
(Ans: B)
19- On which condition does the vacuum advance mechanism shift the ignition
point?
(A) Under part-load operation
(B) Under full load operation
(C) Under no-load operation
(D) Under sudden acceleration
(Ans: A)
20- The optimum spark timing must be retarded for the engine operating with a
rich mixture.
(A) True
(B) False
(Ans: B)
UNIT – III
1- Select the wrong characteristics of refrigerant

(A) Low latent heat
(B) Low boiling point
(C) High thermal conductivity
(Ans: A)
2- Freon group of refrigerant are
(A) Inflammable
(B) Toxic
(C) Non-inflammable and toxic
(D) Non-Toxic and non-inflammable
(Ans: D)
3- A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism
of human body is equal to the
(A) Heat dissipated to the surrounding
(B) Heat stored in the human body
(C) Sum of A and B
(D) Difference of A and B
(Ans: C)
4- The process of supplying the intake air to the engine cylinder at a pressure
greater than the pressure of the surrounding atmosphere is known as
(A) Supercharging
(B) Auto ignition
(C) Scavenging
(D) Detonation
(Ans: A)
5- The Commonly used antifreeze solution in automobile is
(A) Carbon disulphide
(B) Ethelyn glycol
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) From 12
(Ans: B)
6- The process of removing the burnt Gases from the engine cylinder by the
fresh charge coming into the engine cylinder from the crankcase known as
(A) Cleaning
(B) Priming
(C) Scavenging
(D) Detonation
(Ans: C)
7- The function of a radiator fan in the cooling system is that
(A) It blows air through the radiator when necessary
(B) It is turned by wind force as the vehicle moves forward and its
rotation drive the water pump
(C) It cools the engine by blowing air into the cylinder block
(D) It draws heat out of the engine compartment
(Ans: A)
8- The heat transfer from coolant to air in the radiator of an automobile engine
take place by
(A) Radiation only
(B) Convection only
(C) Radiation and convection
(D) Conduction , convection and radiation
(Ans: C)
9- In engine ______ period a cycle is required for cooling the engine
(A) 1/10
(B) 3/10
(C) ½
(D) 9/10
(Ans: D)
10- In engine about ______% of the heat energy is actually convert into
mechanical work
(A) 25
(B) 40
(C) 55
(D) 70
(Ans: 25)
11- The greater the temperature difference
(A) Higher is the heat transfer rate
(B) Lower is the heat transfer rate
(C) There is no difference in heat transfer rate
(D) Any of the above
(Ans: A)
12- An antifreeze mixture is used to achieve
(A) Freezing point depression
(B) Boiling point elevation
(C) Both A and B
(Ans: C)
13- The following carries coolant between the engine water jacket and the
radiator
(A) Heater hose
(B) Radiator hose
(C) Engine hose
(Ans: B)
14- A typical cooling system circuit has the thermostat between
(A) Engine outlet and radiator
(B) Radiator outlet and engine inlet
(C) Both A and B
(Ans: C)
15- The following type of pump is used in a car to circulate coolant in forced
water cooling system
(A) Bane type
(B) Gear type
(C) Screw type
(D) Centrifugal type
(Ans: D)
16- The purpose of radiator is______ of heat to the atmosphere
(A) Dissipation
(B) Radiation
(C) Convection
(D) Conduction
(Ans: A)
17- The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temp of
(A) Engine pistons
(B) Engine cylinder
(C) Lubricating oil
(D) Jacket cooling water
(Ans: D)
18- If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then engine oil
(A) Appears milky
(B) Become foamy
(C) Turns back
(D) None of these
(Ans: A)
19- In motorcycle, the following type cooling system is used
(A) Air cooling system
(B) Water cooling system
(C) Both A and B
(Ans: A)
20- The cooling fan is
(A) Fitted between the engine and the radiator
(B) Driven by belt and pulleys
(C) Driven from the cam shaft
(Ans: D)
DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
CLASS: B.E. SUBJECT: AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING – II (ELECTIVE III)
1- When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
a. Mechanical energy
b. Heat energy
c. Electrical energy
d. Potential energy
(Ans.: b)
2- The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on

a. the weight of vehicle
b. the deceleration rate
c. both a and b
d. None of the above
(Ans.: C)
3- The following is not a drum brake

a. External contracting brake
b. Internal expanding brake
c. Disc brake
d. All of the above
(Ans.: C)
4- The hand brake of the automobile is usually

a. External contracting brake
b. Internal expanding brake
c. Disc brake
d. All of the above
(Ans.: a)
5- In disc brake, the disc is attached to the

a. wheel
b. axle
c. suspension system
d. none of the above
(Ans.: b)
6- The mechanical brakes are operated by means of
a. levers
b. bell cranks
c. cams
d. all of the above
(Ans.: d)
7- In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of

a. atmospheric valve
b. vacuum valve
c. both a and b
(Ans.: C)
8- Stopping a vehicle in shortest possible distance is function of
a. Clutch
b. Accelerator
c. Brake
d. Gear box
Ans.: C. Brake
9- Brake should work in all weathers.

a. Differently
b. Oppositely
C. Weakly
d. Equally
Ans.: d. Equally
10. The capacity of the brakes depends on .

a. Peripheral velocity of brake drum
b. Momentum of caliper
c. Toughness of drum
d. Material of brakes
Ans.: a. Peripheral velocity of brake drum
11. The brakes operated mechanically by means of levers, linkages, pedals, cams, bell cranks, etc are
known as .
a. Kinetic brakes
b. Mechanical brakes
c. Disc brakes
d. Parking brakes
Ans.: b. Mechanical brakes
12. In drum brakes brake shoes are pivoted at .
a. Fulcrum
b. Cam
c. Retracting spring
d. External periphery
Ans.: a. Fulcrum
13. is moved against rotating drum for stopping the vehicle
a. Brake linings
b. Cams
c. Fulcrum
d. Retracting spring
Ans.: a. Brake linings
14. Brake shoes are pivoted at .

a. Cams
b. Retracting spring
c. Fulcrum
d. Brake linings
Ans.: c. Fulcrum
15. used to move the brake shoes against the rotating drum
a. Cam
b. Fulcrum
c. Disc
d. Tyre
Ans.: a. Cam
16. brings the brakes shoes back to original position after releasing brakes
a. Retracting spring
b. Disc
c. Cam
d. Fulcrum
Ans. : a. Retracting spring
17 is called as secondary brake

a. Brake shoe
b. Drum brake
c. Parking brake
d. Disc brake
Ans.: c . Parking Brake
18. is used to hold the brakes at parking condition

a. Cable
b. Ratchet
c. Disc
d. Drum
Ans.: b. Ratchet
19 In disc brakes is pressed against disc
a. Revolving disc
b. Drum
c. Brake shoes
d. Brake wire
Ans.: a. Revolving Disc
20 In disc brake system the fixed disc is placed inside housing called
a. Drum
b. Shoe
c. Caliper
d. Wheel
Ans.: c. Caliper
21. Pressurized fluid forces the disc to apply the brakes

a. Wheel
b. Shoe
c. Pistons
d. Wire
Ans.: c. Pistons
22. In brakes, there is better cooling than drum brakes.

a. Disc
b. Band
c. Parking
d. Secondary
Ans.: a. Disc
23. In Hydraulic brake system is used to apply brakes in all wheels

a. Master cylinder
b. Brake shoes
c. Disc brakes
d. Wheel cylinder
Ans.: a. Master cylinder
24. Hydraulic brake uses law for application of brakes

a. Pascal law
b. Thermodynamic law
c. Joul’s law
d. Kirchoff’s law
Ans.: a. Pascal law
25. Wheel cylinder consists of

a. Disc
b. Piston
c. Shoe
d. Caliper
Ans.: b. Piston
26. Hydraulic brake system is self system

a. Cooling
b. Lubricating
c. Heating
d. Running
Ans. b. Lubricating
27. Wheel cylinder is used for

a. Running the vehicle
b. Stopping vehicle
c. Both a an b
d. None of above
Ans. b. Stopping vehicle
28. “The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of
electricity”. The above statement is associated with
(a) Newton’s law
(b) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday’s law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss’s law
Ans: c 2
29. During the charging of a lead-acid cell

(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
30. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its

(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b
31. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a
32. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
33. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the color of its positive plate is
(a) dark grey
(b) brown
(c) dark brown
(d) none of above
Ans: c
34. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are

(a) nickel hydroxide
(b) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
35. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is

(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
36. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Ans: c
37. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is

(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
Ans: c
38. The output voltage of a charger is
(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Ans: b
39. Cells are connected in series in order to

(a) increase the voltage rating
(b) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
Ans: a
40. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel. The output voltage is

(a) 1 V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d
41- In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
a. Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
b. Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
c. Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
d. Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
(Ans: a)
42- The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage current up to
about
a. 10,000 volts
b. 17,000 volts
c. 25,000 volts
d. 35,000 volts
(Ans: C)
43- In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary windings is
about
a. 1 to 50
b. 1 to 100
c. 1 to 200
d. 1 to 400
(Ans:b)
44- The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system
a. It operates break and make mechanism
b. It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
c. both (A) and (B)
(Ans.: C)
45- The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at the engine speed in four stroke engine
a. half
b. equal to
c. one and half times
d. double
(Ans.: a)
46- The provides a reservoir for the current induced in the primary circuit at the time of
break.
a. A .induction coil
b. (B) distributor
c. (C) condenser
d. (D) governor
(Ans.: C)
47- The following affect the voltage required to jump over the gap of spark plug
a. Shape of electrode forming gap
b. The conductivity of gases in the gap
c. Fuel-air mixture ratio existing in the gap
d. All of the above
(Ans.: d)
48- In Magneto Ignition system

a. No battery is required
b. Engine starting is rather difficult
c. used in high speed engines
d. All of the above
(Ans.: d)
49- In four cylinder in-line engine, the probable firing order is

a. 1-3-4-2
b. 1-2-3-4
c. 2-4-1-3
d. 2-1-3-4
(Ans.: a)
50- The following is known as ‘Breaker less Ignition system’

a. Battery coil ignition system
b. Magneto Ignition system
c. Electronic Ignition system
d. Capacitive discharge Ignition system
(Ans.: c)
A- solid state switch, known as Thyristor is employed in
a. Battery coil ignition system
b. Magneto Ignition system
c. Electronic Ignition system
d. Capacitive discharge Ignition system
(Ans.: d)
52- The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system

a. Produces maximum output voltage
b. Better starting with cold engine
c. Less possibility of arcing at spark plug
d. All of the above
(Ans.: d)
53- The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

a. evaporator
b. safety relief valve
c. dehumidifier
d. driers
Ans: d
54- Heat from the automobile is removed by

a. compressor
b. evaporator
c. both a and b
d. non of above
Ans. b.
55- The conversion of gas into liquid refrigerant is done by

a. compressor
b. evaporator
c. condenser
d. non of above
Ans. c
56. Increase in pressure of refrigerant in air conditioning system is done by

a. compressor
b. evaporator
c. condenser
d. both b and c
57- Hot air is brought in the car with the help of

a. compressor
b. condenser
c. blower
d. all above
Ans. c
58- Refrigerant used in cars

a. R12
b. R134
c. Both a and b
d. Non of above
Subject: Automobile Engineering-II
Branch: Mechanical Engg:
Class: B.E Mechanical
Semester: VIII
Unit-I --- Battery& Ignition system

1)A spark plug gap is kept from
(A) 0.3 to 0.7 mm

(B) 0.2 to 0.8 mm
(C) 0.4 to 0.9 mm
(D) 0.6 to 1.0 mm
Answer – A
2)The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by
(A) Cetane number

(B) Octane number
(C) Calorific value
(D) None of these
Answer-A
3) In a coil ignition system of petrol engines, a condenser is connected across the contact
breaker in order to
(A) Prevent sparking across the gap between the points

(B) Cause more rapid break of the primary current, giving a higher voltage in the secondary
circuit
Answer- C
4)In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
(A) Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
(B) Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
(C) Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
(D) Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
Answer- A
5) The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage current
upto about
(A) 10,000 volts
(B) 17,000 volts
(C) 25,000 volts
Answer-C
6) In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary
windings is about
(A) 1 to 50
(B) 1 to 100
(C) 1 to 200
Answer- B
7) The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system
(A) It operates break and make mechanism
(B) It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
Answer- C
8) In Magneto Ignition system
(C) used in high speed engines
Answer- D
9) The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’
(B) Magneto Ignition system
(C) Electronic Ignition system
(D) Capacitive discharge Ignition system
Answer-C
10) A solid state switch, known as Thyristor is employed in
Answer-D
11 )The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system
(A) Produces maximum output voltage
(B) Better starting with cold engine
(C) Less possibility of arcing at spark plug
Answer-D
12) The composition of the electrolyte in a fully charged battery is that
(A) The electrolyte is pure distilled water
(B) The electrolyte is pure sulphuric acid
(C) The electrolyte is a mixture of 64% distilled water and 36% sulphuric acid by weight
(D) The electrolyte is a mixture of 90% distilled water and 10% sulphuric acid by weight
Answer- C
13) The ignition coil is used to
(A) Step up current

(B) Step down current
(C) Step up voltage
(D) Step down voltage
Answer- C
14) The starting system includes
(A) A battery, a starter, and an ignition switch

(B) A battery, a distributor, and an ignition switch
(C) A battery, a starter, and a distributor
(D) A distributor, a starter, and an ignition switch
Answer- A
15) A battery can be charged by
(A) Adding distilled water

(B) Adding sulphuric acid
(C) Applying voltage in the reverse direction to that of charging
(D) Applying a voltage in the same direction to that of charging
Answer- C
16) The ignition in a spark ignition engine takes place when the piston is
(A) Exactly at the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke

(B) Approaching the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(C) Leaving the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(D) Approaching the T.D.C position on its exhaust stroke
Answer- B
17) Which component in alternator produces a magnetic field?
A) Frame
B) Stator
C) Regulator
D) Rotor
Answer- D
18) In an alternator, which component controls the output?
A) Voltage regulator
B) Cutout relay
C) Current regulator
D) Diode
Answer- A
19) Field coils in a generator produce permanent magnet.
A) True
B) False
Answer- B
20) What is the material of an alternator frame?
A) Cast iron
B) Brass
C) Copper
D) Aluminum
Answer-D
Unit- II ---BRAKE SYSTEM
21) When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
(B) Heat energy
Answer –B
22) The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on
Answer- C
23 ) The following is not a drum brake
(C) Disc brake
Answer-C
24) The mechanical brakes are operated by means of
(A) Levers
(B) bell cranks
(C) Cams
Answer- C
25 ) Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of
(C) Pascal’s law
Answer- C
26) The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to
(A) builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
(B) maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
(C) serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
Answer- D
27) Tandem master cylinder consists of
(A) one cylinder and one reservoir
(B) two cylinders and one reservoir
(C) one cylinder and two reservoirs
(D) two cylinders and two reservoirs
Answer- D
28) Hand brake is applicable to
(A) only front wheels
(B) only rear wheels
(C) both front and rear wheels
Answer-B
29) The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes
Answer- D
30) The power brake may be exerted by
(A) electrical energy
(B) engine vacuum
(C) air pressure
Answer- A
31) The process of removing air from the brake system is known as
(A) Bleeding
(B) Self-energizing
(C) servo action
(D) Energization
Answer- A
32) In a ventilated disc brake
(A) A duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle is moving
(B) Caliper is covered with cooling fins
(C) Disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
(D) Disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum cooling performance
Answer- D
33) The difference between DOT 3 and DOT 4 brake fluids is

(A) DOT 4 fluids have a higher boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(B) DOT 4 fluids have a lower boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(C) DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids have the same boiling point, but DOT 4 fluid has a longer service
life
(D) DOT 4 fluid is more resistant to freezing than DOT 3 fluid
Answer-A
34) The main function of a master cylinder is to
(A) Adjust the extent of brake pedal free play
(B) Boost the force applied to brake pedal
(C) Convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure
(D) Ensure that all the wheel brakes are supplied with the same amount of fluid pressure
Answer- C
35) The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is
(A) A high boiling point

(B) Low viscosity
(C) Compatibility with rubber and metal parts
(D) All of these
Answer- D
36) The power source for a brake booster is
(A) Exhaust manifold pressure

(B) Electricity
(C) The pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the vacuum pressure in the
intake manifold
D) Hydraulic pump
Answer- C
37) The brake pedal during ABS operation
(A) Is pushed upward forcefully
(B) Pedal stroke becomes longer
(C) Transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
Answer- C
38) . In jeeps we use
A. Mechanical brakes
B. Hydraulic brakes
Answer-B
39) In the air brake, air pressure is supplied by
A. Engine manifold
B. A compressor
Answer : B
40) . In the integral type of power brake, the diaphragm acts directly on the hydraulic
piston in the
A. Master cylinder
B. Wheel cylinder
Answer : A
Unit-III----Air conditioning System
41) HVAC stands for heating, ventilation and air conditioning:
A: True
B: False
Answer- A
42) If the air conditioning system has an accumulator, it is a:
A thermostatic expansion valve system.
B fixed orifice tube system.
C receiver dryer system.
Answer- B
43) On a vehicle with V-belts, an intermittent squealing noise is heard on acceleration with
the A/C control switch in the on or off position. The most likely cause of this problem is:
A - a loose power steering belt
B- a loose A/C compressor belt.
C-a loose air pump belt.
Answer- A
44) An A/C compressor high-pressure release valve discharges refrigerant at
approximately:
A- 200 psi (1,379 kPa).
B-325 psi (2,240 kPa).
C- 375 psi (2,585 kPa).
D- 475 psi (3,275 kPa).
Answer- D
45) The vacuum valve in the radiator cap is stuck closed. The result of this problem could
be:
A- an upper radiator hose collapsed after the engine was shut off.
B- excessive cooling system pressure at normal engine temperature.
C- engine overheating when operating under a heavy load.
D- engine overheating during extended idle periods.
Answer- A
46) All of the following statements about A/C-heater control panel service are true
EXCEPT:
A- The negative battery cable must be disconnected before A/C control panel removal.
B-The refrigeration system must be discharged before the A/C control panel is removed.
C-If the vehicle is air-bag-equipped, wait the specified time period after negative battery cable
disconnected.
D-Self-diagnostic tests may indicate a defective A/C control panel in a computer-controlled
A/C system.
Answer- B
47) A typical control panel assembly controls all of the following EXCEPT the:
A- compressor.
B- heater valve.
C- plenum door.
D-coolant temperature
Answer- D
48) The recirculate door is inoperable. Any of the following may be the problem EXCEPT
A-split, broken, or disconnected hose.
B-clogged or blocked restrictor.
C- restricted or open check valve.
D- cracked or broken vacuum tank.
Answer- B
49) In the vent position and with the temperature selector in the cool position, the incoming
air is heated. What could be the problem?
A-The cooling fan is inoperative.
B-There is low coolant in the radiator.
C-The heater core is clogged.
D_An air blend door is stuck.
Answer- A
50) The compressor clutch will not disengage. The problem could be that:
A- the A/C pressure cutoff switch is stuck open.
B-the compressor clutch coil is shorted to ground.
C- the low-pressure switch has an open wire.
D-the compressor coil positive wire is shorted to a 12 volt source.
Answer- D
51) When filling an A/C system recovery container with recovered refrigerant, the
percentage of capacity that the container may be filled to is
A-50 percent
B- 60 percent
C-70 percent
D- 80 percent
Answer-B
52) After the recovery process, the low-side pressure increases above zero after five
minutes. This condition indicates:
A-There is still some refrigerant in the system.
B- there is excessive oil in the refrigerant system.
C-the refrigerant system is leaking.
D-there is excessive moisture in the refrigerant system.
Answer- A
53) The moisture warning light on the recovery/recycling equipment indicates yellow
during the recycling process. This indicates:
A-there is excessive oil in the refrigerant.
B-the filter/dryer cartridge on the tester must be changed.
C-there are excessive noncondensable gases in the refrigerant.
D- the vacuum pump is not producing enough vacuum.
Answer-B
54) Which of the following oils can be used in a R-134a system?

A- mineral oil
B- CCOT
C- ester oil
D-PAG
Answer- D
55) Which of the following is not recommended while converting an R-12 system to R-
134a?
A- Permanently install conversion fittings using new hose clamps around the fittings.
B-Install conversion labels and remove the R-12 label.
C-Recharge the system with R-134a to approximately 80 percent of the original R-12 charge.
D-Use a refrigerant identifier to make sure the system only contains R-12
Answer-A
56) To charge an air conditioning system while it is running, the refrigerant should be
added to:
A-the high side.
B- the low side.
C- both the high and low sides.
D-either the high or the low side.
Answer- B
57) An A/C compressor has a growling noise only with the compressor clutch engaged. The
cause of this noise could be:
A-a defective internal compressor bearing.
B-a defective pulley bearing
C-a low refrigerant charge.
D-excessive refrigerant pressure.
Answer- A
58) Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?

A) Compressor
B) Condenser
C) Chiller
D) Evaporator
Answer- C
59) . Which of the following types of filters used in the air conditioning system is made of
cloth that is discarded on getting dirty?
A) Viscous type filters
B) Dry filter
C) Spray washers
D) Electric precipitators
Answer- B
60) Viscous type filters are made of screens of spilt wire and coated with non-drying
viscous oil in order to catch and remove the dust particles from the incoming air.
A) True
B) False
Answer- A
Name of college: D.N.Patel COE shahada
Branch: Mechanical Engg:
Class: B.E Mechanical
Semester: VIII
Unit-I --- Battery& Ignition system

1)A spark plug gap is kept from
(A) 0.3 to 0.7 mm

(B) 0.2 to 0.8 mm
(C) 0.4 to 0.9 mm
(D) 0.6 to 1.0 mm
Answer – A
2)The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by
(A) Cetane number

(B) Octane number
(C) Calorific value
(D) None of these
Answer-A
3) In a coil ignition system of petrol engines, a condenser is connected across the contact
breaker in order to
(A) Prevent sparking across the gap between the points

(B) Cause more rapid break of the primary current, giving a higher voltage in the secondary
circuit
Answer- C
4)In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
Answer- A
5) The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage current
upto about
(A) 10,000 volts
(B) 17,000 volts
(C) 25,000 volts
Answer-C
6) In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary
windings is about
(A) 1 to 50
(B) 1 to 100
(C) 1 to 200
Answer- B
Answer- C
Answer- D
9) The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’
Answer-C
Answer-D
11 )The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system
Answer-D
12) The composition of the electrolyte in a fully charged battery is that
(A) The electrolyte is pure distilled water
(B) The electrolyte is pure sulphuric acid
(C) The electrolyte is a mixture of 64% distilled water and 36% sulphuric acid by weight
(D) The electrolyte is a mixture of 90% distilled water and 10% sulphuric acid by weight
Answer- C
(A) Step up current

(B) Step down current
(C) Step up voltage
(D) Step down voltage
Answer- C
(A) A battery, a starter, and an ignition switch

(B) A battery, a distributor, and an ignition switch
(C) A battery, a starter, and a distributor
(D) A distributor, a starter, and an ignition switch
Answer- A
15) A battery can be charged by
(A) Adding distilled water

(B) Adding sulphuric acid
(C) Applying voltage in the reverse direction to that of charging
(D) Applying a voltage in the same direction to that of charging
Answer- C
16) The ignition in a spark ignition engine takes place when the piston is
(A) Exactly at the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke

(B) Approaching the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(C) Leaving the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(D) Approaching the T.D.C position on its exhaust stroke
Answer- B
17) Which component in alternator produces a magnetic field?
A) Frame
B) Stator
C) Regulator
D) Rotor
Answer- D
18) In an alternator, which component controls the output?

A) Voltage regulator
B) Cutout relay
C) Current regulator
D) Diode
Answer- A
19) Field coils in a generator produce permanent magnet.
A) True
B) False
Answer- B
20) What is the material of an alternator frame?
A) Cast iron
B) Brass
C) Copper
D) Aluminum
Answer-D
Unit- II ---BRAKE SYSTEM
(B) Heat energy
Answer –B
Answer- C
23 ) The following is not a drum brake
(C) Disc brake
Answer-C
(A) Levers
(B) bell cranks
(C) Cams
Answer- C
25 ) Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of
(C) Pascal’s law
Answer- C
Answer- D
Answer- D
Answer-B
Answer- D
(B) engine vacuum
(C) air pressure
Answer- A
(A) Bleeding
(B) Self-energizing
(C) servo action
(D) Energization
Answer- A
32) In a ventilated disc brake
(A) A duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle is moving
(B) Caliper is covered with cooling fins
(C) Disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
(D) Disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum cooling performance
Answer- D
33) The difference between DOT 3 and DOT 4 brake fluids is
(A) DOT 4 fluids have a higher boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(B) DOT 4 fluids have a lower boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(C) DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids have the same boiling point, but DOT 4 fluid has a longer service
life
(D) DOT 4 fluid is more resistant to freezing than DOT 3 fluid
Answer-A
34) The main function of a master cylinder is to
(A) Adjust the extent of brake pedal free play
(B) Boost the force applied to brake pedal
(C) Convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure
(D) Ensure that all the wheel brakes are supplied with the same amount of fluid pressure
Answer- C
35) The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is
(A) A high boiling point

(B) Low viscosity
(C) Compatibility with rubber and metal parts
(D) All of these
Answer- D
36) The power source for a brake booster is
(A) Exhaust manifold pressure

(B) Electricity
(C) The pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the vacuum pressure in the
intake manifold
D) Hydraulic pump
Answer- C
37) The brake pedal during ABS operation

(A) Is pushed upward forcefully
(B) Pedal stroke becomes longer
(C) Transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
Answer- C
38) . In jeeps we use
A. Mechanical brakes
B. Hydraulic brakes
Answer-B
39) In the air brake, air pressure is supplied by
A. Engine manifold
B. A compressor
Answer : B
40) . In the integral type of power brake, the diaphragm acts directly on the hydraulic
piston in the
A. Master cylinder
B. Wheel cylinder
Answer : A
Unit-III----Air conditioning System
41) HVAC stands for heating, ventilation and air conditioning:
A: True
B: False
Answer- A
42) If the air conditioning system has an accumulator, it is a:
A thermostatic expansion valve system.
B fixed orifice tube system.
C receiver dryer system.
Answer- B
43) On a vehicle with V-belts, an intermittent squealing noise is heard on acceleration with
the A/C control switch in the on or off position. The most likely cause of this problem is:
A - a loose power steering belt
B- a loose A/C compressor belt.
C-a loose air pump belt.
Answer- A
44) An A/C compressor high-pressure release valve discharges refrigerant at
approximately:
A- 200 psi (1,379 kPa).
B-325 psi (2,240 kPa).
C- 375 psi (2,585 kPa).
D- 475 psi (3,275 kPa).
Answer- D
45) The vacuum valve in the radiator cap is stuck closed. The result of this problem could
be:
A- an upper radiator hose collapsed after the engine was shut off.
B- excessive cooling system pressure at normal engine temperature.
C- engine overheating when operating under a heavy load.
D- engine overheating during extended idle periods.
Answer- A
46) All of the following statements about A/C-heater control panel service are true
EXCEPT:
A- The negative battery cable must be disconnected before A/C control panel removal.
B-The refrigeration system must be discharged before the A/C control panel is removed.
C-If the vehicle is air-bag-equipped, wait the specified time period after negative battery cable
disconnected.
D-Self-diagnostic tests may indicate a defective A/C control panel in a computer-controlled
A/C system.
Answer- B
47) A typical control panel assembly controls all of the following EXCEPT the:
A- compressor.
B- heater valve.
C- plenum door.
D-coolant temperature
Answer- D
48) The recirculate door is inoperable. Any of the following may be the problem EXCEPT
A-split, broken, or disconnected hose.
B-clogged or blocked restrictor.
C- restricted or open check valve.
D- cracked or broken vacuum tank.
Answer- B
49) In the vent position and with the temperature selector in the cool position, the incoming
air is heated. What could be the problem?
A-The cooling fan is inoperative.
B-There is low coolant in the radiator.
C-The heater core is clogged.
D_An air blend door is stuck.
Answer- A
50) The compressor clutch will not disengage. The problem could be that:
A- the A/C pressure cutoff switch is stuck open.
B-the compressor clutch coil is shorted to ground.
C- the low-pressure switch has an open wire.
D-the compressor coil positive wire is shorted to a 12 volt source.
Answer- D
51) When filling an A/C system recovery container with recovered refrigerant, the
percentage of capacity that the container may be filled to is
A-50 percent
B- 60 percent
C-70 percent
D- 80 percent
Answer-B
52) After the recovery process, the low-side pressure increases above zero after five
minutes. This condition indicates:
A-There is still some refrigerant in the system.
B- there is excessive oil in the refrigerant system.
C-the refrigerant system is leaking.
D-there is excessive moisture in the refrigerant system.
Answer- A
53) The moisture warning light on the recovery/recycling equipment indicates yellow
during the recycling process. This indicates:
A-there is excessive oil in the refrigerant.
B-the filter/dryer cartridge on the tester must be changed.
C-there are excessive noncondensable gases in the refrigerant.
D- the vacuum pump is not producing enough vacuum.
Answer-B
54) Which of the following oils can be used in a R-134a system?

A- mineral oil
B- CCOT
C- ester oil
D-PAG
Answer- D
55) Which of the following is not recommended while converting an R-12 system to R-
134a?
A- Permanently install conversion fittings using new hose clamps around the fittings.
B-Install conversion labels and remove the R-12 label.
C-Recharge the system with R-134a to approximately 80 percent of the original R-12 charge.
D-Use a refrigerant identifier to make sure the system only contains R-12
Answer-A
56) To charge an air conditioning system while it is running, the refrigerant should be
added to:
A-the high side.
B- the low side.
C- both the high and low sides.
D-either the high or the low side.
Answer- B
57) An A/C compressor has a growling noise only with the compressor clutch engaged. The
cause of this noise could be:
A-a defective internal compressor bearing.
B-a defective pulley bearing
C-a low refrigerant charge.
D-excessive refrigerant pressure.
Answer- A
58) Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?

A) Compressor
B) Condenser
C) Chiller
D) Evaporator
Answer- C
59) . Which of the following types of filters used in the air conditioning system is made of
cloth that is discarded on getting dirty?
A) Viscous type filters
B) Dry filter
C) Spray washers
D) Electric precipitators
Answer- B
60) Viscous type filters are made of screens of spilt wire and coated with non-drying
viscous oil in order to catch and remove the dust particles from the incoming air.
A) True
B) False
Answer- A
CAD/CAM A
N
Max. Marks:60 Class: BE S
Time: 1.30 Hrs. Sem. VII

UNIT NO.I
1) CAD/CAM is the relationship between C
A) science and engineering B) manufacturing and marketing C) design and
manufacturing D) design and marketing
2) Which two disciplines are tied by a common database B

A) documentation and geometric modelling B) CAD/CAM C) drafting and
documentation D) None of these
3) The system environment in the main frame computer consist of D

A) central processing B) storage devices C) printer and plotter D) both central
processing and storage devices
4) Locating devices are classified as B

A) text input device B) graphic input device C) all of the above D) None of these
5) Which of the following devices do not produce a hardcopy? C

A) impact printer B) plotter C) CRT terminal D) non impact printer
6) The software that is used to provide the user with various function to perform B
geometric modelling and construction is known as
A) operating software B) graphics software C) application software D)
programming software
7) Following is not an operating system software D

A) windows B) UNIX C) VAX/VMS D) IDEAS
8) The life cycle of product includes D

A) extraction of natural resources B) processing of raw materials C)
manufacturing of product D) all of the mentioned
9) Color raster display uses three electron gun namely A

A) red, green and blue B) red, green and yellow C) white, blue and black
D) red, black and white
1 P.T.O.
10) Thumbwheels are usually mounted on B
A) keyboard B) monitor C) CPU D) mouse
11) The screen is scanned from left to right, top to bottom all the time to generate A
graphics
A) Raster scan B) Random scan C) Vector scan D) stroke writing
12) GUI is the acronym for graphics user interface A

A) True B) False C) Don’t know D) can’t tell
UNIT NO.II
13) A translation is applied to an object by A
A) repositioning it along with straight line path B) repositioning it along with
circular path C) only b D) All of the mentioned
14) The basic geometric transformation are D

A) translation B) rotation C) scaling D) all of the above
15) To generate a rotation we must specify B

A) distance dx and dy B)Rotation angle ϴ C) rotation distance D) all of the above
16) The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object A

A) scaling B) rotation C) translation D) reflection
17) The two dimensional scaling equation in the matrix form is B

A) P’ = P+T B) P’ = S*P C) P’ = P+R D) P’ = R+S
18) What is the use of homogenous coordinate in matrix representation A

A) To treat all 3 transformation in a consistent way B) To scale C) To rotate D) To
shear the object
19) If point are expressed in homogenous coordinates then the pair of (x,y) is D
represented as
A) x’y’z’ B) x,y,z C) x’y’w D) x,y,1
20) Which of the following is not a type of clipping algorithm used on the raster system D
A) line clipping B) point clipping C) area clipping D) solid clipping
21) Cohen Sutherland clipping is an example of C

A) polygon clipping B) text clipping C) line clipping D) curve clipping
22) The centre region of screen and the window can be represented as A
A) 0000 B) 1111 C) 0110 D) 1001
2
23) Positive values for the rotation angle ϴ defines C
A) counter clockwise rotation about the end points B) counter clockwise
translation about pivot point C) counter clockwise rotation about pivot point D)
Negative direction
24) An ellipse can also be rotated about its center coordinates by rotating B
A) end points B) major and minor axes C) both A & B D) None of the above
UNIT NO.III
25) The following is not a graphics standard B
A) GKS B) IGBS C) UNIX D) PHIGS
26) In the following geometric modelling technique which are not three dimensional B
modelling
A) wire frame modelling B) drafting C) surface modelling D) solid modeling
27) In the following three dimensional modelling technique which do not require much C
computer time and memory
A) surface modelling B) solid modelling C) wireframe modelling D) all of the above
28) In the following geometric primitives which is not a solid entity of CSG modelling D
A) box B) Cone C) cylinder D) circle
29) The number of lines required to represent a cube in a wireframe model C

A) 8 B) 6 C) 12 D)16
30) Which of the following is not analytical entity D

A) line B) circle C) spline D) parabola
31) The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by A

A) control points B)knots C) end points D) all of the above
32) The degree of the Bezier curve with n control point is A

A) n+1 B) n-1 C) n D) 2n
33) The number of tangent required to describe cubic spline is B

A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4
34) The automation which cannot be changed once it is established B

A) flexible B)fixed C)hybrid D)all of the above
3 P.T.O.
35) Flexible automation is also suitable for B
A) batch production B)mass production C)unit production D) none of these
36) Which one of the following does not belong to the family of conics D
A) parabola B) hyperbola C)ellipse D)line
UNIT NO.IV
37) Dwell is defined by A
A) G04 B) G03 C) G02 D) G01
38) Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines D

A) higher flexibility B)improved quality C)reduced scrap rate D)improved strength
of the component
39) In how many ways CNC machine tool systems can be classified B
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D)5
40) Point to point system are used for A

A) reaming B)parting C)grooving D)facing
41) What is the main objectives of process control A

A) to control physical parameter B) to control mechanical parameter C) to control
optical parameter D) to control electrical parameter
42) CNC is not applicable in D

A)drilling machine B) milling machine C)lathe D) none of the above
43) Physical parameter change due to C

A)voltage B)current C) internal and external disturbances D) power
44) DCS is a A
A)distributed control system B)data control system C) data column system D)
distributed column system
45) The acronym PLC stands for B

A)pressure load control B) programmable logic controller C) pneumatic logic
capstan D)pressure loss chamber
46) Which of the following code will give circular interpolation in a clockwise direction C
A) G56 B) G01 C)G02 D) G47
4
47) Which of the following code is used in programming in absolute coordinates A
A) G90 B) G32 C)G92 D) G01
48) Which of the following code will give linear interpolation movement B
A)G00 B)G01 C)G78 D)G65
UNIT NO.V
49) From the following which is the main component of flexible manufacturing system D
A)main frame computer B)automated guided vehicle C) material handling system
D) all of the above
50) What is the full form of AGV C

A)automatic guided vehicle B) automated gas vehicle C) automated guided
vehicle D)none of these
51) From the following which is the main component of AS/RS system C
A)storage structure B)storage and retrieval machine C) both A & B D) none of
these
52) From the following which is the type of FMS layout C

A)In line layout B) ladder layout C)both A & B D) None of these
53) ------- is a manufacturing philosophy in which different parts are manufactured in a B

small batches or group based on similarities
A)production technology B) group technology C) FMS D) none of the above
54) From the following which is the type of GT code D

A)mono code B)poly code C) hybrid code D)all of the above
55) In which type of GT code tree type structure is used B

A) hybrid code B) mono code C) polycode D) none of the above
56) In which coding method supplementary code and form code are used C
A)KK3 system B) The MICLASS system C) optiz coding system D) The Diclass
system
57) Which of the following terms refers to the rotational motion of a robot arm D
A)swivel B) axle C) retrograde D) roll
58) What is the name for space inside which robot unit operates C
A)environment B) spatial base C) work envelope D)exclusion zone
5 P.T.O.
59) How many degree of freedom would the robot have C
A)2 B)4 C)6 D)8
60) The number of movable joints in the base, the arm and the end effector of the A
robot determines
A) degree of freedom B)payload capacity C)operational limits D) flexibility
**********
6
Subject: Energy Conservation & Management
Branch: Mechanical Engineering
Class: B.E.
Semester: VIII
UNIT NO.-I
Q.-01 Which Fuel dominates the energy mix in Indian energy scenario.
A. Oil
B. Natural Gas
C. Coal
D. Nuclear
Ans. C
Q.-02 Inexhaustible energy sources are known as
A. Commercial Energy
B. Renewable Energy
C. Primary Energy
D. Secondary Energy
Ans. B
Q.-03 Energy Comsumption per unit GDP is called as..
A. Energy Ratio
B. Energy Intensity
C. Per Capita Consumption
D. None of Above
Ans. B
Q.-04 Which Country has the largest share of global coal reserves.
A. Rusia
B. China
C. USA
D. India
Ans. C
Q.-05 Common Energy source in India villages is
A. Coal
B. Wood & Animal Dung
C. Electricity
D. None of these
Ans. B
Q.-06 Both Power & Manure is provided by
A. Biogas Plants
B. Nuclear plants
C. Thermal plants
D. Hydroelectric plants
Ans. A
Q.-07 The energy sources , that are either found or stored in nature are
A. Secomdary energy sources

B. Primary energy sources
C. Both a) & b)
D. None of these
Ans. B
Q.-08 The fourth largest producer of coal & lignite in the world is …..
A. USA
B. Russia
C. India
D. China
Ans. C
Q.-09 Which of following is commercial energy source.
A. Electricity
B. Coal
C. Oil
D. All the Above
Ans. A
Q.-10 Indias Energy intensity is….. times of word average
A. 1.5
B. 2.5
C. 3.6
D. 10
Ans. A
Q.-11 Which of the following is highest contributor to air pollution
A. Carbon monoxide
B. hydro carbons
C. Sulpher oxide
D. particulates
Ans. A
Q.-12 The process that convert solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called…
A. Cracking
B. Catalytic Conversion
C. Carbonation
D. Liquefaction
Ans. D
Q.-13 Identify non-renewable energy sources from following
A. Fuel Cells
B. Wind Power
C. Wave Power
D. Coal
Ans. D
Q.-14 Which among following is not renewable source of energy
A. Biomass energy
B. Solar energy
C. Hydro power
D. Geothermal energy
Ans. A
Q.-15 Acid rain is caused by release of following components from combustion of fuels
A. SOx&Nox
B. SO x
C. NOx
D. H2O
Ans. A
Q.- 16 Indian per capita energy consumption is ….. of the world average
A. 4%
B. 20%
C. 1%
D. 10%
Ans. B
Q.-17 The primary energy consumption of India is
A. 1/29 of the word
B. 1/16 of the word

C. 1/7 of the word
D. 1/20 of the word
Ans. A
Q.-18 Name the Act , which is proposed to bring the qualitative transformation of electricity sector
A. Regulatary commission Act 1998
B. Indian electricity Act 1910

C. Supply Act 1948
D. Electricity Act 2003
Ans. D
Q.-19 World Oil reserve are estimated to last over
A. 45 Years
B. 60 Years
C. 200 Years
D. 75 Years
Ans. A
Q.-20 Word Gas reserve are estimated to last over
A. 45 Years
B. 65 Years
C. 200Years
D. 75 Years
Ans. B
UNIT NO. - II
Q.-01 The Current produced by AC generator is
A. Alternative Current
B. Fixed Current
C. Negative Current
D. Direct Current
Ans. A
Q.-02 The positive & Negative terminals of direct current have
A. No Polarity
B. Fixed Polarity
C. Variable Polarity
D. Always Negative Polarity
Ans. B
Q.-03 The Unit of Energy in S.I. Unit is
A. Joule
B. Joule Meter
C. Watt
D. Joule per Meter
Ans. A
Q.-04 The heat is transferred by Conduction, Convection & Radiation in
A. Melting of Ice
B. Boiler Furnaces
C. Condensation of steam in Condenser
D. None of these
Ans. B
Q.-05 In case of liquids & gases , heat transfer takes place according to
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radition
D. None of these
Ans. B
Q.-06 The mass of water vapour present in …………is called absolute humidity.
A. 1 m3 of wet air
B. 1m3 of dry air
C. 1kg of wet air
D. 1 kg of dry air
Ans. B
Q.-07 A mixture of dry air & water vapour , when air has diffused maximum amount of water vapour into it,
is called
A. Dry Air
B. Moist Air
C. Saturated Air
D. Specific Humidity
Ans. C
Q.-08 An evaporator is also known as
A. Freezing coil
B. Cooling Coil
C. Chilling Coil
D. All of Above
Ans. D
Q.-09 Which of following devices is not used for pressure measurement
A. Diaphragm guage
B. Pressure Bellows
C. Strain Gauge
D. Dynamometer
Ans. D
Q.-10 Sensible Heat Factor is
A. Sensible Heat / Latent Heat

B. Total Heat/ Sensible Heat
C. Latent Heat / Sensible Heat
D. Sensible Heat / Total Heat
Ans. D
Q.-11 The amount of heat absorbed to evaporate 1 Kg of water from its saturation tempt , without change
of tempt , is called
A. Sensible heat factor of water

B. Latent heat of vaporisation
C. Enthalpy of Steam
D. Entropy of Steam
Ans. B
Q.-12 The Unit of Pressure in S.I. Units is…..
A. Kg/ Cm2
B. mm of water column
C. Pascal
D. Bars
Ans. C
Q.-13 Unit of Specific Latent Heat is
A. Watts per Joule

B. Joules per Watt
C. Joules per Killogram
D. Pascal per Watt
Ans. C
Q.-14 When Eectric current passes through a full bucket of water . Lot of bubbling is observed. Thiss suggest
that type off supply is…
A. AC
B. DC
C. Any of Above Two
D. None of Above
Ans. B
Q.-15 In SI Unit of temperature is
A. Degree Centigrade
B. Degree Fahrenheit
C. Kelvin
D. Ampere
Ans. C
Q.- 16 The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 0C is termed as
A. Specific heat
B. Heat Capacity
C. One Calorie
D. Sensible heat
Ans. C
Q.-17 The change by which any substance is converted from a gaseous state to liquid state is termed as…
A. Condensation
B. Evaporation
C. Fusion
D. Phase change
Ans. A
Q.-18 The specific heat of …….. is very high compared to other common substance listed below.
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Water
D. Alcohol
Ans. C
Q.-19 The quatity of heat required to change 1 kg of substance from liquid to vapour state without change
of temperature is termed as
A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Latent heat of vaporization

C. Heat capacity
D. Sensible heat
Ans. B
Q.-20 Name plate Kw or HP rating of a motor indicates
A. Input Kw to the motor
B. Output Kw to the motor

C. Minimum input kw to the motor
D. Maximum input kw to the motor
Ans. B
UNIT NO. - III

Q.-01 The objective of energy management includes
A. Minimising energy cost

B. Minimising Waste
C. Minimising Environmental degradation
D. All of Above
Ans. D
Q.-02 Which Instrument is used to monitor O2 , CO in flue gas
A. Combustion Analyzer
B. Power Analyzer
C. Pyrometer
D. Fyrite
Ans. A
Q.-03 ‘The Judicious & effective use of energy to maximize profits & enhance competitive positions’ This
can be definition of
A. Energy Conservation
B. Energy Management
C. Energy policy
D. Energy Audit
Ans. B
Q.-04 The energy management function is generally vested in…..
A. Senior Management
B. One enegy manager

C. Distributed among number of -middle manager
D. Above B & C together
Ans. A
Q.-05 The Benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is
A. Kw/Ton of Refrigeration
B. Kw/Kg of Refrigerant
C. Kcal/m3 of chilled water
D. Different temperature chiller
Ans. A
Q.-06 One Unit of Electricity is equivalent to……Kcal heat unit
A. 800
B. 860
C. 400
D. 680
Ans. B
Q.-07 The percentage of energy saved at current rate of use , compared to reference year rate of use , is
called
A. Energy Utilisation
B. Energy Performance
C. Energy Efficiency
D. None of Above
Ans. B
Q.-08 Replacement of steam based hot water generation by solar system is example of
A. Matching energy usage to requirement
B. Maximising system efficiency

C. Energy substitution
D. Performance improvement
Ans. C
Q.-09 The various types of instruments , which requires during audit need to be
A. Easy to Carry
B. Easy to operate
C. Inexpensive
D. All of above
Ans. D
Q.-10 Air Velocity in ducts can be measured by using ….. & manometer
A. Pitot tube
B. Borden gauge
C. Orifice meter
D. Anemometer
Ans. A
Q.-11 Infrared thermometer is used to measure
A. Surface temperature
B. Flame temperature
C. Flue gas temperature
D. Hot water temperature
Ans. A
Q.-12 Energy manager should be well versedd with
A. Manufacturing & process skills
B. Management & technical skills

C. Flue gas temerature
Ans. B
Q.-13 An Energy policy does not include
A. Target energy consumption
B. Time period for reduction

C. Declaration of top management commitment
D. Future production projection
Ans. D
Q.-14 Which of following is not a duty of energy manager
A. Report to BEE
B. Provide the support to accredited energy
C. Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
D. Sign an Energy Policy
Ans. D
Q.-15 Which among the following are elements of project management
A. Managing Resources
B. Managing time & schedule
C. Managing cost
D. All of above
Ans. D
Q.- 16 The ratio of current years production to the reference years production is called as
A. Demand factor
B. Production factor
C. Utilization factor
D. Load factor
Ans. B
Q.-17 Lux meter is used to measure…..
A. Illumination level
B. Sound intensity & illumination level

C. Harmonics
D. Speed
Ans. A
Q.-18 For Cement plant parameter , ‘kWh/MT of clinker’ indicates
A. Energy Index Parameter

B. Utility factor
C. Production factor
D. Load factor
Ans. A
Q.-19 CO2 measurement of fyrite kit is based on (EA)
A. Weight basis (dry)
B. Volume basis (dry)

C. Weight basis (wet)
D. Volume Basis (wet)
Ans. B
Q.-20 Infrared thermometer is used to measure
A. Surface temperature
B. Flame temperature
C. Flue gas temperature
Ans. A
Subject: ER&T
Branch: Mechanical
Semester :8th
……………………………………………………………………………………….
sunlight,Air,Soil are the example of………..

a) Renewable sources
b)non Renewable sources
c)conventional sources,
d)non natural sources
Answer: A
which of the following disadvantage of most of renewable sources?
a) unrenewable supply,
b)highly pollluting
c) high waste disposal cost
d) high running cost
Answer: A
which among the following is not a renewable source….
a) biomass energy,
b) solar energy ,
c) Hydro energy ,
d)Geothermal energy
Answer: A
Which of the following is renewable resource…..
(A) wind
(B) tides
(C) geothermal heat
Answer: D
Q5)-Which of the following country generate all their electricity using renewable energy?
(A) Iceland
(B) England
(C) USA
(D) China
Answer:A
Q.6)-Renwable energy often displaces conventional fuel in which of the following area
(A) space heating
(B) transportation
(C) electricity generation
Answer: D
Q.7)-Which of the following is used as fuel for transportation
(A) ethanol
(B) aldehyde
(C) ketone
Answer:A
Q.8)-Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats using
(A) fermentation
(B) transesterification
(C) distillation
Answer:B
Q.9-Photovoltaic cell converts solar energy into
(A) heat energy
(B) electric energy
(C) mechanical energy
(D) chemical energy
Answer:B
Q.10)-In which of the following region winds are stronger and constant
(A) deserts
(B) offshore
(C) low altitudes sites
Answer:B
Following country met more than 40% of its electricity demand from wind energy
(A) Denmark
(B) Portugal
(C) Ireland
(D) Spain
Answer:A
Concentrated solar power (CSP) systems use to focus a large area of sunlight
into a small beam.
(A) lenses
(B) mirrors
(C) tracking systems
Answer:D
Q.13)-The difference, in temperature between the core of the planet and its surface, is
known as
(A) geothermal coefficient
(B) geothermal gradient
(C) geothermal constant
Answer:B
Q.14)-Biomass can be converted to
(A) methane gas
(B) ethanol
(C) biodiesel
Answer:D
The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) was formed in
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2011
Answer:B
Which of the following was the first solar powered aircraft to complete a
circumnavigation of the world?
(A) Solar impulse
(B) Solar impulse 2
(C) Solar impulse 3
(D) Solar impulse 4
Answer:B
Following is true for biomass and biofuels
(A) their contribution in reduction in CO2 emissions is limited
(B) both emit large amount of air pollution when burned
(C) they consume large amounts of water
Answer:D
What does Heating and cooling of the atmosphere generates?
a) Thermo line circulation
b) Radiation currents
c) Convection currents
d) Conduction currents
Answer : c
2. How much is the energy available in the winds over the earth surface is estimated to
be?
a) 2.9 X 120 MW
b) 1.6 X 107 MW
c) 1 MW
d) 5MW
Answer:B
How much wind power does India hold?
a) 20,000 MW
b) 12,000 MW
c) 140,000 MW
d) 5000 MW
Answer:A
What is the main source for the formation of wind?
a) Uneven land
b) Sun
c) Vegetation
d) Seasons
Answer: b
Which country created wind mills?
a) Egypt
b) Mongolia
c) Iran
d) Japan
Answer: c
“During the day, the air above the land heats up more quickly than the air over
water”.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
What happens when the land near the earth’s equator is heated?
a) All the oceans gets heated up
b) Small wind currents are formed
c) Rise in tides
d) Large atmospheric winds are created
Answer: d
What type of energy is wind energy?
a) Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy
Answer: a
What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades
Answer: a
What is the diameter of wind turbine blades?
a) 320 feet
b) 220 feet
c) 80 feet
d) 500 feet
Answer: b
Direct Solar energy is used for
(A) Water heating
(B) Distillation
(C) Drying
Answer: d
The power from the sun intercepted by the earth is approximately
(A) 1.8 x 108 MW
(B) 1.8 x 1011 MW
(C) 1.8 x 1014 MW
(D) 1.8 x 1017 MW
Answer: b
The following is indirect method of Solar energy utilization
(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
Answer: d
A liquid flat plate collector is usually held tilted in a fixed position, facing if
located in the northern hemisphere.
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
Answer: b
The collection efficiency of Flat plate collector can be improved by
(A) putting a selective coating on the plate
(B) evacuating the space above the absorber plate
Answer: c
The efficiency of various types of collectors with temperature.
(A) increases, decreasing
(B) decreases, increasing
(C) remains same, increasing
(D) depends upon type of collector
Answer: b
Maximum efficiency is obtained in
(A) Flat plate collector
(B) Evacuated tube collector
(C) Line focussing collector
(D) Paraboloid dish collector
Answer: d
The following type of energy is stored as latent heat
(A) Thermal energy
(B) Chemical energy
(D) Mechanical energy
Answer: a
Which of the following type of collector is used for low temperature systems?
(A) Flat plate collector
(B) Line focussing parabolic collector
(C) Paraboloid dish collector
Answer: a
In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by rotating about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
Answer: b
The sun subtends an angle of minutes at the earth’s surface.
(A) 22
(B) 32
(C) 42
(D) 52
Answer: b
The value of Solar Constant is
(A) 1347 W/m2
(B) 1357 W/m2
(C) 1367 W/m2
(D) 1377 W/m2
Answer: c
The extraterrestrial radiation flux varies by % over a year.
(A) ± 1.1
(B) ± 2.2
(C) ± 3.3
(D) ± 4.4
Answer: c
The following is (are) laws of black body radiation.
(A) Plank’s law
(B) Stefan-Boltzmann law
Answer: c
Absorption of Solar radiations at earth’s surface occur due to presence of
(A) Ozone
(B) Water vapours
(C) Carbon di-oxide
Answer: d
Global radiation =
(A) Direct radiation – Diffuse Radiation
(B) Direct radiation + Diffuse Radiation
(C) Direct radiation / Diffuse Radiation
(D) Diffuse Radiation / Direct radiation
Answer: b
The zenith angle is the angle made by the sun’s rays with the to a
surface.
(A) normal, horizontal
(B) tangent, horizontal
(C) normal, vertical
(D) tangent, vertical
Answer: a
Solar radiation flux is usually measured with the help of a
(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyranometer
(C) Sunshine recorder
Answer: b
Beam radiations are measured with
(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyrheliometer
(C) Sunshine recorder
Answer: b
The angle made by the plane surface with the horizontal is known as
(A) Latitude
(B) Slope
(C) Surface azimuth angle
(D) Declination
Answer: b
The angle made in the horizontal plane between the horizontal line due south and the
projection of the normal to the surface on the horizontal plane is
(A) Hour angle
(B) Declination
(C) Surface azimuth angle
(D) Solar altitude angle
Answer: c
-Surface azimuth angle varies from
(A) 0 to 90°
(B) -90 to 90°
(C) 0 to 180°
(D) -180° to 180°
Answer: d
The hour angle is equivalent to
(A) 10° per hour
(B) 15° per hour
(C) 20° per hour
(D) 25° per hour
Answer: b
The complement of zenith angle is
(A) Solar altitude angle
(B) Surface azimuth angle
(C) Solar azimuth angle
(D) Slope
Answer: a
The correction has a magnitude of minutes for every degree difference in
longitude.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: c
The global radiation reaching a horizontal surface on the earth is given by
(A) Hourly beam radiation + Hourly diffuse radiation
(B) Hourly beam radiation – Hourly diffuse radiation
(C) Hourly beam radiation / Hourly diffuse radiation
(D) Hourly diffuse radiation / Hourly beam radiation
Answer: a
The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on a
horizontal surface is called the
(A) Radiation shape factor
(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope
Answer: b
Q. 55)Biomass is useful to produce
a) Chemicals
b) Fibres
c) Biochemicals
d) Transportation fuels
Answer: d
Which of the following is not used as biomass?
a) Hybrid poplar
b) Willow algae
c) Iron nails
d) Trap grease
Answer: c
The aerobic digestion of sewage is used to produce
a) Biomass
b) Bio fuels
c) Synthetic fuels
d) Metal articles
Answer: b
The bio ethanol is subjected to rectification to remove
a) Sugar
b) Enzymes
c) Yeast
d) Impurities
Answer: d
is called as the bio gas.
a) Bio ethanol
b) Bio methane
c) Bio diesel
d) Bio butanol
Answer: b
The highest level of tidal water is .
a) High tide
b) low tide
c) Medium tide
d) None as above
ANS
Energy Resources and Technology
The energy sources, that are either found or stored in nature are
1) a) Secondary Energy Sources b) Primary Energy Sources B
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
Which of the following is commercial energy source?
2) a) Electricity A
b) Coal c) Oil d) All the above
Inexhaustible energy sources are known as

a) commercial Energy b) renewable Energy B
3)
c) primary energy d) secondary energy
Which country has the largest share of the global coal reserves?
4) a) Russia b) China c) USA d) India C
The % of gas reserves for Russian Federation, when compared to world reserve is
considered at
5) a) 10 % of World reserve b) 20 % of World reserve C
c) 30 % of World reserve d)40 % of World reserve
World oil reserves are estimated to last over

6) a) 45 years b) 60 years c) 200 years d) 75 years A
World gas reserves are estimated to last over

7) a) 45 years b) 65 years B
c) 200 years d) 75 years
The global primary energy consumption (2002) was equivalent to

8) a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe C
1 P.T.O.
The primary energy consumption of India is
9) a) 1/29 of the world b) 1/16 of the world c) 1/7 of the world d) 1/20 of the world A
The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of

coal
10) B
a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0
The fourth largest producer of coal and lignite in the world is ______
11) a) USA C
b) Russia c) India d) China
Indian per capita energy consumption is ____ of the world average.

12) a) 4% b) 20% c) 1% d) 10% B
Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as:

13) B
a) Energy Ratio b) Energy intensity c) Per capita consumption d) None
India’s energy intensity is ___ times of world average.

14) A
a) 1.5 b) 2.5 c) 3.6 d) 10
India’s current percentage peak demand shortage for electricity is:

15) D
a) 1% b) 3% c) 10% d) 14%
A module in a solar panel refers to
a. Series arrangement of solar cells.
16) b. Parallel arrangement of solar cells. C
c. Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
d. None of the above.
The efficiency of the solar cell is about
a. 25 %
b. 15 %
17) c. 40 % B
d. 60 %
2
For satellites the source of energy is
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
18) c. Edison cells A
d. Cryogenic storage
The output of the solar cell is of the order

a. 0.5 W
b. 1.0 W B
19)
c. 5.0 W
d. 10.25 W
In a fuel cell cathode is of

a. Oxygen
b. Ammonia C
20)
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon monoxide
What is the maximum possible output of a solar array?

a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2 C
21)
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
The current density of a photo voltaic cell ranges from

a. 10 – 20 mA/cm2
b. 40 – 50 mA/cm2 B
22)
c. 20 – 40 mA/cm2
d. 60 – 100 mA/cm2
A pyrometer is used for the measurements of

a. Diffuse radiations only.
b. Direct radiations only. C
23)
c. Both direct and diffused radiations.
d. None of the above.
Reflector mirrors used for exploiting the solar energy are called
a. Mantle.
b. Heliostats. B
24)
c. Diffusers.
d. Ponds.
3 P.T.O.
The function of a solar collector is of converting solar energy into
a. Radiations
25) b. Electrical energy directions. C
c. Thermal energy.
d. All of these
Temperature attained by cylindrical parabolic collector is of the order of

a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C D
26)
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
In a solar collector, why is the transparent cover provide for?

a. Protect the collector from dust.
27) b. Reduce the heat losses from collector beneath to atmosphere. D
c. Transmit solar radiation only
d. All of the above.
A typical output of a solar cell is

A. 0.1 V
B. 0.26 V D
28)
C. 1.1 V
D. 2 V
Which of the following material is used in solar cells?

A. Barium
B. Silicon B
29)
C. Silver
D. Selenium
When was the first solar cell invented?

a) 1950
b) 1954 B
30)
c) 1965
d) 1952
To how many types are flat plate collectors divided depending on type of heat
transfer fluid?
a) 2
31) b) 3 A
c) 4
d) 5
4
For what purpose are Gas heating collectors used?
a) To trap solar radiance
b) To act as a medium to help in conversion of sunlight to electrical energy C
32)
c) Employed as solar air heaters
d) They act as alternate panels in case of failure
Liquid heating collectors are mainly used for _________

a) heating water
b) generating electricity B
33)
c) cooking
d) trapping sunlight
______ is a glazing which limits the radiation and convection heat losses.
a) Absorber plate
b) Selective surface D
34)
c) Insulation
d) Transparent cover.
What are provided to minimize heat loss?

a) Absorber plate
b) Surface plate C
35)
c) Insulation
d) Casing
Which part of flat plate collectors is coated in black?

a) Transparent cover
b) Absorber plate B
36)
c) Insulation
d) Fins
The frame which contains all the parts is called __________

a) box
b) plate D
37)
c) enclose
d) container
In which collector does air flow without any obstruction?

a) Porous absorber plate
b) Non-porous absorber plate B
38)
c) Over lapped glass absorber
d) Finned absorber
5 P.T.O.
Which type of absorber increases the heat transfer area over a simple flat plate
absorber of the same capacity?
a) Porous absorber plate
39) b) Non-porous absorber plate D
c) Over lapped glass absorber
d) Finned absorber
How is heat loss over come in liquid plate collectors?

a) By insulation
b) By casing A
40)
c) By the transparent cover
d) From provided tubes
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but still everybody discuss about the
energy crisis because
(a) Energy transform into different form continuously.
41) (b) Usable form of energy is dissipated to the surroundings in less usable forms. D
(c) Energy is consumed and cannot be used again.
(d) All of these
An ideal source of energy should have

(a) higher calorific value
(b) easy transportability D
42)
(c) easy accessibility
(d) All of these
Fossile fuels are

(a) non-renewable source of energy
(b) renewable source of energy A
43)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
The amount of energy available in the wind at any instant is proportional to ___ of
the wind speed.
(A) Square root power of two
44) (B) Square root power of three D
(C) Square power
(D) Cube power
Wind energy is harnessed as ______ energy with the help of windmill or turbine.
(A) Mechanical
(B) Solar A
45)
(C) Electrical
(D) Heat
6
Winds having following speed are suitable to operate wind turbines.
(A) 5 – 25m/s
(B) 10 – 35m/s
46)
(C) 20 – 45m/s
(D) 30 – 55m/s
Global Cold wind move from

(A) Polar to equatorial region
(B) Equatorial to polar region A
47)
(C) Equatorial to oceanic region
(D) Oceanic to Equatorial region
___ force is responsible for forcing the global winds towards westernly direction.
(A) Coriolis
(B) Gravitational A
48)
(C) Centripetal
(D) Centrifugal
Global winds towards westernly direction are known as

(A) Trade winds
(B) Western winds A
49)
(C) Eastern winds
(d) None
Uneven heating occurs on land surface and water bodies are due to _____
(A) Air Currents
(B) Solar radiation B
50)
(C) Lunar eclipse
Biomass is used in the production of

(a) fibres
(b) chemicals C
51)
(c) transportation fuels
(d) biochemicals
Production of bioethanol is through fermentation of ________ and starch

components
(a) alcohol
52) (b) sugar B
(c) milk
(d) acid
7 P.T.O.
This is also called a biogas
(a) biobutanol
(b) biodiesel D
53)
(c) bioethanol
(d) biomethane
In biomethane, the percentage of carbon dioxide is

(a) 55-60
(b) 35-45 C
54)
(c) 30-40
(d) 32-43
Bioethanol is mixed with ________ to prepare transport fuel

(a) oil
(b) petrol B
55)
(c) kerosene
(d) diesel
The aerobic digestion of sewage is utilized in the production of

(a) metal articles
(b) biofuels B
56)
(c) biomass
(d) synthetic fuels
This is an example of starch crops biomass feedstocks

(a) corn stover
(b) wheat straw D
57)
(c) orchard prunings
(d) sugar cane
Which is the type of energy where the energy is harnessed by the heat accumulated
on the surface of water?
a) Wind energy C
58)
b) Wave energy
c) Ocean thermal energy conversion
d) Solar energy
From which cycle does maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine operating
between two temperature limits cannot exceed?
a) Carnot cycle A
59)
b) Otto cycle
c) Open cycle
d) Anderson cycle
8
Which of the following has the lowest efficiency?
a) Solar energy
60) b) Wind energy D
c) Wave energy
d) OTEC
9 P.T.O.
Subject: FEAST
Class: B.E.
Branch: Mechanical
Semester: VIII
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. The solution by FEM is
• always exact
• mostly approximate
• sometimes exact
• never exact
Answer: mostly approximate
2. From the following, which type of element is not two dimensional?
• Rectangle
• Quadrilateral
• Parallelogram
• Tetrahedron
Answer: Tetrahedron
3. From the following, which type of element is not three dimensional?
• Hexahedron
• Quadrilateral
• Rectangular prism
• Tetrahedron
Answer: Quadrilateral
4. For truss analysis, which types of elements are used?
• Triangle
• Bar
• Rectangle
• Parallelogram
Answer: Bar
5. To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts that are
called
• finite elements
• infinite elements
• dynamic elements
• static elements
Answer: finite elements
6. The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller elements is known
as ___________
• Assemblage
• Continuum
• Traction
• Discritization
Answer: Discritization
7. The sum of the shape function is equal to___________
• 0
• 0.5
• 1
• 2
Answer: 1
8. A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
Answer: 6
9. On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by
• KQ=F
• KQ≠F
• K=QF
• K≠QF
Answer: KQ=F
10. At fixed support, the displacements are equal to
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 0
Answer: 0
11. The numbers of node for 1 D element are
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 0
Answer: 2
12. Stiffness matrix depends on
• Material
• Geometry
• both material and geometry
• none of the above
Answer: both material and geometry
13. For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed is
having an order of
• 2*2
• 3*3
• 4*4
• 6*6
Answer: 3*3
14. When thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is called
• plane stress
• Plane strain
• zero stress
• zero strain
Answer: plane stress
15. Which of the following is not a method for calculation of stiffness matrix?
• Minimum potential energy principle
• Galerkin’s principle
• Weighted residual method
• Inverse matrix method
Answer: Inverse matrix method
16. The finite element method is mostly used in the field of
• structural mechanics
• classical mechanics
• applied mechanics
• Engg. mechanics
Answer: Engg. mechanics
17. In any FEA software, the large amount of mathematical work is done in ________ phase.
• Preprocessing
• Solution
• Postprocessing
• all of the above
Answer: postprocessing
18. The equation for thermal stress in each element is ________
• σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
• σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
• σ = E (B + α Δt)
• σ = E (B - α Δt)
Answer: σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
19. In the penalty approach, the magnitude of the stiffness constant should be at least _______
times more than the maximum value in the global stiffness matrix.
• 10
• 100
• 1000
• 10000
Answer: 10000
20. Which of the following is not an FEA package?
• ANSYS
• Nastran
• Abaqus
• AutoCAD
Answer: AutoCAD
21. Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural frequency?
• Static analysis
• Thermal analysis
• Modal analysis
• All of the above
Answer: Modal analysis
22. For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________
• Stress
• Strain
• Displacement
• temperature
Answer: temperature
23. From below, choose the correct condition for the axisymmetric element.
• Symmetric about axis
• Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis
• Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis
• All the above
Answer: All the above
24. Axis-Symmetric element is______________Element
• 1D
• 2D
• 3D
• 4D
Answer: 2D
25. The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are ______
• stretching of plates
• gravity of dams
• axisymmetric shells
Answer: axisymmetric shells
26. Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on ___________
• nature of element
• type of an element
• degrees of freedom
• nodes
Answer: degrees of freedom
27. In FEA, the sub domains are called as ___________
• Particles
• Molecules
• Elements
• None
Answer: elements
28. To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are used.
• shape function
• node function
• element function
• coordinate function
Answer: shape function
29. The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called
• boundary condition
• traction
• friction
• surfacing
Answer: boundary condition
30. The truss element can resist only
• axial force
• surface force
• point load
Answer: axial force
31. The truss element can deform only in the
• axial direction
• vertical direction
• horizontal direction
• inclined direction
Answer: axial direction
32. Example for one – Dimensional element is ___________
• triangular element
• brick element
• truss element
• axisymmetric element
Answer: truss element
33. The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always
• 3
• 2
• 1
• 0
Answer: 0
34. The finite element methods can be applied in ____________areas.
• Thermal
• soil and rock mechanics
• vibration
Answer: all of the above
35. The characteristic of the shape function is _______
• the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the other
nodes
• the sum of the shape function is equal to one
• both a & b
Answer: both a & b
36. The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known as ___
• local coordinates system
• natural coordinates system
• global coordinate system
Answer: global coordinate system
37. If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement is
considered in ______
• inverse matrix method
• weighted residual method
• the minimum potential energy principle
Answer: the minimum potential energy principle
38. Which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)?
• K is a banded matrix
• K is un-symmetric
• K is an un-banded matrix
Answer: K is a banded matrix
39. In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having _________ stiffness.
• Zero
• very small
• very large
• infinite
Answer: infinite
40. How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
Answer: 4
41. If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be ______ accurate.
• More
• Less
• depends on other factors
• can't say
Answer: More
42. In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation ______
• R=KQ+F
• R=KQ-F
• R=K+QF
• R=K-QF
Answer: R=KQ-F
43. The strain energy per unit volume is equal to _________
• (1/2) * Force * Deflection
• (1/2) * Stress * Deflection
Answer: (1/2) * Force * Deflection
44. The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in space
is:
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
Answer: 3
45. In weighted residual technique, the methods adopted are
• point collocation method
• least squares method
• galerkin’s method
• all
Answer: all
46. A three noded triangular element is called as
• linear strain triangular element
• constant strain triangular element
• varaiable strain triangular element
• differable strain triangular element
Answer: constant strain triangular element
47. Range of poisson’s ratio for metals is
• 0.25-0.33
• 0.22-0.45
• 0.22-0.25
• 0.25-050
Answer: 0.25-050
48. The finite element method formulation of the problem results in a system of
• Algebric equations
• logical equations
• Arithmatic equations
• Flow equations
Answer: Algebric equations
49. FEM gives acurate representation of
• real geometry
• complex geometry
• both 1 & 2
• constant geometry
Answer: complex geometry
50. Stiffness matrix approach is used in
• Displacement method
• stress method
• force method
• mixed method
Answer: Displacement method
51. In FEA, to evaluate the strain displacement matrix we use ------------ method
• Crammer
• Henry
• Jacobian
• None
Answer: Jacobian
52. A singular stiffness matrix means
• Unstable structure
• one or more DOF are unrestrained
• wrong connectivity of elements
• wrong solution expected
Answer: one or more DOF are unrestrained
53. Element stress-nodal displacement relationship is given by
• σ=Eϵ
• σ=E+ϵ
• σ=Ee
• σ=E+e
Answer: σ=Eϵ
54. For global stiffness matrix sum of any row or column is equal to
• Zero
• One
• both 1 & 2
• None of the above
Answer: zero
55. Shape functions are applicable to
• only linear elements.
• elements of all types and dimensions.
• only higher order (order more than one) elements.
• only quad elements.
Answer: elements of all types and dimensions.
56. Plain stress refers to
• A situation when shear stress is zero.
• A situation when there is plastic deformation.
• stress perpendicular to the plane of 2D geometry is zero.
• none of the above.
Answer: none of the above.
57. Which of the following elements can be used in isoparametric FE formulation?
• Triangles
• Quadrilaterals
• Hexadedrals
Answer: All of the above
58. In a typical Finite Element analysis
• Reactions are calculated first and then stresses followed by displacements
• Displacements are calculated first followed by stresses
• All calculations are done simultaneously during matrix inversion
Answer: Displacements are calculated first followed by stresses
59. Heat transfer takes place due to _______________
• Conduction
• Convection
• Radiation
• ∆T
Answer: ∆T
60. In local co-ordinate system the nodes of the structure are specified by the_______
• Origin
• End points
• Any point on the element
• None
Answer: Origin
Subject: FINITE ELEMENT ANALYSIS AND SIMULATION TECHNIQUES

Subject Code: - 128113
Class: BE Branch: Mechanical
Semester: VIII
Q.1 Number of displacement polynomials used for an element analysis depends on _____________
[A] Degree of Freedom
[B] Type of Element
[C] Nature of Element
[D] Nodal Points
Ans. A
Q.2 The process of dividing the structure into finite number of smaller parts is called as_________
[A]Discretization
[B] Meshing
[C] N Nodal Numbering
[D] Both a &b
Ans. D
Q.3 Triangular plane stress element has ….degree of freedom.
[A] 3
[B] 4
[C] 5
[D] 6
Ans. D
Q.4 Three noded triangular element is called as __________________________
[A] Linear Strain Triangular Element
[B] Constant Stain Triangular Element
[c]Variable Strain Triangular Element
[D] Differential Stain Triangular Element
Ans. B
Q.5 Method of minimization of Potential Energy is also known as _____________________
[A] Galerkin’s Method
[B] Rayleigh’s Ritz method
[C] Least Square Method
[D] Point Collection Method
Ans. B
Q.6: The displacement function for 1-D two noded linear element in terms of shape functions will be:
[A] u =N1u1+N2u1
[B] u =N1u2+N2u1
[C] u =N2u1+N1u2
[D] u =N1u1+N2u2
Ans. D
Q.7 The higher ordered elements are also called as ____________________
[a]Complex Elements
[B] Compound Elements
[C] Linear Elements
[D] None of these
Ans. A
Q.8 In Finite Element Method, system of equations is given by, _____________
[A] F=K.UN
[B] F= UN.K
[C] K= UN.F
[D] K= F.UN
Ans. A
Q.9 Three noded triangular element is called as __________________________
[A] Linear Strain Triangular Element
[B] Constant Stain Triangular Element
[c]Variable Strain Triangular Element
[D] Differential Stain Triangular Element
Ans. B
Q.10 The geometry & other parameters of an element in terms of only one spatial coordinate then the element is
___________
[A] Two dimensional
[B] Three dimensional
[C] One dimensional
[D] None.
Ans. D
Q.11 The finite element method is mostly used for________________________
[A] Structural Mechanics
[B] Classical Mechanics
[C] Engineering Mechanics
[D] Applied Mechanics
Ans. C
Q.12 The eight node quadrilateral element belongs to _________ family of elements.
[A] Serendipity
[B] Interdipity
[C] Sardipity
[D] None of These
Ans. A
Q.13 Identify the stress-strain relationship matrix
1 0
1 0
0 0
[A]
1 0
0 0
0 0
[B]
1 0
1
0 0
[C]
1 0
0 1 0
0 0
[D]
Ans. A
Q.14 Stiffness matrix for 2D CST element ___
[A] [B]t [D] [B]A t
[B] [B]2[D] [B]A t
[C] [B]T[D] [B]A t
[D] [B]D [D] [B]A t
Ans. C
Q.15 The weighted residual techniques, the method adopted are ____________
[A] Galerkin’s Method
[B] Point Collection Method
[C] Least Square Method
[D] All of these
Ans. D
Q.16 FEM can produce exact result as those of _____________ methods.
[a]Analytical
[B] Logical
[C] Theoretical
[D] All of these
Ans. D
Q.17 At fixed support, displacements are equal to __
[A] 0
[B] 1
[C] 2
[D] Indefinite
Ans. A
Q.18 FEM also operates the parameters like
[A] Heat Transfer
[B] Temperature
[C] Both a & b
[D] None of these
Ans. D
Q.19 Range of Poisson’s ratio for metals is _____________ .
[A] 0.25 – 0.33
[B] 0.22 – 0.45
[C] 0.22 – 0.25
[D] 0.25 – 0.50
Ans. D
Q.20 Sum of all shape functions is equal to ____
[A] Zero
[B] -1
[C] +1
[D] 2
Ans. C
Q.21 The finite element method is formulation of the problem results in a system of _________________
[A] Algebraic Equations
[B] Logical Equations
[C] Arithmetic Equations
[D] Flow Equation
Ans. A
Q.22 FEM gives an accurate representation of ____________________
[A] Real Geometry
[B] Complex Geometry
[C] Real & Complex Geometry
[D]Complete Geometry
Ans. B
Q.23 Numerical algorithms are based on ____________
[A] TD & FD
[B] FEM & IFEM
[C] FEM & FDTD
[D] FEM & FD
Ans. C
Q.24 To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simple parts that are called
[A] Static Elements
[B] Dynamic Elements
[C] Infinite Elements
[D] Finite Elements
Ans. D
Q.25 ________________________ is the frame of reference for the entire body in FEM.
[A] Global Coordinate System
[B] Local Coordinate System
[C] Natural Coordinate System
[D] General Coordinate System
Ans. A
Q.26 The force applied over the surface per unit volume is known as __________
[A] Point Load
[B] Body Force
[C] Surface Traction
[D] Tangential Force
Ans. B
Q.27 Which of the following is not FEA Software?
[A] NASTRAN
[B] ABACUS
[C] Solid Works
[D] ANSYS
Ans. C
Q.28 For 2 dimensional elements, degree of freedom per node is __.
[A] 0
[B] 1
[C] 2
[D] Indefinite
Ans. C
Q.29 Which of the following approach not used in FEM?
[A] Elimination Approach
[B] Penalty Approach
[C] Direct Stiffness Method
[D] None of these
Ans. C
Q.30 The values obtained at boundaries of the structure are called as ________________.
[A] Boundary Conditions
[B] Boundary Values
[C] Both a & b
[D] None of these
Ans. C
Q.31 Finding the solution from part to entire continuum is known as _____________.
[D] Part to Whole Approach
Ans. D
Q.32 Identify the Incorrect boundary condition.
[A] Force
[B] Displacement
[C] Nodal Point
[D] Bending Moment
Ans. C
Q.33 The result of finite element analysis becomes accurate by increasing ________
[A] Size
[B] Shape
[C] Nodal Points
[D] Discretization
Ans. C
Q.34 Shape functions are used to __________ properties within the element.
[A] optimise
[B] interpolate
[C] approximate
[D] discretize
Ans. B
Q.35 When a spring is attached in between fixed support & element then ___________ approach used for FEM.
[D] None of these
Ans. B
Q.36 For 1D cubic element, how many nodes are present?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Ans. A
Q.37 If the number of nodes in a 1D element is N, then order of the element is
[A] N
[B] N+1
[C] N1
[D] 2N
Ans. B
Q.38 Essential boundary conditions are conditions that _____________.
[A] Specify primary variable
[B] Specify secondary variable.
[C] Specifies the value that the derivative of a primary variable on the boundary of the domain.
[D] None of these.
Ans. C
Q.39 Which of the following option is a 3D FEA element?
[A] Tetrahedron.
[B] Wedge.
[C] Hexahedron.
[D] All of these
Ans. D
Q.40 FEA solution_____ energy when compared to its exact solution.
[A] Over predicts.
[B] Under predicts.
[C] Exactly predicts.
[D] None of these.
Ans. A
Q.41 Indicate the right statement:
[A] FEA solution under predicts displacement (u).
[B] FEA solution under predicts energy (E).
[C] FEA solution under predicts stiffness (k).
[D] None of the statements are true.
Ans. B
Q.42 As degree of interpolation function increases,___________________.
[A] Convergence decreases.
[B] Convergence increases.
[C] Convergence is unaffected.
[D] None of these.
Ans. C
Q.43 In discretization of 2D FEA problems higher order elements should be used in region of:
[A] Lower gradient
[B] Higher gradient.
[C] No gradient.
[D] None of these.
Ans. C
Q.44 For a 3D element, the boundary integral (Qi) for a finite element equation is a ______.
[A] Surface integral
[B] Line integral
[C] Volume integral
[D] None of these
Ans. C
Q.45 The number of columns in a connectivity matrix [B] corresponds to _______.
[A] Total number of nodes in the entire domain.
[B] Minimum number of nodes in any element.
[C] Maximum number of nodes in any element.
[D] Number of elements
Ans. C
Q.46 Symmetry of a finite element problem depends upon its:
[A] Geometry.
[B] Boundary conditions.
[C] Material properties.
[D] All of these.
Ans. D
Q.47 Determinant of Jacobian (J) of a domain is greater than zero?
[A] When geometry of the element is convex.
[B] When geometry of the element is concave.
[C] When geometry of the element is convex and local node numbering is anticlockwise.
[D] When geometry of the element is convex and global node numbering is anticlockwise.
Ans. C
Q.48 Quadratic Gaussian quadrature element can be used to accurately determine the integral
of a polynomial function with a degree not exceeding ______.
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Ans. C
Q.49 What are the dimensions of an element level stiffness matrix corresponding to a plane elasticity problem? Assume
that the element is rectangular in shape and has n nodes in each direction?
[A] n x n
[B] 2n x 2n
[C] 3n x 3n
[D] 4n x 4n
Ans. B
Q.50 Natural boundary condition prescribed _______________.
[A] Force &Moments
[B] displacements & slopes
[C] Stresses & Strains
[D]All of these
Ans. A
Q.51 When an elastic body is subjected to the external forces, the body______________.
[A] Does not deforms
[B] Gets shear cut
[C] Deforms
[D] Contracts
Ans. C
Q. 52 Finite element method is advantageous to solve:
[A] Structures with complex geometries.
[B]Structures with dissimilar materials.
[C]To obtain local effects in structures.
[D] All of the above.
Ans. A
Q. 53 The term "finite element" was first used by _____ in 1960.
[A]Alexander Hrennikoff
[B]Richard Courant
[C] Argyris and Kelsey
[D] Ray William Clough
Ans. D
Q. 54 FEM can be used to solve :
[A] Boundary value problem
[B] Eigen value problem
[C] Initial value problem
[D] All of the above
Ans. D
Q. 55 In finite element analysis over a domain, an interpolation function represents a ________.
[A] Change in variable over an element.
[B] Change in variable over the whole domain.
[C] Shape of the element.
[D] Shape of the whole domain.
Ans. A
Q. 56 What is not true about weighted residual methods?
[A] Equations need to be in their strong form.
[B] Weight functions need not be the same as approximation functions.
[C] Weighted residual integral is equated to zero.
[D] We have more flexibility in choosing approximation functions as compared to Rayleigh Ritz method.
Ans. D
Q. 57 Which of the following statements is not true for free beam?
[A] Displacement at free end is unknown.
[B] Slope at free end is unknown.
[C] Shear force at free end = 0
[D] Moment at free end is unknown.
Ans. D
Q. 58 Which of the following is not a FEA Software
[A] ANSYS
[B] NASTRAN
[C] CREO
[D] HYPERWORKS
Ans. C
Q. 59 FEA requires _____________
[A] Large Computer memory
[B] Time
[C] Skilled Manpower
[D] All of the Above
Ans. D
Q. 60 Finite Element Method can take ____________.
[A] Any type of Complex Loading
[B] Only simply supported loading
[C] uniaxial or Co-axial loading
[D] All of the above.
Ans. A
Finite Element Analysis and Simulation A
Technique(FEAST) N
S
Class : BE Mechanical (CGPA)
Semester: VIII
1) In weighted residual technique, the methods adopted are D
[A] point collocation method [B] least squares method [C] galerkin’s method [D] all
of the above
2) On gathering stiffness and loads ,the system of equations is given by A

[A] KQ=F [B] KQ≠F [C] K=QF [D] K≠QF
3) The art of subdividing a structure into a convenient number of smaller A

components is Called
[A] discretization [B] numbering of nodes [C] continumm [D] both a &b
4) A three noded triangular element is called as B

[A] linear strain triangular element [B] constant strain triangular element
[C] variable strain triangular element [D] differable strain triangular element
5) At Fixed support The displacements are equal to …………………………… D

[A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 3 [D] 0
6) A triangular plane stress element has ………degree’s of freedom D

[A] 3 [B] 4 [C] 5 [D] 6
7) The displacement function for 1-D ,two node linear element in terms of shape C
function will be
[A] u = N1u2 + N2u1 [B] u = N2u1 + N1u2 [C] u = N1u1 + N2u2 [D] u = N1u1
+ N1u2
8) Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on C

[A] Nature of element [B] type of an element [C] degrees of freedom [D] nodes
9) FEM gives an accurate representation of B

[A] real geometry [B] Complex geometry [C] real & complex geometry
[D] Constant geometry
1 P.T.O.
10) The finite element method is mostly used in the field of D
[A] structural mechanics [B]classical mechanics [C] applied mechanics [D] Engg
mecahnics
11) The finite element method formulation of the problem results in the system of A
[A] algebraic equations [B] logical equations [C] Arithmetic equations [D] flow
equations
12) The shape function of the beam elements are known as B

[A] hermite shape functions [B] element shape functions [C] hermite element
functions [D] both A & B
13) In the banded matrix all the element outside the band are B
[A] One [B] Zero [C] two [D] None of these
14) The process involves modelling of the body, selection of element type, B
discretization, inputting material information, applying boundary condition and load
is known as
[A] Solution [B] Pre-processor [C]Post Processing [D] All of the above
15) The distributed force per unit area acting on the element body surface is known B
as
[A] Point force [B] Surface Force [C] Body Force [D] None of the above
16) In structural mechanics Problem the boundary conditions include prescribed B

displacement and slopes are known as
A) force boundary condition B) Geometric boundary condition C) both A and B D)
None of the above
17) In structural mechanics Problem the boundary conditions include prescribed B

forces and moments are known as
A) essential boundary condition B) natural boundary condition C) both A and B D)
all of the above
18) In some boundary value problems the boundary conditions are prescribed in a B
direction other than the coordinate axes of the system such boundary conditions
are known as
A) Force boundary condition B) skewed boundary condition C) Geometric
boundary condition D) None of the above
19) The degree of freedom for the four noded quadrilateral element is B
A) one B) two C) Three D) four
2
20) The eight noded hexahedral element used for C
A) one dimensional bodies B) two dimensional bodies C) three dimensional
bodies D) all of the above.
21) The component of strain at any point within the element are given by A
A) {ϵ} = [B]{UN} B) {ϵ} = [D]{UN} C) {ϵ} = [E]{UN} D) All of the above
22) In FEM, the body or structure is divided into finite number of smaller units known C
as
A) Nodes B) Joints C) elements D) Nodal points
23) The dimension of the element stiffness matrix (k) is C

A) M× M B) M×N C) N×N D) all of the above
24) The node numbering of the assemblage of element is called as B

A) Local B) Global C) Combined D) None of the above
25) The coordinate system is the frame of reference for the entire continuum is known B
as
A) Local coordinate system B) Global Coordinate system C) Natural coordinate
system D) All of the above
26) For global stiffness matrix sum of any row or column is equal to B
A) one B) zero C) two D) three
27) In the matrix all the elements outside the band are zero is known as B
A) Unbanded matrix B) banded matrix C) singular matrix D) None of the above
28) The variation of the different properties such as displacement, strain, temperature A
etc. Within the element is interpolated by using
A) shape function B) Natural coordinate C) Local coordinate D) None of the above
29) Variational method is referred as.....form A

A) weak B) strong C) combined D) all of the above
30) Rayleigh Ritz method is also known as A

A) variational method B) least collection method C) finite difference method D) All
of the above
31) Variational method makes use of principle called A

A) principle of minimum potential B) principle of maximum potential C) both A and
B D) None of the above
3 P.T.O.
32) Bar and beam element are considered as A
A) 1D element B) 2D element C) 3D element D) CST element
33) Mention the three types of loading acts on the body A

A) body force, traction force, point load B) axial force, pull force body force
C) traction force, point load, pull load D) point load, pull load, axial load
34) If the coordinate system is formed for the one particular element then the A
coordinate system called as
A) Local B) natural C) global D) all of the above
35) The sum of shape function is equal to B

A) zero B) one C) two D) three
36) Global stiffness matrix is... A

A) symmetrical B) irregular C) both A and B D) None of these
37) How many nodes are in 2D elements A

A) 3 or more B) one C) two D) none of these
38) The basic element in 2D elements is C

A) rectangular B) polygon C)triangular D) circular
39) Two dimensional element is extremely important for which type of analysis C
A) Plain stress B) plain strain C) Both A and B D) All of the above
40) Better results are obtained by ........the number of nodes A

A) increasing B) decreasing C) constant D) None
41) The element is called CST because it has constant .......throughout it. B
A) stress B) Strain C) both A and B D) None of these
42) How many D.O.F. are there in CST element C

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8
43) The displacement function for CST element is A

A) linear B) Non linear C) elliptical D) all of the above
44) How many shape functions are used for one dimensional element B
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
4
45) The size of global displacement matrix vector is defined as B
A) N× N B) N×1 C) M×1 D) M×M
46) Pre processing involves B

A) formation of element stiffness matrix B) selection of element type C) solution of
simultaneous equation D) all of the above
47) Processing or solution involves D

A) generation of element stiffness matrix B) Solution of simultaneous equation
C) Generation of Global stiffness matrix D) All of the above
48) The dimension of global stiffness matrix is obtained by C

A) d.o.f per node B) number of nodes in body C) Total d.o.f. of system D) None of
these
49) The natural coordinate for the individual element in which a point within the B
element is expressed by a set of dimensionless number whose magnitudes are
between
A)+1 & +2 B) -1 & +1 C) -1 & -1 D) None of these
50) The size of global load vector matrix is defined as B

A) N× N B) N×1 C) M×1 D) M×M
51) Post processing involves D

A) generation of element stiffness matrix B) Solution of simultaneous equation
C) Generation of Global stiffness matrix D) representation of results
52) In truss analysis which type of element are used A

A) bar element B) CST element C) Solid element D) None
53) Finite difference method is..... B

A) exact solution method B) approximate solution method C) both A & B D) None
of the above
54) How many shape function are used in CST elements B

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D)6
55) How many d.o.f at each node of truss element A

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D)5
56) The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called A
(A) boundary condition (B) traction (C) friction (D) surfacing
5 P.T.O.
57) Stiffness matrix depends on C
(A) material (B) geometry (C) both material and geometry (D) none of the above
58) Example of 2-D Element is ___________ B

(A) bar (B) triangle C) hexahedron (D) tetrahedron
59) For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix B
formed is having an order of
(A) 2*2 (B) 3*3 (C) 4*4 (D) 6*6
60) To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are used. A
(A) shape function (B) node function (C) element function (D) coordinate function
**********
6
Name of college: D.N.Patel college of Engineering, Shahada
Subject: FEAST
Class: B.E.
Branch: Mechanical
Semester: VIII
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
• always exact
• mostly approximate
• sometimes exact
• never exact
Answer: mostly approximate
• Rectangle
• Quadrilateral
• Parallelogram
• Tetrahedron
Answer: Tetrahedron
• Hexahedron
• Quadrilateral
• Rectangular prism
• Tetrahedron
Answer: Quadrilateral
4. For truss analysis, which types of elements are used?
• Triangle
• Bar
• Rectangle
• Parallelogram
Answer: Bar
called
• finite elements
• infinite elements
• dynamic elements
• static elements
Answer: finite elements
6. The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller elements is known
as ___________
• Assemblage
• Continuum
• Traction
• Discritization
Answer: Discritization
7. The sum of the shape function is equal to___________
• 0
• 0.5
• 1
• 2
Answer: 1
8. A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
Answer: 6
• KQ=F
• KQ≠F
• K=QF
• K≠QF
Answer: KQ=F
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 0
Answer: 0
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 0
Answer: 2
• Material
• Geometry
• both material and geometry
Answer: both material and geometry
13. For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed is
having an order of
• 2*2
• 3*3
• 4*4
• 6*6
Answer: 3*3
14. When thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is called
• plane stress
• Plane strain
• zero stress
• zero strain
Answer: plane stress
• Minimum potential energy principle
• Weighted residual method
• Inverse matrix method
Answer: Inverse matrix method
• structural mechanics
• classical mechanics
• applied mechanics
• Engg. mechanics
Answer: Engg. mechanics
17. In any FEA software, the large amount of mathematical work is done in ________ phase.
• Preprocessing
• Solution
• Postprocessing
Answer: postprocessing
18. The equation for thermal stress in each element is ________
• σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
• σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
• σ = E (B + α Δt)
• σ = E (B - α Δt)
Answer: σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
19. In the penalty approach, the magnitude of the stiffness constant should be at least _______
• 10
• 100
• 1000
• 10000
Answer: 10000
• ANSYS
• Nastran
• Abaqus
• AutoCAD
Answer: AutoCAD
• Static analysis
• Thermal analysis
• Modal analysis
Answer: Modal analysis
22. For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________
• Stress
• Strain
• Displacement
• temperature
Answer: temperature
• Symmetric about axis
• Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis
• Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis
• All the above
Answer: All the above
24. Axis-Symmetric element is______________Element
• 1D
• 2D
• 3D
• 4D
Answer: 2D
25. The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are ______
• stretching of plates
• gravity of dams
• axisymmetric shells
Answer: axisymmetric shells
26. Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on ___________
• nature of element
• type of an element
• degrees of freedom
• nodes
Answer: degrees of freedom
27. In FEA, the sub domains are called as ___________
• Particles
• Molecules
• Elements
• None
Answer: elements
28. To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are used.
• shape function
• node function
• element function
• coordinate function
Answer: shape function
• boundary condition
• traction
• friction
• surfacing
Answer: boundary condition
• axial force
• surface force
• point load
Answer: axial force
• axial direction
• vertical direction
• horizontal direction
• inclined direction
Answer: axial direction
32. Example for one – Dimensional element is ___________
• triangular element
• brick element
• truss element
• axisymmetric element
Answer: truss element
• 3
• 2
• 1
• 0
Answer: 0
34. The finite element methods can be applied in ____________areas.
• Thermal
• soil and rock mechanics
• vibration
Answer: all of the above
35. The characteristic of the shape function is _______
• the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the other
nodes
• the sum of the shape function is equal to one
• both a & b
Answer: both a & b
36. The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known as ___
• local coordinates system
• natural coordinates system
• global coordinate system
Answer: global coordinate system
37. If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement is
considered in ______
• inverse matrix method
• weighted residual method
• the minimum potential energy principle
Answer: the minimum potential energy principle
• K is a banded matrix
• K is un-symmetric
• K is an un-banded matrix
Answer: K is a banded matrix
39. In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having _________ stiffness.
• Zero
• very small
• very large
• infinite
Answer: infinite
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
Answer: 4
41. If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be ______ accurate.
• More
• Less
• depends on other factors
• can't say
Answer: More
42. In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation ______
• R=KQ+F
• R=KQ-F
• R=K+QF
• R=K-QF
Answer: R=KQ-F
43. The strain energy per unit volume is equal to _________
Answer: (1/2) * Force * Deflection
44. The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in space
is:
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
Answer: 3
45. In weighted residual technique, the methods adopted are
• point collocation method
• least squares method
• galerkin’s method
• all
Answer: all
46. A three noded triangular element is called as
• linear strain triangular element
• constant strain triangular element
• varaiable strain triangular element
• differable strain triangular element
Answer: constant strain triangular element
47. Range of poisson’s ratio for metals is
• 0.25-0.33
• 0.22-0.45
• 0.22-0.25
• 0.25-050
Answer: 0.25-050
48. The finite element method formulation of the problem results in a system of
• Algebric equations
• logical equations
• Arithmatic equations
• Flow equations
Answer: Algebric equations
49. FEM gives acurate representation of
• real geometry
• complex geometry
• both 1 & 2
• constant geometry
Answer: complex geometry
50. Stiffness matrix approach is used in
• Displacement method
• stress method
• force method
• mixed method
Answer: Displacement method
51. In FEA, to evaluate the strain displacement matrix we use ------------ method
• Crammer
• Henry
• Jacobian
• None
Answer: Jacobian
52. A singular stiffness matrix means
• Unstable structure
• one or more DOF are unrestrained
• wrong connectivity of elements
• wrong solution expected
Answer: one or more DOF are unrestrained
53. Element stress-nodal displacement relationship is given by
• σ=Eϵ
• σ=E+ϵ
• σ=Ee
• σ=E+e
Answer: σ=Eϵ
54. For global stiffness matrix sum of any row or column is equal to
• Zero
• One
• both 1 & 2
Answer: zero
55. Shape functions are applicable to
• only linear elements.
• elements of all types and dimensions.
• only higher order (order more than one) elements.
• only quad elements.
Answer: elements of all types and dimensions.
56. Plain stress refers to
• A situation when shear stress is zero.
• A situation when there is plastic deformation.
• stress perpendicular to the plane of 2D geometry is zero.
• none of the above.
Answer: none of the above.
57. Which of the following elements can be used in isoparametric FE formulation?
• Triangles
• Quadrilaterals
• Hexadedrals
Answer: All of the above
58. In a typical Finite Element analysis
• Reactions are calculated first and then stresses followed by displacements
• Displacements are calculated first followed by stresses
• All calculations are done simultaneously during matrix inversion
Answer: Displacements are calculated first followed by stresses
59. Heat transfer takes place due to _______________
• Conduction
• Convection
• Radiation
• ∆T
Answer: ∆T
60. In local co-ordinate system the nodes of the structure are specified by the_______
• Origin
• End points
• Any point on the element
• None
Answer: Origin
Subject: Finite Element Analysis and Simulation Techniques [FEAST]

Class: BE
Semester: VIII
1. For the equation [K]{u} = {F}, the vector {F} contains....
A. Force terms attributable to distributed external load.
B. Stiffness terms.
C. Primary Variable term.
D. Terms due to presence of external concentrated as well as distributed loads.
Answer: [D]
2. For the matrix equation [K]{u} = {f} + {R}, essential boundary conditions are
incorporated in which of the following matrices?
A. [K]
B. {u}
C. {f}
D. {R}
Answer: [B]
3. Which of the following statements is true for analysis of a 2D Truss?
A. Displacement at fixed node = 0
B. Shear force at fixed node = 0
C. Displacement at the node which is not fixed= 0
D. none of the above

Answer: [A]
4. As the loading is acting in the two dimensions, that is in a single plane. Thus the
calculations involved in the trusses are in 2D.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: [A]
5. Which one of following is not the characteristics of shape function?
A. The sum of shape function is equal to 1
B. The shape function has unit value at one nodal point and zero value at other nodal point
C. both a & b
D. The sum of shape function is equal to 0

Answer: [D]
6. A triangular plane stress element has ………degree’s of freedom.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: [6]
7. Identify the matrix given below,
A. Stress – strain relationship matrix for plane strain problems
B. Stress – strain relationship matrix for plane stress problems
C. Both a & b
Answer: [A]
8. Identify the matrix given below,
A. Stress – strain relationship matrix for plane strain problems
B. Stress – strain relationship matrix for plane stress problems
C. Both a & b
Answer: [B]
9. What is the order of global stiffness matrix for the given truss below.
A. 8x8
B. 4x4
C. 10x10
D. 12x12
Answer: [A]
10. How many DOF is/are available for the given Truss?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: [1]
11. Formulation of the finite element characteristics of an elastic bar element is not
based on the following assumption:
A. The material obeys Hooke’s law.
B. The bar is geometrically straight.
C. Forces are applied only at the ends of the bar
D. The bar supports bending only

Answer: [D]
12. Identify the matrix given below
A. Stiffness matrix for cantilever beam
B. Stiffness matrix for simply supported beam

C. Stiffness matrix for truss element
D. Stiffness matrix for CST

Answer: [C]
13. Identify the name of the matrix given below
A. Stiffness matrix for beam
B. Stiffness matrix for CST
C. Stiffness matrix for truss element
D. Stiffness matrix for LST

Answer: [A]
14. What is "l" in given matrix?
A. l = cosθ
B. l = sinθ
C. l = cos(90-θ)
D. l = cosecθ
Answer: [A]
15. What is "m" in above given matrix?

A. m = cos (90 – θ )
B. m = sin (90 – θ )
C. m = cosec (90)
D. m = tan (90 – θ )
Answer: [A]
16. What would be the size of global stiffness matrix for the fog given below
A. 3x3
B. 4x4
C. 8x8
D. 6x6
Answer: [D]
17. For the matrix equation [K]{u} = {f} + {R}, {K} represents...
A. Force terms attributable to distributed external load.
B. Stiffness terms.
C. Primary Variable term.
D. Terms due to presence of external concentrated as well as distributed loads.
Answer: [B]
18. For the matrix equation [K]{u} = {f} + {R}, {u} represents...
A. Stiffness term.
B. Primary variable term.
C. Displacement vector.
D. Force term.
Answer: [C]
19. CST element has following number of nodes
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. None of above
Answer: [B]
20. Number of nodes observed in the given truss are
A. 5
B. 4
C. 8
D. 6
Answer: [B]
21. If N1(x), N2(x), and N3(x) denote the three shape functions on a three node
quadratic element, then N1(x) + N2(x) + N3(x) = 0.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: [B]
22. Which one is essential boundary conditions.
A. Shear force
B. Bending moment
C. Displacement
D. Stress
Answer: [C]
23. Which one is not essential boundary conditions.
A. Displacement
B. Bending moment
C. Slope

Answer: [B]
24. The structure made up of several bars, riveted or welded together is called as
A. Mechanism
B. Truss
C. Beam
Answer: [B]
25. Which is/are the phase/s of finite element method
A. Prepossessing
B. Solution
C. Post Processing
D. All of the above
Answer: [D]
26. Which is the primary variable in FEM structural analysis ?
A. Displacement
B. Force
C. Stress
D. Strain
Answer: [A]
27. The displacement vector 'u' is represented by
A. u = [ u1, u2]T
B. u = [ u1, u2]
C. u = [ u1x u2]T
D. u = [ u1/u2]T
Answer: [A]
A. Minimum potential energy principle
B. Galerkin‟s principle
C. Weighted residual method
D. Inverse matrix method
Answer: [D]
29. Continuum is divided into finite segment is called
A. Element
B. Node
C. Segment
D. Point
Answer: [A]
30. In one dimensional, the stress and strain relation is given by
A. σ = Ε*∈
B. σ = Ε /∈
C. σ = ∈/ Ε
D. σ=Ε-∈
Answer: [A]
31. A plane truss element has a stiffness matrix of order
A. 2x2
B. 4x4
C. 6x6
D. 1x1
Answer: [B]
32. What are the number of nodes in 3-Dimensional brick element ?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: [D]
33. The minimum number of dimensions to define the position of a point in space are
required ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: [C]
34. Each node of a 1-D beam element has ...........DOF's
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: [B]
35. Number of DOF per node in a triangular thermal element is/are....
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: [C]
36. Conductance matrix is the equivalent of stiffness matrix in ........analysis
A. Dynamic
B. Fluid Flow
C. Thermal
D. Static Structural
Answer: [C]
37. Conductance matrix is the equivalent of stiffness matrix in ........analysis
A. Dynamic
B. Fluid Flow
C. Thermal
D. Static Structural
Answer: [C]
38. The Finite Element Method formulation of the problem results in a system of-
A. Algebraic Equations
B. Logical Equation
C. Arithmetic Equation
D. Flow Equation
Answer: [A]
39. FEM gives accurate representation of -
A. Real Geometry
B. Complex Geometry
C. Real and Complex Geometry
D. Constant Geometry
Answer: [B]
40. Finite Element Method is also called-
A. Infinite Element Analysis
B. Frequency Element Analysis
C. Finite Element Analysis
D. Partial Element Analysis
Answer: [C]
41. For truss analysis which type of elements are used?
A. Triangle
B. Bar
C. Rectangle
D. Parallelogram
Answer: [B]
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: [B]
43. For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix
formed is having an order of
A. 2x2
B. 3x3
C. 4x4
D. 6x6
Answer: [B]
44. One dimensional elements among following is..
A. Truss element
B. Bar, Beam element
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above\
Answer: [C]
45. Two dimensional element is/are
A. Truss element
B. Bar, Beam element
C. Both a & b
D. Triangular element
Answer: [D]
46. Three dimensional element is/are...
A. Triangular element
B. Tetrahedral elements
C. Both a & b
D. Hexahedral elements
Answer: [B] & [D]
47. What are the methods are generally associated with the finite element analysis?
A. Force method.
B. Displacement or stiffness method
C. Both a & b

Answer: [C]
48. Analysis and evaluation of the solution results is referred to as -
A. Preprocessing
B. Post Processing
C. Both a & b
D. Processing
Answer: [B]
49. Application of "Boundary Conditions" is associated with which of the following

process of FEA?
A. a. Preprocessing
B. b. Post Processing
C. Both a & b
D. Processing
Answer: [A]
50. Application of "Material Properties" is associated with which of the following

process of FEA?
A. Preprocessing
B. Post Processing
C. Both a & b
D. Processing
Answer: [A]
51. "Solution" is associated with which of the following process of FEA?
A. Preprocessing
B. Post Processing
C. Both a & b
D. Processing
Answer: [A]
52. Axes which are established in an element are called?
A. Local Axes
B. Global Axes
C. Both a & b

Answer: [A]
53. What are the types of loading acting on the structure?
A. Body force (f)
B. Traction force (T)
C. Point load (P)
D. All of the above
Answer: [D]
54. The points in the entire structure are defined using co-ordinate system is known
as:
A. Global co-ordinates
B. Local co-ordinates
C. Natural co-ordinates
D. All of the above

Answer: [A]
55. The boundary conditions, which are in the differential form of field variables, are
known as -
A. Secondary boundary condition
B. Primary boundary condition
C. Essential boundary condition
D. All of the above
Answer: [A]
56. The boundary condition, which in terms of field variable, is known as-
A. Secondary boundary condition
B. Primary boundary condition
C. Essential boundary condition
D. All of the above

Answer: [B] & [C]
57. In weighted residual technique, the methods adopted are -
A. Point collocation method
B. Least squares method
C. Galerkin’s method
D. All of the above

Answer: [D]
58. The number of shape functions will be equal to the number of-
A. nodes of element
B. elements of the structure
C. size of the structure
D. Coordinates
Answer: [A]
59. The two dimensional elements are called ________elements.
A. Para symmetric
B. Dia symmetric
C. Axi symmetric
D. All
Answer: [C]
60. In FEA, to evaluate the strain displacement matrix we use________ method.
A. Crammer
B. Henry
C. Jacobian
D. None
Answer: [C]
Subject: Finite Element Analysis and Simulation Techniques (FEAST)
Class: BE Semester: VIII

A. always exact
B. mostly approximate
C. sometimes exact
D. never exact
Answer- B
2. Primary variable in FEM structural analysis is

A. Displacement
B. Force
C. Stress
D. strain
Answer- A
3. The art of subdividing a structure into convenient number of smaller components is

known as
A. global stiffness matrix

B. force vector
C. discretization
D. none
Answer- C
4. is/are the phase/s of finite element method
A. Preprocessing
B. Solution
C. Post Processing
D. a, b & c
Answer- D
5. The points in the entire structure are defined using coordinates system is known as
A. local coordinates
B. natural coordinates
C. global coordinate system
D. none
Answer- C
(A) Rectangle
(B) Quadrilateral
(C) Parallelogram
(D) Tetrahedron
Answer- d.

(A) Hexahedron
(B) Quadrilateral
(C) Rectangular prism
(D) Tetrahedron
Answer- B
8. For truss analysis, which type of elements are used?
(A) Triangle
(B) Bar
(C) Rectangle
(D) Parallelogram
Answer- B
called
(A) finite elements
(B) infinite elements
(C) dynamic elements
(D) static elements
Answer- A
10. The sum of the shape function is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer- C
11.A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer- D
12. Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on _ .
(A) nature of element
(B) type of an element
(C) degrees of freedom
(D) nodes
Answer- C
(A) KU=F
(B) KU≠F
(C) K=UF
(D) K≠UF
Answer- A
(A) structural mechanics
(B) classical mechanics
(C) applied mechanics
(D) engineering mechanics
Answer- D
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Answer- D
16. In FEA, the sub domains are called as .
(A) particles
(B) molecules
(C) elements
(D) none
Answer- C
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Answer- B
18. Finite element analysis deals with .
(A) approximate numerical solution
(B) non-boundary value problems
(C) partial differential equations
(D) laplace equations
Answer- A
(A) material
(B) geometry
(C) both material and geometry
Answer- C
20. Example of 2-D Element is .
(A) bar
(B) triangle
(C) hexahedron
(D) tetrahedron
Answer- B
21. For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed is having
an order of
(A) 2*2
(B) 3*3
(C) 4*4
(D) 6*6
Answer- B
22. To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, are used.
(A) shape function
(B) node function
(C) element function
(D) coordinate function
Answer- A
(A) boundary condition
(B) traction
(C) friction
(D) surfacing
Answer- A
(A) axial force
(B) surface force
(C) point load
Answer- A
(A) axial direction
(B) vertical direction
(C) horizontal direction
(D) inclined direction
Answer- A
26. Example for one – Dimensional element is .
(A) triangular element
(B) brick element
(C) truss element
(D) axisymmetric element
Answer- C
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
Answer- D
28. How many nodes are there in a 3-D brick element?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer- C
(A) Symmetric about axis
(B) Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis
(C) Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis
(D) All the above
Answer- D
30. Axis-Symmetric element is Element
(A) 1D
(B) 2D
(C) 3D
(D) 4D
Answer- B
31. The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in space is
.
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer- A
32. The finite element methods can be applied in areas.
(A) thermal
(B) soil and rock mechanics
(C) vibration
Answer- D
33. If the structure is more complex in order to simplify the model, we need to subdivide the
structure into substructures. These substructures are termed as .
(A) elements
(B) modules
(C) links
(D) models
Answer- B
34. Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix?
(A) The minimum potential energy principle
(B) Galerkin's principle
(C) Weighted residual method
(D) Inverse matrix method
Answer- D
35. is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the element to the smallest
dimension.
(A) Element depth ratio
(B) Mode shape ratio
(C) Aspect ratio
Answer- C
36. are used to express the geometry or shape of the element.
(A) Mode shapes
(B) Shape functions
(C) Natural curves
Answer- B
37. When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is called
.
(A) plane stress
(B) plane strain
(C) zero stress
(D) zero strain
Answer- A
38. The characteristic of the shape function is .
(A) the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the other nodes
(B) the sum of the shape function is equal to one
(C) both a & b
Answer- C
39. The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known as .
(A) local coordinates system
(B) natural coordinates system
(C) global coordinate system
Answer- C
40. The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are .
(A) stretching of plates
(B) gravity of dams
(C) axisymmetric shells
Answer- C
41. If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement is considered
in .
(A) inverse matrix method
(B) weighted residual method
(C) Galerkin‟s principle
(D) the minimum potential energy principle
Answer- D
(A) K is a banded matrix
(B) K is un-symmetric
(C) K is an un-banded matrix
Answer- A
43. The actual thickness of plane strain element is .
(A) very large
(B) very small
(C) assumed by software
(D) any of the above
Answer- A
(A) ANSYS
(B) Nastran
(C) Abaqus
(D) AutoCAD
Answer- D
(A) Static analysis
(B) Thermal analysis
(C) Modal analysis
Answer- D
46. For thermal analysis, the field variable is .
(A) stress
(B) strain
(C) displacement
(D) temperature
Answer- D
47. In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find .
(A) stress distribution
(B) heat flux distribution
(C) pressure distribution
Answer- C
48. Crack propagation problems come under category.
(A) steady-state problems
(B) eigenvalue problems
(C) transient problems
Answer- C
49. In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having stiffness.
(A) zero
(B) very small
(C) very large
(D) infinite
Answer- D
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer- B
51. How many nodes are there in a hexahedron element?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer- C
52. If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be accurate.
(A) more
(B) less
(C) depends on other factors
(D) can't say
Answer- A
53. In FEA, the use of smaller-sized elements will lead to computation time
(A) less
(B) more
(D) can't say
Answer- B
54. Elements with an aspect ratio of near to generally yield best results in FEA.
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer- C
55. In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation .
(A) R=KU+F
(B) R=KU-F
(C) R=K+UF
(D) R=K-UF
Answer- B
56. The total potential energy of an elastic body is defined as .
(A) Strain energy - Work potential
(B) Strain energy + Work potential
(C) Strain energy + Kinetic energy - Work potential
(D) Strain energy + Kinetic energy + Work potential
Answer- B
57. The strain energy per unit volume is equal to .
(A) (1/2) * Force * Deflection
(B) (1/4) * Force * Deflection
(C) (1/2) * Stress * Deflection
(D) (1/4) * Stress * Deflection
Answer – A
58. In the penalty approach, the magnitude of the stiffness constant should be at least
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 1000
(D) 10000
Answer – D
59 The equation for thermal stress in each element is .
(A) σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
(B) σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
(C) σ = E (B + α Δt)
(D) σ = E (B - α Δt)
Answer- B
60. In any FEA software, the large amount of mathematical work is done in phase.
(A) preprocessing
(B) solution
(C) postprocessing
Answer- C
ANS
Finite Element and Simulation Technique MCQ Questions
BE Mechanical SEM _ VIII
1) At fixed support displacement are/is considered equal to........... d
(a)1
(b)2
(c)4.77
(d)0
2) The displacement function for 1-D, two node linear element in terms of shape a
function is given as............
(a)u=N1u1+N2u2
(b)u=N2u1+N2u2
(c)u=N2u1+N1u2
(d)u=N2u2+N2u1
3) The art of subdividing a continuum into a finite number of smaller components is a
called as...........
(a) descritization
(b)mathematical modeling
(c) none of these
4) The sum of shape function is generally equal to............ a
(a)1
(b)6.667
(c)0
(d) -6.667
5) The number of nodes for 1 D element is/are... a
(a)2
(b)1
(c)0
(d)1.417
6) The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions a
called....................
(a)boundary condition
(b) traction
(c) friction
(d)descritization
7) Proper example of 1-D Element a
(a) Bar
(b) Triangle
(c) Square
(d) Tetrahedron
8) The point in the entire structure is defined using coordinates system is known d
as...............................
(a) local coordinate
(b)natural coordinate
(c)region coordinate
(d) global coordinate
9) Magnitude of ....................... never exceeds unity b
(a)local coordinate
(b)natural coordinate
(c)region coordinate
(d) global coordinate
10) For 1-D heat conductional element, Temperature function, T=........ a
(a)N1T1+N2T2
(b) N1T1-N2T2
(c) N1T1/N2T2
(d) none
11) By using FEM the approximate solution of .............. can be found d
(a)complex geometry
(b)irregular shapes
(c)regular shapes
(d)all the above
12) Range of Poisson’s ratio for metals is generally d
(a) 1-9
(b) 3-3.167
(c) 0.001-0.01
(d) 0.25-0.50
13 Finite Element Method is also called as c
a)infinite element analysis
b)frequency element analysis
c)finite element analysis
d)all of the above
14) To solve FEM problem it subdivides a large problem into smaller simpler parts that a
are called
a) finite element
b)infinite element
c)dynamic elements
d)static elements
15) From the following, which type of element is not two dimensional? d
a)Rectangle
b)Quadrilateral
c) Parallelogram
d) Tetrahedron
16) From the following, which type of element is not three dimensional? b
a) Hexahedron
b) Quadrilateral
c) Rectangular prism
d) Tetrahedron
17) On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by a

(a) KQ=F
(b) KQ≠F
(c) K=QF
(d) K≠QF
18) At fixed support, the displacements is/are equal to 0

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 0
19) Finite element analysis deals with ___________ . a

(a) approximate numerical solution
(b) non-boundary value problems
(c) only software solutions
20) To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are used. a
(a) shape function
(b) element function
(c) coordinate function
21) From below, choose the correct condition for the axisymmetric element. d
(a) Symmetric about axis
(b) Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis
(c) Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis
(d) All the above
22) Axis-Symmetric element is______________Element b

(a) 1D
(b) 2D
(c) 3D
(d) 4D
23) The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in a
space is _______.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2
24) The finite element methods can be applied in ____________areas. d

(a) thermal
(b) soil and rock mechanics
(c) vibration
25) Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix? d
(a)The minimum potential energy principle
(b) Galerkin's principle
(c) Weighted residual method
(d) Inverse matrix method
26) When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is a
called ________.
(a) plane stress
(b) plane strain
(c) zero stress
(d) zero strain
27) The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are d
______.
(a) stretching of plates
(b) gravity dam
(c) axisymmetric shells
28) If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement is d
considered in ______ .
(a) inverse matrix method
(b) weighted residual method
(c) Galerkin‟s principle
(d) the minimum potential energy principle
29) Which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)? a
(a) K is a banded matrix
(b) K is un-symmetric
(c) K is an un-banded matrix
30) The actual thickness of plane strain element is ______. a

(a) very large
(b) very small
(c) assumed by software
(d) any of the above
31) Which of the following is not an FEA package? d

(a) ANSYS
(b) Nastran
(c) Abaqus
(d) AutoCAD
32) For thermal analysis, which is the proper field variable _________. d
(a) stress
(b) strain
(c) displacement
(d) temperature
33) In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having _________ c

stiffness.
(a) zero
(b) very small
(c) very large
34) How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element? b

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
35) How many nodes are there in a hexahedron element? c

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
36) If the size of the elements is small , the final solution is expected to be ______ a
accurate.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) can't say
37) In FEA, the use of smaller-sized elements will lead to _______ computation time b
(a) less
(b) more
(c) can't say
38) The total potential energy of an elastic body is defined as _______. b

(a) Strain energy - Work potential
(b) Strain energy + Work potential
(c) Strain energy + Kinetic energy - Work potential
(d) Strain energy + Kinetic energy + Work potential
39) As per the penalty approach, the equation of reaction force is _____. c
(a) R = -CU
(b) R = CU
(c) R = -C (U-a)
(d) R = -C (U+a)
40) In any FEA software, the large amount of mathematical work is done in ________ b
phase.
(a) preprocessing
(b) solution
(c) postprocessing
41) Which of the following are weighted residual techniques? d

(a)Method of point collocation
(b)Method of Least Sqaures
(c)Galerkin’s Approach
(d)All of the above
42) Point collocation technique can be classified into d
(a)interior collocation method
(b) boundary collocation method
(c) mixed collocation method
43) In which of the following the sum of squares of the resi duels are minimal (or made a
zero) after substitution of the approximate solution in the differential equation
a) method of least square
b)Galerkin method
c) both of the above
d)None of the above
44) In which of the following method approximating or trial functions are considered to b
be the weighting functions
a)method of least square
b) Galerkin’s method
d) None of the above
45) Which of the following are advantages of the finite element method d
a) boundary conditions can be easily incorporated in FEM
b) problem with heterogeneity can be solved
c) problem with nonlinearity and time dependency can be solved
d) all of the above
46) Improper selection of element type or discretization may lead to d

a)positive results
b) accurate results
c) no results
d)Faulty results
47) Tetrahedron is generally used to discretize...................problems. c
a)one dimensional
b)twodimensional
c)threedimensional
d)none of the above
48) If the functional representation of field variable and mapping function are a
expressed by the interpolation function of same order ,the curve edge element
used is refer to as .......................element.
a) isoparametric element
b)subparametric element
c)superparametric element
d)none of the above
49) Which of the following are approaches in FEM to formulate element matrices d
a) variational approach
b) energy approach
c) weighted residual approach
d) all of the above
50) Geometric boundary conditions are also known as d

a)forced boundary conditions
b) essential boundary conditions
c)kinematics boundary conditions
d) all of the above
51) ........... boundary conditions classified into two categories i.e homogenous and c
non-homogenous
a)force boundary conditions
b) geometric boundary conditions
d) none of the above
52) The homogenous or the zero boundary conditions occur at a location that are…. a
a)completely restrain (that is prevented from moving )
b) selected with some degrees of freedom
53) Self weight due to gravity is the example of.............. a
a)Body force
b)Surface traction
c)both of the above
54) Pressure and distributed contact force is the example of............ b

a)Body force
b)Surface traction
c)both of the above
55. Which of the following stage is related with presentations of results c

a)Preprocessing
b)Processing
c)Post processing
d)none of the above
56. Which of the following stage is related with modeling of structure, selection of a
element type, input of material properties etc.
a)Preprocessing
b)Processing
c)Post processing
d)none of the above
57. Which of the following stage is related with generation of stiffness matrix, solution b
of equations,determination of nodal displacement etc.
a)Preprocessing
b)Processing
c)Post processing
d)none of the above
58. Quadrilateral elements are generally used for c

a)Plane stress
b)plane strain
c)Both of the above
59. Triangular elements are generally used for c
a)Plane stress
b)plane strain
c)Both of the above
60. ______________ is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the element to c
the smallest dimension
(a) Element depth ratio
(b) Mode shape ratio
(c) Aspect ratio
(d) None of the above
Subject: FINITE ELEMENT ANALYSIS AND SIMULATION TECHNIQUES

Branch: MECHANICAL
Class: B.E.
Semester: VIII
No Question Ans.
The ………….is the numerical method for solving complex problems in wide variety of
1 engineering fields
[A] FEA [B] computational analysis A
[C] anasys [D] ANSA
2 Finite element analysis deals with….
[A] approximate numerical solution [B] non boundary value problems
[C] partial differential equations [D] Laplace equations A
3 Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on….

[A] Nature of element [B] type of an element
[C] degrees of freedom [D] nodes C
4 Domain is divided into some segments called
[A] finite element
[B]stiffness matrix
[C]node function A
[D]shape function
5 In weighted residual technique,the methods adopted are

[A] point collocation method [B] least squares method
[C] galerkin’s method [D] all D
6 The art of subdividing a structure into a convenient number of smaller components isCalled
[A] discretization
[B] numbering of nodes
[C] continumm A
[D] both a &b
7 Identify the plane stress – strain relationship matrix
1 0
(A) . 1 0
²
0 0
1 0 0
1 0 A
(B) ²
0 0
1 0
(C) 1
²
1
0 0 0
(D) 0 0
²
0 0
8 The finite element method is mostly used in the field of……..
[A] structural mechanics
[B]classical mechanics
D
[C] applied mechanics
[D]engg mecahnics
9 The sub domains are called as…..

[A]Particles
[B] molecules C
[C] elements
[D] None
10 The force required to produce unit displacement is….

[A] pressure
[B] traction A
[C] stiffness
[D] none
11 Rayleingh-Ritz method is used for finding an approximate solution.
[A] True A
[B] False
12 In FEM the body is divided into finite number of smaller units known as……
[A]Structure [B] Elements B
[C]Nodal [D] Point
13 The values of variables prescribed on the boundaries of the region are called as…..
[A]Position [B] System C
[C]Boundary conditions [D] Natural conditions
14 FEM Stands for……
[A] Finite Element Method [B]Fine Element Method A
[C] Finite Element Machine [D]Fine Element Machjine
15 Applications of FEM…..
[A]Static-Linear analysis [B]Thermal Analysis D
[C]Mechanical design [D] All of Above
16 ……..stage deals with the presentation of Results
[A] Preprocessing [B] Processing C
[C] Post-processing [D] None
17 ……………involves modeling of the body selection of the element type, discretization of body,
inputting material information A
[A] Preprocessing [B] Processing
[C] Post-processing [D] None
18 …….is the process of dividing the body into a finite number of the elements
[A]Finite Element [B] Matrix D
[C]Mining [D] Discretization
19 Geometric Conditions are also known as…….
[A]Natural boundary conditions [B]Force boundary conditions C
[C]Kinematic boundary conditions [D]None
20 ……..is the frame of reference for the entire structure.
[A] Global co-ordinate system [B] Local co-ordinate system A
[C] Natural co-ordinate system [D] None of above
21 Example of 1-D Element
[A] Bar
[B] Triangle A
[C] Square
[D] Tetrahedron
22 Stiffness matrix depends on
[A] material
[B] geometry C
[C] both
[D] none
23 The higher order elements are also called as

[A] complex elements
[B] compound element
[C] linear element A
[D] none
24 The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called
[A] boundary condition
[B] traction A
[C] friction
[D]surfacing
25 For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed is having
order of………………………..
[A] 2*2 B
[B] 3*3
C] 4*4
[D] 6*6
26 The displacement function for 1-D ,two node linear element in terms of shape function will be
[A] u = N1u2 + N2u1
[B] u = N2 u1 + N1u2 C
[C] u = N1u1+N2u2
[D] u = N1u1+N1u2
27 The truss element can resist only

[A] axial force
[B] surface force A
[C] point load
[D] none
28 . …….are used to find the nodal displacements in all parts of element

[A] shape function
[B]node function A
[C]element function
[D]coordinate function
29 Example of 2-D Element

[A] Bar
[B] Triangle B
[C] Hexahedron
[D] Tetrahedron
30 Sum of all shape functions is equal to

[A] Zero
[B] -1 C
[C] +1
[D] 2
[A] complex elements
[B] compound element A
[C] linear element
[D] none
32 At Fixed support The displacements are equal to ……………………………

[A] 1
[B] 2 D
[C] 3
[D] 0
33 The shape function of the beam elements are known as

[A] hermite shape functions
[B] element shape functions B
[C] hermite element functions
[D] both A&B
34 The number of nodes for 1 D element are...
[A] 1
[B] 2 B
[C] 3
[D] none
35 Global Stiffness Matrix sum of any row or column is equal to zero

[A]True A
[B]False
36 The ……… of the beam elements are known as element shape functions
[A] hermite shape functions
[B] shape functions B
[C] hermite element functions
[D] both A&B
37 The higher order elements are also called as Complex element
[A]True A
[B]False
38 The higher order elements are also called as compound element
[A]True B
[B]False
39 The truss element can resist only Axial force
[A]True A
[B]False
40 Sum of all shape functions is equal to….
[A] 3
[B] 4
[C] +1 C
[D] -1
41 A triangular plane stress element has ………degree’s of freedom

[A] 3
[B] 4 D
[C] 5
[D] 6
42 The point in the entire structure is defined using coordinates system is known as
[A] local coordinate
[B]natural coordinate
[C]region coordinate D
[D] global coordinate
43 . …….magnitude never exceeds unity

[A] local coordinate
[B] natural coordinate B
[C] region coordinate
44 Units for torsion force is

[A] N/mm2
[B] N/m B
[C] Kgf/m
[D] Kgf/mm
45 The two dimensional elements are called ________elements
a) Para symmetric
b) dia symmetric C
c) Axi symmetric
d)All
46 .________is the reciprocal of period

a) displacement
b) frequency B
c) amplitude
d) none
47 When the element is in equilibrium the total P.E. is constant and hence the change in P.E. is
Zero A
[A]True
[B]False
48 ………is the sum of strain energy and work potential
[A]Total Potential Energy A
[B]Total Strain Energy
49 The two dimensional elements are called Para symmetric elements
[A]True B
[B]False
50 Mathematical analysis of free vibration using consistent mass matrices is called…..
[A] Local coordinate
[B] Natural coordinate D
[C] Region Analysis
[D] Dynamic Analysis
51 Mixed Method is applicable for……

[A]Incompressible Solid A
[B]Compressible Solid
52 Dynamic analysis related with eigen value, free vibration, linear transient dynamics.
[A]True A
[B]False
53 Amplitude is the reciprocal of period
[A]True B
[B]False
54 Frequency is the reciprocal of period
[A]True A
[B]False
55 …….is the ratio of stress and strain
[A]Youngs Modulus [B]Elastic limit A
[C]Modulus of Rigidity [D] Deflection
56 Method of least square need to always leads to symmetric matrix
[A]True B
[B]False
57 The displacements inside the elements are written using…….
[A] Shape function [B]CST A
[C] Line function [D]Complex Method
58 The three node triangular element is also known as……
A] Shape function [B]CST B
[C] Line function [D]Complex Method
59 Units for torsion force is N/m
[A]True A
[B]False
60 Total Potential Enery is the sum of strain energy and work potential
[A]True A
[B]False
Subject: Finite Element Analysis and Simulation
Branch:Mechanical
Class: BE (Mech)
Semester: VIII
Q1. How many nodes are in 2D element?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3 or more
ANS.: D
Q2. The basic element in 2D element is
A. Square
B. Circle
C. Triangular
D. Pentagon
ANS.: C
Q3. Quadrilateral element is formed by____
A. One triangular Element
B. One rectangular element
C. Assembling two or more triangular element
D. Assembling two or more rectangular element
ANS.: C
Q4. Hydraulic cylinder rod analysis comes under _____ analysis
A. 1D
B. 2D
C. 3D
ANS.: B
Q5. Which kinds of finite element used in 2D problem are
A. Triangular
B. Rectangular
C. Quadrilateral
D. All of the above
ANS.: D
Q6. Better results are obtained by_______the no. of nodes
A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Multiplying
D. Dividing
ANS.: A
Q7. Full form of CST element is
A. Constant stress triangular
B. Constant strain triangular
C. Constant structure triangular

ANS.:A
Q8. How many degree of freedom are there in CST element
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
ANS.: C
Q9. What are the modes of heat transfer?
A. conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. All of the above
ANS.: D
Q10. Bar and bean elements are considered aS_____
A. 1D elements
B. 2D elements
C. 3D elements
ANS.: A
Q11. A bar is a member which resist only
A. Axial
B. Longitudinal
C. Transverse
D. Parallel
ANS.: A
Q12. Mention the three types of loading acts on the body
A. Traction force
B. Point load
C. Body force
D. All of the above
ANS.: D
Q13. Frictional resistance and viscous drag are known as_____force
A. Body
B. Traction
C. Point load
ANS.: B
Q14. Mention the type of coordinate
A. Local
B. Global
C. Natural
D. All of the above
ANS.: D
Q15. If the co-ordinate system if formed for the one particular element then
the co-ordinate system is said to be
A. Local
B. Global
C. Natural
ANS.: A
Q16. The value of shape function for the non nodal point is
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
ANS.: A
Q17. Sum of the shape function is equal to
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
ANS.: B
Q18. Structure made of several bars rivets or welded together is referred as
A. Static
B. Tensile
C. Members
D. Truss
ANS.: D
Q19.Stiffnes matrix is a _________matrix
A. Symmetric
B. Asymmetric
C. Diagonal
D. Square
ANS.: A
Q20. Which mode of heat transfer is a electromagnetic wave form
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
ANS.: C
Q21.Which of the following is a dimensionless equation
A. Reynold's equation
B. Euler's equation
C. Weber's equation
D. All of the above
ANS.: D
Q22.A triangular plane stress element has how many degree of freedom
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
ANS.: D
Q23.Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on

A. Nature of element
B. Type of an element
C. Degree of freedom
D. Nodes
ANS.: C
Q24.In weighted residual technique the methods adopted are
A. Point collocation method
B. Least squares method
C. Galerkin’s method
D. All of above
ANS.: D
Q25.The higher order elements are also called as
A. Complex elements
B. Compound element
C. Linear element
D. None
ANS.: A
Q26.The displacement function for 1D two node linear element in terms of

shape function will be
A. U = N1u2+ N2u1
B. U = N2u1+ N1u2
C. U = N1u1+N2u2
D. U = N1u1+N1u2
ANS.: C
Q27.On gathering stiffness and loads ,the system of equations is given by
A. KQ=F
B. KQ?F
C. K=QF
D. K?QF
ANS.: A
Q28.All the calculation are made at limited number of points known as
A. Elements
B. Nodes
C. Descritization
D. Mesh
ANS.: A
Q29.The points in the entire structure are defined using coordinate system is
known as
A. Local coordinate
B. Natural coordinates
C. Global coordinates
D. None
ANS.: C
Q30.Primary variable in FEM structural analysis is
A. Displacement
B. Force
C. Stress
D. Strain
ANS.: A
Q31.Which of the follwing is not a method for calculation of stiffness matrix
A. Minimum potential energy principle
B. Galerkins principle
ANS.: D
Q32.The finite element method formulation of the problem results in a system

of
A. Algebraic equations
B. Logical equations
C. Arthimatic equations
D. Flow equations
ANS.: A
Q33.FEM gives accurate representation of
A. Rreal geometry
B. Complex geometry
C. Real and complex geometry
D. Constant geometry
ANS.: B
Q34.Finite element method is also called
A. Infinite element analysis
B. Frequency element analysis
C. Finite element analysis

D. Partial element analysis
ANS.: C
Q35.Numerical algorithms are based on
A. FEM and FDTD
B. FEM and IFEM
C. TD and FD
D. FEM and FD
ANS.: A
Q36.To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller,
simpler parts that are called
A. Finite elements
B. Infinite elements
C. Dynamic elements
D. Static elements
ANS.: A
Q37.Triangular and rectangular elements are consider as
A. 3d elements
B. 2d elements
C. ½ d elements
D. 4d elements
ANS.: B
Q38.FEA is the integral part of
A. Computer
B. Cad/cam
C. System base programming
D. Analysis
ANS.: B
Q39. Which of the following filter we use in least square design methods?
A. All zero
B. All pole
C. Pole-zero
D. Any of the mentioned
ANS.: B
Q40. Which of the following operation is done on the sequence in least square
design method?
A. Convolution
B. DFT
C. Circular convolution
D. Correlation
ANS.: D
Q41. Which of the following is not the displacement method?
A. Equilibrium method
B. Column analogy method
C. Moment distribution method
D. Kani's method
ANS.: B
Q42.In the displacement method of structural analysis, the basic unknowns are
A. Displacements
B. Force
C. Displacements and forces
ANS.: A
Q43. Why does Rayleigh’s method have limitations?
A. To many variables
B. Format
C. Exponents in between variables
D. Many exponents
ANS.: C
Q44. The analysis of boundary value problem involves functions of a

differential operator which is
A. Algebraic function
B. Logical function
C. Eigen function
D. Symmetric function
ANS.: C
Q45. Solution to a boundary value problem which satisfies the boundary

condition is a solution to the
A. Integral equation
B. Differential equation
C. Maxwell's equation
D. Logical equation
ANS.: B
Q46. Differential form of Maxwell's equation is used to solve Electromagnetics
A. Boundary value problems
B. Separated value problems
C. Integral problems
D. Non-boundary problems
ANS.: A
Q47.The finite element method is mostly used in the field of
A. Structural mechanics
B. Classical mechanics
C. Applied mechanics
D. Engineering mechanics
ANS.: D
Q48. The shape function of the beam elements are known as
A. Hermite shape functions
B. Element shape functions
C.Hermite element functions
D. Both A & B
ANS.: B
Q49. In the banded matrix, all the element outside the band are
A. One
B. Zero
C. Two
D. None of these
ANS.: B
Q50.The process involves modelling of the body, selection of element type,

discretization, inputting material information, applying boundary condition and
load is known as
A. Solution
B. Pre-processor
C. Post Processing
D. All of the above
ANS.: B
Q51.The distributed force per unit area acting on the element body surface is
known as
A. Point force
B. Surface Force
C. Body Force
ANS.: B
Q52.Sum of all shape function is............
A. 1
B. 6.667
C. 0
D. -6.667
ANS.: A
Q53.The number of nodes for 1 D element is...

A. 2
B.1
C.0
D. 3
ANS.: A
Q54.Stiffness matrix depends on

A. Material
B. Geometry
C. Both A and B
D.None of above
ANS.: C
Q55. For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness
matrix formed is having dimensions of………
A. 2 x 2
B. 1 x 3
C. 3 x 1
D. 3 x 3
ANS.: D
Q56. The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions
called...................
A. Boundary condition
B. Traction
C. Friction
D. Discrimination
ANS.: A
Q57. Proper example of 1-D Element

A. Bar
B. Triangle
C. Square
D. Tetrahedron
ANS.: A
Q58. The point in the entire structure is defined using coordinates system is
known as...............................
A. Local coordinate
B. Natural coordinate
C. Region coordinate
D. Global coordinate
ANS.: D
Q59. Magnitude of....................... never exceeds unity
A. Local coordinate
B. Natural coordinate
C. Region coordinate
D. Global coordinate
ANS.: B
Q60. The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is equal to
A. One
B. Zero
C. Depends on size of [K]
D. Two
ANS.: B
Subject: Finite Element Analysis
Branch: Mechanical
Class-B.E
Semester-VIII
1 A triangular plane stress element has ....... degree’s of freedom
[A] 3
[B] 4
[C] 5
[D] 6
ANS – D
2 Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on
[A] Nature of element

[B] type of an element
[C] degrees of freedom
[D] nodes
ANS – C
3 In weighted residual technique, the methods adopted are
[A] point collocation method

[B] least squares method
[C] galerkin’s method
[D] all
ANS – D
[A]complex elements
[B]compound element
[C]linear element
[D]none
ANS – A
5 The eight node quadrilateral elementbelongs to .......... Family fo elements

7 On gathering stiffness and loads ,the system of equations is given by
[A] KQ=F
[B] [B]KQ≠F
[C] [C]K=QF
[D] [D]K≠QF
ANS – A
8 A six noded triangular element is known as
[A] linear straintriangular element

[B] constant strain triangular element
[C] varaiable straintriangular element
[D] differable strain triangularelement
ANS – B
9. The art of subdividing a structure int a convenient number of smaller components isCalled
[A] discretization
[B] numbering of nodes
[C] continumm
[D] both a&b
ANS – A
10 A three noded triangular element is calledas
a. linear straintriangular element

b. constant strain triangular element
c. varaiable strain triangular element
d. differable strain triangular element
ANS – B
11 The geometry and other parameters of an element in terms of only one spatial coordinate
then the elements
a. 2 dimensional
b. One dimensional
c. three dimensional
d. none
ANS – D
12 The finite element method is mostly used in the field of
[A] structural mechanics

[B] classical mechanics
C] applied mechanics
14 Sum of all shape functions is equal to
[A]Zero
[B] -1
[C] +1
[D]2
ANS – C

[A]complexelements
[B] compound element
[C]linear element
[D]none
ANS – A
16 At Fixed support The displacements are equal to ……………………………

[A]1
[B]2
[C]3
[D]0
ANS – D
17 FEM also operates the parameters like
[A] heat transfer

[B] temperature
[C]both A&B
[D]none
ANS – D
18 The force required to produce unit displacementis

[A] pressure
[B] traction
[C] stiffness
[D] none
ANS – A
19 The distributed force per unit area on the surface of the body is
[A]pressure
[B]surface tension
[C]traction
[D]none
ANS – A
20 Domain is divided into some segments called

ANS – A
22 are used to find the nodal displacements in all parts of element

[A] shape function
[B] [node function
[C] element function
[D] coordinate function
ANS – A
23 The ................... is the numerical method for solving complex problems in wide varietyof
engineering fields
[A]FEA
[B]Computational analysis
[C]ansys
ANS-A
[A] boundary condition
[B] traction
[C] friction
[D] surfacing
ANS-A
25 The truss element can resistonly

[A] axialforce
[B] surface force
[C] point load
[D] none
ANS-D

[A] axialdirection
[B] vertical direction
[C] horizontal directional
[D] inclined direction
ANS-A
27 3-dimensional frames are usedto

[A] Modelling of cars and bicycle frames
[B] aerodynamics
[C] bus frames
[D] none
[A] FEA
[B] computational analysis
[C] ansys
[D] ANSA
ANS-A
[A]boundarycondition
[B]traction
[C] friction
[D]surfacing
ANS-A
31 The truss element can resistonly

[A] axial force
[B]surface force
[C]point load
[D]none
ANS-A
32 Units for torsion forceis
[A] N/mm2
[B] N/m
[C] Kgf/m
[D] Kgf/mm
ANS-B
33 The formulae to find the Number of displacements for truss having 3 nodesis………….
[A] Numberofnodes*2
[B] Number ofnodes*3
[C] Numberofnodes*4
[D] Number ofnodes*1
ANS-A
34 At Fixed support The displacements are equal to……………………………
[A]1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 0
ANS-D
35 The art of sub dividing a structure into a convenient number of smaller components is known as
ANS-D
37 …….magnitude never exceedsunity

[A] localcoordinate
[B] natural coordinate
[C] region coordinate
ANS-B
38 The shape function has…value at one nodal point and…value at other nodalpoint
[A] unity, negative
[B] positive, negative
[C] unity,zero
[D] high,low
ANS-C
39 Units for torsion forceis

[A] N/mm2
[B] N/m
[C] Kgf/m
[D] Kgf/mm
ANS-B
40 A small unit having definite shape of geometry and node is knownas
[A] Discrete element
[B] finite element
[C]assembled element
[D] Infinite element
ANS-A
41 Example for one – Dimensional element is…..
[A] Triangularelement
[B] Brickelement
[C]Trusselement
[D] Axisymmetricelement
ANS-B
42 The state of stress for a three dimensional body has ——— components.
[A]six
[B]three
[C]two
[D]four
43 The determinant of an element stiffness matrix isalways
[A] one
[B]zero
[C] depends on sizeof[K]
[D]Two
‘ ANS-A
44 Finite element analysis dealswith
46 A Deformable system is in equilibrium, if the first variation in the total P.E of the systemis
zero‘refers to
[A] theorem ofstationaryP.E
[B] theorem of virtual work
[C] theorem ofvirtualdisplacement
[D] bettis theorem
ANS-C
47 In one of the property of shape function, summation of shape function [Σfi]is
[A]n
[B]2n
[C]1
[D]0
ANS-D
48 In case of a truss member if there are 3 nodes and each node 2 DOF, then the order of Stiffness
matrixis
[A]2x2
[B]3x3
[C]2x3
[D]6x6
ANS-A
49 The truss element can deform only in the

[A] axial direction
[B] vertical direction
[C] horizontal directional
[D] inclined direction
ANS-B
50 The size of the stiffness matrix is equal to the degree of freedom of the
[A] element
[B]node
[C]shape function
[D]beam
ANS-A
51 QST element consist of number of nodes
[A]8
[B]9
[C]10
[D]11
ANS-A
54 Nodal points greater than geometry points is knownas
[A]Isoparametric
[B]Subparametric
[C]Superperametric
[D]QST
ANS-B
55 Based on which parameter an polynomial function canbe chosen

[A]Nodes
[B]Nodal points
[C]Nodal displacements
[D]Elements
ANS-B
56 Transformation axis is also known as

[A] transformed axis
[B] non-dimensional axis
[C]natural coordinates
[D]All
ANS-A
57 A six noded triangular element is known as
[A] linear strain triangular element
[B] constant strain triangular element
[C] varaiable strain triangular element
[D] differable strain triangular element
ANS-D
58 Heat transfer takes place dueto

[A] conduction
[B]convection
[C]Radiation
[D] ∆T
ANS-B
59 FEM equation for Fluid mechanics Element

[A]F=KT
[B]F=KP
[C]F=KU
[D]F=KZ
ANS-A
60 Stifness matrix for Axis symmetriceleementis [ A ]

[A][B]T[D][B]2πrt
[B][D]T[D][B]At
[C][B]T[D][L]2πrt
Subject: FEAST
Branch: Mechanical Engg
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q.1 In weighted residual technique, the methods adopted are

A. point collocation method
B. least squares method
C. galerkin’s method
D. all
ANSWER: D
Q.2 The higher order elements are also called as
A. compound element
B. linear element
C. none
D. complex elements
ANSWER: A
Q3. The eight node quadrilateral element belongs to…………. Family for elements
A. Serendipity
B. Interdipity
C. Sardipity
D. none
ANSWER: A
Q4. The displacement function for 1-D ,two node linear element in terms of shape function will
be
A. u = N1 u2 + N2u1
B. u = N2 u1 + N1u2
C. u = N1 u1 +N2u2
D. u = N1u1 +N1u2
ANSWER: C
Q5. On gathering stiffness and loads ,the system of equations is given by
A. KQ=F
B. KQ≠F
C. K=QF
D. K≠QF
ANSWER: A
Q.6 A six noded triangular element is known as

A. linear strain triangular element
B. constant strain triangular element
C. varaiable strain triangular element
D. differable strain triangular element
ANSWER: B
Q7. The art of subdividing a structure into a convenient number of smaller components is called
A. discretization
B. numbering of nodes
C. continumm
D. both a &b
ANSWER: A
Q8. A three noded triangular element is called as
A. linear strain triangular element
B. constant strain triangular element
C. varaiable strain triangular element
D. differable strain triangular element
ANSWER: B
Q9. Transformation matrix is represented by
A. [K]
B. [B]
C. [L]
D. [D]
ANSWER: C
Q10. The geometry and other parameters of an element in terms of only one spatial coordinate
then the element is
A. 2 dimensional
B. one dimensional
C. three dimensional
D. none
ANSWER: D
Q11. The finite element method is mostly used in the field of
A. structural mechanics
B. classical mechanics
C. applied mechanics
D. enggmecahnics
ANSWER: D
Q12. FEM can't produce exact results as those of…………methods
A. analytical
B. logical
C. theoritical
D. all the above
ANSWER: D
Q13. Sum of all shape functions is equal to
A. Zero
B. -1
C. +1
D. 2
ANSWER: C
Q14. The higher order elements are also called as
A. complex elements
B. compound element
C. linear element
D. none
ANSWER: A
Q15. At Fixed support The displacements are equal to ……………………………
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
ANSWER: D
Q 16. The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are ______.
A. stretching of plates
B. gravity of dams
C. axisymmetric shells
D. all of the above
ANSWER: C
Q.17 From the following, which type of element is not three dimensional?
A. Hexahedron
B. Quadrilateral
C. Rectangular prism
D. Tetrahedron
ANSWER: B
Q18. For truss analysis, which type of elements are used?
A. Triangle
B. Bar
C. Rectangle
D. Parallelogram
ANSWER: B
Q19. To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts that are
called
A. finite elements
B. infinite elements
C. dynamic elements
D. static elements
ANSWER: A
Q20. The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller elements is known
as ___________ .
A. assemblage
B. continuum
C. traction
D. discretization
ANSWER: D
Q21. FEM also operates the parameters like
A. heat transfer
B. temperature
C. both A&B
D. none
ANSWER: D
Q22. Range of poisson’s ratio for metals is
A. 0.25-0.33
B. 0.22-0.45
C. 0.22-0.25
D. 0.25-0.50
ANSWER: D
Q. 23. The sub domains are called as
A. Particles
B. molecules
C. elements
D. None
ANSWER: C
Q24. If any element is specified by the polynomial of the order of two or more, the element is
known as
A. non-linear element
B. higher order element
C. both A&B
D. none
ANSWER: B
A. hermite shape functions
B. element shape functions
C. hermite element functions
D. both A&B
ANSWER: B
A. heat transfer
B. temperature
C. both A&B
D. none
ANSWER: C
Q27. The total potential energy is the algebraic sum of
A. integral strain energy and work potential
B. integral strain energy and external work done
C. integral stress energy and work potential
D. integral stress energy and external work done
ANSWER: B
Q28. In FEM the complex domain defining a continuum is divided into

A. points
B. elements
C. traiangles
D. none
ANSWER: B
Q29. The number of nodes for 1 D element are...
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. NONE
ANSWER: B
Q30. Finite element analysis deals with.
A. approximate numerical solution
B. non boundary value problems
C. partial differential equations
D. Laplace equations
ANSWER: A
Q31. The sum of shape functions is always.
A. 1
B. 0
C. INFINITE
D. NONE
ANSWER: A
Q32. Stiffness matrix depends on.
A. material
B. geometry
C. both
D. NONE
ANSWER: C
Q33. The sub domains are called as.
A. particles
B. molecules
C. elements
D. NONE
ANSWER: C
Q34. If any element is specified by the polynomial of the order of two or more, the element is
known as
A. non linear element
B. higher order element
C. both A&B
D. NONE
ANSWER: B
Q35. The shape function of the beam elements are known as.
A. hermite shape functions
B. element shape functions
C. hermite element functions
D. both A&B
ANSWER: B
Q36. Units for torsion force is.
A. N/mm2
B. N/m
C. Kgf/m
D. Kgf/mm
ANSWER: B
Q37. Example of 2-D Element.
A. Bar
B. Triangle
C. Hexahedron
D. Tetrahedron
ANSWER: B
Q38. For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed is
having order of....
A. 2X2
B. 3X3
C. 4X4
D. 6X6
ANSWER: B
Q39. The force required to produce unit displacement is.
A. pressure
B. traction
C. stiffness
D. NONE
ANSWER: A
Q40. The distributed force per unit area on the surface of the body is.
A. pressure
B. traction
C. stiffness
D. NONE
ANSWER: A
Q41. Domain is divided into some segments called.
A. finite element
B. stiffness matrix
C. node function
D. shape function
ANSWER: A
Q42. Unit of body force acting on every elemental volume of the body is.
A. force per unit area
B. force per unit length
C. force per unit volume
D. coordinate function
ANSWER: A
Q43. The .............is the numerical method for solving complex problems in wide variety of
engineering fields.
A. finite elementanalysis
B. computational analysis
C. ANSYS
D. ANSA
ANSWER: A
Q44. The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called.
A. boundary condition
B. traction
C. friction
D. surfacing
ANSWER: A
Q45. The truss element can deform only in the
A. axial direction
B. vertical direction
C. horizontal directional
D. inclined direction
ANSWER: A
Q46. When every entity of a geometric model remains parallel to its initial position, the
transformation is called as ___________ .
A. scaling
B. translation
C. rotation
D. mirror
ANSWER: B
Q47. Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix?
A. The minimum potential energy principle
B. Galerkin's principle
ANSWER: D
Q48. ______________ is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the element to the
smallest dimension.
A. Element depth ratio
B. Mode shape ratio
C. Aspect ratio
ANSWER: C
Q. 49 _________ are used to express the geometry or shape of the element.
A. Mode shapes
B. Shape functions
C. Natural curves
ANSWER: B
Q50. When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is called
________.
A. plane stress
B. plane strain
C. zero stress
D. zero strain
ANSWER:A
Q51. The characteristic of the shape function is _______.
A. the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the other nodes
B. the sum of the shape function is equal to one
C. both a & b
ANSWER: A
Q52. The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known as
______.
A. local coordinates system
B. natural coordinates system
C. global coordinate system
ANSWER: C
Q53. The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are ______.
A. stretching of plates
B. gravity of dams
C. axisymmetric shells
D. all of the above
ANSWER: C
Q54. If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement is
considered in ______ .
A. inverse matrix method
B. weighted residual method
C. Galerkin‟s principle
D. the minimum potential energy principle
ANSWER: D
Q55. Which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)?
A. K is a banded matrix
B. K is un-symmetric
C. K is an un-banded matrix
ANSWER: A
Q56. The actual thickness of plane strain element is ______.
A. very large
B. very small
C. assumed by software
D. any of the above
ANSWER: A
Q57. Which of the following is not an FEA package?
A. ANSYS
B. Nastran
C. Abaqus
D. AutoCAD
ANSWER: D
Q58. Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural frequency?
A. Static analysis
B. Thermal analysis
C. Modal analysis
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
Q59. For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________.
A. stress
B. strain
C. displacement
D. temperature
ANSWER: D
Q60 In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find _______.
A. stress distribution
B. heat flux distribution
C. pressure distribution
D. all of the above
ANSWER: C
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
A Mechanical energy
B Heat energy
C Electrical energy
D Potential energy
Ans.: B
Q2. The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on
A the weight of vehicle
B the deceleration rate
C both (A) and (B)
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q3. The following is not a drum brake
A External contracting brake
B Internal expanding brake
C Disc brake
D Disc brake
Ans.: C
Q4. The hand brake of the automobile is usually

C Disc brake
D All of the above
Ans.: A
Q5. In disc brake, the disc is attached to the
A wheel
B axle
C suspension system
D none of the above
Ans.: B
Q6. The mechanical brakes are operated by means of
A levers
B bell cranks
C cams
D all of the above
Ans.: D
Q7. In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of
A atmospheric valve
B vacuum valve
C both (A) and (B)
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q8. Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of
A Law of conservation of momentum
B Law of conservation of energy
C Pascal’s law
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q9. The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to
A builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
B maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
C serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q10. Tandem master cylinder consists of
A one cylinder and one reservoir
B two cylinders and one reservoir
C one cylinder and two reservoirs
D two cylinders and two reservoirs
Ans.: D
Q11. Hand brake is applicable to
A only front wheels
B only rear wheels
C both front and rear wheels
D all of the above

Ans.: B
Q12. The following factor(s) contribute to the effectiveness of the brakes
A Area of brake linings
B Radius of car wheel
C Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q13. Servo action is to
A the amplification of braking forces
B increase force of friction between shoe and wheel
C transfer of weight during stop
D All of the above
Ans.:A
Q14. The power brake may be exerted by
A electrical energy
B engine vacuum
C air pressure
D all of the above
Ans.: A
Q15. The process of removing air from the brake system is known as
A bleeding
B self energizing
C servo action
D energization
Ans.: A
Q16. Pneumatic brakes are same as electrical brakes.
A Yes both are concerned with electricity
B No, one deals with pressure and other with electricity
C Yes both deals with pressure
D None of the listed
Ans.: B
Q17. An automobile brake is only used to reduce the speed or bring the vehicle to
hault
A Yes
B No, it also be used to hold the car
C Brake acts only onmoving vehicles
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: B
Q18. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake system is
A Overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake application
B Overcooling of the brakes during high speed driving
C Keeping the vehicle without use for an extended period
D An excessively high engine speed on a downhill road
Ans.: A
Q19. When the brake pedal free play is less than the specified value, then the
A Brake drags
B Brake fades
C Vapour locking occurs in the brake lines
D Antilock braking system malfunctions
Ans.: A
Q20. A traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the
A Vibrations on the steering wheel
B Engine power during acceleration
C Torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface
D Stopping distance in case of emergency
Ans.: C
Q21. In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
A Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
B Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
C Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
D Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
Ans.: A
Q22. The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage
current upto about
A 10,000 volts
B 17,000 volts
C 25,000 volts
D 35,000 volts
Ans.: C
Q23. In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and
secondary windings is about
A 1 to 50
B 1 to 100
C 1 to 200
D 1 to 400
Ans.: B
Q24. The distributor serves the following purposes in the ignition system
A It operates break and make mechanism
B It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
C both (A) and (B)
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q25. The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at ___ the engine speed in four stroke
engine
A half
B equal to
C one and half times
D double
Ans.: A
Q26. In Magneto Ignition system
A No battery is required
B Engine starting is rather difficult
C used in high speed engines
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q27. The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’
A Battery coil ignition system
B Magneto Ignition system
C Electronic Ignition system
D Capacitive discharge Ignition system
Ans.: C
Q28. The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system
A Produces maximum output voltage
B Better starting with cold engine
C Less possibility of arcing at spark plug
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q29. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
A2
B4
C6
D8
Ans.: C
Q30. the negative plate of lead battery has
A Lead peroxide (PbO₂)
B Spongy lead (Pb)
C Lead sulphate (PbSO₄)
D Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄)

Ans.: B
Q31. the positive plate of lead battery has
B Spongy lead (Pb)
Ans.: A
Q32. The function of an alternator in an automobile is to
A Supply electric power
B Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
C Continually recharges the battery
D Partly converts engine power into electric power
Ans.: C
Q33. The automotive battery is also known as __________
A lithium ion battery
B lead-acid storage battery
C zinc carbon battery
D weston cell battery
Ans.: B
Q34. What is present inside a battery?
A Electrolyte
B Fluids
C Acid
D Steam
Ans.: A
Q35. What do batteries emit while charging?
A Nitrogen
B Oxygen
C Hydrogen
D Carbon
Ans.: C
Q36. In which ignition switch position is the power supplied to ignition circuit?
A Off switch position
B Run switch position
C Start switch position
D Lock switch position
Ans.: C
Q37. Which component in alternator produces a magnetic field?
A Frame
B Stator
C Regulator
D Rotor
Ans.: D
Q38. Why is a thermistor used in an alternator regulator?
A To control maximum current
B To control maximum voltage

C To compensate for temperature change
D To control minimum current
Ans.: C
Q39. At the start of the engine, the charging voltage is _______
A Lower
B Higher
C Same
D Zero
Ans.: B
Q40. In an alternator, which component controls the output?
A Voltage regulator
B Cutout relay
C Current regulator
D Diode
Ans.: A
Q41. Which of the following will occur to an air conditioning system if the power
steering is sharply moved from lock to lock while the engine is running?
A Pressure in the AC high side will increase.
B Pressure in the AC low side will decrease.
C The compressor will increase the pressure output.
D The compressor clutch may disengage.
Ans.: D
Q42. When replacing a water (coolant) pump, which of the following is the best
method of handling the used coolant?
A The coolant should be stored for recycling.
B The coolant should be reused regardless of its condition.
C The coolant should be put in with the waste oil.
D The coolant should be diluted and flushed down the drain.
Ans.: A
Q43. An air conditioning system compressor may operate under which of the
following conditions?
A When the vehicle is operated at wide open throttle.
B When the heater controls are set to defrost.
C When the heater controls are set to vent.
D When the heater controls are set to floor - recirculate.
Ans.: B
Q44. What is the colour of an HFC-134a container?
A White.
B Green.
C Blue.
D Silver.
Ans.: C
Q45. Why must an air conditioning system be evacuated before charging?
A To remove as much moisture as possible.
B To remove all the old oil from the system.
C To remove dirt and debris from the system.
D To remove all old the refrigerant from the system.
Ans.:A
Q46. Which of the following conditions may cause an air conditioning compressor
not to operate?
A The vehicle speed is over 50 km/h.
B The vehicle speed is over 90 km/h.
C The ambient temperature is too low.
D The ambient temperature is too high.
Ans.: C
Q47. If a vehicle with air conditioning is accelerated rapidly, which of the following
may occur?
A The high side pressure will be lowered to reduce load on the engine.
B The low side pressure will be lowered to reduce load on the engine.
C The compressor clutch will cycle off to reduce the load on the engine.
D The radiator fan will cycle off to reduce the load on the engine.
Ans.: C
Q48. The function of induction system of Spark Ignition (SI) engine is to supply
______ to various cylinders of the engine.
A Partly vaporized mixture of fuel and air
B Fully vaporized mixture of fuel and air
C Liquefied mixture of fuel and air
D All of the above
Ans.: A
Q49. Which of the following Air-fuel ratio is considered as rich mixture in Spark
Ignition (SI) engine?
A Below 11:1
B Below 15:1
C Below 20:1
D Above 20:1
Ans.: A
Q50. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a.......
A Compressure
B Condenser
C Evaporator
D Expansion valve
Ans.: B
Q51. When do anti-lock brakes begin to work
A Each time the brake pedal is pressed
B On road surfaces with little grip
C Just as one or more wheels begin to lock
D Only at higher speeds
Ans.: C
Q52. Anti-lock brakes prevent the wheels from locking. The benefits of this are
A Little chance of a skid
B Reduction in tyre wear
C Better road grip
D Less likely to puncture
Ans.: A
Q53. Anti-lock brakes are designed to assist the driver with the ability to
A Control the car better under accelerating

B Stop sooner
C Brake later
D Steer under heavy braking
Ans.: D
Q54. Anti-lock brakes are of most use when
A Braking normally
B Braking excessively
C Driving on highly worn tyres
D Braking gently
Ans.: B
Q55. The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is
A high boiling point
B Low viscosity
C Compatibility with rubber and metal parts
D All of these
Ans.: D
Q56. Anti-lock brakes are at their most effective when you
A Using the handbrake to reduce the stopping distance
B Apply constant and firm pressure to the foot brake until you have stopped
C Brake normally, but grip the steering wheel tightly
D Continuously pump the foot brake to prevent skidding
Ans.: B
Q57. What test allows you to determine the general condition of a maintenance
free battery?
A Cell voltage
B Battery leakage
C Battery drain
D Battery voltage
Ans.: A
Q58. What procedure is considered the only safe way to mix electrolyte for a lead-
acid battery?
A Pour water into acid slowly and stir gently.
B Pour water into acid slowly and stir vigorously.
C Pour acid into water slowly and stir gently.
D Pour acid into water slowly and stir vigorous
Ans.: A
Q59. What are the two methods for rating lead-acid storage batteries?
A Reserve capacity and discharge
B Reserve capacity and ampere-hour
C Cold-cranking and reserve capacity
D Cold-cranking and discharge
Ans.: C
Q60. A 12-volt lead-acid automotive battery consists of how many elements

connected in series?
A Six
B Four
C Three
D Two
Ans.: A
Subject: Power Plant Engineering
Class: BE
Semester:VIII
Q1. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of
AForced draught system
BInduced draught system
CBalanced draught system
DNatural draught system
Ans.: Balanced draught system
Q2. The modern steam turbines are
AImpulse turbines
BReaction turbines
CImpulse-reaction turbines
DNone of the above
Ans.: Impulse-reaction turbines

Q3. Carnot cycle comprises of
A Two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
B Two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
C Two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
D None of the above
Ans.: Two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes

Q4. The percentage O2 by volume in atmosphere air is
A 21 %
B 23 %
C 77 %
D 79%
Ans.: 21 %
Q5. In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced
ADue to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the chimney giving place to cold
air from outside to rush in
BDue to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than the pressure at
the chimney base due to hot column
CDue to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its environmental
pressure
DAll of the above
Ans.: Due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than the
pressure at the chimney base due to hot column
Q6. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per
unit area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
A0.6
B0.578
C0.555
D0.5457
Ans.: 0.578
Q7.The cooling section in the surface condenser
AIncreases the quantity of vapor extracted along with air
BReduces the quantity of vapor extracted along with air
CDoes not affect vapor quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump
DNone of the above
Ans.: Reduces the quantity of vapor extracted along with air
Q8. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by
A1 to 5 %
B4 to 10 %
C10 to 12 %
DNone of these
Ans.: 4 to 10 %
Q9. Travelling grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of
A50-75 kg/m per hour
B75-100 kg/m per hour
C100-150 kg/m per hour
D150-200 kg/m2 per hour
Ans.: 150-200 kg/m2 per hour

Q10.Parson's turbine is
APressure compounded steam turbine
BSimple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
C Simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
DMulti wheel reaction steam turbine
Ans.: Multi wheel reaction steam turbine
Q11.In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove
ADust
BClinkers
CIron particles
DSand
Ans.: Iron particles
Q12.Underfeed stokers work best for __________ coals high in volatile matter
and with caking tendency
A Anthracite
B Lignite
CSemi-bituminous and bituminous
DAll of the above
Ans.: Semi-bituminous and bituminous

Q13.The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by
brick chimney for the same height is
A Less
BMore
CSame
DMay be more or less
Ans.: More
Q14. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
AUtilize heat of flue gases
BIncrease thermal efficiency
C Improve condenser performance
DReduce loss of heat
Ans.: Increase thermal efficiency
Q15.In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected
AWhen steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
BWhen steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
CWhen steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
DWhen steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
Ans.: When steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
Q16.In De Laval steam turbine
AThe pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in condenser
BThe pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the condenser
CThe pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
DNone from the above
Ans.:The pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in condenser
Q17.The value of reheat factor normally varies from
A0.5 to 0.6
B0.9 to 0.95
C1.02 to 1.06
D1.2 to 1.6
Ans.: 1.02 to 1.06
Q18.In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is
A Fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
B Rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
CNo change in absolute pressure in the condenser
DRise in temperature of condensed steam
Ans.: Fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser

Q19. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power
plant is
ALift trucks
B Coal accelerators
CTower cranes
DBelt conveyor
Ans.:Coal accelerators
Q20. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
AHigh CO content in flue gases at exit
BHigh CO2 content in flue gases at exit
CHigh temperature of flue gases
DThe smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans.: High CO content in flue gases at exit
Q21. What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?
AReheat cycle
BRankine cycle
CBrayton cycle
D Diesel cycle
Ans.: Brayton cycle

Q22. Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?
ASingle Acting
BDouble Acting
COpen
DNone of the mentioned
Ans.:Open
Q23. Power is produced when the working fluid does some work on the?
AShaft
BFins
CBlades
Ans.: Blades
Q24. A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion plant?
Aexternal
Bopen
Cinternal
Dcannot say
Ans.: internal
Q25. Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?
ACondenser
BCompressor
CBoiler
DBoth Compressor & Boiler
Ans.: Compressor
Q26. Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?
AReciprocating compressor
BScrew compressor
CMultistage axial flow compressor
DEither Reciprocating compressor & Screw compressor
Ans.: Multistage axial flow compressor
Q27. The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following
fuels?
ACoal and Peat
BKerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil
CGas oil
DNatural gas and liquid petroleum fuel
Ans.: Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel

Q28. In gas turbine, what is the function of Re-heater?
AHeat inlet air
BHeat exhaust gases
CHeat air coming out of compressor
DHeat gases coming out of high pressure turbine
Ans.: Heat gases coming out of high pressure turbine
Q29. In gas turbine, intercooler is placed _____________
Abefore low pressure compressor
Bin between low pressure compressor and high pressure compressor
Cin between high pressure compressor and turbine
Dnone of the mentioned
Ans.: in between low pressure compressor and high pressure compressor
Q30. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about __________
A 30%
B 15%
C 50%
D 70%
Ans.: 70%
Q31. The diesel plants are mainly used as.........
Apeak-load plants
B baseload plants
C stand by power plants
D both peak and stand by plants
Ans.: both peak and stand by plants
Q32. The diesel power plant is used for electrical power generation in
capacities ranging from.........
A100 to 5000 H.P.
B100 to 2000 H.P.
C100 to 6500 H.P.
D100 to 2500 H.P.
Ans.: 100 to 5000 H.P.
Q32.Which of the following are the advantages of a diesel power plant?
A Diesel power plant design is simple for installation
B They can respond to varying loads without having any difficulty
CThere is no problem with ash handling
D All of the above
Ans.: All of the above

Q33. The diesel power plant used for.......
Aelectrical power generation
B transportation systems consisting of railroads, ships, automobiles, and

airplanes
C industries
D All of the above
Ans.:All of the above
Q34.Which among the following instruments are provided on the exhaust

line to reduce the pressure?
ADucts.
BMuffler
CStrainers.
D Purifiers.
Ans.: Muffler
Q35. High output diesel engines are started by
ASelf starter.
B Compressed air.
CBattery.
DCranking.
Ans.: Compressed air.

Q36. Heating value of diesel is around?
A4000 kcal/kg
B10000 kcal/kg
C15000 kcal/kg
D20000 kcal/kg
Ans.: 10000 kcal/kg
Q37.The temperature of the cooling water leaving the diesel engine should
not exceed.
A25 °C
B40 °C
C 85 °C
D 70 °C
Ans.: 40 °C
Q38. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio
of 5.5 will be __________
A 20%
B 25%
C 50 %
D 55%
Ans.: 50%
Q39.Nuclear Reactors are used __________
Ato produce heat for thermoelectric power
Bto propel ships, submarines, aircrafts
Cto produce fissionable material
Dall of the mentioned
Ans.:all of the mentioned
Q40.A higher compression ratio causes __________
Aincrease in detonation
Bpre-ignition
Can acceleration in the rate of combustion
Dany one of the mentioned
Ans.: any one of the mentioned
Q41.Which of the following is the correct equation for the electrical power
generated by the hydroelectric power plant?
A75×0.736 wQHη Watt
B(7.5/0.736) × wQHη Watt
C0.845 ×wQHη Watt
D9.81 ×wQHη
Ans.: 0.845 ×wQHη Watt

Q42.Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of
hydroelectric power plant?
AAvailability of water
BLarge catchment area
CRocky land
DSedimentation
Ans.: Sedimentation
Q43.The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric

power plant depends upon ___________
AHead of water
BQuantity of water
CSpecific weight of water
DEfficiency of Alternator
Ans.: Quantity of water
Q44.Hydroelectric power plant is __________
ANon-renewable source of energy
BConventional source of energy
CNon-conventional source of energy
DContinuous source of energy
Ans.: Conventional source of energy

Q45.Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in ____________
AFlat areas
BDeserts
CHilly areas
DDeltas
Ans.: Hilly areas
Q46.Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power

plant?
Ano fuel requirement
Blow running cost
Ccontinuous power source
Dno standby losses
Ans.: continuous power source
Q47.Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power

plant?
AHydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
BDue to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very

difficult.
CHydroelectric power plant has high running cost
DWater is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
Ans.: Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose

Q48. Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock
from water hammer phenomenon?
AValves and Gates
BDraft tubes
CSpillway
DSurge Tank
Ans.: Surge Tank
Q49.Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called

_________
Abuttress dam
Barch dam
Cearth dam
Dsolid gravity dam
Ans.: earth dam
Q50.Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is _____________
Aa pipe connected to runner outlet
Bnozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades
Ca conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine
Da pipe connecting surge tank to dam
Ans.: a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine

Q51.How much coal is required to generate energy equivalent to the energy
generated by 1 kg of uranium?
A30000 tonnes of high grade coal
B300 tonnes of high grade coal
C10000 tonnes of high grade coal
D3000 tonnes of high grade coal
Ans.: 3000 tonnes of high grade coal
Q52. Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for ________________
Amore than 5 months
Bfew weeks
Cfew days
Dmore than 5 years
Ans.: more than 5 years
Q53.Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant economics is considered as

__________
Arunning cost
Bmaintenance cost
Ccapital cost
Ddevelopment cost
Ans.: capital cost

Q54.In economics of nuclear power plant taxes and insurance charges are
taken as _______
Aoperating cost
Bmaintenance cost
Ccapital cost
Dfixed cost
Ans.: fixed cost
Q55. What is the overall efficiency of nuclear power plant?
A20 to 25%
B25 to 30%
C30 to 40 %
D50 to 70 %
Ans.: 30 to 40 %
Q56. The land area required for installation of nuclear power plant is
________
Amore than thermal power plant
Bless than thermal power plant
Cequal to thermal power plant
Ddepends on type of construction
Ans.: equal to thermal power plant

Q57.With respect to the load centre which location is suitable for
establishment of nuclear power plant?
ALoad centre
BNear load centre but at reasonable distance
CFar away from load centre
DNear chemical industries
Ans.: Near load centre but at reasonable distance
Q58. In nuclear power stations which nuclear reaction is performed?
ANuclear fission
BNuclear fusion
C90% fission and 10% fusion
D90% fusion and 10% fission
Ans.: Nuclear fission
Q59.Which particle is bombarded on heavy nucleus of nuclear fuel?
AElectron
BProton
CNeutron
DPhoton
Ans.: Neutron
Q60.The fuel mainly used in nuclear fission reactors are:
AU235
BU239
CU233
DU238
Ans.: U235
Subject: Mechanical Vibration (MV)
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. If motion repeats itself after interval of time, it is called as _________

A. Periodic
B. Aperiodic
C. Repeating
Ans. (A)
Q2. SHM stands for

A. Single Harmonic Motion
B. Simple Harmonic Motion
C. Simple Harmonic Mechanism
Ans. (B)
Q3. The number of cycles per unit time is called _________

A. Period
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Wavelength
Ans. (B)
Q4. The number of degrees of freedom in simple spring mass system is

A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Ans. (B)
Q5. The unit of natural frequency is

A. Rad/sec
B. Hz
C. Both
D. No unit
Ans. (C)
Q6. If two springs having individual stiffness K, are in parallel, then their equivalent stiffness will be
A. 2K
B. K
C. K/2
D. 4K
Ans. (A)
Q7. The resultant motion of two Simple Harmonic Motions will be

A. Simple Harmonic Motion
B. Periodic Motion
C. Projectile Motion
D. Zero
Ans. (A)
Q8. Time required to complete one cycle is known as

A. Idle time
B. Periodic time
C. Both
D. None
Ans. (B)
Q9. Natural frequency of simple pendulum is proportional to

A. Length
B. Acceleration due to gravity
C. Both
D. None
Ans. (B)
Q10. The equation of motion for spring mass system includes

A. Inertia Force
B. Spring Force
C. Both
D. Gravitational force
Ans. (C)
Q11. The natural frequency of the spring mass is inversely proportional to

A. Stiffness
B. Mass
C. Density
D. Deflection
Ans. (B)
Q12. When the external force is acting on the vibrating body, the vibrations are said to be
A. Natural Vibrations
B. Forced Vibrations
C. Loaded Vibrations
D. Undamped Vibrations
Ans. (B)
Q13. Resistance to the vibrations is known as

A. Whipping
B. Slipping
C. Damping
D. Underdamping
Ans. (C)
Q14. When no external force is acting on the vibrating body, the vibrations are said to be
A. Free Vibrations
B. Forced Vibrations
C. Loaded Vibrations
D. Undamped Vibrations
Ans. (A)
Q15. Who discovered the concept of pendulum?

A. Newton
B. Einstein
C. Galileo
D. None
Ans. (C)
Q16. The vibrations of the body with no resistance to its motion known as
A. Damped Vibrations
B. Undamped Vibrations
C. Both
D. None
Ans. (B)
Q17. SHM is the motion in which acceleration of the body is proportional to its displacement and
directed towards the mean position.
A. True
B. False
C. Neither True Nor False
D. None
Ans. (A)
Q18. A 10 Kg mass suspended by spring of stiffness 1000 N/m. the natural frequency of the system
after giving excitation will be
A. 0 Hz
B. 1.59 Hz
C. 2 Hz
D. 15.9 Hz
Ans. (B)
Q19. In spring mass experiment, the natural frequency of 10 kg mass was found to be 12 rad/sec. the
stiffness of the spring is
A. 800 N/m
B. 1200 N/m
C. 1440 N/m
D. 2000 N/m
Ans. (C)
Q20. The motion of particle is represented by, x = Asin(wt) in which A stands for
A. Amplitude
B. Wavelength
C. Frequency
D. Damping
Ans. (A)
Q21. The damping is used to control the __________ of body.

A. Force
B. Viscosity
C. Motion
D. None
Ans. (C)
Q22. In coulomb damping, the amplitude of motion in each cycle is reduced by

A. F/K
B. 2F/K
C. 4F/K
D. F/4K
Ans. (C)
Q23. The viscous damping force with damping constant ‘C’ in viscous damping is
A.
B.
C.
D. All
Ans. (A)
Q24. Damping factor, ε =

A. C/Cc
B. C.Cc
C. K/m
D. K.m
Ans. (A)
Q25. The system is said to be critically damped if the damping factor is

A. Greater than one
B. Equal to one
C. Less than one
D. Zero
Ans. (B)
Q26. The advantage of critical damping is

A. That vibrating body come to rest in smallest possible time
B. There is no vibration
C. That amplitude of vibration is maximum
D. The amplitude of vibration is minimum
Ans. (A)
Q27. The vibrations of gun barrel is the example of

A. Underdamping
B. Critical damping
C. Overdamping
D. None
Ans. (B)
Q28. Following are the types of damping

A. Viscous Damping
B. Coulomb Damping
C. Hysteresis Damping
D. All the above
Ans. (D)
Q29. A system is said to be overdamped if the damping factor is
A. Equal to One
B. Greater than One
C. Less than one
D. Equal to zero
Ans. (B)
Q30. In underdamped system, the body will

A. Come to rest in smallest possible time
B. Immediately come to rest
C. Does not come to rest
D. Take finite time to come to rest
Ans. (D)
Q31. During resonance

A. High amplitude of vibration occurs
B. Low amplitude of vibration occurs
C. No vibration occurs
D. Vibration remains unaffected
Ans. (A)
Q32. The speed at which resonance occurs is called

A. Normal Speed
B. Idle Speed
C. Critical Speed
D. None
Ans. (C)
Q33. The factors which affects the critical speed of the shaft is
A. Eccentricity
B. Diameter of the Disc
C. Span of the shaft
D. All the above
Ans. (D)
Q34. The angle between spring force and damping force is

A. 1800
B. 900
C. 00
Ans. (B)
Q35. Vibrometer is designed with

A. Low Frequency
B. High Frequency
C. Zero Frequency
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
Q35. The ratio of maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to the static
force, is known as
A. Damping Factor
B. Damping Coefficient
C. Logarithmic Decrement
D. Magnification Factor
Ans. (D)
Q36. When the frequency of external exciting force is equal to the natural frequency of the vibration of
the system
A. The amplitude of vibration is zero
B. The amplitude of vibration is significantly small
C. The amplitude of vibration is very large
D. The amplitude does not change
Ans. (C)
Q37. The transmissibility can be defined as

A. Ratio of acting force to the transmitted force
B. Ratio of transmitted force to acting force
C. Both
D. None
Ans. (B)
Q38. The external exciting force in rotating unbalance is given by

A.
B. /
C. Both
D. None
Ans. (A)
Q39. The external exciting frequency of the system having natural frequency 15 Hz is 10 Hz. The
frequency ratio will be
A. 1.500
B. 0.667
C. 0.150
D. None
Ans. (B)
Q40. In measuring critical speed of shaft experiment, it was found that the frequency ratio is 0.707
when the eccentricity is 0.05 m. what will be the displacement of the system.
A. 0.05 m
B. 0.005 m
C. 0.5 m
D. Infinite
Ans. (A)
Q41. A node means a section where the amplitude of vibration is

A. Maximum
B. Half of the maximum
C. Zero
D. ¼ of the maximum
Ans. (C)
Q42. In two degree of freedom system, the numbers of amplitude observed are
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None
Ans. (B)
Q43. The number of natural frequencies in a two rotor system is

A. Infinite
B. Zero
C. Two
D. Four
Ans. (C)
Q44. A shaft carrying two rotors at its ends will have

A. No node
B. One node
C. Two node
D. Three nodes
Ans. (B)
Q45. A shaft carrying three rotors will have

A. No node
B. One node
C. Two node
D. Three nodes
Ans. (C)
Q46. In semidefinite system one of the natural frequencies is

A. Zero
B. Non-zero
C. Infinite one
D. One
Ans. (A)
Q47. Dynamic vibration absorber is suitable for

A. Constant speed machines
B. Varying speed machines
C. Zero speed range machines
Ans. (A)
Q48. When heavy rotating masses are connected by a shaft and equal and opposite torques are
applied to these masses (rotors)
A. The rotors vibrate torsionally in the same direction.
B. The rotors vibrate torsionally in the opposite direction.
C. There is one point on the axis of shaft which remains undisturbed by vibration.
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans. (D)
Q49. There are n rotors mounted on the shaft and when subjected to torsional vibration there will be
A. N nodes
B. (N-1) nodes
C. (N+1) nodes
D. Any number of nodes
Ans. (B)
Q50. When two masses vibrate at the same frequency and in phase, it is called a principal mode of
vibration
A. True
B. False
C. Does not depend on vibration
Ans. (A)
Q51. Identify the given system

[fixed--spring—mass—spring—mass—spring--fixed]
A. Single Degree of Freedom System
B. Several Degree of Freedom System
C. Two Degree of Freedom System
D. None
Ans. (C)
Q52. Co-ordinate coupling is an example of

A. Single Degree of Freedom System
B. Several Degree of Freedom System
C. Two Degree of Freedom System
D. None
Ans. (C)
Q53. When = , the absorber is known as

A. Untuned vibration absorber
B. Tuned vibration absorber
C. Both of above
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
Q54. When ≠ , the absorber is known as

A. Untuned vibration absorber
B. Tuned vibration absorber
C. Both of above
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
Q55. Following are the untuned vibration dampers

A. Lanchester Damper
B. Houdaille Damper
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
Q56. The vibrations can be controlled by

A. Controlling the natural frequencies
B. Using proper damping devices
C. Introducing vibration absorbers and vibration isolators
D. All the above
Ans. (D)
Q57. In semi definite system, one of the natural frequencies is found to 15 Hz. The other natural
frequency will be
A. 15 Hz
B. 0 Hz
C. 30 Hz
D. None of these
Ans. (B)
Q58. The vibration isolating materials are

A. Aluminum
B. Mild Steel
C. Rubber, Cork
D. None
Ans. (C)
Q59.Which one is not an isolating material?

A. Rubber
B. Cork
C. Steel bar
D. Felt
Ans. (C)
Q60. In two degree of freedom system, the number of coordinates required to specify the motion of
system are
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Ans. (B)
Subject: POWER PLANT ENGINEERING (PPE)
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. Economiser is used to heat

A] Air
B] Feed water
C] Flue Gases
D] All above
Ans. (B)
Q2.The draught which is a chimney produce is called

A] Induced draught
B] Natural draught
c] Forced draught
D] Balance draught
Ans. (B)
Q3. Artificial draught is produce by

A] Induced fan
B] Forced fan
C] Induced and forced fan
D] All of the above
Ans. (D)
Q4. Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at inclination upto

A] 300
B] 600
C] 800
D]900
Ans. (A)
Q5.The maximum length of screw conveyer is about

A] 30 meter
B] 40 meter
C] 60 meter
D] 100 meter
Ans. (A)
Q6.Economiser improve boiler efficiency by

A] 1 to 5 %
B] 4 to 10%
C] 10 to 12%
D] 12 to 15%
Ans. (B)
Q7. The Efficiency of chimney is approximately
A] 20 %
B] 90%
C] 10%
D] 65%
Ans. (A)
Q8.On what basic are fire and water tube boiler are classified.
A] Depending the combustion product formed
B] Depending on the state of fuel
C] Depending on the steam formation rate
D] Depending tubular heating surface
Ans. (D)
Q9.Which of these is a stationary boiler?

A] Locomotive boiler
B] Marine boiler
C] Mobile boiler
D] Babcock –wilcox boiler
Ans. (D)
Q10. Pulverized fuel is used for

A] Better burning
B] Saving fuel
C] Obtaining fuel
D] For economy
Ans. (A)
Q11. Pipe carrying steam are generally made

A] Cast iron
B] Steel
C] Copper
D] Aluminium
Ans. (B)
Q12. The major use of the Economiser is

A] Heat up the incoming water with exhaust steam
B] Heat up pulverized fuel by exhaust
C] Heat up the incoming air by exhaust gases
D] Heat up the incoming water by exhaust gases
Ans. (D)
Q13.The feed water entering into aEconomiser in a thermal plant gets heated up by
A] H.P. cycle
B] Flue gases
C] L.P. cycle
D] Direct heat from furnace
Ans. (B)
Q14.The draught in locomotive boiler is produced by
A] Forced fan
B] Chimney
C] Steam jet
D] Only locomotive motion
Ans. (C)
Q15.Artificial draught normally designed to produce

A] Less smoke
B] More draught
C] Less chimney gas temp
D] All of the above
Ans. (D)
Q16. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of

A] Forced draught system
B] Induced draught system
C] Balanced draught system
D] Natural draught system
Ans. (C)
Q17. The primary source of energy as

A] Coal,oil, uranium
B] Solar, wind, water
C] Hydrogen, oxygen, water
D] Wind biomass, geothermal
Ans. (A)
Q18.for forced draught system the function of chimney is mainly

A] To produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
B] To discharge gases high up to the atmosphere to avoid hazard
C] To reduce the temperature of the not gases discharge
D] None of the above
Ans. (A)
Q.19 The use of air preheater increase the temp of the air by about
A] 500
B] 200
C] 50
D] 300
Ans. (B)
Q.20. Air preheater in a steam power plant

A] Recovers the heat from the flue gages leaving the Economiser
B] Improves combustion rate
C] Raises the temperature of the furnace gases
D] All of these
Ans. (D)
Q.21. In a 2 stroke engine, the operation cycle are completed in how many stroke and
revolution?
A] 4 strokes and 2 revolutions
B] 2 strokes and 2 revolutions
C] 2 strokes and 1 revolutions
D] 4 strokes and 4 revolutions
Ans. (C)
Q.22 The speed of the diesel engine may vary from

A] 0 – 100 rpm
B] 200 – 1000 rpm
C] 500 – 5000 rpm
D] 1000 – 3000 rpm
Ans. (D)
Q.23the diesel plants are mainly used

A] As peak load plant
B] As base load plant
C] As stand by power plants
D] Both peak and stand by plants
Ans. (D)
Q.24. What is the ranging capacity of diesel plant.

A] 50 – 750 kw
B] 100 – 71175 kw
C] 75 – 3750 kw
D] 150 – 4575 kw
Ans. (C)
Q.25. Whatis the air standard cycle for a gas turbine called?
A] Reheat cycle
B] Ranking cycle
C] Brayton cycle
D] Diesel Cycle
Ans. (C)
Q.26. A gas turbine is which type of combustion plant

A] External
B] Open
C] Internal
D] Cannot say
Ans. (C)
Q.27. Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant
A] condenser
B] Compressor
C] Boiler
D] compressor and boiler
Ans. (B)
Q.28.Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?
A] Reciprocating
B] Screw
C] Multistage axial flow
D] Either reciprocating or Screw
Ans. (C)
Q.29.The gas turbine power plant mainly uses witch among the following fuels?
A] Coal and peat
B] Kerosene Oil
C] Gas Oil
D] Natural gas & Liquid Petroleum fuel
Ans. (D)
Q.30. Witch among the Following instruments are provided on the exhaust line to reduce the
pressure
A] Ducts
B] Muffler
C] Strainers
D] Furifiers
Ans. (B)
Q.31. Which type of cylinder configuration in Commonly Used?

A] Vertical in line
B] V- type
C] Horizontal type
D] All of these
Ans. (A)
Q.32. The Lubrication cast in a diesel power plant is

A] High
B] Low
C] Moderate
D] Very low
Ans. (A)
Q.33. The Identification of two stroke engine in given by

A] Cooling System
B] Lubrication System
C] Absence of Value
D] All of These
Ans. (C)
Q 34. What is supercharging

A] Pumping of air into the cylinder at the pressure greater than atmospheric pressure.
B] Pumping of air of the cylinder at the pressure greater than atmospheric pressure.
C] Pumping of air into the cylinder at the Pressure lower than atmospheric Pressure.
D] Pumping of air out of the cylinder at the pressure lower than atmospheric Pressure.
Ans. (A)
Q35 Gas turbine power plant is ...... dfficient than steam turbine Plant.
A] More
B] Less
C] Same
Ans. (A)
Q36. In a gas turbine plant, a regenerate increases

A] Work output
B] Pressure Ratio
C] Thermal efficiency
D] All of the above
Ans. (C)
Q37. In a gas turbine, high thermal efficiency is obtained in

A] Closed Cycle
B] Open cycle
C] In both the cycles
D] All the above cycle
Ans. (A)
Q.38. Capital cost of a gas turbine plant -----------than that of a steam power plant of same
capacity
A] Same
B] Lower
C] Higher
Ans. (B)
Q.39] The blade of gas turbine rotor are made of

A] Carbon steel
B] Stainless steel
C] High nickel alloy
D] High alloy steel
Ans. (C)
Q.40. Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is

A] A pipe connected to runner outlet
B] Nozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades.
C] A conduit connecting to scroll case of turbine
D] A pipe connecting surge tank to dam.
Ans. (C)
Q.41. Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called
A] Buttress dam
B] Arch dam
C] Earth dam
D] Solid gravity dam
Ans. (C)
Q.42. What is the function of booms?

A] If supports the dam
B] It supports the penstock
C] It divert the kebergs from flowing into the penstock
D] To hold the turbine structure.
Ans. (A)
Q.43. Kaplan turbine is

A] Axial flow turbine
B] Inward flow turbine
C] Tangential flow turbine
D] Mixed flow turbine
Ans. (A)
Q.44. Governing mechanism used in case of pelton wheel turbine is

A] Guide vane
B] Nozzle needle
C] Control Valve
D] Dam gates
Ans. (B)
Q.45. what is used nuclear reactor as a cooling method device?

A] Coolant
B] Water jackets
C] Air cooler
D]Air vents
Ans. (A)
Q.46. Control rods are made of

A] Cesium
B] Cadmium
C] Tin
D] Gallium
Ans. (B)
Q.47. what types of rays are trapped by shielding

A] Gamma rays
B] Beta rays
C] X – rays
D] I R rays
Ans. (A)
Q. 48.Shield is made of
A] Iron metal enclosure
B] Concrete and water
C] Ceramics walls
D] Copper metal
Ans. (B)
Q. 49. Which reactor produce only heat

A] Burner reactor
B] Breeder reactor
C] Thermal reactor
D] Intermediate reactor
Ans. (A)
Q.50. which of following part in a nuclear reactor minimizes the neutron leakage?
A] Shield
B] Control rod
C] Reflector
D] Moderator
Ans. (C)
Q.51. PWR stands for

A] Power water reactor
B] Partially weathered rod
C] Pressurized water reactor
D] Packaging waste regulation
Ans. (C)
Q.52. LWR stands for

A] Lower water reactor
B] Line water reactor
C] Liquefied water reactor
D] Light water reactor
Ans. (D)
Q.53. CANDU stand for

A] Canadian natural darmstadtium uranium
B] Canadian natural deuterium uranium
C] Canadian natural dubnium uranium
D] Canadian natural dysprasium uranium
Ans. (B)
Q.54. Hydroelectric power plant is

A] Non-renewable source of energy
B] Conventional source of energy
C] Non- Conventional source of energy
D] Continuous source of energy
Ans. (B)
Q.55. Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in

A] Flat area
B] Deserts
C] Hilly area
D] Deltas
Ans. (C)
Q.56. which of the following is not an advantages of hydroelectric power plant

A] No fuel requirement
B] Low running cost
C] Continues power source
D] No stand by losses
Ans. (C)
Q. 57 The nuclear energy is measured as

A] Mev
B] Curie
C] MW
D] Kwhr
Ans. (A)
Q.58.Boiling water reactor employs

A] Boiler
B] Direct cycle of cooling type
C] Multipass
D] Single circuit system
Ans. (B)
Q.59. Reflector in nuclear plant used to

A] Return the neutrons back into the core
B] Check pollution
C] Conserve energy
D] Is not used
Ans. (A)
Q. 60. The total energy released in fissions U is

A] 5 MeV
B] 10 MeV
C] 199 MeV
D] 168 MeV
Ans. (C)
--------------------------------------------------- END -----------------------------------------------------------------

Subject: Introduction to Robotics
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q.1 A Robot is a
(A) Programmable
(B) Multi functional manipulator
Ans: (c)
Q.2 The main objective(s) of Industrial robot is to
(A) To minimise the labour requirement
(B) To increase productivity
(C) To enhance the life of production machines
Ans: (d)
Q.3 Clockwise of Anti clockwise rotation about the vertical axis to the perpendicular
arm is provided through
(A) Shoulder swivel
(B) Elbow extension
(C) Arm sweep
(D) Wrist bend
Ans: (c)
Q.4 Radial movement (in & out) to the manipulator arm is provided by
(A) Elbow extension
(B) Wrist bend
(C) Wrist swivel
(D) Wrist yaw
Ans: (a)
Q.5 Which of the following work is done by General purpose robot?

(A) Part picking
(B) Welding
(C) Spray painting
Ans: (d)
Q. 6 The main objectives of industrial robots is to

(a) to minimize the labour requirement
(b) to increase productivity
(c) to enhance the life of production machines
Ans: (d)
Q.7 Which of the following terms IS NOT one of the five basic parts of a robot?
a) peripheral tools
b) end effectors
c) controller
d) drive
Ans: (a)
Q.8 Robot is derived from Czech word

(a) robota
(b) rabota
(c) rebota
(d) ribota
Ans: (a)
Q.9 Which of the following terms refers to the rotational motion of a robot arm?
a) swivel
b) axle
c) retrograde
d) roll
Ans: (d)
Q.10 The number of moveable joints in the base, the arm, and the end effectors of
the robot determines_________
a) degrees of freedom
b) payload capacity
c) operational limits
d) flexibility
Ans: (a)
Q.11 For a robot unit to be considered a functional industrial robot, typically, how
many degrees of freedom would the robot have?
a) three
b) four
c) six
d) eight
Ans: (c)
Q.12 Which of the basic parts of a robot unit would include the computer circuitry
that could be programmed to determine what the robot would do?
a) sensor
b) controller
c) arm
d) end effector
Ans: (b)
Q.13 Unclear inputs, Social Context, Task distribution, and Transformation are some
of the key attributes which favor ____________ RPA.
A) Autonomous
B) Cognitive
C) Intellisense
D) Assisted
Ans: (d)
Q.14 A__________ translates signals from the controller into the motor voltage and
current signals.
a) Servo motor
b) Servo amplifier
c) AC motor
d) DC motor
Ans: (b)
Q.15 Motors used for electronic actuator drives :

a) AC servo motors
b) DC servo motors
c) Stepper motors
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: (d)
Q.16 Valves can be classified according to their use as:

a) Directional flow
b) Pressure control
c) Flow control
Ans: (d)
Q.17 Assertion (A): It is all but impossible to design a practical fluid power system
without some means of controlling the volume and pressure of the fluid.
Reason (R): It is controlled and done by valves.
a) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)
Q.18 Pumps that discharge liquid in a continuous flow are referred to as non-positive
displacement.
a) True
b) False
Ans: (a)
Q.19 The basic components of hydraulic fluid power system are :

a) Reservoir
b) Pump and lines
c) Actuating devices and control valves
Ans: (d)
Q.20 Connectors and fittings are used in the fluid power system :
a) To connect to various sections of the fluid lines to each other
b) To detach the fluid lines to the components of the system
c) They are used in the high pressure fluid system
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: (a)
Q.21 The basic components of robot are:

(a) The mechanical linkage
(b) Sensors and controllers
(c) User interface and power conversion unit
(d) All of the mentioned
Ans: (d)
Q.22 A _________ is connection between parts or links in a robot that allow motion.
a) Hinge
b) Joint
c) Dis joint
Ans: (b)
Q.23 Which type of motion is possible in polar coordinate robots.

(a) 2 linear and 1 rotational motion
(b) 3 linear motion
(c)3 rotational motion
(d) 2 rotational and 1 linear motion
Ans: (d)
Q.24 Radial movement (in & out) to the manipulator arm is provided by
____________
(a) Wrist bend
(b)Wrist swivel
(c) Wrist yaw
(d) Elbow extension
Ans:(d)
Q.25 Industrial Robots are generally designed to carry which of the following
coordinate system(s).
(a)Cartesian coordinate systems
(b)Polar coordinate systems
(c) Cylindrical coordinate system
(d)All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q.26 The Robot designed with Cartesian coordinate systems has
(a)Three rotational movements
(b)Three linear movements
(c)Two linear and one rotational movement
(d) Two rotational and one linear movement
Ans: (b)
Q.27 The Robot designed with Polar coordinate systems has

(a) Three linear movements
(b)Three rotational movements
(c)Two linear and one rotational movement
(d)Two rotational and one linear movement
Ans: (d)
Q.28 The Robot designed with cylindrical coordinate systems has ________
(a)Three linear movements
(b)Three rotational movements
(c) Two linear and one rotational movement
(d) Two rotational and one linear movement
Ans: (c)
Q.29 _______________ terms refer to the rotational motion of a robot arm?

(a) swivel
(b) axle
(c) retrograde
(d) roll
Ans: (d)
Q.30 In which of the following operatios Continuous Path System is used

(a) Pick and place
(b) Loading and Unloading
(c) Continuous welding
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
Q. 31 Which part of a robot provides motion to the manipulator and end effectors?
(a) Controller
(b) Sensor
(c)Actuator
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
Q.32 The kinematic part of the robot or manipulator is called,

(a) Links
(b) Joints
(c) End effectors
Ans :(b)
Q. 33 In a robot the 'Rotary Joints' known as,

(a) Revolute
(b) Prismatic
(c) Cylindrical
(d) Spherical
Ans:(a)
Q. 34 In a robot the 'Translotry Joints' known as,

(a) Revolute
(b) Prismatic
(c)Cylindrical
(d) Spherica
Ans :(b)
Q.35 Robots arm is also known as its

(a) Actuator
(b) End effector
(c) Manipulator
(d) Servomechanis
Ans: (c)
Q. 36 which type of the following is the type of joints in robots

(a)Rotary joints
(b) Translatory joints
(c) Revolute joints
(d) a and b only
Ans: (d)
Q. 37 The physical structure of robot which moves around is called,

(a) Manipulator
(b)End-effector
(c)Joints
(d)Links
Ans: (a)
Q.38 The following type of robot is most suitable for pick and place operations
(a) Rectangular
(b) Cylindrical
(c) Spherical
(d) jointed arm type
Ans:( a)
Q.39 what type of joint at Hinges of a door?
(a) Translatory joints
(b) Rotary jointsn
(c) revaluate joints
(d) both a and b
Ans: (b)
Q.40 A manipulator is also known as a

(a) Track drive
(b) robot arm
(c) vision system
(d) robot controller
Ans: (b)
Q.41 What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot controllers?
(A) Temperature
(B) Pressure
(C) Feedback
(D) signal
Ans: (c)
Q.42 Which of the basic parts of a robot unit would include the computer circuitry
(A) sensor
(B) controller
(C) arm
(D) end effector
Ans: (a)
Q.43 If a robot can alter its own trajectory in response to external conditions, it is
considered to be--------
(A) intelligent
(B) mobile
(C) open loop
(D) non-servo
Ans: (a)
Q.44 Which of the following represents muscles of a robot?

(A) Actuator
(B) Power supply
(C) Micro controller
(D) Robotic arm
Ans: (a)
Q.45 Drives are also known as?

(A) Actuator
(B) Controller
(C) sensors
(D) Manipulator
Ans: (a)
Q. 46 The following drive is used for lighter class of a robot?

(a) Pneumatic drive
(b) Hydraulic drive
© Electric drive
Ans: (a)
Q.47 Internal state sensors are used for measuring --------of the end effector.
a) Position
b) Position and Velocity
c) Velocity and acceleration
d) Position, Velocity and acceleration
Ans: (d)
Q.48 Which of the following sensors determines the relationship of the robot and its
environment and the objects handled by it
(a) Internal state sensors
(b) External state sensors
(c) Both (A) and (B)
Ans: (c)
Q.49 A manipulator is also known as

a) Track drive
b) Robot arm
c) Vision system
d) Robot controller
Ans: (b)
Q.50 Which part of a robot provides motion to the manipulator and end-effectors?
a) controller
b) sensor
c) Actuator
d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
Q.51 Which of the following is not type of actuator?

a) Digital actuator
b) pneumatic actuator
c) Hydraulic and pneumatic actuator
Ans: (a)
Q.52 Hydraulic and pneumatic system with or without transmission element provides
motion to robot link is called
a) sensor
b) controller
c) arm
Ans: (c)
Q.53 In which of the following is not a programming language for computer

controlled robot?
A) AMU
B) VAL
C) RAIL
D) HELP
Ans: (a)
Q.54 Which of the following terms refers to the rotational motion of a robot arm?
a) swivel
b) axle
c) retrograde
d) roll
Ans: (d)
Q.55 In a ‘robot Rotary’ Joints known as

a) revolute
b) prismatic
c) cylindrical
d) spherical
Ans: (a)
Q.56 In a robot ‘Translotry Joints’ known as

a) revolute
b) prismatic
c) cylindrical
d) Spherical
Ans: (b)
Q.57 SCARA robotics very suitable in which kind of operations

a) Single operation
b) Rotary operation
c) Assembly operation
d) Translatory Operation
Ans: (c)
Q.58 A configuration for a robot is

a) octagonal
b) oblong
c) square
d) spherical
Ans: (d)
Q.59 The physical structure of Robot which moves around is called

a) Manipulator
b) End-effectors
c) Joints
d) Links
Ans: (a)
Q.60 A robot arm is also known as its

a) Actuator
b) end effector
c) manipulator
d) servomechanism
Ans: (c)
-------------------------------------- END -----------------------------------------------------

Subject: Finite Element Analysis and Simulation (FEAST)
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
1) The solution of FEM is
A) Always exact
B) mostly approximate
C) sometime exact
D) never exact
Ans. (B)
2) Primary variable of in fem structure analysis is
A) displacement
B) force
C)stress
D )strain
Ans. (A)
3) The art of subdividing a structure in to convenient number of smaller component is known as
A) global stiffness matrix
B)force vector
C) discretization
D)none
Ans. (C)
4) _______ is/are the phase/s of finite element method
A)preprocessing
B) solution
C)post processing
D) A,B&C
Ans. (D)
5) from the following which type of element is not three dimension
A)Hexahedron
B) Quadrilateral
C) Rectangular prism
D) Tetrahedron
Ans. (B)
6) The truss analysis, which type of element are used
A) Triangle
B) Bar
C) Rectangle
D) parallelogram
Ans. (B)
7)To solve the FEM problem it subdivides a large problem in to smaller, simpler parts that are called
A) Finite element
B)infinite element
C) dynamic element
D)static element
Ans. (A)
8) The sum of shape function is equal to
A) 0
B)0.5
C) 1
d) 2
Ans. (C)
9) The triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom
A) 3
B) 4
C)5
D) 6
Ans. (D)
10) Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on_______
A) types of element
B) nature of element
C) degrees of freedom
D)nodes
Ans. (C)
11) On gathering stiffness and lodes the system of equations is given by
A) KQ=F
B) KQ ≠ F
C) K=QF
D )K≠QF
Ans. (C)
12) The finite element method is mostly used in the field of
A) structural mechanics
B) classical mechanics
C) applied mechanics
D) engineering mechanics
Ans. (D)
13) At fixed support the displacements are equal to
A) 1
B)2
C) 3
D) 0
Ans. (D)
14) In FEA the sub domains are called as____
A)partical
B)molecules
C)elements
D) none
Ans. (C)
15) The number of node for 1D element are
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 0
Ans. (B)
16) Finite element analysis deals with ____
A) Approximate numerical solution
B)non-boundary value problems
C) Laplace equation
D) partial differential equations
Ans. (A)
17) Stiffness matrix depends on
A) Material
B) geometry
C) both material and geometry
D) none of above
Ans. (C)
18) example of 2D element is _____
A) bar
B)triangle
C) hexahedron
D)tetrahedron
Ans. (B)
19) for 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed is having an order of
A) 2×2
B) 3×3
C) 4×4
D) 6×6
Ans. (B)
20) To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the elements ______ are used
A) shape function
B) node function
C) element function
D) coordinate function
Ans. (A)
21) The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces condition called
A) boundary condition
B) traction
c) friction
D) surfacing
Ans. (A)
22) The truss element can resist only
A) Axial force
B) surface force
C)point load
D) none of above
Ans. (A)
23) The truss element can deform only in the
A) axial direction
B) vertical direction
C) horizontal direction
D) inclined direction
Ans. (A)
24) example of 1-D element is ____
A) triangular element
B) brick element
C) truss element
D) axisymmetric element
Ans. (C)
25) The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 0
Ans. (D)
26) The element displacement vector Q represented by
A) Q=[ Q1 Q2]T
B) Q=[Q1 Q2]
C) Q=[Q1×Q2]T
D) Q=[Q1/Q2]T
Ans. (A)
27). The finite element method formulation of problem result in a system of
A] algebraic equations
B] logical equations
C] arithmetic equations
D] How equation
Ans. (A)
28) FEM gives accurate representation of
A] real geometry
B] complex geometry
C] real and complex geometry
D] constant geometry
Ans. (B)
29) Numerical algorithms are based on
A] FEM and FDTD
B] FEM and IFEM
C] TD and FD
D] FEM and FD
Ans. (A)
30) To solve the EEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts that are called
A] Finite elements
B] Infinite elements
C] dynamic elements
D] static elements
Ans. (A)
31) A triangular plane stress element has degrees of freedom
A] 3
B] 4
C] 5
D] 6
Ans. (D)
32) Number of displacement polynomials used for an elements depends on
A] nature of elements
B] types of an elements
C] degree of freedom
D] nodes
Ans. (C)
33].The art of subdividing a structure into a convenient number of smaller components is called
A] discretization
B] numbering of nodes
C] continum
D] both a & b
Ans. (A)
34] In weighted residual technique, the method adopted are
A] point collocation method
B] least squares method
C[garlerlins method
D] all
Ans. (D)
35] The displacement function for I-D, two node linear element in terms of shape function will be
A] u = N1u2 + N2U1
B] u = N2U1 + N1u2
C] u = N1U1 + N2u2
D] u = N1u1 + N1 u 2
Ans. (C)
36] On gartering stiffness and loads, the system of equation is given by
A] KQ = F
B] KQ = F
C] K = QF
D] K = QF
Ans. (A)
37] Sum of all shape function equal to
A] zero
B] -1
C] +1
D] 2
Ans. (C)
38] The higher order elements are also called as
A] complex elements
B] compound element
C] linear elements
D] none
Ans. (A)
39]. FEM also operates the parameter like
A] heat transfer
B] temperature
C] both A & B
D] none
Ans. (D)
40] FEM cant produce exact result of _____________ method
A] analytical
B] logical
C] theoretical
D] all the above
Ans. (D)
41] The finite elements method is mostly used in the field of
A] structural method
B] classical mechanics
C] applied mechanics
D] engg mechanics
Ans. (D)
42] The geometry and other parameters of on element is terms of only one spatial coordinate then
the element is
A] 2 dimensional
B] one dimensional
C] three dimensional
D] none
Ans. (D)
43] A six noded triangular element is know as
A] linear strain triangular element
B] constant strain triangular element
C] vanable strain triangular element
D] differable strain triangular element
Ans. (B)
44]chose the EFA software’s
A] ANSYS
B] CATIA
C] pro-E
D] IOEAS
Ans. (A)
45]how many nodes are there in a 3-D brick elements
A] 3
C] 6
C] 8
D] 9
Ans. (C)
46] axis-symmetric element is ________elements
A] 1D
B] 2D
C] 3D
D] 4D
Ans. (B)
47]._____is / are the phases of finite element method
A] preprocessing
B] solution
C] postprocessing
C] A, B
D]none
Ans. (C)
48]. the minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in space is_____
A] 3
B] 4
C] 1
D] 2
Ans. (A)
49] The finite element methods can be applied in______ areas
A] thermal
B] soil and rock mechanics
C] vibration
D] all of the above

Ans. (D)
50]if the structure is more complex in order to simplyfy the model , we need to subdivide the structure in to
substructures, these substructure are termed as_______
A] element
B]modules
C] links
D] models
Ans. (B)
51] which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix
A] the minimum potential energy principle
B] galerkins principle
C] weighted residual method
D]inverse matrix method
Ans. (D)
52] ____is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the element to the smallest dimension
A] element depth ratio
B] mode shape ratio
C] aspect ratio
D] none of the above
Ans. (C)
53] _______are used to express the eometry or shape of the element
A] mode shape
B] shape function
C] natural curves
Ans. (B)
54]when a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only the condition is called______
A] plane stress
B] plane strain
C] zero stress
D] zero strain
Ans. (A)
55] The characteristic of the shape function is ________
A] the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at other nodes
B] thesome of shape function is equal to one
C] bothe A&B
Ans. (C)
Q56] the points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known as _____
A] local coordinates system
B] natural coordinates system
C] global coordinates system
Ans. (C)
57] The application of the finite element method in two dimensional analysis are _____
A] stretching of plates
B] gravity of dams
C] axisymmetric shells
D] all of the above
Ans. (C)
58] If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement is considered in _______
A] inverse matrix method
B] weighted residual method
C] Galerkins principle
D] the minimum potential energy
Ans. (D)
59]which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)?
A] k is bonded matrix
B]k is un-symmetric
C] k is an unbonded matrix
Ans. (A)
60] The actual thickness of plane strain element is ________
A] very large
B] very small
C] assumed by software
D] any of the above
Ans. (A)
Subject: Elective –III (Automobile Engineering – II)
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is
converted to
A. Mechanical energy
B. Heat energy
D. Potential energy
Ans.: (B)Heat energy
A. The weight of vehicle
B. The deceleration rate
C. Both (A) and (B)
Ans.: (C)Both (A) and (B)
C. Disc brake
D. All of the above

Ans.: (C)Disc brake
A. Area of brake linings
B. Radius of car wheel
C. Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes
D. All of the above
Ans.: (D)All of the above
A. only front wheels
B. only rear wheels
C. both front and rear wheels
D. all of the above
Ans.: (B)only rear wheels
A. one cylinder and one reservoir
B. two cylinders and one reservoir
C. one cylinder and two reservoirs
D. two cylinders and two reservoirs
Ans.: (D)two cylinders and two reservoirs
A. builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
B. maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
C. serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
D. All of the above

A. Law of conservation of momentum
B. Law of conservation of energy
C. Pascal’s law
Ans.: (C)Pascal’s law
A. atmospheric valve
B. vacuum valve
C. both (A) and (B)
Ans.: (C)both (A) and (B)
A. Levers
B. bell cranks
C. Cams
D. all of the above
Ans.: (D)all of the above
C. Disc brake
D. All of the above

Ans.: (A) External contracting brake
A. Wheel
B. Axle
C. suspension system
Ans.: (B)Axle
A. the amplification of braking forces
B. increase force of friction between shoe and wheel
C. transfer of weight during stop
D. All of the above
Ans.: (A)the amplification of braking forces
A. electrical energy
B. engine vacuum
C. air pressure
D. all of the above
Ans.: (A)electrical energy
A. Bleeding
B. self energizing
C. Powering
D. Actuating
Ans.: (A)Bleeding
Q16. What is the minimum allowable brake efficiency for foot operated brakes
A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 30%
D. 25%
Ans.: (A)50%
Q17. Higher coefficient of friction between brake shoe and brake drum…..
A. Increases stopping distance of vehicle
B. Decreases stopping distance of vehicle
C. No effect on stopping distance
D. Provides smooth ride
Ans.: (B)Decreases stopping distance of vehicle
Q18. What do you mean by brake fade?
A. Increased brake efficiency
B. Reduced stopping power
C. Drum brake
D. Disc brake
Ans.: (B)Reduced stopping power
Q19. Which is/ are possible causes of brake binding?
A. Brake shoe may be jammed
B. Brake shoe retracting spring may be broken
C. Pedal return spring may be weak
D. All of the above

Q20. Which of the following is not a type of brake?
A. Service brakes
B. Disc brake
C. Vacuum brake
Ans.: (D)None of the above
Q21. Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Chiller
D. Evaporator
Ans.: (C)Chiller
Q22. Which of the following qualities is not possessed by the filters in the air
conditioning system?
A. They should be capable of removing dust particles from the incoming air
B. They should afford easy cleaning
C. They should offer low frictional resistance to the airflow
D. They should offer high frictional resistance to the airflow
Ans.: (D)They should offer high frictional resistance to the airflow
Q23. The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water from air
is known as __________
A. Heating
B. Cooling
C. Humidification
D. Dehumidification
Ans.: (D)Dehumidification
Q24. Select the wrong characteristics of refrigerant:
A. low latent heat
B. low boiling point
C. high thermal conductivity
Ans.: (A)low latent heat
Q25. Oil separator if fitted in between
A. Condenser and evaporator
B. On the suction line
C. compressor and condenser
D. at the receiver outlet
Ans.: (C)compressor and condenser
Q26. Why do we need car air conditioning system?
A. To get cold surrounding in summer
B. To get filtered air in the cities like Delhi, Mumbai, etc.
C. To get comfortable environment inside the car against climate
D. All of the above
Q27. Now a days which refrigerant is used in AC?
A. R12
B. R22
C. R410A
D. R32
Ans.: (C)R410A
Q28. Which of the following is not used in car AC?
A. Compressor
B. Cooler
C. Condenser
D. Evaporator
Ans.: (B)Cooler
Q29. At an average how much fuel a car AC consumes?
A. 12%
B. 50%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Ans.: (D)20%
Q30. Which is/are the effective method(s) in AC car to reduce fuel

consumption? (You can select multiple answers)
A. Turn off AC when does not required
B. Allow fresh air to flow through car
C. Use car in econo mode
D. Park your vehicle in shadow
Ans.: (A,B,C,D)
Q31. Which of the following is method of Heating control in a car
A. Air blending heating system
B. Water- valve heating system
C. All of the above

Ans.: (C)All of the above
Q32. Identify the correct sequence of components in a car AC.
A. Compressor – Condenser –Expansion valve – Dryer – Evaporator &

blower
B. Compressor – Condenser – Dryer – Expansion valve – Evaporator &

blower
C. Compressor – Expansion valve – Condenser – Dryer – Evaporator &

blower
D. Compressor – Expansion valve – Condenser – Dryer – Evaporator &

blower
Ans.: (B)Compressor – Condenser – Dryer – Expansion valve – Evaporator &

blower
Q33. Thermal Expansion Valve ……
A. Allows passenger to adjust temperature according to the requirement
B. Allows passenger to adjust flow of hot air
C. Allows passenger to adjust flow of cold air
D. Allows passenger to open AC and heater
Ans.: (A)Allows passenger to adjust temperature according to the requirement
Q34. What could be the problem when AC does not cool the car properly
A. Expansion valve blocked
B. Defective thermostat
C. Damaged compressor
D. All of the above
Q35. What could be the reason for a car AC making inappropriate noise
A. Vibration noise from compressor base
B. Defective thermostat
C. Dryer does not working
D. All of the above
Ans.: (A)Vibration noise from compressor base
Q36. Which of the following components are used in battery?
A. Container
B. Plate
C. Electrolyte
D. All of the above
Q37. Whose guidelines are followed worldwide for battery terminal?
A. Indian Battery Manufacturer’s Association
B. Chinese Battery Manufacturer’s Association
C. American Battery Manufacturer’s Association
D. European Battery Manufacturer’s Association
Ans.: (C) American Battery Manufacturer’s Association
Q38. How any can identify positive and negative terminal of battery?
A. Positive terminal is larger than Negative terminal
B. Negative terminal is larger than Positive terminal
C. Both terminals are same
Ans.: (A) Positive terminal is larger than Negative terminal
Q39. Which of the following is used as ignition system in an automobile?

A. Battery ignition system
B. Circuit ignition system
C. Electrical ignition system
D. Engine ignition system
Ans.: (A) Battery ignition system
Q40. Lightning ability of a fully charged battery is called as….
A. Battery
B. Battery Rating
C. Battery system
D. All of the above
Ans.: (B) Battery Rating
Q41. What is the function of separator in battery?
A. It separates Battery cell
B. It separates Battery terminals
C. It separates Battery grid
D. It separates +ve and –ve plate
Ans.: (D) It separates +ve and –ve plate
Q42. What is Electrolyte?
A. Mixture of 60% sulphuric acid + 40% distilled water
B. Mixture of 40% sulphuric acid + 60% distilled water
C. Mixture of 50% hydrochloric acid + 50% clean water
D. Mixture of 60% hydrochloric acid + 40% clean water
Ans.: (A) Mixture of 60% sulphuric acid + 40% distilled water
Q43. What are the factors responsible for battery life?

A. Improper electrolyte level
B. Overcharging
C. Corrosion of terminals
D. All of the above
Ans.: (D) All of the above
Q44. The amount of current a battery can deliver is called as….
A. Battery Ignition
B. Battery Rating
C. Battery Capacity
D. All of the above
Ans.: (B) Battery Rating
Q45. Which of the following is used as ignition system in an automobile?
A. Electrical ignition system
B. Circuit ignition system
C. Magneto ignition system
D. Engine ignition system
Ans.: (C) Magneto ignition system
Q46. Battery rating can be classified as…
A. 20 hour rating
B. Cold rating
C. 20 Minute rating
D. All of the above
Q47. Which of the following test is carried out on each individual cell only?
A. Open circuit voltage test
B. Specific gravity test
C. High discharge test
D. All of the above
Ans.: (B) Specific gravity test
Q48. On which of the following parameter capacity of battery depends?
A. Number of plates
B. Area of plates remain in contact with electrolyte
C. Quantity of electrolyte
D. All of the above
Q49. Open circuit voltage test can be carried out on…
A. Whole battery at a time
B. Single cell at a time
C. All of the above
Ans.: (C)All of the above
Q50. In which of the following battery test Hydrometer is used?
A. Open circuit voltage test
B. High discharge test
C. Specific gravity test
D. All of the above
Ans.: (C) Specific gravity test
Q51. Which of the following is not a battery trouble?

A. Self discharge
B. Deterioration of plates
C. Over charging of battery
D. Internal short circuiting
Ans.: (C) Over charging of battery
Q52. At an average battery gets discharged by …….per day.
A. 1%
B. 9%
C. 5%
D. 7%
Ans.: (A) 1%
Q53. Sulphation is a…...
A. Reaction of sulphuric acid with mineral water
B. Loss of sulphuric acid from electrolyte
C. Battery trouble
D. All of the above
Ans.: (C) Battery trouble
Q54. Deterioration of battery plates takes place because of…….
A. Freezing of electrolyte
B. Mechanical damage
C. Very high charging rate
D. All of the above
Q55. Which of the following is/are components of electrical system layout?

A. Battery
B. Electrical Accessories
C. Electrical lightning system
D. All of the above
Ans.:(D)All of the above
A. Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
B. Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
C. Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
D. Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
Ans.: (A)Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
Q57. The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high
voltage current upto about
A. 10,000 volts
B. 17,000 volts
C. 25,000 volts
D. 35,000 volts
Ans.: (C) 25,000 volts
A. 1 to 50
B. 1 to 100
C. 1 to 200
D. 1 to 400
Ans.: (B) 1 to 100

A. It operates break and make mechanism
B. It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
C. both (A) and (B)
Ans.: (C)both (A) and (B)
Q60. The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at ___ the engine speed in four
stroke engine
A. half
B. equal to
C. one and half times
D. double
Ans.: (A)half
Subject: Automobile Engineering II
Class: BE SEM- VIII

Unit 1: Automobile Brakes
Sr.
Question Ans.
No.
The function of master cylinder is
a) To increase pressure equally in all cylinders
1) b) To increase pressure unequally in all cylinder a
c) To decrease pressure unequally in all cylinder
d) To decrease pressure equally in all cylinder
In trucks the system of wheel braking employed is
a) Mechanical
2) b) Hydraulic b
c) Pneumatic
d) None of above
In Jeep we use brakes.
a) Mechanically
3) b) Hydraulically b
c) Pneumatically
d) None of these
Brake lining consists mainly of
a) Asbestos
4) b) Copper A
c) Cast iron
d) Aluminium
The maximum disc run out allowed on the vehicle is generally.
a) 1 mm
5) b) 0.5mm C
c) 0.1mm
d) 0.01mm
Thebrake efficiency ofa newvehicleis about
a) 30 percent
6) b) 50 percent C
c) 80 percent
d) 100 percent
Brake fade is
a) Loss of pedal
7) b) Loss of friction B
c) Loss of hydraulic fluid
d) None of these
Electric brakes are commonly used on
a) Two wheelers
8) b) Cars d
c) Trucks
d) Trailers
On suspended vacuum brakes there is vacuum on both sides of the
piston during
9) B
a) Brake application
b) Brake release
Class: BE SEM- VIII
c) Part application of brakes
d) All of these
During braking the push rod directly operates
a) Primary piston
10) b) Secondary piston A
c) Residual pressure valve
d) Compensating port.
The brake bleeding process removes from system
a) Air
11) b) Vacuum A
c) Excess fluid
d) Excess pressure
In maruti car the brakes used are
a) Disc brakes
c
12) b) Drum brakes only
c) Disc on front drum on rear
d) Drum or front and disc on rear
Fading of brakes occurs
a) At high speeds
13) b) At low speeds C
c) During continuous
d) When brake lining is worn
The brakes employed on cars are usually operated
a) Mechanically
14) b) Hydraulically B
c) By means of engine vacuum
d) By compressed air
Air brakes are mostly used in case of
a) Cars
15) b) Jeeps C
c) Trucks
d) Three wheelers
The hand brake usually operates on
a) Rear wheels
16) b) Front wheels A
c) Right wheels
d) Left wheels
For 100% effective operation of the hydraulic brines.
a) Brine fluid should be pure
17) b) Boiling point of the fluid should be high c
c) There should not be trapped air
d) Viscosity of the fluid should be high
Anti skiddevices aregenerally usedon
a) Pear brakes
18) b) Parking brakes c
c) Front brakes
d) None of these
The operation used to remove trapped air from hydraulic brake
19) system is known C
a) Tapping
Class: BE SEM- VIII
b) Trapping
c) Bleeding
d) Skidding
If the brake wheels gets locked before the vehicle stops the vehicle
is said to be
20) a) Slipping B
b) Skidding
c) Sliding
d) Rolling

Unit 2: AutomobileElectricalSystem
Sr.
No. Question Ans.
The capacity of a lead acid cell does not depend on its
a) Temperature
1) b) Rate of charge b
c) Rate of discharge
d) Quantity of active material
Cells are connected in series ion order to
a) Increase the voltage
2) b) Increase the current rating a
c) Increase the life of the cells
The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
a) Current rating
3) b) Voltage rating C
c) Ampere hour rating
Electrolyte used in a lead acid cell is.
a) NaOH
4) b) Only H2 SO4 d
c) Only water
d) Dilute H2 SO4
In a lead acid cell, lead is called.
a) Positive active material
5) b) Negative active material b
c) Passive material
Overcharging a battery
a) Will bring about chemical change in active materials
6) b) Will increase the capacity of the battery d
c) Will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
d) None of the above will occur
Overcharging
7) a) Produces excessive gassing d
b) Loosens the active material
Class: BE SEM- VIII
c) Increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
d) All above
Undercharging
a) Reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
8) b) Increases specific gravity of the electrolyte a
c) Produces excessive gassing
d) Increases the temperature
The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
a) Manometer
9) b) A mechanical gauge C
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
The output voltage of a charger is
a) Less than the battery voltage
10) b) Higher than the battery voltage b
c) The same as the battery voltage
d) None of these
A discharged lead acid battery has on its plates
a) PbSO2
11) b) Pb d
c) Pb2O4
d) PbSO4
A fully charged 6 cell automotive battery should indicate
a) 12V
12) b) 12.6V d
c) sq. gravity of 1.290 at 32oC
d) both (b) and (c)
With the increase of battery temperature the specific gravity of
electrolyte.
13) a) Increases B
b) Decreases
c) Stays the same
d) None of these
The colour of positive plate of a lead acid battery is
a) Brown
14) b) Grey a
c) White
d) Black
The colour of negative plate of a lead acid battery is
a) Brown
15) b) Grey b
c) White
d) Black
A maintenance free battery
a) Has lead antimony plate grid
16) b) Has lead calcium plate grid b
c) Does not contain acid
d) Does not contain water
17) The number of positive plates in a battery cell is b
a) One more than the negative plates
Class: BE SEM- VIII
b) One less than the negative plates
c) Two less than the negative plates
d) Two more than the negative plates
The positive plate of a lead acid battery has
a) PbO2
18) b) Pb a
c) PbSO4
d) H2SO4
The negative plate of a lead acid battery has
a) PbO2
19) b) Pb b
c) PbSO4
d) H2SO4
The capacity of a battery is determined by the number of plates
per cell and
20) a) Number of cells C
b) Shape of plates
c) Size of plates
d) Number of separators

Unit 3:- Automobile Heating ,Ventilation and Air conditioning
Sr.
Question Ans.
No.
Freon group of refrigerants are
a) Inflammable
1) b) Toxic d
c) Non inflammable
d) Non toxic and non inflammable
The boiling point of ammonia is
a) -10.5 oC
2) b) -30 oC C
c) -33.3 oC
b) -77.7 oC
Obtaining high COP, The pressure range of compressor should be
a) High
3) b) Low b
C) Optimum
d) Any blue
In a automobile refrigeration system the expansion debit is
4) connected between the C
a) Compressor and condenser
Class: BE SEM- VIII
b) Condenser and receiver
c) Receiver and evaporator
d) Evaporator and compressor
The vapour compression refrigerator employs The following cycle.
a) Ranking
5) b) Carnot d
c) Reversed Ranking
d) Reversed Carnot
A Human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism ofHuman body is equal to the
a) Heat dissipated to the surrounding
6) C
b) Heat starred in the human body
c) Sun of (A) and(B)
d) Difference of (A) and(B)
The purpose of radiator is of heat to the atmosphere.
a) Dissipation
7) b) Radiation a
c) Convection
d) Conduction
The commonly used antifreeze solution in automobile is
a) Carbon disulphide
8) b) Ethylene glycol b
c) Ammonium chloride
d) Freon-12
Which of the following is correct when the outside air is
introduced for ventilationProposes.
9) a) Sensible heat gain as well as latent heat gain C
b) Sensible heat gain
c) Sensible heat gain as well as latent heat loss d) Latent heat gain
The specific volume of a Automobile refrigerant should be
a) None of these
10) b) Normal d
c) high
d) Low
In following refrigerant which has the lowest freezing point.
a) R-118
11) b) R-11 d
c) Ammonia
d) R-22
The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water
from air isKnown as
a) Heating
12) d
b) Cooling
c) Humidification
d) De humidification
The object of air conditioning system in a car is to control the
a) A pressure and humidity
13) b) Temperature and pressure c
c) Temperature and humidity
d) All of the above
Class: BE SEM- VIII
The process generally used in automobile winter air –conditioning
to warm and humidity the air, is called as
a) Humidification.
14) c
b) De-humidification
c) Heating and humidification
d) Cooling and de-humidification
In an automobile refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is
controlled by
a) Compressor.
15) d
b) Condenser
c) Evaporator
d) Expansion valve
In an automobile air heating, sensible heating of air ----- decreases.
a) Compressor.
16) b) Condenser b
c) Evaporator
d) Expansion valve
The pressure at the inlet of a automobile refrigerant compressor is
called ----
a) Suction pressure.
17) a
b) Discharge pressure
c) Critical pressure
d) Back pressure
During automobile heating and humidification, the final relative
humidity of air
a) Can be lower or higher than of the entering air
18) a
b) is lower than that of the entering air
c) is higher than that of the entering air
Which of the following automobile refrigerant has the highest
freezing point
a) Ammonia
19) b
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Sulphur di-oxide
d) R-12
Automobile air conditioning means
a) Automobile cooling
20) b) Automobile heating d
c) Automobile de-humidification
d) All of these
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
(B) Heat energy
Ans.: B
Ans.: C
3) The following is not a drum brake
(C) Disc brake
Ans.: C
4) The hand brake of the automobile is usually

(C) Disc brake
Ans.: A
5) In disc brake, the disc is attached to the
(A) wheel
(B) axle
(C) suspension system
Ans.: A
(A) levers
(B) bell cranks
(C) cams
Ans.: D
7) In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of
(A) atmospheric valve
(B) vacuum valve
Ans.: C
8) Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of
(C) Pascal’s law

Ans.: C
Ans.: D
Ans.: D
Ans.: B
Ans.: D
13) Servo action is to
(A) the amplification of braking forces
(B) increase force of friction between shoe and wheel
(C) transfer of weight during stop
Ans.: A
(B) engine vacuum
(C) air pressure
Ans.: A
(A) bleeding
(B) self energizing
(C) servo action
(D) energization
Ans.: A
16) When the temperature increases, the coefficient of friction
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains constant
(D) Any of the above
Ans.: A
17) The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic braking system is known as
(A) Trapping
(B) Tapping
(C) Bleeding
(D) Cleaning
Ans.: C
18) In a disc brake, which component provides the pad-to-disc adjustment?
(A) Bleed screw
(B) Piston
(C) Caliper
(D) Piston seal
Ans.: D
19) On what principle does the braking system in the car work?
(A) Frictional force
(B) Gravitational force
(C) Magnetic force
(D) Electric force
Ans.: A
20) Generally, which brakes are on the front wheels?
(A) Drum brake
(B) Disk brake
(c) Shoe brake
(D) Double shoe brake
Ans.: B
21) How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Ans.: C
22) In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
Ans.: A
23) Which of the following bulb in a car will have the least wattage?
(A) Head light bulb
(B) Stop light bulb
(C) Parking light bulb
(D) Ignition warning bulb
Ans.: D
24) The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage current upto
about
(A) 10,000 volts
(B) 17,000 volts
(C) 25,000 volts
(D) 35,000 volts
Ans.: C
25) The discharged lead-acid battery has on its plates
(A) lead peroxide (PbO2)
(B) spongy lead (Pb)
(C) lead sulphate (PbSO4)

(D) sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
Ans.: C
26) In ignition coil, the ratio between the number of turns of primary and secondary windings is
about
(A) 1 to 50
(B) 1 to 100
(C) 1 to 200
(D) 1 to 400
Ans.: B
(A) a battery, a starter, and an ignition switch
(B) a battery, a distributor, and an ignition switch
(C) a battery, a starter, and a distributor
(D) a distributor, a starter, and an ignition switch
Ans.: A
Ans.: C
29) With the increase of battery temperature, the specific gravity of electrolyte
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D) none of these

Ans.: B
30) The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at ___ the engine speed in four stroke engine
(A) half
(B) equal to
(C) one and half times
(D) double
Ans.: A
(A) step up current
(B) step down current
(C) step up voltage
(D) step down voltage
Ans.: C
32) The _____ provides a reservoir for the current induced in the primary circuit at the time of
break.
(A) induction coil
(B) distributor
(C) condenser
(D) governor
Ans.: C
33) The main task of a battery in automobiles is to
(A) supply electricity to the alternator
(B) act as a reservoir or stabilizer of electricity
(C) supply electricity to the vehicle's electrical system at all times while the engine is running
(D) supply a large amount of power to turn the starter motor when the engine is being started
Ans.: D
34) The following affect the voltage required to jump over the gap of spark plug
(A) Shape of electrode forming gap
(B) The conductivity of gases in the gap
(C) Fuel-air mixture ratio existing in the gap
Ans.: D
35) The positive plates of lead acid battery has
(A) Lead peroxide (PbO2)
(B) Spongy lead (Pb)
(C) Lead sulphate (PbSO4)
(D) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
Ans.: A
Ans.: D
37) The negative plates of lead acid battery has
(A) Lead peroxide (PbO2)
(B) Spongy lead (Pb)
(C) Lead sulphate (PbSO4)
(D) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
Ans.: B
38) In four cylinder in-line engine, the probable firing order is

(A) 1-3-4-2
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-4-1-3
(D) 2-1-3-4
Ans.: A
39) The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system
Ans.: D
Ans.: D
41) In Mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the maximum temperature
(A) In evaporator
(B) Before expansion valve
(C) Between compressor and condenser
(D) Between condenser and evaporator
Ans.: C
42) In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is
(A) Liquid
(B) Sub-cooled liquid

(C) Saturated liquid
(D) Wet vapour
Ans.: D
43) A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism of human body is
equal to the
(A) Heat dissipated to the surroundings
(B) Heat stored in the human body
(C) Sum of (A) and (B)
(D) Difference of (A) and (B)
Ans.: C
44) The coefficient of performance of Heat Pump is always _________ one.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Ans.: C
45) The refrigerant for refrigerator should have
(A) High sensible heat
(B) High total heat
(C) High latent heat
(D) Low latent heat
Ans.: C
46) HVAC stands for
(A) Heating, Ventilation and Air Cooling
(B) Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning system
(C) Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning

(D) Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning for Engineers
Ans.: C
47) Air conditioning system used for
(A) cooling
(B) heating
(C) dehumidifying
(D) all of these
Ans.: D
48) State which of the following statement is TRUE?
(A) An air handling unit convey air between conditioned space and plant
(B) An air handling unit consists of supply and return air fans
(C) The fan used in an air conditioning system consumes a large amount of power
Ans.: D
49) Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?
(A) High risibility with oil
(B) Low boiling point
(C) Good electrical conductor
(D) Large latent heat
Ans.: C
50) Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratosphere?
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Fluorine
Ans.: D
51) The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by
(A) evaporator
(B) safety relief valve
(C) dehumidifier
(D) driers
Ans.: D
52) A refrigerant compressor is used to
(A) raise the pressure of the refrigerant
(B) raise the temperature of the refrigerant
(C) circulate the refrigerant through the refrigerating system
Ans.: D
53) A hermetically sealed unit implies
(A) compressor is sealed
(B) the compressor motor is sealed
(C) the complete refrigeration unit is sealed
(D) compressor and motor are sealed
Ans.: D
54) The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at
(A) compressor discharge.
(B) expansion valve
(C) evaporator
(D) condenser discharge
Ans.: A
55) One ton of the refrigeration is
(A) the standard unit used in refrigeration problems
(B) the cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
(C) the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours
(D) the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
Ans.: C
56) Moisture in freon refrigeration system causes
(A) ineffective refrigeration
(B) high power consumption
(C) freezing automatic regulating valve
(D) corrosion of whole system
Ans.: C
57) The boiling point of ammonia is
(A) -100°C
(B) -50°C
(C) - 33.3°C
(D) 0°C
Ans.: C
58) Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least
(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
Ans.: C
59) Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be
(A) critical pressure of refrigerant

(B) much below critical pressure
(C) much above critical pressure
(D) near critical pressure
Ans.: B
60) Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?
(A) condenser
(B) evaporator
(C) compressor
(D) expansion valve
Ans.: B
**********
BE MECHANICAL
Elective II – Tribology (MCQ)
1-The following is (are) the example(s) of static friction
A. Shoe brake applied to a vehicle

B. Shoe brake applied to a train
C. Dry grinding stone abrades the surface of metal
D. All of the above
Ans (D)
2-As per laws of dry friction, the frictional force
A. depends upon the nature of sliding surface

B. is independent of the sliding velocity
C. is directly proportional to the load
D. All of the above
Ans (D)
3-Lubricant converts
A. Solid friction into liquid friction

B. Liquid friction into solid friction
C. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Ans (A)
4-The following is not a type of sliding contact bearing
A. Ball bearing
B. Journal bearing
C. Bush bearing
D. Thrust bearing
Ans (A)
5- The following is not a type of roller contact bearing
A. Ball bearing
B. Journal bearing
C. Roller bearing
D. All of the above
Ans (B)
6-In thrust bearings, the load acts
A. perpendicular to the axis of shaft

B. in axial direction
Ans (B)
7-Boundary friction conditions may develop in journal bearings, when shaft passes through
zero speed during
A. starting
B. stopping
C. reversing
D. All of the above
Ans (D)
8-The following lubricants are obtained by fractional distillation of petroleum
A. Mineral oils
B. Fatty oils
C. Solid lubricants
D. All of the above
Ans (A)
9-For low pressure and low speeds, we use
A. Mineral oils
B. Semi-solid lubricants
C. Solid lubricants
D. All of the above
Ans (C)
10-The pour point test is employed to indicate the suitability of oil for ____ temperature
operations.
A. low
B. high
Ans (A)
11-The flash point of lubricant must be _______ the working temperature.
A. well below
B. well above
C. equal to
Ans (B)
12-Specific gravity of lubricant can be measured by using
A. Hydrometer
B. Viscometer
C. Anemometer
D. Pyranometer
Ans (A)
13-API number of water is
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20
Ans (C)
14-The colour code for various grades of lubricants is as follows
Grade of lubricant Colour code

a. Spindle oil 1. Red
b. Heavy-medium 2. Orange
c. Heavy/Extra heavy 3. Brown
d. Grease 4. Yellow
The correct order is
A. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

B. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
C. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
D. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Ans (B)
15-The bi-weekly lubrication is indicated by
A. rectangle
B. triangle
C. circle
D. hexagon
Ans (C)
16-The monthly lubrication is indicated by
A. rectangle
B. triangle
C. circle
D. hexagon
Ans (A)
17-Lubrication Oil from automobile machines come under ____ oil.
A. Clean oil
B. Less dirty
C. More dirty
D. Highly dirty
Ans (D)
18-The six monthly lubrication is indicated by
A. rectangle
B. triangle
C. circle
D. hexagon
Ans (D)
19- In which period was the word tribology coined after realizing significant losses due to
lack of knowledge of friction and wear and a need for an interdisciplinary approach was
considered?
A. 1960
B. 1966
C. 1964
D. 1970
Ans (B)
20- Out of the following disciplines which one is not considered for an interdisciplinary
approach in tribology?
A. Solid and Fluid mechanics.
B. Chemistry.
C. Material Science.
D. Industrial Engineering.
Ans (D)
21- The meaning of the Greek word “Tribos” from which the word Tribology is formed is
A. Rubbing.
B. Movement.
C. Fluid.
D. Heat.
Ans (A)
22 - Which one of the following is NOT the purpose of Tribology?
A. Improve service life.
B. Increase safety and reliability.
C. Reduce fatigue.
D. Increase heat generation.
Ans (D)
23 - Asperities are basically
A. Sharp tips on surface.
B. Edge of a surface.
C. Corner of a surface.
D. Hole in a surface.
Ans (A)
24 - Which one is not a standard method for quantifying surface roughness?
A. Root mean square roughness.
B. Average roughness.
C. Flatness tolerance(GD&T).
D. Rating method on any arbitrary scale.
Ans (D)
25 - Which one of the following statement is true?
A. Wear rate increases with increasing load.

B. Wear rate decreases with increasing temperature.
C. Wear rate decreases with increasing speed.
D. Wear rate is independent of load/temperature.
Ans (A)
26 - The purpose of lubricant filter system is
A. To remove the debris from the lubricant.
B. To enhance the viscosity of lubricant.
C. Reduce the temperature of lubricant.
D. Reduce the quantity of lubricant.
Ans (A)
27 - Which one of the following parameter is not included by Stribeck curve?
A. Viscosity of the lubricant.
B. Speed of the surfaces.
C. Load at the interface.
D. Surface roughness.
Ans (D)
28 - Which one of the following statements is NOT true about friction?
A. Friction is tangential resistance to motion.
B. Friction is dependent upon the surface of the content.
C. Friction is greater on rough surface.
D. Friction does not decrease with lubrication.
Ans (D)
29 - Coefficient of friction is independent of
A. Temperature.
B. Surface Roughness.
C. Hardness.
D. Surface area of contact.

Ans (D)
30 - Phenomenon of stick-slip occurs because of
A. Large difference between static and kinetic coefficients of friction.
B. Additional force requirement to move the object.
C. Increase in hardness of surfaces.
D. Lubrication is applied on the surfaces.
Ans (A)
31 - Adhesion component of dry friction is negligible at interface of
A. High temperature surfaces.
B. Lubricated tribo pair.
C. Rough surfaces.
D. Extra smooth surfaces.
Ans (B)
32 - Cold weld between two surfaces happens because of
A. Excessive lubrication.
B. Adhesion between two surfaces.
C. Relatively high surface roughness.
D. Low temp on area of contact.
Ans (B)
33 - As per the ploughing theory of friction, which of the following statements is not true?
A. Slope of asperities govern the friction force.
B. Sharp asperities causes more friction compared to round or spherical asperities.
C. Asperities on one surface interact with the asperities or valleys on the other surface.
D. An asperity of softer surface causes ploughing on the harder surface.
Ans (D)
34 - The formation of junction growth can be reduced by
A. Lubrication of the surfaces.

B. Increasing the surface finish of the rubbing surfaces.
C. Annealing the surfaces.
D. All of above.
Ans (A)
35 - Deformation of asperities causes
A. Increase in friction.
B. Decrease in friction.
C. Can increase or decrease friction.
D. No effect.
Ans (C)
36 - Ploughing effect causes
A. Piercing and penetration of the soft surface by the asperities of the hard surface.
B. Increasing in friction.
C. Both (a) & (b).
D. None of these.
Ans (C)
37 - Coefficient of friction due to rolling is generally
A. Greater than coefficient of sliding friction.
B. Lesser than coefficient of sliding friction.
C. Equal to sliding friction.
D. May be greater or smaller compared to sliding friction.
Ans (D)
38 - Which of the following are the major contributors to rolling friction?
A. Micro-slip effect within the contact area.
B. Elastic hysteresis of the contacting materials.
C. Plastic deformation of the materials& adhesion effects in the contact.
D. All of the above.

Ans (D)
39 - Which one of the following is truefor ball bearings?
I. Sliding occurs between cage and balls.
II. Lubricants such as grease are used to reduce friction within ball bearing.
III. Cages are meant to bear the load.
A. Both (I) and (II).
B. Both (I) and (III).
C. Both (II) and (III).
D. All three (I), (II) and (III).
Ans (A)
40 - If an automobile tire is not filled up to the optimum pressure level it means:
A. There would be less hysteresis loss.
B. Rolling friction would be lower.
C. More steering controllability.
D. None of these.
Ans (C)
41 - To avoid the phenomenon of stick slip due to friction instability which of the following
is the right approach?
A. Increase the operation speed.
B. Decrease the operation speed.
C. Operation speed does not have any effect on the stick slip process.
D. Increase the difference between static and kinetic coefficient of friction.
Ans (A)
42 - In a mechanical system, negative damping due to friction instability causes
A. Increase in vibration amplitude over a period of time.
B. Decrease in vibration amplitude over a period of time.
C. Amplitude remains unchanged with time.

D. None of these.
Ans (A)
43- Zero wear increases performance because
A. It causes polishing of surface.
B. Size of surface asperities increases.
C. It removes lubrication from the surface.
D. It increases load bearing capacity of the surface.
Ans (A)
44 - Which of the following is NOT true about measurable wear?
A. Measurable wear is undesirable.
B. It can cause vibration and noise.
C. Measurable wear may roughen the surfaces.
D. It polishes the surfaces.
Ans (D)
45- Which of the following is NOT true about pitting on the gear surface?
A. It is a surface fatigue failure.
B. It occurs due to repeated loading of the tooth surface.
C. It occurs because contact stress exceeds than the surface fatigue strength of the material.
D. It occurs because contact stress exceeds the compressive strength of material.
Ans (D)
46- With increase in bearing clearance the load capacity of the bearing
A. Increases.
B. Decreases.
C. Does not change.
D. First decreases and then increases.
Ans (B)
47- Which among the following is not an adhesive wear mechanism?

A. Galling
B. Scoring.
C. Scuffing.
D. Polishing.
Ans (D)
48- To minimize the sliding friction, shear strength of the lubricant compared to the shear
strength of the tribo-surfaces should be:
A. Higher.
B. Lower.
C. Insignificant.
D. Equal.
Ans (C)
49- As per Archard’s wear equation, wear volume in adhesive wear is independent of
A. Sliding distance of travel.
B. Load.
C. Hardness of the soft material.
D. Rolling distance.
Ans (D)
50- Seizure refers to
A. Binding and fastening together of the material.
B. Cracking on the surface.
C. Significant wear on the surface.
D. Significant plastic deformation.
Ans (A)
51- Causes of seizure are
A. Poor heat dissipation.
B. Poor lubrication.
C. Smaller clearances.
D. All of above.
Ans (D)
52- The thickness of the oxide layer formed on the surface is dependent upon
A. Rate of rupture of the oxide layer.
B. Time available to re-oxidise.
C. Rate of formation of oxide layer.
Ans (D)
53- Scratching is a form of
A. Abrasive wear.
B. Adhesive wear.
C. Corrosive wear.
D. Fatigue wear.
Ans (A)
54- Wear rate is lesser in 3-body abrasion as compared to 2-body abrasion because
A. Energy is consumed in rolling motion of free hard particles.
B. Only spherical asperities are involved in 3-body abrasion.
C. Size of the asperities is smaller in 3-body abrasion.
D. Generally hardness of free particles is very low.
Ans (A)
55- The property of MR fluid is
A. Viscosity thickening due to magnetic attraction among particles.
B. Viscosity thinning due to relative sliding.
C. Reduction in viscosity due to increase in temperature.
D. All of above.
Ans (D)
56- Which of the following represents correct sequence of corrosive wear?
i. Mechanical sliding at interface.

ii. Chemical reaction and formation of a reaction product (oxide, chloride).
iii. Wearing away of reaction product film.
A. (ii),(i),(iii)
B. (ii), (iii), (i)
C. (i), (iii), (ii)
D. (i), (ii), (iii)
Ans (A)
57- Erosive wear is a function of
A. Particle velocity.
B. Impact angle.
C. Size of abrasive.
D. All of above.
Ans (D)
58 - The purpose of lubrication is
A. To reduce friction.
B. To reduce wear.
C. Transfer heat produced.
D. All of above.
Ans (D)
59 - Which of the following is NOT a function of lubricant in IC engine?
A. Form a film to separate the surfaces.
B. Adhere to surface.
C. Withstand high temperature inside the cylinder.
D. Reduce the size of the asperities and improve the surface finish.
Ans (D)
60 - Synovial fluid is a lubricant that is found in
A. Human bone joints.
B. Gearboxes.
C. IC engines.
D. Rolling element bearings.
Ans (A)
61 - Which one of them is a correct combination?
1. Boundary lubrication.
2. Hydrodynamic lubrication.
3. Mixed lubrication.
4. Elastohydrodynamic lubrication.
(i) Dimensionless film thickness < 1.
(ii) Dimensionless film thickness lies between 1 and 3.
(iii) Dimensionless film thickness lies between 3 & 5.
(iv) Dimensionless film thickness is greater than 5.
A. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii).
B. 1-(iv), 3-(iii), 2-(i), 4-(ii).
C. 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii), 1-(ii).
D. 3-(iv), 2-(iii), 1-(i), 4-(ii).
Ans (A)
62 - As the temperature is increased, the coefficient of friction
A. Increases.
B. Reduces.
C. Remains unchanged.
D. Increase or decrease based on the lubrication regime.
Ans (D)
63 - Which of the following is a desirable property of boundary lubricant?
A. Dissolvability in lubricating oils.
B. Affinity to metallic surfaces.
C. Low shear strength and high melting point.
D. All of above.
Ans (D)
64 - The major disadvantage with extreme pressure lubricants is
A. Carcinogenic nature of the lubricant.
B. Low melting point.
C. It is ineffective.
D. All of above.
Ans (A)
65 - In hydrodynamic lubrication the major source of friction is
A. Shearing of lubricant film.
B. Abrasion due to asperities on tribo-surfaces.
C. Abrasion of tribo-surfaces due to free particles.
Ans (A)
66 - Which of the following statements is true about viscosity?
A. Dynamic viscosity is the ratio of shear stress to the resultant shear rate.
B. Kinematic viscosity is equal to dynamic viscosity divided by density.
C. The CGS unit of dynamic viscosity is Centipoise and CGS unit of kinematic viscosity is
Centistokes.
D. All of above.
Ans (D)
67 - Film thickness in elastohydrodynamic lubrication depends on
A. Applied load and relative velocity.
B. Lubricant properties.
C. Properties of contacting materials.
D. All of above.
Ans (D)
68 - Viscosity of multigrade oils
A. Reduces with temperature but at higher sensitivity compare to monograde oil.
B. Increases with temperature but at higher sensitivity compare to monograde oil.
C. Reduces with temperature but at lower sensitivity compare to monograde oil.
D. Increases with temperature but at lower sensitivity compare to monograde oil.
Ans (C)
69 - Viscosity Index denotes
A. Relationship between the dynamic and kinematic viscosities.
B. Sensitivity of lubricants viscosity with respect to temperature.
C. Both (a) and (b).
D. There is no sliding and only rolling motion involved between cage and balls.
Ans (B)
70 - Which one is the common system for oil classification?
A. SAE (Society of Automobile Engineers).
B. API (American Petroleum Institute).
C. ISO (International Organization for Standardization).
Ans (D)
71 - Which of the following is not an advantage/benefit of solid lubricant?
A. More effective at high loads.

B. Resistance to deterioration.
C. Good heat dissipation.
D. Highly stable in extreme temperature and environment.
Ans (C)
72 - Out of the following which is NOT an example of solid lubricant?
A. Graphite lubricant.
B. Molybdenum Sulphite lubricant.
C. Polytetrafluoroethylene lubricant.
D. Multigrade lubricant.
Ans (D)
73 - Which of the following is/are the constituents of grease?
A. Base oil.
B. Additive.
C. Thickness fibre.
D. All of above.
Ans (D)
74 - Which of the following is NOT the advantage of grease?
A. Remains at application point and adhere to the surface.
B. Less frequent application needed.
C. Good for inclined/vertical shaft.
D. Good dissipation of heat.
Ans (D)
75 - Apart from reducing friction and wear, the secondary purpose(s) of lubricants is/are
A. Heat dissipation.
B. Reducing corrosion.
C. Both (a) & (b).
D. None of these.
Ans (C)
Model Question Paper A
N
Mechanical Vibration S
1) According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to B

maximum potential energy at extreme position?
(A) Energy method (B) Rayleigh’s method (C) Equilibrium method
2) Which among the following is the value of static deflection (δ) for a fixed beam B
with central point load?
(A) (Wl3) /(192 EI) (B) (Wl2) /(192 EI) (C) (Wl3) /(384 EI) (D) None of the above
3) If the mass of body increases 4 times C

(A) Frequency increases 4 times
(B) Frequency decreases 4 times
(C) Frequency become half
(D) Frequency become double
4) Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves B
(A) Perpendicular to its axis
(B) Parallel to its axis
(C) In a circle about its axis
(D) None of the mentioned
5) While calculating the natural frequency of a spring-mass system, the effect of the B
mass of the spring is accounted for by adding X times its value to the mass, where
X is
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/3 (C) 1/4 (D) 3/4
6) When a body is subjected to transverse vibrations, the stress induced in a body B
will be
(A) Shear stress (B) Bending stress (C) Tensile stress (D)Compressive stress
1 P.T.O.
7) The velocity vector in a vector diagram for a harmonic motion C
(A) Lags the displacement vector by 1800
(B) Lags the displacement vector by 900
(C) Leads the displacement vector by 900
(D) Leads the displacement vector by 1800
8) Which of the following relations is true when springs are connected series. B
(A) Ke = K1 + K2 (B) (1 / Ke) = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
(C) Ke = (1/K1) + (1/ K2) (D) (1 / Ke) = K1 + K2
9) Two springs have spring stiffness of 1500 N/m and 1 KN/m respectively. If they B
are connected in series, what will be the equivalent spring stiffness?
(A) 1KN/m (B) 600 N/m (C) 1 N/m (D) 600 KN/m
10) A mass of 10 kg when suspended from a spring causes a static deflection of A

0.01m. Find the spring stiffness for the same system.
(A) 9810 N/m (B) 8910 N/m (C)1098 N/m (D) 9801 N/m
11) A car having a mass of 1000 kg deflects its springs 4 cm under its load. D
Determine the natural frequency of the car in vertical direction.
(A)5 Hz (B) 4.67 Hz (C) 9.8 Hz (D) 2.49 Hz
12) When the particles of the shaft or disc move in a circle about the axis of the shaft, C
then the vibrations are known as ___________ .
(A)Longitudinal vibrations (B) Transverse vibrations
(C) Torsional vibrations (D)None of these
13) Frequency of vibrations is usually expressed in C
(A)number of cycles per hour (B)number of cycles per minute
(C)number of cycles per second (D)None of these
14) What is the effect on the undamped natural frequency of a single-degree-of- C
freedom system if the mass of the system is increased?
(A)The frequency will increase (B)The frequency will stay the same
(C)The frequency will decrease (D)None of these
15) The motion completed during one time period is known as _______. B
(A)period of vibration (B)cycle (C)frequency (D)all of the above
16) The number of cycles described in one second is known as _______. C
(A)period of vibration (B)cycle (C)frequency (D)all of the above
2
17) Which of the following is a type of free vibration? D
(A)Longitudinal vibrations (B)Transverse vibrations
(C)Torsional vibrations (D)A, B and C
18) In a spring-mass system, which of the following force is not considered? B
(A)Spring force (B)Damping force (C)Accelerating force (D)A and B
19) As per Energy Method, the summation of kinetic energy and potential energy must D
be ________ which is same at all the times.
(A)zero (B)minimum (C)maximum (D)constant
20) Frequency is equal to ______. B
(A)time period (B)1/time period (C) *time period (D) /time period
21) In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the C
amplitude on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is
equal to
(A)x1/x2 (B)log (x1/x2) (C)loge (x1/x2) (D)log (x1.x2)
22) Eddy current damping is an example of _____ C

(A)Coulomb damping (B)Hysteresis damping
(C)Viscous damping (D)Dry friction damping
23) Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000 C
N/m and mass of 20 kg?
(A)12.32 Hz (B) 4.10 Hz (C)6.16 Hz (D)None of the above
24) What is meant by critical damping coefficient? B

(A)Frequency of damped free vibrations is less than zero
(B)The motion is aperiodic in nature
(C)Both a. and b.
(D)None of the above
25) According to D' Alembert's principle, m (d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx =0 is the A

differential equation for damped free vibrations having single degree of freedom.
What will be the solution to this differential equation if the system is critically
damped?
(A)x = (A + Bt) e– ωt (B)x = X e– ξωt (sin ωdt + Φ)
(C)x = (A – Bt) e– ωt (D)x = X e– ξωt (cos ωdt + Φ
3 P.T.O.
26) Calculate natural frequency of damped vibration, if damping factor is 0.52 and A
natural frequency of the system is 30 rad/sec which consists of machine supported
on springs and dashpots.
(A)25.62 rad/sec (B)20.78 rad/sec (C)14.4 rad/sec (D)15.33 rad/sec
27) Calculate logarithmic decrement if damping factor is 0.33. D

(A)1.36 (B)3.23 (C)5.16 (D)2.19
28) The ratio of the actual damping coefficient (c) to the critical damping coefficient A
(cc ) is known as _________
(A)Damping factor (B)Damping coefficient (C)Resistive factor
(D)Resistive coefficient
29) When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the C
body is said to have
(A)Free vibration (B)Forced vibration (C)Damped vibration
(D)None of the mentioned
30) The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection D
due to the static force, is known as
(A)Damping factor (B)Damping coefficient (C)Logarithmic decrement
(D)Magnification factor
31) Rotor shaft of a large electric motor supported between short bearings at C
both ends shows a deflection of 1.8 mm in middle of motor. Assuming
rotor to be perfectly balanced and supported at knife edges at both ends,
likely critical speed (rpm) of shaft is
(A) 350 (B) 4430 (C) 705 (D)2810
32) A vehicle suspension system consists of a spring and a damper. Stiffness of D

spring is 3.5 KN/m and damping constant of damper is 400Ns/m. If mass is 50 kg,
then damping factor is
(A)0.606 (B)0.10 (C)0.666 (D)0.471
33) A cantilever shaft having 50 mm diameter and a length of 300mm has a A

disc of mass 100 kg at its free end. The Young’s modulus for the shaft
material is 200 GN/m^2. Determine the static deflection of shaft in mm.
(A)0.144 (B)0.244 (C)0.344 (D)0.444
34) The static deflection of a spring under gravity, when a mass of 1 kg is suspended A
from it, is 1 mm. Assume the acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s^2. The natural
frequency of this spring-mass system (in rad/s) is
(A)100 (B) 150 (C)200 (D)250
4
35) A simple pendulum is found to vibrate at a frequency of 0.5Hz in vacuum and C
0.45 Hz in a viscous fluid medium. Find the damping factor.
(A)0.5122 (B) 0.9272 (C) 0.4359 (D) 0.2568
36) When the torsional pendulum vibrating the observed amplitudes on the same side C
of neutral axis for successive cycles are found to decay 50% of the initial value
determine logarithmic decrement.
(A)0.065 (B)0.006 (C)0.693 (D)0.5
37) The critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the A
natural frequency of the system in
(A)Transverse vibrations (B)Torsional vibrations
(C) Longitudinal vibrations (D)None of the mentioned
38) In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at resonance is C
_____________ damping coefficient.
(A)equal to (B)directly proportional to (C)inversely proportional to
(D)independent of
39) In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn < 2, then for all values of damping factor, C
the transmissibility will be
(A)less than unity (B)equal to unity (C)greater than unity (D)zero
40) The accelerometer is used as a transducer to measure earthquake in Richter scale. C
Its design is based on the principle that
(A)Its natural frequency is very low in comparison to the frequency of vibration
(B)Its natural frequency is very high in comparison to the frequency of vibration
(C)Its natural frequency is equal to the frequency of vibration
(D)Measurement of vibratory motion is without any reference point
41) Critical speed is expressed as D
(A)rotation of shaft in degrees
(B)rotation of shaft in radians
(C)rotation of shaft in minutes
(D)natural frequency of the shaft
42) The first critical speed of an automobile running on a sinusoidal road is calculated A
by (modeling it as a single degree of freedom system)
(A)Resonance (B)Approximation (C)Superposition (D)Rayleigh quotient
43) For an under damped harmonic oscillator, resonance C
(A)Occurs when excitation frequency is greater than undamped natural frequency
(B)Occurs when excitation frequency is less than undamped natural frequency
(C)Occurs when excitation frequency is equal to undamped natural frequency
(D)Never occurs
44) In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn, then the phase difference between the C
transmitted force and the disturbing force is
(A)0° (B)90° (C)180° (D)270°
45) Magnification factor is the ratio of the maximum displacement due to forced A
vibrations to the deflection due to _______
(A)Static force (B)Dynamic force (C)Torsion (D)Compression
5 P.T.O.
46) For a two-rotor system, the length of one shaft (A) is twice the other (B), then A
what is the relation between the mass moment of inertia of the shafts.
(A)2I(A) = I(B) (B)I(A) = 2I(B) (C)I(A) = I(B) (D)2I(A) = 3I(B)
47) From the following, which one is a type of vibration measuring instrument? D
(A)Mechanical (B)Electrical (C)Magnetic (D)All of the above
48) Which of the following is a type of transmitted force to the foundation? A
(A) Damping force (B) Undamping force (C) Tensile force (D) Torsional force
49) Unit of the damping factor is ______. D
(A) Nm/s (B) N/sm (C) N/m (D) none of the above
50) The speed at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection of the shaft from D
the axis of rotation becomes ___________, is known as critical or whirling speed.
(A) zero (B) minimum (C) maximum (D) infinite
51) Which of the following systems produce a vibration in the foundation? D
(A) Coupled machine (B) Uncoupled machine (C) Balanced machine
(D) Unbalanced machine
52) Which of the following instruments measure the amplitude of a vibrating body? C
(A) Vibrometers (B) Seismometer (C) Both (a) and (b) (D) None of these
53) A seismometer is a device used to measure the ___________ of a vibrating body. A
(A) displacement (B) velocity (C) acceleration (D) all of the above
54) From the following, which one is also known as low-frequency Transducer? C
(A) Stroboscope(B) Accelerometer(C) Vibrometer(D) None of the above
55) The accelerometers are commonly used in vibration measurement due to D
their ___________.
(A) small size and low sensitivity(B) the large size and high sensitivity
(C) the large size and low sensitivity(D) small size and high sensitivity
56) In Fullarton Tachometer, a thin strip with a ______ is attached at one of its ends. A
(A) mass(B) spring(C) damper(D) shaft
57) Untuned viscous damper ( houdaille Damper) is used with variable speed A
machine being control by ratio can be given by
A) (damper inertia) / (main system inertia)

B) (main system inertia) / (damper inertia)
C) (2 X damper inertia) / (main system inertia)
D) (2 X main system inertia) / (damper inertia)
58) In a two-rotor system, torsional vibration occurs only if the rotors are moving in B
the ______ direction.
(A) same(B) opposite(C) either same or opposite(D) none of the above
6
59) In centrifugal pendulum absorber , the natural frequency in cycle per second can A
be given by
(A) Fn =N √(R/L) (B) Fn =1/N √(R/L)
(C)Fn =N/2 √(R/L) (D) Fn =N2 √(R/L)
60) The vibration in a vehicle is normally expressed in the terms of the __________ C
(A) Displacement (B) Velocity(C) Acceleration (D) None of the above
**********
7 P.T.O.
Class – BE (Mechanical Engg.)
Sub - Automobile Engineering – I

Attempt following questions
UNIT- I
1 The loads supported by an automobile frame are d

a)Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads b)Torque from engine and transmission
c)Sudden impacts from collisions d)All of the mentioned
2 An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts c
a) Shock absorbers b) Steering system
c) Differential d) Brakes
3 The major assembly of motor vehicles is -------- c

a) Chassis b) Body c) Both d) None
4 Which is the type of frames? d

a) Conventional frame b) Integral construction
c) Half integral chassis d) All are correct
5 4 x 4 drive chassis vehicle consists of ---- a

a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) None
6 The function of anti-lock brake system (ABS) is that is c

a) Reduces the stopping distance b) Minimizes the brake fade
c) Maintains directional control during braking preventing the wheel from locking
d) prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking of the wheels
7 Seat belt tensioners are built in the c

a) Front Seats b) Shoulder anchors c) Seat belt retractors d) Seat belt buckles
8 In commercial vehicle layouts engine is located forward, rear or under floor mainly to c
a) Better utilization of space b) Increase fuel economy
c) Better weight distribution d) Reduce the weight of chassis
9 The part of the vehicle which holds the passengers and the cargo to be transported, is known b
as
a) Chassis b) Hull c) Cabin d) Aft
10 The frame provides support for the engine body, power train members and ----- a
a) wheels b) Jack c) Road d) None
11 X – member of car frame ensures improved a
a) Resistance to side force due to transverse wind load
b) Bending strength of the side members
c) Resistance to vertical shock loads acting simultaneously on both front wheels
d) Resistance of weaving and torsional strength of front end of frame
12 What kind of gas inflates an airbag? c

a) Hydrogen b) Helium c) Nitrogen d) None of above
UNIT - II
1 Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide suspension? d
a) Leaf springs b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars d) All of the mentioned
2 The front axle of a car has pivot centers 1.3 m apart. The angle of inside lock is 40℃ and the a
angle of the outside lock is 35℃. What is the wheelbase of the car?
a) 5.5 m b) 3.5 m c) 4.5 m d) 6.5 m
3 Telescopic shock observer consists of b

a) One chamber b) two chambers
c) three chamber d) four chambers
4 The following is (are) the independent suspension system(s) d

a) Wishbone Arm system b) Trailing Link system
c) Sliding Pillar system d) all of the above
5 The coil spring in used in d

a) Wishbone Arm system b) Trailing Link system
(c) Sliding Pillar system d) all of the above
6 Un-sprung weight is d
a) Weigh of vehicle b) Weigh of chassis frame
c) Weight of wheels d) Weight of wheels and axles
7 Sprung weight is a
a) Weigh of vehicle minus unsprung weight b) Weigh of chassis frame
c) Weight of wheels d) Weight of wheels and axles
8 While in motion, the vehicle suspension is subjected to d

a) bouncing b) pitching c) rolling d) all of the above
9 A combination of roll and pitch is called d

a) circular pitch b) lateral pitch
c) transverse pitch d) diagonal pitch
10 Which of the following factors is not related to the effect of independent front suspension c
a) Reducing the unsprung masses b) Reducing tyre wear
c) Elimination of gyroscopic couples d) None
11 Helper springs are usually used a

a) In heavy vehicles in suspension system to obtain a two stage spring rate
b) In vehicles to improve the load capacity of suspension system
c) To stiffen the suspension d) All
12 The main function of the suspension system is best described as a

a) Reducing the body movement
b) Reducing the accelerations to which the body is subjected
c) Both d) None of the above
UNIT - III
1 What is the angle between the steering axis and the vertical in the plane of the wheel? a
a) Castor b) Camber
c) Steering axis inclination d) Kingpin inclination
2 If the front of the front wheels is inside and rear of front wheels are apart when the vehicle is a
at rest, then the configuration is called?
a) Toe-in b) Toe out
c) Positive camber d) Positive castor
3 What is the name of the angle through which the wheel has to turn to sustain the side force? a
a) Slip angle b) Castor angle c) Camber d) Kingpin inclination
4 What is called the cornering force over the slip angle? b

a) Castor trail b) Cornering power
c) Self-righting torque d) Pneumatic trail
5 What is a condition called when the vehicle will try to move away from its normal direction a
and to keep it on the right path there is need to steer a little?
a) Understeer b) Oversteer c) Reversibility d) Irreversibility
6 What is the purpose of the reciprocating ball type steering gear? c

a) To reduce the operating cost b) To reduce the number of parts
c) To reduce the operating friction d) To reduce the toe-out during the turns
7 What is the angle between the vertical when the top of the wheel slants outward? c
a) Negative camber b) Negative castor
c) Positive camber d) Positive castor
8 The function of the steering system is to convert--- a

a) The rotary movement of the steering wheel into angular turn of the front wheels
b) The angular turn of the front wheels into the rotary movement of the steering wheel
c) Both are correct
d) None of these
9 The assembly of the shaft and jacket is called— c

a) Steering row b) Steering matrix c) Steering column d) None of these
10 The angle between the central line of the tyre and vertical line is known ass ---- c
a) Chamber b) Steering geometry c) Camber d) None
11 The angle between the wheel inclination and the path taken by wheel is called ----- a
a) Slip angle b) steering angle c) Drum angle d) none
12 Which of the following factor affect the wheel alignment? d

a) Factors pertaining to wheel b) Steering geometry
c) steering linkages d) All are correct
UNIT - IV
1 Which types of wheels cannot be used with a tubeless tyre? c
a) Disc wheel b) Light alloy wheel
c) Wire wheel d) Composite wheel
2 Which type of wheels is preferred in sports cars? c

a) Disc wheel b) Wire wheel
c) Magnesium alloy wheel d) Aluminum alloy wheel
3 In case of a wire wheel, the vehicle weight is supported by the wire in _________ a
a) Tension b) Bending c) Shear d) Compression
4 What does the ‘ply rating’ refer to? b

a) Aspect ratio b) Rated strength
c) Recommended inflation pressure d) The actual number of plies
5 Where will an underinflated tyre wear the thread most? b

a) Near center b) Near the edge
c) In the cross direction d) In the lateral direction
6 Where will an overinflated tyre wear the thread most? a

a) Near center b) Near the edge
c) In the cross direction d) In the lateral direction
7 What do the permissible of mixing cross-ply and radial-ply automobile tyres allow? c
a) Cross-ply tyres on left wheels b) Cross-ply tyres on right wheels
c) Cross-ply tyres on front wheels d) Cross-ply tyres on rear wheels
8 What is the purpose of tyre rotation on automobiles? b

a) Avoid ply separation b) Equalize wear
c) Get better ride d) Reduce bump
9 In tubeless tyres b
a) Air is filled in a tube inside the tyre b) Air is filled in between rim and the tyre
c) No air is required d) Liquid is filled in place of air
10 The following represents the correct specification of a tyre a

a) 155-80-R-13 b) R-155-80-13 c) 155-80-13-R d) 155-R-80-13
11 -------is a bag of rubber in which air is filled through valve. a

a) Tube b) Cord plies d) Well d) Tread
12 Which of the following reduce tyre life? c

a) High speed b) Running the tyres with under inflation
c) Both are correct d) None
UNIT - V
1 The transmission system transmits _________ from engine to wheels. b
a)Speed b)Power c)Current d)Pressure
2 Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system c

a)Clutch b)Axles c)Wheels d)Gearbox
3 If there are 7 clutch plates in a multi-plate clutch, what is the number of pair of contact c
surfaces?
a) 5 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
4 Which of the following contains no linkage between the clutch and the pedal? a
a) Clutch – by – wire b) Wet clutch
c) Hydraulic single plate clutch d) Hydraulic multi-plate clutch
5 Where is the clutch located? a

a) Between transmission and engine b) Between transmission and rear axle
c) Between transmission and propeller shaft d) Between transmission and differential
6 Which of the following parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure plate against the a
clutch plate?
a) Springs b) Thrust bearings c) Struts d) Lever
7 Which of the following is the disadvantage of the cone clutch? a

a) It becomes difficult to disengage the clutch when the cone angle is less than 20°
b) It is silent in operation
c) The normal force on the contact surface is larger than the axial force
d) Same torque can be transmitted for the same size as the plate clutch
8 The clutch cover is bolted to the: a

a) Pressure plate b) Crankcase c) Gearbox d) Flywheel
9 Which of the following is the need of the gearbox? b

a) To vary the speed of the vehicle b) To vary the torque of the vehicle
c) To vary the power of the vehicle d) To vary the acceleration of the vehicle
10 In which type of manual transmission the double-declutching is used? a

a) Constant-mesh gearbox b) Sliding mesh gearbox
c) Synchromesh gearbox d) Epicyclical gearbox
11 In which of the gearbox sun and planet gear set is used? d

12 In which of the gearbox all gears are always in contact? a

Subject: Mechanical Vibration

Class: B.E.
Semester: VIII
UNIT NO.-I
Q.-01 Vibrations are the oscillations of a system about…...
A. One axis
B. Neutral axis
C. Spring
D. An equilibrium position
Ans. D.
Q.-02 Vibrations (Oscillation) are desirable in…..

A. Suspension System
B. Dental drilling treatment
C. Structures
D. All of these.
Ans. B.
Q.-03 In SHM,the motion of particle which moves back and forth along a straight line such that its
acceleration is directly proportional to its ………………..from the fixed point and is always
directed towards mean position.
A. Velocity
B. Displacement
C. Acceleration
D. Amplitude
Ans. B.
Q.-04 Frequency is the number of oscillation per unit time. It is measured in units of hertz (Hz)
which is equal to……..
A. One cycle/minute
B. One cycle/second
C. One cycle/hour
D. Two cycles/second
Ans. B.
Q.-05 When the natural frequency is equal to excitation frequency due to external force, amplitude…
A. Increases.
B. Decreases.
C. Constant.
D. None.
Ans. A.
Q.-06 The natural frequency of a system is function of ……..

A. The stiffness of the system.
B. The mass of the system
C. Both A.& B.
D. None.
Ans. C.
Q.-07 The beats phenomenon occurs when two harmonic waves of ………frequencies are impressed
on a body.
A. Slightly different frequencies.
B. Equal
C. Product
D. None.
Ans. A.
Q.-08 In Beats phenomenon, if the two motions are out of phase, the phase difference ∆ω=180° &
resultant amplitude is…..
A. X= A-B
B. X= A+B
C. X= A×B
D. X= A/B
Ans. A.
Q.-09 Which type of vibrations are also known as transient vibrations?

A. Undamped vibrations
B. Damped vibrations
C. Torsional vibrations
D. Transverse vibrations
Ans. A.
Q.-10 Any set of independent coordinates is called a set of…..

A. Multi Degree of Freedom.
B. Rigid bodies systems
C. Generalized coordinates
D. Both A. and B.
Ans. A.
Q.-11 If the particles of the body vibrate along a circular arc, whose center lies on the axis of the
shaft, then the body is said to have…………
A. Transverse Vibration
B. Longitudinal Vibration
C. Torsional Vibration
D. None.
Ans. C.
Q.-12 During transverse vibrations, shaft is subjected to which type of stresses?

A. Tensile stresses
B. Torsional shear stress
C. Bending stresses.
D. All of these.
Ans. C.
Q.-13 Two springs have spring stiffness of 1500 N/m and 2000 N/m respectively. If they are
connected in series, what is the spring stiffness if they are replaced by an equivalent
system.3500 N/m.
A. 3500 N/m
B. 1166 N/m
C. 857.63 N/m
D. None of the above.
Ans. C.
Q.-14 Free torsional vibrations of a single rotor system increases with increase in…..
A. Centrifugal Force
B. Polar moment of inertia
C. Mass
D. Length
Ans. B.
Q.-15 Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves…..
A. Perpendicular to its axis
B. Parallel to its axis
C. In a circle about its axis
D. None.
Ans. B.
Q.- 16 Which of the following relations is true when springs are connected parallelly?
Where K = spring stiffness.
A. Ke = K1 + K2
B. (1 / Ke) = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
C. Ke = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
D. None of the above.
Ans. A.
Q.-17 A natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000 N/m and
mass of 20 kg is….
A. 12.32 Hz
B. 4.10 Hz
C. 6.16 Hz
D. None of these.
Ans. B..
Q.-18 According to D’Alemberts Principle……

A. mx - kx = 0
B. mx ×kx = 0
C. mx + kx = 0
D. mx/ kx = 0
Ans. C.
Q.-19 Maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to maximum potential energy at extreme
position, is according to…..
A. Energy method
B. Rayleigh's method
C. Equilibrium method
D. All of the above
Ans. B.
Q.-20 Determination in natural frequency of the system by Energy Method is the…..
A. The sum of kinetic & potential energy is zero.
B. The sum of kinetic & potential energy is constant.
C. It is assumed that the system is non- conservative.
D. Not possible.
Ans. B.
UNIT NO.-II
Q.-01 When there is reduction in amplitude over a cycle of vibration, then the body said to have…...
A. Free vibration.
B. Forced vibration.
C. Damped vibration.
D. None of these.
Ans. A.
Q.-02 The angle between Inertia force & Spring force….
A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 270°
D. 360°
Ans. B.
Q.-03 In under damped vibrating system, If x1 & x2 are the successive values of amplitude on the
same side of mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to…….
A. X1/X2
B. log(X1/X2)
C. loge (X1/X2)
D. Log(X1-X2)
Ans. C.
Q.-04 There is no effect on the natural frequency of the system with the addition of…..
A. Viscous Damping.
B. Coulomb Damping.
C. Slip or Interfacial Damping.
D. All of these.
Ans. B.
Q.-05 The ratio of minimum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to static force
is known as……..
A. Damping Factor.
B. Damping Coefficient.
C. Logarithmic Decrement.
D. Magnification Factor.
Ans. D.
Q.-06 The ratio of actual damping co-efficient to critical damping co-efficient is known as….
A. Logarithmic decrement
B. Damping Factor.
C. Damping Coefficient.
D. Magnification Factor.
Ans. B.
Q.-07 In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn is less than √2, then for all values of damping factor, the
transmissibility will be……..
A. Less than unity.
B. Equal to unity.
C. Greater than unity.
D. Zero.
Ans. C.
Q.-08 ξ is greater than unity the system is…..
A. Under Damped System.
B. Over Damped System.
C. Critically Damped System.
D. None
Ans. B.
Q.-09 In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn is greater than 1(unity), then the phase difference
between the transmitted force & disturbing force is……….
A. 0°
B. 90°
C. 180°
D. 270°
Ans. C.
Q.-10 The advantage of critical damping is…..
A. There is no vibration.
B. The amplitude of vibration is Maximum.
C. That vibratory body comes to rest in smallest possible time.
D. The amplitude of vibration is Minimum.
Ans. C.
Q.-11 In damped vibrations, the amplitude of resulting vibration gradually reduces.
A. Correct.
B. In Correct.
C. Not Confirm.
D. None of these.
Ans. A.
Q.-12 In damped vibrations, the amplitude of resulting vibration gradually reduces. This is due to
the reason that, an amount of energy is always dissipated to overcome the…….
A. Frictional resistance.
B. Work done.
C. Fluid pressure.
D. Air pressure.
Ans. A.
Q.-13 In which of the following cases, over damping occurs.
A. Roots are real.
B. Roots are complex conjugate.
C. Roots are equal.
D. Independent of equation.
Ans. A.
Q.-14 What is the effect of damping on phase angle at resonance frequency?
A. Phase angle increases as damping increases.
B. Damping has no effect on phase angle.
C. Phase angle increases damping increases.
D. None of these.
Ans. B.
Q.-15 Calculate the critical speed of a vehicle with which moves on the road having sinusoidal
profile of wavelength 2.5m. The mass of vehicle is 300kg & natural frequency of its spring
suspension system is 8 rad/sec.
A. 4.15m/sec
B. 3.18m/sec
C. 2.36m/sec
D. None of these.
Ans. B.
Q.- 16 Calculate the damped natural frequency, if a spring mass damper system is subjected to
periodic disturbing force of 30N.Damping coefficient is equal to 0.76 times of critical damping
coefficient & undamped natural frequency is 5 rad/sec.
A. 3.99 rad/sec.
B. 2.13 rad/sec.
C. 4.12 rad/sec.
D. 3.24 rad/sec.
Ans. D.
Q.-17 The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous damping is m(d2x/dt2)+c(dx/dt)+kx
=0. If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be……
A. Over damped.
B. Under damped.
C. Critically damped.
D. None of these.
Ans. A.
Q.-18 Which of the following system produce a vibration in the foundation?
A. Unbalanced machine.
B. Balanced machine.
C. Coupled machine.
D. Uncoupled machine.
Ans. A.
Q.-19 If isolation factor is negative, then what is phase difference between transmitted & disturbing
force?
A. 180°
B. 90°
C. 45°
D. 360°
Ans. A.
Q.-20 Isolation Factor is double the transmissibility ratio.
A. Correct.
B. In Correct.
C. Not Confirm.
D. None of these.
Ans. A.
UNIT NO.-III
Q.-01 1. The motion of the system executing harmonic motion with one natural frequency is known
as……....
A. Principal mode of vibration
B. Natural mode of vibration
C. Both A.& B.
D. None of these.
Ans. A.
Q.-02 What is meant by coupled differential equation?
A. In which only rectilinear motion.
B. In which only angular motion.
C. In which both rectilinear & angular motion.
D. None of these.
Ans. C.
Q.-03 This type of damper is useful in the reducing of the torsional vibration near resonance
condition……
A. Untuned Dry friction damper.
B. Houdaille damper.
C. Torsional vibration absorber
D. Centrifugal pendulum absorber
Ans. A.
Q.-04 What is meant by node point?
A. The point at which amplitude of vibration is maximum.
B. The point at which amplitude of vibration is minimum.
C. The point at which amplitude of vibration is zero.
D. None of these.
Ans. C.
Q.-05 Out of following which factor is not for unbalancing in rotating system.
A. Errors
B. Tolerances
C. Shape of the rotor
D. None of these.
Ans. D.
Q.-06 Due to the external excitation force system or machine vibrates, whose excitation frequency is
nearly coincide with natural frequency. Excessive vibration is induced are eliminated by
coupling auxiliary spring mass system called as…
A. Coulombs Damping.
B. Dynamic vibration absorber.
C. Torsional vibration absorber.
D. Centrifugal pendulum absorber.
Ans. C.
Q.-07 Which of the following is a type of untuned vibration absorber?
A. Houdaille damper
B. Torsional vibration absorber
C. Centrifugal pendulum absorber
D. None of these.
Ans. A.
Q.-08 A certain number of disturbing torques or torsional pulses are delivered to crankshaft by
connecting rod, number of disturbing torques per revolution is known as……
A. Indefinite system
B. Order Number.
C. Centrifugal pendulum absorber
D. Natural Number.
Ans. B.
Q.-09 A vibration dampener is a visco-elastic substance, which absorb some of the energy from the
vibration is generally……
A. Solid.
B. Liquid.
C. Both properties of solid & liquid.
D. All of these.
Ans. C.
Q.-10 A vibration absorber is device that absorb vibration, makes its intensity low, while an isolator
separates the two surfaces or system in contact to avoid vibration transmission.
A. Correct
B. In Correct
C. Not confirm
D. None of these.
Ans. A.
Q.-11 When one the natural frequencies of system is zero, there is not relative motion in the system,
which moves as a rigid body.
A. Definite system
B. Indefinite system
C. Semi- definite system
D. None of these.
Ans. C.
Q.-12 In undamped forced two degree of freedom system, when the excitation frequency equal to
any natural frequency from both. The amplitudes become infinite, this condition is …….....
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Resonance
D. All of these.
Ans. C.
Q.-13 The natural frequency of a centrifugal pendulum absorber is always proportional to……
A. The speed of the rotating body.
B. Inversely proportional to the speed of the rotating body.
C. Independent of the speed of the rotating body.
D. None of these.
Ans. A.
Q.-14 Addition of tuned vibration absorber will……
A. Add torsional oscillation to the system.
B. Eliminate the torsional vibration of the system.
C. Not affects.
D. None of these.
Ans. B.
Q.-15 In co-ordinate coupling, if the coupling term is (k1l1 -k2l2) equal to zero. The exist motion can
be ……
A. Translatory.
B. Rotational.
C. Independent Translatory & Angular motion.
D. None of these.
Ans. C.
Q.- 16 The resulting motion of the automobile is both translational & rotational, when either a
displacement or torque is applied trough its C.G. such coupling is known as elastic or static
coupling, if the term…..
A. k1l1= -k2l2
B. k1l1= k2l2
C. k1l1≠ -k2l2
D. None of these.
Ans. C.
Q.-17 13. Critical speed of the light shaft with a single disc-without damping is represented by
following equation; x is lateral deflection shaft from the centre “o”.
A. x =(ω/ω)^(2 ) e/(1-(ω/ω)^(2 ) )
B. x =(ω/ω)^(2 ) e/(1+(ω/ω)^(2 ) )
C. x=0
D. x=1
Ans. A.
Q.-18 Mass distribution about the axis of rotation of rotating mechanical part in radial direction,
without consideration of that distribution in the axial or longitudinal direction is called as.......
A. Stastic Balancing.
B. Dynamic Balancing
C. Balancing of Rotating masses.
D. None of these.
Ans. C.
Q.-19 There are n rotors mounted on the shaft & when subjected torsional vibration, there will be…
A. n- Nodes
B. (n-1) Nodes
C. (n +1) Nodes
D. (n-2) Nodes
Ans. B.
Q.-20 A rotor mass has kg mount on 20 mm diameter eccentric from geometric center of rotor, with
speed 2500 rpm.The amplitude of steady state vibration is (x)……
A. 0.001422 mm
B. 0.01422 mm
C. 0.1422 mm
D. 1.422 mm
Ans. D.
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semister: VIII
1) Harmonic motion is
A) Necessarily a periodic motion
B) An aperiodic motion
C) A motion described in a circle
D) A random motion
Ans A
2) The velocity vector in a vector diagram for a harmonic motion

A) Lags the displacement vector by 180°
B) Leads the displacement vector by 90°
C) Lags the displacement vector by 90°
D) Leads the displacement vector by 180°
Ans B
3) If harmonic motion of same frequency and same phase are superimposed in two perpendicular
directions ( x and y) then, the resultant motion will be,
A) circle
B) An ellipse
C) An square
D) An rectangle
Ans c
4) Beats phenomenon occurs when a vibrating system is subjected to two different frequencies
which are
A) Quite different
B) Equal
C) Slightly different
D) Integral multiple of each other
Ans C
5) The vector representing acceleration on a vector diagram for a harmonic motion

A) Lags the displacement vector by 90°
B) Lags the displacement vector by 180°
C) Leads the displacement vector by 90°
D) Leads the displacement vector by 180°
Ans C
6) Equivalent stiffness of spring connected in paralled having stiffness k1 and k2 can be given as
A) K = k1+ k2
B) K = k1- k2
C) 1/k = 1/k1 + 1/k2
D) 1/k = 1/k1 - 1/k2
Ans A
7) If the amplitude of harmonic motion is large, its frequency
A) Will always be high

B) Will always be less
C) Can have any value
D) Will be zero
Ans c
8) Body having simple harmonic motion is represented by
A) x = A sin ωt
B) x = A cos ωt
C) x = - A sin ωt
D) x = - A cos ωt
Ans A
9) The natural frequency of torsional vibration is given by
A) ωn = (-kt)/I
B) ωn = kt/I
C) ωn = √(kt/I)
D) ωn = √(2&kt/I)
Ans C
10) Resonance is a phenomenon when the frequency of external exciting force is
A) Twice the natural frequency of the system

B) Half the natural frequency of the system
C) Same as the natural frequency of the system
D) None of the above
Ans c
11) Natural frequency of the system is due to
A) Free vibration
B) Forced vibration
C) Resonance
D) Damping
Ans A
12) If the particle of a body vibrate along a circular arc, whose centre lies on the axis of the shaft
then the body is said to have
A) Transverse vibration
B) Longitudinal vibration
C) Torsional vibration
Ans C
13) In the spring mass system if the mass of the system is doubled with spring stiffness halved, the
natural frequency of longitudinal vibration
A) Remained unchanged
B) Is doubled
C) Is halved
D) Is quadruped
ANS C
14) If the spring mass system with m and spring stiffness k is taken to very high altitude , the
natural frequency of longitudinal vibrations
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remain unchanged
D) May be increase or decrease depending upon the value of the mass
And C
15) In a spring mass system of mass m and stiffness k, the end of the spring are securely fixed and
mass is attached to intermediate point of spring. The natural frequency of longitudinal vibration of
the system
A) Is maximum when mass is attached to mid point of the spring

B) Is minimum when mass is attached to mid point of the spring
C) Decreases as the distance from the top end where mass is attached decreases
D) Decreases as the distance from the bottom end where mass is attached decreases
Ans B
16) Two springs have spring stiffness of 1500 N/m and 2000 N/m respectively. If they are
connected in series, what is the spring stiffness if they are replaced by an equivalent system.3500
N/m
A) 3500 N/m
B) 1166 N/m
C) 857.63 N/m
Ans C
17) Which type of vibrations are also known as transient vibrations?
A) Undamped vibrations
B) Damped vibrations
C) Torsional vibrations
D) Transverse vibrations
Ans B
18) During transverse vibrations, shaft is subjected to which type of stresses?

A) Tensile stresses
B) Torsional shear stress
C) Bending stresses
D) All of the above
Ans C
19) In which type of vibrations, amplitude of vibration goes on decreasing every cycle?
A) Damped vibrations
B) Undamped vibrations
C) Both a. and b.
Ans A
20) Which among the following is the fundamental equation of S.H.M.?

A) x + (k / m) x =0
B) x + ω2x =0
C) x + (k/ m)2 x =0
D) x2 + ωx2 =0
Ans B
1) The units of viscous damping coefficient is
A) N-m/sec
B) m/N-sec
C) N-sec/m
D) N-m-sec
Ans C
2) The effect of damping on the natural frequency of the system is to

A) Reduce it considerably
B) Increase it considerably
C) Reduce it marginally
D) Increase it marginally
Ans C
3) A forced vibration system vibrates at

A) Natural frequency of the system
B) Frequency of external excitation
C) Frequency of internal excitation
Ans B
4) Damped natural frequency of a system with ωn =100 Hz and ς = 20% is given by

A) 92 Hz
B) 94 Hz
C) 96 Hz
D) 98 Hz
Ans D
5) A rotary system has a damping coefficient of 40 N-m-sec/rad. The damping torque at a velocity
of 2 rad/s, will be
A) 20 N-m
B) 40 N-m
C) 80 N-m
D) 100 N-m
Ans C
6) In case of viscous damping the frequency of damped vibration is

A) Equal to that of undamped vibrations
B) Less than that of undamped vibrations
C) Greater than that of undamped vibrations
D) Independent than that of undamped vibrations
Ans B
7) The response of a damped forced vibration system

A) Leads the system excitation ( for all values of ω/ ωn)
B) Lags the system excitation ( for all values of ω/ ωn)
C) Leads the system excitation ( for all values of ω/ ωn << 1)
D) Lags the system excitation ( for all values of ω/ ωn >> 1)
Ans B
8) In the case of steady state forced vibration at a resonance, the amplitude of vibration is
A) Inversely proportional to damping coefficient
B) Inversely proportional to damping ratio
C) Inversely proportional to resonant frequency
D) Directly proportional to resonant frequency
Ans B
9) The equivalent viscous damping coefficient Ceq for coulomb damping is given by
A) 4F/πωx
B) 4πF/ωx
C) πωx/4F
D) ωx/4Πf
Ans A
10) If ωmax is the frequency at which the peak amplitude occurs and ωn is the natural frequency of
the system then In a forced vibration system with damping, the higher the damping,
A) More will be the difference between ωn and ωmax
B) Less will be the difference between ωn and ωmax
C) The difference of ωn and ωmax is independent of damping in this system
D) The difference between ωn and ωmax will be zero
Ans A
11) If frequency of excitation of a forced vibration system with negligible damping is very close to
natural frequency of the system, then the system will
A) Execute harmonic motion of large amplitude
B) Beat with a very high peak amplitude
C) Perform aperiodic motion
Ans A
12) Transmissibility in a force excitation system is defined by the ratio of the

A) Maximum excitation force to the force transmitted to the foundation
B) Force transmitted to the foundation, to the maximum excitation force
C) Maximum static deflection of the ass to the deflection of the foundation
Ans B
13) Transmissibility in a support excitation system is defined by

A) Ratio of absolute amplitude of the mass to the excitation amplitude of the support
B) Reciprocal of (a)
C) Ratio of the force transmitted to the foundation, to the equivalent force corresponding to maximum
displacement excitation
Ans B
14) The condition to be fulfilled in the design of spring for vibration isolation of a system where
excitation is due to a rotating unbalance is
A) ω << ωn
B) ω = ωn
C) ω > ωn
D) ω >> ωn
Ans A
15) where springs of low damping are required for the purpose of vibration isolation, it will be most
desirable to use
A) Metallic springs
B) Rubber pad
C) Air springs
D) Neoprene pads
Ans A
16) Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000 N/m
and mass of 20 kg?
A) 12.32 Hz
B) 4.10 Hz
C) 6.16 Hz
Ans C
17) In damped free vibrations, which parameters indicate vibrations?

A) Natural frequency
B) Rate of decay of amplitude
C) Both a. and b.
Ans C
18) Which of the following relations is true for viscous damping?

A) Force α relative displacement
B) Force α relative velocity
C) Force α (1 / relative velocity)
Ans B
19) Eddy current damping is an example of _____

A) Coulomb damping
B) Hysteresis damping
C) Viscous damping
D) Dry friction damping
Ans C
20) According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to maximum
potential energy at extreme position?
A) Energy method
B) Rayleigh's method
C) Equilibrium method
D) All of the above
Ans B
1) In centrifugal pendulum absorber , the natural frequency in cycle per second can be given by
A) Fn =N √(R/L)
B) Fn =1/N √(R/L)
C) Fn =N/2 √(R/L)
D) Fn =N2 √(R/L)
Ans A
2) According to the untuned dry fraction damper amplitude reduction will be

A) Lesser if lesser amount of energy dissipated
B) Greater if greater amount of energy dissipated
C) Greater if lesser amount of energy dissipated
D) Lesser if greater amount of energy dissipated
Ans B
3) Dynamic vibration absorber is suitable for

A) Constant speed machine
B) Varying speed machine
C) zero speed machine
Ans A
4) The principal of mode vibration can be given by

A) Two masses vibrate at Different frequency and in same phase
B) Two masses vibrate at Different frequency and in Different phase
C) Two masses vibrate at same frequency and in Different phase
D) Two masses vibrate at same frequency and in same phase
Ans D
5) Semi definite system having one of their natural frequency equal to

A) Four
B) Three
C) Two
D) Zero
Ans D
6) The rotating shaft or rotor vibrates with excessive lateral vibration at angular speed at which
occurs is called as
A) rotating speed
B) critical speed
C) vibrating speed
Ans B
7) Which of the following condition should be satisfied in the design of a vibration absorber ?
A) Natural frequency of the auxiliary system should be equal to the natural frequency of the main system
B) Natural frequency of the auxiliary system should be equal to the half natural frequency of the main
system
C) Natural frequency of the auxiliary system should be fall in between natural frequency of the main
system and the frequency of excitation
D) Natural frequency of the auxiliary system should be twice natural frequency of the main system
Ans A
8) Centrifugal absorber is used to reduce

A) Centrifugal force in rotating system
B) Torsional vibration of rotating system
C) Vibration in linear system
D) Transverse vibrations
Ans B
9) Critical speed of shaft and disc system

A) Is equal to natural frequency of the system in transverse vibration
B) Is equal to natural frequency of the system in torsional vibration
C) Is equal to natural frequency of the system in longitudinal vibration
D) Bears no relationship to any of the system natural frequency
Ans A
10) In most practical situation the speed of rotation of the shaft is usually
A) Much below the critical speed
B) Much above the critical speed
C) Near about the critical speed
D) Having no relationship with critical speed
Ans B
11) Untuned viscous damper ( houdaille Damper) is used with variable speed machine being control
by ratio can be given by
Ans A
12) The two resonant frequency ratio (ω/ ω2) in a dynamic vibration absorber system for a mass
ratio 0.2 are given by
A) 0 ; 1.0
B) 0.801 ; 1.248
C) 0.458 ; 1.124
D) 0.642 ; 1.558
Ans B
13) In a 2-mass 3 spring vibrating system the two masses each are of 9.8 kg coupling spring is
having a stiffness of 3430 N/m whereas the other two springs have each a stiffness of 8820 N/m. The
two natural frequencies in rad /sec are
A) 10 & 20
B) 20 & 30
C) 30 & 40
D) 40 & 50
Ans C
14) Frequency of centrifugal pendulum absorber is always proportional to

A) Oscillating motion
B) Transfer motion
C) Speed of rotating body
D) All of the above
Ans C
15) Critical speed of shaft having a rotating disc in the middle is

A) x/e = 1 / ( r^2 - 1 )
B) x/e = 1 / ( r^2 + 1 )
C) x/e = 1 / ( r^2 - 1^2 )
D) x/e = ( 1 + r) / ( r^2 – 1 )
Ans A
16) According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to maximum
potential energy at extreme position?
A) Energy method
B) Rayleigh's method
C) Equilibrium method
B) All of the above
Ans B
17) The motion of a system executing harmonic motion with one natural frequency is known as
_______
A) principal mode of vibration
B) natural mode of vibration
C) both a. and b.
D)none of the above
Ans C
18) What is meant by coupled differential equation?

A) The differential equation in which only rectilinear motions exit
B) The differential equation in which only angular motions exit
C) The differential equation in which both rectilinear and angular motions exit
Ans C
19) What is meant by node point?

A) The point at which amplitude of vibration is maximum
B) The point at which amplitude of vibration is minimum
C) The point at which amplitude of vibration is zero
Ans C
20) Which of the following statements is/are true?
A) Torsional vibrations do not occur in a three rotor system, if rotors rotate in same direction
B) Shaft vibrates with maximum frequency when rotors rotate in same direction
C) Zero node behavior is observed in rotors rotating in opposite direction
D) All of the above
Ans A
Subject : Mechanical Vibration
Class : B. E.
Semester : VIII
Q1. The motion completed during one time period is known as _______.
A. period of vibration
B. cycle
C. frequency
D. all of the above
Ans: B
Q2. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the
action of the force of gravity, the body is known as
A. simple pendulum
B. torsional pendulum
C. compound pendulum
D. second’s pendulum
Ans:C
Q.3 The motion completed during one time period is known as _______.
B. cycle
C. frequency
D. all of the above
Ans:B
Q.4 Which of the following is a type of free vibration?

A. Longitudinal vibrations
B. Transverse vibrations
D. A, B and C
Ans:D
Q.5 The maximum acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is ____.
A. ω
B. ω.r
C. ω / 2 π
D. 2 π / ω
Ans:B
Q.6 As per Energy Method, the summation of kinetic energy and potential energy must be
________ which is same at all the times.
A. zero
B. minimum
C. maximum
D. constant
Ans:D
Q.7 Equilibrium Method is in accordance with which of the following principle?

A. Taylor's principle
B. D'Alembert's principle
C. Energy conservation principle
Ans:B
Q.8 Frequency is equal to ______.

A. time period
B. 1/time period
C. *time period
D. /time period
Ans:B
Q.9 When the particles of the shaft or disc move in a circle about the axis of the shaft, then the
vibrations are known as ___________ .
A. longitudinal vibrations
B. transverse vibrations
C. torsional vibrations
D. none of these
Ans:C
Q.10 For the same dimensions of the shaft which of the following has the greater natural
frequency?
A. Transverse
B. Longitudinal
C. Depends on thickness
D. Depends upon length
Ans:B
Q.11 A vertical spring-mass system has a mass of 0.5 kg and an initial deflection of 0.2 cm. Find
the spring stiffness.
A. 345 N/m
B. 245 N/m
C. 3452 N/m
D. 2452 N/m
Ans:D
Q.12 A system has a mass of 0.5 kg and spring stiffness of 2452 N/m. Find the natural frequency
of the system.
A. 5.14 Hz
B. 9.14 Hz
C. 11.14 Hz
D. 28.14 Hz
Ans:C
Q.13 An increase in the mass moment of inertia results in ________ in vibration frequency.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. unchanged
Ans:B
Q.14 The ratio of the force transmitted to the force applied is known as the ____________ of the
spring support.
A. isolation factor
B. transmissibility ratio
C. both A and B
Ans:C
Q.15 If the damper is not provided and the system is in resonance, which of the following is the
correct isolation factor?
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 0.25
D. Infinite
Ans:D
Q.16 Calculate damped natural frequency, if a spring mass damper system is subjected to
periodic disturbing force of 30 N. Damping coefficient is equal to 0.76 times of critical damping
coefficient and undamped natural frequency is 5 rad/sec
A. 3.99 rad/sec
B. 2.13 rad/sec
C. 4.12 rad/sec
D. 3.24 rad/sec
Ans:D
Q.17 At which frequency ratio, phase angle increases as damping factor increases?
A. When frequency ratio is less than unity

B. When frequency ratio is more than unity
C. When frequency ratio is zero
D. All of the above
Ans:A
Q.18 Consider the steady-state absolute amplitude equation shown below, if ω / ωn = √2 then
amplitude ratio (X/Y) =?
(X/Y) = √{1 + [ 2ξ (ω/ωn)]2} / √{[1 – (ω/ωn)2]2 + {2ξ (ω/ωn)2}
A. 0
B. 1
C. less than 1
D. greater than 1
Ans:B
Q.19 The equation m(d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx = F0 sin ωt is a second order differential
equation. The solution of this linear equation is given as
A. complementary function
B. particular function
C. sum of complementary and particular function
D. difference of complementary and particular function
Ans:C
Q.20 The rate of decay of oscillations is known as.......
A. critical damping
B. damping coefficient
C. transmissibility
D. logarithmic decrement
Ans:D
Q.21 Two springs have spring stiffness of 1500 N/m and 2000 N/m respectively. If they are
N/m
A. 3500 N/m
B. 1166 N/m
C. 857.63 N/m
Ans:C
Q.22 Which among the following is the fundamental equation of S.H.M.?
A. x + (k / m) x =0
B. x + ω2x =0
C. x + (k/ m)2 x =0
D. x2 + ωx2 =0
Ans:B
Q.23 Calculate coefficient of viscous damper, if the system is critically damped.

Consider the following data:
1. Mass of spring mass damper system = 350 kg
2. Static deflection = 2 x 10–3 m
3. Natural frequency of the system = 60 rad/sec
A. 100.5 x 103 N-s/m

B. 80 x 103 N-s/m
C. 42 x 103 N-s/m
Ans:C
Q.24 A vibrating machine of 100 kg is mounted on a rubber pad which has stiffness of 500 N/m.
Determine force transmitted to the foundation if the unbalanced force 500 N acts on it. The
frequency ratio (ω/ωn) is 1.5 and ξ = 0.5
A. 461.62 N
B. 400.23 N
C. 450 N
D. Insufficient data
Ans:A
Q.25 According to D' Alembert's principle, m (d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx =0 is the differential
equation for damped free vibrations having single degree of freedom. What will be the solution
to this differential equation if the system is critically damped?
A. x = (A + Bt) e– ωt
B. x = X e– ξωt (sin ωdt + Φ)
C. x = (A – Bt) e– ωt
D. x = X e– ξωt (cos ωdt + Φ)
Ans:A
Q.26 Which of the following vibro-meters have frequency ratio (ω/ωn) << 1?
A. Accelerometers
B. Velometers
C. Both A. and B.
Ans:A
Q.27 In the graph shown below, the region in which frequency ratio (ω/ωn) > √2 is known
as____
A. Amplification region
B. Isolation region
C. Spring controlled region
Ans:B
Q.28 Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000
A. 12.32 Hz
B. 4.10 Hz
C. 6.16 Hz
Ans:C
Q.29 According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
A. Energy method
D. All of the above
Ans:B
Q.30 A single degree of freedom spring-mass system is subjected to a harmonic force of constant
amplitude. For an excitation frequency of √3k/m, the ratio of the amplitude of steady state
response to the static deflection of the spring is __________
A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 0.8
Ans:B
Q.31 Figure shows a single degree of freedom system. The system consists of a mass-less rigid
bar OP hinged O and a mass m at end P. The natural frequency of vibration of the system is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans:A
Q.32 Which type of frequency measuring instrument has multiple reeds of different natural
frequency to measure vibrations?
A. Fullarton tachometer
B. Frahm Tachometer
C. Both A. and B.
Ans:B
Q.33 Eddy current damping is an example of _____

A. Coulomb damping
B. Hysteresis damping
C. Viscous damping
D. Dry friction damping
Ans:C
Q.34 In the diagram shown below, if rotor X and rotor Z rotate in same direction and rotor Y
rotates in opposite direction, then specify the type of node vibration.
A. Three node vibration

B. Two node vibration
C. Single node vibration
Ans:B
Q.35 δ = (W a2b2) / (3 EIL) is the value of deflection for ______
A. simply supported beam which has central point load

B. simply supported beam which has eccentric point load
C. simply supported beam which has U.D.L. point load per unit length
D. fixed beam which has central point load
Ans:B
Q.36 What are discrete parameter systems?
A. Systems which have infinite number of degree of freedom

B. Systems which have finite number of degree of freedom
C. Systems which have no degree of freedom
Ans:B
Q.37 In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at resonance is __________
damping coefficient.
A. Equal to
B. Directly proportional to
C. Inversely proportional to
D. Independent of
Ans:C
Q.38 The M.F. at resonance is given by

A.
B.
C.
Ans:A
Q.39 The frame consists of a steel beam welded rigidly to two vertical channels. An eccentric
exciter weighing 250 N is attached to the beam, which weighs 10 KN and is used to excite the
frame. The unbalance weight of the exciter is 25 N and it has an eccentricity of 5 cm. By varying
the rotational speed of the exciter until resonance occurs, the maximum horizontal amplitude was
found to be 3.75 mm. Assuming no bending on the beam and considering the channels to be
completely fixed at both ends, magnification factor at resonance is
A. 307.5
B. 3.075
C. 30.75
D. 0.3075
Ans:C
Q.40 The critical speed of a shaft is affected by
A. Diameter of the disc

B. Eccentricity
C. Span of shaft
D. All of above
Ans: D
Q.41 When parts of a vibrating system slide on a dry surface, the damping is
A. Viscous.
B. Coulomb
C. Structural
D. Eddy current
Ans: B
Q.42 When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and
frequency is equal to
A. Zero
B. One
C. π/2
D. 2π
Ans: B
Q.43 In vibration isolation system, the transmissibility will be equal to unity, for all values of
damping factor, if ω/ωn is
A. Equal to 1
B. Equal to √2
C. Less than √2
D. Greater than √2
Ans:B
Q.44 The system which requires two coordinates independently to describe its motion
completely is called a---
A. 2 DOF
B. SDOF
C. DOF
D. None of above
Ans: A
Q.45 A weight of 50 N is suspended from a spring of stiffness 4000N/m and subjected to a

harmonic force of magnitude 60N and frequency 60 Hz. what will be the static displacement of
the spring due to maximum applied force
A. 0.015m
B. 0.15 m
C. 15 m
D. 150m
Ans: B
Q.46 Ratio of actual damping coefficient to critical damping coefficient is called
A. Damping Factor
B. Angular Factor
C. Critical Factor
D. None of above
Ans:A
Q.47 The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous damping is d2x/dt2 + c/m X
dx/dt + s/m X x = 0 If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be
A. over damped
B. under damped
C. critically damped
D. none of the mentioned
Ans:A
Q.48 In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn > 1, then the phase difference between the
A. 0°
B. 90°
C. 180°
D. 270°
Ans: C
Q.49 In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the amplitude
on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to
A. x1/x2
B. ln (x1/x2)
C. loge (x1/x2)
D. log (x1.x2)
Ans:B
Q.50 While calculating the natural frequency of a spring-mass system, the effect of the mass of
the spring is accounted for by adding X times its value to the mass, where X is
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 3/4
Ans:B
Q.51 A cantilever shaft having 50 mm diameter and length of 300 mm has a disc of mass 100 kg
at its free enD. The Young’s modulus for the shaft material is 200 GN/m2. Calculate the natural
longitudinal frequency in Hz.
A. 575
B. 625
C. 525
D. 550
Ans: A
Q.52 Calculate the static deflection in µm of transverse vibrations if the frequency is 200Hz.
A. 6.21
B. 0.621
C. 62.1
D. 0.006
Ans: A
Q.53 If the static deflection is 1.665×10-3m, calculate the critical speed of the shaft in rps. Centre
of disc at 0.25m away from centre of axis of shaft.
A. 8.64
B. 9.64
C. 10.64
D. 12.2
Ans: D
Q.54 In which of the following cases, underdamping occurs?
A. Roots are real

B. Roots are complex conjugate
C. Roots are equal
D. Independent of the equation
Ans: B
Q.55 Calculate damping ratio if mass = 200Kg, ω = 20rad/s and damping coefficient = 800
N/m/s
A. 0.03
B. 0.04
C. 0.05
D. 0.06
Ans: A
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. Infinity
Ans:D
Q.57 Which of the following is true regarding Ɛ>1?
A. Transmitted force is greater than applied force

B. Transmitted force is less than applied force
C. Spring force is less than applied force
D. Damping force is less than applied force
Ans: A
Q.58 Increasing which of the following factor would result in increase of free torsional
vibration?
A. Radius of gyration
B. Mass moment of inertia
C. Polar moment of inertia
D. Length
Ans: C
Q.59 If the polar moment of inertia is increased to four times, then what will be the effect on free
torsional vibrations of a single motor system?
A. Increases 4 times
B. Increases 2 times
C. Decreases 4 times
D. Decreases 2 times
Ans: B
Q.60 For a two rotor system, the length of one shaft A. is twice the other B., then what is the
relation between the Mass moment of inertia of the shafts.
A. 2IA. = IB.
B. IA. = 2IB.
C. IA. = IB.
D. 2IA. = 3IB.
Ans: A
Subject: Mechanical Vibrations
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. Time taken to complete one cycle is known as
A Resonance
B Frequency
C Period
D Damping
Ans.: C
Q2. The reciprocal of the interval of time by a vibrating body to complete a cycle
is called
A Period
B Frequency
C Resonance
Ans.: B
Q3. Natural frequency of the system is due to
A Resonance
B Forced Vibration
C Damping
D Free Vibration
Ans.: D
Q4. Deterministic vibrations are
A Vibrations caused due to unknown exciting force
B Vibrations caused due to known exciting force
C Vibrations which are aperiodic in nature
Ans.: B
Q5. The number of natural frequencies in case of cantilever is
A Zero
B One
C Two
D Infinite
Ans.: D
Q6. The vibrations perpendicular to the shaft axis are known as
A Transverse
B Longitudinal
C Torsional
Ans.: A
Q7. The velocity vector in a vector diagram for a harmonic motion
A Lags the displacement vector by 1800
B Lags the displacement vector by 900
C Leads the displacement vector by 900
D Leads the displacement vector by 1800
Ans.: C
Q8. In energy method for finding frequency of the system
A The sum of kinetic and potential energy is constant
B The sum of kinetic and potential energy is zero
C Frequency cannot be determined by energy method
Ans.: A
Q9. The natural frequency of a system is a function of
A The stiffness of the system
B The mass of the system
C Both A and B
Ans.: C
Q10. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is

equal to maximum potential energy at extreme position
A Energy method
B Rayleigh's method
C Equilibrium method
Ans.: B
Q11.Which of the following relations is true when springs are connected

parallelly?
A Ke = K1 + K2
B (1 / Ke) = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
C Ke = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
D (1 / Ke) = K1 + K2
Ans.: A
Q12. Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring

stiffness of 43200 N/m and mass of 12 kg.
A 40.22 rad/sec
B 40 Hz
C 60 Hz
D 60 rad/sec
Ans.: D
Q13. Two springs have spring stiffness of 1500 N/m and 1 KN/m respectively. If
they are connected in series, what will be the equivalent spring stiffness?
A 1KN/m
B 600 N/m
C 1 N/m
D 600 KN/m
Ans.: B
Q14. A mass of 10 kg when suspended from a spring causes a static deflection of

0.01m. Find the spring stiffness for the same system.
A 9810 N/m
B 8910 N/m
C 1098 N/m
D 9801 N/m
Ans.: D
Q15. A car having a mass of 1000 kg deflects its springs 4 cm under its load.
Determine the natural frequency of the car in vertical direction.
A 5 Hz
B 4.67 Hz
C 9.8 Hz
D 2.49 Hz
Ans.: D
Q16. If the mass of body increases 4 times
A Frequency increases 4 times
B Frequency decreases 4 times
C Frequency become half
D Frequency become double
Ans.: C
Q17. A spring mass system has time period of oscillation of 0.25 sec. What will
be the natural frequency of the system?
A 1 Hz
B 2 rad sec
C 4 rad/sec
D 4 Hz
Ans.: D
Q18. In above numerical what will be the new time period if the spring constant
is decreased by 50%.
A 0.5 sec
B 0.353 sec
C 0.125 sec
D 0.533 sec
Ans.: B
Q19. A 1 kg mass is suspended by a spring having a stiffness of 0.4 N/mm.
Determine the natural frequency.
A 20 rad/sec
B 30 rad/sec
C 20 Hz
D 30 Hz
Ans.: B
Q20. From above numerical find the static deflection
A 0.0245 mm
B 0.0025 mm
C 0.0245 m
D 0.0245 cm
Ans.: C
Q21. A system is said to be critically damped if the damping factor for a

vibrating system is
A Zero
B Less than one
C One
D More than one
Ans.: C
Q22. The ratio of actual damping coefficient to the critical damping coefficient is
known as
A Magnification Factor
B Damping Factor
C Logarithmic decrement
Ans.: B
Q23. A system is said to be under damped if the damping factor for the system
is
A More than one
B Less than one
C Equal to one
D Equal to zero
Ans.: B
Q24. A system is said to be over damped if the damping factor for the system is
A More than one
B Less than one
C Equal to one
D Equal to zero
Ans.: A
Q25. The unit of the viscous damping coefficient is
A N-m/sec
B m/N-sec
C N-sec-m
D N-sec/m
Ans.: D
Q26. In coulomb damping the frequency of damped vibrations is
A Equal to that of undamped vibrations
B Less than that of undamped vibrations

C More than that of undamped vibrations
D Independent of the frequency of undamped vibration
Ans.: A
Q27. The angle between spring force and damping force is
A 1800
B 1200
C 900
D 00
Ans.: C
Q28. The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the
deflection due to the static force is known as
A Logarithmic decrement
B Magnification factor
C Damping factor
Ans.: B
Q29. During resonance
A the Vibrations remains unaffected
B no vibration occurs
C low amplitude of vibration occurs
D high amplitude of vibration occurs
Ans.: D
Q30. At resonance the phase angle is equal to
A 00
B 1800
C 1200
D 900
Ans.: D
Q31. Calculate logarithmic decrement if damping factor is 0.086
A 0.245
B 0.425
C 0.542
D 0.252
Ans.: C
Q32. Determine the viscous damping coefficient if damper offers resistance

0.05N at constant velocity 0.04m/sec
A 0.8N-sec/m
B 1.5N-sec/m
C 2.5N-sec/m
D 1.25N-sec/m
Ans.: D
Q33. Calculate the value of critical damping coefficient if a vibrating system has
mass of 4kg and stiffness of 100N/m
A 20 N-sec/m
B 40 N-sec/m
C 60 N-sec/m
D 80 N-sec/m
Ans.: B
Q34. Calculate logarithmic decrement if the amplitude of the vibrating body
reduces to half in two cycles
A 0.346
B 0.693
C 0.301
D 0.150
Ans.: A
Q35. A simple pendulum is found to vibrate at a frequency of 0.5Hz in vacuum

and 0.45Hz in a viscous fluid medium. Find the damping factor.
A 0.5122
B 0.9237
C 0.4359
D 0.2568
Ans.: C
Q36. During vibrations any machine has unbalanced force of 392N and if it
transmitted force of magnitude 58.3N then transmissibility value is
A 0.481
B 0.822
C 0.148
D 0.296
Ans.: C
Q37. A vibrating system having mass 1kg, a spring of stiffness 1000N/m and
damping factor of 0.632 and it is put to harmonic excitation of 10N. Find the
amplitude at resonance.
A 0.079
B 7.9
C 0.056
D 0.00791
Ans.: D
Q38. In above numerical what will be the frequency corresponding to the peak
amplitude
A 14.18rad/sec
B 24.13rad/sec
C 20.22rad/sec
D 22.32rad/sec
Ans.: A
Q39. Calculate natural frequency of damped vibration, if damping factor is 0.52

and natural frequency of the system is 30 rad/sec which consists of machine
supported on springs and dashpots.
A 21 rad/sec
B 25.62 rad/sec
C 20.22 Hz
D 3.15 Hz
Ans.: B
Q40. When the torsional pendulum vibrating, the observed amplitudes on the
same side of the neutral axis for successive cycles are found to decay 50% of the
initial value determine logarithmic decrement.
A 0.065
B 0.006
C 0.693
D 0.5
Ans.: C
Q41. The number of natural frequency in two rotor system is
A Zero
B Infinite
C Two
D One
Ans.: C
Q42. A shaft carrying two rotor at its ends will have
A No node
B Two nodes
C One node
D Three nodes
Ans.: C
Q43. In semi-definite system one of the natural frequencies is
A Zero
B One
C Two
D Infinite
Ans.: A
Q44. Dynamic vibration absorber is suitable for
A varying speed machines
B constant speed machines
C Zero speed range machines
Ans.: B
Q45. A shaft carrying three rotors will have
A No node
B Two nodes
C One node
D Three nodes
Ans.: B
Q46. A shaft of length l carries two discs at its two ends. The lowest torsional
frequency is ωn. If the shaft length is doubled, then the lowest torsional
frequency becomes
A ωn/2
B ωn/√2
C √2ωn
D 2ωn
Ans.: B
Q47. A shaft of diameter d carries two discs at its two ends. The lowest torsional
frequency is ωn. If the diameter is doubled, then the lowest torsional frequency
becomes
A 4ωn
B ωn/2
C ωn/4
D 4ωn
Ans.: D
Q48. Rotating shafts tends to vibrate violently in transverse directions at certain

speed. This speed is called
A Critical speed
B Whipping speed
C Whirling speed
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: D
Q49. In a dynamic vibration absorber system, under tuned conditions which of

the following relation holds good?
A K1K2=M1M2
B K1 M2=M1 K2
C K 1 M 1= K 2 M 2
D none of the mentioned
Ans.: B
Q50. If two discs are attached to one shaft at its both end, then it has_____
number of natural frequencies.
A Infinite
B One
C Two
Ans.: B
Q51. What is meant by coupled differential equation?
A. The differential equation in which only rectilinear motions exit
B. The differential equation in which only angular motions exit
C. The differential equation in which both rectilinear and angular motions exit
Ans.: C
Q52. What is meant by node point?
A. The point at which amplitude of vibration is maximum
B. The point at which amplitude of vibration is minimum
C. The point at which amplitude of vibration is zero
Ans.: C
Q53. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Torsional vibrations do not occur in a three rotor system, if rotors rotate in

same direction
B. Shaft vibrates with maximum frequency when rotors rotate in same direction
C. Zero node behavior is observed in rotors rotating in opposite direction
D. All of the above
Ans.: A
Q54. In the diagram shown below, if rotor X and rotor Z rotate in same direction
and rotor Y rotates in opposite direction, then specify the type of node
vibration.
Ans.: B
Q55. The motion of a system executing harmonic motion with one natural
frequency is known as _______
A. principal mode of vibration
B. natural mode of vibration
C. both a. and b.
Ans.: C
Q56. The equations of motion of a two degree of freedom system, are, in

general:
A. coupled
B. linear
C. uncoupled
Ans.: A
Q57. The speed at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection from
the axis of rotation of the shaft becomes infinite, is known as _________
A. Whirling speed
B. Rotational speed
C. Stabilizing speed
D. Reciprocating speed
Ans.: A
Q58. The critical speed of a shaft depends upon its
A. Mass
B. Stiffness
C. Mass and stiffness

D. Stiffness and eccentricity
Ans.: C
Q59. The factor which affects critical speed shaft is.......
A. eccentricity
B. span of shaft
C. diameter of disc
D. all of above
Ans.: D
Q60. In a two-rotor system, torsional vibration occurs only if the rotors are
moving in the ______ direction.
A. same
B. opposite
C. either same or opposite
Ans.: B
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
A Energy method
B Rayleigh’s method
C Equilibrium method
D All of the above
Ans.: B
Q2. Which among the following is the value of static deflection (δ) for a fixed beam with
central point load?
A (Wl3) /(192 EI)
B (Wl2) /(192 EI)
C (Wl3) /(384 EI)
D None of the above
Ans.: A
Q3. If the mass of body increases 4 times
A Frequency increases 4 times
B Frequency decreases 4 times
C Frequency become half
D Frequency become double
Ans.: C
Q4. Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves
A Perpendicular to its axis
B Parallel to its axis
C In a circle about its axis
Ans.: B
Q5. While calculating the natural frequency of a spring-mass system, the effect of the mass of
A 1/2
B 1/3
C 1/4
D ¾
Ans.:B
Q6. When a body is subjected to transverse vibrations, the stress induced in a body will be
A Shear stress
B Bending stress
C Tensile stress
D Compressive stress
Ans.: B
Q7. The velocity vector in a vector diagram for a harmonic motion
A Lags the displacement vector by 1800
B Lags the displacement vector by 900
C Leads the displacement vector by 900
D Leads the displacement vector by 1800
Ans.: C
Q8. Which of the following relations is true when springs are connected series.
A Ke = K1 + K2
B (1 / Ke) = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
C Ke = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
D (1 / Ke) = K1 + K2
Ans.: B
Q9. Two springs have spring stiffness of 1500 N/m and 1 KN/m respectively. If they are
connected in series, what will be the equivalent spring stiffness?
A 1KN/m
B 600 N/m
C 1 N/m
D 600 KN/m
Ans.:B
Q10. A mass of 10 kg when suspended from a spring causes a static deflection of 0.01m.
Find the spring stiffness for the same system.
A 9810 N/m
B 8910 N/m
C 1098 N/m
D 9801 N/m
Ans.: A
Q11. A car having a mass of 1000 kg deflects its springs 4 cm under its load. Determine the
natural frequency of the car in vertical direction.
A 5 Hz
B 4.67 Hz
C 9.8 Hz
D 2.49 Hz
Ans.:D
Q12. When the particles of the shaft or disc move in a circle about the axis of the shaft, then
the vibrations are known as ___________ .
A Longitudinal vibrations
B Transverse vibrations
C Torsional vibrations
D None of these
Ans: C
Q13. Frequency of vibrations is usually expressed in

A number of cycles per hour
B number of cycles per minute
C number of cycles per second
D None of these
Ans.:C
Q14. What is the effect on the undamped natural frequency of a single-degree-of-freedom

system if the mass of the system is increased?
A The frequency will increase
B The frequency will stay the same
C The frequency will decrease
D None of these
Ans.:C
A period of vibration
B cycle
C frequency
D all of the above
Ans.: B
Q16. The number of cycles described in one second is known as _______.

A period of vibration
B cycle
C frequency
D all of the above
Ans.: C
Q17. Which of the following is a type of free vibration?

A Longitudinal vibrations
B Transverse vibrations
C Torsional vibrations
D A, B and C
Ans.: D
Q18. In a spring-mass system, which of the following force is not considered?

A Spring force
B Damping force
C Accelerating force
D A and B
Ans.:B
Q19. As per Energy Method, the summation of kinetic energy and potential energy must be
A zero
B minimum
C maximum
D constant
Ans.:D
Q20.Frequency is equal to ______.

A time period
B 1/time period
C *time period
D /time period
Ans.: B
Q21. In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the
amplitude on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to
A x1/x2
B log (x1/x2)
C loge (x1/x2)
D log (x1.x2)
Ans.: C
Q22. Eddy current damping is an example of _____

A Coulomb damping
B Hysteresis damping
C Viscous damping
D Dry friction damping
Ans.: C
Q23. Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000 N/m
and mass of 20 kg?
A 12.32 Hz
B 4.10 Hz
C 6.16 Hz
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q24. What is meant by critical damping coefficient?

A Frequency of damped free vibrations is less than zero
B The motion is aperiodic in nature
C Both a. and b.
D None of the above
Ans.: B
Q25. According to D' Alembert's principle, m (d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx =0 is the differential
equation for damped free vibrations having single degree of freedom. What will be the
solution to this differential equation if the system is critically damped?
A x = (A + Bt) e– ωt
B x = X e– ξωt (sin ωdt + Φ)
C x = (A – Bt) e– ωt
D x = X e– ξωt (cos ωdt + Φ)
Ans.: A
Q26. Calculate natural frequency of damped vibration, if damping factor is 0.52 and natural
frequency of the system is 30 rad/sec which consists of machine supported on springs and
dashpots.
A 25.62 rad/sec
B 20.78 rad/sec
C 14.4 rad/sec
D 15.33 rad/sec
Ans.: A
Q27. Calculate logarithmic decrement if damping factor is 0.33.
A 1.36
B 3.23
C 5.16
D 2.19
Ans.: D
Q28. The ratio of the actual damping coefficient (c) to the critical damping coefficient (cc ) is
known as _________
A Damping factor
B Damping coefficient
C Resistive factor
D Resistive coefficient
Ans.: A
Q29.When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is
said to have
A Free vibration
B Forced vibration
C Damped vibration
Ans.: C
Q30. The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to
the static force, is known as
A Damping factor
B Damping coefficient
C Logarithmic decrement
D Magnification factor
Ans.: D
Q31.Rotor shaft of a large electric motor supported between short bearings at both
ends shows a deflection of 1.8 mm in middle of motor. Assuming rotor to be
perfectly balanced and supported at knife edges at both ends, likely critical speed
(rpm) of shaft is
A 350
B 4430
C 705
D 2810
Ans.:C
Q32. A vehicle suspension system consists of a spring and a damper. Stiffness of spring is
3.5 KN/m and damping constant of damper is 400Ns/m. If mass is 50 kg, then damping
factor is
A 0.606
B 0.10
C 0.666
D 0.471
Ans.:D
Q33..A cantilever shaft having 50 mm diameter and a length of 300mm has a disc of
mass 100 kg at its free end. The Young’s modulus for the shaft material is 200
GN/m^2. Determine the static deflection of shaft in mm.
A 0.144
B 0.244
C 0.344
D 0.444
Ans.:A
Q34.The static deflection of a spring under gravity, when a mass of 1 kg is suspended from
it, is 1 mm. Assume the acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s^2. The natural frequency of
this spring-mass system (in rad/s) is
A 100
B 150
C 200
D 250
Ans.:A
Q35. A simple pendulum is found to vibrate at a frequency of 0.5Hz in vacuum and

0.45 Hz in a viscous fluid medium. Find the damping factor.
0.5122 (B) 0.9272 (C) 0.4359 (D) 0.2568
Ans.: C
Q36.When the torsional pendulum vibrating the observed amplitudes on the same side of
neutral axis for successive cycles are found to decay 50% of the initial value determine
logarithmic decrement.
A 0.065
B 0.006
C 0.693
D 0.5
Ans.:C
Q37. The critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural
frequency of the system in
A Transverse vibrations
B Torsional vibrations
C Longitudinal vibrations
Ans.:A
Q38. In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at resonance is

A equal to
B directly proportional to
C inversely proportional to
D independent of
Ans.:C
Q39.In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn < 2, then for all values of damping factor, the
transmissibility will be
A less than unity
B equal to unity
C greater than unity
D zero
Ans.:C
Q40.The accelerometer is used as a transducer to measure earthquake in Richter scale. Its
design is based on the principle that
A Its natural frequency is very low in comparison to the frequency of vibration
B Its natural frequency is very high in comparison to the frequency of vibration
C Its natural frequency is equal to the frequency of vibration
D Measurement of vibratory motion is without any reference point
Ans.:C
Q41. Critical speed is expressed as

A rotation of shaft in degrees
B rotation of shaft in radians
C rotation of shaft in minutes
D natural frequency of the shaft
Ans.: D
Q42. The first critical speed of an automobile running on a sinusoidal road is calculated by
(modeling it as a single degree of freedom system)
A Resonance
B Approximation
C Superposition
D Rayleigh quotient
Ans.: A
Q43. For an under damped harmonic oscillator, resonance

A Occurs when excitation frequency is greater than undamped natural frequency
B Occurs when excitation frequency is less than undamped natural frequency
C Occurs when excitation frequency is equal to undamped natural frequency
D Never occurs
Ans: C
Q44. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn, then the phase difference between the
A 0°
B 90°
C 180°
D 270°
Ans.:C
Q45. Magnification factor is the ratio of the maximum displacement due to forced vibrations
to the deflection due to _______
A Static force
B Dynamic force
C Torsion
D Compression
Ans.: A
Q46. For a two-rotor system, the length of one shaft (A) is twice the other (B), then what is
the relation between the mass moment of inertia of the shafts.
A 2I(A) = I(B)
B I(A) = 2I(B)
C I(A) = I(B)
D 2I(A) = 3I(B)
Ans.:A
Q47. From the following, which one is a type of vibration measuring instrument?
A Mechanical
B Electrical
C Magnetic
D All of the above
Ans.:D
Q48. Which of the following is a type of transmitted force to the foundation?

(A) Damping force
(B) Undamping force
(C) Tensile force
(D) Torsional force
Ans.:A
Q49. Unit of the damping factor is ______.

(A) Nm/s
(B) N/sm
(C) N/m
Ans.:D
Q50. The speed at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection of the shaft from the
axis of rotation becomes ___________, is known as critical or whirling speed.
(A) zero
(B) minimum
(C) maximum
(D) infinite
Ans.:D
Q51. Which of the following systems produce a vibration in the foundation?

(A) Coupled machine
(B) Uncoupled machine
(C) Balanced machine
Ans:D
Q52. Which of the following instruments measure the amplitude of a vibrating body?
(A) Vibrometers
(B) Seismometer
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Ans.:C
Q53. A seismometer is a device used to measure the ___________ of a vibrating body.

(A) displacement
(B) velocity
(C) acceleration
Ans.:A
Q54. From the following, which one is also known as low-frequency Transducer?
(A) Stroboscope
(B) Accelerometer
(C) Vibrometer
Ans.:C
Q55. The accelerometers are commonly used in vibration measurement due to their
___________.
(A) small size and low sensitivity
(B) the large size and high sensitivity
(C) the large size and low sensitivity
(D) small size and high sensitivity
Ans.:D
Q56. In Fullarton Tachometer, a thin strip with a ______ is attached at one of its ends.
(A) mass
(B) spring
(C) damper
(D) shaft
Ans.:A
Q57. Untuned viscous damper ( houdaille Damper) is used with variable speed
machine being control by ratio can be given by

Ans.:A
Q58. In a two-rotor system, torsional vibration occurs only if the rotors are moving in the
______ direction.
(A) same
(B) opposite
(C) either same or opposite
Ans.:B
Q59.In centrifugal pendulum absorber , the natural frequency in cycle per second can be
given by
A Fn =N √(R/L)
B Fn =1/N √(R/L)
C Fn =N/2 √(R/L)
D Fn =N2 √(R/L)
Ans.:A
Q60. The vibration in a vehicle is normally expressed in the terms of the ______________.
(A) displacement
(B) velocity
(C) acceleration
Ans.:C
MECHANICAL VIBRATION
BE MECHANICAL
1. The natural frequency of a spring-mass system on earth is ωn. The natural frequency of this
system on the moon (g of moon = g of earth /6) is *
1 point
(A) ωn
(B) 0.408ωn
(C) 0.204ωn
(D) 0.167ωn
Answer- (A)
2. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the
action of the force of gravity, the body is known as *
1 point
(A) simple pendulum
(B) torsional pendulum
(C) compound pendulum
(D) second’s pendulum
Answer- (C)
3. When the body vibrates under the influence of external force, then the body is said to be
under ___________ . *
1 point
(A) free vibrations
(B) natural vibrations
(C) forced vibrations
(D) damped vibrations
Answer- (C)
4. In damped vibrations, the amplitude of the resulting vibration gradually reduces. This is due
to the reason that an amount of energy is always dissipated to overcome the ________ *
1 point
(A) Frictional resistance
(B) Work done
(C) Fluid pressure
(D) Air pressure
Answer- (A)
5. Which of the following statements are TRUE for damped vibrations?

(P) . For a system having critical damping, the value of the damping ratio is unity and system
does not undergo a vibratory motion.
(Q) . Logarithmic decrement method is used to determine the amount of damping in a physical
system.
(R) . In case of damping due to dry friction between moving surfaces resisting force of
constant magnitude acts opposite to the relative motion.
(S) . For the case of viscous damping, drag force is directly proportional to the square of
relative velocity. *
1 point
(A) P and Q only
(B) P and S only
(C) P, Q and R only
(D) Q and S only
Answer- (C)
6. The equivalent stiffness of spring connected in parallel having stiffnesses k1 and k2 can be
written as *
1 point
(A)(1/k1) + (1/k2)
(B) (1/k1) - (1/k2)
(C) k1 + k2
Answer- (C)
7. What is meant by critical damping coefficient? *

1 point
(A) Frequency of damped free vibrations is less than zero
(B). The motion is a periodic in nature
(C). Both a. and b.
(D). None of the above
Answer- (C)
8. What are discrete parameter systems? *

1 point
(A) Systems which have infinite number of degree of freedom
(B) Systems which have finite number of degree of freedom
(C) Systems which have no degree of freedom
Answer- (B)
9. A mass of 1 kg is attached to two identical springs each with stiffness k = 20 kN/m as shown
in the figure. Under frictionless condition, the natural frequency of the system in Hz is close
to *
1 point
(A) 32
(B) 23
(C) 16
(D) 11
Answer- (A)
10. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
maximum potential energy at extreme position? *
1 point
(A) Energy method
(B) Rayleigh's method
(C) Equilibrium method
Answer- (B)
11. Equilibrium Method is in accordance with which of the following principle? *

1 point
(A) Taylor's principle
(B) D'Alembert's principle
(C) Energy conservation principle
Answer- (B)
12. What are deterministic vibrations? * 1 point

(A)Vibrations caused due to known exciting force
(B)Vibrations caused due to unknown exciting force
(c) Vibrations which are aperiodic in nature
Answer- (A)
13. Frequency is equal to ______. * 1 point
(A) time period
(B) 1/time period
(C) *time period
(D) /time period
Answer- (B)
14. The speed at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection from the axis of rotation
of the shaft becomes infinite, is known as _________ * 1 point
(A) Whirling speed
(B) Rotational speed
(C) Stabilizing speed
(D) Reciprocating speed
Answer- (A)
15. If the spring mass system with m and spring stiffness k is taken to very high altitude, the
natural frequency of longitudinal vibrations *
1 point
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remain unchanged
(D) may increase or decrease depending upon the value of the mass
Answer- (C)
16. Often an unbalance of forces is produced in rotary or reciprocating machinery due to the
______ * 1 point
(A) Centripetal forces
(B) Centrifugal forces
(C) Friction forces
(D) Inertia forces
Answer- (D)
17. If the damping factor for a vibrating system is unity, then the system will be *
1 point
A. Over damped
B. Under damped
C. Critically damped
D. Without vibrations
Answer- (C)
18. A system has _________ degree of freedom if its motion can be completely described by a
single scalar variable. * 1 point
(A) ONE
(B) MULTI
(C) TWO
Answer- (A)
19. Consider a single degree-of-freedom system with viscous damping excited by a harmonic
force. At resonance, the phase angle (in degree) of the displacement with respect to the
exciting force is * 1 point
(A) 0
(B) 45
(C) 90
(D) 135
Answer- (C)
20. A seismometer is a device used to measure the ___________ of a vibrating body. *

1 point
(A) displacement
(B) velocity
(C) acceleration
Answer- (A)
21. Determine logarithmic decrement, if the amplitude of a vibrating body reduces to 1/6th in
two cycles. * 1 point
(A) 0.223
(B) 0.8958
(C) 0.3890
Answer- (B)
22. Fluid resistance causes damping which is known as ___ * 1 point
(A) Resistance damping
(B) Fluid damping
(C) Viscous damping
(D) Liquid damping
Answer- (C)
23. In a forced vibrations with viscous damping, maximum amplitude occurs when the forced
frequency is: * 1 point
A) Equal to natural frequency
B) Slightly less than natural frequency
C) Slightly greater than natural frequency
D) Zero.
Answer- (B)
24. In a spring-mass-damper system, which of the following force is considered? *

1 point
(A) Spring force
(B) Damping force
(C) Accelerating force
Answer- (C)
25. In a single degree of freedom underdamped spring-mass-damper system as shown in the

figure, an additional damper is added in parallel such that the system still remains
underdamped. Which one of the following statements is ALWAYS true? *
1 point
(A) Transmissibility will increase.

(B) Transmissibility will decrease.
(C) Time period of free oscillations will increase.
(D) Time period of free oscillations will decrease.
Answer- (C)
26. Which among the following is the fundamental equation of S.H.M.? * 1 point
(A) x + (k / m). x =0
(B) x + ω^2 . x =0
(C) x + (k/ m)^2 . x =0
(D) x^2 + ω . x^2 =0
Answer- (B)
27. Critical damping is the * 1 point

(A) largest amount of damping for which no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(B) smallest amount of damping for which no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(C) largest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free vibration
(D) smallest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free vibration
Answer- (B)
28. A system has a mass of 0.5 kg and spring stiffness of 2452 N/m. Find the natural frequency
of the system. * 1 point
(A) 5.14 Hz
(B) 9.14 Hz
(C) 11.14 Hz
(D) 28.14 Hz
Answer- (C)
29. The spring constant of a helical compression spring DOES NOT depend on *
1 point
(A) coil diameter
(B) material strength
(C) number of active turns
(D) wire diameter
Answer- (B)
30. Which of the following vibrations are classified according to magnitude of actuating
force? * 1 point
(A)Torsional vibrations
(B) Deterministic vibrations
(C) Transverse vibrations
Answer- (B)
31. The time interval after which the motion is repeated itself is known as ___________ . *1
point
(A) time period
(D) isolation
(C) frequency
(B) cycle
Answer- (A)
32. The motion of a system executing harmonic motion with one natural frequency is known
as * 1 point
(A). principal mode of vibration
(B). natural mode of vibration
(C) both A and B
(D). none of the above
Answer- (C)
33. The critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural
frequency of the system in *
1 point
(A) transverse vibrations
(B) torsional vibrations
(C) longitudinal vibrations
(D) none of the mentioned
Answer- (A)
34. Find the natural frequency in Hz of the free longitudinal vibrations if the displacement is
2mm. * 1 point
(A) 11.14
(B) 12.38
(C) 11.43
(D) 11.34
Answer- (11.14)
35. The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to the
static force, is known as * 1 point
(A) damping factor
(B) damping coefficient
(C) logarithmic decrement
(D) magnification factor
Answer- (D)
36. For the same dimensions of the shaft which of the following has the greater natural
frequency? * 1 point
(A) Transverse
(B) Longitudinal
(C) Depends on thickness
(D) Depends upon length
Answer- (B)
37. Which of the following instruments measure the amplitude of a vibrating body? *1point
(A) Vibrometers
(B) Seismometer
(D) None of these
Answer- (C)
38. In energy method for finding frequency of the system * 1 point

(A) The sum of kinetic and potential energy is zero
(B) The sum of kinetic and potential energy is constant
(C) It is assumed that the system is non-conservative
(D) Frequency can not be determined by energy method
Answer- (B)
39. From the following data, calculate the critical speed of the shaft in rps. Shaft diameter = 5
mm, length = 200 mm, Mass of disc = 50 Kg at centre of shaft, E = 200 GN/m2, Centre of disc
at 0.25 m away from centre of axis of shaft. * 1 point
(A) 8.64
(B) 9.64
(C) 10.64
(D) 11.64
Answer- (D)
40. The instruments which are used to measure the ___________ of a vibrating body are called
vibration measuring instrument. * 1 point
(A) displacement
(B) velocity
(C) acceleration
Answer- (D)
41. When the shaft is straight and bent alternately and bending stresses are induced in the shaft.
The type of vibration induced is * 1 point
(A) longitudinal vibrations
(B) transverse vibrations
(C) torsional vibrations
(D) both (a) and (b)
Answer- (B)
42. Logarithmic decrement is defined as the ____________ of the amplitude reduction

factor. * 1 point
(A) reciprocal
(B) logarithm
(C) natural logarithm
Answer- (C)
43. The radius of gyration of a compound pendulum about the point of suspension is 100 mm.
The distance between the point of suspension and the center of mass is 250 mm. Considering
the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2, the natural frequency (in radian/s) of the
compound pendulum is *
1 point
(A) 10 to 11
(B) 0.01 to 2
(C) 15 to 16
(D) 150 to 160
Answer- (C)
44. A mass m is attached to two identical springs having constant k as shown in the figure. The
natural frequency ω of this single degree of freedom system is * 1 point
(A) √2k/m
(B)√k/m
(C) √k/2m
(D) √4k/m
Answer- (A)
45. The accelerometer is used as a transducer to measure earthquake in Richter scale. Its design
is based on the principle that ______. * 1 point
(A) its natural frequency is very low in comparison to the frequency of vibration
(B) its natural frequency is very high in comparison to the frequency of vibration
(C) its natural frequency is equal to the frequency of vibration
(D) measurement of vibratory motion is without any reference point
Answer- (C)
46. What is the effect on the undamped natural frequency of a single-degree-of-freedom

system if the mass of the system is increased? * 1 point
(A) The frequency will increase
(B) The frequency will stay the same
(C) The frequency will decrease
(D) None of these
Answer- (C)
47. Which of the following statements is/are true for coulomb damping? *
1 point
(A). Coulomb damping occurs due to friction between two lubricated surfaces
(B). Damping force is opposite to the direction of motion of vibrating body
(C) For smooth surfaces, coefficient of friction depends upon velocity
(D). Damping force depends upon the rubbing velocity between two rubbing surfaces
Answer- (B)
48. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is * 1 point
a) diameter of the disc
b) span of the shaft
c) eccentricity
d) all of the mentioned
Answer- (D)
49. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is said
to have * 1 point
a) free vibration
b) forced vibration
c) damped vibration
d) none of the mentioned
Answer- (C)
50. Frequency of vibrations is usually expressed in * 1 point

(A) number of cycles per hour
(B) number of cycles per minute
(C) number of cycles per second
(D) None of these
Answer- (C)
51. Bifilar suspension method is used to find the * 1 point

(A) angular acceleration of the body
(B) moment of inertia of the body
(C) periodic time of the body
(D) frequency of vibration of the body
Answer- (B)
52. The natural frequency of the free longitudinal vibrations is the * 1 point
(A) Twice the natural period of vibration
(B) Half the natural period of vibrations
(C) Reciprocal of the natural period of vibrations
(D) Same as the natural period of vibrations
Answer- (C)
53. For an under damped harmonic oscillator, resonance * 1 point

a) occurs when excitation frequency is greater than undamped natural frequency
b) occurs when excitation frequency is less than undamped natural frequency
c) occurs when excitation frequency is equal to undamped natural frequency
d) never occurs
Answer- (C)
54. What is the effect of damping on phase angle at resonance frequency? * 1 point
(A) Phase angle increases as damping increases
(B) Damping has no effect on phase angle
(C). Phase angle increases as damping decreases
Answer- (B)
55. In a spring-mass system the mass is m and the spring constant is k. The critical damping
coefficient of the system is 0.1 kg/s. In another spring mass system, the mass is 2m and the
spring constant is 8k. The critical damping coefficient (in kg/s) of this system is *
1 point
(A) 0.38 to 0.42
(B) 0.58 to 0.82
(C) 3.8 to 4.2
(D) 0.8 to 0.9
Answer- (A)
56. What is meant by phase difference or phase angle in forced vibrations? *

1 point
(A) Difference between displacement vector (xp) and velocity vector Vp
(B) Angle in which displacement vector leads force vector by (F0 sinωt)
(C) Angle in which displacement vector (xp) lags force vector (F0 sinωt)
Answer- (C)
57. In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at resonance is

_____________ damping coefficient. *
1 point
(a) equal to
(b) directly proportional to
(c) inversely proportional to
(d) independent of
Answer- (C)
58. Which of the following relations is true for viscous damping? *

1 point
(A) Force α relative displacement
(B) Force α relative velocity
(C) Force α (1 / relative velocity)
Answer- (B)
59. In order to double the period of a simple pendulum, the length of the string should be *
1 point
(A) halved
(B) doubled
(C) quadrupled
Answer- (C)
60. In SHM of a simple pendulum, the component of weight which is directed towards mean
position is *
1 point
A. mg cosθ
B. mg sinθ
C. mg tanθ
D. none of above
Answer- (B)
MECHANICAL VIBRATION
BE Mechanical SEM - VIII
1. The natural frequency of a spring-mass system on earth is ωn. The natural frequency of this
system on the moon (g of moon = g of earth /6) is *
1 point
(A) ωn
(B) 0.408ωn
(C) 0.204ωn
(D) 0.167ωn
Answer- (A)
2. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the
action of the force of gravity, the body is known as *
1 point
(A) simple pendulum
Answer- (C)
3. When the body vibrates under the influence of external force, then the body is said to be
under ___________ . *
1 point
(A) free vibrations
Answer- (C)
4. In damped vibrations, the amplitude of the resulting vibration gradually reduces. This is due
to the reason that an amount of energy is always dissipated to overcome the ________ *
1 point
(A) Frictional resistance
(B) Work done
(C) Fluid pressure
(D) Air pressure
Answer- (A)
5. Which of the following statements are TRUE for damped vibrations?

(P) . For a system having critical damping, the value of the damping ratio is unity and system
does not undergo a vibratory motion.
(Q) . Logarithmic decrement method is used to determine the amount of damping in a physical
system.
(R) . In case of damping due to dry friction between moving surfaces resisting force of
constant magnitude acts opposite to the relative motion.
(S) . For the case of viscous damping, drag force is directly proportional to the square of
relative velocity. *
1 point
(A) P and Q only
(B) P and S only
(C) P, Q and R only
(D) Q and S only
Answer- (C)
6. The equivalent stiffness of spring connected in parallel having stiffnesses k1 and k2 can be
written as *
1 point
(A)(1/k1) + (1/k2)
(B) (1/k1) - (1/k2)
(C) k1 + k2
Answer- (C)
7. What is meant by critical damping coefficient? *

1 point
(A) Frequency of damped free vibrations is less than zero
(B). The motion is a periodic in nature
(C). Both a. and b.
Answer- (C)
8. What are discrete parameter systems? *

1 point
(B) Systems which have finite number of degree of freedom
(C) Systems which have no degree of freedom
Answer- (B)
9. A mass of 1 kg is attached to two identical springs each with stiffness k = 20 kN/m as shown
in the figure. Under frictionless condition, the natural frequency of the system in Hz is close
to *
1 point
(A) 32
(B) 23
(C) 16
(D) 11
Answer- (A)
10. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
maximum potential energy at extreme position? *
1 point
(A) Energy method
Answer- (B)
11. Equilibrium Method is in accordance with which of the following principle? *

1 point
Answer- (B)
12. What are deterministic vibrations? * 1 point

(A)Vibrations caused due to known exciting force
(B)Vibrations caused due to unknown exciting force
(c) Vibrations which are aperiodic in nature
Answer- (A)
13. Frequency is equal to ______. * 1 point
(A) time period
(B) 1/time period
(C) *time period
(D) /time period
Answer- (B)
14. The speed at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection from the axis of rotation
of the shaft becomes infinite, is known as _________ * 1 point
(A) Whirling speed
Answer- (A)
15. If the spring mass system with m and spring stiffness k is taken to very high altitude, the
natural frequency of longitudinal vibrations *
1 point
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remain unchanged
(D) may increase or decrease depending upon the value of the mass
Answer- (C)
16. Often an unbalance of forces is produced in rotary or reciprocating machinery due to the
______ * 1 point
(A) Centripetal forces
(B) Centrifugal forces
(C) Friction forces
(D) Inertia forces
Answer- (D)
17. If the damping factor for a vibrating system is unity, then the system will be *
1 point
A. Over damped
B. Under damped
C. Critically damped
D. Without vibrations
Answer- (C)
18. A system has _________ degree of freedom if its motion can be completely described by a
single scalar variable. * 1 point
(A) ONE
(B) MULTI
(C) TWO
Answer- (A)
19. Consider a single degree-of-freedom system with viscous damping excited by a harmonic
force. At resonance, the phase angle (in degree) of the displacement with respect to the
exciting force is * 1 point
(A) 0
(B) 45
(C) 90
(D) 135
Answer- (C)
20. A seismometer is a device used to measure the ___________ of a vibrating body. *

1 point
(A) displacement
(B) velocity
(C) acceleration
Answer- (A)
21. Determine logarithmic decrement, if the amplitude of a vibrating body reduces to 1/6th in
two cycles. * 1 point
(A) 0.223
(B) 0.8958
(C) 0.3890
Answer- (B)
22. Fluid resistance causes damping which is known as ___ * 1 point

(A) Resistance damping
(B) Fluid damping
(C) Viscous damping
(D) Liquid damping
Answer- (C)
23. In a forced vibrations with viscous damping, maximum amplitude occurs when the forced
frequency is: * 1 point
A) Equal to natural frequency
B) Slightly less than natural frequency
C) Slightly greater than natural frequency
D) Zero.
Answer- (B)
24. In a spring-mass-damper system, which of the following force is considered? *

1 point
(A) Spring force
(B) Damping force
Answer- (C)
25. In a single degree of freedom underdamped spring-mass-damper system as shown in the

figure, an additional damper is added in parallel such that the system still remains
underdamped. Which one of the following statements is ALWAYS true? *
1 point
(A) Transmissibility will increase.

(B) Transmissibility will decrease.
(C) Time period of free oscillations will increase.
(D) Time period of free oscillations will decrease.
Answer- (C)
26. Which among the following is the fundamental equation of S.H.M.? * 1 point
(A) x + (k / m). x =0
(B) x + ω^2 . x =0
(C) x + (k/ m)^2 . x =0
(D) x^2 + ω . x^2 =0
Answer- (B)
27. Critical damping is the * 1 point

(A) largest amount of damping for which no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(B) smallest amount of damping for which no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(C) largest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free vibration
(D) smallest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free vibration
Answer- (B)
28. A system has a mass of 0.5 kg and spring stiffness of 2452 N/m. Find the natural frequency
of the system. * 1 point
(A) 5.14 Hz
(B) 9.14 Hz
(C) 11.14 Hz
(D) 28.14 Hz
Answer- (C)
29. The spring constant of a helical compression spring DOES NOT depend on *
1 point
(A) coil diameter
(B) material strength
(D) wire diameter
Answer- (B)
30. Which of the following vibrations are classified according to magnitude of actuating
force? * 1 point
(A)Torsional vibrations
(C) Transverse vibrations
Answer- (B)
31. The time interval after which the motion is repeated itself is known as ___________ . *1
point
(A) time period
(D) isolation
(C) frequency
(B) cycle
Answer- (A)
32. The motion of a system executing harmonic motion with one natural frequency is known
as * 1 point
(A). principal mode of vibration
(B). natural mode of vibration
(C) both A and B
Answer- (C)
33. The critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural
frequency of the system in *
1 point
(A) transverse vibrations
(B) torsional vibrations
(C) longitudinal vibrations
Answer- (A)
34. Find the natural frequency in Hz of the free longitudinal vibrations if the displacement is
2mm. * 1 point
(A) 11.14
(B) 12.38
(C) 11.43
(D) 11.34
Answer- (11.14)
35. The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to the
static force, is known as * 1 point
(A) damping factor
Answer- (D)
36. For the same dimensions of the shaft which of the following has the greater natural
frequency? * 1 point
(A) Transverse
(B) Longitudinal
(C) Depends on thickness
(D) Depends upon length
Answer- (B)
37. Which of the following instruments measure the amplitude of a vibrating body? *1point
(A) Vibrometers
(B) Seismometer
(D) None of these
Answer- (C)
38. In energy method for finding frequency of the system * 1 point

(A) The sum of kinetic and potential energy is zero
(B) The sum of kinetic and potential energy is constant
(C) It is assumed that the system is non-conservative
(D) Frequency can not be determined by energy method
Answer- (B)
39. From the following data, calculate the critical speed of the shaft in rps. Shaft diameter = 5
mm, length = 200 mm, Mass of disc = 50 Kg at centre of shaft, E = 200 GN/m2, Centre of disc
at 0.25 m away from centre of axis of shaft. * 1 point
(A) 8.64
(B) 9.64
(C) 10.64
(D) 11.64
Answer- (D)
40. The instruments which are used to measure the ___________ of a vibrating body are called
vibration measuring instrument. * 1 point
(A) displacement
(B) velocity
(C) acceleration
Answer- (D)
The type of vibration induced is * 1 point
Answer- (B)
42. Logarithmic decrement is defined as the ____________ of the amplitude reduction
factor. * 1 point
(A) reciprocal
(B) logarithm
(C) natural logarithm
Answer- (C)
43. The radius of gyration of a compound pendulum about the point of suspension is 100 mm.
The distance between the point of suspension and the center of mass is 250 mm. Considering
the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2, the natural frequency (in radian/s) of the
compound pendulum is *
1 point
(A) 10 to 11
(B) 0.01 to 2
(C) 15 to 16
(D) 150 to 160
Answer- (C)
44. A mass m is attached to two identical springs having constant k as shown in the figure. The
natural frequency ω of this single degree of freedom system is * 1 point
(A) √2k/m
(B)√k/m
(C) √k/2m
(D) √4k/m
Answer- (A)
45. The accelerometer is used as a transducer to measure earthquake in Richter scale. Its design
is based on the principle that ______. * 1 point
(A) its natural frequency is very low in comparison to the frequency of vibration
(B) its natural frequency is very high in comparison to the frequency of vibration
(C) its natural frequency is equal to the frequency of vibration
(D) measurement of vibratory motion is without any reference point
Answer- (C)
46. What is the effect on the undamped natural frequency of a single-degree-of-freedom

system if the mass of the system is increased? * 1 point
(D) None of these
Answer- (C)
47. Which of the following statements is/are true for coulomb damping? *
1 point
(A). Coulomb damping occurs due to friction between two lubricated surfaces
(B). Damping force is opposite to the direction of motion of vibrating body
(C) For smooth surfaces, coefficient of friction depends upon velocity
(D). Damping force depends upon the rubbing velocity between two rubbing surfaces
Answer- (B)
48. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is * 1 point
a) diameter of the disc
b) span of the shaft
c) eccentricity
Answer- (D)
49. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is said
to have * 1 point
a) free vibration
b) forced vibration
c) damped vibration
Answer- (C)
50. Frequency of vibrations is usually expressed in * 1 point

(D) None of these
Answer- (C)
51. Bifilar suspension method is used to find the * 1 point

(A) angular acceleration of the body
(B) moment of inertia of the body
(C) periodic time of the body
(D) frequency of vibration of the body
Answer- (B)
52. The natural frequency of the free longitudinal vibrations is the * 1 point
(A) Twice the natural period of vibration
(B) Half the natural period of vibrations
(C) Reciprocal of the natural period of vibrations
(D) Same as the natural period of vibrations
Answer- (C)
53. For an under damped harmonic oscillator, resonance * 1 point

a) occurs when excitation frequency is greater than undamped natural frequency
b) occurs when excitation frequency is less than undamped natural frequency
c) occurs when excitation frequency is equal to undamped natural frequency
d) never occurs
Answer- (C)
54. What is the effect of damping on phase angle at resonance frequency? * 1 point
(C). Phase angle increases as damping decreases
Answer- (B)
55. In a spring-mass system the mass is m and the spring constant is k. The critical damping
coefficient of the system is 0.1 kg/s. In another spring mass system, the mass is 2m and the
spring constant is 8k. The critical damping coefficient (in kg/s) of this system is *
1 point
(A) 0.38 to 0.42
(B) 0.58 to 0.82
(C) 3.8 to 4.2
(D) 0.8 to 0.9
Answer- (A)
56. What is meant by phase difference or phase angle in forced vibrations? *

1 point
(A) Difference between displacement vector (xp) and velocity vector Vp
(B) Angle in which displacement vector leads force vector by (F0 sinωt)
(C) Angle in which displacement vector (xp) lags force vector (F0 sinωt)
Answer- (C)
57. In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at resonance is

_____________ damping coefficient. *
1 point
(a) equal to
(b) directly proportional to
(c) inversely proportional to
(d) independent of
Answer- (C)
58. Which of the following relations is true for viscous damping? *

1 point
(A) Force α relative displacement
(B) Force α relative velocity
(C) Force α (1 / relative velocity)
Answer- (B)
59. In order to double the period of a simple pendulum, the length of the string should be *
1 point
(A) halved
(B) doubled
(C) quadrupled
Answer- (C)
60. In SHM of a simple pendulum, the component of weight which is directed towards mean
position is *
1 point
A. mg cosθ
B. mg sinθ
C. mg tanθ
D. none of above
Answer- (B)
BE Mechanical
Subject:- Mechanical vibration Maximum Marks:- 60
Subject Code:- 128112 Time:- 1:30 Hr
Sr No. Questions Ans
Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of
30000 N/m and mass of 20 kg?
1 (A) 12.32 Hz C
(B) 4.10 Hz
(C) 6.16 Hz
In damped free vibrations, which parameters indicate vibrations?
(A) Natural frequency

2 C
(B) Rate of decay of amplitude
(C) Both a. and b.
What is meant by critical damping coefficient?
3 (A) Frequency of damped free vibrations is less than zero B

(B) The motion is aperiodic in nature
(C) Both a. and b.
Which among the following is the value of static deflection (δ) for a fixed beam
4 (A) (Wl3) /(192 EI) A

(B) (Wl2) /(192 EI)
(C) (Wl3) /(384 EI)
According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
5 (A) Energy method B

In which direction does the accelerating force acts?
(A) Opposite to the motion

6 B
(B) Along the motion
(C) Perpendicular to motion
(D) Variable
The spring constant of a helical compression spring DOES NOT depend on
(A) coil diameter

7 (B) material strength B
(D) wire diameter
In vibration analysis 'Beat' frequency is
(A) The frequency at which vibrations of a system are damped

(B) The frequency when a system exceeds the vibrations frequency from the
8 D
critical value
(C) The frequency below which vibrations do not cause appreciable damage to
equipment
(D) Said to occur when two vibrations of almost equal frequency are present
Which of the following relations is true when springs are connected parallelly?
where K = spring stiffness
9 (A) Ke = K1 + K2 A
(B) (1 / Ke) = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
(C) Ke = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
What are deterministic vibrations?
10 (A) Vibrations caused due to known exciting force A

(B) Vibrations caused due to unknown exciting force
(C) Vibrations which are aperiodic in nature
Which among the following is the fundamental equation of S.H.M.?
(A) x + (k / m) x =0
11 B
(B) x + ω2x =0
(C) x + (k/ m)2 x =0
(D) x2 + ωx2 =0
When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude
under the action of the force of gravity, the body is known as
12 (A) simple pendulum C
The time interval after which the motion is repeated itself is known as _________ .
(A) time period
13 (B) cycle A
(C) frequency
(D) isolation
What is the effect on the undamped natural frequency of a single-degree-of-
freedom system if the mass of the system is increased?
14 (A) The frequency will increase C
(D) None of these
The motion completed during one time period is known as _______.
(A) period of vibration
15 (B) cycle B
(C) frequency
What is the effect on the undamped natural frequency of a single-degree-of-

16 freedom system if the stiffness of one or more of the springs is increased? A
(D) None of these
In a spring-mass system, which of the following force is not considered?
(A) Spring force
17 (B) Damping force B
(D) A and B
The periodic time is given by _______.
(A) ω / 2 π
18 (B) 2 π / ω B
(C) 2 π × ω
(D) π/ω
The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is _______ at the
mean position.
19 (A) Zero C
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
At the mean position, the potential energy of the system is _______.
(A) Zero
20 (B) Minimum A
(C) Maximum
When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body
is said to have
21 (A) free vibration C

(B) forced vibration
(C) damped vibration
In which of the following cases, overdamping occurs?
22 (A) Roots are real A

(B) Roots are complex conjugate
(C) Roots are equal
(D) Independent of the equation
In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the
amplitude on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is
equal to
23 (A) x1/x2 B
(B) log (x1/x2)
(C) loge (x1/x2)
(D) log (x1.x2)
The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection
due to the static force, is known as
24 D
(A) damping factor
Fluid resistance causes damping which is known as ______
25 (A) Resistance damping C

(B) Fluid damping
(C) Viscous damping
(D) Liquid damping
Which of the following statements is/are true for coulomb damping?
1. Coulomb damping occurs due to friction between two lubricated surfaces

2. Damping force is opposite to the direction of motion of vibrating body
3. For smooth surfaces, coefficient of friction depends upon velocity
26 4. Damping force depends upon the rubbing velocity between two rubbing surfaces C
(A) Only statement 1

(B) Statement 2, 3 and statement 4
(C) Only statement 2
(D) All the above statements are true
Eddy current damping is an example of _____
27 (A) Coulomb damping C

(B) Hysteresis damping
(C) Viscous damping
(D) Dry friction damping
In damped vibrations, the amplitude of the resulting vibration gradually reduces.
This is due to the reason that an amount of energy is always dissipated to overcome
the ________
28 (A) Frictional resistance A

(B) Work done
(C) Fluid pressure
(D) Air pressure
In which direction does the damping force acts?

29 (B) Along the motion A
(D) Variable
In which of the following cases, underdamping occurs?
(A) Roots are real

30 (B) Roots are complex conjugate B
(C) Roots are equal
Which of the following statements are TRUE for damped vibrations?
31 P. For a system having critical damping, the value of the damping ratio is unity and C
system does not undergo a vibratory motion.
Q. Logarithmic decrement method is used to determine the amount of damping in a

physical system.
R. In case of damping due to dry friction between moving surfaces resisting force
of constant magnitude acts opposite to the relative motion.
S. For the case of viscous damping, drag force is directly proportional to the square
of relative velocity.
(A) P and Q only

(B) P and S only
(C) P, Q and R only
(D) Q and S only
Which of the following instruments may be used in vibration measurements?
(A) Photometer
32 B
(B) Accelerometer
(C) Dynamometer
(D) Balometer
A vibrometer
33 (A) Indicates vibration amplitude A

(B) Indicates vibration frequency
(C) Indicates nature of vibrations
(D) Only indicates second and above harmonics
A vibrating system is said to be stable if
34 (A) The amplitude of vibration decreases with time A

(B) The amplitude of vibration does not change with time
(C) Only transient increases indefinitely with time
(D) The total energy in the system does not change with time
A stretched string of a guitar when operated is subjected to
(A) Free vibrations

35 (B) Forced torsional vibrations C
(C) Forced transverse vibrations
(D) Damped vibrations
In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at resonance is

36 (A) equal to C
(B) directly proportional to
(C) inversely proportional to
(D) independent of
What is the effect of damping on phase angle at resonance frequency?

37 B
(C) Phase angle increases as damping decreases
38 Magnification factor is the ratio of ______ B
(A) zero frequency deflection and amplitude of steady state vibrations
(B) amplitude of steady state vibrations and zero frequency deflection
(C) amplitude of unsteady state vibrations and zero frequency distribution
The equation m(d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx = F0 sin ωt is a second order differential
39 (A) complementary function C

(B) particular function
(C) sum of complementary and particular function
(D) difference of complementary and particular function
At resonance, the phase angle is
(A) 0o
40 (B) 180o C
(C) 90o
(D) 45o
The motion of a system executing harmonic motion with one natural frequency is
known as _______
41 (A) principal mode of vibration C

(B) natural mode of vibration
(C) both a. and b.
What is meant by node point?
42 (A) The point at which amplitude of vibration is maximum C

(B) The point at which amplitude of vibration is minimum
(C) The point at which amplitude of vibration is zero
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(A) Torsional vibrations do not occur in a three rotor system, if rotors rotate in
same direction
43 (B) Shaft vibrates with maximum frequency when rotors rotate in same A
direction
(C) Zero node behavior is observed in rotors rotating in opposite direction
The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is
(A) diameter of the disc

44 (B) span of the shaft D
(C) eccentricity
(D) all of the mentioned
A two degree of freedom system has:
(A) many normal modes

45 A
(B) one normal mode
(C) two normal modes
The speed at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection from the axis of
46 A
rotation of the shaft becomes infinite, is known as _________
(A) Whirling speed
Which of the following is a type of untuned vibration absorber?
(A) Houdaille damper

47 A
(B) Torsional vibration absorber
(C) Centrifugal pendulum absorber
Which of the following instruments measure amplitude of a vibrating body?
(A) Vibrometers
48 C
(B) Seismometer
(C) Both a. and b.
What is meant by coupled differential equation?
(A) The differential equation in which only rectilinear motions exit

49 (B) The differential equation in which only angular motions exit C
(C) The differential equation in which both rectilinear and angular motions exit
When the centre of gravity of the rotor lies between the centre line of the shaft and
the centre line of the bearing, e is taken positive.
50 B
(A) True
(B) False
Free torsional vibrations will occur in a two rotor system only if both rotors have
same frequency.
51 A
(A) True
(B) False
In a multi-rotor system of torsional vibrations, the maximum number of nodes that
can occur is
(A) Two
52 C
(B) Equal to the number of rotors plus one
(C) Equal to the number of rotors minus one
(D) Equal to number of rotors
The danger of breakage and vibration is maximum
(A) Below critical speed

53 (B) Above critical speed C
(C) Near critical speed
(D) None
54 In two rotor system, if one of natural frequency is zero then it is called _________. B
(A) Definite system
(B) Self-excited system
(C) Semi-definite system
(D) Transient system
For a two-rotor system, the length of one shaft (A) is twice the other (B), then what
is the relation between the mass moment of inertia of the shafts.
(A) 2I(A) = I(B)
55 (B) I(A) = 2I(B) A
(C) I(A) = I(B)
(D) 2I(A) = 3I(B)
The factor which affects critical speed shaft is.......
(A) Eccentricity
56 (B) span of shaft D
(C) diameter of disc
(D) all of above
What is the effect of damping on phase angle at resonance frequency?

57 (B) Damping has no effect on phase angle B
(C) Phase angle increases as damping decreases
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. Magnification factor is minimum at resonance

2. The maximum value of amplification factor increases as damping factor
decreases
3. The maximum value of amplification factor increases as damping factor
increases
58 4. Magnification factor is maximum at resonance C
(A) Statement 1 and statement 2

(B) Statements 1,2 and 3
(C) Statement 2 and statement 4
(D) All the above statements are true
Transmissibility is the ratio of ______
(A) force transmitted to the supporting structure and force impressed upon the
59 system C
(B) displacement amplitude of mass and displacement amplitude of supporting
structure
(C) both a. and b.
60 The critical speed depends on....... C
(A) mass
(B) stiffness
(C) mass,stiffness
(D) mass,stiffness and eccentricty
Name of the College : D. N. Patel College of Engineering, Shahada
Subject : Mechanical Vibration
Class : B. E.
Semester : VIII
B. cycle
C. frequency
D. all of the above
Ans: B
Q2. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the
action of the force of gravity, the body is known as
A. simple pendulum
B. torsional pendulum
C. compound pendulum
D. second’s pendulum
Ans:C
Q.3 The motion completed during one time period is known as _______.
B. cycle
C. frequency
D. all of the above
Ans:B
Q.4 Which of the following is a type of free vibration?

A. Longitudinal vibrations
B. Transverse vibrations
D. A, B and C
Ans:D
Q.5 The maximum acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is ____.
A. ω
B. ω.r
C. ω / 2 π
D. 2 π / ω
Ans:B
Q.6 As per Energy Method, the summation of kinetic energy and potential energy must be
A. zero
B. minimum
C. maximum
D. constant
Ans:D
Q.7 Equilibrium Method is in accordance with which of the following principle?

A. Taylor's principle
B. D'Alembert's principle
C. Energy conservation principle
Ans:B
Q.8 Frequency is equal to ______.

A. time period
B. 1/time period
C. *time period
D. /time period
Ans:B
Q.9 When the particles of the shaft or disc move in a circle about the axis of the shaft, then the
vibrations are known as ___________ .
A. longitudinal vibrations
B. transverse vibrations
C. torsional vibrations
D. none of these
Ans:C
Q.10 For the same dimensions of the shaft which of the following has the greater natural
frequency?
A. Transverse
B. Longitudinal
C. Depends on thickness
D. Depends upon length
Ans:B
Q.11 A vertical spring-mass system has a mass of 0.5 kg and an initial deflection of 0.2 cm. Find
the spring stiffness.
A. 345 N/m
B. 245 N/m
C. 3452 N/m
D. 2452 N/m
Ans:D
Q.12 A system has a mass of 0.5 kg and spring stiffness of 2452 N/m. Find the natural frequency
of the system.
A. 5.14 Hz
B. 9.14 Hz
C. 11.14 Hz
D. 28.14 Hz
Ans:C
Q.13 An increase in the mass moment of inertia results in ________ in vibration frequency.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. unchanged
Ans:B
Q.14 The ratio of the force transmitted to the force applied is known as the ____________ of the
spring support.
A. isolation factor
B. transmissibility ratio
C. both A and B
Ans:C
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 0.25
D. Infinite
Ans:D
Q.16 Calculate damped natural frequency, if a spring mass damper system is subjected to
periodic disturbing force of 30 N. Damping coefficient is equal to 0.76 times of critical damping
coefficient and undamped natural frequency is 5 rad/sec
A. 3.99 rad/sec
B. 2.13 rad/sec
C. 4.12 rad/sec
D. 3.24 rad/sec
Ans:D
Q.17 At which frequency ratio, phase angle increases as damping factor increases?
A. When frequency ratio is less than unity

B. When frequency ratio is more than unity
C. When frequency ratio is zero
D. All of the above
Ans:A
Q.18 Consider the steady-state absolute amplitude equation shown below, if ω / ωn = √2 then
amplitude ratio (X/Y) =?
(X/Y) = √{1 + [ 2ξ (ω/ωn)]2} / √{[1 – (ω/ωn)2]2 + {2ξ (ω/ωn)2}
A. 0
B. 1
C. less than 1
D. greater than 1
Ans:B
Q.19 The equation m(d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx = F0 sin ωt is a second order differential
A. complementary function
B. particular function
C. sum of complementary and particular function
D. difference of complementary and particular function
Ans:C
Q.20 The rate of decay of oscillations is known as.......
A. critical damping
B. damping coefficient
C. transmissibility
D. logarithmic decrement
Ans:D
Q.21 Two springs have spring stiffness of 1500 N/m and 2000 N/m respectively. If they are
N/m
A. 3500 N/m
B. 1166 N/m
C. 857.63 N/m
Ans:C
Q.22 Which among the following is the fundamental equation of S.H.M.?
A. x + (k / m) x =0
B. x + ω2x =0
C. x + (k/ m)2 x =0
D. x2 + ωx2 =0
Ans:B
Q.23 Calculate coefficient of viscous damper, if the system is critically damped.

A. 100.5 x 103 N-s/m

B. 80 x 103 N-s/m
C. 42 x 103 N-s/m
Ans:C
Q.24 A vibrating machine of 100 kg is mounted on a rubber pad which has stiffness of 500 N/m.
Determine force transmitted to the foundation if the unbalanced force 500 N acts on it. The
frequency ratio (ω/ωn) is 1.5 and ξ = 0.5
A. 461.62 N
B. 400.23 N
C. 450 N
D. Insufficient data
Ans:A
Q.25 According to D' Alembert's principle, m (d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx =0 is the differential
equation for damped free vibrations having single degree of freedom. What will be the solution
to this differential equation if the system is critically damped?
A. x = (A + Bt) e– ωt
B. x = X e– ξωt (sin ωdt + Φ)
C. x = (A – Bt) e– ωt
D. x = X e– ξωt (cos ωdt + Φ)
Ans:A
Q.26 Which of the following vibro-meters have frequency ratio (ω/ωn) << 1?
A. Accelerometers
B. Velometers
C. Both A. and B.
Ans:A
Q.27 In the graph shown below, the region in which frequency ratio (ω/ωn) > √2 is known
as____
A. Amplification region
B. Isolation region
C. Spring controlled region
Ans:B
Q.28 Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000
A. 12.32 Hz
B. 4.10 Hz
C. 6.16 Hz
Ans:C
Q.29 According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
A. Energy method
D. All of the above
Ans:B
Q.30 A single degree of freedom spring-mass system is subjected to a harmonic force of constant
amplitude. For an excitation frequency of √3k/m, the ratio of the amplitude of steady state
response to the static deflection of the spring is __________
A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 0.8
Ans:B
Q.31 Figure shows a single degree of freedom system. The system consists of a mass-less rigid
bar OP hinged O and a mass m at end P. The natural frequency of vibration of the system is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans:A
Q.32 Which type of frequency measuring instrument has multiple reeds of different natural
frequency to measure vibrations?
A. Fullarton tachometer
B. Frahm Tachometer
C. Both A. and B.
Ans:B
Q.33 Eddy current damping is an example of _____

A. Coulomb damping
B. Hysteresis damping
C. Viscous damping
D. Dry friction damping
Ans:C
Q.34 In the diagram shown below, if rotor X and rotor Z rotate in same direction and rotor Y
rotates in opposite direction, then specify the type of node vibration.

Ans:B
Q.35 δ = (W a2b2) / (3 EIL) is the value of deflection for ______
A. simply supported beam which has central point load

B. simply supported beam which has eccentric point load
C. simply supported beam which has U.D.L. point load per unit length
D. fixed beam which has central point load
Ans:B
Q.36 What are discrete parameter systems?
A. Systems which have infinite number of degree of freedom

B. Systems which have finite number of degree of freedom
C. Systems which have no degree of freedom
Ans:B
Q.37 In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at resonance is __________
A. Equal to
B. Directly proportional to
C. Inversely proportional to
D. Independent of
Ans:C
Q.38 The M.F. at resonance is given by

A.
B.
C.
Ans:A
Q.39 The frame consists of a steel beam welded rigidly to two vertical channels. An eccentric
exciter weighing 250 N is attached to the beam, which weighs 10 KN and is used to excite the
frame. The unbalance weight of the exciter is 25 N and it has an eccentricity of 5 cm. By varying
the rotational speed of the exciter until resonance occurs, the maximum horizontal amplitude was
found to be 3.75 mm. Assuming no bending on the beam and considering the channels to be
completely fixed at both ends, magnification factor at resonance is
A. 307.5
B. 3.075
C. 30.75
D. 0.3075
Ans:C
Q.40 The critical speed of a shaft is affected by
A. Diameter of the disc

B. Eccentricity
C. Span of shaft
D. All of above
Ans: D
Q.41 When parts of a vibrating system slide on a dry surface, the damping is
A. Viscous.
B. Coulomb
C. Structural
D. Eddy current
Ans: B
Q.42 When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and
frequency is equal to
A. Zero
B. One
C. π/2
D. 2π
Ans: B
Q.43 In vibration isolation system, the transmissibility will be equal to unity, for all values of
damping factor, if ω/ωn is
A. Equal to 1
B. Equal to √2
C. Less than √2
D. Greater than √2
Ans:B
Q.44 The system which requires two coordinates independently to describe its motion
completely is called a---
A. 2 DOF
B. SDOF
C. DOF
D. None of above
Ans: A
Q.45 A weight of 50 N is suspended from a spring of stiffness 4000N/m and subjected to a

harmonic force of magnitude 60N and frequency 60 Hz. what will be the static displacement of
the spring due to maximum applied force
A. 0.015m
B. 0.15 m
C. 15 m
D. 150m
Ans: B
Q.46 Ratio of actual damping coefficient to critical damping coefficient is called
A. Damping Factor
B. Angular Factor
C. Critical Factor
D. None of above
Ans:A
Q.47 The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous damping is d2x/dt2 + c/m X
dx/dt + s/m X x = 0 If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be
A. over damped
B. under damped
C. critically damped
D. none of the mentioned
Ans:A
Q.48 In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn > 1, then the phase difference between the
A. 0°
B. 90°
C. 180°
D. 270°
Ans: C
Q.49 In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the amplitude
on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to
A. x1/x2
B. ln (x1/x2)
C. loge (x1/x2)
D. log (x1.x2)
Ans:B
Q.50 While calculating the natural frequency of a spring-mass system, the effect of the mass of
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 3/4
Ans:B
Q.51 A cantilever shaft having 50 mm diameter and length of 300 mm has a disc of mass 100 kg
at its free enD. The Young’s modulus for the shaft material is 200 GN/m2. Calculate the natural
longitudinal frequency in Hz.
A. 575
B. 625
C. 525
D. 550
Ans: A
Q.52 Calculate the static deflection in µm of transverse vibrations if the frequency is 200Hz.
A. 6.21
B. 0.621
C. 62.1
D. 0.006
Ans: A
Q.53 If the static deflection is 1.665×10-3m, calculate the critical speed of the shaft in rps. Centre
of disc at 0.25m away from centre of axis of shaft.
A. 8.64
B. 9.64
C. 10.64
D. 12.2
Ans: D
Q.54 In which of the following cases, underdamping occurs?
A. Roots are real

B. Roots are complex conjugate
C. Roots are equal
D. Independent of the equation
Ans: B
Q.55 Calculate damping ratio if mass = 200Kg, ω = 20rad/s and damping coefficient = 800
N/m/s
A. 0.03
B. 0.04
C. 0.05
D. 0.06
Ans: A
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. Infinity
Ans:D
Q.57 Which of the following is true regarding Ɛ>1?
A. Transmitted force is greater than applied force

B. Transmitted force is less than applied force
C. Spring force is less than applied force
D. Damping force is less than applied force
Ans: A
Q.58 Increasing which of the following factor would result in increase of free torsional
vibration?
A. Radius of gyration
B. Mass moment of inertia
C. Polar moment of inertia
D. Length
Ans: C
Q.59 If the polar moment of inertia is increased to four times, then what will be the effect on free
torsional vibrations of a single motor system?
A. Increases 4 times
B. Increases 2 times
C. Decreases 4 times
D. Decreases 2 times
Ans: B
Q.60 For a two rotor system, the length of one shaft A. is twice the other B., then what is the
relation between the Mass moment of inertia of the shafts.
A. 2IA. = IB.
B. IA. = 2IB.
C. IA. = IB.
D. 2IA. = 3IB.
Ans: A
Class: BE Semester: VIII
1. The time interval after which the motion is repeated itself is known as .
(A) time period
(B) cycle
(C) frequency
(D) isolation
Answer- A
2. Frequency of vibrations is usually expressed in
(D) None of these
Answer- C
3. What is the effect on the undamped natural frequency of a single-degree-of-freedom system if
the mass of the system is increased?
(D) None of these
Answer- C
4. The motion completed during one time period is known as .
(B) cycle
(C) frequency
Answer- B
5. The number of cycles described in one second is known as .
(B) cycle
(C) frequency
Answer- C
6. What is the effect on the undamped natural frequency of a single-degree-of-freedom system if

the stiffness of one or more of the springs is increased?
(D) None of these
Answer- A
7. Which of the following is a type of free vibration?
(A) Longitudinal vibrations
(B) Transverse vibrations
(C) Torsional vibrations
(D) A, B and C
Answer- D
8. In a spring-mass system, which of the following force is not considered?
(A) Spring force
(B) Damping force
(D) A and B
Answer- B
9. The periodic time is given by .
(A) ω / 2 π
(B) 2 π / ω
(C) 2 π × ω
(D) π/ω
Answer- B
10. The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is at the mean
position.
(A) zero
(B) minimum
(C) maximum
Answer- C
11. At the mean position, the potential energy of the system is .
(A) zero
(B) minimum
(C) maximum
Answer – A
12 As per Energy Method, the summation of kinetic energy and potential energy must be
which is same at all the times.
(A) zero
(B) minimum
(C) maximum
(D) constant
Answer- D
13. In Rayleigh’s method, the at the mean position is equal to the maximum
potential energy (or strain energy) at the extreme position.
(A) minimum kinetic energy
(B) minimum potential energy
(C) maximum kinetic energy
Answer- C
14 Equilibrium Method is in accordance with which of the following principle?
Answer - B
15 In a spring-mass-damper system, which of the following force is considered?
(A) Spring force
(B) Damping force
Answer – D
16 Frequency is equal to .
(A) time period
(B) 1/time period
(C) *time period
(D) /time period
Answer - B
The type of vibration induced is .
Answer – B
18 When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is said to
have
(A) free vibration
(B) forced vibration
(C) damped vibration
(D) undamped vibration
Answer - C
19. When the particles of the shaft or disc move approximately perpendicular to the axis of the
shaft, then the vibrations are known as .
(D) none of these
Answer – B
20.When the body vibrates under the influence of external force, then the body is said to be under
.
(A) free vibrations
Answer – C
21. Which of the following method is not used to determine the frequency for free vibration?
(A) Equilibrium method
(B) Energy method
(C) Rayleigh's method
(D) Klein’s method
Answer- D
22 Find the displacement in mm of the free longitudinal vibrations if the Natural frequency is 15
Hz.
(A) 1.1
(B) 1.2
(C) 1.3
(D) 1.4
Answer – A
23.A vertical spring-mass system has a mass of 0.5 kg and an initial deflection of 0.2 cm. Find the
spring stiffness.
(A) 345 N/m
(B) 245 N/m
(C) 3452 N/m
(D) 2452 N/m
Answer – D
24The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is
(A) the diameter of the disc
(B) the span of the shaft
(C) eccentricity
(D) all of these
Answer – D
25. Critical speed is expressed as .
(A) rotation of the shaft in degrees
(B) rotation of the shaft in radians
(C) rotation of the shaft in minutes
(D) the natural frequency of the shaft
Answer - D
26. For an underdamped harmonic oscillator, resonance .
(A) occurs when excitation frequency is greater than the undamped natural frequency
(B) occurs when excitation frequency is less than the undamped natural frequency
(C) occurs when excitation frequency is equal to the undamped natural frequency
(D) never occurs
Answer – C
27. At a nodal point in a shaft, the amplitude of torsional vibration is
(A) zero
(B) minimum
(C) maximum
(D) negative
Answer – A
28. A shaft carrying two rotors will have
(A) no node
(B) one node
(C) two nodes
(D) three nodes
Answer – B
29 An increase in the polar moment of inertia results in in vibration frequency.
(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) unchanged
Answer A
30 In which of the following condition torsional vibration will not take place, considering 3 rotors
A, B and C. A is rotating in the clockwise direction.
(A) B in clockwise C in anticlockwise
(B) C in clockwise B in anticlockwise
(C) B and C in clockwise
(D) B and C in anticlockwise
Answer- C
31. At a nodal point in the shaft, the frequency of vibration is .
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Double than at the ends
(D) Zero
Answer – D
32The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to the static
force is known as
(A) damping factor
Answer – D
33 The damping provided by fluid resistance is known as .
(A) friction damping
(B) natural damping
(C) viscous damping
(D) none of these
Answer
(C)
34 If the damping factor for a vibrating system is unity, then the system will be
(A) overdamped
(B) underdamped
(C) critically damped
(D) without vibrations
Answer – C
35 In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the amplitude on
the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to .
(A) x1/x2
(B) ln (x1/x2)
(C) ln (x1.x2)
(D) ln (x1+x2)
Answer – B
36 In a vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn > 1, then the phase difference between the transmitted
force and the disturbing force is degree.
(A) 0
(B) 90
(C) 180
(D) 270
Answer – C
37 In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at resonance is
(A) equal to
(C) inversely proportional to
(D) independent of
Answer – C
38 In damped vibrations, the amplitude of the resulting vibration gradually reduces. This is due to
the reason that an amount of energy is always dissipated to overcome the _ .
(A) frictional resistance
(B) work done
(C) fluid pressure
(D) air pressure
Answer – A
39 In which direction does the damping force act?
(B) Along with the motion
(D) Variable
Answer – A
40 In which of the following cases, overdamping occurs?
(A) Roots are real
(B) Roots are complex conjugate
(C) Roots are equal
Answer – A
41 In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration .
(A) decreases linearly with time
(B) increases linearly with time
(C) decreases exponentially with time
(D) increases exponentially with time
Answer - C
42. Unit of the damping factor is .
(A) Nm/s
(B) N/sm
(C) N/m
Answer - D
43. The magnification factor is the ratio of the maximum displacement due to forced vibrations to
the deflection due to .
(A) Static force
(B) Dynamic force
(C) Torsion
(D) Compression
Answer - A
44 Maximum displacement due to forced vibration is the displacement due to static
force.
(A) inversely proportional to
(C) independent of
Answer – B
45 In which of the case, the factor c = 0?
(A) When there is damping
(B) No damping
(C) Resonance
(D) c is never 0
Answer B
46 A system has mass of 600 Kg has a spring of stiffness 294000 N/m. What will be the value of
the critical damping coefficient?
(A) 16563
(B) 26563
(C) 36563
(D) 46563
Answer - B
47 The critical speed may occur because of .
(A) eccentric mounting of the rotor
(B) non-uniform distribution of rotor material
(C) bending of shaft
Answer D
48 Which of the following systems produce a vibration in the foundation?
(A) Coupled machine
(B) Uncoupled machine
(C) Balanced machine
Answer - D
49 When a periodic disturbing force is applied to a machine, the force is transmitted to the
by the means of spring.
(A) dampers
(B) foundation
(C) mass
Answer - B
50 Which of the following is a type of transmitted force to the foundation?
(A) Damping force
(B) Undamping force
(C) Tensile force
(D) Torsional force
Answer A
51 Which of the following vibrations are classified according to magnitude of actuating force?
(A). Torsional vibrations
(C). Transverse vibrations
(D). All of the above
52 Which of the following relations is true when springs of stiffness K 1 & K 2 are
connected in parallel? where Ke = equivalent spring stiffness
A) K e = K 1 + K 2
B) (1 / K e ) = (1/K 1 ) + (1/ K 2 )
C) K e = (1/K 1 ) + (1/ K 2 )
D) K e = K 1 - K 2
Answer A
53 The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is
(A) diameter of the disc
(B) span of the shaft
(C) eccentricity
(D) all of the mentioned
Answer D
54 The Danger of breakage and vibration is maximum
(A) Below Critical Speed
(B) Near Critical Speed
(C) Above Critical Speed
Answer C
55 Critical damping is a function of
(A) Mass and stiffness
(B) Mas and damping coefficient
(C) Stiffness and damping coefficient
(D) Stiffness and frequency
Answer A
56 The damping force in forced vibration with reference to spring force
(A) Lead by 90o
(B) Lag by 90o
(C) Lead by 180o
(D) Lag by 180o
Answer – B
57. In coulomb damping the resisting force
(A) Depend Upon Velocity
(B) Depend Upon Displacement
(C) Depend Upon Velocity and Displacement
(D) is independent of Velocity and Displacement
Answer – D
58. At node Amplitude of Vibration is

(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) Any
Answer – A
59 In damped vibration the damping forced is proportional to

(A) Displacement
(B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration
(D) Jerk
Answer – B
60 A vibrating Beam has following Degrees of freedom

(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer – C
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then
the body is said to have
A) free vibration
B) forced vibration
C) damped vibration
D) none of the mentioned
Ans-C
Q2. Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body
moves
A) perpendicular to its axis
B) parallel to its axis
C) in a circle about its axis
Ans: B
Q.3When a body is subjected to transverse vibrations, the stress induced in a

body will be
A) shear stress
B) tensile stress
C) compressive stress
Ans: B
Q4. The natural frequency (in Hz) of free longitudinal vibrations is equal to
A) 1/2π√s/m
B) 1/2π√g/δ
C) 0.4985/δ
D) all of the mentioned
Ans: D
Q5. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is

A) diameter of the disc
B) span of the shaft
C) eccentricity
D) all of the mentioned
Ans: D
Q6.The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous damping is

d2x/dt2 + c/m X dx/dt + s/m X x = 0
If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be
A) over damped
B) under damped
C) critically damped
Ans: A
Q7. In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of
the amplitude on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic
decrement is equal to
A) x1/x2
B) log (x1/x2)
C) loge (x1/x2)
D) log (x1.x2)
Ans: B
deflection due to the static force, is known as
A) damping factor
B) damping coefficient
C) logarithmic decrement
D) magnification factor
Ans: D
Q9. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn is less than √2 , then for all values of
the damping factor, the transmissibility will be
A) less than unity
B) equal to unity
C) greater than unity
D) zero
Ans: C
Q10. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn > 1, then the phase difference
between the transmitted force and the disturbing force is
A) 0°
B) 90°
C) 180°
D) 270°
Ans: C
Q11. The accelerometer is used as a transducer to measure earthquake in

Richter scale. Its design is based on the principle that
A) its natural frequency is very low in comparison to the frequency of vibration
B) its natural frequency is very high in comparison to the frequency of vibration
C) its natural frequency is equal to the frequency of vibration
D) measurement of vibratory motion is without any reference point
Ans: C
Q12. While calculating the natural frequency of a spring-mass system, the

effect of the mass of the spring is accounted for by adding X times its value to
the mass, where X is
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/4
D) ¾
Ans: B
Q13. Critical speed is expressed as

A) rotation of shaft in degrees
B) rotation of shaft in radians
C) rotation of shaft in minutes
D) natural frequency of the shaft
Ans: D
Q14. The first critical speed of an automobile running on a sinusoidal road is

calculated by (modeling it as a single degree of freedom system)
A) Resonance
B) Approximation
C) Superposition
D) Rayleigh quotient
Ans: A
Q15. The natural frequency of a spring-mass system on earth is ωn. The natural
frequency of this system on the moon (gmoon = gearth/6) is
A) ωn
B) 0.408ωn
C) 0.204ωn
D) 0.167ωn
Ans: A
Q16. A vehicle suspension system consists of a spring and a damper. The

stiffness of the spring is 3.6 kN/m and the damping constant of the damper is
400 Ns/m. If the mass is 50 kg, then the damping factor (d ) and damped
natural frequency (fn), respectively, are
A) 0.471 and 1.19 Hz
B) 0.471 and 7.48 Hz
C) 0.666 and 1.35 Hz
D) 0.666 and 8.50 Hz
Ans: A
Q17. For an under damped harmonic oscillator, resonance

A) occurs when excitation frequency is greater than undamped natural
frequency
B) occurs when excitation frequency is less than undamped natural frequency
C) occurs when excitation frequency is equal to undamped natural frequency
D) never occurs
Ans: C
Q18. Assuming the shaft to be freely supported. Calculate the whirling speed
of the shaft : 2 cm diameter and 60 cm long carrying a mass of 1 kg at its mid-
point. The density of the shaft material is 40 Mg/m3, and Young’s modulus is
200 GN/m2.
A) 2598
B) 2434
C) 2756
D) 2634
Ans: A
Q19. The speed at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection from
the axis of rotation of the shaft becomes infinite, is known as _________
A) Whirling speed
B) Rotational speed
C) Stabilizing speed
D) Reciprocating speed
Ans: A
Q20. From the following data, calculate the critical speed of the shaft in rps.
Shaft diameter = 5mm
length = 200mm
Mass of disc = 50Kg at centre of shaft
E = 200GN/m2
Centre of disc at 0.25m away from centre of axis of shaft.
A) 8.64
B) 9.64
C) 10.64
D) 11.64
Ans: A
Q21. From the following data, calculate the static deflection in mm.
Critical speed = 8.64 rps
E = 100GN/m2
A) 3.32
B) 9.64
C) 10.64
D) 11.64
Ans: A
Q22. If the static deflection is 1.665×10-3m, calculate the critical speed of the
shaft in rps.
A) 8.64
B) 9.64
C) 10.64
D) 12.2
Ans: D
Q23. From the following data, calculate the static deflection in mm.
Shaft diameter = 5mm
length = 200mm
E = 100GN/m2
A) 4.32
B) 9.64
C) 10.64
D) 11.64
Ans: A
Q24. Fluid resistance causes damping which is known as ______

A) Resistance damping
B) Fluid damping
C) Viscous damping
D) Liquid damping
Ans: C
Q25. In damped vibrations, the amplitude of the resulting vibration gradually

reduces. This is due to the reason that an amount of energy is always
dissipated to overcome the ________
A) Frictional resistance
B) Work done
C) Fluid pressure
D) Air pressure
Ans: A
Q26. The resistance to the motion of the body is provided by ______

A) Medium of vibration
B) Speed of vibration
C) Length of the material
D) External friction
Ans: A
Q27. In which direction does the damping force acts?

A) Opposite to the motion
B) Along the motion
C) Perpendicular to motion
D) Variable
Ans: A
Q28. In which direction does the accelerating force acts?

A) Opposite to the motion
B) Along the motion
C) Perpendicular to motion
D) Variable
Ans: B
Q29. In which of the following cases, overdamping occurs?

A) Roots are real
B) Roots are complex conjugate
C) Roots are equal
D) Independent of the equation
Ans: A
Q30. In which of the following cases, underdamping occurs?

A) Roots are real
B) Roots are complex conjugate
C) Roots are equal
D) Independent of the equation
Ans: B
Q31. The ratio of the actual damping coefficient (c) to the critical damping
coefficient (cc ) is known as _________
A) Damping factor
B) Damping coefficient
C) Resistive factor
D) Resistive coefficient
Ans: A
Q32. Calculate critical damping coefficient in Ns/m from the following data.
mass = 200Kg
ω = 20rad/s
A) 25,132
B) 26,132
C) 27,132
D) Not possible
Ans: D
Q33. Calculate critical damping coefficient in N/m/s from the following data:
mass = 100Kg
ω = 40rad/s
A) 25,132
B) 26,132
C) 27,132
D) 28,132
Ans: A
Q34. Calculate critical damping coefficient in N/m/s from the following data:
mass = 100Kg
ω = 10rad/s
A) 5,132
B) 6,283
C) 7,132
D) 8,132
Ans: A
Q35. Calculate damping ratio from the following data:

mass = 200Kg
ω = 20rad/s
damping coefficient = 800 N/m/s
A) 0.03
B) 0.04
C) 0.05
D) 0.06
Ans: A
Q36. Calculate damping ratio from the following data:
mass = 200Kg
ω = 20rad/s
damping coefficient = 1000 N/m/s
A) 0.03
B) 0.04
C) 0.05
D) 0.06
Ans: B
Q37. Magnification factor is the ratio of the maximum displacement due to

forced vibrations to the deflection due to _______
A) Static force
B) Dynamic force
C) Torsion
D) Compression
Ans: A
Q38. In which of the cases the factor c = 0?

A) When there is damping
B) No damping
C) Resonance
D) c is never 0
Ans: B
Q39. A body of mass 20 kg is suspended from a spring which deflects 20mm

under this load. Calculate the frequency of free vibrations in Hz.
A) 3.5
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Ans: A
Q40. Which of the following systems produce a vibration in the foundation?

A) Unbalanced machine
B) Balanced machine
C) Coupled machine
D) Uncoupled machine
Ans: A
Q41. Which of the following is correct regarding isolation factor?

A) Dimensionless quantity
B) Has Newton as its unit
C) Has joule as its Unit
D) Has Hz as its unit
Ans: A
Q42. Which of the following is a type of transmitted force to the foundation?

A) Damping force
B) Undamping force
C) Tensile force
D) Torsional force
Ans: A
Q43. If the damper is not provided and the system is in resonance, which of
the following is the correct isolation factor?
A) 0
B) 1/2
C) 1/4
D) Infinity
Ans: D
Q44. If isolation factor is negative, then what is the phase difference between
transmitted and disturbing force?
A) 180°
B) 90°
C) 450°
D) 360°
Ans: A
Q45. Which of the following is true regarding Ɛ>1?

A) Transmitted force is greater than applied force
B) Transmitted force is less than applied force
C) Spring force is less than applied force
D) Damping force is less than applied force
Ans: A
Q46. Which of the following relation is correct regarding free torsional

vibrations of a single motor system?
A) Independent of modulus of rigidity
B) Independent of polar moment of inertia
C) Dependent on mass moment of inertia
D) Independent of length of shaft
Ans: C
Q47. If the polar moment of inertia is increased to four times, then what will
be the effect on free torsional vibrations of a single motor system?
A) Increases 4 times
B) Increases 2 times
C) Decreases 4 times
D) Decreases 2 times
Ans: B
Q48. If the mass moment of inertia is increased to four times, then what will
be the effect on free torsional vibrations of a single motor system?
Ans: D
Q49. Calculate the free torsional vibrations of a single motor system from the
following data:
C = 8 GN/m2, L=9m, I = 600 Kg-m2, J = 8×104 m4
A) 162,132
B) 172,132
C) 182,132
D) 192,132
Ans: B
Q50. If the length inertia is decreased to nine times, then what will be the
effect on free torsional vibrations of a single motor system?
Ans: A
Q51. Calculate the Polar moment of inertia in m4 of a single motor system from
the following data:
C = 8 GN/m2, L=9m, I = 600 Kg-m2, f=10 Hz
A) 0.00027
B) 0.00032
C) 0.00045
D) 0.00078
Ans: A
Q52. Consider P and Q as the shaft having two rotors at the end of it, what is
the point N known as in the given figure?
A) Node
B) Elastic point
C) Inelastic point
D) Breaking point
Ans: A
Q53. For occurrence of free torsional vibration which of the condition is

necessary?
A) Rotors moving in same direction
B) Rotors having same frequency
C) Rotors having different frequency
D) Rotors rotate in the same sense
Ans: B
Q54. Keeping the mass moment of inertia of both the shafts in a two rotor
system same, if the length of one shaft is doubled what should be the effect on
the length of other shaft?
A) Doubled
B) Halved
C) Constant
D) Increased to 4 times
Ans: A
Q55. For a two rotor system, the mass moment of inertia of one shaft(A) is
twice the other(B), then what is the relation between the length of the shafts.
A) 2L(A) = L(B)
B) L(A) = 2L(B)
C) L(A) = L(B)
D) 2L(A) = 3L(B)
Ans: A
Q56. For a two rotor system, the length of one shaft(A) is twice the other(B),
then what is the relation between the Mass moment of inertia of the shafts.
A) 2I(A) = I(B)
B) I(A) = 2I(B)
C) I(A) = I(B)
D) 2I(A) = 3I(B)
Ans: A
Q57. Keeping the mass moment of inertia of left end and the right end shafts
in a three rotor system same, if the length of one shaft is doubled what should
be the effect on the length of other shaft?
A) Doubled
B) Halved
C) Constant
D) Increased to 4 times
Ans: A
Q58. What is the total number of nodes formed in a three rotor system if the
rotors at one of the ends and the one in the middle rotate in the same
direction?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Ans: B
Q59. In a three rotor system, for the middle rotor, if the stiffness of both the
length either side of the rotor is increased to two times what will be the effect
on total stiffness of the middle rotor?
A) Remains constant
B) Decreases by two times
C) Increases by two times
D) Increases by 4 times
Ans: C
Q60. In which of the following condition torsional vibration will not take place,
considering 3 rotors A, B and C. A is rotating in clockwise direction.
A) B in clockwise C in anticlockwise
B) C in clockwise B in anticlockwise
C) B and C in clockwise
D) B and C in anticlockwise
Ans: C
Model Question paper
Subject: MECHANICAL VIBRATION
Branch: MECHANICAL
Class: B.E.
Semester: VIII
1) In which type of vibrations, amplitude of vibration goes on decreasing every

cycle?
a. Damped vibrations
b. Undamped vibrations
c. Both a. and b.
Ans-a
2) During transverse vibrations, shaft is subjected to which type of stresses?
a. Tensile stresses
b. Torsional shear stress
c. Bending stresses
d. All of the above
Ans -c
3) Calculate equivalent stiffness of the spring for the system shown below, which has
spring stiffness of 3000 N/m
a. 1000 N/m
b. 2250 N/m
c. 2000 N/m
Ans-b
4) Two springs have spring stiffness of 1500 N/m and 2000 N/m respectively. If they
are connected in series, what is the spring stiffness if they are replaced by an
equivalent system.3500 N/m
a. 3500 N/m
b. 1166 N/m
c. 857.63 N/m
Ans-c
5) Which type of vibrations are also known as transient vibrations?
a. Undamped vibrations
b. Damped vibrations
c. Torsional vibrations
d. Transverse vibrations
Ans- b
6) Which of the following relations is true when springs are connected parallelly?
where K = spring stiffness
a. Ke = K1 + K2
b. (1 / Ke) = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
c. Ke = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
Ans-a
7) What are deterministic vibrations?
a. Vibrations caused due to known exciting force

b. Vibrations caused due to unknown exciting force
c. Vibrations which are aperiodic in nature
Ans-a
8) Which of the following vibrations are classified according to magnitude of

actuating force?
a. Torsional vibrations
b. Deterministic vibrations
c. Transverse vibrations
d. All of the above
Ans-b
9) What are discrete parameter systems?
a. Systems which have infinite number of degree of freedom

b. Systems which have finite number of degree of freedom
c. Systems which have no degree of freedom
Ans-b
10) Which among the following is the fundamental equation of S.H.M.?
a. x + (k / m) x =0
b. x + ω2x =0
c. x + (k/ m)2 x =0
d. x2 + ωx2 =0
Ans-b
11) Determine logarithmic decrement, if the amplitude of a vibrating body reduces to

1/6th in two cycles.
a. 0.223
b. 0.8958
c. 0.3890
Ans-b
12) Calculate coefficient of viscous damper, if the system is critically damped.


a. 100.5 x 103 N-s/m

b. 80 x 103 N-s/m
c. 42 x 103 N-s/m
Ans-c
13) Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of
30000 N/m and mass of 20 kg?
a. 12.32 Hz
b. 4.10 Hz
c. 6.16 Hz
Ans-c
14) Calculate natural frequency of damped vibration, if damping factor is 0.52 and
natural frequency of the system is 30 rad/sec which consists of machine supported on
springs and dashpots.
a. 25.62 rad/sec
b. 20.78 rad/sec
c. 14.4 rad/sec
d. 15.33 rad/sec
Ans-a
15) Calculate logarithmic decrement if damping factor is 0.33.
a. 1.36
b. 3.23
c. 5.16
d. 2.19
Ans-d
16) In damped free vibrations, which parameters indicate vibrations?
a. Natural frequency
b. Rate of decay of amplitude
c. Both a. and b.
Ans-a,b
17) According to D' Alembert's principle, m (d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx =0 is the

differential equation for damped free vibrations having single degree of freedom. What
will be the solution to this differential equation if the system is critically damped?
a. x = (A + Bt) e– ωt
b. x = X e– ξωt (sin ωdt + Φ)
c. x = (A – Bt) e– ωt
d. x = X e– ξωt (cos ωdt + Φ)
Ans-a
18) Which of the following statements is/are true for coulomb damping?
1. Coulomb damping occurs due to friction between two lubricated surfaces

2. Damping force is opposite to the direction of motion of vibrating body
3. For smooth surfaces, coefficient of friction depends upon velocity
4. Damping force depends upon the rubbing velocity between two rubbing surfaces
a. Only statement 1
b. Statement 2, 3 and statement 4
c. Only statement 2
d. All the above statements are true
Ans-c
19) What is meant by critical damping coefficient?
a. Frequency of damped free vibrations is less than zero

b. The motion is a periodic in nature
c. Both a. and b.
Ans-b
20) Which of the following relations is true for viscous damping?
a. Force α relative displacement

b. Force α relative velocity
c. Force α (1 / relative velocity)
Ans-b
21) Eddy current damping is an example of _____
a. Coulomb damping
b. Hysteresis damping
c. Viscous damping
d. Dry friction damping
Ans-c
22) Which formula is used to calculate mass moment of inertia (IG) of a circular rim
about the axis through centre of gravity?
a. mr2/2
b. mr2/12
c. mr2/4
d. mr2
Ans-d
23) δ = (W a2b2) / (3 EIl) is the value of deflection for ______
a. simply supported beam which has central point load

b. simply supported beam which has eccentric point load
c. simply supported beam which has U.D.L. point load per unit length
d. fixed beam which has central point load
Ans-b
24) Which among the following is the value of static deflection (δ) for a fixed beam
a. (Wl3) /(192 EI)

b. (Wl2) /(192 EI)
c. (Wl3) /(384 EI)
Ans-a
25) According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
a. Energy method
b. Rayleigh’s method
c. Equilibrium method
d. All of the above
Ans-b
26) Calculate critical speed of a vehicle which moves on a road having sinusoidal
profile of wavelength 2.5 m. The mass of the vehicle is 300 kg and natural frequency of
its spring suspension system is 8 rad/sec
a. 4.15 m/sec
b. 3.18 m/sec
c. 2.36 m/sec
Ans-b
27) Calculate damped natural frequency, if a spring mass damper system is

subjected to periodic disturbing force of 30 N. Damping coefficient is equal to 0.76
times of critical damping coefficient and undamped natural frequency is 5 rad/sec
a. 3.99 rad/sec
b. 2.13 rad/sec
c. 4.12 rad/sec
d. 3.24 rad/sec
Ans-d
28) What is the effect of damping on phase angle at resonance frequency?

a. Phase angle increases as damping increases
b. Damping has no effect on phase angle
c. Phase angle increases as damping decreases
Ans-b
29) When frequency ratio (ω/ωn) is greater than unity, phase angle decreases as
______
a. damping factor increases

b. damping factor decreases
c. both a. and b.
Ans-a
30) At which frequency ratio, phase angle increases as damping factor increases?
a. When frequency ratio is less than unity

b. When frequency ratio is more than unity
c. When frequency ratio is zero
d. All of the above
Ans-a
31) Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. Magnification factor is minimum at resonance

2. The maximum value of amplification factor increases as damping factor decreases
3. The maximum value of amplification factor increases as damping factor increases
4. Magnification factor is maximum at resonance
a. Statement 1 and statement 2

b. Statements 1,2 and 3
c. Statement 2 and statement 4
Ans-c
32) Magnification factor is the ratio of ______
a. zero frequency deflection and amplitude of steady state vibrations

b. amplitude of steady state vibrations and zero frequency deflection
c. amplitude of unsteady state vibrations and zero frequency distribution
Ans-b
33) Consider the steady-state absolute amplitude equation shown below, if ω / ωn =

√2 then amplitude ratio (X/Y) =?
(X/Y) = √{1 + [ 2ξ (ω/ωn)]2} / √{[1 – (ω/ωn)2]2 + {2ξ (ω/ωn)2}
a. 0
b. 1
c. less than 1
d. greater than 1
Ans-b
34) What is meant by phase difference or phase angle in forced vibrations?
a. Difference between displacement vector (xp) and velocity vector Vp

b. Angle in which displacement vector leads force vector by (F0 sinωt)
c. Angle in which displacement vector (xp) lags force vector (F0 sinωt)
Ans-c
35) The equation m(d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx = F0 sin ωt is a second order differential
a. complementary function
b. particular function
c. sum of complementary and particular function
d. difference of complementary and particular function
Ans-c
36) Which of the following statements is/are false for pneumatic isolators ?
1. Pneumatic isolators are used when driving frequencies below 10 Hz are present
2. Nausea is caused due to noise at low frequencies
3. At high natural frequencies, isolators can obtain efficiency of 90%
4. Pneumatic isolators have limited load carrying capacity
a. Only statement 1
b. Only statement 3
c. Only statement 2, 4
d. All the above statements are false
Ans-b
37) Which of the following statements is/are true for elastomers?
a. Elastomers can be used for static deflections up to 12 mm

b. Elastomers can provide natural frequencies below 5 Hz
c. Elastomers have good performance at high frequencies
Ans-d
38) A vibrating machine of 100 kg is mounted on a rubber pad which has stiffness of
500 N/m. Determine force transmitted to the foundation if the unbalanced force 500 N
acts on it. The frequency ratio (ω/ωn) is 1.5 and ξ = 0.5
a. 461.62 N
b. 400.23 N
c. 450 N
d. Insufficient data
Ans-a
39) Transmissibility is the ratio of ______
a. force transmitted to the supporting structure and force impressed upon the system
b. displacement amplitude of mass and displacement amplitude of supporting structure
c. both a. and b.
Ans-c
40) What is the function of the controller in active vibration isolation systems?
a. Detect vibrations to be controlled

b. Reposition the masses
c. Interpret detected vibrations and execute commands
d. All of the above
Ans-c
41) Which among the following is not considered when reference standards are used
in the field of mechanical vibration and shock, monitoring and analysis of machines?
a. Terminology
b. Methods of testing
c. Methods of measurement
Ans-d
42) Which basic document describes general requirements for measurement and
evaluation of machine vibrations using shaft measurements?
a. ISO – 10816-1
b. ISO – 7919-1
c. Both a. and b.
Ans-b
43) In the graph shown below, the region in which frequency ratio (ω/ωn) > √2 is
known as____
a. Amplification region
b. Isolation region
c. Spring controlled region
Ans-b
44) Which of the following is a type of untuned vibration absorber?

a. Houdaille damper
b. Torsional vibration absorber
c. Centrifugal pendulum absorber
d. All of the above
Ans-a
45) Which of the following methods can be used to reduce excitation level at the
source?
a. Lubrication of joints
b. Balancing inertia forces
c. Both a. and b.
Ans-c
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. The graphical representation of the amplitudes and phase angles of the
various frequency components of a periodic function is known as a
A. Spectral diagram
B. Frequency Diagram
C. Harmonic Diagram
D. None of these
Ans.: (A) Spectral diagram
Q2. When the stress-strain curve of the material of a vibrating system exhibits a
hysteresis loop, the damping is
A. Viscous
B. Coulomb
C. Solid
D. All of these
Ans.: (C) Solid
Q3. In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40 N/m/s and

critical damping coefficient is 420 N/m/s, then logarithmic decrement is equal
to
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.8
Ans: (C) 0.6
Q4. If ω/ωn is very high for a body vibrating under steady state vibrations, the
phase angle for all values of damping factors, will tend to approach
(A). 0°
(B). 90°
(C). 180°
(D). 360°
Ans: (C) 180°
Q5. In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration
(A). decreases linearly with time
(B). increases linearly with time
(C). decreases exponentially with time
(D). increases exponentially with time
Ans: (C). decreases exponentially with time
Q6. The frequency of damped vibrations with viscous damping is __________

the frequency of undamped vibrations.
(A) More than

(B) Less than
(C) Same as
(D) None of these
Ans: (B) less than
Q7. Which type of vibrations are also known as transient vibrations?
(A). Undamped vibrations

(B). Damped vibrations
(C). Torsional vibrations
(D).Transverse vibrations
Ans: (B). Damped vibrations
Q8. During transverse vibrations, shaft is subjected to which type of stresses?
(A)Tensile stresses
(B)Torsional shear stress
(C)Bending stresses
Ans: (C)Bending stresses
Q9. What are discrete parameter systems?

(B)Systems which have finite number of degree of freedom
(C)Systems which have no degree of freedom
Ans: (B) Systems which have finite number of degree of freedom

10. A vibrating machine of 100 kg is mounted on a rubber pad which has
stiffness of 500 N/m. Determine force transmitted to the foundation if the
unbalanced force 500 N acts on it. The frequency ratio (ω/ωn) is 1.5 and ξ =
0.5
(A). 461.62 N
(B). 400.23 N
(C).450 N
(D). Insufficient data
Ans: (A). 461.62 N
11. Transmissibility is the ratio of ______
(A). force transmitted to the supporting structure and force impressed upon the
system
(B). displacement amplitude of mass and displacement amplitude of supporting

structure
(C). both A. and B.
Ans: (C). both A. and B.
12. Which of the following is a type of untuned vibration absorber?
(A) Houdaille damper

(B)Torsional vibration absorber
(C) Centrifugal pendulum absorber
Ans: (A) Houdaille damper
13. Determine logarithmic decrement, if the amplitude of a vibrating body

reduces to 1/6th in two cycles.
(A) 0.223
(B) 0.8958
(C) 0.3890
(D)None of the above
Ans: (B) 0.8958
14. Calculate coefficient of viscous damper, if the system is critically damped.

Consider the following data: Mass of spring mass damper system (m) = 350 kg,
Static deflection = 2 x 10–3 m, Natural frequency of the system = 60 rad/sec
(A) 100.5 x 103 N-s/m
(B) 80 x 103 N-s/m
(C) 42 x 103 N-s/m
Ans: (C) 42 x 103 N-s/m
15. Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring

stiffness of 30000 N/m and mass of 20 kg?
(A) 12.32 Hz
(B) 4.10 Hz
(C) 6.16 Hz
(D) None of above

Ans: (C) 6.16 Hz
16. Calculate natural frequency of damped vibration, if damping factor is 0.52

and natural frequency of the system is 30 rad/sec which consists of machine
supported on springs and dashpots.
(A) 25.62 rad/sec
(B) 20.78 rad/sec
(C) 14.4 rad/sec
(D) 15.33 rad/sec
Ans: (A) 25.62 rad/sec
17. Calculate logarithmic decrement if damping factor is 0.33.
(A) 1.36
(B) 3.23
(C) 5.16
(D) 2.19
Ans: (D) 2.19
18. In damped free vibrations, which parameters indicate vibrations?
(A). Natural frequency
(B) Rate of decay of amplitude
(C) Both a. and b.
Ans: (C) Both (A) and (B)
19. Eddy current damping is an example of _____
(A) Coulomb damping
(B) Hysteresis damping

(C) Viscous damping
(D) Dry friction damping
Ans: (C) Viscous damping
20. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is

equal to maximum potential energy at extreme position?
(A) Energy method
Ans: (B) Rayleigh's method
21. A spring mass system with spring constant ‘K’ N/m and mass ‘m’ kg. It has
natural frequency 12 Hz. If mass increase by 4 kg then natural frequency
reduced by 16%. Determine the mass of the system as-
(A) 17.05 kg
(B) 19 kg
(C) 50 kg
(D) 10 kg
Ans: (A)17.05 kg
22. Vibration absorbers are used to control—
(A) Beat phenomena
(B) Structural resonance
(C) Damping factor
(D) Angular speed
Ans: (B) Structural resonance
23. The pendulum absorber is design to eliminates –

(A) Rectilinear vibration
(B) Torsional vibration
(C) Both A& B
(D) None of these
Ans: (C) Both A& B
24. The natural frequency of the pendulum absorber is always proportional to
(A) Speed of rotating body
(B) Acceleration of the rotating body
(C) Displacement of the rotating
Ans: (A) Speed of rotating body
25. Dynamic vibration absorber is suitable for
(A) Constant speed machine
(B) Varying speed machine
(C) Zero speed range machine
Ans: (A) Constant speed machine
26. In Coulomb damping the initial displacement X0 in one complete one cycle
is reduced by-
(A) 2F/K
(B) 4F/K
(C) F/K
(D) None of these
Ans: (B) 4F/K
27. Damped natural frequency of the system is-

(A) ωd = ω n 1 − ς 2
(B) ωd = ω n 1 − 4ς 2
(C) ωd = ω n2 1 − ς 2
(D) All of these
Ans: (A) ωd = ω n 1 − ς 2
28. The expression for logarithmic decrement (δ ) is
(A) δ = ω n 1 − ς 2
2πζ
(B) δ =
1− ζ 2
2π
(C) δ =
1− ζ 2
πζ
(D) δ =
1− ζ 2
2πζ
Ans: (B) δ =
1− ζ 2
29. A vibrating system is defined by the following parameter

m = 3 Kg, K=100 N/m, C=3 N-s/m , the logarithmic decrement is
(A) 0.542
(B) 0.684
(C)0.235
(D) 0.985
Ans: (A) 0.542

x + 36π 2 x = 0 . Its natural
30. The equation of free vibration of system is &&
frequency is-
(A)3 Hz
(B) 6 Hz
(C) 12 Hz
(D) 81 Hz
Ans: (A) 3 Hz
31. The critical speed of a shaft depends upon its
(A) Mass
(B) Stiffness
(C) Mass & Stiffness
(D) Stiffness & Eccentricity
Ans: (C) Mass & Stiffness
32. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is-
(A) Diameter of disc
(B) Span of shaft
(C) Eccentricity
(D) All of these
Ans: (D) All of these
33. Rotating shaft tends to vibrate violently in transverse directions at certain

speed. The speed is known as
(A) Critical Speed
(B) Whirling speed
(C) Whipping speed

Ans: (D) All of the above
34. A simple pendulum of length 5 m, with a bob of mass 1 kg, is in simple

harmonic motion as it passes through its mean position, the bob has a speed of 5
m/s. The net force on the bob at the mean position is
(A) Zero
(B)2.5 N
(C)5 N
(D)25N
Ans: (A) Zero
35. A simple spring mass vibrating system has a natural frequency of N. If the
spring stiffness is halved and the mass is doubled, then the natural frequency
will become
(A) N/2
(B) 2N
(C) 4N
(D) 8N
Ans: (A) N/2
36. The natural frequency of the spring mass system shown in the figure is
closest
to
(A) 8 Hz
(B) 10 Hz
(C) 12 Hz
(D) 14 Hz
Ans: (B) 10 Hz
37. A uniform rigid rod of mass m = I kg and length L = 1 m is hinged at its

centre and laterally supported at one end by a spring of constant k = 300 N/m.
The natural frequency ωn in rad/s is
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C)30
(D)40
Ans: (A) 10
38. A uniform cantilever beam undergoes transverse vibrations. The number of

natural frequencies associated with the beam is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) infinite
Ans: (D) Infinite
39. A rolling disc of radius ‘r’ and mass ‘m’ is connected to one end of a linear
spring of stiffness ‘k’, as shown in the figure. The natural frequency of
oscillation is given by which one of the following
2k
(A) ω=
3m
k
(B) ω=
m
2k
(C) ω=
m
k
(D) ω=
3m
2k
Ans: (A) ω =
3m
40. Consider the following methods: 1. Energy method 2. Equilibrium

method 3. Rayleigh's method Which of these methods can be used for
determining the natural frequency of the
free vibrations?
(A) 1& 2
(B)1,2 & 3
(C) 1&3
(D) 2& 3
Ans: (B) 1,2 & 3
41. The equation of motion for a damped viscous vibration is

&& &
3X+9X+27X=0 The damping factor is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.0
Ans: (B) 0.50
42. The transmitted force through a mass-spring damper system will be greater
than the transmitted through rigid supports for all values of damping factors, if
the frequency ratio (ω ωn ) is
(A) More than 2
(B) Less than 2
(C) Equal to one
(D) More than one
Ans: (B) Less than 2
43. A mass of 1 kg is attached to the end of a spring with stiffness 0.7 N/mm.
The critical damping coefficient of this system is
(A) 1.40 Ns/m
(B) 18.522 Ns/m
(C) 52.92 Ns/m
(D) 529.20 Ns/m
Ans: (C) 52.92 Ns/m
44. A spring-mass suspension has a natural frequency of 40 rad/s. What is the

damping ratio required if it is desired to reduce this frequency to 20 rad/s by
adding a damper to it?
3
(A)
2
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
2
(D) 1
4
3
Ans: (A)
2
45. When the mass of a critically damped single degree of freedom system is
deflected from its equilibrium position and released, it will
(A) Return to equilibrium position without oscillation

(B) Oscillate with increasing time period
(C) Oscillate with decreasing amplitude
(D) Oscillate with constant amplitude.
Ans: (A) Return to equilibrium position without oscillation
46. In a system subjected to damped forced vibrations, the ratio of maximum

displacement to the static deflection is known as
(A) Critical damping ratio
(B) Damping factor
(C) Logarithmic decrement
(D) Magnification factor
Ans: (D) Magnification factor
47. Under logarithmic decrement, the amplitude of successive vibrations are-
(A) Constant
(B) In arithmetic progression

(C) In geometric progression
(D) In logarithmic progression
Ans: (C) In geometric progression
48. If ω ωn = 2 where ω is the frequency of excitation and ωn is the natural

frequency of vibrations, then the transmissibility of vibrations will be
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.0
Ans: (B) 1.0
49. Whirling speed of a shaft coincides with the natural frequency of its
(A) Longitudinal vibration
(B) Transverse vibration
(C) Torsional vibration
(D) Coupled bending torsional vibration
Ans: (B) Transverse vibration
50. When a two degree of freedom system is subjected to a harmonic force, the
system vibrates at:
(A) The frequency of applied force
(B) The smaller natural frequency
(C) The larger natural frequency
(D) All of these
Ans: (A) the frequency of applied force
51. The number of degrees of freedom of a vibrating system depends on
(A) Number of masses
(B) Number of coordinates used to describe the position of each mass
(C) Number of masses and the degrees of freedom of each of the masses
Ans: (B) number of coordinates used to describe the position of each mass
52. A two degree of freedom system has:
(A) Many normal modes

(B) Two normal modes
(C) One normal modes
Ans: (A) Many normal modes
53. The equations of motion of a two degree of freedom system, in general, are
in the form of:
(A) coupled differential equations
(B) coupled equations
(C) coupled algebric equations
(D) Uncoupled differential equations
Ans: (A) coupled differential equations
54. Critical Speed of the shaft defined as
(A) ωc = g δ
(B) ωc = δ g
(C) ωc = 2π δ g
(D) ωc = 2π g δ
ωc = g δ
Ans: (A)
55. Torsional stiffness is defines as
(A) K t = GIp L
(B) K t = EI p L
(C) K t = GT L
(D) K t = GI p M
Ans: (A) K t = GIp L

56. When two harmonic motions, with frequencies close to one another, are
added, the resulting motion exhibits a phenomenon known as
(A) Beat Phenomena
(B) Resonance
(C) Damping ratio
(D) None of these
Ans: (A) Beat Phenomena
57. Consider the sum of harmonic

motions, x(t) = x1(t) + x 2 (t) = Acos(ω t + α ) with x1(t) = 15 cos(ω t) and
x1(t) = 20 cos(ω t + 1) , The amplitude A is given by
(A) 30.8088
(B) 35
(C) 20
(D) 12
Ans: (A) 30.8088
58. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring

constants k1 and k2 is held between two rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent
spring constant is
k1 + k 2
(A)
2
k1 + k 2
(B)
k1k 2
k1k 2
(C)
k1 + k 2
(D) k1 + k 2
Ans: (D) k1 + k 2
59. If a system, after an initial disturbance, is left to vibrate on its own, the
frequency with which it oscillates without external forces is known as
(A) Natural Frequency
(B) Amplitude
(C) Time period
(D)None of these
Ans: (A) Natural Frequency
60. Vibration is defined as
(A) Sinusoidal motion
(B) To and fro motion
(C) Oscillatory motion
(D) All of these
Ans: (D) All of these

Model Question paper
Operation Research Technique ANS
CLASS-BE MAX MARKS-60
TIME-90 MIN
Each question carry one marks
UNIT-I A
1. Operations Research approach is ______________.
A. multi-disciplinary
B. intuitive
C. collect essential data
2. Operations Research has the characteristics that it is done by a team D

of -----------------
A. Scientists
B. Mathematicians
C. Academics
D. All of the above
3. Operations Research was known as an ability to win a war without really going in to D
a -------------
A. Battle field
B. Fighting
C. War
D. Both A and B
4 . Operations Research is a ----------------- D
A. Science
B. Art
C. Mathematics
D. Both A and B
5. Which of the following is not the phase of OR methodology? D

A. Formulating a problem
B. Constructing a model
C. Establishing controls
D. Controlling the environment
6. Operations Research uses models to help the management to determine its C

_____________ scientifically
A. Policies
B. Actions
C. Both A and B
7. In a Linear Programming Problem functions to be maximized or minimized are B

called ______________.
A. constraints
B. objective function
C. basic solution
D. feasible solution
8. Mathematical model of linear programming problem is important because A

______________.
A. it helps in converting the verbal description and numerical data into

mathematical expression
B. decision makers prefer to work with formal models
C. it captures the relevant relationship among decision factors
D. it enables the use of algebraic technique
9. Graphical method of linear programming is useful when the number of decision B

variable are ______________.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
10. This innovative science of Operations Research was discovered during ------------- C
A. Civil War
B. World War I
C. World War II
D. Industrial Revolution
11. The feasible solution of a L.P.P. belongs to D

A. First and second quadrant
B. First and third quadrant
C. Second quadrant
D. Only in the first quadrant
12. Operation research approach is typically based on the use of _______. B
A. physical model.
B. mathematical model.
C. iconic model.
D. descriptive model.
UNIT-II A
13.In maximization cases , ---------- - are assigned to the artificial variables as their
coefficients in the objective function
A. + M
B. -M
C. Zero
D. None of these
14. Key element is also known as ______________. D
A. slack
B. surplus
C. artificial
D. pivot
15. ______________ is a mathematical technique used to solve the problem of A
allocating limited resource among the competing activities.
A. Linear Programming problem
B. Assignment Problem
C. Replacement Problem
D. Non-linear Programming Problem
16. If the given Linear Programming Problem is in its standard form then primal- B
dual pair is ______________.
A. symmetric
B. un symmetric
C. square
D. triangle
17. Feasible solution satisfies __________ C
A. Only constraints
B. only non-negative restriction
C. A and B both
D. Optimum solution
18. In simplex method, we add ---------------- variables in the case of ‘=’ C
A. Slack Variable
B. Surplus Variable
C. Artificial Variable
19.The dual of the dual is ______________. D
A. dual-primal
B. primal-dual
C. dual
D. primal
20. The first step in formulating a linear programming problem is D
A) Identify any upper or lower bound on the decision variables
B) State the constraints as linear combinations of the decision variables
C) Understand the problem
D) Identify the decision variables
21. Linear Programming Problem is a technique of finding the ______________. A
A. optimal value
B. approximate value
C. initial value
D. infeasible value
22. . The cost of a slack variable is _________. A
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1
23. The cost of a surplus variable is _________. A
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1
24 Which of the terms is not used in a linear programming problem C

A. Slack variables
B. Objective function
C. Concave region
D. Feasible solution
UNIT-III D
25 Optimal solution of an assignment problem can be obtained only if
A. Each column has only one zero element
B. Each row has at least one zero element
C. The data is arrangement in a square matrix
26. The assignment algorithm was developed by ______________ method. A
A. HUNGARIAN
B. VOGELS
C. MODI
D. TRAVELING SALES MAN
27. The solution to a transportation problem with m-sources and n-destinations is D

feasible if the numbers of allocations are ______________.
A. m+n
B. mn
C. m-n
D. m+n-1
28. The assignment problem is always a ______________matrix. B
A. circle
B. square
C. rectangle
D. triangle
29. Maximization assignment problem is transformed into a minimization problem C

by______________.
A. adding each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column
B. subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column
C. subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table
D. adding each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table
30 If a transportation problem has four origins and five destinations, the LP B

formulation of the problem will have
A.5 constraints
B.9 constraints
C.18 constraints
D.20 constraints
31. When the total demand is equal to supply then the transportation problem is said A
to be ______________.
A. balanced
B. unbalanced
C. maximization
D. minimization
32. For finding an optimum solution in transportation problem ______________ C

method is used.
A. Simplex
B. Big-M
C. MODI method
D. Hungarian
33. The assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem in which D

______________.
A. number of origins are less than the number of destinations
B. number of origins are greater than the number of destinations
C. number of origins are greater than or equal to the number of destinations
D. number of origins equals the number of destinations
34. In the transportation table, empty cells will be called ______________. B
A. occupied
B. unoccupied
C. no
D. finite
35. The similarity between assignment problem and transportation problem is D

______________.
A. both are rectangular matrices
B. both are square matrices
C. both can be solved y graphical method
D. both have objective function and non-negativity constraints
36.In assignment problem of maximization, the objective is to maximise— A
A. Profit
B. optimization
C. cost
UNIT-IV D
37 A mixed strategy game can be solved by ______________.
A. Matrix method
B. Graphical method
C. Algebraic method
D. All of the above
38.When the sum of gains of one player is equal to the sum of losses to another C
player in a game, this situation is known as ______________.
A. two-person game
B. prisoners’ dilemma.
C. zero-sum game
D. non-zero-sum game
39. A type of decision- making environment is ---- D
A. certainty
B. risk
C. uncertainty
D. all of the above
40. Which of the following describes a Nash equilibrium? B

A. A firm chooses its dominant strategy, if one exists.
B. Every competing firm in an industry chooses a strategy that is optimal given the
choices of every other firm.
C. Market price results in neither a surplus nor a shortage.
D. All firms in an industry are earning zero economic profits.
41. A game is said to be fair if ______________. A
A. lower and upper values are zero
B. only lower value to be zero
C. only upper value to be zero
D. lower and upper values are not equal to zero
42.In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as the— A
A. payoff.
B. penalty.
C. reward.
D. end-game strategy.
43.What happens when minimax and maximin values of the game are same? C
A. No solution exists
B. Solution is mixed
C. Saddle point exists
44.For analyzing the problem , decision – makers should normally study – A
A. Its qualitative aspects
B. Its quantitative aspects
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A and B
45. _____________is used to reduce the game. D
A. Transportation Problem
B. Assignment Problem
C. Dual simplex method
D. Graphical Method
46 In a mixed strategy game A
A. No saddle points exists
B. each player always selects same strategy
C. Each player always selects same strategy without considering other player’s choice
D. all of the above
47. Which of the following is a zero-sum game? B
A. Prisoners' dilemma
B. Chess
C. A cartel member's decision regarding whether or not to cheat
48. Which theory concerns making sound decisions under conditions of certainty, risk C
and uncertainty?
A. Game Theory
B. Network Analysis
C. Decision Theory
UNIT-V A
49. The problem of replacement is felt when job performing units fail
______________.
A. suddenly and gradually
B. gradually
C. suddenly
D. neither gradually nor suddenly
50. The group replacement policy is suitable for identical low cost items which are C
likely to ______________.
A. fail suddenly
B. fail completely and suddenly
C. fail over a period of time
D. be progressive and retrogressive
51. The average annual cost will be minimized by replacing a machine when_____. A
A. average cost to date is equal to the current maintenance cost
B. average cost to date is greater than the current maintenance cost
C. average cost to date is less than the current maintenance cost.
D. next year running cost in more than average cost of nth year
52. In 2 jobs by m machine sequencing, a line at 45° represents: D
A. Job 1 is idle.
B. Job 2 is idle.
C. Both jobs are idle.
D. No job is idle.
53. In sequencing, an optimal path is one that minimizes A
A. Elapsed time
B. Idle time,
C. Processing time
D. Ready time.
54. The objective of sequencing problem is ______. C
A. To find the order in which jobs are to be made
B. To find the time required for completing all the jobs on hand.
C. To find the sequence in which jobs on hand are to be processed to

minimize the total time required for processing the jobs.
D. To maximize the effectiveness.
55. If there are ‘n’ jobs and ‘m’ machines, there will be _____ sequences of doing the B
jobs.
A. n × m
B. (n!) m
C. n m
D. none of above.
56. In solving 2 machine and ‘n’ jobs, the following assumption is wrong: D
A. No passing is allowed
B. Processing times are known,
C. Handling time is negligible,
D. The time of processing depends on the order of machining.
57. The following is one of the assumptions made while sequencing ‘n’ jobs on 2 D
machines:
A. Two jobs must be loaded at a time on any machine.
B. Jobs are to be done alternatively on each machine.
C. The order of completing the jobs has high significance.
D. Each job once started on a machine is to be performed up to completion on that
machine.
58 In jobs A to E have process times as 5, 1, 9, 3,10 on first machine and2, 6, 7, 8,4 on D

second machine, then the optimal sequence is:
A. ECDAB
B. ABCDE
C. BCDEA
D.BDCEA.
59. In jobs A to D have process times as 5, 6, 8, 4 on first machine and 4, 7, 9, 10 on D

second machine, then the optimal sequence is:
A. CDAB
B. ABCD
C. BCDA
D. DBCA.
60. What is concerned with the prediction of replacement costs and determination of B
the most economic replacement policy?
A. Search Theory
B. Theory of replacement
C. Probabilistic Programming
D None of the above
Subject: PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
Branch:MECHANICAL
Class: B.E.
Semester: VIII
Q.1 What is corrosion?

a. Chemical reaction between anode, cathode and electrolyte, which leads
to loss of metal
b. Deterioration of metals due to reaction with its environment
c. Both a. and b.
Ans: c
Q.2 Which of the following methods is not used to coat metallic elements
to prevent corrosion?
a. Electroplating
b Metal cladding
c. Metal spraying
Ans: d
Q.3 The elongation of a bar is 0.5 mm, when a tensile stress of 200 N/mm2
acts on it. Determine original length of a bar if modulus of elasticity is 150 x
103.
a. 375.93 mm
b. 300 mm
c. 360 mm
Ans: a
Q.4 Deformation per unit length is called as ________

a. strain
b. stress
c. modulus of elasticity
Ans: a
Q.5 In design process, which process is followed after selecting the

material?
a. Selecting factor of safety
b. Synthesis
c. Analysis of forces
d. Determining mode of failure
Ans: d
Q.6 Which design consideration deals with appearance of the product?

a. Ergonomics
b. Aesthetics
c. System design
d. Creative design
Ans: b
Q.7 For designing ductile materials, which of the following theories is/are
used?
a. Maximum shear stress theory
b. Shear strain energy theory
c. Both a. and b.
Ans: c
Q.8 St. Venant's theory is also known as maximum _________

a. principle stress theory
b. shear stress theory
c. principle strain theory
d. strain energy theory
Ans: c
Q.9 In simple tensile test, when maximum principle stress reaches the
value of yield point, the material subjected to complex stresses fail. This
theory is called as ________.
a. Coulumb's theory
b. Rankine's theory
c. Venant's theory
d. Von Mises theory
Ans: b
Q.10 Which theory gives satisfactory results for brittle materials?

a. Maximum shear stress theory
b. Maximum principle stress theory
c. Shear strain energy theory
Ans: b
Q.11 _____ of material can be defined as its ability to resist a fluctuating or

repetitive stress.
a) Creep strength
b) Fatigue strength
c) Impact strength
d) Tensile strength
Ans: b
Q.12 What decreases fatigue strength?

a) Shot peening
b) Case hardening
c) Inclusions
d) Grain refinement
Ans: c
Q.13 Which material doesn’t show fatigue limit?

a) Titanium alloys
b) Aluminium
c) Stainless steel
d) High Strength Steel
Ans: b
Q.14 Fatigue fracture consists _____

a) Cleavage
b) Strains
c) Striations
d) Cracks
Ans: c
Q.15 _____ decrease fatigue life of a structure.

a) Round holes
b) Smooth transitions
c) Fillets
d) Square holes
Ans: c
Q.16 Which of the following is a slow rise of plastic deformation under the
action of shear stresses when it is below the yield strength of the material?
a) Brittle fracture
b) Ductile fracture
c) Creep
d) Fatigue
Ans: c
Q.17 Which is more Flexible batch process or continuous process

equipment?
a) Batch process equipment
b) Continuous process equipment
c) Flexibility does not affect the process
d) Both provide same flexibility
Ans: a
Q.18 What factors are of prime importance for the designing of a reactor?
a) Degree of agitation
b) Control of temperature
c) Both of the mentioned
Ans: c
Q.19 Resistance of a material against any external force is termed as

_______________
a) Stiffness
b) Malleability
c) Strength
d) Hardness
Ans: c
Q.20 The property of a material to resist any elastic deformation is termed

as ____________
a) Stiffness
b) Hardness
c) Malleability
d) Strength
Ans: a
Q.21 Belt, chain and rope are called rigid drives.

a) True
b) Belt is a flexible drive only
c) All three are flexible drives
d) None of the listed
Ans: b
Q.22 V belts have v shaped cross section.

a) No, rectangular
b) No, trapezium
c) No, circular
d) No, spherical
Ans: b
Q.23 V belts result in smooth and quite operation even at high speeds.
a) Yes
b) No they are very noisy
c) They are not endless and hence not smooth motion
Ans: a
Q.24 Velocity ratio for chain drive is lesser than that for belts.
a) Yes
b) No
c) In some cases
d) Can’t be determined
Ans: b
Q.25 The layer of a belt is generally called as

a) Ply
b) Layer
c) Segment
d) Sediment
Ans: a
Q.26 Which of the following are functions of bearings?

a) Ensure free rotation of shaft with minimum friction
b) Holding shaft in a correct position
c) Transmit the force of the shaft to the frame
d) All of the listed
Ans: d
Q.27 Which of the following is measure of stiffness?

a) Modulus of elasticity
b) Modulus of plasticity
c) Resilience
d) Toughness
Ans: a
Q.28 Crowning on pulley helps

(A) In decreasing the slip of the belt
(B) In increasing the slip of the belt
(C) To keep the belt in centre on a pulley while it is in motion
(D) To increase pulley life
Ans: c
Q.29 Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) A key is used as a temporary fastening
(B) A key is subjected to tensile stresses
(C) A key is always inserted parallel to the axis of the shaft
(D) A key prevents relative motion between the shaft and boss of the pulley
Ans: b
Q.30 A spring is used to

(A) Measure forces
(B) Apply forces
(C) Store energy
(D) All of these
Ans: a
Q.31 Thickness of tooth measured along the pitch circle is known as

a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
Ans: a
Q.32 Difference between space width and to thickness of tooth along the
pitch circle is known as
a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
Ans: b
Q.33 Top surface of tooth is known as

a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
Ans: d
Q.34 Ratio of diameter of driving gear to the diameter of follower is known

as
a) Gear ratio
b) Module
c) Velocity ratio
Ans: c
Q.35 Distance between the points of contact of two mating teeth from the
beginning of engagement to the end of engagement is known as
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
Ans: b
Q.36 Path of contact from the beginning of engagement to the pitch point is
known as
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
Ans: c
Q.37 Number of teeth in contact is given by

a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Contact ratio
d) Path of recess
Ans: c
Q.38 Which of the following is a standard pressure angle in degree?

a) 20
b) 21
c) 13.5
d) 19
Ans: a
Q.39 Which design consideration deals with appearance of the product?

a. Ergonomics
b. Aesthetics
c. System design
d. Creative design
Ans: b
Q.40 In design process, which process is followed after selecting the

material?
a. Selecting factor of safety
b. Synthesis
c. Analysis of forces
d. Determining mode of failure
Ans: d
Q.41 In stress-strain diagram, up to proportional limit ______

a. stress is inversely proportional to strain
b. force is directly proportional to displacement
c. stress is directly proportional to strain
d. strain is directly proportional to stress
Ans: c
Q.42 Tangential stress in a cylinder is given by [symbols have their usual
meanings].
a) PD/2t
b) 2PD/t
c) PD/4t
d) 4PD/t
Ans: a
Q.43 Longitudinal stress in a cylinder is given by [symbols have their usual

meanings].
a) PD/2t
b) 2PD/t
c) PD/4t
d) 4PD/t
Ans: c
Q.44 Cylinder having inner diameter to wall thickness ratio less than 15 are
a) Thin cylinders
b) Thick Cylinders
c) Moderate cylinders
Ans: b
Q.45 A compound cylinder consists of

a) 2 cylinders
b) Cylinder and a jacket
c) 2 jackets
d) At least two cylinders
Ans: b
Q.46 An unfired pressure vessel is used to carry stem, gases or fluids at

pressure
a) Less than atmospheric pressure
b) Greater than atmospheric pressure
c) Equal to atmospheric pressure
Ans: b
Q.47 Class 1 pressure vessels are used to contain

a) Lethal substances
b) Light duties applications
c) None of the listed
d) LPG
Ans: a
Q.48 Which of the following isn’t true about oil seals?

a) Cheap
b) Can be used over a wide range of lubricating oils
c) Can’t tolerate misalignment
Ans: c
Q.49 If magnitude of contact pressure between sealing lip and rotating

shaft is very high then
a) There is excessive friction
b) High temperature
c) Rapid wear
d) All of the listed
Ans: d
Q.50 Wire ropes have

a) High strength to weight ratio
b) Solent operation even at high velocities
c) Greater reliability
Ans: d
Q.51 A tapered key which fits in a key-way in the hub and is flat on the
shaft, is known as
(A) Woodruff key
(B) Feather key
(C) Flat saddle key
(D) Gib head key
Ans: c
Q.52 Which of the following has threads at both ends?

(A) Bolt
(B) Tap bolt
(C) Stud
(D) None of these
Ans: c
Q.53 Which of the following spring is used in mechanical wrist watch?

(A) Helical compression spring
(B) Spiral spring
(C) Torsion spring
(D) Belleville spring
Ans: c
Q.54 In helical bevel gearing, the axes of shafts are __________ and the
teeth are curved.
(A) Intersecting
(B) Non-intersecting and non-parallel
(C) Intersecting and non-parallel
(D) None of these
Ans: b
Q.55 Cylinder having inner diameter to wall thickness ratio less than 15 are
a) Thin cylinders
b) Thick Cylinders
c) Moderate cylinders
Ans: b
Q.56 Autogreggate is a process of ___ stressing the cylinder.

a) Pre
b) Post
c) Over
Ans: a
Q.57Autogreggate is a process of ___ stressing the cylinder.

a) Pre
b) Post
c) Over
Ans: a
Q.58 In design of wire ropes, bending stress is converted into an equivalent

bending load which is given by [d= diameter of individual wire and D=
diameter of sheave].
a) AEd/D
b) 2AEd/D
c) AEd/2D
Ans: a
Q.59 An unfired pressure vessel is used to carry stem, gases or fluids at

pressure
a) Less than atmospheric pressure
b) Greater than atmospheric pressure
c) Equal to atmospheric pressure
Ans: b
Q.60 Which of the following isn’t true about oil seals?
a) Cheap
b) Can be used over a wide range of lubricating oils
c) Can’t tolerate misalignment
Ans: c
Subject: POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
Branch: MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
1. The commercial sources of energy are
(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
Ans: b
2. Compounding of steam turbine is done for
(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine
Ans: c
3. In India largest thermal power station is located at
(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c
4. The percentage O2 by Veight in atmospheric air is
(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b
5. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a
6. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans: a
7. The main source of production of biogas is
(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) allabove
Ans: d
8. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at
(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
Ans: a
9. In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b
10. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by
(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
Ans: d
11. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately
(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2
Ans: c
12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
Ans: c
13. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to
(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
Ans: c
14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range
of
(a) 15 to 20 percent
(6) 35 to 45 percent
(c) 70 to 80 percent
(d) 90 to 95 percent
Ans: b
15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of pi an 1 high pressure

limit of p2
(a) has higher the rnal efficiency than the carnotcycie operating between same
pressure limits
(b) has lower the”nal efficiency than carnot cycle operating between same
pressure limit?
(c) has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle operating between same
pressure limits
(d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitude ofpi and/>2
Ans: a
16. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
(a) improves in summer as compared to that in winter
(6) improves in winter as compared to that in summer
(c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
Ans: b
17. Carnot cycle comprises of
(a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
(b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
(e) two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
Ans: b
18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
(a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
(b) change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
(c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
(d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Ans: b
19. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency
(a) is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency

(b) is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam
is bled at particular pressure
(c) is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
(d) is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
Ans: a
20. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of
steam extracted for feed heating
(a) decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(c) is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
Ans: b
21. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected
(a) when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
(b) when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam
turbine
(c) when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
(d) when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
Ans: b
22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal
efficiency
(a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
Ans: a
23. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by
(a) exhaust gases
(b) heaters
(c) draining steam from the turbine
(d) all above
Ans: c
24. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
(a) utilise heat of flue gases
(b) increase thermal efficiency
(c) improve condenser performance
(d) reduce loss of heat
Ans: b
25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
(a) higher critical temperature and pressure
(b) higher saturation temperature than other fluids
(c) relatively low vapourisation pressure
(d) all above
Ans: d
26. Binary’vapour cycles are used to
(a) increase the performance of the condenser
(b) increase the efficiency of the plant
(c) increase efficiency of the turbine
Ans: b
27. A steam power station requires space

(a) equal to diesel power station
(b) more than diesel power station
(c) less than diesel power station
Ans: b
28. Economiser is used to heat
(a) air
(b) feed water
(c) flue gases
(d) all above
Ans: b
29. The modern steam turbines are
(a) impulse turbines
(b) reaction turbines
(c) impulse-reaction turbines
Ans: c
30. The draught which a chimney produces is called
(a) induced draught
(b) natural draught
(c) forced draught
(d) balanced draught
Ans: b
31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by

brick chimney for the same height is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be more or less
Ans: b
32. In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced
(a) due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the chimney
giving place to cold air from outside to rush in
(b) due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than
the pressure at the chimney base due to hot column
(c) due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its
environmental pressure
Ans: b
33. The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given mean
temperature of chimney gases
(a) decreases with increase in outside air temperature
(b) increases with increase in outside air temperature
(c) remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature
(d) may increase or decrease with increase in outside air temperature
Ans: a
34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside

temperature
(a) decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(b) increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(c) remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
(d) may increase or decrease

Ans: b
35. For forced draught system, the function of chimney is mainly
(a) to produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
(b) to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to avoid hazard
(c) to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged
Ans: b
36. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) induced fan
(b) forced fan
(c) induced and forced fan
Ans: d
37. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by
(a) forced fan
(b) chimney
(c) steam jet
(d) only motion of locomotive
Ans: c
38. For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as
compared to forced draught fan is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) not predictable
Ans: b
39. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) air fans
(b) steam jet
(c) fan or steam jet
Ans: d
40. The artificial draught normally is designed to produce
(a) less smoke
(b) more draught
(c) less chimney gas temperature
Ans: d
41. For the induced draught the fan is located
(a) near bottom of chimney
(b) near bottom of furnace
(c) at the top of the chimney
(D) anywhere permissible
Ans: a
42. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of
(a) forced draught system
(b) induced draught system

(c) balanced draught system
(d) natural draught system
Ans: c
43. The efficiency of chimney is approximately
(a) 80%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 0.25%
Ans: d
44. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially
superheated at inlet is approximated by equation
(a) pvls=C
(b) pv1126 = C
(c) pv1A = C
(d) pv = C
Ans: a
45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate
per unit area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
(a) 0.6
(6) 0.578
(c) 0.555
(d) 0.5457
Ans: b
46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per
area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
(a) 0.555
(b) 0.578
(c) 0.5457
(d) 0.6
Ans: c
47. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as
(a) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
(b) the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
(c) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate per
unit area is minimum
(d) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate = c
Ans: d
48. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially
dry saturated at inlet is approximated by equation.
(a)pv = C
(b)pv1A = C
(c)pv1i = C
(d) pv
Ans: d
49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same
pressure ratio leads to
a) increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
(6) decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
(c) no change in exit velocity from the nozzle

(d) increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam
Ans: b
50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure
ratio leads to
(a) increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
(b) decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
(c) no change in the quality of exit steam
(d) decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet
quality
Ans: a
51. In case of impulse steam turbine
(a) there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
Ans: c
52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different
(c) increases from one side to the other side
(d) decreasesfrom one side to the other side
Ans: a
53. In De Laval steam turbine
(a) the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in con¬denser
(b) the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the con¬denser
(c) the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from
condenser
(d) none from the above
Ans: a
54. Incase of reaction steam turbine
(a) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
Ans: a
55. Curtis turbine is
(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
Ans: b
56. Rateau steam turbine is
(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
Ans: c
57. Parson’s turbine is
(a) pressure compounded steam turbine
(b) simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine

(c) simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
(d) multi wheel reaction steam turbine
Ans: d
58. For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is
(a) 75%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Ans: c
59. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on
(a) exit pressure only
(b) stage efficiency only
(c) initial pressures and temperature only
Ans: c
60. The value of reheat factor normally varies from
(a) 0.5 to 0.6
(b) 0.9 to 0.95
(c) 1.02 to 1.06
(d) 1.2 to 1.6
Ans: c
Subject: Elective-II (Power Plant Engineering)
Class: BE (Mechanical)
Semester: VIII
Q1.Rankine cycle efficiency in a good steam power station may be in the range between........
A.15% - 20%
B.35% - 40%
C.50% - 60%
D.90% - 95%
Ans.: B.35% - 40%
Q2. A steam power station requires space........
A.Equal to diesel power station

B.More than diesel power station
C.More than diesel power station
D.None of the above
Ans.:B.More than diesel power station
Q3. The height of chimney in a steam power plant is governed by........
A.Flue gases quantity

B.The draught to be produced
C.Control of pollution
D.Corner of power plant
Ans.:B.The draught to be produced
Q4.The following is (are) ash handling system(s)
A. Hydraulic system
B. Pneumatic system
C. Steam jet system
D. All of the above
Ans.: D. All of the above
Q5.Modern steam plants works on which of the following cycles?
A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. Bell- Coleman cycle
Ans.: B. Rankine cycle
Q6. Which of the following station is least efficient........
A.Nuclear power plant

B.Diesel power station
C.Thermal power station
D.None of the above
Ans.:C.Thermal power station
Q7. ........requires more space

B.Hydro-electric power plant
C.Tharmal power plant
D.Diesel power plant
Ans.:C.Tharmal power plant
Q8.What would be the most important factor under consideration for the site selection of a
thermal plant?
A. Availability of fuel.
B. Availability of water.
C. Distance from the populated area.
D. Cost and the type of land.
Ans.: B. Availability of water.
Q9. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam.......
A.Locomotive boiler
B.Lancashire boiler
C.Cornish boiler
D.Babcock and wilcox boiler
Ans.: A.Locomotive boiler
Q10. Which of the following is a water tube boiler........

A.Locomotive boiler
B.Lancashire boiler
C.Cornish boiler
Ans.:D.Babcock and wilcox boiler
Q11. The economiser is used in boilers to........
A.Increase thermal efficiency of boiler

B.Economise on fule
C.Extract heat from the exhaust the gases
D.Increase flue gas temperature
Ans.:A.Increase thermal efficiency of boiler
Q12.The following is dry type dust collectors
A. Spray type
B. Packed type
C. Impingement type
D. Cyclone separator
Ans.: D. Cyclone separator
Q13. Size of boiler tubes is specified by

A.Mean diameter and thickness
A.Inside diameter and thickness
C.Outside diameter and thickness
D.Outside diameter and inside diameter
Ans.:C.Outside diameter and thickness
Q14.The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are
A.Horizontal
B.Vertical
C.Inclined
D.All of the above
Ans.:C.Inclined
Q15.Lancashire boiler is a........
A.Stationary fire tube boiler

B.Internally fire tube boiler
C.Horizontal boiler
D.All of the above
Ans.:D.All of the above
Q16. Thermal efficiency of well-maintained boiler will be of the order......
A.30%
B.55%
C.90%
D.45%
Ans.: C.90%
Q17.The commercial sources of energy are
A.Solar, wind and biomass

B.Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
C.Wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
D.None of the above
Ans:B.Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
Q18. In India largest thermal power station is located at
A. Kota
B. Sarni
C. Chandrapur
D. Neyveli
Ans:C. Chandrapur
A. High CO content in flue gases at exit

B. High CO2 content in flue gases at exit
C. High temperature of flue gases
D. The smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans:A. High CO content in flue gases at exit

Q20. The following is the correct order of energy conversion in thermal power plants
A. Chemical energy – Mechanical energy – Electrical energy
B. Mechanical energy – Chemical energy – Electrical energy
C. Wind energy – Mechanical energy – Electrical energy
D. Heat energy – Electrical energy – Mechanical energy
Ans.:A. Chemical energy – Mechanical energy – Electrical energy
Q21.The following is not a component of Thermal power plant
A. Condenser
B. Cooling tower
C. Turbine
D. Fuel tank
Ans.:D. Fuel tank
Q22.The path of flue gases in Thermal power plant is
A. Boiler – Economizer – Superheater– Air preheater
B. Boiler – Superheater – Air preheater – Economizer
C. Boiler – Air preheater – Superheater – Economizer
D. Boiler – Superheater – Economizer – Air preheater
Ans.:D. Boiler – Superheater – Economizer – Air preheater

Q23. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at
A. Tarapore
B. Kota
C. Kalpakkam
Ans:A. Tarapore
Q24. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
A. These develop more power

B. Its technology is simple
C. Abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
D. These can be easily designed
Ans: C. Abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
Q25.The speed of the diesel engine may vary from

A. 0 – 100 rpm.
B. 200 – 1000 rpm.
C. 500 -5000 rpm.
D. 1000 – 3000 rpm.
Ans.: D. 1000 – 3000 rpm
Q26.The diesel plants are mainly used ________

A. As peak load plants.
B. As base load plants.
C. As standby power plants.
D. Both peak and stand by plants.
Ans.:D. Both peak and stand by plants.
Q27. What is the ranging capacity of the diesel plant?
A. 50 – 750 kW
B. 100 – 1175 kW
C. 75 – 3750 kW
D. 150 – 4575 kW
Ans.: C. 75 – 3750 kW
Q28.What is supercharging?
A. Pumping of air into the cylinder at the pressure greater than atmospheric pressure.
B. Pumping of air out of the cylinder at the pressure greater than atmospheric pressure.
C. Pumping of air into the cylinder at the pressure lower than atmospheric pressure.
D. Pumping of air out of the cylinder at the pressure lower than atmospheric pressure.
Ans.: A. Pumping of air into the cylinder at the pressure greater than atmospheric pressure.
Q29.Maximum temperature developed in a diesel engine is in the range of
A. 2000 - 2500 °C
B. 500 – 1000 °C
C. 1500 – 2000 °C
D. 1000 – 1500 °C
Ans.: A. 2000 - 2500 °C
Q30.Which of the following is not used in gas turbine power plant?

A. Compressor
B. Turbine
C. Combustion chamber
D. Condenser
Ans.: D. Condenser
Q31. Which component of gas turbine power plant is main cause of its low efficiency?
A. Gas turbine
B. Combustion chamber
C. Compressor
D.Starting motor
Ans.: C. Compressor
Q32. What is intercooling in gas turbine power plant?

A. Removal of heat from combustion gas between stages of turbine
B. Removal of heat from compressor between stages of compressor
C. Removal of heat from intake air
D. Removal of heat from exhaust air
Ans.: B. Removal of heat from compressor between stages of compressor
Q33. What is the function of regenerator?

A. Eatery compresses the exhaust gases
B. It heats the compressed air
C. It regenerates the combustible gas from exhaust gas
D. It regenerates the combustible oil from exhaust gas
Ans.:B. It heats the compressed air
Q34. Which of the following gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required
property?
A. Closed cycle gas turbine power plant
B. Open cycle gas turbine power plant
C. Open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
D. No gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property.
Ans.: A. Closed cycle gas turbine power plant
Q35.The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)
A.Aviation
B. Oil and gas industry
C.Marine propulsion
D.All of the above
Q36.Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?
A. Single Acting
B. Double Acting
C. Open
D. None of the mentioned
Ans.: C. Open
Q37.What percent of installed capacity of gas turbines contribute to the total installed capacity of
the power plants in India.
A. 5 %
B. 8 %
C. 11 %
D. 15 %
Ans.: C.11 %
Q38.Which state in India among these doesn’t have a gas turbine plant?
A. Jammu Kashmir.
B. Tripura
C. Tamil Nadu.
D. Bihar.
Ans.: C. Tamil Nadu.
Q39.A gas turbine works on which cycle?

A. Carnot.
B. Brayton.
C. Dual cycle.
D. Rankine cycle.
Ans.: B.Brayton.
Q40.Gas turbine plants are not used -
D. In combination with the steam power plants.
Ans.: A. As base load plants.
Q41.Combined cycle power plants are suitable for?

A. Base loads.
B. Peak loads.
C. Intermediate loads.
D. Both base and peak loads.
Ans.: D. Both base and peak loads.
Q42. Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
A. Availability of water
B. Large catchment area
C. Rocky land
D. Sedimentation
Ans.:D. Sedimentation
Q43. The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant
depends upon ___________
A. Head of water
B. Quantity of water
C. Specific weight of water
D. Efficiency of Alternator
Ans.: B. Quantity of water
Q44. Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine.

A. True
B. False
Ans.: B. False
Q45. Hydroelectric power plant is __________

A. Non-renewable source of energy
B. Conventional source of energy
C. Non-conventional source of energy
D. Continuous source of energy
Ans.:B. Conventional source of energy
Q46. Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in ____________

A. Flat areas
B. Deserts
C. Hilly areas
D. Deltas
Ans.: C. Hilly areas

Q47. Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?
A. Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
B. Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
C. It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
D. Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.
Ans.: D. Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.
Q48. Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer
phenomenon?
A.Valves and Gates
B. Draft tubes
C. Spillway
D. Surge Tank
Ans.: D. Surge Tank
Q49.The power output from a hydro-electric power plant depends on three parameters........
A.Head,type and dam of discharge
B.Head,discharge and efficiency of the system

C.Efficiency of the system,type of draft tube and type of turbine used
D.Type of dam,discharge and type of catchment area
Ans.:B.Head,discharge and efficiency of the system
Q50.Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?

A. Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
B. Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
C. Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
D. Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
Ans.: A. Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
Q51. The best capable alternative source which can meet the future energy demand is
_____________
A. Thermal power plant
B.Nuclear power plant
C. Hydroelectric power plant
D. Geothermal power plant
Ans.: B. Nuclear power plant
Q52. How much coal is required to generate energy equivalent to the energy generated by 1 kg
of uranium?
A. 30000 tonnes of high grade coal
B. 300 tonnes of high grade coal
C. 10000 tonnes of high grade coal
D. 3000 tonnes of high grade coal
Ans.: D. 3000 tonnes of high grade coal

A. More than 5 months
B. Few weeks
C. Few days
D. More than 5 years
Ans.: D. More than 5 years

A. 20 to 25%
B. 25 to 30%
C. 30 to 40 %
D. 50 to 70 %
Ans.: C. 30 to 40 %
Q55.Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are
A. U233andPu239
B. U23iandPu233
C. U235andPu235
D. U238andPu239
Ans.: A.U233andPu239
Q56.Moderator in nuclear plants is used to
A. Reduce temperature
B. Extract heat from nuclear reaction
C. Control the reaction
D. Cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
Ans.: D.cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
Q57.The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is
A. Heavy water
B. Graphite
C. Graphite and Concrete
D. Deuterium
Ans.:B. Graphite
Q58.The nuclear energy is measured as
A.MeV
B. Curie
C. Farads
D. MW
Ans.:A. MeV
Q59.Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of
A. Unity
B. More than unity
C. Less than unity
D. Zero
Ans.:B. More than unity
Q60.The commonly used material for shielding is
A. Lead or Concrete
B. Lead and Tin
C. Graphite or Cadmium
D. Thick galvanized sheets
Ans.: A. Lead or Concrete


Semester: VIII
Q1.Rankine cycle efficiency in a good steam power station may be in the range between........
A.15% - 20%
B.35% - 40%
C.50% - 60%
D.90% - 95%
Ans.: B.35% - 40%

D.None of the above
Ans.:B.More than diesel power station

Ans.:B.The draught to be produced
Q4.The following is (are) ash handling system(s)
A. Hydraulic system
B. Pneumatic system
C. Steam jet system
D. All of the above
Q5.Modern steam plants works on which of the following cycles?
A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Otto cycle

D.None of the above
Ans.:C.Thermal power station

Ans.:C.Tharmal power plant
Q8.What would be the most important factor under consideration for the site selection of a
thermal plant?
A.Locomotive boiler
B.Lancashire boiler
C.Cornish boiler
A.Locomotive boiler
B.Lancashire boiler
C.Cornish boiler
Ans.:D.Babcock and wilcox boiler

B.Economise on fule
Ans.:A.Increase thermal efficiency of boiler
A. Spray type
B. Packed type
C. Impingement type

Ans.:C.Outside diameter and thickness
Q14.The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are
A.Horizontal
B.Vertical
C.Inclined
D.All of the above
Ans.:C.Inclined
Q15.Lancashire boiler is a........

C.Horizontal boiler
D.All of the above
Ans.:D.All of the above
A.30%
B.55%
C.90%
D.45%
Ans.: C.90%
Q17.The commercial sources of energy are

D.None of the above
Ans:B.Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
A. Kota
B. Sarni
C. Chandrapur
D. Neyveli
Ans:C. Chandrapur

Ans:A. High CO content in flue gases at exit

Ans.:A. Chemical energy – Mechanical energy – Electrical energy
Q21.The following is not a component of Thermal power plant
A. Condenser
B. Cooling tower
C. Turbine
D. Fuel tank
Ans.:D. Fuel tank
Q22.The path of flue gases in Thermal power plant is
Ans.:D. Boiler – Superheater – Economizer – Air preheater
A. Tarapore
B. Kota
C. Kalpakkam
Ans:A. Tarapore

Q25.The speed of the diesel engine may vary from

A. 0 – 100 rpm.
B. 200 – 1000 rpm.
C. 500 -5000 rpm.
D. 1000 – 3000 rpm.
Ans.: D. 1000 – 3000 rpm
Q26.The diesel plants are mainly used ________

Ans.:D. Both peak and stand by plants.
A. 50 – 750 kW
B. 100 – 1175 kW
C. 75 – 3750 kW
D. 150 – 4575 kW
Ans.: C. 75 – 3750 kW
Q28.What is supercharging?
Q29.Maximum temperature developed in a diesel engine is in the range of
A. 2000 - 2500 °C
B. 500 – 1000 °C
C. 1500 – 2000 °C
D. 1000 – 1500 °C
Ans.: A. 2000 - 2500 °C
Q30.Which of the following is not used in gas turbine power plant?

A. Compressor
B. Turbine
D. Condenser
Ans.: D. Condenser
A. Gas turbine
C. Compressor
D.Starting motor
Ans.: C. Compressor

Ans.:B. It heats the compressed air
property?
Q35.The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)

A.Aviation
C.Marine propulsion
D.All of the above
Q36.Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?
A. Single Acting
B. Double Acting
C. Open
Ans.: C. Open
Q37.What percent of installed capacity of gas turbines contribute to the total installed capacity of
the power plants in India.
A. 5 %
B. 8 %
C. 11 %
D. 15 %
Ans.: C.11 %
Q38.Which state in India among these doesn’t have a gas turbine plant?
A. Jammu Kashmir.
B. Tripura
C. Tamil Nadu.
D. Bihar.
Q39.A gas turbine works on which cycle?

A. Carnot.
B. Brayton.
C. Dual cycle.
D. Rankine cycle.
Ans.: B.Brayton.
Q40.Gas turbine plants are not used -
Q41.Combined cycle power plants are suitable for?

A. Base loads.
B. Peak loads.
C. Rocky land
D. Sedimentation
Ans.:D. Sedimentation
A. Head of water
A. True
B. False
Ans.: B. False

Ans.:B. Conventional source of energy

A. Flat areas
B. Deserts
C. Hilly areas
D. Deltas

phenomenon?
A.Valves and Gates
B. Draft tubes
C. Spillway
D. Surge Tank
Ans.: D. Surge Tank
Q49.The power output from a hydro-electric power plant depends on three parameters........
A.Head,type and dam of discharge
B.Head,discharge and efficiency of the system
C.Efficiency of the system,type of draft tube and type of turbine used
D.Type of dam,discharge and type of catchment area
Ans.:B.Head,discharge and efficiency of the system
Q50.Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?

_____________
B.Nuclear power plant
of uranium?

B. Few weeks
C. Few days

A. 20 to 25%
B. 25 to 30%
C. 30 to 40 %
D. 50 to 70 %
Ans.: C. 30 to 40 %
Q55.Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are

A. U233andPu239
B. U23iandPu233
C. U235andPu235
D. U238andPu239
Ans.: A.U233andPu239
Q56.Moderator in nuclear plants is used to
Ans.: D.cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
Q57.The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is

A. Heavy water
B. Graphite
D. Deuterium
Ans.:B. Graphite
Q58.The nuclear energy is measured as

A.MeV
B. Curie
C. Farads
D. MW
Ans.:A. MeV
Q59.Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of

A. Unity
B. More than unity
C. Less than unity
D. Zero
Ans.:B. More than unity

Q60.The commonly used material for shielding is
A. Lead or Concrete
B. Lead and Tin

Model Question Paper A
N
Power Plant Engineering S
Max.Marks:60 Class: BE
Time: 1.30 Hrs. Sem.: VIII
1) The proximate analysis of coal gives................... A
(a) percentage by weight, of moisture, volatile matter, fixed carbon and ash
(b) Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, Oxygen
(c) fuel constituents as percentage by weight, of moisture, volatile fixed carbon
and ash.
(d) None of above
2) Coke consists of ............. A
(a) fixed carbon and ash

(b) residual coal
(c) carbon and moisture
(d) coal and moisture
3) Ultimate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of…............. B
(a) total carbon by weight

(b) total carbon by weight unit weight of H, O, N, sulphur and ash.
(c) Ash, volatile matter and moisture
(d) None of above
4) Ash content in bituminous coal, in of the order of.................. B
(a) 4-6%
(b) 6-12%
(c)12-18%
(d) 15–18%
1 P.T.O.
5) Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value? A
(a) anthracite coal
(b) lignite
(c) bituminous
(d) peat.
6) Which one of the following is steam coal ? C
(a) pulverized coal

(b) coking bituminous coal
(c) non-coking bituminous coal
(d) All of above
7) The best suited coal for chain or travelling grate stoker furnace in a boiler is.......... B
(a) pulverized coal
(b) no cooking or free burning coal
(c) coking coal.
(d) None of these
8) Which one is essential for combustion of a fuel? D
(a) correct fuel air ratio
(b) oxygen support combustion
c) proper ignition temperature
(d) all the three above.
9) O2 content in atmospheric air on volume basis is........................ A
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 70%
(d) 53%
2
10) O2 content in atmospheric air on weight basis is.................. B
(a) 21%.
(b) 23%
( c) 70%
(d) 53%
11) Primary air is that air which is used to................... A
(a) transport and dry the coal
(b) provide air around burners for getting optimum combustion
(c) reduce the flame length
(d) Only to dry the coal
12) Secondary air in the air used to...................... B
(a) transport and dry the coal
(b) provide air around burners for getting optimum combustion
(c)- reduce the flame length
(d) All of above
13) Sulphur contents of coal....................... A
a) has highly corrosive effects
(b) has high heating value
C) promotes combustion
(d) Lowers the combustion rate
14) Presence of sulphur in coal will result in................. E
(a) spontaneous combustion during coal storage
(b)corroding air heaters
(c)causing clinkering and lagging
(d) facilitating ash precipitation all of the above
(e)all of the above
3 P.T.O.
15) Caking coals are those which..................... D
(a)burn freely
(b) burn completely
(c) do not form ash
(d) form lumps or masses of coke
16) Pulverised fuel is used for.................... A
(a) better burning
(b) saving fuel
(c) obtaining more heat
(d) None of above
17) Heating value of diesel oil is about............... D
(a) 6000 kcal/kg
(b) 3000 kcal/kg.
(c)10,000 kcal/kg
(d) 11,000 kcal/kg
18) Combustible elements in the fuel are....................... B
(a) carbon and hydrogen
(b) carbon hydrogen and sulphur
(c)carbon hydrogen and nitrogen
(d) carbon hydrogen and ash
19) Heating value of the natural gas is B
(a) 6000 kcal/m at STP
(b) 8900 kcal/m at STP
(c) 11000 kcal/m at STP
(d) 6600 kcal/m at STP
4
20) Excess air is....................... C
(a) the amount of air theoretical necessary to burn the fuel completely
(B) the amount of air left after combustion
(C) the air in excess of the amount of air theoretically necessary to burn fuel
completely so that all the combustible elements receive enough oxygen for
complete combustion
(d) All of above
21) Reciprocating motion of the piston is converted into a rotary one by.............. B
(a)Crankshaft
(b) Connecting rod
(c)Gudgeon pin
(d) Crank web
22) Compression ratio of an I.C. engine is the ratio of...................... B
(a) Total Volume/Swept Volume
(b) Total Volume/Clearance Volume
(c) Clearance Volume/Total Volume
(d) None of above
23) For importing power........................crank webs are provided B

(a) energy storage
(b) balancing
(c) force
(d) None of these
24) In case of diesel engine, the pressure at the end of compression is in the range of C
(a) 7-8 kg/cm2
(b) 20-25 kg/cm2
(c) 35-40 kg/cm2
(d) 50-60 kg/cm2
5 P.T.O.
25) Maximum temperature which is developed in the cylinder of diesel engine is of C
the order of.................
(a) 1000-1500°C
(b) 1500-2000 °C.
(c) 2000-2500°C
(d) 2500-3000°C
26) Most high speed diesel engines work on....................... B
(a) Diesel cycle
(b) Dual combustion cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) None of above
27) The cetane number of diesel fuels are usually in the range of....................... C
(a) 10-200
(b) 20-400
(c) 30 to 60
(d) 40 to 400
28) In Diesel cycle...................... B
(a) Compression ratio and expansion ratio are equal
(b) Compression ratio is greater than expansion ratio
(c) Compression ratio is less than expansion ratio
(d) None of these
29) In multi cylinder engines a particular sequence in the firing order is necessary...... C
(a) to operate the ignition system smoothly
(b) to obtain uniform turning moment
(c) to provide the best engine performance
(d) All of above
6
30) In a diesel engine the heat lost to the cooling water is about............................ A
(a) 30%
(b) 70%.
(c) 20%
(d) 35%
31) Thermodynamic cycle on which a gas turbine works............................... A
(a) Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c)Joule cycle.
(d) Ericsson cycle
32) Open cycle gas turbine works on cycle.................................... A
(a) Brayton or Atkinson.
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Joule cycle.
(d)Ericsson cycle
33) The thermal efficiency of gas turbine plants is.............................as compared to B
condensing steam plants.
(a) higher.
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) None of above
34) Gas turbines for power generation are normally used.............................. A
(a) to supply peak load requirements
(b) to supply base load requirements
(c) both a and b
(d) None of these
7 P.T.O.
35) The air fuel ratio in a gas turbine is of the order of............................... C
(a) 7:1.
(b) 15:1
(c) 50:1
(d) 120 :1
36) The pressure ratio in open cycle gas turbine is of the order of.......................... D
(a) 12:1.
(b) 9:1
(c) 18:1
(d) 6:1
37) For starting gas turbine, the turbine rotor is usually motored upto 'coming in' B
speed which is equal to.................................
(a) rated speed of the gas turbine
(b) half of the rated speed of the gas turbine
(c) no relation with speed of the turbine
(d) Double of the rated speed of the gas turbine
38) The pressure ratio for a closed cycle gas turbine compared to open cycle gas B
turbine of some power is................................
(a) low.
(b) high
(c) same
(d) Exactly double
39) The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine for a given turbine inlet C
temperature with increase in pressure ratio............................
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) partially increase and partially decrease
8
40) In gas turbines, high thermal efficiency is obtained in............................... B
(a) open cycle.
(b)closed cycle
(c) in both the cycle
(d) None of these
41) In Francis turbine runner, the number of blades is generally of the order of............ B
(a)2-4.
(b)3-6
(c)4-8.
(d)12-16
42) Operating charges are minimum in the case of…...........................…. B
(a) thermal plant
(b) hydroelectric plant
(c) nuclear plant
(d)gas turbine plant
43) In.......................water hammer is developed. C
(a) surge tank.
(b) turbine
(c) penstock
(d) draft tube
44) Gross head of a hydropower station is............................ C
(a) the height of the water level in the river where the storage is provided.
(b) the height of the water level in the river where tailrace is provided
(c) the difference of water level between the level in the storage and tail race
(d) None of these
9 P.T.O.
45) The function of the surge tank is................................... B
(a) to supply water at constant pressure.
(b) to relieve water hammer pressures in the penstock pipe
(c)to produce surges in the pipe line
(d) None of these
46) Location of the surge tank in a hydroelectric station is near to the....................... B
(a) reservoir
(b)turbine
(c)tailrace
(d) catchment area
47) Pelton wheel turbine is used for minimum of the following head........................ C
(a) 20 m.
(b) 100 m
(c) 180 m or above
(d) 120 m
48) Francis turbine is usually used for.................................. B
(a) low head
(b) medium head
(c) high head
(d) None of above
49) Pelton turbines are mostly......................................... A
(a) horizontal
(b) inclined
(c) vertical
(d) None of above
10
50) In reaction turbine, function of the draft tube is..................... A
(a) to convert the K.E. of water to potential gradual expansion in divergent part.
(b) to increase the flow rate
(c) to reduce water hammer effect
(d) All of above
51) In naturally available uranium the percentage of U235 by weight is about.............. B
(a)0-3
(b) 0-7
(c) 1-04
(d) None of these
52) In enriched uranium the percentage of...................has been artificially increased. B
(a) U234
(b) U 235
(c) U 238
(d) All of these
53) Which of the following are fertile materials? C
(a) U 238 and Pu239
(b) U233 and PU 239
(c) U 238 and Th232
(d) U 238 and Th 239
54) In nuclear chain fission reaction, each neutron which causes fission produces......... C
(a) one new neutron

(b) no new neutron
(c) more than one new neutron
(d) None of these
11 P.T.O.
55) Function of the moderator in a nuclear reactor is to.................................. C
(a) reduce temperature
(b) absorb neutrons
(c) reduce the speed of the neutrons
(d) stop chain reaction
56) ….........................is the most commonly used moderator B
(a) heavy water
(b) graphite
(c) deuterium
(d) sodium
57) Function of a reflector used in nuclear reactor is to.................................. C
(a) stop the chain reaction
(b) reduce the speed of the neutrons
(c) reflect the escaping neutrons back into the core
(d) All of above
58) Thermal shielding is provided to................................. D
(a) absorb the fast neutrons
(b) protect the walls of the reactor from radiation damage
(c) protect the operating personnel from exposure to radiation
(d) b and c both
59) The boiling water reactor (BWR) uses............................as fuel. B
(a) Thorium.
(b) enriched uranium
(c) plutonium
(d) All of these
12
60) In fast breeder reactors...........................is used as moderator. C
(a) heavy water
(b) graphite
(c) no moderator is used
(d) Both a & b
**********
13 P.T.O.
Semester: VIII
Q1. Rankine cycle efficiency in a good steam power station may be in the range between........
A.15% - 20%
B.35% - 40%
C.50% - 60%
D.90% - 95%
Ans.: B.35% - 40%

D.None of the above
Ans.: B.More than diesel power station

Ans.: B.The draught to be produced
Q4. The following is (are) ash handling system(s)
A. Hydraulic system
B. Pneumatic system
C. Steam jet system
D. All of the above
Q5. Modern steam plants works on which of the following cycles?
A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Otto cycle

D.None of the above
Ans.: C.Thermal power station

Ans.: C.Tharmal power plant
Q8. What would be the most important factor under consideration for the site selection of a
thermal plant?
A.Locomotive boiler
B.Lancashire boiler
C.Cornish boiler
A.Locomotive boiler
B.Lancashire boiler
C.Cornish boiler
Ans.: D.Babcock and wilcox boiler

B.Economise on fule
Ans.: A.Increase thermal efficiency of boiler
A. Spray type
B. Packed type
C. Impingement type

Ans.: C.Outside diameter and thickness
Q14. The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are
A.Horizontal
B.Vertical
C.Inclined
D.All of the above
Ans.: C.Inclined
Q15. Lancashire boiler is a........

C.Horizontal boiler
D.All of the above
Ans.: D.All of the above
A.30%
B.55%
C.90%
D.45%
Ans.: C.90%
Q17. The commercial sources of energy are

D.None of the above
Ans: B.Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
A. Kota
B. Sarni
C. Chandrapur
D. Neyveli
Ans: C. Chandrapur

Ans: A. High CO content in flue gases at exit

Ans.: A. Chemical energy – Mechanical energy – Electrical energy
Q21. The following is not a component of Thermal power plant
A. Condenser
B. Cooling tower
C. Turbine
D. Fuel tank
Ans.: D. Fuel tank
Q22. The path of flue gases in Thermal power plant is
Ans.: D. Boiler – Superheater – Economizer – Air preheater
A. Tarapore
B. Kota
C. Kalpakkam
Ans: A. Tarapore

Q25. The speed of the diesel engine may vary from

A. 0 – 100 rpm.
B. 200 – 1000 rpm.
C. 500 -5000 rpm.
D. 1000 – 3000 rpm.
Ans.: D. 1000 – 3000 rpm
Q26. The diesel plants are mainly used ________

Ans.: D. Both peak and stand by plants.
A. 50 – 750 kW
B. 100 – 1175 kW
C. 75 – 3750 kW
D. 150 – 4575 kW
Ans.: C. 75 – 3750 kW
Q28. What is supercharging?
Q29. Maximum temperature developed in a diesel engine is in the range of
A. 2000 - 2500 °C
B. 500 – 1000 °C
C. 1500 – 2000 °C
D. 1000 – 1500 °C
Ans.: A. 2000 - 2500 °C
Q30. Which of the following is not used in gas turbine power plant?
A. Compressor
B. Turbine
D. Condenser
Ans.: D. Condenser
A. Gas turbine
C. Compressor
D. Starting motor
Ans.: C. Compressor

Ans.: B. It heats the compressed air
property?
Q35. The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)

A. Aviation
C.Marine propulsion
D.All of the above
Q36. Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?
A. Single Acting
B. Double Acting
C. Open
Ans.: C. Open
Q37. What percent of installed capacity of gas turbines contribute to the total installed capacity
of the power plants in India.
A. 5 %
B. 8 %
C. 11 %
D. 15 %
Ans.: C.11 %
Q38. Which state in India among these doesn’t have a gas turbine plant?
A. Jammu Kashmir.
B. Tripura
C. Tamil Nadu.
D. Bihar.
Q39. A gas turbine works on which cycle?

A. Carnot.
B. Brayton.
C. Dual cycle.
D. Rankine cycle.
Ans.: B. Brayton.
Q40. Gas turbine plants are not used -
Q41. Combined cycle power plants are suitable for?

A. Base loads.
B. Peak loads.
C. Rocky land
D. Sedimentation
Ans.: D. Sedimentation
A. Head of water
A. True
B. False
Ans.: B. False

Ans.: B. Conventional source of energy

A. Flat areas
B. Deserts
C. Hilly areas
D. Deltas

phenomenon?
A.Valves and Gates
B. Draft tubes
C. Spillway
D. Surge Tank
Ans.: D. Surge Tank
Q49. The power output from a hydro-electric power plant depends on three parameters........
A. Head,type and dam of discharge
B. Head,discharge and efficiency of the system
C. Efficiency of the system,type of draft tube and type of turbine used
D. Type of dam,discharge and type of catchment area
Ans.: B.Head,discharge and efficiency of the system
Q50. Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?
_____________
B. Nuclear power plant
of uranium?

B. Few weeks
C. Few days

A. 20 to 25%
B. 25 to 30%
C. 30 to 40 %
D. 50 to 70 %
Ans.: C. 30 to 40 %
Q55. Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are

A. U233 and Pu239
B. U23i and Pu233
C. U235 and Pu235
D. U238 and Pu239
Ans.: A. U233 and Pu239
Q56. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to

Ans.: D. cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
Q57. The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is

A. Heavy water
B. Graphite
D. Deuterium
Ans.: B. Graphite
Q58. The nuclear energy is measured as
A. MeV
B. Curie
C. Farads
D. MW
Ans.: A. MeV
Q59. Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of

A. Unity
B. More than unity
C. Less than unity
D. Zero
Ans.: B. More than unity

Q60. The commonly used material for shielding is
A. Lead or Concrete
B. Lead and Tin
Subject: PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
Branch:MECHANICAL
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. The following factors play vital role in corrosion process
A Temperature
BSolute concentration
CBoth
D)None
Ans.: C
Q2. Shear stress energy theory is called as ______.
Adistortion theory
BVon Mises theory
Cboth a. and b.
Dnone of the above
Ans.: C
Q3Which of the following isn’t a stage of creep?
ATransient creep stage
BConstant creep stage
CFracture stage
D Steady stage creep stage
An.: B
Q4 The minimum baffle height should be
A Equal to the impeller diameter
B Twice the impeller diameter
C Twice the tank diameter
D 3/4 of the tank height
Ans.: B
Q5Corrosion of metals involves
APhysical reactions
BChemical reactions
CBoth
DNone
Ans.: Option B
Q6 Creep depends on temperature.
ATrue
BFalse
Ans.: A
Q7For designing ductile materials, which of the following theories is/are used?
A Maximum shear stress theory
B Shear strain energy theory
C Both a. and b.
D None of the above
Ans.: Option C
Q 8 In case of plain carbon steel, butt welded joints are used for shell plate thickness ≤
__________ cms.
A 1.2
B 0.5
C 3.8
D 6.8
Ans.: C
Q 9Which of the following does not affect creep?
AGrain size
BThermal stability
CChemical reactions
DCrystal structure
Ans.: D
Q 10Which of the following will be rendered useless for prevention of creep?
ACoarse-grained material
BStrain hardening
CPrecipitation hardening
DQuenching
Ans.:D
Q 11St. Venant's theory is also known as maximum _________
Aprinciple stress theory
B shear stress theory
Cprinciple strain theory
Dstrain energy theory
Ans.:C
Q 12.Which design consideration deals with appearance of the product?
AErgonomics
B Aesthetics
CSystem design
DCreative design
Ans.: Option B
Q 13. Which of the following is the best tube material from thermal conductivity point of
view alone?
A Aluminium
B Stainless steel
C Copper
D Carbon steel
Ans.: C
Q 14. In design process, which process is followed after selecting the material?
ASelecting factor of safety
B Synthesis
CAnalysis of forces
DDetermining mode of failure
Ans.: D
Q 15. The objective of considering ergonomics in machine design is to ____
Adecrease physical stresses
B make user adapt to the machine
Cmake machine fit for the user
Dimprove appearance of the product
A only 2
B 3 and 4
C 1 and 3
D 1, 3 and 4
Ans.: C
Q 16. Factor of safety is the ratio of _________
Aworking stress and ultimate strength
B yield strength and endurance strength
Cultimate strength and yield strength
Dyield strength and working stress

Ans.:D
Q 17. What factors are of prime importance for the designing of a reactor?
ADegree of agitation
B Control of temperature
CBoth of the mentioned
Ans.: C
Q 18. Why do we need agitation in a reactor?
AEfficiency
B For smooth reaction
CAvoid local overheating
DAll of the mentioned
Ans.: D
Q 19. Does wall jacket provide control of temperature in a reactor?
ATrue
B false
Ans.: A
Q 20. What does “sleeve-and-propeller arrangement” in a reactor provides?
AGood mixing
B Efficient heat transfer
CBoth of the mentioned
Ans.: C
Q21. Class 3 pressure vessels having welded joints are
A fully radio-graphed
B partially radio-graphed
C spot radio-graphed
D not radio-graphed
Ans.: D
Q22. Which type of welded joints are not included in class 3 pressure vessels?
A Double welded butt joint with full penetration
B Single welded but joint with back strip
C Single full fillet lap joints
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q23. unfired pressure vessels, category A consists of
A joints connecting flanges and flat heads
B welded joints connecting nozzles with main shell
C circumferential welded joints joints
D longitudinal welded joints
Ans.: D
Q24. Which of the following is not an unfired pressure vessel?
A Heat exchanger
B Storage vessels
C Steam boilers
D None of the above
Ans.: D
Q25. What is the weld joint efficiency if pressure vessel is fabricated with single full fillet
lap joint?
A 1.0
B 0.55
C 0.65
D 0.85
Ans.: D
Q26. Tangential stress in a cylinder is given by
A PD/2t
B 2PD/t
C PD/4t
D 4PD/t
Ans.: A
Q27. Longitudinal stress in a cylinder is given by
A PD/2t
B 2PD/t
C PD/4t
D 4PD/t
Ans.: C
Q28. Cylinder having inner diameter to wall thickness ratio less than 15 are
A Thin cylinders
B Thick Cylinders
C Moderate cylinders
Ans.: B
Q29. A cylinder is considered thin when the ratio of inner diameter to wall thickness is more
than 5.
A true
B false
C None of listed
D None of above
Ans.: B
Q30. Lame’s equation used to find the thickness of the cylinder is based on maximum strain
failure.
A true
B false
C None of listed
D None of above
Ans.: B
Q31. Lame’s equation is generally used for ductile materials.
A true
B false
C None of listed
D None of above
Ans.: B
Q32. Bracket support are the most suitable for supporting ___ vessel
A thick wall vertical
B horizontal
C thin spherical
D none of above
Ans.: A
Q33. Lug support is
A the most suitable for thick vertical vessel
B same as bracket support
C provided usually for vessel of much smaller height than skirt supported vessel
D All of above
Ans.: D
Q34. Where does the maximum tensile strength occur in a thick cylindrical vessel subjected
to internal pressure ?
A at the inner surface
B at the mid thickness of the cylindrical wall
C at the outer surface
D None of above
Ans.: A
Q35. Which of the following material is seldom used for pressure vessel construction ?
A rimmed steel
B mild steel
C killed still
D semi killed steel
Ans.: A
Q36. Vertical vessel are not supported by
A skirts
B brackets
C saddle
D coloum
Ans.: C
Q37. Thin spherical shell subjected to internal pressure develop --- stresses
A circumferential
B radial
C neither A nor B
D both A & B
Ans.: B
Q38. Saddle supports are used for supporting ---vessel
A tall vertical
B horizontal cylindrical
C thick spherical
D thick walled vertical
Ans.: B
Q39. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function of
A operating pressure and joint efficincy
B ultimate tensile strength and operating temperature
C both A & B
D diameter of vessel
Ans.: C
Q40. Wind load consideration in the design of a support can be neglected, when the vessel is
A tall (say 30 metres), but is full of liquid.
B tall but empty.
C short (< 2 m) and housed indoor.
D none of these.
Ans.: C
Q41 A round key is used for
(A)Light duty
(B)Medium duty
(C)Heavy duty
(D) Extra heavy duty
Ans.:C
Q42 A woodruff key is generally used in the
(A)Machine tool industry
(B)Automobile Industry
(C)Textile Machinery
(D) Hydraulic machinery
Ans.:B
Q43 Which is not a desirable property for a shaft material
(A)High strength
(B)High notch sensitivity
(C)Good machinability
(D)Good wear resistant
Ans.:B
Q44 A sunk key fits in the keyway of the _____ only
(A)Hub
(B)Sleeve
(C)Both hub and sleeve
(D)Both hub and sleeve
Ans.:A
Q45 Hollow saddle key is superior to flat saddle key as far as power transmitting capability is
concerned
(A)True
(B) False
(C)None of Above
(D)All of above
Ans.: B
Q46 Saddle key is more suitable than sunk key for heavy duty applications
A)True
(B)False
(C)None of Above
(D)All of above
Ans.:B
Q47The main advantage of sunk key is that it is a _____ drive
(A)Positive
(B)Negative
(C)Neutral
(D)None of Above
Ans.: A
Q48 Splines are keys
(A)True
(B)False
(C)None of Above
(D)All of above
Ans.:A
Q49 Solid shaft is costlier than hollow shaft of same weight
(A)True
(B)False
(C)None of Above
(D)All of above
Ans.:B
Q50The strength of hollow shaft is more than the strength of solid shaft of same weight
(A)True
(B)False
(C)None of Above
(D)All of above
Ans.:A
Q51 A coupling is a mechanical device that temporarily joins two rotating shafts to each
other
(A)True
(B)False
(C)Non of Above
(D)All of above
Ans.:B
Q52 Oldham coupling i used to connect two shafts having intersecting axes.
(A)True
(B)False
(C)None of Above
(D)All of above
Ans.:B
Q53Which of the following are functions of bearings?
(A)Ensure free rotation of shaft with minimum friction
(B)Holding shaft in a correct position
(C)Transmit the force of the shaft to the frame
(D)All of the abov
Ans.:D
Q54 A_______ bearing supports the load acting along the axis of the shaft.
(A)Thrust
(B)Radial
(C)Longitudinal
(D)Transversal
Ans.:A
Q55 Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive
(A)Decreases
(B)Increases
(C)Do not change
(D)None of above
Ans.:A
Q56 The centrifugal tension in belts
(A)increases power transmitte
(B)decreases power transmitted
(C)have no effect on the power transmitted
(D) None of above
Ans.:C
Q57When the belt is stationary, it is subjected to some tension, known as initial tension. The
value of this tension is equal to the
(A)tension in the tight side of the belt
(B)tension in the slack side of the belt
(C)Sum of A and B
(D)Average of a and B
Ans.:D
Q58 A chain can be defined as a series of links connected by
(A)Pin joints
(B)Ball joints
(C)Bolted joints
(D)None of above
Ans.:A
Q59Chain drives are used in
(A) Bicycle
(B)Motorcycle
(C)Automobile
Ans.: D
Q60 Following is true for chain drive
(A) The chain does not slip
(B)Chain drive is positive drive
(C)Chain drive is positive drive
Ans.: D
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
A Mechanical energy
B Heat energy
C Electrical energy
D Potential energy
Ans.: B
A the weight of vehicle
B the deceleration rate
C both (A) and (B)
D None of the above
Ans.: C
C Disc brake
D Disc brake
Ans.: C
C Disc brake
D All of the above
Ans.: A
A wheel
B axle
C suspension system
D none of the above
Ans.: B
A levers
B bell cranks
C cams
D all of the above
Ans.: D
A atmospheric valve
B vacuum valve
C both (A) and (B)
D None of the above

Ans.: C
A Law of conservation of momentum
B Law of conservation of energy
C Pascal’s law
D None of the above
Ans.: C
A builds up hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes
B maintains constant volume of fluid in the system
C serves as a pump to force air out of the hydraulic system
D All of the above
Ans.: D
A one cylinder and one reservoir
B two cylinders and one reservoir
C one cylinder and two reservoirs
D two cylinders and two reservoirs
Ans.: D
A only front wheels
B only rear wheels
C both front and rear wheels

D all of the above
Ans.: B
A Area of brake linings
B Radius of car wheel
C Amount of pressure applied to shoe brakes
D All of the above
Ans.: D
A the amplification of braking forces
B increase force of friction between shoe and wheel
C transfer of weight during stop
D All of the above
Ans.:A
A electrical energy
B engine vacuum
C air pressure
D all of the above
Ans.: A
A bleeding
B self energizing
C servo action
D energization
Ans.: A
Q16. Pneumatic brakes are same as electrical brakes.
A Yes both are concerned with electricity
B No, one deals with pressure and other with electricity
C Yes both deals with pressure
Ans.: B
Q17. An automobile brake is only used to reduce the speed or bring the vehicle to
hault
A Yes
B No, it also be used to hold the car
C Brake acts only onmoving vehicles
Ans.: B
Q18. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake system is
A Overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake application
B Overcooling of the brakes during high speed driving
C Keeping the vehicle without use for an extended period
D An excessively high engine speed on a downhill road
Ans.: A
Q19. When the brake pedal free play is less than the specified value, then the
A Brake drags
B Brake fades
C Vapour locking occurs in the brake lines
D Antilock braking system malfunctions
Ans.: A
Q20. A traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the
A Vibrations on the steering wheel
B Engine power during acceleration
C Torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface
D Stopping distance in case of emergency
Ans.: C
A Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
B Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
C Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
D Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
Ans.: A
Q22. The induction coil steps up low voltage current of 6 or 12 volts to high voltage
current upto about
A 10,000 volts
B 17,000 volts
C 25,000 volts
D 35,000 volts
Ans.: C
A 1 to 50
B 1 to 100
C 1 to 200
D 1 to 400
Ans.: B
A It operates break and make mechanism
B It distributes high tension current to spark plug at correct time
C both (A) and (B)
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q25. The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at ___ the engine speed in four stroke
engine
A half
B equal to
C one and half times
D double
Ans.: A
Q26. In Magneto Ignition system
A No battery is required
B Engine starting is rather difficult
C used in high speed engines

D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q27. The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’
A Battery coil ignition system
B Magneto Ignition system
C Electronic Ignition system
D Capacitive discharge Ignition system
Ans.: C
Q28. The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic Ignition system
A Produces maximum output voltage
B Better starting with cold engine
C Less possibility of arcing at spark plug
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q29. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
A2
B4
C6
D8
Ans.: C
Q30. the negative plate of lead battery has
B Spongy lead (Pb)

Ans.: B
Q31. the positive plate of lead battery has
B Spongy lead (Pb)
Ans.: A
Q32. The function of an alternator in an automobile is to
A Supply electric power
B Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
C Continually recharges the battery
D Partly converts engine power into electric power
Ans.: C
Q33. The automotive battery is also known as __________
A lithium ion battery
B lead-acid storage battery
C zinc carbon battery
D weston cell battery
Ans.: B
Q34. What is present inside a battery?
A Electrolyte
B Fluids
C Acid
D Steam
Ans.: A
Q35. What do batteries emit while charging?
A Nitrogen
B Oxygen
C Hydrogen
D Carbon
Ans.: C
Q36. In which ignition switch position is the power supplied to ignition circuit?
A Off switch position
B Run switch position
C Start switch position
D Lock switch position
Ans.: C
Q37. Which component in alternator produces a magnetic field?
A Frame
B Stator
C Regulator
D Rotor
Ans.: D
Q38. Why is a thermistor used in an alternator regulator?

A To control maximum current
B To control maximum voltage
C To compensate for temperature change
D To control minimum current
Ans.: C
Q39. At the start of the engine, the charging voltage is _______
A Lower
B Higher
C Same
D Zero
Ans.: B
Q40. In an alternator, which component controls the output?
A Voltage regulator
B Cutout relay
C Current regulator
D Diode
Ans.: A
Q41. Which of the following will occur to an air conditioning system if the power
steering is sharply moved from lock to lock while the engine is running?
A Pressure in the AC high side will increase.
B Pressure in the AC low side will decrease.
C The compressor will increase the pressure output.
D The compressor clutch may disengage.
Ans.: D
Q42. When replacing a water (coolant) pump, which of the following is the best
method of handling the used coolant?
A The coolant should be stored for recycling.
B The coolant should be reused regardless of its condition.
C The coolant should be put in with the waste oil.
D The coolant should be diluted and flushed down the drain.
Ans.: A
Q43. An air conditioning system compressor may operate under which of the
following conditions?
A When the vehicle is operated at wide open throttle.
B When the heater controls are set to defrost.
C When the heater controls are set to vent.
D When the heater controls are set to floor - recirculate.
Ans.: B
Q44. What is the colour of an HFC-134a container?
A White.
B Green.
C Blue.
D Silver.
Ans.: C
Q45. Why must an air conditioning system be evacuated before charging?
A To remove as much moisture as possible.
B To remove all the old oil from the system.
C To remove dirt and debris from the system.

D To remove all old the refrigerant from the system.
Ans.:A
Q46. Which of the following conditions may cause an air conditioning compressor
not to operate?
A The vehicle speed is over 50 km/h.
B The vehicle speed is over 90 km/h.
C The ambient temperature is too low.
D The ambient temperature is too high.
Ans.: C
Q47. If a vehicle with air conditioning is accelerated rapidly, which of the following
may occur?
A The high side pressure will be lowered to reduce load on the engine.
B The low side pressure will be lowered to reduce load on the engine.
C The compressor clutch will cycle off to reduce the load on the engine.
D The radiator fan will cycle off to reduce the load on the engine.
Ans.: C
Q48. The function of induction system of Spark Ignition (SI) engine is to supply
______ to various cylinders of the engine.
A Partly vaporized mixture of fuel and air
B Fully vaporized mixture of fuel and air
C Liquefied mixture of fuel and air
D All of the above
Ans.: A
Q49. Which of the following Air-fuel ratio is considered as rich mixture in Spark
Ignition (SI) engine?
A Below 11:1
B Below 15:1
C Below 20:1
D Above 20:1
Ans.: A
Q50. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a.......
A Compressure
B Condenser
C Evaporator
D Expansion valve
Ans.: B
Q51. When do anti-lock brakes begin to work
A Each time the brake pedal is pressed
B On road surfaces with little grip
C Just as one or more wheels begin to lock
D Only at higher speeds
Ans.: C
Q52. Anti-lock brakes prevent the wheels from locking. The benefits of this are
A Little chance of a skid
B Reduction in tyre wear
C Better road grip
D Less likely to puncture
Ans.: A
Q53. Anti-lock brakes are designed to assist the driver with the ability to
A Control the car better under accelerating
B Stop sooner
C Brake later
D Steer under heavy braking
Ans.: D
Q54. Anti-lock brakes are of most use when
A Braking normally
B Braking excessively
C Driving on highly worn tyres
D Braking gently
Ans.: B
Q55. The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is
A high boiling point
B Low viscosity
C Compatibility with rubber and metal parts
D All of these
Ans.: D
Q56. Anti-lock brakes are at their most effective when you
A Using the handbrake to reduce the stopping distance
B Apply constant and firm pressure to the foot brake until you have stopped
C Brake normally, but grip the steering wheel tightly
D Continuously pump the foot brake to prevent skidding

Ans.: B
Q57. What test allows you to determine the general condition of a maintenance
free battery?
A Cell voltage
B Battery leakage
C Battery drain
D Battery voltage
Ans.: A
Q58. What procedure is considered the only safe way to mix electrolyte for a lead-
acid battery?
A Pour water into acid slowly and stir gently.
B Pour water into acid slowly and stir vigorously.
C Pour acid into water slowly and stir gently.
D Pour acid into water slowly and stir vigorous
Ans.: A
Q59. What are the two methods for rating lead-acid storage batteries?
A Reserve capacity and discharge
B Reserve capacity and ampere-hour
C Cold-cranking and reserve capacity
D Cold-cranking and discharge
Ans.: C
Q60. A 12-volt lead-acid automotive battery consists of how many elements

connected in series?
A Six
B Four
C Three
D Two
Ans.: A
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. The solution by FEM is
A always exact
B mostly approximate
C sometimes exact
D never exact
Ans.: B
Q2. Primary variable in FEM structural analysis is
A displacement
B force
C stress
D strain
Ans.: A
Q3. The art of subdividing a structure into convenient number of smaller

components is known as
A global stiffness matrix
B force vector
C discretization
D none
Ans.: C
Q4. _______ is/are the phase/s of finite element method
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D a, b & c
Ans.: D
Q5. At Fixed support The displacements are equal to ………
A1
B2
C3
D0
Ans.: D
Q6. The sub domains are called as
A Particles
B molecules
C elements
D None
Ans.: C
Q7. Stiffness matrix depends on
A material
B geometry
C both
D none
Ans.: C
A1
B2
C3
D none
Ans.: B
Q9. The sum of shape functions is always
A1
B0
C infinite
D None
Ans.: A
A complex elements
B compound element
C linear element
D none
Ans.: A
Q11. The displacement function for 1-D ,two node linear element in terms of shape
function will be
A u = N1u2 + N2u1
B u = N2 u1 + N1u2
C u = N1u1+N2u2
D u = N1u1+N1u2
Ans.: C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Ans.: A
A 0.25-0.33
B 0.22-0.45
C 0.22-0.25
D 0.25-0.50
Ans.: D
Q14. If any element is specified by the polynomial of the order of two or more, the
element is known as
A non linear element
B higher order element
C both A&B
D none
Ans.: B
A heat transfer
B temperature
C both A&B
D none
Ans.: C
A hermite shape functions
B element shape functions
C hermite element functions
D both A&B
Ans.: B
A integral strain energy and work potential
B integral strain energy and external work done
C integral stress energy and work potential

D integral stress energy and external work done
Ans.: B
A points
B elements
C triangles
D none
Ans.: B
Q19. The number of nodes for 1 D element are__________
A1
B2
C3
D4
Ans.: B
Q20. Finite element analysis deals with
A approximate numerical solution
B non boundary value problems
C partial differential equations
D Laplace equations
Ans.: A
Q21. For two dimensional plane stress problems, normal and shear stress are____
A zero
B equal
C same
D both a&b
Ans.: A
Q22. Example of 2-D Element
A Bar
B Triangle
C Hexahedron
D Tetrahedron
Ans.: B
matrix formed is having order of________________
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Ans.: B
Q24. The distributed force per unit area on the surface of the body is
A pressure
B surface tension
C traction
D none
Ans.: A
Q25. Unit of body force acting on every elemental volume of the body is
A force per unit area
B force per unit length
C force per unit volume
D force per unit time
Ans.: A
Q26. The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called
A boundary condition
B traction
C friction
D surfacing
Ans.: A
Q27. The truss element can resist only
A axial force
B surface force
C point load
D none
Ans.: A
Q28. .Hinged support is having___________number of reaction forces.
A1
B2
C3
D4
Ans.: C
Q29. The point in the entire structure is defined using coordinates system is known
as
A local coordinate
B natural coordinates
C region coordinate
D global coordinate
Ans.: D
Q30. ___________________ magnitude never exceeds unity
A local coordinate
B natural coordinate
C region coordinate
D global coordinate
Ans.: B
Q31. The shape function has…value at one nodal point and…value at other nodal
point
A unity, negative
B positive, negative
C unity, zero
D high, low
Ans.: C
Q32. . A small unit having definite shape of geometry and node is known as
A Discrete element
B finite element
C assembled element
D Infinite element
Ans.: B
Q33. The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always
A one
B zero
C depends on size of [K]
D Two
Ans.: B
Q34. In one of the property of shape function, summation of shape function [Σfi] is
An
B 2n
C1
D0
Ans.: c
Q35. The size of the stiffness matrix isequal to the degree of freedom of the
A element
B node
C shape function
D beam
Ans.: A
Q36. In FEM the degree of freedom is often called as
A shape function
B nodal displacement
C element matrix
D coordinates
Ans.: B
Q37. The final global finite element equation for the complete structure can be
written in the Matrix form
A {F}=[k]+{u}
B {F}=[k]-{u}
C {F=[k]{u}
D{F=[k]/{u}
Ans.: C
Q38. The number of shape functions will be equal to the number of
A nodes of element
B elements of the structure
C size of the structure
D coordinates
Ans.: A
Q39. In CST element...................is constant
A Stress
B Strain
C shape function
D All
Ans.: B
Q40. In local co-ordinate system the nodes of the structure are specified by the
A Origin
B End points
C Any point on the element
D None
Ans.: A
Q41. To convert Cartesian co-ordinates in to local co-ordinates we use ...........matrix

method
A Crammer
B Henry
C Jacobian
D None
Ans.: C
Q42. The steady state problems are those which are independent of
A time
B temperature
C pressure
D all of the above
Ans.: A
Q43. For 1-D heat conductional element, Temperature function, T=
A N1T1+N2T2
B N1T1-N2T2
C N1T1/N2T2
D none
Ans.: A
Q44. Finite element method is advantageous to solve:
A Structures with complex geometries.
B Structures with dissimilar materials.
C To obtain local effects in structures.
D All of the above.
Ans.: A
Q45. The term "finite element" was first used by _____ in 1960.
A Alexander Hrennikoff
B Richard Courant
C Argyris and Kelsey
D Ray William Clough
Ans.: D
Q46. In Finite Element Method, assemblage of elements is known as ____.
A Meshing
B Discretization
C Convergence
D Reduction
Ans.: A
Q47. FEM can be used to solve :
A Boundary value problem
B Eigen value problem
C Initial value problem
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q48. Which of the following statement is true about Finite Element Analysis (FEA)?
A Residue obtained equals zero.
B The solution is exact.
C The solution is exact at boundaries.
D It is an analytical technique.
Ans.: C
Q49. In finite element analysis over a domain, an interpolation function represents

a ________.
A Change in variable over an element.
B Change in variable over the whole domain.
C Shape of the element.
D Shape of the whole domain

Ans.: B
Q50. If a domain is discretized in to N linear 1-D elements, then the number of

nodes will be:
AN
N-1
B N+1
C N+1
D 2N
Ans.: B
Q51. In a 1-D quadratic element (quad element), how many nodes are present?
A1
B2
C3
D4
Ans.: C
Q52. In FEA, the solution is said to be converging when ________.
A Element is converging to a point.
B Residue is tending to zero.
C Order of shape function is increasing.
D Number of elements is increasing.
Ans.: B
Q53. Which of the following will decrease the error?
A . Increasing the number of elements.
B Increasing the order of shape functions.

C Increasing the number of decimals in numerical values.
D All of the above.
Ans.: D
Q54. Which of the following is true about {F} in the assembly level equations, [K]{u}
= {f} + {Q} ={F}.
A {F} will represent external force for any type of governing differential equation.
B {F} represents the terms related to external load – both point and distributed loads.
C {F} represents the terms related to distributed load.
D {F} represents the terms related to point loads.
Ans.: B
Q55. Consider a time-dependent problem. Which of the options is true?
A They must be linear in both time as well as the primary variable.
B They do not require boundary conditions to be solved.
C They require initial conditions along with boundary conditions knowledge.
D They cannot be ordinary differential equation.
Ans.: C
Q56. Always the variation of primary variable will be zero at ______.
A end points.
B whole domain.
C mid point
D boundary locations where primary variable is specified.
Ans.: D
Q57. If displacements at both ends are known in a beam problem, , then:
A they must be homogeneous to solve the problem.

B they will be referred as essential boundary conditions.
C they will be referred as natural boundary conditions.
D none of the options are correct.
Ans.: B
Q58. Which of the following boundary condition need not be satisfied by the
approximation function?
(Consider 'u' as primary variable)
A du⁄dx = 0 at x=L
B u = 0 at x = L
C u = 1 at x = 0
D u = 0 at x = 0
Ans.: A
Q59. For the equation [K]{u} = {F}, the vector {F} contains:
A Stiffness terms.
B Force terms attributable to distributed external load.
C Primary Variable term.
D Terms attributable to the presence of external concentrated as well as distributed

loads
Ans.: D
Q60. . For the matrix equation [K]{u} = {f} + {Q}, natural boundary conditions are
A [K]
{Q}
B {u}
C {f}
D {f}
Ans.: D
Branch: Mechanical
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. The solution by FEM is
A always exact
B mostly approximate
C sometimes exact
D never exact
Ans.: B
Q2. Primary variable in FEM structural analysis is
A displacement
B force
C stress
D strain
Ans.: A
Q3. The art of subdividing a structure into convenient number of smaller

components is known as
A global stiffness matrix
B force vector
C discretization
D none
Ans.: C
Q4. _______ is/are the phase/s of finite element method
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D a, b & c
Ans.: D
Q5. At Fixed support The displacements are equal to ………
A1
B2
C3
D0
Ans.: D
Q6. The sub domains are called as
A Particles
B molecules
C elements
D None
Ans.: C
Q7. Stiffness matrix depends on
A material
B geometry
C both
D none
Ans.: C
A1
B2
C3
D none
Ans.: B
Q9. The sum of shape functions is always
A1
B0
C infinite
D None
Ans.: A
A complex elements
B compound element
C linear element
D none
Ans.: A
Q11. The displacement function for 1-D ,two node linear element in terms of shape
function will be
A u = N1u2 + N2u1
B u = N2 u1 + N1u2
C u = N1u1+N2u2
D u = N1u1+N1u2
Ans.: C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Ans.: A
A 0.25-0.33
B 0.22-0.45
C 0.22-0.25
D 0.25-0.50
Ans.: D
Q14. If any element is specified by the polynomial of the order of two or more, the
element is known as
A non linear element
B higher order element
C both A&B
D none
Ans.: B
A heat transfer
B temperature
C both A&B
D none
Ans.: C
A hermite shape functions
B element shape functions
C hermite element functions
D both A&B
Ans.: B
A integral strain energy and work potential
B integral strain energy and external work done
C integral stress energy and work potential

D integral stress energy and external work done
Ans.: B
A points
B elements
C triangles
D none
Ans.: B
Q19. The number of nodes for 1 D element are__________
A1
B2
C3
D4
Ans.: B
Q20. Finite element analysis deals with
A approximate numerical solution
B non boundary value problems
C partial differential equations
D Laplace equations
Ans.: A
Q21. For two dimensional plane stress problems, normal and shear stress are____
A zero
B equal
C same
D both a&b
Ans.: A
Q22. Example of 2-D Element
A Bar
B Triangle
C Hexahedron
D Tetrahedron
Ans.: B
matrix formed is having order of________________
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Ans.: B
Q24. The distributed force per unit area on the surface of the body is
A pressure
B surface tension
C traction
D none
Ans.: A
Q25. Unit of body force acting on every elemental volume of the body is
A force per unit area
B force per unit length
C force per unit volume
D force per unit time
Ans.: A
Q26. The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called
A boundary condition
B traction
C friction
D surfacing
Ans.: A
Q27. The truss element can resist only
A axial force
B surface force
C point load
D none
Ans.: A
Q28. .Hinged support is having___________number of reaction forces.
A1
B2
C3
D4
Ans.: C
Q29. The point in the entire structure is defined using coordinates system is known
as
A local coordinate
B natural coordinates
C region coordinate
D global coordinate
Ans.: D
Q30. ___________________ magnitude never exceeds unity
A local coordinate
B natural coordinate
C region coordinate
D global coordinate
Ans.: B
Q31. The shape function has…value at one nodal point and…value at other nodal
point
A unity, negative
B positive, negative
C unity, zero
D high, low
Ans.: C
Q32. . A small unit having definite shape of geometry and node is known as
A Discrete element
B finite element
C assembled element
D Infinite element
Ans.: B
Q33. The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always
A one
B zero
C depends on size of [K]
D Two
Ans.: B
Q34. In one of the property of shape function, summation of shape function [Σfi] is
An
B 2n
C1
D0
Ans.: c
Q35. The size of the stiffness matrix isequal to the degree of freedom of the
A element
B node
C shape function
D beam
Ans.: A
Q36. In FEM the degree of freedom is often called as
A shape function
B nodal displacement
C element matrix
D coordinates
Ans.: B
Q37. The final global finite element equation for the complete structure can be
written in the Matrix form
A {F}=[k]+{u}
B {F}=[k]-{u}
C {F=[k]{u}
D{F=[k]/{u}
Ans.: C
Q38. The number of shape functions will be equal to the number of
A nodes of element
B elements of the structure
C size of the structure
D coordinates
Ans.: A
Q39. In CST element...................is constant
A Stress
B Strain
C shape function
D All
Ans.: B
Q40. In local co-ordinate system the nodes of the structure are specified by the
A Origin
B End points
C Any point on the element
D None
Ans.: A
Q41. To convert Cartesian co-ordinates in to local co-ordinates we use ...........matrix

method
A Crammer
B Henry
C Jacobian
D None
Ans.: C
Q42. The steady state problems are those which are independent of
A time
B temperature
C pressure
D all of the above
Ans.: A
Q43. For 1-D heat conductional element, Temperature function, T=
A N1T1+N2T2
B N1T1-N2T2
C N1T1/N2T2
D none
Ans.: A
Q44. Finite element method is advantageous to solve:
A Structures with complex geometries.
B Structures with dissimilar materials.
C To obtain local effects in structures.
D All of the above.
Ans.: A
Q45. The term "finite element" was first used by _____ in 1960.
A Alexander Hrennikoff
B Richard Courant
C Argyris and Kelsey
D Ray William Clough

Ans.: D
Q46. In Finite Element Method, assemblage of elements is known as ____.
A Meshing
B Discretization
C Convergence
D Reduction
Ans.: A
Q47. FEM can be used to solve :
A Boundary value problem
B Eigen value problem
C Initial value problem
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q48. Which of the following statement is true about Finite Element Analysis (FEA)?
A Residue obtained equals zero.
B The solution is exact.
C The solution is exact at boundaries.
D It is an analytical technique.
Ans.: C
Q49. In finite element analysis over a domain, an interpolation function represents

a ________.
A Change in variable over an element.
B Change in variable over the whole domain.
C Shape of the element.

D Shape of the whole domain
Ans.: B
Q50. If a domain is discretized in to N linear 1-D elements, then the number of

nodes will be:
AN
N-1
B N+1
C N+1
D 2N
Ans.: B
Q51. In a 1-D quadratic element (quad element), how many nodes are present?
A1
B2
C3
D4
Ans.: C
Q52. In FEA, the solution is said to be converging when ________.
A Element is converging to a point.
B Residue is tending to zero.
C Order of shape function is increasing.
D Number of elements is increasing.
Ans.: B
Q53. Which of the following will decrease the error?
A . Increasing the number of elements.

B Increasing the order of shape functions.
C Increasing the number of decimals in numerical values.
D All of the above.
Ans.: D
Q54. Which of the following is true about {F} in the assembly level equations, [K]{u}
= {f} + {Q} ={F}.
A {F} will represent external force for any type of governing differential equation.
B {F} represents the terms related to external load – both point and distributed loads.
C {F} represents the terms related to distributed load.
D {F} represents the terms related to point loads.
Ans.: B
Q55. Consider a time-dependent problem. Which of the options is true?
A They must be linear in both time as well as the primary variable.
B They do not require boundary conditions to be solved.
C They require initial conditions along with boundary conditions knowledge.
D They cannot be ordinary differential equation.
Ans.: C
Q56. Always the variation of primary variable will be zero at ______.
A end points.
B whole domain.
C mid point
D boundary locations where primary variable is specified.
Ans.: D
Q57. If displacements at both ends are known in a beam problem, , then:

A they must be homogeneous to solve the problem.
B they will be referred as essential boundary conditions.
C they will be referred as natural boundary conditions.
D none of the options are correct.
Ans.: B
Q58. Which of the following boundary condition need not be satisfied by the
approximation function?
(Consider 'u' as primary variable)
A du⁄dx = 0 at x=L
B u = 0 at x = L
C u = 1 at x = 0
D u = 0 at x = 0
Ans.: A
Q59. For the equation [K]{u} = {F}, the vector {F} contains:
A Stiffness terms.
B Force terms attributable to distributed external load.
C Primary Variable term.
D Terms attributable to the presence of external concentrated as well as distributed

loads
Ans.: D
Q60. . For the matrix equation [K]{u} = {f} + {Q}, natural boundary conditions are
A [K]
{Q}
B {u}
C {f}
D {f}
Ans.: D
Subject : Finite Element Analysis and simulation
Branch : Mechanical Engineering
Class : BE
Semester : O8
1.From the following, which type of element is not two dimensional?

(A) Rectangle
(B) Quadrilateral
(C) Parallelogram
(D) Tetrahedron
Ans : D
2.From the following, which type of element is not three dimensional?

(A) Hexahedron
(B) Quadrilateral
(C) Rectangular prism
(D) Tetrahedron
Ans : B
3.For truss analysis, which type of elements are used?

(A) Triangle
(B) Bar
(C) Rectangle
(D) Parallelogram
Ans : B
4.To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler
parts that are called
(A) finite elements
(B) infinite elements
(C) dynamic elements
(D) static elements
Ans : A
5.The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller

elements is known as ___________ .
(A) assemblage
(B) continuum
(C) traction
(D) discretization
Ans : D
6.The sum of the shape function is equal to

(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
Ans : C
7.A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : D
8.Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on

___________ .
(A) nature of element
(B) type of an element
(C) degrees of freedom
(D) nodes
Ans : C
9.On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by

(A) KQ=F
(B) KQ≠F
(C) K=QF
(D) K≠QF
Ans : A
10.The finite element method is mostly used in the field of

(A) structural mechanics
(B) classical mechanics
(C) applied mechanics
(D) engineering mechanics
Ans : D
11.At fixed support, the displacements are equal to

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Ans : D
12.In FEA, the sub domains are called as ___________ .

(A) particles
(B) molecules
(C) elements
(D) none
Ans : C
13.The numbers of node for 1 D element are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Ans : B
14.Finite element analysis deals with ___________ .

(A) approximate numerical solution
(B) non-boundary value problems
(C) partial differential equations
(D) laplace equations
Ans : A
15.Stiffness matrix depends on

(A) material
(B) geometry
(C) both material and geometry
Ans : C
16.Example of 2-D Element is ___________ .

(A) bar
(B) triangle
(C) hexahedron
(D) tetrahedron
Ans : B
17.For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness
matrix formed is having an order of
(A) 2*2
(B) 3*3
(C) 4*4
(D) 6*6
Ans : B
18.To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are used.
(A) shape function
(B) node function
(C) element function
(D) coordinate function
Ans : A
19.The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called
(A) boundary condition
(B) traction
(C) friction
(D) surfacing
Ans : A
20.The truss element can resist only

(A) axial force
(B) surface force
(C) point load
Ans : A
21.The truss element can deform only in the

(A) axial direction
(B) vertical direction
(C) horizontal direction
(D) inclined direction
Ans : A
22.Example for one – Dimensional element is ___________ .

(A) triangular element
(B) brick element
(C) truss element
(D) axisymmetric element
Ans : C
23.The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans : D
24.How many nodes are there in a 3-D brick element?

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans :C
25.From below, choose the correct condition for the axisymmetric element.
(A) Symmetric about axis
(B) Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis
(C) Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis
(D) All the above
Ans : D
26.Axis-Symmetric element is______________Element

(A) 1D
(B) 2D
(C) 3D
(D) 4D
Ans : B
27._______ is/are the phase/s of finite element method.

(A) Preprocessing
(B) Solution
(C) Post Processing
(D) A, B & C
Ans : C
28.The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a

point in space is _______.
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
Ans : A
29.The finite element methods can be applied in ____________areas.

(A) thermal
(B) soil and rock mechanics
(C) vibration
Ans : D
30.If the structure is more complex in order to simplify the model, we need to
subdivide the structure into substructures. These substructures are termed as
_____.
(A) elements
(B) modules
(C) links
(D) models
Ans : B
31.Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix?
(A) The minimum potential energy principle
(B) Galerkin's principle
(C) Weighted residual method
(D) Inverse matrix method
Ans : D
32.______________ is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the

element to the smallest dimension.
(A) Element depth ratio
(B) Mode shape ratio
(C) Aspect ratio
Ans : C
33._________ are used to express the geometry or shape of the element.

(A) Mode shapes
(B) Shape functions
(C) Natural curves
Ans : B
34.When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is
called ________.
(A) plane stress
(B) plane strain
(C) zero stress
(D) zero strain
Ans : A
35.The characteristic of the shape function is _______.

(A) the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the
other nodes
(B) the sum of the shape function is equal to one
(C) both a & b
Ans : c
36.The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is
known as ______.
(A) local coordinates system
(B) natural coordinates system
(C) global coordinate system
Ans : C
37.The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are

______.
(A) stretching of plates
(B) gravity of dams
(C) axisymmetric shells
Ans : C
38.If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This
statement is considered in ______ .
(A) inverse matrix method
(B) weighted residual method
(C) Galerkin‟s principle
(D) the minimum potential energy principle
Ans : D
39.Which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)?

(A) K is a banded matrix
(B) K is un-symmetric
(C) K is an un-banded matrix
Ans : A
40.The actual thickness of plane strain element is ______.

(A) very large
(B) very small
(C) assumed by software
Ans : A
41.Which of the following is not an FEA package?

(A) ANSYS
(B) Nastran
(C) Abaqus
(D) AutoCAD
Ans : D
42.Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural frequency?

(A) Static analysis
(B) Thermal analysis
(C) Modal analysis
Ans : C
43.For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________.

(A) stress
(B) strain
(C) displacement
(D) temperature
Ans : D
44.In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find _______.

(A) stress distribution
(B) heat flux distribution
(C) pressure distribution
Ans : C
45.Crack propagation problems come under _______ category.

(A) steady-state problems
(B) eigenvalue problems
(C) transient problems
Ans : C
46.In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having _________

stiffness.
(A) zero
(B) very small
(C) very large
(D) infinite
Ans : D
47.How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : B
48.How many nodes are there in a hexahedron element?

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
Ans : C
49.How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron with curved sides element?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
Ans : C
50.If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be ______
accurate.
(A) more
(B) less
(D) can't say
Ans : A
51.In FEA, the use of smaller-sized elements will lead to _______ computation
time
(A) less
(B) more
(D) can't say
Ans : B
52.Elements with an aspect ratio of near to ______ generally yield best results in
FEA.
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
Ans : C
53.In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation ______.
(A) R=KQ+F
(B) R=KQ-F
(C) R=K+QF
(D) R=K-QF
Ans : B
54.The total potential energy of an elastic body is defined as _______.

(A) Strain energy - Work potential
(B) Strain energy + Work potential
(C) Strain energy + Kinetic energy - Work potential
(D) Strain energy + Kinetic energy + Work potential
Ans : B
55.The strain energy per unit volume is equal to _________.

(A) (1/2) * Force * Deflection
(B) (1/4) * Force * Deflection
(C) (1/2) * Stress * Deflection
(D) (1/4) * Stress * Deflection
Ans : A
56.As per the penalty approach, the equation of reaction force is _____.
(A) R = -CQ
(B) R = CQ
(C) R = -C (Q-a)
(D) R = -C (Q+a)
Ans : C
57.In the penalty approach, the magnitude of the stiffness constant should be at
least _______ times more than the maximum value in the global stiffness matrix.
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 1000
(D) 10000
Ans : D
58.The equation for thermal stress in each element is ________.

(A) σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
(B) σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
(C) σ = E (B + αΔt)
(D) σ = E (B - αΔt)
Ans : B
59.In any FEA software, the large amount of mathematical work is done in
________ phase.
(A) preprocessing
(B) solution
(C) postprocessing
Ans : C
60.The finite element method formulation of the problem results in a system of
A.algebraic equations
B.logical equations
C.Arthimatic equations
D.flow equations
Ans : A
Subject: Robotics
Branch: E&TC
Class: BE
Semester:VIII
1. What is the definition of a Robot?

A)A machine which resembles a human being
B) A machine capable of carrying out a complex series of actions automatically,
especially one programmable by a computer.
C) Any machine which can follow instructions
D) A machine which can think for itself, especially if the thought processes are
logical
Ans :-B
2-A Robot is a
(A) Programmable
(B) Multi functional manipulator
Ans :-C
3. Which of the following describes the a use of technology or machinery,
specifically involving liquids?
A) Pnuematics
B) Hydraulics
C) Carbonation
D) Aquatics
ANS :- B
4. Which of the following describes the a use of technology or machinery,

specifically involving gases?
A) Actuation
B) Hydraulics
C) Pneumatics
D) Carbonation
Ans :- C
5-Match the following
Robot part Function

a. Manipulator arm 1. For holding a piece or tool
b. Controllers 2. Move the manipulator arm and end effector
c. Drives 3. Number of degrees of freedom of movement
d. Gripper 4. Delivers commands to the actuators
(A) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
(B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1

(D) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Ans :-B
6-Drives are also known as
(A) Actuators
(B) Controller
(C) Sensors
(D) Manipulator
Ans :- A
7-Clockwise of Anti clockwise rotation about the vertical axis to the

perpendicular arm is provided through
(A) Shoulder swivel
(B) Elbow extension
(C) Arm sweep
(D) Wrist bend
Ans :-C
8-Radial movement (in & out) to the manipulator arm is provided by

(A) Elbow extension
(B) Wrist bend
(C) Wrist swivel
(D) Wrist yaw
Ans :-A
9-Drives are also known as
(A) Actuators
(B) Controller
(C) Sensors
(D) Manipulator
Ans :- A
10-Industrial Robots are generally designed to carry which of the following

coordinate system(s).
(A) Cartesian coordinate systems
(B) Polar coordinate systems
(C) Cylindrical coordinate system

Ans :- D
11-The Robot designed with Cartesian coordinate systems has
(A) Three linear movements
(B) Three rotational movements
(C) Two linear and one rotational movement
(D) Two rotational and one linear movement
Ans :-A
12. the study of the mechanical laws relating to the movement or structure of
living organisms (as a Science)is called?
A) Bionics
B) Biomechanincs
C) Ergonomics
D) Ergometrics
ANS :- B
13-The Robot designed with cylindrical coordinate systems has
(A) Three linear movements
(B) Three rotational movements
(C) Two linear and one rotational movement

(D) Two rotational and one linear movement
Ans :-C
14-Which of the following work is done by General purpose robot?
(A) Part picking
(B) Welding
(C) Spray painting
Ans :-D
15-The following drive is used for lighter class of Robot.
(A) Pneumatic drive
(B) Hydraulic drive
(C) Electric drive
Ans :- A
16-Internal state sensors are used for measuring __________ of the end effector.
(A) Position
(B) Position & Velocity
(C) Velocity & Acceleration
(D) Position, Velocity & Acceleration
Ans :- D
17-Radial movement (in & out) to the manipulator arm is provided by
(A) Elbow extension
(B) Wrist bend
(C) Wrist swivel
(D) Wrist yaw
Ans :-A
18-Which of the following sensors determines the relationship of the robot and
its environment and the objects handled by it
(A) Internal State sensors
(B) External State sensors
Ans :-C
19-Which of the following is not a programming language for computer
controlled robot?
(A) AMU
(B) VAL
(C) RAIL
(D) HELP
Ans :- A
20. Programming a robot by physically moving it through the trajectory you want
it to follow is called
a) contact sensing control
b) continuous path control
c) pick and place control
d) robot vision control
Answer: b
21. What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot
controllers?
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) feedback
d) signal
Answer: c
22. Which of the following terms refers to the rotational motion of a robot arm?
a) swivel
b) axle
c) retrograde
d) roll
Answer: d
23. What is the name for space inside which a robot unit operates?
a) environment
b) spatial base
c) work envelope
d) exclusion zone
Answer: c
24. Which of the following terms IS NOT one of the five basic parts of a robot?
a) peripheral tools
b) end effectors
c) controller
d) drive
Answer: a
25. Decision support programs are designed to help managers make __________
a) budget projections
b) visual presentations
c) business decisions
d) vacation schedules
Answer: c
26. PROLOG is an AI programming language which solves problems with a form

of symbolic logic known as predicate calculus. It was developed in 1972 at the
University of Marseilles by a team of specialists. Can you name the person who
headed this team?
a) Alain Colmerauer
b) Niklaus Wirth
c) Seymour Papert
d) John McCarthy
Answer: a
27. The number of moveable joints in the base, the arm, and the end effectors of
the robot determines_________
a) degrees of freedom
b) payload capacity
c) operational limits
d) flexibility
Answer: a
28. Which of the following places would be LEAST likely to include operational
robots?
a) warehouse
b) factory
c) hospitals
d) private homes
Answer: d
29. For a robot unit to be considered a functional industrial robot, typically, how
a) three
b) four
c) six
d) eight
Answer: c
30. Which of the basic parts of a robot unit would include the computer circuitry
a) sensor
b) controller
c) arm
d) end effector
Answer: b
31. Robotics is a branch of AI, which is composed of ___________.

A. Electrical Engineering
B. Mechanical Engineering
C. Computer Science
D. All of the above
Ans : A
32. If a robot has k legs, then the number of possible events is :
A. N = (2k-2)
B. N = (2k-1)!
C. N = (2^k-1)!
D. N = (2k-2)!
Ans : B
33. Name the wheel which is used to rotates around the wheel axle and around
the contact.
A. Castor wheel
B. Standard wheel
C. Swedish 45degree
D. spherical wheel
Ans : B
34. What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot
controllers?
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. feedback
D. signal
Ans : C
35. For a robot unit to be considered a functional industrial robot, typically, how
a) three
b) four
c) six
d) eight
Answer: c
36. Pumps that discharge liquid in a continuous flow are referred to as non-
positive displacement.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
37. Assertion (A): The servo robot is a closed loop system

Reason(R): It allows for a feedback
a) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
Answer: a
38. A__________ translates signals from the controller into the motor voltage and
current signals.
a) Servo motor
b) Servo amplifier
c) AC motor
d) DC motor
Answer: b
39. Pumps that discharge liquid in a continuous flow are referred to as non-
positive displacement.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
40. Motors used for electronic actuator drives :

a) AC servo motors
b) DC servo motors
c) Stepper motors
Answer: d
41. The basic components of hydraulic fluid power system are :
a) Reservoir
b) Pump and lines
c) Actuating devices and control valves
Answer: d
42. Connectors and fittings are used in the fluid power system :
a) To connect to various sections of the fluid lines to each other
b) To detach the fluid lines to the components of the system
c) They are used in the high pressure fluid system
Answer: a
43. ____________ is the back and forth motion of pistons inside of cylinders that
provide the flow of fluid.
a) Fluid pump
b) Gravity pump
c) Reciprocating pump
d) Displacement pump
Answer: c
44. Which of the following is correct for proximity sensors?

a) Inductive type
b) Capacitive type
c) Ultrasonic wave type
Answer: d
45. Assertion (A): It is all but impossible to design a practical fluid power system
without some means of controlling the volume and pressure of the fluid.
Reason (R): It is controlled and done by valves.
a) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
Answer: a
46. Deciding the method of control by:

a) The purpose of valve
b) Type of fluid
c) Design and purpose of the system
Answer: d
47. Valves can be classified according to their use as:

a) Directional flow
b) Pressure control
c) Flow control
Answer: d
48. Which of the following person used the name robot first time in print?
a) Josef capek
b) Karelcapek
c) Isaac asimov
Answer: c
49. Principles of cybernetics was developed by ___________

a) Josef capek
b) Norbert wiener
c) Isaac asimov
d) Karelcapek
Answer: b
50. ANN stands for ___________

a) Artificial neural network
b) Arithmetic neural network
c) Artificial neural node
Answer: a
51. Which of the following represents muscles of a robot?

a) Actuators
b) Power supply
c) Micro controllers
d) Robotic arm
Answer: a
52. ZMP stands for _________________

a) Zero movement power
b) Zero magnetic point
c) Zero moment point
d) Zero metric point
Answer:c
53. L293D is a/an ________________

a) Motor driver IC
b) Micro controller
c) Bluetooth module
d) IR receiver/transmitter
Answer: a
54. In ANN, neurons are represented by ___________
a) Processing element
b) Memory
c) Wires
Answer: a
55. Robots are specified by

a) pay load
b) dimension of work envelope
c) degree of freedom
Answer: d
56. In ANN, all PE’s are connected with feedback.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
57. MLP is feed-forward network.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
58. Wrist motion of y involves

a) right to left rotation of the object
b) up and down rotation of the object
c) twisting of the object about the arm axis
Answer: a
59. Hydraulic drives are used for a robot when

a) high torque is required
b) high power is required
c) rapid motion of robot arm
Answer: d
60. A computer program that contains expertise in a particular domain is called

an
a) automatic processor
b) intelligent planner
c) expert system processor
d) operations symbolizer
Answer: c
SUBJECT: Energy Conservation and Management
(BE Mechanical)
UNIT I
1.The energy sources, that are either found or stored in nature are
a) Secondary Energy Sources b) Primary Energy Sources
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
2. Which of the following is commercial energy source?
a) Electricity b) Coal c) Oil d) All the above
3. Inexhaustible energy sources are known as
a) commercial Energy b) renewable Energy
c) primary energy d) secondary energy
4. Which country has the largest share of the global coal reserves?
a) Russia b) China c) USA d) India
5. The % of gas reserves for Russian Federation, when compared to world reserve is considered at
a) 10 % of World reserve b) 20 % of World reserve
c) 30 % of World reserve d) 40 % of World reserve
6. World oil reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 60 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
7. World gas reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 65 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
8. The global primary energy consumption (2002) was equivalent to
a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe

9. The primary energy consumption of India is
a) 1/29 of the world b) 1/16 of the world
c) 1/7 of the world d) 1/20 of the world
10. The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of coal
a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0
11. Which fuel dominates the energy mix in Indian energy scenario?–
a) Oil b) Natural gas c) Coal d) Nuclear
12. The fourth largest producer of coal and lignite in the world is ______ (EM/EA)
a) USA b) Russia c) India d) China
13. Indian per capita energy consumption is ____ of the world average.
a) 4% b) 20% c) 1% d) 10%
14. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as:
a) Energy Ratio b) Energy intensity c) Per capita consumption d) None
15. India’s energy intensity is ___ times of world average.
a) 1.5 b) 2.5 c) 3.6 d) 10
16. India’s current percentage peak demand shortage for electricity is: (EM/EA)
a) 1% b) 3% c) 10% d) 14%
17. Name the Act, which is proposed to bring the qualitative transformation of the
electricity sector:
a) Regulatory Commission Act 1998 b) Indian Electricity Act 1910
c) Supply Act 1948 d) Electricity Act 2003
18. Which of the following is highest contributor to the air pollution?
a) Carbon Monoxide b) Hydro Carbons
c) Sulphur Oxides d) Particulates

19. Projected temperature increase in degree centigrade 2100 due to climate change is:
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 Increase
20. Acid rain is caused by the release of the following components from combustion of fuels.
a) SOx and NOx b) SOx and CO2 c) CO2 and NOx d) H2O
UNIT II
1. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is
a) Kinetic energy b) Electrostatic c) Potential d) Magnetic
2. The energy stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules is called
a) Kinetic energy b) Chemical energy
c) Potential energy d) Magnetic energy
3. Active power consumption of motive drives AC 3 phase can be determined by using one of the
following relations.
a) √3 x V x I b) √3 x V2 x I x cosϕ
c) √3 x V x I2 x Cosϕ d) √3 x V x I x Cosϕ
4. The grade of energy can be classified as low, high, extra ordinary. In case of electrical energy it would
fall under ____ category. (EM/EA)
a) low grade b) extra ordinary grade c) high grade d) none of the above
5. The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as
a) Apparent power b) Active power
c) Reactive Power d) None of the above
6. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of (EM/EA)
a) Apparent power & Active power b) Active power & Reactive power
c) Active Power & Apparent power d) Apparent power & Reactive power
7. kVA is also called as
a) reactive power b) apparent power
c) active power d) captive power
8. The energy consumed by a 50 kW motor loaded at 40 kW over a period of 4 hours is
a) 50 kWh b) 160 kWh c) 40 kWh d) 2000 kWh
9. The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as
a) Load factor b) Demand factor
c) Contract demand d) none of the above
10. A single phase induction motor is drawing 10 amps at 230 volts. If the operating power factor of the
motor is 0.9, then the power drawn by the motor is
a) 2.3 kW b) 3.58 kW c) 2.07 kW d) 2.70 kW
11. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 OC is termed as
a) Specific heat b) Heat capacity c) One Calorie d) Sensible heat
12. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates
a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor
c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
13. The quantity of heat required to change 1 kg of the substance from liquid to vapor state without
change of temperature is termed as
a) Latent heat of fusion b) Latent heat of vaporization
c) Heat capacity d) Sensible heat
14. The latent heat of condensation of 1 kg of steam at 100 °C to form water at 100 °C, it gives out the
heat of
a) 580 kCal b) 540 kCal c) 620 kCal d) 2260 kCal
15. The specific heat of ____ is very high compared to other common substances listed below.
a) Lead b) Mercury c) Water d) Alcohol

16. The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:
a) decreases with decreasing temperature b) increases with increasing temperature
c) decreases with increasing temperature d) None of the above
17. The quantity of heat Q, supplied to a substance to increase its temperature depends upon the
following.
a) sensible heat added b) latent heat of fusion
c) specific heat of the substance d) heat capacity
18. Unit of specific heat in SI system is_________.
a) joule /kg °C b) kg/cm2 c) kcal/m3 d) kcal/cm2
19. The change by which any substance is converted from a gaseous state to liquid state is termed as -----
a) condensation b) Evaporation c) Fusion d) Phase change
20. The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in the boiler is termed as ---
a) Extraction b) Cogeneration c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
UNIT III
1. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive positions”.
This can be the definition of:
a) Energy conservation b) Energy management
c) Energy policy d) Energy Audit
2. The energy management function is generally vested in –
a) Senior Management b) One energy manager or co-ordinator
c) Distributed among number of middle manager d) (b) & (c) together

3. The objective of energy management includes
a) Minimising energy costs b) minimising waste
c) Minimising environmental degradation d) all the above
4. The ratio of current year’s production to the reference year’s production is called as. (EA/EM)
a) demand factor b) production factor
c) utilisation factor d) load factor
5. Replacement of steam based hot water generation by solar system is an example of
a) matching energy usage to the requirement b) maximising system efficiency
c) Energy substitution d) Performance improvement
6. One unit of electricity is equivalent to ___ kcal heat units.
a) 800 b) 860 c) 400 d) 680
7. The benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is
a) kW/Ton of Refrigeration b) kW/ kg of refrigerant handled
c) kcal/m3 of chilled water d) Differential temperature across chiller
8. The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference year rate of
use, is called
a) Energy Utilization b) Energy Performance c) Energy Efficiency d) None
9. Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas? (EA)
a) Combustion analyzer b) Power analyzer c) Pyrometer d) Fyrite
10. Lux meter is used to measure…… (EA)
a) Illumination level b) Sound intensity and illumination level
c) Harmonics d) Speed
11. For a cement plant the parameter, “kWh/MT of clinker “indicates
a) Energy Index parameter b) Utility factor
c) Production factor d) load factor

12. Energy manger should be well versed with
a) Manufacturing and processing skills b) Managerial and technical skills
c) Technical and marketing skills d) Managerial and commercial skills
13. An energy policy does not include
a) Target energy consumption reduction b) Time period for reduction
c) Declaration of top management commitment d) Future production projection
14. CO2 measurement of Fyrite kit is based on (EA)
a) Weight basis (dry) b) Volume basis (dry)
c) Weight basis (wet) d) Volume basis (wet)
15. Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by
a) Tachometer b) Stroboscope
c) Oscilloscope d) Speedometer
16. The tool used for performance assessment and logical evaluation of avenues for improvement in
Energy management and audit is
a) Fuel substitution b) Monitoring and verification
c) Energy pricing d) Bench marking
17. Infrared thermometer is used to measure
a) Surface temperature b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature d) Hot water temperature
18. Find out the ‘odd’ among the following choices for fuel substitution for industrial sector of India.
a) LDO with LSHS b) coal with rice husk
c) natural gas for fertilizer plant d) LPG for soft coke
19. The various types of the instruments, which requires during audit need to be
a) easy to carry b) easy to operate
c) inexpensive d) all (a) to (c)

20. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using ___ and manometer
a) Orifice meter b) Borden gauge
c) Pitot tube d) Anemometer
ANSWERKEY
Unit I Unit II Unit III
Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans

1 B 1 B 1 B
2 A 2 B 2 D
3 B 3 D 3 D
4 C 4 C 4 B
5 C 5 C 5 C
6 A 6 C 6 B
7 B 7 B 7 A
8 C 8 B 8 B
9 A 9 B 9 A
10 B 10 C 10 A
11 C 11 C 11 A
12 C 12 B 12 B
13 B 13 B 13 D
14 B 14 B 14 B
15 A 15 C 15 B
16 D 16 C 16 D
17 D 17 C 17 A
18 A 18 A 18 D
19 A 19 A 19 D
20 A 20 B 20 C
Subject : Tribology
Branch : Mechanical
Class : B. E.
Semester : VIII
1) Asperities are basically

A) Sharp tip on surface.
B) Edge of a surface.
C) Corner of a surface.
D) Hole in a surface.
Ans : A
2) The Meaning of Greek word “Tribos” from which the word Tribolgy is formed is
A) Rubbing B) Movement C) Fluid D) Heat
Ans : A
3) Which one of the following statement is true,
A) Wear rate increases with increasing load.
B) Wear rate decreases with increasing temperature.
C) Wear rate decreases with increasing speed.
D) Wear rate is independent of load/temperature.
Ans : A
4) The force of friction depends upon
A) Nature of surface of contacts
B) Material of objects in contact
C) Both “A’ and ‘B’
D) None of the Above
Ans : C
5) The ratio of limiting force of friction(F) to the normal reaction (R) is known as
A) Coefficient of friction
B) Force of friction
C) Angle of friction
Ans : A
6) Zero wear increases performance because
A) It causes polishing of surface
B) Size of surface asperities increase
C) It removes lubrication from the surface
D) It increases load bearing capacity of the surface
Ans : A
7) Which one of the following parameter is not included by StribackCurve ?
A) Viscosity of the lubricant.
B) Speed of the surfaces.
C) Load at the interface.
D) Surface roughness.
Ans : D
8) Which among the following is not an adhesive wear mechanism ?
A) Galling B) Scoring C) scuffing D) Polishing
Ans : D
9) As per the Archard’s wear equation , wear volume in adhesive wear is independent of
A) Sliding distance of travel
B) Load
C) Hardness of soft Material
D) Rolling Distance
Ans : D
10) Which of the following is not true about measurable wear?
A) Measurable wear is undesirable.
B) It can cause vibration of noise.
C) Measurable wear may roughen the surfaces.
D) It polishes the surfaces.
Ans : D
11) Scratching is form of
A) Abrasive wear B ) Adhesive wear C) Corrosive wear D) Fatigue wear
Ans : A
12) Erosive wear is a function of
A) Particle velocity B) Impact angle C) Size of abrasive D) All of above
Ans : D
13) Wear rate is lesser in 3-body abrasion as compared to 2-body abrasion because--
A) Energy is consumed in rolling motion of free hard particles.
B) Only spherical asperities are involved in 3-body abrasion.
C) Size of the asperities is smaller in 3-body abrasion.
D)Generally hardness of free particles is very low.
Ans : A
14) To minimizing sliding friction, shear strength of the lubricant compared to shear strength
of the Tribo-surfaces should be:
A) Higher B) Lower C) insignificant D) Equal
Ans : C
15) As the temperature is increased, coefficient of friction
A) Increases.
B) Reduces.
C) Remains unchanged.
D) Increases or decrease based on the lubrication regime.
Ans : D
16) The force of friction acts in a direction ______ to the direction on motion of object
A) Same B) Opposite C) Perpendicular D) Downwards
Ans : B
17) In hydrodynamic lubrication the major source of friction is
A) Shearing of lubrication film.
B) Abrasion due to asperities on tribo-surfaces.
C) Abrasion of tribo-surfaces due to free particles.
D) All of the above
Ans : A
18) When the two surfaces in contact have a thick layer of lubrication I between them, it is
known as
A) Solid friction B) Rolling friction C) Greasy friction D) Film friction
Ans : D
19) Which of the following kinetic friction is smaller?
A) Limiting friction B) Static friction C) Rolling friction D) Sliding friction
Ans : C
20) Friction can be increased by _____
A) Using air cushion B) lubricants C) using sand D) using ball bearings
Ans : C
21) The following is (are) the example(s) of Plain bearing(s).
A) Linear Bearing
B) Journal bearing
C) Thrust Bearing
D) All of the Above
Ans : D
22) In hydrostatic bearings ,
A) The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal.
B) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure.
C) Do not require external supply of lubricant.
D) Grease is used for lubrication.
Ans : D
23) On the basis of direction of load bearing can be classified as-
A) Radial, thrust, conical.
B) Radial, conical, hydrodynamic.
C) Aerodynamic, hydrodynamic ,dry.
D) Rolling, sliding, linear.
Ans : A
24) Babbitt is used
A) Usually to make integral bearings
B) To not to damage the journal bearing during direct contact
C) To collect any containments in the lubrication
D) All of the above
Ans : D
25) The factors that constitute energy loss in hydrostatic bearing are ,
A) Energy loss to pump the lubricating oil.
B) Energy loss due to viscous friction.
C) Both A) and B) .
D) None of the these.
Ans : C
26) Hydrostatic bearing usually use ____ as lubricant
A) Oil
B) Grease
C) Semi solid lubricant
D) Any of the above
Ans : A
27) Hydrostatic bearing enters Hydrodynamic state when the journal is
A) Stationary B) Rotating C) any of the above D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Ans : B
28) Which type of bearing(s) provides a bearing surface for forces acting along axis to the
shaft?
A) Thrust bearing.
B) Journal bearing.
C) Linear bearing.
D) None of the above.
Ans : A
29) Which of the following is not a part of Hydrostatic lubrication system?
A) Runner B) Pressure Gauge C) tank D) ball valve
Ans : D
30) where pad is located in hydrostatic bearing.
A) Middle B) top C) bottom D) centre
Ans : C
31) Hydrostatic bearing usully use --- as lubricant.
A) Oil
B) Grease.
C) Nothing.
D) Any of the above.
Ans : A
32) The Hydrostatic bearing is not used in following application
A) Ball mills
B) Dental drills
C) Accelerometers
D) Gyroscope
Ans : C
33) Average velocity of lubricating fluid is.
A) 2/3 of maximum velocity
B) 1/3 of max velocity
C) 1/2 of maximum velocity
D) 3/4 of maximum velocity
Ans : A
34) AHydrostatic bearing enters hydrodynamic state when the journal is
A) Stationary.
B) Rotatory.
C) Both A) and B)
Ans : B
35) Which of the following are SAE viscosity grades for engine oils?
A) SAE 18 B) SAE 20 C) SAE 35 D) All of the above
Ans : B
36) Which of the following is not a physical property of lubricant.
A) pour point
B) cloud point
C) Demulsibility
D) Foaming
Ans : C
37) Which of the following is not a additives.
A) Alcohol
B) Fish oil
C) Synthetic oil
D) Amine
Ans : C
38) If the lubricating oil having density of 0.9gm/cc then what is the value of oil in kg/m3
A) 900 kg/m3
B) 90kg/m3
C) 9000kg/m3
D) 0.9 kg/m3
Ans : A
39) Convert the flow rate of fluid 0.376092x106 mm3 /sec flowing through rectangular slot in
lit/min
A) 11.1155 lit per min
B) 22.5655 lit per min
C) 33.4656 lit per min
D) 44.333 lit per min
Ans : B
40) An oil of relative density 0.8 has a viscosity of 0.4 Pascal-seconds at a given temperature.
Convert it into CP
A) 200CP
B) 300CP
C) 400CP
D) 350CP
Ans : C
41) In the Petroff’s equation the value of eccentricity / radial clearance (Eccentricity ratio(e))
is ranging from
A) 0 to 0.2 B) 0 to 1 C) 0 to 0.5 D) None of the Above
Ans : C
42) The usual clearance provided in hydrodynamic bearing per mm of diameter of shaft is
A) 0.01 micron
B) 0.1 micron.
C) 1 micron,
D) 10 micron.s
Ans : C
43) A journal of 120 mm diameter rotates in a bearing at a speed of 1000 rpm. What is the
power lost during friction if 8 kN radial load acts on the journal and coefficient of friction
is 2.525 x 10-3?
A) 0.126 kW
B) 0.253 KW
C) 2.365 kW
D) 7.615 Kw
Ans : A
44) A journal bearing is a ---contact bearing working on the hydrodynamic lubrication and
which supports load in ----direction.
A) Sliding, Axial.
B) Rolling, Radial.
C) Sliding, Radial.
D) Rolling, Axial.
Ans : A
45) The following is (are) the example(s)of plain bearing(s).
A) Thrust bearing .
B) Linear bearing.
C) Journal bearing.
D) All of the above.
Ans : D
46) The lubrication in which load of bearing is carried solely by a film of fluid and
there is no contact between the two bearings surface is called ,
A) Full film condition .
B) Boundary film condition.
C) Dry condition.
Ans : A
47) In hydrodynamic bearings
A) The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
B) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
C) Do not require external supply of lubricant
D) Grease is used for lubrication
Ans : A
48) The bearings of heavy series have capacity __________ over the medium series.
A) 20 to 30%
B) 10 to 20%
C) 30 to 40%
D) 40 to 50%
Ans : A
A) 0.01 micron
B) 0.1 micron
C) 1 micron
D) 10 microns
Ans : C
50) Oil in journal bearing should be applied at the point where load is
A) Nil or lightest
B) Maximum
C) Average
D) Any one of the above
Ans : A
51) The rated life of a bearing varies
A) Directly as load
B) Inversely as square of load
C) Inversely as cube of load
D) Inversely as fourth power of load
Ans : C
52) On the basis of direction of load bearing can be classified as
C) Aerodynamic, hydrodynamic, dry.
Ans : A
53) Required material properties for the design of journal bearing are:
A) Durable.
B) Low friction.
C) Low wear.
Ans : D
54) In a hydrodynamic lubricated bearing ,
A) There is a thick film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing.
B) There is a thin film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing.
C) There is no lubricant between the journal and the bearing.
D) The lubricant is forced between the journal and the bearing by external
pressure.
Ans : A
55) What are very important factors for design of hydrodynamic bearing for given shaft
diameter?
A) Bearing clearance, length.
B) Bearing length, bore diameter.
C) Both (a) & (b).
D) Bearing thickness
Ans : A
56) How many rolling elements are present inside a hydrodynamic bearing?
A) 10
B) 12.
C) 15.
D) None of these
Ans : D
57) In what operating conditions grease is used to lubricate a journal bearing?
A) Temperature involved is low.
B) Low operating speed.
C) Both (a) & (b).
D) None of these.
Ans : C
58) Which of the following is true about full journal bearing?
A) The angle of contact of bushing with the journal is 3600.
B) The angle of contact of bushing with the journal is less than 1800.
C) Full journal bearing can take load in any axial direction.
D) Full journal bearing can take load in any radial direction.
Ans : D
59) Petroff’s equation is used for
A) Rough estimation of friction loss in sliding bearing.
B) Change in viscosity wrt to temperature.
C) Change in density wrt to temperature.
D) Both (a) & (b)
Ans : A
60) In hydrodynamic lubrication minimum film thickness (hmin), a critical design criterion, is
a function of :
A) Relative velocity (U).
B) Applied load (W).
C) Viscosity.
D) All of above.
Ans : D
**********
Subject: Tribology
Branch : mechanical engg
Class : BE
Semester VIII
1) The meaning of the Greek word “Tribos” from which the word Tribology is formed is
A. Rubbing.
B. Movement.
C. Fluid.
D. Heat.
Ans A. Rubbing
2) The following is (are) the example(s) of static friction
A. Shoe brake applied to a vehicle

B. Shoe brake applied to a train
C. Dry grinding stone abrades the surface of metal
D. All of the above
Ans All of the above
3) The flash point of lubricant must be the working temperature.

a) well below
b )well above
c )equal to
Ans well above
4) Specific gravity of lubricant can be measured by using

a)Hydrometer
b)Viscometer
c)Anemometer
d)Pyranometer
ANS a Hydrometer
5) the absolute viscosity of water at room temperature is
a) 1 cP
b) 2 cP
c) 3 cP
d) 4 cP
Ans 1 cP
6) of the lubricating oil is its ability to separate from water.
Viscosity
Foaming
Demulsibility
Oxidation stability
Ans Demulsibility
7) Synovial fluid is a lubricant that is found in

A. Human bone joints.
B. Gearboxes.
C. IC engines.
D. Rolling element bearings.
Ans Human bone joints
8) Which formula is used to calculate angle of static friction (Φs)?

a. tan-1 μs
b. sin-1 μs
c. cos-1 μs
Ans . tan-1 μs
9) Frictional force depends on

a. surface area in contact
b. roughness of surface
c. both a. and b.
Ans roughness of surface
10) cannot be used for determining the coefficient of friction
a) Inclined plane rig

b) Pin on disk rig
c) Pin on cylinder rig
d) Crossed cylinder Rig
Ans Inclined plane rig
11) which of the following theory said that there are certain attractive and repulsive forces
existing between the molecule of contacting surfaces
a) Coulombs Theory of interlocking

b) Tomlinson theory of molecular attraction
c) Bowden and tabors theory
Ans Tomlinson theory of molecular attraction
12) . The coefficient of static friction is

a) Less than the coefficient of kinetic friction
b) Greater than the coefficient of limiting friction
c) Equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction
d) Equal to the tangent of the angle of friction
Ans d) Equal to the tangent of the angle of friction

a) Limiting friction
b) Static friction
c) Rolling friction
d) Sliding friction
14) is the friction experienced between two dry and unlubricated surfaces
in contact.
a) Pivot friction
b) Solid friction
c) Boundary friction
Ans b) Solid friction
15) which of the following is type of minor wear

a)surface fatigue wear
b)fretting
c)adhesive wear
d)abrasive wear
ans fretting
16) Assumption in Archards equation for adhesive wear

a)the contacting surface have hemispherical asperities
b) the contacting surface have conical asperities
c) the contacting surface have upright cylindrical asperities
Ans the contacting surface have hemispherical asperities
17) The viscosity of petroleum oil for hydraulic lifts is

a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) Very high
Ans b) Low
18) The properties of lubricants are
a) viscosity
b) flash point
c) fire point
Ans d) all of the mentioned
19) is the ability of the oil to resist internal deformation due to mechanical
stresses.
a) Viscosity
b) Flash point
c) Fire point
Ans Viscosity
20) is the measure of density of oil.

a) Specific gravity
b) Film Strength
c) Adhesiveness
Ans Film Strength
21) What is the S.I unit of kinematic viscosity?

a. N-s / m2
b. m2 / s
c. N-s m2
ans b. m2 / s
22) Which of the following parameters in Petroff's equation f = 2π2 (μns/p) (r/c) is/are
dimensionless?
a. r/c
b. μns/p
c. Both a. and b.
ans c. Both a. and b.
23) Which of the following formula is used to calculate oil-film thickness in hydrodynamic
bearings?
a. h = (c + Є cos θ)
b. h =(c – Є cos θ)
c. h = c (1+ Є sin θ)
d. h = c (1+ Є cos θ)
ans h = c (1+ Є cos θ)
In hydrodynamic bearings
a) The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
b) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
c) Do not require external supply of lubricant
d) Grease is used for lubrication
Ans a) The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
25) Antifriction bearings are

a)Sleeve bearings
b)Hydrodynamic bearings
c)Thin lubricated bearings
d)None of the above
Ans None of the above
26) In hydrostatic bearings
a) The Oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
b) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
c) Do not require external supply of lubricant
d) Grease is used for lubrication
Ans The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
27) -Lubricant converts

a) Solid friction into liquid friction
b) Liquid friction into solid friction
c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Ans Solid friction into liquid friction
28) The following lubricants are obtained by fractional distillation of petroleum

a)Fatty oils
b) Solid lubricants
c) All of the above
d) Mineral oils
Ans Mineral oils
29) For low pressure and low speeds, we use
a)Mineral oils
b)Semi-solid lubricants
c)Solid lubricants
d)All of the above
Ans Solid lubricants
30) Which of the following is NOT a function of lubricant in IC engine?

A. Form a film to separate the surfaces.
B. Adhere to surface.
C. Withstand high temperature inside the cylinder.
D. Reduce the size of the asperities and improve the surface finish.
Ans . Reduce the size of the asperities and improve the surface finish.
31) The purpose of lubrication is

A. To reduce friction.
B. To reduce wear.
C. Transfer heat produced.
D. All of above.
Ans All of above.
32) As the temperature is increased, the coefficient of friction

A. Increases.
B. Reduces.
C. Remains unchanged.
D. Increase or decrease based on the lubrication regime.
Ans B. Reduces.
33) Viscosity Index denotes

A. Relationship between the dynamic and kinematic viscosities.
B. Sensitivity of lubricants viscosity with respect to temperature.
C. Both (a) and (b).
D. There is no sliding and only rolling motion involved between cage
and balls.
Ans b Sensitivity of lubricants viscosity with respect to temperature.
34) Viscosity Index of the mineral oil can be improved by?

A. Removing aromatics components during refining stage.
B. Blending with high viscous index oils.
C. Using polymeric additives.
Ans Using polymeric additives.
35) Which one is the common system for oil classification?
A. SAE (Society of Automobile Engineers).
B. API (American Petroleum Institute).
C. ISO (International Organization for Standardization).
Ans SAE (Society of Automobile Engineers).
36) Out of the following which is NOT an example of solid lubricant?

A. Graphite lubricant.
B. Molybdenum Sulphite lubricant.
C. Polytetrafluoroethylene lubricant.
D. Multigrade lubricant.
Ans Multigrade lubricant
37) Which of the following is/are the constituents of grease?

A. Base oil.
B. Additive.
C. Thickness fibre.
D. All of above.
Ans All of above.
38) Phenomenon of stick-slip occurs because of

A. Large difference between static and kinetic coefficients of friction.
B. Additional force requirement to move the object.
C. Increase in hardness of surfaces.
D. Lubrication is applied on the surfaces.
Ans Large difference between static and kinetic coefficients of friction.
39) Cold weld between two surfaces happens because of

A. Excessive lubrication.
B. Adhesion between two surfaces.
C. Relatively high surface roughness.
D. Low temp on area of contact
Ans Adhesion between two surfaces.
40) Deformation of asperities causes

A. Increase in friction.
B. Decrease in friction.
C. Can increase or decrease friction.
D. No effect.
Ans Increase in friction
41) Which one of the following statement is true?
A. Wear rate increases with increasing load.
B. Wear rate decreases with increasing temperature.
C. Wear rate decreases with increasing speed.
D. Wear rate is independent of load/temperature.
Ans A. Wear rate increases with increasing load.
42) As per Archard’s wear equation, wear volume in adhesive wear is

independent of
A. Sliding distance of travel.
B. Load.
C. Hardness of the soft material.
D. Rolling distance.
Ans A. Sliding distance of travel.
43) friction is the force of friction experienced by a body

when it is at rest.
a) Dynamic
b) Static
c) Sliding
d) Rolling
Ans b) Static
44) friction is the value of the limiting friction just before

slipping occurs.
a) Dynamic
b) Static
c) Sliding
d) Rolling
Ans b) Static
45) friction is the force of friction experienced by a body

when it is in motion.
a) Dynamic
b) Static
c) Sliding
d) Rolling
Ans a) Dynamic
46) When a body slides over another, the frictional force experienced by
the body is known as friction.
a) sliding
b) rolling
c) static
ans a) sliding
47) Co-efficient of sliding friction for rubber on concrete is
a) 0.030
b) 0.70
c) 0.18
d) 0.004
Ans b) 0.70
48) Co-efficient of sliding friction for steel is

a) 0.030
b) 0.70
c) 0.18
d) 0.004
Ans c) 0.18
49) The co-efficient of dynamic friction is than static

friction.
a) greater
b) equal to
c) lesser
Ans c) lesser
50) The viscosity is measured by

a) barometer
b) thermometer
c) viscosimeter
Ans c) viscosimeter
51) is the lowest temperature at which the oil burns

continuously.
a) Viscosity
b) Flash point
c) Fire point
ans c) Fire point
52)most mineral oil have relative density in the range

a) 0.75 to 0.85
b) 0.85 to 0.95
c) 0.65 to 0.75
ans b) 0.85 to 0.95
53)specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature

of one unit mass of lubricant through
a) 1 degree centigrade
b) 2 degree centigrade
c) 3 degree centigraded) 4 degree centigrade
ans a) 1 degree centigrade
54)which of following is not desirable property of lubricant

a) high VI
b) high flash point
c) low pour point
d) low specific heat
ans d) low specific heat
55)eccentricity is a distance between

a) oil film thickness and center of bearing
b) center of bearing and journal in operating condition
c) both a and b
d) none of above
56)which assumption is wrong in Reynolds equation

a) the lubricant obey Newtons law of viscosity
b) the flow of lubricant is laminar
c) the lubricant is incompressible.
d) none of above
57) In infinitely long journal bearings the length of journal bearing in axial
direction is assume to be
a) finite
b) infinite
c)neglected
d) none of above
ans b) infinite
58) which of following is not bearing design variable

a) length to diameter ratio
b) unit bearing pressure
c) radial clearance
d) none of above
ans d) none of above
59)which of following is limitation of hydrostatic bearing

a) they have high positional accuracy
b) they have low friction loss
c)they have high initial as well as maintenance cost
d) none of above
ans c)they have high initial as well as maintenance cost
60) fluid erosion is a type of

a) major wear
b) minor wear
c) friction
d) lubrication.
Ans b) minor wear
Subject: Tribology
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
UNIT-I
Q1. The force of friction depends upon _____.
A Nature of surface of contact
B Material of objects in contact
C Both A and B
D None of the these
Ans.: C Both A and B
Q2. As per laws of dry friction, the frictional force ________.
A is independent of the sliding velocity
B is directly proportional to the load
C depends upon the nature of sliding surface
D All of these
Ans.: D All of these
Q3. Kinetic friction is______than static friction
A Less
B Equal
C Greater
D None of the these

Ans.: ALess
Q4. Friction can be increased by ______
A Using air cushion
B Lubricants
C Using sand
D Using ball bearings
Ans.: C Using sand
Q5. Area of tribology_____
A Lubrication
B Friction control
C Wear prevention
D All of these
Q6. Adhesion and deformation both are responsible for friction
A True
B False
C Statement incomplete
D All of these
Ans.: A True
Q7. Solid Erosion is the type of Major Wear
A True
B False
D All of these
Ans.: B False
Q8. Delamination theory of wear is given by_____
A Tomlinson
B Suh
C Archard
D Coulomb's
Ans.: B Suh
Q9. The volume of wear material is proportional to the load
A True
B False
D All of these
Ans.: A True
Q10. Which factors affecting wear rate?
A Surface finish
B Load
C Temperature
D All of these
Q11. The body will move only when____
A Force of friction = applied force
B Force of friction < applied force

C Force of friction > applied force
D All of these
Ans.: B Force of friction < applied force
Q12. The force of friction (F) is equal to
A µR/2
B µR
C 2µR
D µR/3
Ans.: B µR
Q13. The friction is due to the interlocking of the asperities is explained by
A Tomlinson
B Coulomb's
C Both A and B
D None of these
Ans.: B Coulomb's
Q14. Which are the types of Major wear
AAdhesive Wear
B Abrasive Wear
C Corrosive Wear
D All of these
Q15. In which of the following "wear as desirable effect"
A Gears
B Grinding
C Bearings
D None of the these
Ans.: B Grinding
Q16. The friction is due to molecular attraction between the molecules is

explained by
A Tomlinson
B Coulomb's
C None of these
D All of these
Ans.: C None of these
Q17. Static friction occurs during the motion
A False
B True
C None of these
D All of these
Ans.: A False
Q18The value of Normal reaction (R) for the following figure is ____,
Where, W = Weight of block, P = Applied force, µ = Coefficient of friction, θ =
Angle
A W – PSinθ
B W + PSinθ
C P – WSinθ
D P + WSinθ
Ans.: A W – PSinθ
Q19. When the two surfaces in contact have a very thin layer of lubricant in
between them, it is known as____
A Solid friction
B Rolling friction
C Greasy friction
D Film friction
Ans.: D Film friction
Q20. Which one of the following is NOT the purpose of Tribology?
AImprove service life.
B Increase safety and reliability.
C Reduce fatigue.
D Increase heat generation
Ans.: D Increase heat generation

UNIT-II
Q21 Which of the following is not a part of Hydrostatic lubrication system?
A. Runner
B. pressure gauge
C. tank
D. ball valve
Ans.: D ball valve
Q22 where pad is located in hydrostatic bearing
A. middle
B. top
C. bottom
D. centre
Ans.: Cbottom
Q23 How you will calculate optimum film thickness in hydrostatic bearing
A. Graphically
B. integrate to power loss
C. adding frictional and pumping power loss
D. Differentiating power loss
Ans.:D Differentiating power loss
Q24 where semi cone angle of Hydrostatic bearing journal is located?
A. at center
B. at top
C. at bottom
D. at left side
Ans.:C at bottom
Q25 which type of bearing(s) provides a bearing surface for forces acting
along axis to the shaft?
A. Thrust bearing
B. Journal bearing
C. guide bearing
Ans.:A Thrust bearing
Q26 The Hydrostatic bearing is not used in following application
A. Ball mills
B. dental drill
C. accelerometers
D. gyroscope
Ans.:C accelerometers
Q27 Average velocity of lubricating fluid is
A. 2/3 of maximum velocity

B. 1/3 of max velocity
C. 1/2 of maximum velocity
D. 3/4 of maximum velocity
Ans.:A 2/3 of maximum velocity
Q28 Which of the following is power loss in bearing
A. Frictional power loss

B. pumping power loss
C. power lost in churning
D. all of the above
Ans.:D 2/3 of maximum velocity
Q29 Which of the following lubricant is not the type of solid lubricant
A. Molybdenum disulfide (MoS2)

B. Hexagonal boron silicate
C. Tungsten disulfide
D. Hexagonal boron nitride
Ans.:B Hexagonal boron silicate
Q30 Which of the followig are SAE viscosity grades for engine oils?
A. SAE 18
B. SAE 20
C. SAE 35
D. All of the above
Ans.:B SAE 20
Q31 Which of the following is not a physical property of lubricant.
A. pour point
B. cloud point
C. Demulsibility
D. foaming
Ans.:C Demulsibility
Q32 Hydrostatic lubrication comes under……
A. Thin film
B. Squeeze film
C. Thick film
D. Boundry film
Ans.:C Thick film
Q33 Which of the following is not a additives
A. Alcohol
B. Fish oil
C. Synthetic oil
D. Amine
Ans.:C Synthetic oil
Q34 Hydrostatic bearing used for
A. Medium loads
B. Heavy loads
C. low loads
D. light loads
Ans.:BHeavy loads
Q35 Hydrostatic bearing works on which of the following fundamental

equation?
A. Reynold equation
B. petroffs equation
C. viscous flow through slot
D. Continuity equation
Ans.: C viscous flow through slot
Q36 An oil of relative density 0.8 has a viscosity of 0.4 Pascal-seconds at a

given temperature. Convert it into CP
A. 200CP
B. 300 CP
C. 400 CP
D. 350 CP
Ans.: C 400 CP
Q37 Convert the flow rate of fluid 0.376092x106 mm3 /sec flowing through
rectangular slot in lit/min
A. a.11.1155 lit per min

B. b. 22.5655 lit per min
C. c. 33.4656 lit per min
D. d.44.333 lit per min
Ans.: B 22.5655 lit per min
Q38 Calculate fow rate of luricant in hydrostatic baring if supply pressure =

6Mpa, fluid film thickness = 0.15mm,absolute viscosity 31.25x10-9 N-s/mm2
,having outer and inner radius 205.77mm and 123.46mm respectively.
A. 39.84 lit/min
B. 29.48 lit/min
C. 19.33 lit/min
D. 22.36 lit/min
Ans.: A 39.84 lit/min
Q39 If the lubricating oil having density of 0.9gm/cc then what is the value of
oil in kg/m3
A. 900 kg/m3
B. 90kg/m3
C. 9000kg/m3
D. 0.9 kg/m3
Ans.: A 900 kg/m3
Q40 Calculate the load carrying capacity of Hydrostatic bearing having inlet
pressure 5.5 bar and outer and inner radius 50mm and 30mm respectively.
A. 2777.135 N
B. 2785.05 N
C. 2763.03 N
D. 2706.01 N
Ans.: D 2706.01 N
UNIT-III
Q41. Hydrodynamic lubrication used in?
A Motor vehicles
B Locomotives.
C Machine tools.
D All of these
Q42. Boundary lubrication is also known as
A Thick-film lubrication
B Thin-film lubrication
C None of these.
D All of these
Ans.: B Thin-film lubrication
Q43. Which assumption is considered in Reynold’s equation?
A Fluid must be Newtonian

B flow should be viscous and laminar
C Fluid must be incompressible
D All of these
Q44. Navier-Strokes equation can be used for finding Reynold’s equation?
A Yes
B No
C Data incomplete
D None of these
Ans.: A Yes
Q45. The distance between the centres of bearing and the journal measured
along the line of centres is known as…..
A Radial clearance
B Eccentricity
C Both A & B
D None of these
Ans.: B Eccentricity
Q46. The ratio ho/C is known as……
AEccentricity ratio
B Minimum oil film thickness ratio
C Both A & B
D None of these
Ans.: B Minimum oil film thickness ratio

Q47. If the length to diameter ratio is less than or equal to 0.5 then bearing
is called as…….
AInfinitely short journal bearing
B Infinitely long journal bearing
C Incomplete definition.
D Noneof these
Ans.: A Infinitely short journal bearing
Q48. Which variables are used in design of Hydrodynamic lubrication?
A Design variables
B Performance variables
C Both A & B.
D None of these
Ans.: C Both A & B.
Q-49. Which of the following is not design variables?
A Viscosity
B Unit bearing pressure
C Journal Speed
D Temperature rise
Ans.: D Temperature rise
Q-50. Which of the following is performance variables?
A Viscosity
B Unit bearing pressure
C Journal Speed
D Temperature rise
Ans.: D Temperature rise
Q51. What is the power lost during friction if a journal of 120 mm diameter
rotates in a bearing at a speed of 1000 rpm. Radial load acts on the journal IS
8 kN and coefficient of friction is 2.525 x 10-3?
A. 0.126 kW
B. 0.253 KW
C. 2.365 kW
D. 7.615 Kw
Ans.: A0.126 kW
Q52.Lubricating oil of mass density 800 kg/m3 used in 360o hydrodynamic

bearing has a flow rate of 6000 mm3. Neglecting side leakage if temperature
rises to 10 oC and specific heat is 1.55 kJ/kg oC, what is the rate of heat
dissipated in the bearing?
A. 7.4 W
B. 236 W
C. 0.236 kW
D. 0.0744 Kw
Ans.: D 0.0744 Kw
Q53.Which of the following formula is used to calculate oil-film thickness in

hydrodynamic bearings?
A. h = (c + Є cos θ)
B. h =(c – Є cos θ)
C. h = c (1+ Є sin θ)
D. h = c (1+ Є cos θ)
Ans.: D h = c (1+ Є cos θ)
Q54.Determine the Sommerfeld number considering the following data for

hydrodynamic bearing?
1. Diameter of bearing = 120 mm
2. Bearing pressure = 5 N/mm2
3. Oil viscosity = 30 cP
4. Journal speed = 900 rpm
5. Radial clearance = 150 microns
A. 0.2360
B. 0.0144
C. 0.0115
D. 0.0178
Ans.: B 0.0144
Q55.In hydrodynamic bearings….
A The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
B The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
C Do not require external supply of lubricant
D Grease is used for lubrication
Ans.: A The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
Q56.If p = bearing pressure on projected bearing area, z = absolute viscosity

of lubricant, and N = speed of journal, then the bearing characteristic number
is given by
A ZN/p
B p/ZN
C Z/pN
D N/Zp
Ans.: A ZN/p
Q57.Oil in journal bearing should be applied at the point where load is..
A Nil or lightest
B Maximum
C Average
D Any one of the above
Ans.: A ZN/p
Q58.Which of the following parameters in Petroff's equation f = 2π2 (μns/p)

(r/c) is/are dimensionless?
A. r/c
B. μns/p
C. Both A and B.
Ans.: C Both A and B.
Q59.In Raimondi Boyd method which which variables are combined.
A. Dimensionless variable
B. Design and Bearing Variable
C. Design and Performance Variable
D. Performance Variable
Ans.:C Design and Performance Variable
Q-60.Exact analytical solution to Reynold equation obtained from
A. Dimensionless variable
B. Dimensionless Parameter
C. Long Journal Bearing
D. Long and short Journal Bearing
Ans.:DLong and short Journal Bearing
Name of Branch = Mechanical Engineering

Subject = Tribology Class = BE
Semester = VIII
Sr No Unit -1 Intoduction to Tribology and Friction and Wear Ans

1. Areas of tribology are D
A) Lubrication
B) Friction Control
C) Wear prevention
D) All of the above
2. Tribological problems in industries are C
A) Loss of Material
B) Risk of human life
C) Both 1 and 2
3. For low pressure and low speeds, we used B
A) Mineral oils
B) Solid lubricants
C) Semi-solid lubricants
D) All of the above
4. The flash point of lubricant must be---------------- the working temperature. B
A) Well below
B) Well above
C) Equal to
5. Methods of reducing tribological problems in design is D
A) Adequete surface finish
B) Adequete lubrication
C) Surface treatment
D) All of the above
6. A --------------- is a mechanical element which locates two machine parts B
relative to each other and permits a relative motion between them.
1. Shaft
2. Bearing
3. Journal
4. Lubricant
7. Which parameter compared by sliding and rolling contact bearing A
A) Speed, life
B) Magnitude of load
C) Both A and B
D) All of the above
8. The term ------------- is used to indicate the variation of viscocity with A
temperature
1. Viscocity index
2. Foaming
3. Viscocity graph
4. Viscocity
9. Kinds of friction are
A) Dry Friction D
B) Boundry Friction
C) Mixed Friction
D) All of the Above
10. A ---------- is defined as a process of removal of material from one or both of B
two solid surfaces in solid-state contact.
A) Friction
B) Wear
C) Stick-slip phenomenon
11. Which factors affecting the wear C
A) Surface Films
B) Crystal Structure
C) Both A and B
12. A sliding phenomenon of one body over another body occurs under a steady A
pulling force, If the friction force or sliding velocities varies, as a function of
distance or a time and produces a form of oscillation, it is called as ------------
A) Stick-slip Phenomenon
B) Amontons Mechanical Interlocking Theory
C) Friction
13. Which liquid lubricant are produced by vegetable and animals oils C
A) Mineral oils
B) Mineral oil with Addetives
C) Natural oils
D) Synthetic oils
14. Specific gravity of lubricant can be measured by using B
A) Hydrometer
B) Anemometer
C) Viscometer
D) Pyranometer
15. The influencing factors ofof selection of lubricants are A
A) Temperature and Geometry
B) Speed and Load
C) Both A and B
16. A ------- has been defined as the science and practices of interacting surces in D
relative motion and the practices related there to.
A) Lubrication
B) Friction
C) Wear
17. A rectangular plate of 250mm width and 500mm length is placed over a plane B
stationary surface. The two surfaces are separated by an oil film of thickness
0.15mm. The viscocity of oil is 40.5cP. Determine the force required to pull the
plate at a speed of 1.5 m/s.
A) 25.625 N
B) 50.625 N
C) 15.781 N
D) 31.234 N
18. Laws of friction are C
A) Apparent area or Nominal area of contact
B) Contour Area of contact
C) Both A and B
19. Theory of Adhesive wear is also known as A
A) Archards Wear Theory
B) Rowes Modified Adhesion Theory
C) Rabinowicz Quantitative Theory
20. Theories of Friction are D
A) Simple Adhesion Theory of Friction
B) Modified Adhesion Theory of Friction
C) Abrasive Theory of Friction
D) All of the Above
Sr No Unit -2 Lubrication and Hydrostatic Bearing Ans

1. In hydrostatic bearing B
C) D not require external supply of lubricant
D) Greases is used for lubrication
2. Hydrostatic bearing usually use ---------- as lubricant. A
A) Oil
B) Grease
C) None of the Above
D) Any one of the Above
3. Hydrostatic bearing enters hydrodynamic state when the journal is B
A) Stationary
B) Rotating
C) Both A and B
4. The location of the journal is measured by A
A) Attitude Angle
B) Pressure Angle
C) Wedge Angle
5. In hydrostatic bearing the ratio change in load (W) to the change of bearing C
clearance (ho) is called ----------.
A) Bearing Pressure
B) Clearance Ratio
C) Bearing Stiffness
6. Applications of hydrostatic bearings are D
A) Gyroscopes
B) Rolling Mills
C) Ultracentrifuges
D) All of the Above
7. The attitude angle and eccentricity ratio are dependent on the D
A) Direction
B) Speed of Rotation
C) Load
D) All of the Above
8. A self excited vibration of the journal is called ---------. A
A) Oil Whirl
B) Shaft Whirl
C) Journal Whirl
D) Bearing Whirl
9. Modes of lubrication are C
A) Thick Film Lubrication
B) Thin Film Lubrication
C) Both A and B
10. Vertical turbo generators, Centrifuges, Ball mills are the examples of B
A) Hydrodynamic Lubrication
B) Hydrostatic Lubrication
C) Elasto-hydrodynamic Lubrication
11. In a hydrostatic bearing the thickness of the slot or the thickness of the fluid A
film is denoted by
A) h
B) t
C) l
D) b
12. The arrangement of hydrostatic lubrication system are C
A) Lubrication at constant pressure
B) Lubrication at constant flow
C) Both A and B
13. Power losses in hydrostatic step bearing are C
A) Frictional Power Losses
B) Pumping Power Losses
C) Both A and B
14. Optimum design of hydrostatic step bearing are D
A) Minimizing total power loss
B) Minimizing fluid flow rate
C) Minimizing inlet pressure
D) All of the above
15. Determine the mass flow rate of fluid through the slot where two reservoirs are B
connected bu a slot having size 300 mm x 200 mm x 0.3 mm. The reservoirs
are filled with an oil of viscocity 105 cP and the pressures in the two resrevoirs
are 10 bar and 3 bar respectively and the relative density of oil is 0.8.
A) m = 5 x 10-3kg/s
B) m = 8 x 10-3kg/s
C) m = 6 x 10-3kg/s
D) m = 10 x 10-3kg/s
16. Re-refining, Reconditioning, Reprocessing are are the uses of A
A) Recycled motor oil
B) Natural oil
C) Vegetable oil
D) All of the Above
17. Types of sliding contact bearings are D
A) Hydrodynamic bearing
B) Hydrostatic bearing
C) Rolling bearing
D) Only A and B
18. A rectangular plate of 250 mm width and 500 mm length is placed over a plane A
stationary surfaces. The two surfaces are separated by an oil film of thickness
0.15 mm. The viscocity of oil is 40.5 cP. Determine the force required to pull
the plate at a speed of 1.5 m/s.
A) F = 50.625 N
B) F = 40.12 N
C) F = 15.625 N
19. Comparison parameters of sliding and rolling contact bearings are D
A) Speed and Life
B) Magnitude of load
C) Noise and Cost
D) All of the Above
20. If the shaft terminates at a bearing surface then it is called as ------- bearing. A
A) Pivot
B) Thrust
C) Both A and B
D) Collar
Sr No Unit -3 Hydrodynamic Journal Bearing Ans
1. It is the distance between the centers of bearing and journal in operating A
condition is known as -------.
A) Ecentricity
B) Radial Clearance
C) Ecentricity Ratio
2. In the pettroffs equation the value of Ecentricity / Radial clearance ( Ecectricity C
Ratio ( e) ) is ranging from --------.
A) 0 to 0.2
B) 0 to 1
C) 0 to 0.5
3. Which of the following is not a property of lubricant? D
A) High Specific Heat
B) High Flash Point
C) Low Pour Point
D) Low Oxidation Stability
4. What is the shear stress in fluid per unit velocity gradient is called as -------. C
A) AbsouluteViscocity
B) Dynamic Viscocity
C) Both A and B
5. Which of the following Parameters in patroff’s equation f=2#2 ((Mns/P) / (R/c)) C
are dimessionless
A) R/c
B) Mns/P
C) Both A and B
6. Which of the following formula is used to calculate oil film thickness in D
hydrodynamic bearing.
A) h = ( C + EcosQ )
B) h = ( C – Ecos Q )
C) h = C ( 1+EsinQ )
D) h = C ( 1+EcosQ )
7. Lubricating oil used in hydrodynamic bearing total flow rate of 0.340 lit/min & A
side leakage of 0.1520 lit/min . If mass density of oil is 600 kg/m3& specific
heat is 1.05 KJ/Kg℃ .what is the rise in temperature if power lost in friction is
0.05 KW
A) 18.03oC
B) 11.22oC
C) 22.23oC
D) 15.11oC
8. Determine the Sommerfeld number considering the following data for B
hydrodynamic bearing
1. Diameter of bearing =120mm
2. Bearing Pressure = 5 N/mm2
3. Oil Viscosity = 30 CP
4. Journal Speed = 900rpm
5. Radial Clearance = 150 Microns
A) 0.2360
B) 0.0115
C) 0.0144
D) 0.0178
9. In bearing oil film thickness 15 micron means ----- B
A) 0.00015 mm
B) 0.0015 mm
C) 0.015 mm
10. Design Considerations in Finite length hydrodynamic journal bearing are ------. C
A) Design Variables
B) Performance Variables
C) Both A and B
11. Performance variables are -------. D
A) Coefficient of Friction
B) Temperature Rise
C) Flow Rate of Lubricant
D) All of the Above
12. Lubricating oil of mass density 800 kg/m3 used in 360° hydrodynamic bearing A
has a flow rate of 600 mm3. Neglecting side leakage if temperature rise to
10℃& specific heat is 1.55 KJ/Kg℃ . What is the rate of heat dissipated in the
bearing ?
A) 0.0744 KW
B) 0.236 KW
C) 7.4 W
D) 236 W
13. Regimes of hydrodynamic lubrication are ------ C
A) Boundary Lubrication or Thin film lubrication
B) Hydrodynamic lubrication or Thick film lubrication
C) Both A and B
14. APettroff’s Sleeve bearing consists of a sleeve having a bore diameter of A

100.1mm & a length of 100 mm. A shaft having 100 mm diaSupports a load of
4000N . A shaft runs at 2880 rpm in the sleeve if the frictional torque on the
shaft is 10 N.m. What is the power lost in bearing ?
A) 3.016 KW
B) 2.016 KW
C) 2.95 KW
D) 1.150 KW
15. The lower limit on the minimum oil film thickness is give by ------ B
A) ho =( 0.0001 to 0.0002 ) r
B) ho= ( 0.0002 to 0.0003 ) r
C) ho= ( 0.0003 to 0.0004 ) r
16. Babbitt is used -------- C
A) Usually to make integral bearing
B) Do not to damage the journal bearing during direct contact
C) Both A and B
17. The lubrication in which load of bearing is carried partly by a film or fluid & B
partly by direct surfaces contact is called --------.
A) Full Film Condition
B) Boundry Condition
C) Dry Condition
18. Which type of bearing provides a bearing surface for forces cutting along the A
axis to the shaft ?
A) Thrust Bearing
B) Journal Bearing
C) Linear Bearing
D) All of the Above
19. The sommerfeld number or bearing characteristic number is give by ------ C

A) S = [ r/c]2
B) S = [ r/c]2mns
C) S = [ r/c]2mns/P
20. The type of bearing used in crankshaft is B

A) Magnetic Bearing
B) Plain Bearing
C) Ball Bearing
D) Roller Bearing
Subject : Tribology
Branch : Mechanical
Class : B. E.
Semester : VIII
1) Asperities are basically

A) Sharp tip on surface.
B) Edge of a surface.
C) Corner of a surface.
D) Hole in a surface.
Ans : A
2) The Meaning of Greek word “Tribos” from which the word Tribolgy is formed is
A) Rubbing B) Movement C) Fluid D) Heat
Ans : A
3) Which one of the following statement is true,
A) Wear rate increases with increasing load.
B) Wear rate decreases with increasing temperature.
C) Wear rate decreases with increasing speed.
D) Wear rate is independent of load/temperature.
Ans : A
4) The force of friction depends upon
A) Nature of surface of contacts
B) Material of objects in contact
C) Both “A’ and ‘B’
Ans : C
5) The ratio of limiting force of friction(F) to the normal reaction (R) is known as
A) Coefficient of friction
B) Force of friction
C) Angle of friction
Ans : A
6) Zero wear increases performance because
A) It causes polishing of surface
B) Size of surface asperities increase
C) It removes lubrication from the surface
D) It increases load bearing capacity of the surface
Ans : A
7) Which one of the following parameter is not included by StribackCurve ?
A) Viscosity of the lubricant.
B) Speed of the surfaces.
C) Load at the interface.
D) Surface roughness.
Ans : D
8) Which among the following is not an adhesive wear mechanism ?
A) Galling B) Scoring C) scuffing D) Polishing
Ans : D
9) As per the Archard’s wear equation , wear volume in adhesive wear is independent of
A) Sliding distance of travel
B) Load
C) Hardness of soft Material
D) Rolling Distance
Ans : D
10) Which of the following is not true about measurable wear?
A) Measurable wear is undesirable.
B) It can cause vibration of noise.
C) Measurable wear may roughen the surfaces.
D) It polishes the surfaces.
Ans : D
11) Scratching is form of
A) Abrasive wear B ) Adhesive wear C) Corrosive wear D) Fatigue wear
Ans : A
12) Erosive wear is a function of
A) Particle velocity B) Impact angle C) Size of abrasive D) All of above
Ans : D
13) Wear rate is lesser in 3-body abrasion as compared to 2-body abrasion because--
A) Energy is consumed in rolling motion of free hard particles.
B) Only spherical asperities are involved in 3-body abrasion.
C) Size of the asperities is smaller in 3-body abrasion.
D)Generally hardness of free particles is very low.
Ans : A
14) To minimizing sliding friction, shear strength of the lubricant compared to shear strength
of the Tribo-surfaces should be:
A) Higher B) Lower C) insignificant D) Equal
Ans : C
15) As the temperature is increased, coefficient of friction
A) Increases.
B) Reduces.
C) Remains unchanged.
D) Increases or decrease based on the lubrication regime.
Ans : D
16) The force of friction acts in a direction ______ to the direction on motion of object
A) Same B) Opposite C) Perpendicular D) Downwards
Ans : B
17) In hydrodynamic lubrication the major source of friction is
A) Shearing of lubrication film.
B) Abrasion due to asperities on tribo-surfaces.
C) Abrasion of tribo-surfaces due to free particles.
D) All of the above
Ans : A
18) When the two surfaces in contact have a thick layer of lubrication I between them, it is
known as
A) Solid friction B) Rolling friction C) Greasy friction D) Film friction
Ans : D
A) Limiting friction B) Static friction C) Rolling friction D) Sliding friction
Ans : C
20) Friction can be increased by _____
A) Using air cushion B) lubricants C) using sand D) using ball bearings
Ans : C
21) The following is (are) the example(s) of Plain bearing(s).
A) Linear Bearing
B) Journal bearing
C) Thrust Bearing
D) All of the Above
Ans : D
22) In hydrostatic bearings ,
A) The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal.
B) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure.
C) Do not require external supply of lubricant.
D) Grease is used for lubrication.
Ans : D
23) On the basis of direction of load bearing can be classified as-
C) Aerodynamic, hydrodynamic ,dry.
Ans : A
24) Babbitt is used
A) Usually to make integral bearings
B) To not to damage the journal bearing during direct contact
C) To collect any containments in the lubrication
D) All of the above
Ans : D
25) The factors that constitute energy loss in hydrostatic bearing are ,
A) Energy loss to pump the lubricating oil.
B) Energy loss due to viscous friction.
C) Both A) and B) .
D) None of the these.
Ans : C
26) Hydrostatic bearing usually use ____ as lubricant
A) Oil
B) Grease
C) Semi solid lubricant
D) Any of the above
Ans : A
27) Hydrostatic bearing enters Hydrodynamic state when the journal is
A) Stationary B) Rotating C) any of the above D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Ans : B
28) Which type of bearing(s) provides a bearing surface for forces acting along axis to the
shaft?
A) Thrust bearing.
B) Journal bearing.
C) Linear bearing.
Ans : A
29) Which of the following is not a part of Hydrostatic lubrication system?
A) Runner B) Pressure Gauge C) tank D) ball valve
Ans : D
30) where pad is located in hydrostatic bearing.
A) Middle B) top C) bottom D) centre
Ans : C
31) Hydrostatic bearing usully use --- as lubricant.
A) Oil
B) Grease.
C) Nothing.
D) Any of the above.
Ans : A
32) The Hydrostatic bearing is not used in following application
A) Ball mills
B) Dental drills
C) Accelerometers
D) Gyroscope
Ans : C
33) Average velocity of lubricating fluid is.
A) 2/3 of maximum velocity
B) 1/3 of max velocity
C) 1/2 of maximum velocity
D) 3/4 of maximum velocity
Ans : A
34) AHydrostatic bearing enters hydrodynamic state when the journal is
A) Stationary.
B) Rotatory.
C) Both A) and B)
Ans : B
35) Which of the following are SAE viscosity grades for engine oils?
A) SAE 18 B) SAE 20 C) SAE 35 D) All of the above
Ans : B
36) Which of the following is not a physical property of lubricant.
A) pour point
B) cloud point
C) Demulsibility
D) Foaming
Ans : C
37) Which of the following is not a additives.
A) Alcohol
B) Fish oil
C) Synthetic oil
D) Amine
Ans : C
38) If the lubricating oil having density of 0.9gm/cc then what is the value of oil in kg/m3
A) 900 kg/m3
B) 90kg/m3
C) 9000kg/m3
D) 0.9 kg/m3
Ans : A
39) Convert the flow rate of fluid 0.376092x106 mm3 /sec flowing through rectangular slot in
lit/min
A) 11.1155 lit per min
B) 22.5655 lit per min
C) 33.4656 lit per min
D) 44.333 lit per min
Ans : B
40) An oil of relative density 0.8 has a viscosity of 0.4 Pascal-seconds at a given temperature.
Convert it into CP
A) 200CP
B) 300CP
C) 400CP
D) 350CP
Ans : C
41) In the Petroff’s equation the value of eccentricity / radial clearance (Eccentricity ratio(e))
is ranging from
A) 0 to 0.2 B) 0 to 1 C) 0 to 0.5 D) None of the Above
Ans : C
A) 0.01 micron
B) 0.1 micron.
C) 1 micron,
D) 10 micron.s
Ans : C
43) A journal of 120 mm diameter rotates in a bearing at a speed of 1000 rpm. What is the
power lost during friction if 8 kN radial load acts on the journal and coefficient of friction
is 2.525 x 10-3?
A) 0.126 kW
B) 0.253 KW
C) 2.365 kW
D) 7.615 Kw
Ans : A
44) A journal bearing is a ---contact bearing working on the hydrodynamic lubrication and
which supports load in ----direction.
A) Sliding, Axial.
B) Rolling, Radial.
C) Sliding, Radial.
D) Rolling, Axial.
Ans : A
45) The following is (are) the example(s)of plain bearing(s).
A) Thrust bearing .
B) Linear bearing.
C) Journal bearing.
Ans : D
46) The lubrication in which load of bearing is carried solely by a film of fluid and
there is no contact between the two bearings surface is called ,
A) Full film condition .
B) Boundary film condition.
C) Dry condition.
Ans : A
47) In hydrodynamic bearings
C) Do not require external supply of lubricant
D) Grease is used for lubrication
Ans : A
48) The bearings of heavy series have capacity __________ over the medium series.
A) 20 to 30%
B) 10 to 20%
C) 30 to 40%
D) 40 to 50%
Ans : A
A) 0.01 micron
B) 0.1 micron
C) 1 micron
D) 10 microns
Ans : C
50) Oil in journal bearing should be applied at the point where load is
A) Nil or lightest
B) Maximum
C) Average
D) Any one of the above
Ans : A
51) The rated life of a bearing varies
A) Directly as load
B) Inversely as square of load
C) Inversely as cube of load
D) Inversely as fourth power of load
Ans : C
52) On the basis of direction of load bearing can be classified as
C) Aerodynamic, hydrodynamic, dry.
Ans : A
53) Required material properties for the design of journal bearing are:
A) Durable.
B) Low friction.
C) Low wear.
Ans : D
54) In a hydrodynamic lubricated bearing ,
A) There is a thick film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing.
B) There is a thin film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing.
C) There is no lubricant between the journal and the bearing.
D) The lubricant is forced between the journal and the bearing by external
pressure.
Ans : A
55) What are very important factors for design of hydrodynamic bearing for given shaft
diameter?
A) Bearing clearance, length.
B) Bearing length, bore diameter.
C) Both (a) & (b).
D) Bearing thickness
Ans : A
56) How many rolling elements are present inside a hydrodynamic bearing?
A) 10
B) 12.
C) 15.
D) None of these
Ans : D
57) In what operating conditions grease is used to lubricate a journal bearing?
A) Temperature involved is low.
B) Low operating speed.
C) Both (a) & (b).
D) None of these.
Ans : C
58) Which of the following is true about full journal bearing?
A) The angle of contact of bushing with the journal is 3600.
B) The angle of contact of bushing with the journal is less than 1800.
C) Full journal bearing can take load in any axial direction.
D) Full journal bearing can take load in any radial direction.
Ans : D
59) Petroff’s equation is used for
A) Rough estimation of friction loss in sliding bearing.
B) Change in viscosity wrt to temperature.
C) Change in density wrt to temperature.
D) Both (a) & (b)
Ans : A
60) In hydrodynamic lubrication minimum film thickness (hmin), a critical design criterion, is
a function of :
A) Relative velocity (U).
B) Applied load (W).
C) Viscosity.
D) All of above.
Ans : D
**********
Branch :Mechanical Engineering
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. The stress induced in a body subjected to transverse vibration will be
A Bending
B Tensile
C Compressive
D Shear
Ans.: A
Q2. For the system to be overdamped ,the damping factor will be
A Less than one
B Zero
C More than one
D Equal to one
Ans.: C
Q3. In underdamped vibrations,the amplitude of vibration decreases
A Linearly with time
B Parabolically
C Exponentially with time
D Hyperbolically with time
Ans.: C
Q4. In coulomb damping, amplitude of vibration decreases
A Linearly with time
B Exponentially with time
C Inversely with time
D None of the above
Ans.: A
Q5. Ratio of force transmitted to the force applied is called as
A Damping factor
B Transmissibility
C Magnification factor
D Damping coefficient
Ans.: B
Q6. At node of the shaft, the amplitude of vibration is
A Zero
B Maximum
C Average
D Infinite
Ans.: A
Q7. A shaft with three rotors at its ends will have
A one node
B two nodes
C three nodes
D no nodes
Ans.: B
Q8. The factor which affects the critical speed of the shaft is
A diameter of the disc
B Span of the shaft
C Eccentricity
D All of the above
Ans.: D
deflection due to the static force , is known as
A Damping factor
B damping coefficient
D Logarithmic decrement
Ans.: C
Q10. When there is reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration , then
A Free vibration
B forced vibration
C Damped vibration
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q11. While calculating the natural frequency of a spring mass system , to

consider the effect of spring mass , the amount of spring mass that should be
added to main mass is
A half
B One fourth
C one third
D three times
Ans.: C
Q12. Find the natural frequency in Hz of the free longitudinal vibrations if the
displacement is 2 mm
A 11.14
B 12.38
C 13.5
D 16
Ans.: A
Q13. For a spring mass system , stiffness of the spring is 100 N/m and mass is 3
kg, the critical damping coefficient for the system is
A 45.3 N-sec/m
B 29 N-sec/m
C 34.64 N-sec/m
D 5.77 N-sec/m
Ans.: C
Q14. For the vibratory system with damping factor 0.1, the logarithmic
decrement is
A 0.5
B 0.1
C 0.3
D 1
Ans.: B
Q15. For best performance, the motor cycle shock absorbers should be
A Critically damped
B underdamped
C overdamped
D none of the above
Ans.: B
Q16. Critical damping depends on
A Mass only
B Stiffness only
C Mass and stiffness both
Ans.: C
Q17. A vibrating system with damping factor unity is
A Critically damped
B underdamped
C over damped
D coulomb damped
Ans.: A
Q18. When the particles of the body move parallel to its axis, then it is said to
have
A torsional vibrations
B random vibrations
C transverse vibrations
D Longitudinal vibrations
Ans.: D
Q19. Spring mass system is the example of
A Single degree of freedom system
B Undamped vibrations
C Longitudinal vibrations
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q20. For the same dimensions of the shaft which of the following has the
grater natural frequency
A Transverse vibrations
B Longitudinal vibrations
C it depends on length of shaft
D none of the above
Ans.: B
Q21. Calculate the natural frequency of transverse vibration if the static

deflection is 0.01mm
A 157.6 Hz
B 494.7Hz
C 989.9Hz
D 173 Hz
Ans.: A
Q22. The first critical speed of an automobile running on a sinusoidal road is
calculated by _____
A Approximation
B Superposition
C Resonance
D Energy method
Ans.: C
Q23. As the modulus of rigidity increases, the frequency of vibration
A increases
B decreases
C remains same
D none of the above
Ans.: A
Q24. Frequency is equal to
A 1/time period
B (time period)2
C 1/angular speed
D C/Cc
Ans.: A
Q25. Unit of damping coefficient is
A Nm/s
B Kg/m
C Ns/m
D No unit
Ans.: C
Q26. Which of the following relations is true when the springs are connected
parallely
A ke=k1+k2
B (1/ke)=(1/k1)+(1/k2)
C ke=k1k2
D None of the above
Ans.: A
Q27. Which of the following relations is true when two springs of stiffness k1
and k2 are connected in series
A ke=k1+k2
B ke=(k1k2)/(k1+k2)
C ke=(k1+k2)/(k1k2)
D ke=k1/k2
Ans.: B
Q28. Two springs of stiffness 100N/m each are connected in series, their
equivalent stiffness is
A 0.02N/m
B 200N/m
C 50 N/m
D 0.2 N/m
Ans.: C
Q29. Time taken by vibrating body to complete one cycle is called as
A Time Period
B Frequency
C Damping
D Resonance
Ans.: A
Q30. The stress induced in the body subjected to longitudinal vibrations will be
A Tensile
B Compressive
C Both A and B
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q31. Coulomb damping is also called as
A Viscous damping
B Dry friction damping
C Critical damping
D Structural damping
Ans.: B
Q32. The phase angle between damping force and spring force is
A 1800
B 600
C 900
D 00
Ans.: C
Q33. The frequency measuring device, fullartone tachometer work on the

principle of
A Critical damping
B Resonance
C Critical speed
D Coulomb damping
Ans.: B
Q34. The two degree of freedom system with one of its natural frequencies
equal to zero is called as
A Critically damped system
B indefinite system
C Semi definite system
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q35. Which of the following are the causes of vibrations
A Unbalanced centrifugal forces
B Elastic nature of the system
C External excitation applied on the system
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q36. Number of cycles of motion completed per unit interval of time is known
as
A Frequency
B Damping factor
C Time period
D Resonance
Ans.: A
Q37. When no external force acts on the body while the body is vibrating then
A Free vibrations
B Damped vibrations
C underdamped vibrations
D Forced vibrations
Ans.: A
Q38. A shaft having one end fixed and a disc oscillating freely at the other end,
with increase in the shaft stiffness, the natural frequency of vibration will
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remains same
D none of the above
Ans.: B
Q39. Critical speed of shaft in revolutions per second as compared to natural

frequency of transverse vibration is
A Same
B More
C Less
D None of the above

Ans.: A
Q40. Ratio of the actual damping coefficient to critical damping coefficient is

called as
A Damping factor
B Logarithmic decrement
D Transmissibility
Ans.: A
Q41. At the node, the shaft is
A Slightly affected by the vibrations
B not affected by the vibrations
C Heavily affected by the vibrations
D None of the above
Ans.: B
Q42. In coulomb damped system the frequency of damped vibrations of the

system is
A less than natural frequency of the system
B More than natural frequency of the system
C Equal to natural frequency of the system
D none of the above
Ans.: C
Q43. Superposition of two harmonic motions with slightly different

frequencies results in to
A resonance
B Critical damping
C beats
D none of the above
Ans.: C
Q44. The rectilinear motion of a point is given as a=9x where a and x are the
acceleration and displacement of the simple harmonic motion respectively,
find the angular frequency of the particle
A 3 rad/s
B 4.5 rad /s
C 0.47 rad/s
D 2 rad/s
Ans.: A
Q45. For underdamped system, the response of the vibratory system is
A periodic
B oscillatory
C Amplitude decreasing exponentially
D all of the above
Ans.: D
Q46. In SHM the product of periodic time and frequency is equal to
A zero
B unity
D 2
Ans.: B
Q47. The natural frequency of a spring mass system when the mass of spring is
also considered, as compared to system with negligible mass of spring will be
A More
B Less
C Same
D Unpredictable
Ans.: B
Q48. In forced vibration the magnitude of damping force at resonance equals
A Inertia force
B Impressed force
C Infinity
D zero
Ans.: B
Q49. A rotary system having damping coefficient of 50N sec m/rad, when
twisted with an angular velocity of 2 rad/s will experience damping torque of
A 50Nm
B 100Nm
C 200Nm
D 25Nm
Ans.: B
Q50. In a damped vibration sysem, damping force is propotional to
A Displacement
B Acceleration
C Velocity
D Frequency
Ans.: C
Q51. An overdamped system when disturbed from equilibrium position with

an initial velocity will
A Vibrate about equilibrium position
B Immediatly return to equilibrium position
C Not cross the equilibrium position
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q52. Spring mass system vibrating on its own with small amplitude is an
example of
A Single degree of freedom system
B Natural undamped vibration
C Linear vibration
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q53. Maximum displacement of the vibrating system from its equilibrium

position is called as
A Period
B Amplitude
C Wavelength
D Height
Ans.: B
Q54.Motion executed by critically damped system is.

A oscillatory
B Aperiodic
C periodic
D none of the above
Ans.: B
Q55. In coulomb damping amplitude decay per cycle is given as
A 2F/k
B 4F/k
C F/k
D k/4F
Ans.: B
Q56. If the damping factor is 0.5, then the type of damping is
A Slip damping
B Overdamping
C Underdamping
D Coulomb damping
Ans.: C
Q57. A disc of torsion pendulum undergoes damped vibrations.The observed

amplitudes of the pendulum on the same sides of the rest position for the
successive cycles are 90,60 and 40, then the logarithmic decrement is
A 1.5
B 0.5
C 3
D 0.4
Ans.: D
Q58. The order number of four cylinder four stroke cycle I.C. engine is
A one
B Two
C Three
D Four
Ans.: B
Q59. The harmonic motion is given by = 10 sin 30 − /3 mm where t

is in seconds and phase angle in radians, the maximum velocity is
A 30m/s
B 3m/s
C 0.3 m/s
D 10m/s
Ans.: C
Q60. The main characteristic of coulomb damped system is
A Damping coefficient
B coefficient of friction
C Critical damping coefficient
Ans.: B
Subject: Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning
Class: BE SEM- VII
Unit 1: Refrigeration Systems

Sr.
Question Ans.
No.
1) In a reversed Brayton cycle, the heat is absorbed by D
the air during…….
(A) Isentropic compression process

(B) Constant pressure cooling process
(C) Isentropic expansion process
(D) Constant pressure expansion process
2) The cooling system used for supersonic aircrafts and D
rockets is……….
(A) Simple air cooling system

(B) Bootstrap air cooling system
(C) Reduced ambient air cooling system
(D) Regenerative air cooling system
3) Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the D
following refrigerant:
(A) CO2
(B) Freon-11
(C) Freon-22
(D) Air
Class: BE SEM- VII
4) The Freon group of refrigerants are……. A

(A) Halocarbon refrigerants
(B) Zoetrope refrigerants
(C) Inorganic refrigerants
(D) Hydrocarbon refrigerants
5) A bootstrap air cooling system has………. B
(A) One heat exchanger

(B) Two heat exchangers
(C) Three heat exchangers
(D) Four heat exchangers
6) The C.O.P. of a refrigerator working on a reversed A
Carnot cycle is (where T₁ = Lowest absolute
temperature, and T₂ = Highest absolute temperature)
……
(A) T₁ / (T₂ - T₁)

(B) (T₂ - T₁)/T₁
(C) (T₁ - T₂)/T₁
(D) T₂/ (T₂ - T₁)
7) The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) of a B
refrigerator working as a heat pump is given
by………
Class: BE SEM- VII
(A) (C.O.P.) P = (C.O.P.) R + 2

(B) (C.O.P.) P = (C.O.P.) R + 1
(C) (C.O.P) P = (C.O.P) R - 1
(D) (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R
8) The air cooling system mostly used in transport type C
aircrafts is …….
(A) Simple air cooling system

(B) Simple evaporative air cooling system
(C) Bootstrap air cooling system
(D) All of these
9) In aircraft, air refrigeration Cycle is used because of A
…….
(A) Low weight per tonne of refrigeration

(B) High heat transfer rate
(C) Low temperature at high altitudes
(D) Higher coefficient of performance
10) Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should B
have …….
(A) Low specific heat of liquid

(B) High boiling point
(C) High latent heat of vaporization
Class: BE SEM- VII
(D) Higher critical temperature

11) The reduced ambient air cooling system has…. C
(A) One cooling turbine and one heat exchanger

(B) One cooling turbine and two heat exchangers
(C) Two cooling turbines and one heat exchanger
(D) Two cooling turbines and two heat exchangers
12) Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum D
ozone depletion potential in the stratosphere?
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Fluorine
Class: BE SEM- VII
Unit 2: Vapour Compression Refrigeration Systems

Sr.
Question Ans.
No.
1) The vapour compression refrigerator employs the D
following cycle…….
(A) Rankine
(B) Carnot
(C) Reversed Rankine
(D) Reversed Carnot
2) The condition of refrigerant after passing through the A
condenser in a vapour compression system is……….
(A) Saturated liquid

(B) Wet vapour
(C) Dry saturated vapour
(D) Superheated vapour
3) Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour B
compression cycle?
(A) Condenser
(B) Evaporator
Class: BE SEM- VII
(C) Compressor
(D) Expansion valve
4) Under cooling in a refrigeration cycle……. A
(A) Increases C.O.P

(B) Decreases C.O.P
(C) C.O.P remains unaltered
(D) Other factors decide C.O.P
5) At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat B
of vaporization of a refrigerant……….
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remain same
(D) Depends on other factors
6) Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show C
constant……
(A) Pressure lines

(B) Temperature lines
(C) Total heat lines
(D) Entropy lines
7) In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space to the left of C
the saturated liquid line represents………
Class: BE SEM- VII
(A) Wet vapour region

(B) Superheated vapour region
(C) Sub-cooled liquid region
(D) None of these
8) The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid C
refrigerant from the expansion valve into……..
(A) High pressure liquid refrigerant

(B) Low pressure liquid and vapour refrigerant
(C) Low pressure vapour refrigerant
(D) None of these
9) Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration D
cycle…….
(A) Lowers evaporation temperature

(B) Increases power required per ton of refrigeration
(C) Lowers compressor capacity because vapour is
lighter
10) Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator……. A
(A) Results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer

(B) Increases heat transfer rate
(C) Is immaterial
Class: BE SEM- VII
(D) Can be avoided by proper design

11) A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration C
system…..
(A) Ensures the evaporator completely filled with

refrigerant of the load
(B) Is suitable only for constant load systems
(C) Maintains different temperatures in evaporator in
proportion to load
12) The superheating in a refrigeration cycle ………… C
(A) Does not alter C.O.P.

(B) Increases C.O.P.
(C) Decreases C.O.P.
(D) None of these
Unit 3: Vapour Absorption Refrigeration Systems

Sr.
Question Ans.
No.
Class: BE SEM- VII
1) In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration B

system…….
(A) Lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant and

water as an absorbent
(B) Water is used as a refrigerant and lithium
bromide as an absorbent
(C) Ammonia is used as a refrigerant and lithium
bromide as an absorbent
2) Absorption system normally uses the following D
refrigerant ……….
(A) Freon-11
(B) Freon-22
(C) CO2
(D) Ammonia
3) The fluids used in Electrolux refrigerator are…….. C
(A) Water and hydrogen

(B) Ammonia and hydrogen
(C) Ammonia, water and hydrogen
(D) None of these
4) Hydrogen is used in Electrolux refrigeration system C
Class: BE SEM- VII
so as to _________ the rate of evaporation of the

liquid ammonia passing through the evaporator.
(A) Equalize
(B) Reduce
(C) Increase
(D) None of these
5) Ammonia absorption refrigeration cycle A
requires……….
(A) Very little work input

(B) Maximum work input
(C) Nearly same work input as for vapour
compression cycle
(D) Zero work input
6) In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the D
compressor of the vapour compression system is
replaced by……
(A) Liquid pump

(B) Generator
(C) Absorber and generator
(D) Absorber, generator and liquid pump
7) Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat B
Class: BE SEM- VII
from one medium to other in ammonia absorption

system
(A) Strong solution to weak solution

(B) Weak solution to strong solution
(C) Strong solution to ammonia vapour
(D) Ammonia vapours to weak solution
8) The C.O.P. of an absorption type refrigerator is B
given by (where TG = Temperature of Generator, TC
= Temperature of condenser, and TE = Evaporator
temperature)
(A) [TC (TE–TG)] / [TE(TG–TC)]

(B) [TE (TG– TC)] / [TG (TC - TE)]
(C) [TG (TC - TE)] / [TC (TG - TE)]
(D) [TE (TC - TE)] / [TE (TG– TC)]
9) The coefficient of performance of Electrolux B
refrigerator is the ratio of…….
(A) Heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat

absorbed by the evaporator.
(B) Heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat
supplied by the gas burner.
(C) Heat supplied by the gas burner minus the heat
Class: BE SEM- VII
absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied

by the gas burner.
(D) Heat absorbed by the evaporator minus the heat
supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed
by the evaporator.
10) In absorber of aqua-ammonia absorption B
refrigeration system……..
(A) Strong solution is taken in and weak solution is

given out
(B) Weak solution is taken in and strong solution is
given out
(C) The ammonia vapour from strong solution is
taken out and made it a weak solution
11) What is the purpose of analyser-rectifier in aqua- B
ammonia absorption system?
(A) To absorb ammonia into the water

(B) To remove water vapour out from ammonia after
generator
(C) To exchange heat between weak solution and
strong solution
Class: BE SEM- VII
12) Vapour absorption refrigeration uses………… C

(B) Electric energy
(C) Heat energy
(D) None
Unit 4: Basics of Psychrometry

Sr.
Question Ans.
No.
1) The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, B
when it is not affected by the moisture present in the
air, is called______.
(A) Wet bulb temperature

Class: BE SEM- VII
(B) Dry bulb temperature

(C) Dew point temperature
(D) None of these
2) The curved lines on a psychrometric chart D

indicates……….
(A) Dry bulb temperature

(B) Wet bulb temperature
(C) Dew point temperature
(D) Relative humidity
3) The sensible heat factor during the heating and D
humidification process is given by (where h₁ =
Enthalpy of air entering the heating coil, h₂ =
Enthalpy of air leaving the heating coil, and hA =
Enthalpy of air at the end of humidification process)
(A) (hA - h2)/ (h1 - h2)

(B) (h2 - hA)/ (h1 - h2)
(C) (h1 - h2)/ (hA - h2)
(D) (hA - h1)/ (h2 - h1)
4) The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity A
Class: BE SEM- VII
is ________ dew point temperature.
(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
5) The alignment circle is marked on the psychometrics B
chart at……….
(A) 20°C DBT and 50% RH

(B) 26°C DBT and 50% RH
(C) 20°C DBT and 60% RH
(D) 26°C DBT and 60% RH
6) Relative humidity is given by (where Pv = Partial B
pressure of water vapour, Pb = Barometric pressure,
Ps = Pressure of saturated air, Pd = Pressure at dry
bulb temperature, pw = Saturation pressure
corresponding to wet bulb temperature, and μ =
Degree of saturation)
(A) 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)

(B) μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
(C) [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
(D) None of these
Class: BE SEM- VII
7) In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist C

air, it must be passed over the coil at a
temperature……
(A) Which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb
temperatures of the incoming stream
(B) Which lies between the wet bulb and dew point
temperatures of the incoming stream
(C) Which is lower than the dew point temperature of
the incoming stream
(D) Of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream
8) Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is……. C
(A) The mass of water vapour present in 1 m³ of dry

air
(B) The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry
air
(C) The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a
unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour
in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated
at the same temperature and pressure
(D) The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a
given volume of moist air to the mass of water
Class: BE SEM- VII
vapour in the same volume of saturated air at

the same temperature and pressure.
9) In case of sensible heating of air, the coil efficiency B
is given by (where B.P.F. = Bypass factor) is …….
(A) B.P.F. - 1
(B) 1 - B. P.F.
(C) 1/ B.P.F.
(D) 1 + B.P.F.
10) The relative humidity is defined as……. D
(A) The mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry
air
(B) The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry
air
(C) The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a
unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour
in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at
the same temperature and pressure
(D) The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a
given volume of moist air to the mass of water
vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the
same temperature and pressure.
Class: BE SEM- VII
11) In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added B

is 30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is 20 kJ/s. The
sensible heat factor for the process will be ………
(A) 0.3
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.67
(D) 1.5
12) The difference between dry bulb temperature and B
wet bulb temperature, is called…………
(A) Dry bulb depression

(B) Wet bulb depression
(C) Dew point depression
(D) Degree of saturation
Unit 5: Air-Conditioning Systems

Sr.
Question Ans.
No.
Class: BE SEM- VII
1) The optimum effective temperature for human B

comfort is ______.
(A) Higher in winter than in summer

(B) Lower in winter than in summer
(C) Same in winter and summer
(D) Not dependent on season
2) The conditioned air supplied to the room must have C
the capacity to take up……….
(A) Room sensible heat load only

(B) Room latent heat load only
(C) Both room sensible heat and latent heat loads
3) The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at C
(where DBT = Dry bulb temperature, and RH =
Relative humidity) …….
(A) 25°C DBT and 100% RH

(B) 20°C DBT and 80% RH
(C) 22°C DBT and 60% RH
(D) 25°C DBT and 40% RH
4) The use of filter in Air conditioning system is……... B
(A) To Remove moisture from air

Class: BE SEM- VII
(B) To remove dirt and dust particle

(C) To remove dirt in air conditioning system
5) The indoor unit of split air-conditioner consists D
of …….
(A) Compressor and condenser

(B) Compressor and expansion valve
(C) condenser and Evaporator
(D) Filter and evaporator
6) The purpose of supply outlet is_______. C
(A) To directs conditioned air from the circulating

fan to the space to be cooled
(B) To remove air from Air conditioning system
(C) To distribute conditioned air evenly in the room
(D) To allow the room air to enter the return duct.
7) The index which correlates the combined effects of B
air temperature, relative humidity and air velocity on
the human body, is known as……
(A) mean radiant temperature

(B) effective temperature
(C) dew point temperature
Class: BE SEM- VII
(D) none of these

8) The ratio of room sensible heat to room total heat is A
known as …….
(A) RSHF
(B) GSHF
(C) SHF
(D) Bypass factor
9) The year-round air conditioning system is……. A
(A) used either as a summer air conditioning system

or as a winter air conditioning system
(B) used during summer, the heaters are always
switched-off
(C) used during winter, the heating and
dehumidification coils are switched off
10) The sensible heat factor for auditorium or cinema B
hall is generally kept as …….
(A) 0.6
(B) 0.7
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.9
Class: BE SEM- VII
11) Which of the following statement is TRUE for the D

window air conditioner?
(A) The first part can be located anywhere the room

with a decorative display
(B) No compressor noise and vibrations in the room
(C) No window opening and fixing needed
12) For winter air conditioning, the relative humidity air A
should not be more than …………
(A) 40%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 90%

Subject: Automobile Engineering - Ii Branch: Mechanical Engineering Class: BE Semester: VIII

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MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Subject: AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING - II

Branch: MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Q. 2.The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on

Q.3.The following is not a drum brake

Q.4.The hand brake of the automobile is usually

Q.6. The mechanical brakes are operated by means of

Q.7. In vacuum brake, cylinder chamber consists of

Q.8. Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of

A. Law of conservation of momentum

Q.9. The function of master cylinder in hydraulic brakes is to

Q.10. Tandem master cylinder consists of

Q.11. Hand brake is applicable to

Q.13. The energy absorbed by the brake is

Q.14. Internal and External expanding shoe brakes are

Q.15. Brake capacity depends upon

Q.17. The power brake may be exerted by

Q.20.The brake drum is made of

Q.26.In Magneto Ignition system

Q.27. The following is known as ‘Breakerless Ignition system’

Q.28. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following

Q.29. At the start of the engine, the charging voltage is _______

Q.30. What is the material of an alternator frame?

Q.32. Active materials of a lead acid cell are

Q.33. Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs due to

Q.34. During the charging of a lead acid cell

Q.39. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of

Q.40. On over charging a battery

A. It will bring about chemical change in active materials

Q.43. The greater the temperature difference

A. Higher is the heat transfer rate

Q.44. An antifreeze mixture is used to achieve

A. Freezing point depression

Q.47. The purpose of radiator is ______ of heat to the atmosphere.

Q.51. Radiators are

Q.53. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temperature of

Q.54. water circulation in thermosyphon cooling system is caused by

Q.58. Radiator tubes are generally made up of

Q.59. which of the following method is used in engine cooling?

Q.60. which of the following is much better Heat Conductor

1.The radiator tubes are manufactured byusing

3. Knowing the IHP and FHP of an engine, we cancalculate

4. Which one of the following is not a trade name of tractor inIndia

7.The power used in overcoming friction in the engine iscalled

9. IHP minus FHPequals

10. Engine torque is highestat

11. BHP divided by IHPis

16. The size of an engine cylinder is referred to in terms ofits

17. In an operating engine, the hottest part of the piston isthe

19. The power developed inside the engine cylinder iscalled

22. Twisting and untwisting of the crankshaft iscalled

24. Important bearing characteristicsinclude

28.The active material in a charged negative plateis

29. The tree general types of friction bearingsare

30. Petrol and Gasoline is called a hydrocarbon because it consists essentiallyof

31. Almost all bearing used in automotive enginesare

33. It is cheaper if we use gasketsof

34. With an increase in temperature the resistance of carbonis

36. Due to heat of combustion, with increase in temperature themolecules