Sample Paper-01 Class 12th NEET (2024)

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 5. A dielectric of dielectric constant K is introduced
1. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential such that half of its area of a capacitor of capacitance
difference across the 4.5μF capacitor is; C is occupied by it. The new capacity is;
3 F C
(1) 2C (2)
2
4.5 F (1 + K )C
(3) (4) 2C (1 + K)
2
6 F 6. A hollow conducting sphere of radius R has a
charge (+ Q) on its surface. What is the electric
R
12V potential within the sphere at a distance r = from
3
its centre?
8 3 Q 1 Q
(1) volts (2) 4 volts (1) . (2) .
3 40 R 40  2 R 
 
(3) 6 volts (4) 8 volts  3 
1 Q
2. 4-point charges each +q is placed on the (3) . (4) Zero
40 R
circumference of a circle of diameter 2d in such a
way that they form a square. The potential at the
centre is; 7. If current in an electric bulb changes by 1%, then
the power will change by;
4q
(1) 0 (2) k (1) 1% (2) 2%
d 1
4d q (3) 4% (4) %
(3) k (4) k 2
q 4d
8. Resistance as shown in figure is negative at;
3. When a body is earth connected, electrons from the
earth flow into the body. This means the body is;
(1) Charged negatively I A C
(2) An insulator
(3) Uncharged B
(4) Charged positively
4. In which of the states shown in figure is the V
potential energy of a electric dipole maximum? (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) None of these

9. In the given current distribution, what is the value

(1) (2) of I?

(3) (4)
(1) 3A (2) 8A
(3) 2A (4) 5A
10. A square loop carrying a current 𝑖 is situated near a 16. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2
long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to are placed in the same plane with their centres
the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane coinciding. If R1>>R2, the mutual inductance M
of the loop. If a steady current 𝐼 is established in between them will be directly proportional to;
wire as shown in figure, the loop will: (1) R1/R2 (2) R2/R1
(3) R12/R2 (4) R22/R1

17. In the following figure, the magnet is moved

towards the coil with a speed v and induced emf e.
If magnet and coil recede away from one another
each moving with speed v, the induced emf in the
(1) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire coil will be:
(2) Move away from the wire to towards right
(3) Move towards the wire
(4) Remain stationary N S
v
11. A straight conductor carries a current of 5A. An coil
electron travelling with a speed of 5 × 106ms–1
(1) e (2) 2e
parallel to the wire at a distance of 0.1m from the
(3) e/2 (4) 4e
conductor, experiences a force of;
(1) 8 × 10–20 N (2) 3.2 × 10–19 N
–18
18. If a change in current of 0.01A in one coil produces
(3) 8 × 10 N (4) 1.6 × 10–19 N a change in magnetic flux of 1.2 × 10–2 Wb in the
other coil, then the mutual inductance of the two
12. Two ions having masses in the ratio 1 : 1 and coils in henry is;
charges 1 : 2 are projected into uniform magnetic (1) 0 (2) 0.5
field perpendicular to the field with speeds in the (3) 1.2 (4) 3
ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of the radius of circular paths
19. The initial phase angle for i = 10 sinωt + 8 cos ωt
along which the two particles move is;
is;
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
4 5
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 (1) tan −1   (2) tan −1  
5 4
4
13. For a paramagnetic material, the dependence of the (3) sin −1   (4) 90°
magnetic susceptibility  on the absolute 5
temperature is given as;
20. From figure shown below a series L – C – R circuit
(1)   T (2)   1/T2 connected to a variable frequency 200 V source.
(3)   1/T (4) Independent C = 80 μF and R = 40 Ω. Then the source frequency
which drive the circuit at resonance is;
14. The relative magnetic permeability of
ferromagnetic materials is in the order of; C L=5H
(1) 10 (2) 100
(3) 1000 (4) 10000

15. An electron moving around the nucleus with an

angular momentum 𝑙 has a magnetic moment;
e e V = 200 volt
(1) l (2) l 25
m 2m (1) 25 Hz (2) Hz
2e e 
(3) l (4) l 50
m 2m (3) 50 Hz (4) Hz

21. The r.m.s value of potential difference V shown in 26. Under minimum deviation condition in a prism, if
the figure is; a ray is incident at an angle 30°, the angle between
the emergent ray and the second refracting surface
of the prism is
(1) 0° (2) 30°
(3) 45° (4) 60°

V0 V0 27. Two immiscible liquids of refractive indices 1.5

(1) (2) 4
2 3 and are filled in glass jar each of length 6 cm. A
3
V0
(3) V0 (4) light of source S is at the bottom of the jar, the
2
apparent depth of light source will be:

22. If ε0 and μ0 represent the permittivity and

4/3
permeability of vacuum and ε and μ represent the
permittivity and permeability of medium, then
refractive index of the medium is given by; 1.5
0 0 
(1) (2)
 0 0 (1) 12.5 cm (2) 17 cm
(3) 12 cm (4) 8.5 cm
 0 0
(3) (4)
0 0  28. When one of the slits of Young’s experiment is
covered with a transparent sheet of thickness 4.8
23. A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an mm, the central fringe shifts to a position originally
average power output of 800 W. The maximum occupied by the 30th bright fringe. What should be
value of electric filed at a distance 4.0 m from the the thickness of the sheet if the central fringe has to
source is; shift to the position occupied by 20th bright fringe?
(1) 64.7 Vm–1 (2) 57.8 Vm–1 (1) 3.8 mm (2) 1.6 mm
(3) 56.72 Vm–1 (4) 54.77 Vm–1 (3) 7.6 mm (4) 3.2 mm

24. A plane Electromagnetic Wave travels in free 29. Two identical light waves, propagating in the same
space along 𝑥-axis. At a particular point in space, direction, have a phase difference δ. After they
the electric field along 𝑦-axis is 9.3 Vm-1. The superpose, the intensity of the resulting wave will
be proportional to;
magnetic induction is;
(1) 3.1 × 10–8T (2) 3 × 10–5 T 
(1) cos δ (2) cos  
(3) 3 × 10 T–6
(4) 9.3 × 10–6 T 2

(3) cos 2   (4) cos2δ
25. As shown in figure, the liquids, L1, L2 and L3 have 2
refractive indices 1.55, 1.50 and 1.20 respectively.
Therefore, the arrangement corresponds to; 30. A single slit of width d is illuminated by violet light
of wavelength 400 nm and the width of the
diffraction pattern is measured as y. When half of
the slit width is covered and illuminated by yellow
light of wavelength 600 nm, the width of the
diffraction pattern is;
(1) The pattern vanishes and the width is zero
(1) Biconvex lens y
(2)
(2) Biconcave lens 3
(3) Concave-convex lens (3) 3y
(4) None of the above
(4) Convex-concave lens
31. The stopping potential as a function of the SECTION-B
frequency of the incident radiation is plotted for 36. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, which of the
two different photoelectric surfaces A and B. The following pairs of quantities are quantized?
graphs show that work function of A is; (1) Energy and linear momentum
A B (2) Linear and angular momentum
V (3) Energy and angular momentum
(4) None of the above

37. A radioactive element X disintegrates successfully

 −  − 
X ⎯⎯→ X1 ⎯⎯
→ X 2 ⎯⎯→ X 3 ⎯⎯
→ X4
(1) Greater than that of B If atomic number and atomic mass number of X are
(2) Smaller than that of B respectively, 72 and 180, then what are the
(3) Equal to that of B corresponding values for X4?
(4) No inference can be drawn about their work (1) 69, 172 (2) 69, 176
functions from the given graphs (3) 71, 176 (4) 70, 172

32. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated through 38. Assertion (A): If the distance between parallel
same potential difference. The ratio of their de- plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric
Broglie wavelengths λp/λα will be: constant is made three times, then the capacitance
1 becomes 6 times.
(1) (2) 8
8 Reason (R): Capacity of the capacitor depends
(3) 2 (4) 1 upon the nature of the material between the plates.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true,
33. For photoelectric emission, tungsten requires light and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
of 2300 Å. If light of 1800 Å wavelength is incident Assertion (A).
then emission; (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true,
(1) Takes place but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2) Doesn’t take place Assertion (A).
(3) May or may not take place (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Depends on frequency (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.

34. The energy of an electron in an excited hydrogen 39. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
atom is –3.4eV. Its angular momentum is; option.
(1) 3.72 × 10–34 Js
List-I List-II
(2) 2.11 × 10–34 Js
(3) 1.57 × 10–34 Js A Electric charge I [M–1L–3T4A2]
(4) 1.11 × 10–34 Js B Electric field strength II [MLT–3A–1]
C Absolute permittivity II [M0L1T1A1]
35. If the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the
third to second orbit, the wavelength of the emitted D Electric dipole IV None
radiation in terms of Rydberg constant R is given (1) A → IV, B → II, C → I, D → III
by;
(2) A → IV, B → II, C → III, D → I
36 5R
(1)  = (2.)  =
5R 36 (3) A → II, B → I, C → IV, D → III

(3)  =
5
(4)  =
R (4) A → II, B → II, C → I, D → IV
R 6
40. In the circuit diagram shown in figure, potential (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
difference across 3  resistance is 20 V. Then, incorrect.
match the following two columns and choose the 44. Statement I: In an AC, only capacitor circuit has
correct option from codes given below. instantaneous power equals to zero at any instant of
time.
Statement II: Phase difference between current
function and voltage function is 90°.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
List-I List-II correct.
A Potential difference across 6  resistance I 30 V (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
B Potential difference across 4  resistance II 40 V incorrect.
C Potential difference across 12  III 20 V
resistance 45. Find the current through 8 resistor;
D Potential difference across 8  resistance IV 80 V 40V 10V
(1) A → I, B → III, C → IV, D → I
(2) A → I, B → III, C → III, D → IV
(3) A → III, B → I, C → I, D → IV
(4) A → III, B → II, C → IV, D → I
41. Statement-I: In an unbiased p-n junction, holes
diffuse from the p-region to n-region.
Statement-II: Hole concentration in p-region is
more as compared to n-region. (1) 0.5A (2) 1 A
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (3) 3 A (4) 4.5 A
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect. 46. The correct graph between maximum kinetic
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is energy (KE) of photoelectron and intensity of
correct. incident monochromatic light (I) is;
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are KE KE
incorrect.
42. Assertion (A): Angular momentum of single (1) (2)
electron in any orbit of hydrogen type atoms is
independent of the atomic number of the element.
Reason (R): In ground state, angular momentum is I I
minimum. KE KE
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true,
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A). (3) (4)
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of I I
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. 47. The diagram shows the path of four -particles of
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. the same energy being scattered by the nucleus of
43. Statement I: Incoming light reflected by earth is an atom simultaneously. Which of these is/are not
partially polarised. physically possible?
Statement II: Atmospheric particle also can 1
polarises the light.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. 2
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is 3
incorrect. 4
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct. (1) 3 and 4 (2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 4 (4) 4 only
48. The current (I) in the given circuit is; 50. Two coherent sources with intensities I1 and I2
interfere to form a fringe pattern on screen. The
I
I −I
value of max min is;
I max + I min
4.5 V R1 = 3 R2 = 6
I1 + I 2
(1)
I1I 2
I1I 2
R3 = 6 (2)
I1 + I 2
(1) 1.6 A (2) 2 A
I1 + I 2
(3) 0.32 A (4) 3.2 A (3)
2 I1I 2
49. The ammeter reading in the circuit below is; 2 I1I 2
(4)
I1 + I 2

A
11A 11A

(1) 2 A (2) 3 A
(3) 6 A (4) 5 A
Sample Paper-01 Class 12th NEET (2024)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 7. Consider a first order gas phase decomposition
1. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of reaction given below:
aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at A(g) ⎯⎯ → B(g) + C(g)
cathode are; The initial pressure of the system before
(1) H+ (2) Na+ decomposition of A was Pi. After lapse of time ‘t’,
(3) OH– (4) Cl– total pressure of the system increased by x units
and became ‘Pt’.
The rate constant k for reaction is given as:
2. 1 mole of urea is dissolved in 9 moles of water.
2.303 Pi
If vapour pressure of pure water is 40 mmHg. (1) k = log
t Pi − Pt
The vapour pressure of solution is:
2.303 Pi
(1) 32.6 mmHg (2) 36 mmHg (2) k = log
(3) 42 mmHg (4) 34.8 mmHg t 2Pi − Pt
2.303 Pi
(3) k = log
3. Which of the following on addition in 1.0 molal KI t 2Pi + Pt
solution will give rise to increase a vapour 2.303 Pi
(4) k = log
pressure? t Pi + x
(1) addition of NaCl
(2) addition of Na2SO4 8. Which of the following statements is correct?
(3) addition of 1.00 molal KI (1) Ecell and G of cell reaction both are extensive
(4) addition of water properties.
(2) Ecell and G of cell reaction both are intensive
4. A solution containing 8.6 g urea in one litre was properties.
(3) Ecell is an intensive properties while G of cell
found to be isotonic with a 5% (mass/volume)
is an extensive property.
solution of an organic non-volatile solute.
(4) Ecell is an extensive properties while G of
The molar mass of solute is; cell is an intensive property.
(1) 348.83 (2) 34.89
(3) 3489 (4) 861.2 9. For the reaction A + B → C + D. The variation of
the concentration of the products is given by the
curve:
5. Van't Hoff factor is; Y
(1) more than one in case of association Z
(2) less than one in case of dissociation
Conc.

normal molecular mass

(3) W
observed molecular mass
observed molecular mass X
(4) Time
normal molecular mass (1) X (2) Y
(3) Z (4) W
6. A 5% solution (by mass) of cane sugar in water has
10. Which statement is true about a galvanic cell
freezing point of 271 K and freezing point of pure
employing Pb, Cu, Pb2+ and Cu2+?
water is 273.15 K. The freezing point of a 5%
E 0 2+ = − 0.127 V ; E 0 2+ = + 0.518 V
solution (by mass) of glucose in water is; Pb /Pb Cu /Cu

(1) 271K (1) Spontaneous cell-reaction will be in the cell

(2) 273.15K Pb |Pb2+ || Cu+ | Cu
(3) 269.07K (2) E0cell = 0.645 V
(4) 277.23K (3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(4) None of the above
11. Assertion (A): In rate law, unlike in the expression 16. 0.1435 m solution of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte
for equilibrium constants, the exponents for solute has the freezing point 0.73 degrees lower
concentrations do not necessarily match the
than that of benzene. What is the value of molal
stoichiometric coefficients.
Reason (R): It is the mechanism and not the freezing point depression constant of benzene?
balanced chemical equation for the overall change (1) 5.087 Km–1 (2) 40.0 Km–1
that governs the reaction rate.
(3) 0.52 Km–1 (4) 1.86 Km–1
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A). 17. Which one of the following will most readily be
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
dehydrated in acidic conditions?
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A). (1) (2)
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.

12. 2-Phenylethanol may be prepared by the reaction (3) (4)

of phenyl magnesium bromide with:
(1) HCHO
(2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 18. Statement I: On increasing dilution, the specific
conductance keep on increasing.
(4) Statement II: On increasing dilution, degree of
ionisation of weak electrolyte increases and
13. Assertion (A): If the activation energy of a mobility of ions also increases.
reaction is zero, temperature will have no effect on (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
the rate constant. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
Reason (R): Lower the activation energy, faster is incorrect.
the reaction.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation correct.
of Assertion (A). (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the incorrect.
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A). 19. Statement I: During electrolysis of CuSO4 (aq)
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. using copper electrodes, copper is dissolved at
anode and deposited at cathode.
14. The diamagnetic species is;
Statement II: Oxidation takes place at anode and
(I) [Cu(CN)4]3– (II) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(III) [Ni(NH3)6] 2+
(IV) [Fe(CN)6]3– reduction at cathode.
(1) I, III (2) I, II (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(3) III, IV (4) only IV
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is

15. What happens when 2,4,6-Trinitrochlorobenzene incorrect.

is just warmed with water? (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(1) No reaction takes place correct.
(2) A hydrate is formed
(3) 2,4-Dinitrophenol is formed (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) Picric acid is formed incorrect.
20. Statement I: The order of a reaction can have 24. Nitrogen forms stable N2 molecule but phosphorus
fractional value. is converted P4 from P2. The reason for this is:
Statement II: The order of a reaction cannot be (1) triple bond is present between phosphorus
written from balanced equation of a reaction. atoms.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (2) p  − p  bonding is weak.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (3) p  − p  bonding is strong.
incorrect. (4) multiple bond is formed easily.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct. 25. At low temperature, phenol reacts with Br2 in CS2 to
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are form _____.
incorrect. (1) m-bromophenol
(2) o and p-bromophenol
21. The standard reduction potentials, E0, for the half (3) p-bromophenol
reactions are (4) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
Zn2+ + 2e– → Zn ; E0 = – 0.76V
Fe2+ + 2e– → Fe ; E0 = – 0.41 V 26. A sample of CHCl3 before being used as an
The EMF for the cell reaction anaesthetic agent is tested by _____.
Fe2+ + Zn → Zn2+ + Fe is; (1) fehling’s solution.
(1) –0.35 V (2) +0.35 V (2) ammonical solution of cuprous chloride.
(3) + 1.17 V (4) –1.17 V (3) silver nitrate solution in cold.
(4) silver nitrate solution after boiling with
22. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct alcoholic KOH.
option.
List-I List-II 27. Which of the following valence shell configuration
(A) XeF4 (I) Distorted belongs to transition elements?
octahedral
(1) 3s23p63d54s1
(B) XeF6 (II) Square planar
(2) 3s23p63d104s24p3
(C) XeO3 (III) Pyramidal (3) 3s23p63d104s24p1
(D) XeO4 (IV) Tetrahedral (4) 4s24p64d105s25p1
(1) A → II; B → I; C → IV; D → III
(2) A → III; B → II; C → I; D → IV 28. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(3) A → II; B → I; C → III; D → IV option.
(4) A → IV; B → III; C → II; D → I List-I List-II
(A) Oleum (I) H2S2O8
23. The order of a reaction and rate constant for a (B) Caro’s acid (II) H2SO5
chemical change having log t50% νs log [A]0 curve (C) Marshall’s acid (III) H2S2O7
as (1) A → I; B → II; C → III
(2) A → III; B → II; C → I
(3) A → II; B → III; C → I
log t50% (4) A → III; B → I; C → II

29. The correct order of acidic strength of the following

45°
compounds is _____.
log [A] 0
(1) Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10
would be;
(2) K2O > CaO > MgO
1 (3) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(1) 0, (2) 1, 1
2 (4) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(3) 2, 2 (4) 0, 1
30. The product(s) obtained when KMnO4 and HCl SECTION-B
react together to form H2O and Cl2 along with: 36. For metal-carbon bond in the metal carbonyls
(1) KCl (2) MnCl2 which is/are correct?
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these (1) M-C σ bond is formed by the donation of lone
pair of electrons of the carbonyl carbon into a
31. Which statement is correct ? vacant orbital of metal.
(1) SO2 dissolve in water & forms sulphurous (2) The M–C π bond is formed by the donation of
acid. a pair of electrons from a filled orbital of metal
(2) SO2 act as a bleaching agent. into the vacant antibonding π* orbital of
(3) SO2 has pungent odour. carbon monoxide.
(4) All of these (3) M–C σ bond is formed by the donation of a
lone pair of electrons from a filled orbital of
32. Consider the following reaction metal into the vacant antibonding π* orbital of
carbon monoxide.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

37. The coordination compound that can be used for

Major product (P) is; the hydrogenation of alkene is;
CH3 (1) [Ag(S2O3)2]3– (2) [Rh(PPh3)3Cl]
(1) CH3 CH C (3) [PtC2H4Cl3]– (4) [Au(CN)2]–
CH3
CH3 38. IUPAC name of the linkage isomer of
(2) CH CH CH [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]Cl2 will be:
3
CH3 (1) pentaamminenitrito–O–cobalt (III) chloride
OMe (2) pentaamminenitrito–N–cobalt (III) chloride
CH3 (3) cobalt (III) pentaamminenitrito–O–chloride
(3) CH2 CH CH (4) pentaamminenitrito–N–cobalt (III) dichloride
CH3
(4) CH3 CH2 C CH2 39. Which of the following is not -acid ligand?
(1) CN– (2) SH–
CH3
(3) CO (4) NO+
33. Incorrect statement among the following is:
(1) Carbonium ion intermediate is formed in SN1 40. Which of the following is tetrahedral complex?
reaction. (1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(2) Five membered transition state is formed in (2) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]2+ (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
SN2 reaction.
(3) SN1 reaction is accelerated in polar protic 41. Which of the following is the correct
solvent. representation of spectrochemical series?
(4) DMSO is polar protic solvent.
(1) Cl– < NO2– < CN– < CO
34. When isopropyl bromide is reacted with AgCN (2) Cl– < Br– < O–2 < OH–
then the product formed is; (3) NO2– < CO < CN– < Cl–
(1) Isoproyl cyanide (2) Isopropyl isocyanide (4) SCN– < Cl– < OH– < S–2
(3) Pentanenitrile (4) Propane nitrile
42. Which is a diamagnetic complex?
35. IUPAC name of neopentyl bromide is; (1) [Fe(H2O)6]+3
(1) 1‫–ؘ‬Bromo–4,4–dimethylpentane
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]+2
(2) 1–Bromo–3–methylbutane
(3) 1–Bromo–2,2–dimethylpropane (3) [Fe(CN)6]3–
(4) 2–Bromo–2–methylbutane (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
43. Select the ligand having highest trans–effect; 48. Which amino acid does not contain a chiral center?
(1) H2O (2) CN– (1) Valine
(3) CH3− (4) OH– (2) Leucine
(3) Glycine
(4) Iso-leucine

44. ⎯⎯→
49. The disaccharide present in the milk is;
(1) maltose
(2) lactose
(3) sucrose
This reaction is called;
(4) cellulose
(1) Benzilic acid rearrangement.
(2) Claisen rearrangement.
50. Assertion (A):
(3) Fries rearrangement.
(4) Schottenbaumann reaction.

45. Which of the following reagent can be used to

oxidize 1° alcohol to aldehyde?
(1) KMnO4 (2) BCC .
(3) H2O2 (4) PCC
Reason (R): Delocalisation of lone pair of
electrons decreases the basic strength.
46. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
Major product formed in the above mentioned true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
reaction is:
of Assertion (A).
(1) (2)
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the

(3) (4) true, but Reason (R) is not a correct

explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
47. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
(1) Glycine (2) Alanine (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
(3) Leucine (4) Lysine
Sample Paper-01 Class 12th NEET (2024)

BOTANY
SECTION-A 8. Mendel crossed a pure white-flowered recessive
1. What type of pollination takes place in pea plant with a dominant pure red-flowered
Vallisneria? plant. The first generation of hybrids from the
cross should show;
(1) Pollination occurs in submerged condition by
(1) 50% white-flowered and 50% red-flowered
water. plants.
(2) Flowers emerge above surface of water, and (2) all red-flowered plants.
pollination occurs by insects. (3) 75% red-flowered and 25% white-flowered
(3) Flowers emerge above water surface, and plants.
pollen is carried by wind. (4) all white-flowered plants.
(4) Male flowers are carried by water currents to
female flowers at surface of water 9. Mendel was not able to get any linkage due to the;
(1) law of dominance.
(2) law of unit character.
2. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and (3) law of independent assortment.
are packed into inflorescence are usually (4) None of these.
pollinated by;
(1) bee (2) wind 10. In keeping with the law of independent
(3) bat (4) water assortment, what is actually assorted?
(1) Different genes on the same chromosome
(2) Centromeres
3. Micropyle is found in;
(3) Homologous chromosomes
(1) seed.
(4) Heterologous chromosomes
(2) ovule.
(3) both ovule and seed.
11. Marriages between close relatives should be
(4) fruit. avoided because it includes more;
(1) recessive alleles to come together.
4. Pollen kit is chiefly made of; (2) mutations.
(1) chlorophylls. (2) lipids. (3) multiple births.
(3) carotenoids. (4) Both (2) and (3). (4) blood group abnormalities.
5. Which of the following are usual floral rewards to 12. If one parent belongs to A blood group and the
pollinating animals? other to O blood group, their children possibly
(1) Shelter and pollen grains represent;
(2) Shelter and fragrance (1) A and B groups only.
(3) Nectar and pollen grains (2) AB only.
(4) Nectar and fragrance (3) A and O groups only.
(4) All four groups.
6. Perisperm is;
(1) remnant of endosperm 13. Mr. Sandival has blood type B and Mrs. Sandival
(2) persistent nucellus has blood type O. They have three children of
(3) peripheral part of endosperm their own and one adopted child. Om has blood
(4) disintegrated secondary nucleus type AB, Jai has blood type O, Aman has blood
type B, and Priya has blood type B. Which child is
7. When a true breeding pea plant that has yellow adopted one?
seeds is pollinated by a plant that has green seeds, (1) Priya
then all the F1 plants have yellow seeds. This (2) Jai
means that the allele for yellow is; (3) Om
(1) heterozygous (2) dominant (4) Aman
(3) recessive (4) lethal
14. If the length of DNA in E. coli is 1.36 mm, 21. Enzyme required for removing RNA primer
calculate the number of base pairs in E. coli; during DNA replication is;
(1) 0.4 × 1013 (2) 4.6 × 10–7 (1) primase.
6
(3) 4 × 10 (4) 0.4 × 106 (2) ligase.
(3) DNA polymerase I.
15. Calculate the base ratio for a DNA sample if 22% (4) DNA polymerase III.
cytosine was found in it;
(1) 0.78 (2) 1.27 22. Alleles are;
(3) 1.0 (4) 0.93 (1) different molecular forms of a gene
(2) heterozygotes
16. Calculate the number of hydrogen bonds in DNA (3) different phenotype
if out of 200 nitrogen bases, 246 molecules were (4) true breeding homozygotes.
of cytosine; .
(1) 246 (2) 254 23. What map unit (centimorgan) is adopted in the
(3) 98 (4) 200 construction of genetic maps?
(1) A unit of distance between genes on
17. Fifth charged tRNA attaches itself to ________ of chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.
ribosome in translation. (2) A unit of distance between two expressed
(1) Shine Dalgarno (SD) sequence genes, representing 10% cross over.
(2) P site (3) A unit of distance between two expressed
(3) A site genes, representing 100% cross over.
(4) anti SD sequence (4) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 1% cross over
18. Which of the following steps of translation does .
not consume a high-energy phosphate bond? 24. There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of
(1) Peptidyl transferase reaction crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is
(2) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to A site 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of
(3) Translocation genes on chromosome?
(4) Amino acid activation (1) b, a, c
(2) a, b, c
19. Imagine an error occurring during DNA (3) a, c, b
replication in a cell, so that where there is (4) None of these
supposed to be an A in one of the genes there is a
C instead. What effect will this probably have on 25. ___(i)__ and domestication from ancestral wild
the cell? cows, we have well known Indian breeds e.g.
(1) The amino acid sequence will be completely __(ii)__ cow in Punjab. Here (i) and (ii) are
hanged respectively.
(2) An amino acid will be missing. (1) (i) Artificial selection (ii) sahiwal
(3) An incorrect amino acid will appear. (2) (i) Mass selection (ii) Murrah
(4) An additional amino acid will appear. (3) (i) Clonal selection (ii) jersi
(4) (i) Pure line selection (ii) Marwari
20. After a mutation at a genetic locus, the character
of an organism changes due to change in; 26. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/XO
(1) protein structure. abnormality causes;
(2) DNA replication. (1) Down’s syndrome
(3) protein synthesis pattern. (2) Kinefelter’s syndrome
(4) RNA transcription pattern. (3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Edward’s syndrome
27. Both husband and wife have normal vision though 34. Pollinators of flowers are;
their fathers were colour blind. The probability of (1) keystone species.
their daughter becoming colour blind is; (2) link species.
(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) helper species.
(3) 50% (4) 75%. (4) biotic species.

28. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is; 35. Which of the following is a commercial blood
(1) linear DNA without histones cholesterol lowering agent?
(2) circular DNA without histones (1) Lipases (2) Cyclosporin A
(3) linear DNA with histones (3) Statin (4) Streptokinase
(4) circular DNA with histones.

29. The transforming principle of Pneumococcus as SECTION-B

found out by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty was? 36. A population has more young individuals
(1) mRNA (2) DNA compared to the other individuals. What would be
(3) protein (4) polysaccharide the status of the population after some years?
(1) It will decline.
30. Similarity in DNA and RNA is that; (2) It will stabilise.
(1) both are polymer of nucleotides (3) It will increase.
(2) both have similar pyrimidine (4) It will first decline and then stabilize.
(3) both have similar sugar
(4) both are genetic material 37. Why are economists trying to quantify the dollar
value of ecosystem services?
31. Read the following four statements (a) – (d). (1) This allows them to sell abiotic components.
(a) Dough, which is used for making foods such (2) This allows them to manage the area.
as dosa and idli is fermented by fungi and (3) This allows them to justify the cost of
algae. preservation.
(b) Toddy, a traditional drink of Southern India (4) This allows them to prevent habitat loss.
is made by fermenting sap from palms.
(c) Large holes in Swiss cheese are due to 38. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any
production of large amount of methane by ecosystem. This situation indicates the fact that;
Propionibacterium shermanii. (1) producers have the lowest energy conversion
(d) In our stomach, lactic acid bacteria play a efficiency.
very beneficial role in checking disease (2) carnivores have a better energy conversion
causing microbes. efficiency than herbivores.
Which are the two statements that are incorrect? (3) energy conversion efficiency is the same in
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) all trophic levels.
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d) (4) herbivores have a better energy conversion
efficiency than carnivores.
32. Before disposal of municipal wastewater and
sewage, they are treated in STP in order to make it 39. Following are the two main structural features of
less polluting. The stage of treatment which an ecosystem:
comprises use of anaerobic sludge digester is; (a) Species composition
(1) primary. (2) secondary. (b) Energy flow
(3) tertiary. (4) quaternary. (c) Decomposition
(d) Stratification
33. Sexual deceit is employed by; (1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (c)
(1) figs. (2) orchid. (3) Only (a) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Yucca. (4) Pinus.
40. The most productive agroecosystem is of; 45. Greater biological diversity of tropics than
(1) sugarcane. temperate regions is due to the;
(2) wheat. (1) presence of more seasonal environment.
(3) maize.
(2) frequent glaciations in the past.
(4) rice.
(3) highly variable climate and availability of
41. When a species goes extinct in one area, it is often less solar energy in the past.
desirable to reintroduce the species from other (4) availability of more solar energy which
populations. A major problem with this approach contributes to higher productivity.
is that?
(1) genetic diseases can easily be introduced 46. What is the difference between a threatened
when the species is reintroduced. species and an endangered species?
(2) populations are often adapted to local
(1) A threatened species is already extinct. An
conditions and may not survive when moved
to a different location. endangered species means that the
(3) the community could have adapted to the population’s numbers have increased greatly
extinct species absence, reintroduction may over the last 5 years.
seriously disrupt the community. (2) A threatened species and an endangered
(4) it is difficult to get an adequate sample of species are the same thing.
individuals to properly re-establish the (3) A threatened species means that the
population.
population is likely to become endangered.
42. Anthropogenic extinction means the extinction of An endangered species is already extinct.
species from surface of earth that is due to; (4) A threatened species that the population is
(1) change in season. likely to become endangered. An endangered
(2) effects of meteors. species has population numbers so low that it
(3) human activities. is likely to become extinct.
(4) None of these.

43. The species diversity of plants (22%) is much less 47. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge
than that of animals (72%), what could be the digesters?
explanation to how animals achieved greater (1) Methane and CO2 only
diversification? (2) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
(1) Animal are non-motile. (3) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O2
(2) Their movement to diverse habitats resulted (4) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
in more evolutionary changes occurring in
animals.
(3) Animals use carbohydrate and lipid as a 48. Cuscuta is an example of;
source of energy. (1) ectoparasitism
(4) Animal DNA is different from plant DNA in (2) brood parasitism
terms of type of nitrogen bases. (3) predation
(4) endoparasitism
44. According to the concept of species-area relations;
(1) the number of species in an area increases 49. In a growing population of a country;
with the size of the area. (1) pre-reproductive individuals are more than
(2) larger species require large habitat areas than the reproductive individuals
do smaller species. (2) reproductive individuals are less than the
(3) most species within any given area are post- reproductive individuals
endemic. (3) reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals
(4) the larger the area, the greater the extinction are equal in number
rate. (4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than the
reproductive individuals.
50. The mass of living material at a trophic level at a
particular time is called;
(1) net primary productivity
(2) standing crop
(3) gross primary productivity
(4) standing state.
Sample Paper-01 Class 12th NEET (2024)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 4. In the 28 days human ovarian cycle, the ovulation
1. The vasa efferentia leaves the testis and opens into takes place typically on;
the ___(a)___, located along the ___(b)___ (1) Day 1 of the cycle
surface. (2) Day 14 of the cycle
(1) (a) – rete testis; (b) – epididymis (3) Day 5 of the cycle
(2) (a) – epididymis; (b) – rete testis (4) Day 28 of the cycle
(3) (a) – epididymis; (b) – posterior
(4) (a) – epididymis; (b) – anterior 5. Go through the following statements.
Mitotic divisions in zygote are called
2. The second maturation division of the mammalian ____________ which results in the formation of
daughter cells called ____________ in the
ovum occurs;
blastocyst, these cells are arranged into an outer
(1) shortly after ovulation before the ovum layer called ____________ and inner group of
makes entry into the fallopian tube. cells called ____________.
(2) until after the ovum has been penetrated by a (1) cleavage; trophoblast; blastomere;
sperm. embryoblast
(3) until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with (2) cleavage; blastomere; trophoblast;
that of the ovum. embryoblast
(3) cleavage; embryoblast; trophoblast;
(4) in the Graafian follicle following the first
blastomere
maturation division. (4) cleavage; blastomere; embryoblast;
trophoblast
3. Consider the following statements each with two
blanks. 6. How many of the given hormones are produced in
(a) Seminiferous tubules produce ___(i)___ females only during the pregnancy?
while Leydig cells produce ___(ii)___. hPL, Estrogen, Progesterone, Thyroxine,
Cortisol, hCG
(b) In females, urethra is small and conducts
(1) Six (2) Four
___(iii)___ while in males it conducts urine (3) Two (4) Three
and ___(vi)___.
(c) The process of formation of spermatozoa 7. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
from spermatogonia is called ___(v)___ and option.
the process of maturation of spermatids into List-I List-II
spermatozoa is called ___(vi)___. (A) Non-medicated (I) Lippes loop
Which one of the following options, gives the IUDs
correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers (B) Hormone (II) Multiload
releasing IUDs 375
from (i) to (vi) in the statements (a)–(c)?
(C) Copper (III) CuT
(1) (v) – spermatogenesis; (vi) – spermiogenesis; releasing IUDs
(i) – spermatozoa; (ii) – testosterone (IV) Cu7
(2) (i) – testosterone; (ii) – spermatozoa; (iii) – (V) LNG 20
urine; (iv) – semen (VI) Progestasert
(3) (i) – estrogen; (ii) – testosterone; (v) – (1) (A) – (I); (B) – (II, VI); (C) – (III, IV, V)
spermiogenesis; (vi) – spermatogenesis (2) (A) – (I); (B) – (V, VI); (C) – (II, III, IV)
(4) (iii) – urine; (iv) – semen; (v) – (3) (A) – (II); (B) – (V, VI); (C) – (I, III, IV)
(4) (A) – (II); (B) – (I, VI); (C) – (III, IV, V)
spermiogenesis; (vi) – Spermatogenesis
8. One of the illegal methods of birth control is; 13. The basic components of atmosphere of primitive
(1) By abstaining from coitus from day 10–17 of earth were;
the menstrual cycle. (1) Ammonia, methane and water.
(2) By having coitus at the time of day break. (2) Methane, ozone, nitrogen and water.
(3) By using barrier method as a condom. (3) Hydrogen, nitrogen, methane and water.
(4) Abortion after determining the sex of the (4) Ammonia, methane, hydrogen and water.
baby.
14. Match following evolution concepts in List-I with
9. Choose the correct match. List-II and select the correct option.
(a) RTI – Reproductive tract infections List-I List-II
(b) VD – Venereal diseases (A) Mutation (I) changes in
(c) STD – Sexually transmitted diseases population’s allele
(d) IVF – Intra vaginal transfer frequencies due to
chance alone
(1) All of these
(B) Gene (II) differences in
(2) (a), (b) and (c) flow survival and
(3) (b) and (c) reproduction among
(4) (a) and (b) variant individuals
(C) Natural (III) immigration,
10. Identify the correct option w.r.t the contraceptive selection emigration change
allele frequencies
method shown below:
(D) Genetic (IV) Source of new alleles
drift
(1) (A) – (I); (B) – (II); (C) – (III); (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (IV); (B) – (II); (C) – (III); (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (III); (B) – (I); (C) – (IV); (D) – (II)
(4) (A) – (IV); (B) – (III); (C) – (II); (D) – (I)

15. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) Australopithecines the direct ancestor of
modern man.
(1) Prevention of gametogenesis (2) Cromagnon man’s fossil were found in
(2) Prevention of gamete transfer Ethiopia.
(3) Prevention of ejaculation (3) Homo erectus was the ancestor of modern
(4) Prevention of gamete maturation man.
(4) Neanderthal man was the direct ancestor of
11. The spark-discharge apparatus to test chemical Homo sapiens.
evolution of life was designed by:
(1) Oparin and Haldane 16. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(2) Miller and Urey option.
(3) Jacob and Monad List-I List-II
(4) Darwin and Lamarck (A) Typhoid (I) Widal test
(B) Malignant (II) Plasmodium
12. The greatest evolutionary change enabling the malaria falciparum
land vertebrates to be completely free from water, (C) Common cold (III) Rhinovirus
was the development of; (D) Trichophyton (IV) Ringworm
(1) Four legs (1) (A) – (I); (B) – (II); (C) – (III); (D) – (IV)
(2) Operculum (2) (A) – (II); (B) – (III); (C) – (IV); (D) – (I)
(3) Hard shelled eggs and internal fertilisation (3) (A) – (III); (B) – (IV); (C) – (I); (D) – (II)
(4) Four chambered heart (4) (A) – (IV); (B) – (I); (C) – (II); (D) – (III)
17. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual stages 24. First artificial recombinant DNA molecule was
(gametocytes) begin to develop in; created by:
(1) Stomach of mosquito. (1) Linking of gene encoding antibiotic
resistance with a native plasmid of
(2) Intestine of man.
Salmonella typhimurium.
(3) Liver of man. (2) Linking of gene encoding fertility factor with
(4) Red blood cells of man. a native plasmid of E. coli.
(3) Linking of gene encoding beta-galactosidase
18. Every day our body is exposed to a large number with a native plasmid of Agrobacterium
of infectious agents but all are not capable of tumefaciens.
causing disease. This is due to; (4) Linking of gene encoding lactase with a
(1) decreased virulence of pathogens. native plasmid of E. coli.
(2) immunity of an individual.
(3) genotype of an individual. 25. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of
(4) lifestyle of an individual interest is transferred in the host cell through a
vector.
19. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the Consider the following four agents (a) – (d) in this
following site will result in loss of tetracycline regard and select the correct option of which one
resistance of pBR322? or more of these can be used as vector/vectors.
(1) Pst I (2) Pvu I (a) A bacterium (b) Plasmid
(3) EcoR I (4) BamH I (c) Plasmodium (d) Bacteriophage
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
20. _____ acts as HIV factory. (3) (a), (b), and (d) (4) Only (a)
(1) B lymphocytes
(2) T lymphocytes 26. The enzymes responsible for restricting the
(3) Macrophages growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli;
(4) Skin cell (1) Add methyl group to DNA.
(2) Cut DNA in a particular fashion.
21. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
option. (3) Add formyl group to DNA.
List - I List-II (4) Both (1) and (2).
(A) Ringworm (I) Haemophilus
influenzae 27. Which of the following enzymes has been
(B) Filariasis (II) Trichophyton incorrectly matched with their function?
(C) Malaria (III) Wuchereria (1) Ligase – Molecular glue
bancrofti
(2) Endonuclease – Chemical scalpel
(D) Pneumonia (IV) Plasmodium
vivax (3) DNA polymerase – Joins nucleotides
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) Plasmid : Vector
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 28. A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I achieving the desired product by providing
optimum growth conditions like;
22. Select the correct group/set of Australian (1) temperature, pH and microorganisms.
marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation. (2) salts, vitamins, CO2 and temperature.
(1) Numbat, spotted cuscus, flying phalanger (3) protein, DNA, pH and temperature.
(2) Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat (4) oxygen, vitamins, salts, substrate temperature
(3) Lemur, anteater, wolf and pH.
(4) Tasmanian wolf, bobcat, marsupial mole
29. RNA interference gene interferes with
23. During the purification process for recombinant (1) Translation in nematode
DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol (2) Transcription in nematode
precipitates out; (3) Both transcription and translation innematode
(1) DNA (2) Histones (4) Synthesis of rRNA in nematode
(3) tRNA (4) Glucose
30. Genetic engineering has been successfully used 34. Assertion (A): Analogous structures are a result
for producing; of divergent evolution.
(1) transgenic cow, Kadaknath, which produces Reason (R): Different structures evolving for the
high fat milk for making ghee.
different functions and hence having similarity.
(2) animals like bulls for factory work as they
have super power. (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(3) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio reason is a correct explanation of the
vaccine before use in humans. assertion.
(4) transgenic models for studying new (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
treatments for only cardiac diseases. reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
31. Following are the steps in one type of gene
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
therapy:
(a) Inject engineered cells into patients bone (4) Both assertion and reason are false
marrow.
(b) Viral DNA carrying the normal allele inserts 35. Assertion (A): Human immuno deficiency virus
into chromosomes. known to cause AIDS.
(c) Let retrovirus infect bone marrow cells that Reason (R): It reduces the count of T- killer cells.
have been extracted from patient and (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
cultured. reason is a correct explanation of the
(d) Insert RNA version of normal allele into assertion.
retrovirus. (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
Which of the following is the correct sequence of reason is not a correct explanation of the
steps? assertion.
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (d), (c), (b), (a) (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) (4) (d), (c), (a), (b) (4) Both assertion and reason are false

32. Read the given statements.

Statement A: Periodic abstinence is the method SECTION-B
in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus
36. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
option.
Statement B: Day 10 – 17 have lowest chances of List-I List-II
ovulation in the menstrual cycle.
(A) Gestation (I) Fusion of male
(1) Both the statements are correct.
and female
(2) Both the statements are incorrect.
gametes
(3) Statement B is incorrect.
(B) Parturition (II) Formation of
(4) Statement A is incorrect.
gametes
33. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (C) Gametogenesis (III) Attachment to
option. the uterine wall
List-I List-II (D) Implantation (IV) Delivery of the
(A) Golden rice (I) Increased shelf baby
life (V) Embryonic
(B) Flavr Savr (II) Animal model development
tomato for human
disease
(C) Mouse (III) Vitamin A (1) (A) – (I); (B) – (III); (C) – (II); (D) – (IV)
(D) Transgenic pig (IV) Organ (2) (A) – (v); (B) – (IV); (C) – (I); (D) – (III)
transplantation (3) (A) – (v); (B) – (IV); (C) – (II); (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (III); (B) – (IV); (C) – (I); (D) – (III)
(1) (A) – (III); (B) – (I); (C) – (II); (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (II); (B) – (I); (C) – (III); (D) – (IV)
(3) (A) – (IV); (B) – (III); (C) – (I); (D) – (IV)
(4) (A) – (IV); (B) – (I); (C) – (II); (D) – (III)
37. The sperm and the egg make different 41. Mark the incorrect statement.
contributions to zygote. Which statements about (1) Biochemical similarities point to the same
their contributions are true? shared ancestry as structural similarities
(a) Sperm contribute most of the mitochondria. among diverse organisms.
(b) Egg contribute most of the cytoplasm. (2) Man has bred selected plants and animals for
(c) Both sperm and egg contribute haploid agriculture, horticulture, sport or security.
nucleus. (3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
(d) Both sperm and egg contribute centrioles. Cucurbita represents analogy.
(1) (a) and (b) (4) Wings of butterfly and wings of birds are
(2) (b) and (c) analogous organs.
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 42. Consider the following statements:
(a) Fitness in evolutionary theory describes the
38. (a) Rapid decline in death rate. capability of an individual of certain
(b) Rapid increase in MMR and IMR. genotype to reproduce.
(c) Rapid decline in MMR and IMR. (b) An individual’s fitness is manifested through
(d) Increase in number of people in the its phenotype.
reproductive age group. (c) The fitness of different individuals with the
(e) Rapid increase in the death rate. same genotype are not necessarily equal.
Which of the above are the causes of higher The correct statements are
population growth? (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(1) (c), (d) and (e) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) All of these
43. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
39. What is true for natural methods of pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
contraception? lymphatic vessels?
(1) They increase phagocytosis of sperms. (1) Elephantiasis
(2) They employ barriers to prevent fertilisation. (2) Ascariasis
(3) They are natural ways of avoiding chances of (3) Ringworm disease
fertilisation. (4) Amoebiasis
(4) They are surgical and terminal methods.
44. Passive immunity is defined as immunity,
40. Which of the following statements are correct? (1) inherited from the parents.
(a) Amphibians evolved into reptiles. (2) achieved through vaccination.
(b) Fish with stout and strong fins could move on (3) acquired through first exposure to the
land and go back to water. This was about disease.
350 mya. (4) achieved through the sera of other animals
(c) Giant ferns were present but they all fell to enriched in antibodies.
form coal deposits slowly.
(d) About 65 mya (in the cretaceous period), the 45. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to
dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the AIDS.
earth. (1) Viral RNA genome is converted into copy
(e) Archeopteryx is the connecting link between DNA by reverse transcriptase.
birds and reptiles. (2) It is caused by an enveloped retrovirus HIV.
(1) (a) and (b) (3) It is an immunodeficiency disease.
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) (4) HIV selectively infects and kills B
(3) (c) and (d) lymphocytes
(4) All of these
46. Select the option including all sexually 49. Read the given statements.
transmitted diseases. Statement A: Mutations are large, random and
(1) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis directionless while Variations are small, gradual
(2) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes and directional.
(3) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes Statement B: Darwin believed mutations caused
(4) AIDS, Malaria, Filariasis speciation and hence called it saltation.
(1) Both the statements are correct.
47. Which steps are involved in genetically modifying (2) Both the statements are incorrect.
an organism? (3) Statement B is incorrect.
(a) Identification of desirable DNA (4) Statement A is incorrect.
(b) Insertion of DNA into the host
(c) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host 50. Assertion (A): From day 21 to 28 of the
(d) Isolation of recombinant protein menstrual cycle is called fertile period.
(1) (a) and (b) Reason (R): As chances of fertilisation are very
(2) (b) and (c) high during this period.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
48. Stirrer in stirred tank type bioreactor facilitates; (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
(1) Oxygen delivery from outside to inside reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2) Mixing and aeration assertion.
(3) Temperature control (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Foam control (4) Both assertion and reason are false.