High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5

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1.
3. Tertiary follicle
The intine of the pollen grain is a:
4. Graafian follicle
1. Thick and discontinuous layer made of sporopollenin
6.
2. Thick and continuous layer made of sporopollenin
Which of the following is the most common abiotic
3. Thin and discontinuous layer made of cellulose and pollinating agent?
pectin
1. Insects
4. Thin and continuous layer made of cellulose and
pectin 2. Birds and bats

2. 3. Wind

In the monosporic embryo sac of a flowering plant, the 4. Water

number of nuclei that get surrounded by cell walls and 7.
thus are organized into cells is:
Progesterone alone or in combination with estrogen can
1. 5 also be used as contraceptives by females as injections or
2. 6 implants under their skin. When used in this manner,
they:
3. 7
1. do not affect the release of the ovum
4. 8
2. induce a foreign body reaction leading to rejection of
  the implanted blastocyst
3. 3. can cause increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
Scientists are trying to transfer apomictic genes into 4. have a much longer effective period
hybrid varieties of several of our food and vegetable
crops so that: 8.

1. They get resistance against common pathogens The asexual production of seeds is called as:
1. Adventition
2. The yield of these plants can be increased many folds 2. Fragmentation
3. Self-fertilization
3. Hybrid seeds need not be produced every year 4. Apomixis
4. Their germplasm is easily stored in labs for further 9.
research
The layers in the walls of the microsporangium that helps
4. in the dehiscence of anther to release the pollen include:
Which human male accessory reproductive duct receives I. Epidermis
a duct from the seminal vesicle?
II. Endothecium
1. Rete testis
III. Middle layers
2. Vas deferens
IV. Tapetum
3. Epididymis
1. I and II only
4. Urethra
2. I, II and III only
5.
3. II and III only
The primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division
within the: 4. I, II, III and IV
1. Primary follicle 10.
2. Secondary follicle Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous

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flowers, are produced by 3. Microsporophyll

1. Pea and Zostera. 4. Microsporangium
2.  Bean and Vallisneria. 15.
3. Maize and bamboo. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low
sperm count, which technique will be suitable for
4.  Oxalis and Commelina. fertilisation?
11. 1. Intrauterine transfer
In a stamen proximal end of filament is attached to 2. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
1. Anther. 3. Artificial Insemination
2. Thalamus or petals. 4. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
3. Sepals. 16.
4. Gynoecium. What is the function of copper ions in copper releasing
12. IUDs?

Arrange the following stages of microspore development 1. They increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus
into pollen grain, in correct sequence 2. They suppress sperm motility and the fertilising
capacity of sperms
3. They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation 
4. They inhibit ovulation
17.
The extra embryonic membranes of the mammalian
embryo are derived from
    
1. Trophoblast
1. b, c, d, and a 
2. Inner cell mass
2. b, d, a and c
3. Formative cells
3. a, c, b and d 
4. Follicle cells
4. b, a, d and c
18.
13.
In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the duration of luteal
If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of phase is approximate?
the following is unlikely -
1. 14 days
1. Estrogen secretion further decreases
2. 28 days
2. Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
3. 30 days
3. Corpus luteum will disintegrate
4. 5 days
4. Primary follicle starts developing
19.
14.
What functions as the embryonic root of the plant?
The pollen grain represents
1. Male gamete
2. Male gametophyte

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4. Pollen tube stimulates the formation of filiform

apparatus
23.
Graphical representation of ovarian and pituitary
hormones are given below. Identify the hormones A, B,
C and D

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

20.
Select the correct sequence for transport of 1. A - estrogen,  B - progesterone, C - LH, D - Fish
sperm cells in male reproductive system.
1. Seminiferous tubules  → Rete testis  → Vasa 2. A - FSH, B - LH, C - estrogen, D - Progesterone
efferentia  → Epididymis  → Vas deferens 3. A - progesterone, B - estrogen, C - LH, D - FSH
→  Ejaculatory duct  → Urethra  → Urethral
meatus 4. A - Progesterone, B - estrogen, C - FSH, D - LH
2. Seminiferous tubules  → Vasa efferentia  → 24.
Epididymis → Inguinal canal  → Urethra
3. Testis  → Epididymis  → Vasa efferentia → Vas The first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on
deferens  → Ejaculatory duct  → Inguinal the head are usually observed during
canal  → Urethra  → Urethral meatus
4. Testis  → Epididymis  → Vasa efferentia 1. 3 rd month
→  Rete testis  → Inguinal canal  → Urethra
2. 5 th month
21.
3. 3 rd and 5 th month respectively
At the end of spermatogenesis, sperms heads become th th
embedded in the sertoli and finally released from the 4. 4  and 6  month respectively
seminiferous tubules by the process called  25.
1. Spermiogenesis Mark the incorrect match that is not related?
2. Spermateliosis 1. Sertoli cell                        - Spermiation
3. Spermiation 2. Spermatid                        - Spermiogenesis
4. Androgenesis  3. Secondary spermatocyte    - Mitotic division
22. 4. Spermatozoa                    - Capacitation
Which of the following statements is false about filiform 26.
apparatus?
Odd one out in given barrier method of contraception
1. The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the
micropylar tip called filiform apparatus 1. Nirodh
2. It plays an important role in guiding the pollen tubes 2. Diaphragm
into the synergid
3. Vaults
3. Both 1 and 2

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4. Cervical cap 4. Onset of menstrual phase.

27. 33.
In mature pollen grain, vegetative cell differs from Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults prevent
generative cell as the former conception by
1. Floats in the cytoplasm of generative cell. 1. Increasing phagocytosis of sperms within uterus.
2. Is smaller in size. 2. Suppressing sperm motility.
3. Is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm. 3. Inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
4. Have abundant food reserve and large nucleus 4. Blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix.
28. 34.
In monoecious plants like castor and maize The cell in the pollen grain which is responsible for
giving rise to male gamete is
1. Autogamy and allogamy are not prevented 1. Rod shaped with dense cytoplasm
2. Geitonogamy is prevented 2. Of smaller size and float in the cytoplasm
3. Capable of dividing meiotically and give rise two male
3. Autogamy is not prevented gamete
4. Geitonogamy is not prevented 4. It has abundant food reserve and large irregularly
shaped nucleus.
29.
35.
During coitus the human male ejaculates about
Which of the following is very close to the time of
1. 200 to 400 million sperms ovulation?
1. Peak of progesterone.
2. 100 to 200 million sperms
2. Minimum level of estrogen.
3. 200 to 300 sperms 3. Peak of LH and FSH.
4. Thickest layer of endometrium.
4. 200 to 300 billion sperms
36.
30.
Apomixis is a mechanism in which
The hilum is a scar on the 
1. Nucellus or integuments never participate in embryo
1. Seed, where micropyle was present formation.
2. Seed, where funicle was attached 2. Seeds are produced without fertilization.
3. Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel 3. A diploid egg is fertilized by a male gamete.
4. Fruit, where style was present 4. Embryo always develops from haploid cells.
31. 37.
Which of the following is false about xenogamy? Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. parturition.
1. It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma 1. Fully developed foetus and placenta induce mild
of another plant of the same species. uterine contractions.
2. It produces genetic variation 2. It is a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
3. It is genetically and ecologically (= functionally) cross 3. Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of oxytocin
pollination. from foetal pituitary gland.
4. It occurs in cleistogamous flowers 4. The signal for parturition is called foetal ejection
32. reflex

Level of estrogen and progesterone are minimum at 38.

the time of Select the mismatch w.r.t. function of contraceptives.
1. Follicular phase.
2. Ovulation.
3. Secretory phase. 1.

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Oral 3. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.

Prevent
contraceptive - 4. IUDs suppress gametogenesis.
ovulation
pills
43.
Prevent What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria ?
physical
Barrier 1. Pollination occurs in submerged condition by water.
2. - meeting
methods
of 2.  Flowers emerge above surface of Water and
gametes. pollination occurs by insects.
3.  Flowers emerge above water surface and pollen is
Lactational Prevents
3. - carried by wind.
amenorrhoea lactation
4. Male flowers are carried by water currents to female
Prevents flowers at surface of water.
4. Vasectomy - gamete 44.
transport.
Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of
39. transport of sperms?
1. Rete testis →Efferent ductules → Epididymis → vas
Which of the following cell completes the first meiotic
deferens
division leading to the formation of two equal, haploid
2. Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → vas
cells?
deference
1. Spermatogonium
3. Rete testis → Vas deference → Efferent ductules →
2. Primary spermatocytes
Epididymis
3. Secondary spermatocytes
4. Efferent ductules →Rete testis → Vas deference
4. Spermatids
→Epididymis
40.
45.
Which of the following are ideal contraceptives for the
Several hormones like hCG, hPL, oestrogen,
female who wants to delay pregnancy and/or space
progesterone are produced by
children and one of the most widely accepted methods of
1.ovary
contraception in India?
2. placenta
1. Diaphragms
3. Fallopian tube
2. Intra uterine devices
4. pituitary
3. Cervical caps
4. Oral contraceptives 46.
41. Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if
1. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to
No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the
ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
menstrual cycle because :
2. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to
1. Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix
3. the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of
2. FSH levels are high in the luteal phase release of ovum in uterus
3. LH levels are high in the luteal phase 4. the sperms are transported into vagina just after the
release of ovum in fallopian tube
4. Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase
47.
42.
Which one of the following is not the function of
Which of the following is a correct statement ? placenta? It
1. IUDs once inserted need not be replaced. 1. facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo
2. secretes oestrogen
2. IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself. 3. facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and

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53.
waste material from embryo
4. secretes oxytocin during parturition Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the
seed of  
48. 1. Coconut
An oocyte is released from the ovary under the influence 2. Pea
of LH 3. Maize
1. After completing meiosis and before polar body are 4. Castor
released 54.
2. After completing meiosis I and before release of polar
body In which one of the following pollination is autogamous 
3. After completing meiosis 1. Geitonogamy
4. After completing meiosis I and after release of polar 2. Xenogamy
body 3. Chasmogamy
4. Cleistogamy
49.
55.
The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that last for 7-8
days is: Advantage of cleistogamy is :  
1. follicular phase 1. More vigorous offspring
2. ovulatory phase 2. No dependence of pollinators
3. luteal phase 3. Vivipary
4. menstruation 4. Higher genetic variability
50. 56.
In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma
male germ cells differentiate into the of another flower of the same plant.
1. primary spermatocytes
2. secondary spermatocytes 1. Autogamy
3. spermatids 2. Cleistogamy
4. spermatogonia
3. Geitonogamy
51.
4. Xenogamy
Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
1. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid 57.
2. No sperm occurs in epididymis Which of the following event does not occur after
3. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied implantation?
4. Irreversible sterility (a) Appearance of germinal layers
52. (b) Formation of chorionic villi
(c) Secretion of HCG
Consider the statements given below regarding (d) Formation of trophoblast and inner cell mass
contraception and answer as directed thereafter
A. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first 1. a, d 
trimester is generally safe 2. c,d,
B. Generally, chances of conception are nil until mother
breast-feeds the infants upto two year 3. d only 
C. Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective
4. c and d
contraceptives
D. Contraception pills may be taken up to one week after 58.
coitus to prevent conception
Which two of the above statements are correct? Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT
1. B,C Procedure
2. C, D 1. Ova is collected from the female donor and
3. A, C transferred to the Fallopian tube to facilitate zygote
4. A, B formation

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2. Zygote is collected from a female donor and stage in the human menstrual cycle.
transferred to Fallopian tube
1. (i) FSH, (ii) LH, (iii) LH, (iv) Estrogen, (v)
3. Zygote is collected from a female donor and Progesterone
transferred to the uterus 2. (i) LH, (ii) FSH, (iii) LH, (iv) Estrogen, (v)
Progesterone
4.  Ova is collected from a female donor and 3. (i) FSH, (ii) LH, (iii) FSH, (iv) Estrogen, (v)
transferred to the uterus Progesterone
59. 4. (i) FSH, (ii) LH, (iii) LH, (iv) Progesterone, (v)
Estrogen
The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac
62.
1. Through one of the synergids 
Which of the given below sexually transmitted disease in
2. By directly penetrating the egg completely curable?
3. Between one synergid and central cell  1. Trichomoniasis 
4. By knocking off antipodal cells. 2. Genital herpes 
60. 3. Hepatitis-B
Which of the following is/are correct statement regarding 4. HIV infection 
contraception?
(1) Insertion of IUD could be effective contraceptive 63.
within 3 days of unprotected sex The part of the fallopian tube closest to the ovary is:-
(2) Morning after pills are used as emergency
contraceptives 1.  Ampulla
(3) IUDs prevent STDs.
(4) Lactational amenorrhea is due to hyperprolactinemia 2.  Infundibulum

1. (1) only  3.  Cervix

2. (1), (2) & (4) only  4.  Isthmus

3. (1), (2) & (3) only  64.

4. (1), (2), (3) & (4) Read the following statements carefully and select the
correct
61.
a. Tapetum cells possess dense cytoplasm and generally
The figure given below illustrates the changes taking have more than one nucleus
place during the human menstruation cycle
b. Sporopollenin is absent in the areas called germ pore
c. Generative cell is small, spindle shaped with a
irregularly shaped nuclei
d. Spindle of first mitosis in pollen is asymmetric 
1. a,b,c & d
2. a,b & c
3. a,c & d
4. a,b & d

In each of the boxes shown in the figure write the name 65.
of the hormone, or hormones controlling the In ruptured ovum, correct sequence of layers from inside
to outside is
1. Zona pellucida → Perivitelline space →

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Corona radiata 4. Monocarpellary gynoecium

2. Corona radiata → Zona pellucida → Perivitelline 69.
space
It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive
3. Perivitelline space → Zona pellucida → Corona system, in which identify the ejaculatory duct:-
radiata
4. Zona pellucida → Corona radiata → Perivitelline
space
66.
The diameter of Pollen grain in the flowering plant is
1. 25–50 micrometers
2. 50–75 micrometers
3. 75–100 micrometers 1. A
4. 100–150 micrometers 2. B
67. 3. D
At the time of implantation, cells attached to the 4. C
endometrium of the uterus are
70.
1. Inner cell mass
Given below some Assisted Reproductive Technologies
2. Trophoblast (ART). Which of the following techniques are related
with invitro fertilization (IVF) :-
3. Epiblast
a. ZIFT
4. Hypoblast
b. ICSI
68.
c. AI
Recognise the diagram and choose the correct option:- 
d. IUT
e. GIFT
1. a, b, c, e
2. a, c, e
3. a, b, d
4. a, b, c, d, e
71.
Some stages of development of dicot embryo are given
below :-
a. Proembryo
b. Globular stage
c. Heart shape
d. Mature embryo
1. Hibiscus, multicarpellary syncarpous pistil Arrange the given stages in correct sequence?
2. Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil of papaver
3. Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium of Michelia 1. a, b, c, d

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2. c, d, b, a
3. a, c, d, b
4. b, d, c, a
72.
medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered
safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?                         
1. Eight weeks (a)                   (b)                       (c)                        (d)
2. Twelve weeks 1) Coleoptile      Colerhiza               Scutellum             
3. Eighteen weeks Shoot apex)

4. Six weeks 2) Scutellum      Shoot apex            Epiblast               

 Coleorhiza 
 
3) Radicle          Root cap                Scutellum             
73. Coleoptile
Triple fusion involves the fusion of:- 4) Root cap        Scutellum              Radicle                 
 Coleorhiza
1. Two male gametes and one egg cell
1. 1
2. Two egg cell and one male gamete
2. 2
3. Two male gametes and secondary nucleus
3. 3
4. One male gamete and secondary nucleus
4. 4
74.
76.
The figure below shows the development of follicles (A,
B, C, D). Select the option giving correct identification How many seminiferous tubules are present in each
together with its function? testicular lobule?
1. 250
2. 750-1000
3. 1-3
4. 100
 
77.

     A typical anther is

1. B-Secondary Follicle - secretes progesterone (a) Tetrasporangiate

2. D-Corpus Albicans - Secretes estrogen (b) Tetragonal

3. A-Tertiary follicle - Secretes FSH & LH (c) Trilobed

4. C-Corpus luteum - Secretes progesterone (d) Surrounded by four wall layers

75. The correct ones are

Given below a L.S. of an embryo of grass. Identify the 1. Only (a), (b) and (d)
labelled part (a), (b), (c) and (d) and select correct option 2. Only (a) and (d)
about them :-
3. Only (b) and (c)

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4. All (a), (b), (c) and (d) Largest cell in embryo sac of angiosperm is
78. 1. Synergid cell
Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. “Saheli”. 2. Egg
1. It is a pre-coital contraceptive with a high 3. Antipodal cell
contraceptive value
4. Central cell
2. It contains centchroman
84.
3. It is a “once a week” oral contraceptive pill
The entry of pollen tube into the embryosac takes place
4. It triggers estrogen receptors in the uterus, stimulating due to the chemo-attractant secreted by
eggs for getting implanted
1. Tapetum
79.
2. Oosphere
The site of synthesis of sperms is
3. Filiform apparatus
1. Prostate
4. Antipodal
2. Seminiferous tubules
85.
3. Seminal vesicle
Oral contraceptives do not work by
4. Bulbourethral gland
1. Inhibition of ovulation
80.
2. Changing the consistency of cervical mucus
Pollen grains lose their viability within 30 minutes of
their release in 3. Antagonistic action on gonadotropins

1. Rice 4. Spermicidal action

2. Legumes 86.

3. Rose Double fertilization includes

4. Potato 1. Endosperm and embryo development

81. 2. Ovules and ovary maturation

Embryo sac of flowering plants 3. Syngamy and triple fusion

1. Is a 3 celled structure 4. Porogamy and chalazogamy

2. Is formed in microsporangium 87.

3. Has 7 cells and 8 nuclei If vas deferens in human male reproductive system is
blocked, then transport of sperms will be blocked from
4. Has pollen tetrads in them
1. Rete testis to epididymis
82.
2. Vasa efferentia to epididymis
Select the mismatch.
3. Seminiferous tubules to rete testis
1. Liquor folliculi – Fluid filled in antrum
4. Epididymis to ejaculatory duct
2. Follicular atresia – Regression of follicles in ovary
88.
3. Granulosa cells – Secrete estrogen
Which of the aquatic plants is not pollinated by water?
4. Zona pellucida – Glycolipid layer around primary
oocyte secreted by granulosa cells only 1. Vallisneria

83. 2. Zostera

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3. Water hyacinth 3. 1Cs+ and 1Cl-

4. Hydrilla
4. 4Cs+ and Cl-
89.
94.
Which of the following in not associated with the
Which arrangement of electrons leads to anti-
secretion of milk in mammary glands?
ferromagnetism?
1. Mammary duct
1.  ↑↑↑↑
2. Mammary lobes
2.  ↑↓↑↓
3. Mammary alveoli
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Glandular cells
4. None of these
90.
95.
Absence of acrosome will affect which activity in a
normal sperm? The density of KCl is 1.9893 g cm-3 and the length of a
side unit cell is 6.29082  Å as determined by X-rays
1. Maturation of sperm diffraction. The value of Avogadro’s number calculated
from these data is:-
2. Energy utilization for movement
3. Sperm motility 1. 6.017 x 1023
4. Penetration into the ovum 2. 6.023 x 1023
91.
3. 6.03 x 1023
The phenomenon in which polar crystals on heating
produce electricity is called:- 4. 6.017 x 1019
1. pyro-electricity
96.
2. piezo-electricity
3. ferro-electricity pH of a 0.1 (M) mono basic is found to be 2. Hence
4. ferri-electricity osmotic pressure at given temperature T is-
1. 0.1 RT
92.
2. 0.11RT
Lithium borohydride (LiBH4), crystallises in an
3. 1.1RT
orthorhombic system with 4 molecules per unit cell.
The unit cell dimensions are:- a = 6.81 Å , b = 4.43 4. 0.01RT
Å ,c = 7.17 Å. If the molar mass of LiBH4 is
97.
21.76 g mol-1.The density of the crystal is:-
If an iron rod is dipped in CuSO4 solution, then:
1. 0.668 gcm-3 1. blue colour of the solution turns red
2. 0.585 gcm2
2. brown layer is deposited on iron rod
3. 1.23 gcm-3
4. None of these 3. no change occurs in the colour of the solution
93. 4. none of the above
The mass of a unit cell of CsCl corresponds to:- 98.
Passage of three faraday of charge through aqueous
1. 8Cs+ and Cl-
solution of AgNO3, CuSO4, Al(NO3)3 and NaCl will
2. 1Cs+ and 6Cl- deposit moles of metals at the cathode in the molar ratio
of:

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1. 1 : 2 : 3 : 1
1. Frankel Defect
2. 6 : 3 : 2 : 6 2. Interstitial Defect
3. 6 : 3 : 0 : 0 3. F-Centres
4. Schottky Defect
4. 3 : 2 : 1 : 0
104.
99.
The relative lowering of vapour caused by dissolving
In Arrhenius equation K = Ae-Ea/RT, the quantity e- 71.3g of a substance in 1000g of water is 7.13x10-3. The
E/kT is referred as: molecular mass of substance is:-
1. Boltzmann factor 1. 180
2. frequency factor 2. 18
3. activation factor 3. 1.8
4. none of these 4. 360
100. 105.
For a given reaction, presence of catalyst reduces the Ice crystallises in a hexagonal lattice having volume of
energy of activation by 2 kcal at 27°C. The rate of the unit cell as 132 x 10-24 cm3. If density is 0.92 g/cm3
reaction will be increased by: at a given temperature, then number of    H20 molecules
1. 20 times per unit cell is
2. 14 times 1. 1
3. 28 times 2. 2
4. 2 times 3. 3
101. 4. 4
Mole of K2SO4 to be dissolved in 12 moles water to 106.
lower its vapour pressure by 10 mm of Hg at a How much oxygen is dissolved in 100ml water at 298K
temperature at which vapour pressure of pure water is 50
if partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm and KH=1.4 X 10-
mm of Hg is
3 M/atm ?
1. 3 mol
1. 22.4 mg
2. 0.5 mol
2. 22.4 g
3. 1 mol
3. 2.24 g
4. 2 mol
4. 2.24 mg
102.
107.
Which has highest freezing point ?
What will be the maximum work which can be obtained
1. 0.01M NaCl from a Daniel cell -
2. 0.05M Urea
3. 0.01 M MgCl2 | || |
Zn ( s )    Zn + 2 ( aq )    Cu + 2 ( aq )    Cu ( s )  if

∘ ∘
4. 0.02 M NaCl E Zn + 2   =   - 0. 76 V and E Cu + 2   =  0. 34 V
Zn Cu
103.
1. 106.15 KJ
The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is
generally due to :- 2. -212.3 KJ

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
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3. 424.6 KJ In a reaction, the rate =  k[A] - 1[B] 2 / 3 the order of

4. +212.3 KJ reaction is-

108. 1. 1/3                                              

The quantity of electricity required to reduce 12.3g of 2. 2

nitrobenzene to aniline with 50% current efficienct is:- 3. -1/3                                           
1. 1 F 4. Zero
2. 0.6 F 113.
3. 0.5 F A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction from
4. 1.2 F 20 kJ mole – 1 to 10 kJ mole – 1. The temperature at which
the uncatalysed reaction will have the same rate as that of
  the catalysed at 27°C is
109. 1. – 123°C                                                                 
Rate constant for a chemical reaction takes place at 500 2. - 327°C
K, is expressed as K = A e-1000. The activation energy of
3. 327°C                                                                   
the reaction is
4. +  23°C
1. 100 cal/mol
114.
2. 1000 kcal/mol
The rate of reaction triples when temperature change
3. 104 kcal/mol from 20°C to 50°C. Calculate energy of activation for the
reaction.
4. 106 kcal/mol
110. 1. 28. 81 kJ mol - 1                                         

A solution containing 6.8 g of a non ionic solute in 100 g 2.  38. 51 kJ mol - 1

of water was found to freeze at − 0 .93 oC. The freezing 3. 18. 81 kJ mol - 1 
point depression constant of water is 1.86. Calculate the
molecular weight of the solute 4.  8. 31 kJ mol - 1
1. 13.6 115.
2. 34 The rate constant of a particular reaction has the
dimensions of a frequency. What is the order of the
3. 68
reaction ?
4. 136
1. Zero                                                     
111.
2. First
During an electrolysis of conc. H2SO4, perdisulphuric
3. Second                                                 
acid (H2S2O8) and O2 from in equimolar amount. The
amount of H2 that will form simultaneously will be 4. Fractional

(2H2SO4 → H2S2O8 + 2H+ + 2e–) 116.

Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal
1. thrice that of O2 in moles
solution?
2. twice that of O2 in moles 1.   ∆ H mix = 0
3. equal to that of O2 in moles 2.   ∆ U mix = 0
4. half of that of O2 in moles 3.   ∆ P = P obs . ‐ P calculated   by   Raoult ' s   Law = 0 
112.
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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
of a reaction is incorrect?
4.  ∆ G mix = 0 
1.  Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient
117. of the reactants
Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m-3 and its
2.  Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration
atomic mass is 6.94 g mol-1  Calculate the edge length of a terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction
unit cell of lithium metal. 
(NA= 6.02 X 1023 mol-1) 3.  Order of reaction is always the whole number
1. 352 pm 4.  Order can be determined by experiments only
2. 527 pm
3. 264 pm 122.
4. 154 pm A solution of sucrose(molar mass = 342g mol-1  ) has
  been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g
of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will
118.
be (kf for water= 1.86 K kg mol-1)
The correct statement regarding defects in the crystalline
solid is 1. -0.372 oC
1. Schottky defects have no effect on the density of 2. -0.520 oC
crystalline solids
3. +0.372 oC
2. Frenkel defects decreases  the density of crystalline
solids 4. -0.570 oC
3. Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect 123.
4. Frenkel defect is found in halides of alkaline metals. Given, 
119. (i) Cu 2 + + 2e - → Cu    Eo = 0.337 V 
Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value (ii) Cu 2 + + e - → Cu +   Eo = 0.153 V 
of van't Hoff factor (i) as that of Al2(SO4)3   (if all are 100% Electrode potential, E0 for the reaction, 
ionized)? Cu 1 + e - → Cu, will be
1. K2SO4
2. K3[Fe(CN)6] 1. 0.52 V
3. Al(NO3)3 2. 0.90 V
4. K4[Fe(CN)6] 3. 0.30 V
120.
A button cell used in watches functions as following  4. 0.38 V
Zn(s) + Ag2O(s) + H2O(l)   2Ag(s) + Zn2+ (aq) + 2OH– 124.
 (aq) 
If half cell potentials are :  d [ NH 3 ]
For the reaction, N2  + 3H2→2NH3, if dt =2 x 10-
Zn2+ (aq) + 2e– → Zn(s); E º = – 0.76 V 
Ag2O (s) + H2O (l) + 2e– → 2Ag(s) + 2OH– (aq); E º = 0.34 - d [ H2 ]
4 mol L-1s-1, the value of  would be
V  dt
The cell potential will be:
  1. 3 × 10 - 4 mol L - 1 s - 1
1. 0.42 V
  2. 4 × 10 - 4 mol L - 1 s - 1
2. 0.84 V
3. 6 × 10 - 4 mol L - 1 s - 1
 
3. 1.34 V 4. 1 × 10 - 4 mol L - 1 s - 1
 
4. 1.10 V 125.
121. Standard free energies of formation(in kJ/mol) at 298 K are
Which one of the following statements for the order -237.2, -394.4 and -8.2 for H2O(l), CO2

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
(g) and pentane (g), respectively. The value of Ecell for the d[B]
pentane-oxygen fuel cell is 2. - dt
1.  1.968 V d[D]
3.    dt
2.  2.0968 V
d[A]
3.  1.0968 V 4. - 2dt
4.  0.0968 V
130.
126.
1.00 g of non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 mol-1)
If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 min, was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point
50% of the same reaction would be completed in
approximately:  depression constant,  Kf  of benzene is 5.12 mol-1, the
(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69) freezing point of benzene will be lowered by :

1. 50 min 1. 0.4 K

2. 45 min 2. 0.3 K

3. 60 min 3. 0.5 K

4. 40 min 4. 0.2 K

127. 131.
In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100 W power at During osmosis, flow of water through a semi-permeable
125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per min is membrane is :
liberated? ECE of chlorine is 0.367×10-6 kg/C:
1. 17.6 mg 1. from solution having higher concentration only 
2. 21.3 mg 2. from both sides of semi-permeable membrane with
3. 24.3 mg equal flow rates
4. 13.6 mg
3. from both sides of semi-permeable membrane with
  unequal flow rates
128. 4. from solution having lower concentration only
A solution containing 10g per dm3  of urea (molecular 132.
mass = 60g mol-1) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a
A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The
non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-
anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the
volatile solute is :
cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids. The formula of
1. 25g mol .-1 the compound is:
1.  C 4A 3
2. 300g mol-1.
2.  C 2A 3
3. 350g mol-1.
3.  C 3A 2
4. 200g mol-1.
129. 4.  C 3A 4

For the reaction  133.

2A + B → 3C + D 
Which of the following does not express the reaction Following limiting molar conductivities are given as
rate?
d[C]
0
( )
λ m H 2SO 4 = x Scm 2 mol - 1
1. - 3   dt
0
λm (K SO ) = y Scm  mol
2 4
2 -1

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
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q 2 = –  1µC as shown in figure. The initial separation of

0
( )
λ m CH 3COOK = z Scm 2 mol - 1
both charges  is l= 1m. Both the charges are given initial
velocities  v 1 = 1 m / s and  v 2 = 2 m / s towards  right.
0
λm (in Scm  mol   ) for CH COOH will be-
2 -1
3 Then the maximum separation between the charges is
infinite.
1. x - y + 2z
                   
2. x + y + z
3. x-y+z
(x-y)
4.  2
+z

134.
Reason : The total energy (Kinetic energy + electrostatic
Formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency defect in potential energy) of given two particle system is positive
its crystal is  Ni 0 . 98O. The crystal contains  and initial velocity of separation is positive. 
Ni 2 +  and Ni 3 +   ions. The fraction of nickel existing as  138.
Ni 2 +  ions in the crystal is-
An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30 ° with an
1. 0.96 electric field intensity 2 x 105  N/C. It experiences a
2. 0.04 torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the
dipole length is 2 cm, is
3. 0.50
1.  8 mC
4. 0.31
2.  2 mC
135.
3.  5 mC
Equivalent conductance of saturated  BaSO 4  solution is
4.  7 μC
400  ohm - 1 cm 2   equivalent - 1  and it's specific
conductance is  8  ×  10 - 5 ohm - 1 cm - 1; hence solubility 139.
product K sp of BaSO 4 is Maximum charge stored on a metal sphere of radius 15
cm may be 7. 5 μC. The potential energy of the sphere in
1.  4  ×  10 - 8 M 2 this case is-
2.  1  ×  10 - 8 M 2 1.  9.67 J

3.  2  ×  10 - 4 M 2 2.  0.25 J

4.  1  ×  10 - 4 M 2 3.  3.25 J

136. 4.  1.69 J

Angle between equipotential surface and electric lines of 140.

force is- The current in a wire varies with time according to the
1. Zero equation I = 4 + 2t, where I is in ampere and t is in sec.
The quantity of charge which has passed through a cross-
2. 180° section of the wire during the time t = 2 sec to t = 6 sec
will be
3. 90° 1. 60 coulomb 
4. 45° 2. 24 coulomb
137. 3.  48 coulomb 
Assertion : An isolated system consists of two particles 4. 30 coulomb
of equal masses m=10 gm and charges  q 1 = + 1µC and 

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

  4. 42.5 Ω
141. 144.
An electric dipole with dipole moment  The charge on the plates of the capacitor in steady state
will be
( )
p = 3î + 4ĵ × 10 - 30 C - m
→

→
  is placed in an electric field  E = 4000î(N / C).  An
external agent turns the dipole slowly until its electric

( )
dipole moment becomes - 4î + 3ĵ × 10 - 30 C - m. The
work done by the external agent is equal to :–

1. 4 × 10–28 J 

2. –4 × 10–28 J

3. 2.8 × 10–26 J  1. 3 μC

2. 9 μC
4. –2.8 × 10–26 J
3. 27 μC
142.
4. 36 μC
The electric potential due to an infinite sheet of
positive charge density σ at a point located at 145.
a perpendicular distance Z from the sheet is :
(Assume V0 to be the potential at the surface of Two identical parallel plate capacitors are placed in series
and connected to a constant voltage source of V 0 volt. If
sheet)
one of the capacitors is completely immersed in a liquid
1. V 0 with dielectric constant K, the potential difference
between the plates of the other capacitor will change to -
σZ
2. V 0 - ε K+  1
0 1.  K V 0
σZ
3. V 0 + 2ε K
0 2.  K +   1 V 0
σZ
K+  1
4. V 0 - 2ε 3.  2K V 0
0

143. 2K
4.  K +   1 V 0
The equivalent resistance between points A
and B is- 146.
Five equal capacitors connected in series have a resultant
capacitance of 4μF. The total energy stored in these when
these are connected in parallel and charged to 400 V is -
1. 1 J
2. 8 J
3. 16 J

1. 32.5Ω  4. 4 J

2. 22.5Ω 147.

3. 2.5Ω  The figure below shows currents in a part of the electric

circuit. The current 'i'  is -

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
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1. 1.7 amp
2. 3.7 amp 1. 3 μC
3. 1.3 amp 2. 1. 5 μC
4. 1 amp 3. 60 μC
148. 4. 900 μC
When a negative charge is released and moves in the 151.
electric field, it moves toward a position of R
A point charge q is placed at a distance  3  from the center
1.  lower electric potential and lower potential energy
O of an uncharged, conducting hollow sphere of inner
2.  lower electric potential and higher potential energy radius R and outer radius 3R. The potential at the center

( )
3.  higher electric potential and lower potential energy 1
is  K = 4πε
4.  higher electric potential and higher potential energy 0

149.
7 Kq
The direction of the Electric field  at  point C due to 1.  3 R
charge q and -2q at points A and B such that C is a point 5 Kq
on the perpendicular bisector of AB above line AB and 2.  3 R
charge q is negative-
3Kq
3.  R

Kq
4.  R

152.
The electric field intensity and the electric potential at a
point are E and V respectively. Which of the following is
correct?
1. If E  ≠  0, V cannot be zero
2. If V  ≠  0, E cannot be zero
150. 3. If V is constant and non-zero, E must be zero
Two capacitor of capacitance  6 μF  and  3 μF  are 4. If V=0, E must be zero
connected in series with battery of 30 V. Charge on  3 μF
153.
 capacitor at steady state is-
The equivalent capacitance across A and B in the given
 
figure is 

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

3. 3 V
6
4.  5 V

 
156.
How many capacitors each of  8 μF  and 250 V are
required to form a composite capacitor of  16 μF  and 1
3 kV?
1.  2 C
1. 16
2. C
2. 8
2
3.  3 C 3. 64

5 4. 32
4.  3 C
157.
154. A positive charge q and a negative charge -q are placed at
Surface charge density on the positive plate of a charged x= -a and x= +a respectively. The variation of V along x-
parallel plate capacitor is σ. Energy density in the electric axis is represented by the graph-
field of the capacitor is:
σ2
1.  ε
0

σ2
2.  2ε
0

σ
3.  ε 1. 
0

4. 2σ 2ε 0

155.
Two capacitors of capacity  2 μF and  3 μF are charged to
same potential difference 6 V. Now they are connected
with opposite polarity as shown. After closing switches 
S 1   and S 2 ,their final potential difference becomes-         
        2. 

                             

3. 
4. 
1. Zero
4
2.  3 V
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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
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1.  1: 1
                                                      
2.  1: 2
158.
3.  1: 4
Which of the following statements is correct regarding
electrostatics of conductors? 4.  4: 2
1. The interior of the conductor with no cavity can have 162.
no excess charge in the static situation
If the following diagram the shell A is given a charge q
2. Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the and B is earthed. The electric flux linked with the
volume of the conductor Gaussian surface S is-
3. Electrostatic potential has same value inside as that on
its surface 
4. All of these 
159.
Two charges placed in the air at a distance of 1 m exert
force 'F' on each other. If these charges are placed inside
mica at the same distance, then the new net force
between charges is-
1.  > F
q
2.  < F 1.   ε
0
3.  = F
q
4.  Depends on the area of the slab 2.   2   ε
0

160. 2 q
3.   ε
A ring of radius R is having a uniform line charge 0
density 'λ'. The electric field at the center of the ring is-
4.  Zero
1.  Zero
163.
2.  not defined
Resistance between terminals A and B is- 
λ
3.  
2πε 0R 2

λ
4.   4πε R
0

161.
The ratio of the electric flux linked with shell A and shell
B in the diagram shown below is- 1.  5 Ω
2.  15 Ω

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
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3.  10 Ω 3.  69%

4.  20 Ω 4.  Zero
   
164. 167.
Current through the branch AO is-  The effective resistance of the network between points A
and B is-

1.  3 Ω
2.  2 Ω
3.  4 Ω

1.  2 A 4.  33 Ω

2.  4 A 168.

3.  1 A Figure shows a potentiometer used for determination of

internal resistance of a cell of emf 1 V. When key K is
4.  Zero open, the balance point is obtained at 90 cm from A and
when closed, the balance point shifts to 80 cm from A.
 
The internal resistance of the cell must be-
165.
The value of E (emf of cell) is- 

1.  24 V
2.  32 V 1.  0.5 Ω
3.  16 V 2.  4 Ω
4.  8 V 3.  1 Ω
166. 4.  2 Ω
What is the percentage increase in the resistance of a 169.
wire when it is stretched so that its length increases by
30%? (Assume that there is no change in the temperature In the circuit shown in figure, the power developed in 6Ω
and the volume of the wire)  resistor is 24 W. The power developed in 2Ω resistor will
be-
1.  60%
2.  15%

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

3.  Brightness of both bulbs B1 and B2 increase

4.  Brightness of bulb B1 will increase whereas

brightness of bulb B2 will be same 

 
172.
What is the reading of the voltmeter of resistance 1200 Ω
 connected in the following circuit diagram? 

1.  16 W
2.  18 W
3.  6 W
4.  3 W
170.
 A heater coil is used across a constant voltage source. If
the heater wire is cut into two equal parts and one part is 1.  2.5 V
applied across the same source, then the heat produced in
it will be- 2.  5.0 V

1.  Halved  3.  7.5 V

2.  Doubled 4. 40 V

3.  Quartered 173.

4.  Quadrupled For what value of the length /, the deflection in the
galvanometer will be zero in the following potentiometer
  arrangement? The length of the wire AB is 4 m and its
171. resistance is 10 Ω?

In the given circuit diagram, 3 identical bulbs are

connected. If bulb B3 get fused suddenly, how the
brightness of bulbs B1 and B2 will change?

1.  0.8 m
2.  1.6 m
3.  2.4 m
4.  3.6 m
174.

1.  Brightness of bulb B1 will increase whereas The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity (ρ) of a
semiconductor is roughly represented by-
brightness of bulb B2 will decrease
1. 
2.  Brightness of bulb B2 will increase whereas
brightness of bulb B1 will decrease

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
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If the wire is folded at point A so that both parts lie

alongside as shown in figure (b), then express electric
field at P in vector form.
                           

E E
1.   2 î  +   2 ĵ
2. 
2.  Eî  +  Eĵ

3.  √2Eî  +  √2Eĵ
E E
4.   î  +   ĵ
√2 √2
177.
3. 
Two heating coils, one of fine wire and the other of thick
wire of the same material and of the same length are
connected in series and in parallel. Which of the
following statements is correct?

1. In series, fine wire liberates more energy while in the

parallel thick wire will liberate more energy
4.  2. In series, fine wire liberates less energy while in the
parallel thick wire will liberate more energy
 
3. Both will liberate equally
175.
4. In series, the thick wire will liberate more energy
Current through the 2Ω  resistance in the electrical while in parallel it will liberate less energy
network shown is-
178.

In a region an electric field  E  =  15 NC – 1 making an

angle 30° with the horizontal plane is present. A ball
having charge 2 C and mass 3 kg is projected with speed
20 m/s at an angle 30° with the horizontal, the horizontal

1.  Zero (
range of the projectile in metre is:-  g  =  10 ms – 2 )
2.  1 A  
3.  3 A
4.  5 A
176.                           
Electric field due to an infinite line of charge as shown in 1.  40
figure (a) at a point P at a distance r from the line is E.

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 High Yielding Test Series - Part Test 5
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2.  20√3

3.  40√3

4.  80√3

179.
A battery consists of a variable number n of identical
cells having equal internal resistance connected in series.
The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the
current I measured. Which one of the graphs below
shows the correct relationship between I and n?

1.  

2.  

3.  

4.  
180.
A sphere encloses an electric dipole with charges 
± 3 × 10 - 6C. What is the total electric flux through the
sphere?

1. -3 × 10 - 6
2. zero
3. 3 × 10 - 6 Nm 2 / C

4. 6 × 10 - 6 Nm 2 / C

Fill OMR Sheet

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