AIATS Test-2 (Code-DEF) - Class X (04-10-2020)
AIATS Test-2 (Code-DEF) - Class X (04-10-2020)
AIATS Test-2 (Code-DEF) - Class X (04-10-2020)
(X Studying Students)
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
Test No. 2
TEST – 2 (Code-D)
SECTION-I (Maximum Marks : 100)
• This section contains 100 questions containing 20 questions of each of the five subjects that is Physics,
Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics and MAT.
• Each question of Section-I is of 1 mark. Therefore +1 for correct answer and –0.25 for wrong answer.
2. A point object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from (3) Half (4) Four times
a concave mirror of focal length 12.5 cm, the 6. The range of value of m for image formed by a
image will be formed at convex mirror of a real object is
(1) Infinity (2) 25 cm (1) m > 1 (2) 0 > m > – 1
(3) 32.5 cm (4) 30 cm (3) 1 > m > 0 (4) 1 > m > – 1
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Section-I_Test-2 (Code D)
7. A person standing infront of a mirror finds his 12. A cable of resistance 10 Ω carries electric power
image larger than himself. It implies that the mirror from a generator producing 250 kW at 10000 volt.
is The current in the cable is
(1) Plane mirror (2) Concave mirror (1) 25 A (2) 250 A
(3) Convex mirror (4) Any one of these (3) 100 A (4) 1000 A
–6
8. A metal wire of specific resistance 64 × 10 Ω cm 13. 3 Identical bulbs are connected in series and these
and length 198 cm has a resistance of 7 Ω. The together dissipate a power P. If now the bulbs are
radius of the wire will be connected in parallel, then the power dissipated
(1) 2.4 cm (2) 0.24 cm will be
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Section-I_Test-2 (Code D) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
16. Two wires that are made up of two different 20. A current of 4 A flows in an electrical circuit. How
materials, whose specific resistances are in the much charge will flow through a point of the circuit
ratio 2 : 3 length 3 : 4 and area 4 : 5. The ratio of in 5 minutes
their resistance is (1) 1200 C (2) 1.25 C
(1) 5 : 8 (2) 8 : 5 (3) 20 C (4) 600 C
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 21. The gas released at cathode during the
17. Calculate the equivalent resistances between electrolysis of acidulated water is
points A and B of the network shown. (1) O2 (2) Cl2
(3) H2 (4) N2
22. Which of the following is an example of
combination reaction?
(1) Heating of limestone
(2) Heating of ferrous sulphate
(3) Keeping silver bromide in sunlight
(4) Slaking of lime
23. When silver article is kept in the open for few days,
(1) 4 Ω (2) 16 Ω
it gains a black coating due to the formation of
(3) 8 Ω (4) 10 Ω
(1) AgNO3 (2) AgCl
18. An electric bulb is rated (50 W, 220 V). If it is
(3) AgBr (4) Ag2S
operated at 110 V, then power consumed by it
(1) 12.5 W (2) 25 W 24. Acid found in ant sting is
(A) Used to measured current in circuit 25. In acidic medium, the colour of china rose indicator
becomes
(B) Used to measured potential difference
(1) Dark blue
(C) Has low resistance and connected in series
(2) Dark pink
(D) Has high resistance and connected in series
(3) Light green
The true options(s) is/are
(4) Light blue
(1) Only (A)
26. Number of water molecules present in washing
(2) (A) and (D) soda as water of crystallisation is
(3) (B) and (D) (1) 5 (2) 7
(4) (A) and (C) (3) 2 (4) 10
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Section-I_Test-2 (Code D)
27. Which of the following is a pair of amphoteric 33. Consider the following chemical equation
oxides? Heat
a Pb (NO3 )2 → bPbO + cNO2 + dO2
(1) Na2O and MgO (2) CO2 and CO
Now, choose the correct option
(3) Al2O3 and ZnO (4) CuO and CO (1) On balancing the equation, a : b = 2 : 1
28. All of the following metals react with cold water to (2) On balancing the equation, a : c = 1 : 1
give hydrogen gas, except (3) Total number of moles of gaseous products
formed is 5
(1) Na (2) Ca
(4) Total number of moles of solid product formed
(3) K (4) Mg is 4
29. Cinnabar is an ore of 34. Which of the following sets contains all the salts of
same family?
(1) Pb (2) Zn
(1) NH4Cl, (NH4)2SO4, NaCl, AgBr
(3) Cu (4) Hg
(2) MgCl2, AgBr, KCl, NaBr
30. Which of the following is not formed by transfer of
electron(s)? (3) Na2SO3, Na2SO4, K2SO3, K2SO4
(1) Quicklime (2) Common salt (4) (NH4)2SO4, Na2SO4, BaSO4, K2SO4
(3) Calcium chloride (4) Methane 35. Rashi prepared an aqueous solution of caustic
soda. If concentration of the solution is 0.001 M
31. Consider the following reaction then the pH of the solution will be
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 (1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 3 (4) 14
The oxidising and reducing agents respectively
36. Consider the following chemical equation
are
(1) HCl and MnO2 (2) MnO2 and HCl (a) NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → X + Y
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Section-I_Test-2 (Code D) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
37. Consider the following Venn diagram 41. Excretory system in human beings consists of all
of the following parts, except
(a) A pair of ureters
(b) A urinary bladder
(c) A pair of prostate glands
(d) A pair of kidneys
(e) A pair of vas deferens
Now, choose the correct group of elements that (1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
can be represented by Z (3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (e)
(1) Si, Cl, C, Sb (2) C, Si, Ge, Sn 42. Which of the following is a part of fore-brain?
(3) B, Al, Si, Ge (4) Si, Ge, As, Te (1) Medulla (2) Cerebellum
38. The percentage impurities present in 22 carat gold (3) Hypothalamus (4) Pons
is 43. In which of the following organisms multiple fission
(1) 8.33% (2) 91.67% occurs?
(3) 16.67% (4) 10% (1) Leishmania (2) Plasmodium
39. Which of the following can undergo a chemical (3) Hydra (4) Paramecium
reaction? 44. The number of molar teeth present in children is
(i) MgSO4 + Zn (ii) ZnSO4 + Al (1) 5 (2) 12
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Section-I_Test-2 (Code D)
49. Lymph consists of 55. Match the following columns and select the correct
(1) Plasma and WBCs only option.
(3) Plasma and RBCs only a. Cardiac centre (i) Secretion of saliva
(4) Leucocytes and thrombocytes only b. Respiratory centre (ii) Contraction of blood
50. The exposed portion of the tooth above the gums vessels
is c. Vasomotor centre (iii) Heart beat
(1) Pulp cavity (2) Crown d. Salivary centre (iv) Rate of respiration
(3) Cementum (4) Root (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
51. Salivary gland (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(a) Moistens and lubricates the food (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(b) Contains the enzyme trypsin (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
Select the correct option. 56. Select the correct statement regarding auxin.
(1) Both (a) and (b) are true (1) It promotes ageing in plants
(2) Only (a) is true (2) It inhibits cell growth
(3) Only (b) is true (3) It induces parthenocarpy in many plants
(4) Both (a) and (b) are false (4) It inhibits apical dominance
52. Thermoreceptors present in skin detect 57. Which of the following is the function of
(1) Sound (2) Smell somatostatin hormone?
(3) Temperature (4) Light (1) It helps in easy birth of the young one
(3) Midbrain 58. How many of the following organisms undergo the
process of regeneration?
(4) Spinal cord
54. Which of the following is a voluntary action? Rhizopus, Yeast, Hydra, Amoeba, Planaria
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Section-I_Test-2 (Code D) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
59. Micropropagation helps in 62. The term of the A.P. –12, –18, –24……. will be 114
th
(a) Crop improvement by producing disease-free more than its 60 term is
plants. (1) 36
th
(2) 41
st
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Section-I_Test-2 (Code D)
67. If α, β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 72. The pair of linear equations which have the unique
2
kx + px (x –1) – 1 such that (α + 1) (β + 1) = 2, solution x = 2, y = –3 is
then the value of k is (1) 3x + 5y + 9 = 0 ; x – 3y = 10
(1) 1 (2) –1
(2) 2x – y = 1 ; 3x + 2y = 0
(3) 3 (4) –3
(3) 2x + y = 1 ; 2x + 3y = –5
68. X-axis divides the line segment formed by joining
the points A(3, 7) and B(4, –3) in the ratio of (4) 3x – 4y = 14 ; 5x – y + 13 = 0
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 3 73. Four numbers are in A.P. with d < 0. If their sum is
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 7 : 3 24 and the sum of their squares is 164, then the
69. If sec3A = cosec (A + 10°) where 3A is an acute largest number is
angle, then the value of cos(A – 20°) is (1) 7 (2) 11
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 8 (4) 9
1 3
(3) (4) 74. The sum of given terms of the A.P.
2 2
56, 52, 48, ……., (–4) is
70. If 72 is divided into two parts such that sum of 5
times the first part and 11 times the second part is (1) 420 (2) 424
492, then the difference between two parts is (3) 416 (4) 404
(1) 37 (2) 50 2
75. The area of two similar triangles is 16 cm and
(3) 28 (4) 22 2
64 cm . If the height of the larger triangle is 4.6 cm,
71. Graph shown in figure represents _______ pair of
then the corresponding height of the smaller
linear equations having _______ solution(s).
triangle is
(1) 2.3 cm (2) 2.1 cm
(3) 2.6 cm (4) 3 cm
76. In ∆PQR, PR = QR = 8 cm. If a circle is drawn with
centre at R and radius 1 cm intersect PR and RQ
at E and D respectively, then
(1) ∆PQR ~ ∆QED
(2) ∆PQR ~ ∆RED
(3) ∆QED ~ ∆RED
(4) ∆EDR ~ ∆PQR
(1) Consistent, unique 77. The distance of a point (2a, –a) from the origin is
(2) Inconsistent, no
(1) 5a2 (2) 3a
(3) Dependent, infinite
(4) Inconsistent, infinite (3) 5a (4) 3a2
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Section-I_Test-2 (Code D) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
78. If A, B, C are the angles of a triangle, then 83. What was the day of the week on 15
th
August,
B +C 2001?
tan is equal to
2 (1) Monday
A A (2) Wednesday
(1) cot (2) cos
2 2 (3) Friday
A A (4) Thursday
(3) sin (4) tan
2 2 84. Which of the following year will be same as 2020?
79. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point (1) 2048 (2) 2047
100 m above a lake is 30° and the angle of
(3) 2045 (4) 2046
depression of the reflection of the cloud in the lake
from the same point is 60°, then the height of the Directions (Q.85 & Q.86) : Read the given information
cloud above the lake is carefully and then answer the following questions.
(1) 100 m (2) 150 m Lalit is husband of Shweta, who is sister of Shalini. Dev
is son of Jitendra, who is husband of Shalini. Aahna is
(3) 200 m (4) 250 m
sister of Dev. Avayan is only son of Lalit.
80. A circus artist is climbing on a 20 m long rope,
85. How is Aahna related to Avayan?
which is tightly stretched and tied from the top of a
(1) Sister (2) Cousin
vertical pole to the ground. If the angle made by
the rope with the ground level is 60°, then the (3) Daughter (4) Mother
height of the pole is 86. Who is nephew of Shweta?
(1) 30 m (2) 10 3 m (1) Avayan (2) Jitendra
Directions (Q.81 & Q.82) : In the following questions Directions (Q.87 & Q.88) : Read the given pattern
complete the following pattern. carefully and then answer the following questions.
81. The angle between the hands (minute and hour) of 23659823654856932147856321
th th
a clock at 32 minutes past 5:00 pm is 87. The 5 digit to the left of 9 digit from the right end
(1) 35° (2) 25° is
(3) 45° (4) 26° (1) 5 (2) 8
82. A clock set right at 7:00 am gains 4 seconds in one (3) 6 (4) 4
hour. What will be the time in the clock when actual 88. The total number of prime number (digits) in the
time is 10:00 pm on the same day? given pattern is
(1) 04 minutes past 10 (2) 10 minutes past 10 (1) 11 (2) 14
(3) 01 minutes past 10 (4) 15 minutes past 10 (3) 13 (4) 12
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Section-I_Test-2 (Code D)
89. The number of squares in the following figure is (1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) All I, II and III follow
(4) None follow
Directions (Q.92 to Q.94) : Read the given information
carefully.
2 2 2 2
If M @ N = M – N + 1, M $ N = M + N – 1 and
M # N = M × N ÷ 2, answer the following questions.
(1) 285 (2) 140
92. The value of 7 @ 4 is
(3) 250 (4) 204
90. Which of the following diagram represents the best (1) 34 (2) 35
relation between the ‘Female, Mothers and (3) 40 (4) 36
Sisters’? 93. The value of 9 $ 10 is
(1) 190 (2) 189
(1) (2) (3) 180 (4) 200
94. The value of (5 @ 2) # (6 $ 8) is
(1) 1088 (2) 1089
(3) (4) (3) 1087 (4) 1084
th
95. In a queue Mohan is standing at 12 position from
th
91. In this question, two statements are given which the start and at the 15 position from the last. How
are followed by two conclusions I and II. You have many person should be added in the queue to
to consider the statements to be true even if they make the total number of person in queue 30?
seem to be at variance from commonly known
(1) 01
facts. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any, follows from the given (2) 00
statements. (3) 03
Statements: (4) 04
A. All P are Q. th
96. In a class test Anisha ranked 10 from the top.
B. All R are P. Mohan is ranked 5 rank after her and he is ranked
th
Conclusions: 16 from the last. The total number of students in
I. Some P are Q. the class is
II. Some R are P. (1) 30 (2) 26
III. All R are Q. (3) 28 (4) 31
(Space for Rough Work)
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Section-I_Test-2 (Code D) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
Directions (Q.97 to Q.100) : Read the given 97. Who likes Mathematics?
information carefully. answer the following questions. (1) Emmi (2) Amit
Five friends Amit, Veer, Chang, David and Emmi likes (3) David (4) Chang
five subjects and belongs to five different states. Each
98. Who belongs to Delhi?
Like exactly one subject. The five subjects are
Chemistry, English, Hindi, Physics and Mathematics (1) Emmi (2) Amit
but not in order. The five states are Bihar, Rajasthan, (3) Veer (4) Chang
Gujarat, Haryana and Delhi but not in order. 99. The person who likes English belongs to
I. Amit does not like Physics, Chemistry and (1) Bihar
Mathematics. Veer likes English. David belongs to (2) Delhi
Rajasthan and do not like mathematics and
(3) Rajasthan
Physics. The person who likes Physics belongs to
Gujarat. (4) Haryana
II. Emmi and Amit do not belong to Gujarat and 100. Chang Likes
Haryana. The person who likes Hindi does not (1) Physics (2) Hindi
belong to Bihar. (3) Chemistry (4) Mathematics
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Section-II_Test-2 (Code E)
TEST – 2 (Code-E)
SECTION-II (Maximum Marks : 60)
• This section contains 30 questions of Biology only.
• Each question of Section-II is of 2 marks. Therefore +2 for correct answer and –0.50 for wrong answer.
It is compulsory to use separate OMR for Section-II or Section-III. Also compulsory to fill the Test Booklet Code.
2. How many of the following plants propagate (2) Birds, reptiles and land snails
through leaves? (3) Amphibians, bony fishes and molluscs
Guava, Saintpaulia, Potato, Dahlia, Begonia, (4) Reptiles, insects and echinoderms
Asparagus 6. Select the incorrect match.
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Section-II_Test-2 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
8. Low count of platelets is called Amongst them, who have identified atleast three
(1) Thrombocytosis (2) Thrombocytopenia sexual characters correctly?
(1) Aarti and Puja (2) Atul and Abhisek
(3) Leukemia (4) Polycythemia
(3) Puja and Atul (4) Puja and Abhisek
9. All of the following animals have closed circulatory
system, except 12. Sperms are produced inside the
(1) Both (a) and (b) are false The energy required to perform the above process
is obtained from
(2) Only (a) is true
(1) Enzymes catalysed during CO2 fixation
(3) Only (b) is true
(2) Protons released during photolysis of water
(4) Both (a) and (b) are true
(3) Carbon dioxide reduced to form glucose
11. Teacher asked some students to identify the
(4) Electrons released during photolysis of water
secondary sexual characters that are common to
both male and female. 15. • (a) cells secrete mucus and protects the
(i) Body becomes muscular. inner surface of the stomach from the action of
(ii) Thick hair growth in the pubic regions. (b) acid.
(iii) Breasts size begin to increase. • (c) cells secrete the proenzyme
(iv) Skin becomes frequently oily. pepsinogen.
(v) Occurrence of acne. • Oxyntic cells secrete (d) essential for
(vi) High pitched voice. absorption of vitamin B12.
(vii) Thin hair appears on legs and arms. Select the option that fills the blanks in any of the
Here are the answers given by the students : two statements to make them correct.
Aarti — (i), (iii), (iv), (vii) (1) (a) - Goblet, (b) - HCl, (c) - Zymogenic
Puja — (ii), (iv), (v) (vi) (2) (b) - HCl, (c) - Parietal, (d) - Pepsin
Atul — (i), (ii), (iii), (vii) (3) (a) - Goblet, (c) - Chief, (d) - Trypsin
Abhishek — (ii), (iv), (v), (vii) (4) (a) - Peptic, (b) - HCl, (c) - Chief
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Section-II_Test-2 (Code E)
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason 18. Statement-I : Hormones are chemical messengers
secreted by specialised endocrine glands.
is the correct explanation of assertion
Statement-II : Formation of seedless fruits without
(3) Both assertion and reason are false fertilization is called pollination.
statements Consider the given statements and select the
(4) Assertion is true statement but reason is false correct option.
(1) Both the statements are correct
17.
(2) Only statement-I is correct
(3) Only statement-II is correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
19. Match the following columns and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
Mammals Dental formula
Match the above labelled parts of the given 0033
a. Cat (i)
structure with their below given characteristics and 3133
select the correct option. 2123
b. Dog (ii)
(i) It is the muscular distensible tube situated 2123
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Section-II_Test-2 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
20. During joint diastole, muscles of four chambers of Amongst them, how many of the given differences
the heart are relaxed, deoxygenated blood from is/are incorrect?
large veins called ‘X’ move into right atrium which
(1) One (2) Three
takes about ‘Y’ seconds whereas ‘Z’ from lungs
also pour the oxygenated blood into the left atrium. (3) Two (4) Four
Identify X, Y and Z and select the correct option. 22. • It is responsible for precision of the voluntary
X Y Z actions.
• It helps in maintaining the equilibrium.
(1) Aorta 0.1 Vena cava
Identify the part of brain on the basis of given
(2) Pulmonary veins 0.4 Vena cava
information and select the correct option.
(3) Aorta 0.3 Pulmonary veins (1) Medulla
(4) Vena cava 0.4 Pulmonary veins (2) Hypothalamus
21. Below given are the differences between breathing (3) Thalamus
and respiration. (4) Cerebellum
i. It is a mechanism i. It is a complex
by which process which
organisms obtain consists of
oxygen from the transport of gases
environment and and oxidation of
release carbon food materials.
dioxide in the
The above given figure depicts
atmosphere.
(1) Budding in yeast
ii. It is a physical ii. It is a biochemical
(2) Binary fission in Mucor
process. process.
(3) Regeneration in Monocystis
iii. Several enzymes iii. No enzymes are
are required. required. (4) Fragmentation in Spirogyra
24. The part of flower which produces pollen grain is
iv. It utilizes and iv. It only utilizes
releases energy. energy. (1) Carpel
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Section-II_Test-2 (Code E)
Thyroid A Cretinism Identify the labelled parts (a), (b), (c) and (d) and
select the correct option.
B Somatotropin Gigantism
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Section-II_Test-2 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
29. The red coloured pigment (i) is found in RBC. 30. Which of the following is the function of pineal
Less amount of (i) than the normal range is gland?
called (ii) . Here (i) and (ii) are, respectively (1) It increases the blood pressure
(1) Haemoglobin and leukemia (2) It produces T-lymphocytes
(2) Plasma and leucopenia
(3) It controls the biological clock
(3) Haemoglobin and anaemia
(4) Lymphocyte and leukemia (4) It controls the basal metabolic rate
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Section-III_Test-2 (Code F)
TEST – 2 (Code-F)
SECTION-III (Maximum Marks : 60)
• This section contains 15 questions of Mathematics only.
• Each question of Section-III is of 4 marks. Therefore +4 for correct answer and –1 for wrong answer.
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Section-III_Test-2 (Code F) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
2
9. α and β are the roots of x – 5x – 11 = 0, with 2cot 2 θ + 5 tan2 θ + 7
n+2 n+2 13. − 2cos2 θ is equal to
α >β, if an = α +β for n ≥ 1, then the value 2 2
cosec θ + tan θ + 1
a7 − 11a5 + a6 2
(1) sin θ
of is
3a6 2
(2) 2sin θ
(1) 1 (2) 2 2
(3) 5sin θ
(3) 3 (4) 6
2
(4) 4cos θ
10. If the system of linear equations kx + (k + 2)y = 12
and (k + 2)x + 9y = 2(k + 5) has infinite solutions, 14. X and Y are two points on the side AB and AC of
then the value of k is a triangle ABC respectively such that BCYX is a
trapezium. If X divides AB in the ratio of 5 : 2,
(1) 4 (2) 1
then the ratio of the area of ∆AXY and area of
(3) –11 (4) 11
trapezium BCYX is
1 1 1 1 2 (1) 5 : 7 (2) 25 : 49
11. 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 ............ + 19 is equal to
3 4 6 12 3
(3) 24 : 25 (4) 25 : 24
(1) 220.50 (2) 270.55
15. If a tower casts a shadow of 3 times of its
(3) 190.95 (4) 210.75
height on the ground, then the angle of elevation
2 2
12. If x + ax – 24 and x – 3ax + 36 have (x – k) as of the sun is
a common factor where a ≠ 0, then the value of (1) 30°
k can be
(2) 45°
(1) 5 (2) –5
(3) 60°
(3) 7 (4) 3
(4) 15°
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02-08-2020
D, E & F
Test No. 1
SECTION-II (Code-E)
1. (4) 7. (4) 13. (2) 19. (2) 25. (3)
2. (1) 8. (2) 14. (3) 20. (1) 26. (2)
3. (2) 9. (3) 15. (1) 21. (3) 27. (4)
4. (1) 10. (4) 16. (4) 22. (3) 28. (1)
5. (3) 11. (2) 17. (2) 23. (2) 29. (2)
6. (2) 12. (2) 18. (3) 24. (1) 30. (4)
SECTION-III (Code-F)
1. (4) 4. (1) 7. (3) 10. (2) 13. (4)
2. (Deleted) 5. (3) 8. (3) 11. (4) 14. (2)
3. (3) 6. (Deleted) 9. (1) 12. (1) 15. (2)
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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Test-1 (Answers & Hints)
2/8
Test-1 (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
15. Answer (2) 18. Answer (4)
Let the vessel is filled upto height x, then 19. Answer (3)
x 20. Answer (4)
H–x= 3 t sin(i – r )
2 ∴ d=
cos r
2x 5 x
H =x + = From Snell’s law
3 3
sin60°=
× 1 sin r × 3
3H
x=
5 1
sin r= = sin30° ⇒ r= 30°
16. Answer (4) 2
f –v 5 3 sin(60° – 30°)
∴ m= =d = 5 = 3 tan30° 5 cm
f cos30°
–12 – v1 21. Answer (3)
+2 =
–12 22. Answer (2)
24 = 12 + v1 23. Answer (4)
v1 = + 12 cm 24. Answer (1)
3/8
All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Test-1 (Answers & Hints)
37. Answer (1) Now,
Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
a2 – 9d 2 9
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) =
2 2 10
a –d
38. Answer (3)
⇒ (81 – 9d 2)10 = 9(81 – d 2)
39. Answer (3)
Δ
d = ±1
2Pb (NO3 )2 ( s ) → 2PbO ( s ) + 4NO2 ( g ) +O2 ( g )
∴ The numbers are 6.8, 10, 12
40. Answer (2)
62. Answer (1)
Δ
FeSO4 ·7H2O → FeSO4 ( s ) αβ – 3 (α + β) + 9
( Green crystal) ( Colourless )
–7 –2
Δ = – 3 +9
FeSO4 ( s ) → Fe2O3 ( s )+ SO2 ( g)+ SO3 ( g) 3 3
'P' 'Q' 'R ' 'S'
7 26
41. Answer (3) = 11–
=
3 3
42. Answer (2)
43. Answer (2) 63. Answer (3)
44. Answer (4) 4n 2 + 6n + 8 4
= 2n + 3 +
45. Answer (3) 2n n
46. Answer (1) ⇒ All possible values of n are ±1, ±2, ±4
47. Answer (4)
∴ Sum of –1, –2, –4, 1, 2, 4 = 0
48. Answer (2)
64. Answer (4)
49. Answer (3)
Monophyodont teeth grows only once in life. . k k+4 7
= ≠
50. Answer (2) k+4 9k 10
51. Answer (1) ⇒ k2 – k – 2 = 0
52. Answer (3) ⇒ k = 2, –1
53. Answer (3)
28 40
The labelled part R is lacteal. And k ≠ ,k ≠
3 53
54. Answer (1)
65. Answer (1)
The amount of energy produced by the hydrolysis
of one molecule of ATP is 30.5 kJ/mol. a5 + a12 + a19 = a12 – 5d + a12 + a12 + 5d
55. Answer (1) = 3 × 30 = 90
56. Answer (2) 66. Answer (4)
57. Answer (2)
b
58. Answer (3) (4 + 3)(4 – 3) =
= 13
a
59. Answer (1)
The given reaction represents the splitting of water –c
=4 + 3 + 4 – 3 =8
molecule. a
60. Answer (1) d =5 + 6 + 5 – 6 =10
61. Answer (2)
(5 + 6)(5 – 6) =
And e = 19
Let the numbers be a – 3d, a –d, a + d and a + 3d.
⇒ 4a = 36 b+c 1
∴ =
a=9 ade 38
4/8
Test-1 (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
67. Answer (2) 71. Answer (2)
am – bl = bn – cm = 0
⇒ am = bl and bn = cm
a b b c
=
⇒ = and
l m m n
a b c
= =
l m n
∴ 5x – a + 3 = 5x + b
68. Answer (2)
⇒ a+b=3
18m + 5 = 9(2m) + 5 = 9q + 5
72. Answer (4)
18m + 5 = 3(6m + 1) + 2 = 3q + 2 Here 18 – 16 = 2, 12 – 10 = 2, 20 – 18 = 2 and
18m + 5 = 6(3m) + 5 = 6q + 5 38 – 36 = 2 and LCM of 18, 12, 20 and 38 = 3420
18m + 5 = 2(9m + 2) + 1 = 2q + 1 ∴ the required number = 3420 – 2 = 3418
69. Answer (3) 73. Answer (1)
2 Let the speed of stream be x,
p(x) = ax – bx + c
40 40 64
⇒ p(0) = c > 0 ⇒ – =
20 – x 20 + x 60
– b –D
Vertex of parabola , ⇒ 40 × 60 (20 + x – 20 + x) = 64(400 – x2)
2a 4a
⇒ x2 + 75x – 400 = 0
b
⇒ <0 ⇒ x = 5, –80
2a
∴ Speed of stream = 5 km/hr
⇒ b<0 [ a > 0 as parabola open upwards]
74. Answer (2)
70. Answer (3)
2 3 7 3 2 43
α = + and = + , where m and b
k= m b 24 m b 144
β represents number of days taken by a man and a
–2 –2 boy respectively to do the work.
1 α β
⇒ k + k = +
β α 1 1
=
Let and
x= y,
m b
–2
α 2 + β2 7
= ⇒ 2x + 3y = ...(i)
αβ 24
43
(αβ)2 And 3 x + 2y = ...(ii)
= 144
2
(α + β)2 – 2αβ
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
2 1 1
–3 =x = and y
4 16 18
144
= = ⇒ b = 18
2 2401
5 2 –3
– 2 b 1
4 4 ⇒ = 4 days
4 2
5/8
All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Test-1 (Answers & Hints)
75. Answer (4) ⇒ 2x – y = 10 …(i)
1 1 α+β And x – y = –5 …(ii)
+ =
α β αβ Solving (i) and (ii), we get
1 x = 15 and y = 20
2 =2 1 3
3 3 =
α+β
2
=
and αβ
4
∴ Total number of students = 15 × 20
4 = 300
1 1 1 4 81. Answer (1)
And × = =
α β αβ 3 mnoL|mnoL|mnoL|mnoL
∴ Required polynomial 82. Answer (3)
2x 4 aabbcc|bbccdd|ccddee
= k x2 – +
3 3 83. Answer (4)
k Letter is codded to square of (its position +1)
= (3 x 2 – 2 x + 4)
3 84. Answer (2)
76. Answer (3) 85. Answer (4)
A–x=B–A=y–B Pattern is n2 , where n = 81, 71, 61, 51, 41
⇒ 2A = B + x and 2B = A + y 86. Answer (3)
A+y Pattern obtained by difference of the prime
2A
⇒ = +x
2 numbers starting from 41.
A + y + 2x 87. Answer (1)
⇒ 2A =
2
n3 – (n – 1)2, where n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and so on.. .
⇒ 3A = 2x + y
88. Answer (4)
And 3B = x + 2y
89. Answer (3)
B x + 2y
∴ = Letters at prime positions.
A 2x + y
90. Answer (2)
77. Answer (4)
First two letter and their opposite letter.
x = 2n + 1 for n being any integer
2 2 91. Answer (3)
⇒ x – 1 = 4n + 4n = 4n(n + 1)
92. Answer (1)
∴ It is always divisible by 2 × 4 = 8
93. Answer (1)
78. Answer (1)
n : (n + 1)2 – n
2 + 2 2 + 3 2 .........
94. Answer (4)
10
=
2
2 2 +9 2 ( ) abc : 2 × (a + b)c
95. Answer (3)
= 55 2
abc : (a + b) × c
79. Answer (2)
96. Answer (4)
80. Answer (2)
97. Answer (1)
Let the number of rows be x and number of
columns be y, 98. Answer (4)
xy = (x – 5)(y + 10) = (x + 5)(y – 5) 99. Answer (1)
⇒ 0 = 10x – 5y – 50 = 5y – 5x – 25 100. Answer (2)
6/8
Test-1 (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X)
6. Answer (2) = 72
And number of odd factors = (2 + 1)(3 + 1)
7. Answer (4)
[Combination of all powers of 3 and 5]
8. Answer (2)
= 12
9. Answer (3)
⇒ Number of even factors = 72 – 12
10. Answer (4)
= 60
11. Answer (2)
∴ Product = 60 × 12 = 720
12. Answer (2)
4. Answer (1)
13. Answer (2)
1 1
14. Answer (3) Let
= a= , b,
x –1 y –2
15. Answer (1) ⇒ 2a + 3b = –2 …(i)
16. Answer (4) And 4a – 9b = 1 …(ii)
17. Answer (2) Solving (i) and (ii), we get
18. Answer (3) –1 1 –1 1
=
a = and=
b =
19. Answer (2) 2 x +1 3 y –2
20. Answer (1) ⇒ x = –1 and y = –1
21. Answer (3) ∴ x + y = –2
22. Answer (3) 5. Answer (3)
2 2
The labelled parts P is Bowman’s capsule and R x = 42 + x and y = 132 + y
is proximal convoluted tubule. ⇒
2 2
x – x – 42 = 0 and y – y – 132 = 0
23. Answer (2) ⇒ (x – 7)(x + 6) = 0 and (y – 12)(y + 11) = 0
24. Answer (1) ⇒ x = 7 and y = 12 [ x, y cannot be negative]
25. Answer (3) 6. Deleted
26. Answer (2) 7. Answer (3)
27. Answer (4) Let speed of train and car be x and y respectively,
The labelled parts a, b, c and d are vena cava, 450 350 55
⇒ + =
aorta, pulmonary vein and left ventricle x y 4
respectively.
300 500 95
And + =
28. Answer (1) x y 6
29. Answer (2) 1 1
Let = u=
, v,
30. Answer (4) x y
7/8
All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class X) Test-1 (Answers & Hints)
55 1 2
⇒ 450u + 350v = …(i) (a + b + c )(ab + bc + ca )
4 > (abc ) 3 × (abc ) 3
9
95
And 300u + 500v = … (ii) (a + b + c )(ab + bc + ca )
6 ⇒ > abc
9
Solving (i) and (ii) we get,
(a + b + c )(ab + bc + ca )
1 1 ⇒ >9
=u = and v abc
90 40
12. Answer (1)
∴ Difference of speeds = 90 – 40
x
= 50 km/hr Let y = , x =α, β
x +5
8. Answer (3)
5y
2002 2 ⇒ x=
x ( x + 4x ) 1– y
= 4 × 2449.25
x 2002 2
5y 5y
⇒
2
x + 4x – 9797 = 0 ⇒ + 10 –1=
0
1– y 1– y
–4 ± 16 + 4 × 9797 ⇒ 26y2 – 52y + 1 = 0
⇒ x=
2
∴ Required equation is 26x2 – 52x + 1 = 0
–4 ± 198 13. Answer (4)
=
2
1 1 1 αβ + βγ + αγ
= 97, –101 + + –1= –1
α β γ αβγ
9. Answer (1)
–13 1
10. Answer (2) = = –1
–12 12
7805 = (74)201 × 7 14. Answer (2)
201 Constant term is zero if line passes through origin.
= (2401) ×7
∴ When 2401 201
is divided by 24, the remainder is 1. ⇒ c=n=f=0
[ 2401 = 24 × 100 + 1] 15. Answer (2)
805 mam = nan
⇒ Remainder when 7 is divided by 24 = 7.
⇒ ma + m(m – 1)d = na + n (n – 1)d
11. Answer (4)
⇒ (m – n)a = (n2 – n – m2 + m)d
As AM > GM
1
⇒ (m – n )a ( m – n ) – ( m – n )( m + n ) d
=
a+b+c
> (abc ) 3 …(i) ⇒ a = (1 – m – n)d
3
⇒ a + (m + n – 1)d = 0
1
ab + bc + ca ⇒ am + n = 0
And > (ab ⋅ bc ⋅ ca ) 3 …(ii)
3 ⇒ x=0
Multiplying (i) and (ii), we get ∴ 2496780 = 1
8/8
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