00/00/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Test Series for GUJCET - 2020

MM : 120 Time : 3 Hrs.
Test – 1
Topics covered:

Physics : Electric Charges and Fields: Electric charge & methods of charging, Coulomb's law and
Superposition principle, Electric field, Electric dipole, Continuous distribution of charge, Electric
field lines, electric flux and Gauss law and application.

Electrostatic Potential & Capacitance: Work done in moving an electric charge in the
electric field, electrostatic potential & potential energy, Electric potential due to point charge,
electric potential due to system of charges, equipotential surfaces, relation between electric
field and potential, potential energy of system of charges, potential energy of electric dipole.
Capacitors and capacitance, combination of capacitors, energy stored in capacitors, insertion
of dielectric, van-de-Graaff generator.

Chemistry : Solid State: Classification of solids based on binding forces, amorphous and crystalline solids,
Unit cell, crystal lattice and packing efficiency, Different types of unit cells, voids, points
defects, electrical and magnetic properties, Band theory of metals, conductor, semiconductors
& insulators.

Solution: Types of solution, concentration, Solubility of gas in liquid, Expression of

concentration of solutions, colligative properties, Raoult’s law, ideal and non-ideal solutions,
azeotropes. Abnormal colligative properties, method of determining the molecular mass,
abnormal molecular mass and van't Hoff factor, degree of dissociation.

Biology : Reproduction in organisms, Sexual Reproduction in flowering plants,

Reproduction in Organisms, Reproductive Health

Instructions:
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 1 mark. For every wrong response one-fourth (1/4) mark shall be deducted from total score.

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PART – A : PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : 5. A charged particle of mass 0.003 g is held
1. The ratio of the forces between two static point stationary in space by placing it in a downward
charges in vacuum to force in medium of dielectric direction of electric field of 6  104 N/C . Then the
constant K is magnitude of the charge is
(1) 1 : K (2) K : 1 4
(1) 5  10 C (2) 5  10
10
C
(3) 1 : 1 (4) K 2 : 1 (3) 18  106 C (4) 5  109 C
2. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a 6. When one electron is taken towards the other
square ABCD, as shown in the adjoining figure. electron, then the electric potential energy of the
The force on the charge +q kept at the centre O is system
(1) Decreases
A B (2) Increases
+q 6q
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Becomes zero
O 7. A charge of 5 C is given a displacement of
4q –q 0.5 m. The work done in the process is 10 J. The
D C potential difference between the two points will be
(1) Zero (1) 2 V (2) 0.25 V
(2) Along the diagonal AC (3) 1 V (4) 25 V
(3) Along the diagonal BD 8. The variation of potential with distance R from a
(4) Perpendicular to side AB fixed point is as shown below. The electric field at
3. Three charges 4q, Q and q are in a straight line in R = 5 m is
the position of 0, l/2 and l respectively. The
resultant force on q will be zero, if Q is
(1)  q (2) 2q

q
(3)  (4) 4q
2
4. In the given figure, two tiny conducting balls of
identical mass m and identical charge q hang from
non-conducting threads of equal length L. Assume
(1) 2.5 volt/m (2) 2.5 volt/m
that  is so small that than sin    , then for
equilibrium x is equal to (3) 2/5 volt/m (4) 2 / 5 volt/m
9. The points resembling equal potentials are
 
L L

q q
x
1 1

(1)  q L  (2)  qL 
2 2
3 3 (1) P and Q
 2 mg   2 mg 
 0   0  (2) S and Q
1 1
(3) S and R
(3)  q L  (4)  q2L  3
2 2 3

 4 mg   4 mg  (4) P and R

 0   0 

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10. A molecule with a dipole moment p is placed in an 14. Consider the charge configuration and spherical
electric field of strength E. Initially the dipole is Gaussian surface as shown in the figure. When
aligned parallel to the field. If the dipole is to be calculating the flux of the electric field over the
rotated to be anti-parallel to the field, the work spherical surface, the electric field will be due to
required to be done by an external agency is
(1) 2qE (2) pE
(3) pE (4) 2pE
11. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge
+Q. The electric field at the centre O of the ring due
to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The
electric field at the centre due to the charge on the
part ACDB of the ring is [K is mid-point of AKB]
(1) q2

(2) Only the positive charges

(3) All the charges
(4)  q1 and  q1

15. Electric field intensity at a point in between two

parallel sheets with like charges of same surface
charge densities    is
(1) 3E along KO (2) E along OK
 
(3) E along KO (4) 3E along OK (1) (2)
20 0
12. Three charges q,  Q and –q are placed in a
2
straight line as shown. If the total potential energy (3) Zero (4)
0
q
of the system is zero, then the ratio is
Q 16. Two spheres of radius a and b respectively are
–q +Q –q charged from a potential source. The ratio of
electric field at the surface of the spheres is:
x x
(1) a/b
(1) 2
(2) b/a
(2) 5.5
(3) a2 / b2
(3) 4
(4) b2 / a2
(4) 1.5
17. Potential at a point at distance x from the centre
13. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of a
cube of side a. The electric flux on one of its faces inside the conducting sphere of radius R and
will be  1 
charged with charge Q is K  
 40 
q
(1)
60 Q
(1) k
R
q
(2)
0 a 2 (2) k
Q
x
q
(3) Q
40 a2 (3) k
x2
q
(4) Q
0 (4) k
R2

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18. Which of the following graphs shows the variation 24. The equivalent capacitance between A and B is
of electric field E due to a spherical conductor of
radius R as a function of distance from the centre
of the sphere?
E E

(1) (2)
r r
R R
E E

(3) (4)
r r 8
R R (1) F
7
19. 64 drops of mercury each charged to a potential of
10 V. They are combined to form one bigger drop. 24
(2) F
The potential of this drop will be (Assume all the 7
drops to be spherical) (3) 18 F
(1) 160 V (2) 80 V
24
(3) 10 V (4) 640 V (4) F
43
20. The capacitance of a spherical condenser is 1 F .
25. Three capacitors of capacitance 1 F, 2 F and
If the spacing between the two spheres is 1 mm,
then the radius of the outer sphere is 3 F are connected in series and a potential
(1) 30 cm (2) 6 m difference of 11 V is applied across the
(3) 5 cm (4) 3 m combination. Then, the potential difference across
the plates of 1 F capacitor is
21. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is
10 F , when the distance between its plate is (1) 2 V (2) 4 V
8 cm. If the distance between the plates is reduced (3) 1 V (4) 6 V
to 4 cm, then the capacity of this parallel plate
condenser will be 26. How may 1 F capacitors must be connected in
(1) 5 F (2) 10 F parallel to store a charge of 1 C with a potential of
110 V across the capacitors?
(3) 20 F (4) 40 F
(1) 990
22. A capacitor of capacity C has charge Q and stored
energy is W. If the charge is increased to 2Q, the (2) 900
stored energy will be (3) 9090
(1) 2W (2) W/2 (4) 909
(3) 4W (4) W/4
27. A metallic sheet is inserted between the plates of a
23. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area A and
parallel plate capacitor. The capacitance of the
separation d. It is charged to a potential difference
capacitor
V0 . The charging battery is disconnected and the
(1) Increases
plates are pulled apart to three times the initial
separation. The work required to separate the (2) Is dependent of the position of the sheet
plates is
(3) Is maximum when the metal sheet in the
30 AV02  AV 2 middle
(1) (2) 0 0
d 2d
(4) Is maximum when the metal sheet touches one
 0 AV02  0 AV02 of the capacitor plates
(3) (4)
3d d

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28. A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance C. If it is 33. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a
equally filled with parallel layers of materials of potential difference V from a cell and then
dielectric constant K1 and K 2 , its capacity disconnected from it. A charge +Q is now given to
becomes C1 . The ratio of C1 to C is its positive plate. The potential difference across
the capacitor is now
K1K 2
(1) K1  K 2 (2) (1) V
K1  K 2
Q
K1  K 2 2K1K 2 (2) V 
(3) (4) C
K1K 2 K1  K 2
Q
29. The total capacity of the system of capacitors (3) V 
2C
shown in the adjoining figure between the points A
and B is Q
(4) V  , if V < CV
C
34. A solid metallic sphere is placed in a uniform
electric field. Which of the curves shown in the
figure represent the lines of force correctly?

(1) 1 F (2) 2 F

(3) 3 F (4) 4 F

30. Charge Q is divided into two parts which are then 35. In the circuit shown here C1  6 F, C2  3 F and
kept some distance apart. The force between them battery B = 20 V. The switch S1 is first closed. It is
will be maximum if the two parts are
then opened and afterwards S2 is closed. What is
(1) Q/2 each
the charge finally on C2 ?
(2) Q/4 and 3Q/4
(3) Q/3 and 2Q/3
(4) e and  Q  e  , where e = electronic charge

31. Solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly. At

what distance from its surface is the electrostatic
potential half of the potential at the centre?
(1) R (2) R/2 (1) 120 C
(3) R/3 (4) 2R (2) 80 C

32. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in a (3) 40 C
  
uniform electric field E , with p parallel to E . It is (4) 20 C
then rotated by an angle  . The work done is 36. The electric potential at the surface of an atomic

(1) pEsin  nucleus (Z = 50) of radius 9.0  10 13 cm is

(2) pEcos  (1) 80 volt

(2) 8  106 volt
(3) pE 1  cos  
(3) 9 volt
(4) pE 1  sin  
(4) 9  105 volt

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37. Two identical metal spheres charged with 12 F is connected to another battery and is charged to
potential difference 2 V. The charging batteries are
and 8 F are kept at certain distance in air. They
now disconnected and the capacitors are
are brought into contact and then kept at the same connected in parallel to each other in such a way
distance. The ratio of the magnitudes of that the positive terminal of one is connected to the
electrostatic forces between them before and after negative terminal of the other. The final energy of
contact is the configuration is
(1) 12 : 1 5CV 2
(1) Zero (2)
(2) 8 : 1 12
(3) 24 : 1 3CV 2 9CV 2
(3) (4)
(4) 4 : 1 2 2
38. The mutual electrostatic potential energy between 40. Two conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 are at
15
two protons which are at a distance of 9  10 m the same potential. The ratio of their charges is
235
in 92 U nucleus is
r12
(1)
(1) 1.56  1014 J r22

(2) 5.5  1014 J r22

(2)
r12
(3) 2.56  1014 J
r1
(4) 4.56  1014 J (3)
r2
39. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is
connected to a battery and is charged to a potential r2
difference V. Another capacitor of capacitance 2C (4)
r1

PART – B : CHEMISTRY
41. TiO 2 is well known example of 44. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is about
(1) Triclinic system (1) 32% (2) 10%
(2) Tetragonal system (3) 23% (4) 46%
(3) Monoclinic system 45. Which one of the following elements should be
(4) Hexagonal system doped with silicon so as to give p-type
semiconductor?
42. Number of atoms present in simple cubic unit cell
(1) As (2) Se
is/are
(3) B (4) Ge
(1) 4 (2) 3 46. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms
(3) 2 (4) 1 present in a simple cube is
 
43. Which defect always causes decrease in the (1) (2)
6 3 2
density of the crystal?
 
(1) Schottky defect (3) (4)
4 2 4
(2) Frenkel defect 47. Which substance shows both Frenkel and Schottky

(3) Stoichiometric defect defects?

(1) ZnS (2) NaCl
(4) Interstitial defect (3) KCl (4) AgBr

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48. The coordination number of each sphere in (HCP) 58. What is the correct relation about the aqueous
arrangement is solution of 0.1 M NaCl (X) and 0.2 M MgCl2 (Y)?
(1) 8 (2) 12 (1) Osmotic pressure of Y < X
(3) 6 (4) 4 (2) Boiling point of Y < X
49. An ionic crystal lattice has radius ratio equal to
(3) Freezing point of Y < X
0.524, coordination number of cation is
(1) 4 (2) 3 (4) Both have same vapour pressure
(3) 6 (4) 12 59. Cations are present in the interstitial sites in
50. Coordination number of NaCl crystal is (1) Metal deficiency defect
(1) 8 : 8 (2) 6 : 6 (2) Vacancy defect
(3) 4 : 4 (4) 2 : 2
(3) Schottky defect
51. The Ca 2  and F are located in CaF2 crystal
(4) Frenkel defect
respectively at face centred cubic lattice points and
60. Which of the following mixture will show a positive
in
deviation from Raoult’s law?
(1) All tetrahedral voids
(1) Ethanol and water
(2) Half of tetrahedral voids
(3) All octahedral voids (2) Chloroform and acetone
(4) Half of octahedral voids (3) Nitric acid and water
52. CsCl crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice (4) Phenol and aniline
with edge length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance 61. In a compound, atoms of element Y forms ccp and
between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice the atoms of element X occupies 2/3rd of the
is nearly equal to octahedral void. What will be the formula of the
(1) 335 pm (2) 250 pm compound?
(3) 200 pm (4) 300 pm (1) XY (2) X4Y3
53. An element (with atomic mass = 250 g) crystallises
(3) X2Y3 (4) X3Y2
in a simple cube. If the density of unit cell is
62. Percentage of free space in a face centred cubic
7.2 g cm 3 , what is the radius of the element?
unit cell is
(1) 1.93  106 cm (2) 1.93  108 cm
(1) 32% (2) 34%
(3) 1.93  10 8 Å (4) 1.93  108 m (3) 28% (4) 26%
54. A solution contains 410.3 g of H2SO 4 per litre of 63. A 3.42% (wt/vol) solution of cane sugar is isotonic

solution at 20 C . If the density is 1.243 g/ml, with a 5.96% (wt/vol) solution of raffinose. The
molality of solution is molecular weight of raffinose is
(1) 3.27 m (2) 4.18 m (1) 59.6 (2) 596
(3) 5.03 m (4) 6.05 m (3) 5.96 (4) 5960
55. The elevation in boiling point for 0.1 mole of CaCl2 64. Which of the following compounds does not have
dissolved in 1 kg of water as solvent will be metal deficiency defect?
(Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1)
(1) Fe0.93O (2) Fe0.95O
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.10
(3) 0.16 (4) 0.20 (3) Ni0.95O (4) Fe3O4
56. The crystal system with maximum number of 65. The molarity of 0.060 mole of NaCl in 100 ml
Bravais lattice is solutions is
(1) Cubic (2) Tetragonal
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.06
(3) Monoclinic (4) Orthorhombic
(3) 0.006 (4) 0.066
57. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal
halides is generally due to 66. Molarity is expressed as
(1) Schottky defect (2) Frenkel defect (1) gram/litre (2) moles/litre
(3) Interstitial defect (4) F-centers (3) litre/mole (4) moles/1000 gm

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67. Colligative properties depend on 73. What is the molality for 10% w/w NaOH aqueous
(1) The nature of the solute particles dissolved in solutions?
solution (1) 2.778 (2) 2.5
(2) The number of solute particles in solution (3) 10 (4) 5
(3) The physical properties of the solute particles 74. On increasing temperature, the value of Henry’s
dissolved in solution constant
(4) The nature of solvent particles
(1) Decreases (2) Increases
68. The correct order of boiling point for following
(3) Remain constant (4) Uncertain
aqueous solution is
75. When NaCl is added to aqueous solutions of
(1) 0.2 m NaCl > 0.2 m AlCl3 > 0.2 m Urea
glucose
(2) 0.2 m AlCl3 > 0.2 m NaCl > 0.2 m Urea
(1) Freezing point is raised
(3) 0.2 m Urea > 0.2 m NaCl > 0.2 m AlCl3
(2) Freezing point is lowered
(4) 0.2 m AlCl3 > 0.2 m Urea = 0.2 m NaCl
69. When two volatile liquids A (Solvent) and B (3) Boiling point is lowered
(Solute) are mixed assuming B is more volatile, (4) No change in freezing point or boiling point
then correct option about plot of vapour pressure 76. Which one is called pseudo solid?
versus mole fraction of B is
(1) CaF2 (2) Glass
(1) Negative slope
(2) Final vapour pressure is higher than pure A (3) NaCl (4) Diamond
(3) Vapour pressure of pure A increases 77. Solids which do not show the same physical
(4) Vapour pressure of solution decreases properties in different directions are called

70. A tetrahedral void in fcc is formed by atoms at (1) Pseudo solids (2) Isotropic solids
(1) 3 corners and 1 face centre (3) Polymorphic solids (4) Anisotropic solids
(2) 3 face centres and 1 corner 78. Graphite is an example of
(3) 2 face centres and 2 corners (1) Ionic solid (2) Covalent solid
(4) 4 face centres, 1 corner and 1 body centre (3) Metallic crystal (4) Molecular solid
2 2
71. Co-ordination number of Zn and S in zinc 79. The unit cell with parameters       90 and
blend structure are respectively.
a  b  c is
(1) 8, 8 (2) 4, 4
(1) Cubic (2) Triclinic
(3) 4, 8 (4) 8, 4
(3) Hexagonal (4) Tetragonal
72. Ratio of number of octahedral voids to number of
tetrahedral voids in fcc unit cells is 80. Amorphous solids are
(1) 1 : 2 (1) Isotropic and supercooled liquids
(2) 2 : 1 (2) Anisotropic and supercooled liquids
(3) 1 : 1 (3) Isoenthalpic and superheated liquids
(4) 1 : 4 (4) Isotropic and superheated liquids

PART – C : BIOLOGY
81. Which of the following have the longest life span? b. Onion (ii) 4
(1) Peepal tree (2) Banana tree c. Fruitfly (iii) 8
(3) Banyan Tree (4) Mango tree d. Ophioglossum (iv) 630
82. Match the following w.r.t. chromosome number in (1) A (i) B (iii) C (iv) D (ii) (2) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
gametes.
(3) A (i) B (iii) C (ii) D (iv) (4) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
a. Apple (i) 17

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83. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. plant referred as (4) Can be stored in liquid nitrogen (–196OC) for
“Terror of Bengal”. long time
(1) It was introduced in Bengal for its beautiful 89. Which of the following set correctly depict ploidy
flowers and shape of leaves. level of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional
megaspore and female gametophyte respectively?
(2) It is an invasive weed that grows in running
water. (1) 2n, n, n, 2n (2) 2n, 2n, n, 2n
(3) It drains oxygen from the water. (3) 2n, 2n, n, n (4) n, 2n, 2n, n
(4) It can lead to death of fishes and other aquatic 90. Which of the following conditions cannot be
animals. regarded as essential features of autogamy?
84. Which of the following is Dioecious plant. (1) Synchrony in pollen release and stigma
receptivity
(1) Cucurbits (2) Date palm
(2) Positional proximity between anther and
(3) Coconut (4) Maize
stigma
85. Which of the following organisms show external
(3) Anther and stigma lie at different level.
gametic fusion?
(4) Flowers can be chasmogamous or
(1) Bryophytes (2) Most algae
cleistogamous
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
91. Mark True (T) and False (F) from following
86. Match the column I with column II.
statements:
Column I Column II
(a) Intine is made up of cellulose and lignin
(Vegetative propagules) (Examples)
(b) Exine is made up of sporopollenin and pectin
a. Offset (i) Ginger
(c) Generative cell has irregular nucleus
b. Rhizome (ii) Bryophyllum
(d) Vegetative cell has abundant food reserve
c. Bulbil (iii) water hyacinth
(1) T F T F (2) TTTF
d. Leaf buds (iv) Agave
(3) F F F T (4) FTFT
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
92. The largest cell of the embryo sac is
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) egg cell (2) synergid
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Central cell (4) Antipodal cell
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
93. Which one of the following plants causes pollen
87. Which of the following has multiple nuclei.
allergy?
(1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium
(1) Parthenium
(3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum
(2) Hibiscus
88. Which of the following statements about pollen
(3) Zostera
grain is incorrect?
(4) More than one option is correct
(1) Generally spherical, 25-50 micrometers, two-
celled and rich in nutrients 94. Outbreeding devices of plants
(2) Spherical, 30-100 micrometers, three-celled (1) Encourage self-pollination
and rich in nutrients
(2) Discourage cross-pollination
(3) Viability of pollen varies from 30 min to several
(3) Discourage self-pollination
months
(4) Do not affect pollination

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95. Growth of pollen tube on stigma is (1) Zygote (B) Fertilization

(1) Phototropic (2) Chemotropic (3) Male gamete (D) All of the above

(3) Phototactic (4) Geotropic 102. .........is seen in monoestrous animals.

(1) One egg
(4) Removal of carpel from female parent flowers
(2) One breeding season in a year
96. All the events from pollen deposition on the stigma
until pollen tube enters the ovule are together (3) One menses each month
known as (4) One ovulation each month
(1) Pollination 103. .........occurs in animals with hard calcareous
shelled eggs.
(2) Pollen-pistil interaction
(1) Internal fertilization and external development
(3) Fertilization
(2) External fertilization and external development
(4) Syngamy
(3) External fertilization and internal development
97. An event unique to flowering plants is (4) Internal fertilization and internal development
(1) Pollination (2) Syngamy 104. .........can be concluded in sexually reproducing
(3) Double fertilisation (4) Karyogamy organism, when their zygote undergoes meiosis.
(i) Life cycle doesn’t have an embryo before the
98. Which of the following seeds are endospermic? adult stage.
(1) Groundnut and castor (ii) Life cycle is going to have an embryo before
(2) Groundnut and beans adult stage.
(iii) Gametes is going to be formed through
(3) Castor and coconut
mitosis.
(4) Coconut and bean (1) i and iii (2) Only ii
99. Endosperm is (3) i and ii (4) ii and iii
a. Cellular type in white kernel of coconut 105. Organ formation start.........
b. A nutritive tissue and may persist in wheat (1) Due to development

c. Found in all kinds of seeds (2) Due to differentiation

(3) Due to growth
(1) b and c are correct
(4) Due to division
(2) Only c is incorrect
106. On the basis of their lifespan arrange the
(3) Only b is correct organisms in ascending order.
(4) b and c are incorrect (i) Crow (ii) Tortoise
100. Select the pair of fruits which develop from floral (iii) Parrot (iv) Butterfly
part and thalamus along with the development of (v) Crocodile

ovary wall. (1) i iii iv ii v

(2) iv i v iii ii
(1) Mango and banana
(3) iv iii ii i v
(2) Apple and mango
(4) iv v iii ii i
(3) Strawberry and cashewnut
107. Identify the odd one which does not particularly
(4) Strawberry and orange affect the sex organs.
101. .........is the vital link that ensures the continuity of (1) Gonorrhoea (B) Syphilis
species between organisms of one generation and (3) Genital warts (D) AIDS
the next generation.

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Test – 1 Test Series for GUJ-CET-2020

108. Choose the correct option for diaphragms as

contraceptive devices.
(i) Placed to cover the cervical region
(ii) Act as physical barriers for sperm
(iii) Introduced into the uterus
(1) i and ii (B) i and iii (1) Condom (2) Oral pills

(3) ii and iii (D) iii and iv (3) Impant (4) Copper – T

109.Because of.........ectopic pregnancies were 115. Binary fission shown by.........

referred. (1) Hydra, Planaria
(1) Pregnancy with genetic abnormality. (2) Amoeba, Paramoecium
(2) Pregnancy terminated due to hormonal (3) Mucor, Yeast
imbalance.
(4) Hydra, Amoeba
(3) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus.
116. .........means body with either male or female
(4) Implantation of embryo at site other than reproductive organs.
uterus.
(1) Dioecious (2) Meiocyte
110. Exclusive terminal method of family planning in the
homogametic sex of humans. (3) Syngamy (4) Monoecious

(1) IUCDs (B) Tubectomy 117. .........is hormone releasing device.

(3) Nirodh (D) Vasectomy (1) CU 7 (2) Lippes loop

111.Because of.........lactating mothers do not conceive. (3) LNG-20 (4) Multiload 375

(1) Hypersecretion of gonadotropins 118. A fool-proof surgical methods to prevent pregnancy

is the last option for many as.........
(2) Suppression of gametic transport
(1) It will reduce sexual drive.
(3) Suppression of fertilisation
(2) Insufficient facilities in many parts of the
(4) Suppression of gonadotropins country.
112. Select the incorrect statement for vasectomy. (3) Nearly irreversible
(1) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied (4) All of the above
(2) Irreversible sterility 119. Hormones present in oral contraceptive pills.
(3) No sperm occurs in epididymis (1) Estrogen and follicle-stimulating hormone
(4) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid (2) Estrogen and LH
113. A lady with blocked fallopian tubes can conceive a (C) Progesterone and follicle-stimulating hormone
child with the help of.........
(4) Progesterone and estrogen
(1) IVF (2) GIFT
120. IVF involves transfer of.........
(3) SUZI (4) ZIFT
(1) Embryo upto 8-celled stage into the fallopian
114. Identify the given figure. tube.
(2) Embryo upto 8-celled stage into the uterus.
(3) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian
tube.
(4) Ovum into the fallopian tube



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MM : 120 TEST SERIES FOR GUJCET-2020 Time : 3

H
Test – 01
ANSWER KEY
S. No. Physics S.No. Chemistry S.No. Biology
1 3 41 2 81 1
2 4 42 4 82 3
3 1 43 1 83 2
4 1 44 1 84 2
5 2 45 3 85 2
6 2 46 1 86 3
7 1 47 4 87 4
8 1 48 2 88 2
9 3 49 3 89 3
10 4 50 2 90 3
11 2 51 1 91 4
12 3 52 1 92 3
13 1 53 2 93 1
14 3 54 3 94 3
15 3 55 3 95 2
16 2 56 4 96 2
17 1 57 4 97 3
18 1 58 3 98 3
19 1 59 4 99 2
20 4 60 1 100 3
21 3 61 3 101 1
22 3 62 4 102 2
23 4 63 2 103 1
24 4 64 4 104 1
25 4 65 1 105 2
26 3 66 2 106 2
27 1 67 2 107 4
28 4 68 2 108 1
29 2 69 2 109 4
30 1 70 2 110 2
31 3 71 2 111 4
32 3 72 1 112 3
33 3 73 1 113 1
34 4 74 2 114 3
35 3 75 2 115 2
36 2 76 2 116 1
37 3 77 4 117 3
38 3 78 2 118 4
39 3 79 4 119 4
40 3 80 1 120 1

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