MOCK TEST PAPER

for
JEE (Main)-2024-25
Time : 3 Hours
Total Marks : 300 MOCK TEST – 1

General Instructions :
1. There are three subjects in the question paper consisting of Physics (Q. no. 1 to 25),
Chemistry (Q. no. 26 to 50) and Mathematics (Q. no. 51 to 75).
2. Each subject is divided into two sections. Section A consists of 20 multiple choice
questions & Section B consists of 5 numerical value type questions. In Section B,
candidates have to attempt all of them.
3. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices in Section A. For each
question 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deducted for
incorrect choice for Section A questions and zero mark will be awarded for not
attempted question.
4. For Section B questions, 4 marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero for
unattempted and incorrect answer.
5. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed
for the students appearing for the test.

6. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet is provided with
Question Paper.

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JEE MOCK TEST
 Q. 6. The r.m.s. value of alternating current is
PHYSICS 10 A, having frequency of 50 Hz. The time taken
Section A-Multiple Choice Questions by the current to increase from zero to maximum
and the maximum value of current will be
Q. 1. When a body does not rotate or rotates with a (1) 2 × 10−2 s and 14.14 A
constant angular velocity (𝜔), It is said to be in : (2) 1 × 10−2 s and 7.07 A
(1) Rotational Equilibrium (3) 5 × 10−3 s and 7.07 A
(2) Stable Equilibrium (4) 5 × 10−3 s and 14.14 A
(3) Translation Equilibrium Q. 7. In a Young's double slit experiment, the
(4) Neutral Equilibrium fringe width is found to be 0.4 mm. If the whole
Q. 2. Photoelectrons are observed to just emit out apparatus is immersed in water of refractive
of a material surface when the light of 620 nm 4
index (3), without disturbing the geometrical
falls on it with the intensity of 100 W m−2. If the
arrangement, the new fringe width will be :
light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on the
(1) 0.30 mm
same material with an intensity of 1 Wm−2 , what
(2) 0.40 mm
would be the minimum reverse potential needed
(3) 0.53 mm
to stop the outflow of the electrons?
(4) 450 microns
(1) 1 V (2) 2 V
Q. 8. A convex lens made of material of
(3) 1.2 V (4) 1.9 V
refractive index 1.5 and having a focal length of
Q. 3. Displacement Current is :
10 cm is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
(1) Due to flow of free electrons.
3.0. The lens will behave as
(2) Due to flow of Positive Ions
(1) converging lens of focal length 10 cm
(3) Due to flow of both Positive and Negative
(2) diverging lens of focal length 10 cm
(4) Due to time Varying Electric field.
(3) converging lens of focal length 10/3 cm
Q. 4. Find the binding energy of a H-atom in the
(4) diverging lens of focal length 30 cm.
state 𝑛 = 2
Q. 9. Dispersive power of crown glass? Given
(1) 2.1Ev (2) 3.4eV
that 𝜇𝑣 = 1.5230, 𝜇𝑟 = 1.5145
(3) 4.2eV (4) 2.8eV
(1) 2∘
Q. 5. Figure represents a square carrying charges
(2) 3∘
+𝑞, +𝑞, −𝑞, −𝑞 at its four corners as shown.
(3) 0.0163∘
Then the potential will be zero at points
(4) 2.5∘
Q. 10. An air bubble in glass slab (𝜇 = 1.5) when
viewed from one side, appears to be at 6 cm and
from opposite side 4 cm. The thickness of glass
slab is :
(1) 10 cm
(2) 6.67 cm
(1) A, B, C, P and Q (2) A, B and C (3) 15 cm
(3) A, P, C and Q (4) 𝑃, 𝐵 and 𝑄 (4) None of these

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JEE MOCK TEST
Q. 11. A copper block of mass 2.5 kg is heated in (3) 60∘ C
a furnace to a temperature of 500∘ C and then (4) 40∘ C
placed on large ice block. The maximum amount Q. 15. If the length of a cylinder on heating
of ice that can melt is (Specific heat increases by 2%, the area of its base will increase
of copper = 0.39Jg −1∘ C−1, latent heat of fusion by :
of water = 335Jg −1 ) (1) 0.5%
(1) 1.2 kg (2) 2%
(2) 1.455 kg (3) 1%
(3) 1 kg (4) 4%
(4) 2.5 kg Q. 16. A long string, having a cross-sectional area
Q. 12. The number of molecules in 1 cm3 of an 0.80 mm2 and density 12.5 g/cm3 is subjected
ideal gas at 0∘ C and at a pressure of 10−5 mm of to a tension of 64 N along the 𝑥-axis. One end of
mercury is : the string is attached to a vibrator moving in
(1) 2.7 × 1011 transverse direction. At 𝑡 = 0, the source is at
(2) 3.5 × 1011 maximum displacement 𝑦 = 1 cm. Find the
(3) 6.0 × 1023 speed of wave travelling on the string.
(4) 6 × 1012 (1) 40 m/s
Q. 13. In the figure shown here, the work done in (2) 80 m/s
the process ACBA is : (3) 20 m/s
(4) 100 m/s
Q.17. If at same temperature and pressure, the
densities for two diatomic gases are respectively
𝑑1 and 𝑑2 , then the ratio of velocities of sound in
these gases will be :
𝑑
(1) √𝑑2
1

𝑑
(2) √𝑑1
2

(1) 4P0 V0 (3) 𝑑1 𝑑2

(2) 6P0 V0 (4) √𝑑1 𝑑2
(3) −2P0 V0 Q. 18. The S.I. unit of displacement current is :
(4) −4P0 V0 (1) Henry
Q. 14. A slab consist of two parallel layers of (2) Coulomb
copper and brass of the same thickness and (3) Ampere
having thermal conductivities in the ratio 1: 4. If (4) Faraday
the free face of brass is at 100∘ C and that of Q. 19. A wooden object floats in water kept in a
copper at 0∘ C, the temperature of interface is: beaker. The object is near a side of the beaker see
(1) 80∘ C (figure). Let P1 , P2 , P3 be the pressures at the three
(2) 20∘ C points A, B and C of the bottom as shown in the
figure :

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JEE MOCK TEST
 and a current of 2.5 A is provided by battery.
Value of 𝐵 for which the bar slide at a constant
velocity ........ × 10−1 Tesla. [g = 10 m/s 2 ]

(1) 𝑃1 = 𝑃2 = 𝑃3
(2) P1 < P2 < P3
(3) 𝑃1 > 𝑃2 > 𝑃3
(4) 𝑃2 = 𝑃3 ≠ 𝑃1
Q. 20. The work done in bringing a 20 coulomb
charge from point 𝐴 to point 𝐵 for distance 0.2 m
is 2 joule. The Potential difference between two
Q.24. A conductor 𝐴𝐵𝑂𝐶𝐷 moves along its
point will be (in volt):
bisector with a velocity 1 m/s through a
(1) 8
perpendicular magnetic field of 1wb/m2 , as
(2) 0.2
shown in figure. If all the four sides are 1 m
(3) 0.1
length each, then the induced emf between A and
(4) 0.4
D in approx. is .......... V.
Section B-Numerical Value Questions
Q. 21. A capacitor of capacity 2𝜇F is charged to a
potential difference of 12 V. It is then connected
across an inductor of inductance 0.6mH. The
current in the circuit at a time when the potential
difference across the capacitor is 6.0 V is ......
10−1 A.
Q. 25. A capacitor has charge 50𝜇C. When the
Q. 22. A 30 V storage battery is charged from
gap between the plates is filled with glass wool,
120 V direct current supply mains with a resistor
then 120𝜇C charge flows through the battery to
being connected in series with battery to limit the
capacitor. The dielectric constant of glass wool is
charging current to 15 A. If all the heat produced
in circuit, could be made available in heating
water, the time it would take to bring 1 kg of CHEMISTRY
water from 15∘ C to the 100∘ C is minutes [Neglect Section A-Multiple Choice Questions
the internal resistance of the battery] Q. 26. A hydrated salt of Na2 SO3 loses 22.22%
Q. 23. Two conducting rails are connected to a of its mass on strong heating. The hydrated salt is
source of emf and form an incline as shown in :
figure. A bar of mass 50 g slides without (1) Na2 SO3 ⋅ 4H2 O
friction down the incline through a vertical (2) Na2 SO3 ⋅ 6H2 O
magnetic field 𝐵. If the length of the bar is 50 cm (3) Na2 SO3 ⋅ H2 O
(4) Na2 SO3 ⋅ 2H2 O

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JEE MOCK TEST
Q. 27. Which one of the following is the correct (1)
set of hybridisation and shape with respect to
molecule?
(1) BeCl2 A𝑠𝑝2 , linear
(2) BeCl2 A𝑠𝑝2 , triangular planar
(3) BCl3 A𝑠𝑝2 , triangular planar (2)
(4) BCl3 A𝑠𝑝3 , tetrahedral
Q. 28.

(3)

(4)
and

Number of secondary carbon atoms present in the Q. 31. Match List I with List II.
above compounds are respectively:
(1) 6,4,5 List I List II
(2) 4,5,6 A. Zymase I. Stomach
(3) 5,4,6
(4) 6,2,1 B. Diastase II. Yeast
Q. 29. Which type of isomerism can be shown by C. Urease III. Malt
benzaldoxime?
(1) Optical isomerism D. Pepsin IV. Soyabean
(2) Functional group isomerism
(3) Geometrical isomerism Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Configuration isomerism below:
Q. 30. Which of the following is an example of (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
conjugated diketone? (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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JEE MOCK TEST
Q.32. The conversion of propan-1-ol to n- Q.36. The order of stability of the following
butylamine involves the sequential addition of resonating structures
reagents. The correct sequential order of reagents
is
(1) (i) SOCl2
(ii) KCN
(iii) H2 /Ni, Na(Hg)/ C2 H5 OH
(2) (i) HCl (ii) H2 /Ni, Na(Hg)/C2 H5 OH
(3) (i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN (iii) CH3 NH2
(4) (i) HCl (ii) CH3 NH2
Q. 33. At 90∘ C pure water has [H3 O+ ] = 10−6 M.
What is the value of K w at this temperature? (1) II > I > III
(1) 10−6 (2) I > III > II
(2) 10−12 (3) I > II > III
(3) 10−13 (4) III > II > I
(4) 10−14
Q.34. An equilibrium system for the reaction 37.
between hydrogen and iodine to give hydrogen Product is:
iodide at 765 K in a 5 litre volume contains 0.4 (1) Cu − C ≡ C − Cu
mole of hydrogen, 0.4 mole of iodine and 2.4 (2) CH2 ≡ CH − C ≡ CH
moles of hydrogen iodide. The equilibrium (3) CH = C − Cu
constant for the reaction is : (4) Cu − C ≡ C − NH4
H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI, is Q. 38.
(1) 36.0
(2) 15.0
(3) 0.067
(4) 0.028 hydrocarbon (X) major product X is :
Q. 35. In which of the following species O.N. of (1)
the element (s) is equal to +4 ?
(1) [N = C = S]−
(2)
(2)

(3) NO+2
(4) C2 H2

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JEE MOCK TEST
(3) (2) Dimethyl ketone
(3) 2-Butanone
(4) 2-Methyl propanone
Q.42. The end product 𝑌 in the sequence of
reaction :
CN− NaOH
RX ⟶ X ⟶ Y is :
(4) (1) An alkene
(2) A carboxylic acid
(3) Sodium salt of carboxylic acid
(4) A ketone
Q. 43. Methyl amine on reaction with chloroform
in the presence of NaOH gives :
Q. 39. For CH3 Br + OH − ⟶ CH3 OH + Br the
(1) Methyl isocyanide
rate of reaction is given by the expression-
(2) Methyl chloride
(1) rate = k[CH3 Br]
(3) N-Methylchloramine
(2) rate = k[OH − ]
(4) Chloramine
(3) rate = k[CH3 Br][OH − ]
Q. 44. The major product for the following
(4) rate = k[CH3 Br]0 [OH − ]0 LiAlH4
reaction is CH2 = CH − COOH ⟶
Q. 40 . (1) CH2 = CH − CH2 OH
(2) CH3 CH2 CHOH
(3) CH3 CHCHO
(4) CH3 CH2 COOH
Q. 45. Two solutions 𝐴 and 𝐵 are prepared by
dissolving 1 g of non-volatile solutes X and 𝑌,
respectively in 1 kg of water. The ratio of
depression in freezing points for A and B is found
What will be reagents 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 in the above to be 1:4. The ratio of molar masses of X and Y is
given reactions? (1) 1: 4
(1) A = H2 O/H + ; B = BH3 /H2 O2 , NaOH; C = (2) 1: 0.25
Hg(OAc)2 /H2 O, NaBH4 (3) 1: 0.20
(2) A = BH3 /H2 O2 , A = H2 O/H + ; C = (4) 1: 5
Hg(OAc)2 / H2 O, NaBH4 Section B-Numerical Value Questions
(3) A = B = C = BH3 /H2 O2 Q.46. The specific rate constant of the
(4) A = B = BH3 /H2 O2 ; C = H2 O/H + decomposition of N2 O5 is 0.008 min−1. The
Q. 41. An aldehyde isomeric with allyl alcohol volume of O2 collected after 20 minutes is
gives phenyl hydrazone. Pick out a ketone that 16 mL. The volume that would be collected at the
too gives a phenyl hydrazone containing the same end of reaction is mL. The NO2 formed is
percentage of nitrogen : dissolved in CCl4 .
(1) Methyl ethyl ketone

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JEE MOCK TEST
Q. 47. A sample of U 238 (half life = 4.5 × 109 Q. 53. The probability, that in a randomly
years) ore is found to contain 23.8 g of U 238 and selected 3 -digit number at least two digits are
20.6 g of Pb206 . The age of the ore is ......... odd, is
19
× 109 years. (1) 36
Q. 48. The equilibrium constant at 25∘ C for the 15
(2) 36
given cell is
13
Zn|Zn2+ (1M)||Ag + (1M)|Ag is ..........10 26 (3) 36
Given that 23
(4) 36
0
EZn/Zn 2+ = 0.76 V
Q. 54. The value of a for which the area between
0
and EAg/Ag+ = −0.80 V the curve 𝑦 2 = 4𝑎𝑥 and 𝑥 2 = 4𝑎𝑦 is 1 square
Q.49. A solution of Fe2 (SO4 )3 is electrolyzed for unit is
' 𝑥 ' min with a current of 1.5 A to deposit (1) √3
0.3482 g of Fe. The value of 𝑥 is (2) 4
[Nearest integer] (3) 4√3
Given :1F = 96500Cmol−1 √3
(4)
Atomic mass of Fe = 56 g mol−1 4

Q. 50. 1000 g of 1 m sucrose solution in water is Q. 55. If 𝑦 = 𝑦(𝑥) is the solution of the
𝑑𝑦
cooled to −3.534∘ C. What weight of ice would differential equation 2𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 − 2𝑥𝑦 + 3𝑦 2 = 0
be separated out at this temperature is ......... gm. 𝑒
such that 𝑦(𝑒) = 3, then 𝑦(1) is equal to
K f (H2 O) = 1.86 K mol−1 kg.) 1
(1) 3
2
MATHEMATICS (2) 3
3
Section A-Multiple Choice Questions (3) 2
(4) 3
𝑎𝑥+𝑏
Q. 51. If 𝑧1 , 𝑧2 , 𝑧3 are complex numbers such that Q. 56. If the function 𝑦 = (𝑥−4)(𝑥−1) has an
1 1 1
|𝑧1 | = |𝑧2 | = |𝑧3 | = | + + | = 1, then extremum at P(2, −1), then the values of 𝑎 and 𝑏
1𝑧 𝑧 𝑧
2 3
|𝑧1 + 𝑧2 + 𝑧3 | is : are :
(1) equal to 1 (1) 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = 1
(2) less than 1 (2) 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = −1
(3) greater than 3 (3) 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 0
(4) equal to 3 (4) 𝑎 = −1, 𝑏 = 0
Q. 52. ∫ (log 𝑥)2 𝑑𝑥 equals : Q. 57. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 + 𝜆𝑥 + 1(𝜆 ∈ R) is a
(1) (𝑥log 𝑥)2 − 2𝑥log 𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 𝑐 monotonically decreasing function of 𝑥 in the
(2) 𝑥(log 𝑥)2 − 2𝑥log 𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 𝑐 largest possible interval (−2, −2/3) then :
(3) 𝑥(log 𝑥)2 + 2𝑥log 𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 𝑐 (1) 𝜆 = 4
(4) 𝑥(log 𝑥)2 + 2𝑥log 𝑥 − 2𝑥 + 𝑐 (2) 𝜆 = 2
(3) 𝜆 = −1
(4) 𝜆 has no real value

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JEE MOCK TEST
 𝑑
Q. 58. 𝑑𝑥 𝑥 log 𝑥 = Q. 64. If 𝛼, 𝛽 are roots of the equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 −
2log 𝑥 𝑞 = 0 and 𝛾, 𝛿 are roots of 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑟 = 0, then
(1) 𝑥 log 𝑥 ( )
𝑥 the value of (𝛼 − 𝛾)(𝛼 − 𝛿) is :
(2) 𝑥 log 𝑥 (2log 𝑥) (1) 𝑝 + 𝑟
log 𝑥
(3) 𝑥 log 𝑥 ( ) (2) 𝑝 − 𝑟
𝑥
(3) 𝑞 − 𝑟
(4) 𝑥 log 𝑥 (log 𝑥)
(4) 𝑞 + 𝑟
Q. 59. Number of values of 𝑥 where the function
tan 𝑥log (𝑥−2) Q. 65. If nAM ′ 's are inserted between 1 and 31
; 𝑥 ∈ (2,4) − {3, 𝜋} and ratio of 7th and (𝑛 − 1)th A.M. is 5: 9, then
𝑥 2 −4𝑥+3
𝑓(𝑥) {1 is
tan 𝑥; 𝑥 = 3, 𝜋 𝑛 equals :
6
discontinuous, is (1) 12
(1) 2 (2) 13
(2) 1 (3) 14
(3) 0 (4) 15
(4) Infinitely many Q. 66. The line segment joining the points (1,2)
𝑥+7 𝑥+4
and (−2,1) is divided by the line 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 7 in
Q. 60. lim𝑥→∞ (𝑥+2) the ratio:
(1) 𝑒 2 (1) 3: 4
(2) 𝑒 3 (2) 4: 3
(3) 𝑒 4 (3) 9: 4
(4) 𝑒 5 (4) 4: 9
Q. 61. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 − 1 and domain of 𝑓 = Q. 67. If the mean of the data 7,7,9,7,8,7, 𝜆, 8 is 7
{0,1,2,3}, then domain of 𝑓 −1 is : , then the variance of this data is :
5
(1) {0,1,2,3} (1) 4
(2) {1,0, −7, −26} 7
(2) 4
(3) {−1,0,7,26}
1
(4) {0, −1, −2, −3} (3) 4
Q. 62. The solution set of the inequation 11
(4) 4
log1/3 (𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1) + 1 > 0 is :
Q. 68. If the normal at the point (1,2) on the
(1) (−∞, −2) ∪ (1, +∞)
parabola 𝑦 2 = 4𝑥 meets the parabola again at the
(2) [−1,2]
point (𝑡 2 , 2𝑡), then 𝑡 is equal to
(3) (−2,1)
(1) 1
(4) (−∞, +∞) (2) -1
Q. 63. The coefficient of 𝑦 49 in (3) 3
(𝑦 − 1)(𝑦 − 3)(𝑦 − 5) … . . (𝑦 − 99) is (4) -3
(1) 2500
(2) -2500
(3) −99 × 50
(4) 99 × 50

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JEE MOCK TEST
Q. 69. An ellipse is described by using an endless Section B-Numerical Value Questions
string which is passed over two pins. If the axes Q. 71. Let 𝑓(𝑥) = sin 𝑥 ⋅ cos3 𝑥 and 𝑔(𝑥) =
are 6 cm and 4 cm, the necessary length of the 𝜋 𝜋
𝑓( )+𝑔( )
string and the distance between the pins cos 𝑥 ⋅ sin3 𝑥, then the value of 7 ( 7
5𝜋
7
5𝜋 )
𝑔( )+𝑓( )
14 14
respectively in cms, are : Q. 72. Let 𝑦 = sin2 𝜃 + cos2 𝜃 + tan2 𝜃 +
(1) 6,2√5 sec 2 𝜃 + cosec 2 𝜃 + cot 2 𝜃 attains its least
(2) 6, √5 value (where 𝜃 ∈ [0,4𝜋]), then number of such
(3) 4,2√5 possible values of 𝜃 is
(4) 6 + 2√5, 2√5 Q. 73. In triangle ABC, 𝑎 = 4, 𝑏 = 3 and ∠A =
Q. 70. The foci of a hyperbola coincide with the 60∘ . If ' 𝑐 ′ ' is a root of the equation 𝑐 2 − 3𝑐 −
𝑥2 𝑦2 𝑘 = 0. Then 𝑘 = . (with usual notations)
foci of the ellipse 25 + = 1. Find the equation
9 2𝑥 1−𝑥 2
of the hyperbola, if its eccentricity is 2 . Q. 74. If 𝜃 = sin−1 (1+𝑥 2) + cos−1 (1+𝑥 2 ), for
𝑥2 𝑦2 3 cos 𝜃+tan 𝜃+4
(1) − 12 = 1 𝑥 ≥ 2, then the absolute value of ( )
4 sec 𝜃
𝑥2 𝑦2 is
(2) − 12 = 2
4 Q. 75. If number of arrangements of letters of the
𝑥2 𝑦2
(3) − 45 = 1 word "DHARAMSHALA" taken all at a time so
9
𝑥2 𝑦2 that no two alike letters appear together is
(4) − 10 = 1
2 (4𝑎 ⋅ 5𝑏 ⋅ 6𝑐 . 7𝑑 ), (where 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, 𝑑 ∈ 𝑁 ), then
𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 + 𝑑 is equal to

FOR ALL MAJOR MOCK TEST

JEE (Main) LATEST-2025 TEST SERIES

CONTACT

10
JEE MOCK TEST
 ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION Potential at B = VE + VF + VG + VH
Physics-Multiple Choice Questions 𝑘𝑞 𝑘𝑞 𝑘𝑞 𝑘𝑞
= + − −
1. (1) Rotational Equilibrium 𝑟1 𝑟1 𝑟1 𝑟1
When 𝜏 = 0 → Either the body does not rotate or =0
rotate with constant angular Velocity (𝜔
⃗ ), it is Potential at C = VF + VG
said to be in Rotational Equilibrium. 𝑘𝑞 𝑘𝑞
= − =0
1240 1240 𝑟 𝑟
2. (3) Work function: 𝜙 = eV = = Potential at P = VE + VF
𝜆 620
2eV 𝑘𝑞 𝑘𝑞 2𝑘𝑞
1240 = + =
Energy of the photon: 𝑈 = = 3.2eV 𝑟 𝑟 𝑟
400
Potential at Q = VH + VG
Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons:
𝑘𝑞 𝑘𝑞 2𝑘𝑞
3.2 − 2 = 1.2eV =− − =−
𝑟 𝑟 𝑟
Stopping Potential: 1.2 V
So potential will be zero at point A, B and C,
3. (4) Due to time Varying Electric field.
therefore correct option is (2)
⇒ Displacement Current is due to the time
6. (4) Time taken to reach the current from 0
Varrying Electric Field. T
to maximum =
⇒ It does not depend on the moving charges. 4
1 1
4. (2) Binding energy (BE) of atom En = Time period (𝑇) = 𝑓 = 50
13.6(𝑧 2 )
(𝑛2 )eV
= ̅̅̅̅̅
200
= 5 × 10−3 s
Now, substituting the values
Irms = 10 A
For hydrogen atom (𝑧) = 1 I0
𝑛=2 Irms =
eV √2
𝐸2 = |−13.6 × 2 | I0 = Irms × √2 = 10√2 A
2
−13.6eV = 14.14 A
=| | 7. (1) While in air, fringe width
4
𝜆D
= | − 3.4eV| 𝛽= = 0.4 mm
Hence, the required binding energy of the 𝑑
When immersed in liquid, fringe width
hydrogen atom be 3.4eV
𝜆′ D 𝜆 D 1 𝜆D
5. (2) 𝛽′ = = = ( )
𝑑 𝜇𝑑 𝜇 𝑑
1
= (0 ⋅ 4)
4
(3)
= 3(0.1) = 0.3 mm
1 2
8. (2) 𝑓 = (1.5 − 1) (𝑅)
𝑎
𝑓𝑎 = 𝑅 = 10 cm
Potential at A = VE + VH when dipped in liquid
𝑘𝑞 𝑘𝑞
= −
𝑟 𝑟
=0

11
JEE MOCK TEST
 1 1.5 2 Avogadro's number = 6.0 × 1023 particles per
=( − 1) ×
𝑓𝐿 3 R mole
1 1 760 mm mercury pressure = 105 Pa
=−
𝑓𝐿 R 10−5 ×105
So, 10−5 mm pressure = 760 Pa
⇒ 𝑓𝐿 = −R = −10 cm.
PVNA
Diverging lens of focal length 10 cm. ⇒ N=
RT
9. (3) 𝜇𝑣 = 1.5230, 𝜇𝑟 = 1.5145,
10−5
Mean refractive index (𝜇) =
𝜇𝑣 +𝜇𝑟 [ 760 × 105 ] × [1 × 10−6 ] × 6 × 1023
2 =
1.5230 + 1.5145 8.3 × 273
= 1
2 𝑁= × 1017
𝜇 = 1.5187 283556
𝜇𝑣 − 𝜇𝑟 = 3.5 × 1011
𝜔=
𝜇−1 13. (3) In the P-V graph, area enclosed by the
1.5230 − 1.5145 0.0085 curve leads to the work done,
= =
1.5187 − 1 0.5187 In anticlockwise cycle work 13 negative So area
= 0.0163 enclosed by the curve(A)
10. (3) Let 𝑡1 be the thickness of the glass 1
slab when viewed from one side and 𝑡2 be = − × (3P0 − P0 ) × (3 V0 − V0 )
2
the thickness of the glass slab when = −2P0 V0
viewed from other side. 14. (1)
1
Distance of air bubble (𝑑) = 𝑡1 (1 − (𝜇)) 100∘ C B RB T∘C C RC 0∘ C

1 𝑡1
6 = 𝑡1 (1 − )=
1.5 3
⇒ 𝑡1 = 18 cm R𝐵
1 𝑡2 100 − T ∘ C = × [100 − 0]
4 = 𝑡2 (1 − )= R𝐵 + R𝐶
1.5 3 R𝐶
⇒ 𝑡2 = 12 cm ⇒ T = 100 [ ]
R𝐵 + R𝐶
𝑡1 + 𝑡2 18 + 12 𝑙
𝑡actual = = We know that R = KA
2 2
𝑡 = 15 cm 1
11. (2) 𝑚𝐼 L𝑓 = 𝑚𝑐 S𝑐 ΔT𝑐 KC
T= 100
𝑚𝑐 S𝐶 ΔT𝐶 1 1
⇒ 𝑚𝐼 = +
KB KC
L𝑓
1 KC 1
2.5 × 0.39 × (500 − 0) = × 100 ( Where = )
= KC KB 4
335 + 1
KB
= 1.455 kg 4
12. (2) = × 100 = 80∘ C
5
PV = 𝑛RT 15. (4) Let length of cylinder initially be ℓ1 ,
N
⇒ PV = RT coefficient of linear expansion be 𝛼, and
NA
rise in temperature be Δ𝑡 ∘ C, so

12
JEE MOCK TEST
 Δℓ Points A, B and C in the beaker are at the same
Δℓ = ℓ𝛼Δ𝑡 ⇒ × 100 = 𝛼Δ𝑡 × 100
ℓ horizontal level. We know that
∴ 2 = 𝛼Δ𝑡 × 100 P = 𝜌𝑔ℎ
Now, for area
where 𝜌 is the density of liquid, 𝑔 is the
Δ𝐴
ΔA = A𝛽Δ𝑡 ⇒ = 𝛽Δ𝑡 gravitational acceleration and ℎ is the height
𝐴
ΔA Hence, the pressure in the beaker will be same at
⇒ × 100 = 𝛽Δ𝑡 × 100 all the mentioned points A, B and 𝐶 respectively.
A
% change in area = 𝛽Δ𝑡 × 100 So, P1 = P2 = P3
= 𝛽Δ𝑡 × 100 20. (3)
We know that 2 × 𝛼 × Δ𝑡 = 𝛽 × Δ𝑡 W = Q ⋅ ΔV
= 2𝛼Δ𝑡 × 100 ⇒ 2 = 20 × ΔV
= 2(𝛼Δ𝑡 × 100) ⇒ ΔV = 0.1 volt
= 2 × 2 = 4% 21. [6.00] Given,
16. (2) Cross-sectional area of string (A) Capacitance of the capacitor (C) = 2𝜇F
= 0.8 × 10−6 m2 , = 2 × 10−6 F
10−3 Initial potential difference across capacitor
Density of string (𝑑) = 12.5 × 10−6
(V0 ) = 12 V
= 12.5 × 103 Kg/m3
Inductance of the inductor (L) = 0.6mH
Tension in the string (T) = 64 N
= 0.6 × 10−3 H
T
Velocity of the wave (𝑣) = √𝜇 = √𝜌A
T = 6 × 10−4 H
Now potential difference across the capacitor
64 (V) = 6.0 V
=√ Current in the circuit (I) = ?
12.5 × 103 × 0.8 × 10−16
Initially,
32 × 103
=√ = √32 × 200
5
= 80 m/s
𝑌𝑃
17. (1) 𝑣 = √ 𝜌 velocity of the sound in the Finally,
1 𝑣 𝑑
gas 𝑣 ∝ ⇒ 𝑣1 = √𝑑2
√𝜌 2 1

18. (3) Ampere

⇒ Henry is the unit of Inductance
⇒ Coulomb is the unit of change. Now, applying the conservation of energy
⇒ The SI unit of displacement current is Ampere. 1 2 1 2 1 2
CV = LI + CV
19. (1) 2 0 2 2
Now, substituting the values

13
JEE MOCK TEST
 1
× 2 × 10−6 × 122
2
1 1
= × 6 × 10−4 × I2 + × 2 × 10−6 × 62
2 2
⇒ 144 × 10 J = 3I × 10 + 36 × 10−6 J
−6 2 −4

⇒ 3I2 × 10−4 = 144 × 10−6 J − 36 × 10−6 J

108 × 10−6 J
⇒ I2 =
3 × 10−4 Fcos 𝜃 = Mgsin 𝜃
⇒ I = 36 × 10−2
2

⇒ I = √0.36
⇒ I = 0.6 A
⇒ I = 6 × 10−1 A
22. [4.40] As the voltage across the charging
battery,
V = E + I𝑟
= 30 + 15 × 0 = 30 V
So, the potential difference across the resistance BIL cos 𝜃 = Mgsin 𝜃
𝑉𝑅 = 120 − 30 Mg
B= tan 𝜃
= 90 V IL
So, the power wasted in heating the circuit = 0.3 = 3 × 10−1 Tesla
P = VI 24. [1.414]
= 90 × 15
= 1350 W
So, the energy wasted as heat in time 𝑡
H=P×𝑡
= (1350 × 𝑡)J
1350
=( ) × 𝑡 cal.
4.2
Now, if this heat changes the temperature of 1 kg VA − VD = V × B × (ℓsin 45∘ + ℓsin 45∘ )
of water from 15∘ C to 100∘ C, then applying the = 1 × 1 × √2
conservation of energy. = 1.41 V
ℓ 1
Heat lost by the circuit = Heat gain by the water By, sine rule, sin 90∘ = sin 45∘
1350𝑡
= 𝑚𝑐Δ𝜃 ⇒ ℓ = √2 = 1.414
4.2 25. [2.40]
= 1 × 103 × 1 × (100 − 15)
85 × 4.2 × 100
i.e., 𝑡 =
135
= 264.4 s = 4.4 min.
23. [3.00]

50 120 120
= ⇒K= = 2.4
C KC 50

14
JEE MOCK TEST
 Chemistry 30. (3)
22.2 An organic compound having two ketone groups
26. (4) Grams of H2 O = 77.8 × 126 = 35.95
present in double-single conjugated molecule.
35.95
No. of molecules of H2 O = ≃2
18
Hence, hydrate is Na2 SO3 ⋅ 2H2 O
𝜎
27. (3) Cl −
− B𝜎 Cl In BCl3 , B is the central
𝜎
atom which has three hybrid orbitals and 31. (2)
no lone pair, hybridisation of BCl3 , is sp2 A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
and shape is trigonal planar. Zymase obtained from yeast
28. (1) A-II
Diastase is obtained from digestive tract of
animals and also in malt extract.
B-III
Urease is obtained from soyabean.
C-IV
Pepsin is obtained from Stomach.
D-I
32. (1)

CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − NH2

29. (3) 𝑛-butylamine
+ −
33. (2) H2 O ⇌ H + OH
[H + ] ⋅ [OH − ]
Kh =
[H2 O]
⏟2 O] ⋅ K h = [H + ] ⋅ [OH − ] [H3 O+ = OH − ]
[H
Kw
Geometrical isomerism :

K 𝜔 = 10−12
34. (1) H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI
0.4 0.4 2.4
At equ. 5 5 5

15
JEE MOCK TEST
 2.4 2 38. (3) Since the given alkyl halide is a 1∘
( )
Kc = 5 alkyl halide, so it will undergo SN 2
0.4 0.4 mechanism and thus, the rate of the
( )( )
5 5
2.4 × 2.4 reaction is dependent on both the
Kc = reactants.
0.4 × 0.4
5.76 ∴ rate = K[CH3 Br][OH].
Kc =
0.16
Kc = 36
+4 −2
35. (1) [−2 = N = S ]
𝑁 > 𝐶&𝑆 > 𝐶
(in Electronegativity)
36. (2) Resonating structures (II) and (III) will
be unstable as there is positive charge on 39. (2)
electronegative atom (O). Thus (I) will be
maximuum stable. Between (II) and (III),
compound (III) will be more stable as
negative charge present on carbon can
further take part in resonance which can
be shown below.

Therefore, order of stability of the given 40. (2) CH2 = CH − CH2 − OH → CH3 CH2 −
resonating structure is I > III > II. 42. (2) 2CH ≡ CHO
Cu2 Cl2 Allyl alcohol
CHNH4 Cl CH ≡ C − CH = CH2 (Propanol)
Vinylacetylene
Propanol is an isomer of Allyl alcohol.
37. (4) The reaction is Friedel Craft's reaction
and it is an electrophilic substitution
reaction the reaction occurs as follows:

2∘ carbocation is more stable than 1∘ carbocation.

16
JEE MOCK TEST
Dimethyl ketone 2.303 V∞
k= log
Dimethyl ketone phenyl hydrazone 20 V∞ − V𝑡
Both of the hydrazone contain same percentage 2.303 𝑉∞
⇒ 0.008 = log
of nitrogen. 20 𝑉∞ − 16
41. (3) 𝑉∞
⇒ 0.0695 = log
𝑉∞ − 16
⇒ 𝑉∞ = 17.49 mL
47. [4.50] 92 U 238
⟶ 82 Pb206 + 8 2 He4
+ 6−1 e0
20.6
Pb present = = 0.1 g atom = U decayed
206
23.8
U present = = 0.1 g atom
238
Sodium salt of carboxylic acid.
Thus, N = 0.1 g atom
42. (1)
3NaOH
N0 (U present +U decayed )
CH3 NH2 + CHCl3 ⟶ CH3 NC + 3NaCl + 3H2 O = 0.1 + 0.1 = 0.2 g atom
methylamine chloroform methylisocyanide
(Carbylamine) The radioactive decay reaction follows first order
43. (1) LiAlH4 can only reduce COOH group kinetics:
and not the double bond. 2.303 N0
∴𝑡= log
LiAlH4 K N
CH2 = CHCOOH ⟶ CH2 = CH − CH2 OH 0.693
Also, K = t
44. (1) 1/2

The depression in the freezing point of a solution 0.693

=
is directly proportional to the molal concentration 109
2.303×4.5×109 0.2
of the solution. Now, 𝑡 = log10
0.693 0.1
ΔT𝑓 = 𝑖𝑘𝑓 × 𝑚
𝑡 = 4.5 × 109 year
(ΔT𝑓 ) 1 ∘
48. [6.17] E ∘ = EZn/Zn ∘
2+ − EAg/Ag+
A
=
ΔT𝑓 B 4 0.76 − (−0.80) = 1.56
Put the value of ΔT𝑓 in the above the equation 0 0.0591
Ecell = log 𝑘
1g 𝑛
(ΔT𝑓 )A 𝑘𝑓
MA × 1 kg 1.56 × 2
= = log 𝑘
(ΔT𝑓 )B 𝑘 × 1g 0.0591
𝑓 MB × 1 kg log 𝑘 = 52.79
1 MA 𝑘 = 6.17 × 1052
=
4 MB 49. [20].
MA
or = 1: 4 Fe + 3e− → Fe
3+
MB 3 F → 1 mole is deposited
46. [17.49] Given, k = 0.008 min−1 For 56 g → 3 × 96500 (required charge)
From unit of 𝑘, the reaction is of the first order. 3×96500
For 1 g → (required charge)
56
3×96500
For 0.3482 g → × 0.3482
56

17
JEE MOCK TEST
= 1800.06 Q = it 2log e 𝑥
∴ I = 𝑥(log e 𝑥)2 − ∫ 𝑥 ⋅ 𝑑𝑥
1800.06 = 1.5t 𝑥
t = 20 min = 𝑥(log e 𝑥)2 − 2 ∫ log e 𝑥𝑑𝑥
1000×K𝑓 ×𝑤
50. [353] ΔT𝑓 = W×𝑚 Again by parts, we get
= K𝑓 × molality 1
= 1.86 × 1 = 1.86 I = 𝑥(log e 𝑥)2 − 2 [𝑥log e 𝑥 − ∫ 𝑥 ⋅ 𝑑𝑥]
𝑥
Again from above equation 2
= 𝑥(log e 𝑥) − 2𝑥log e 𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 𝑐
𝑤 ΔT𝑓 × 𝑚 53. (1)
=
W K𝑓 × 1000 At least two digit are odd no of sample space
1.86 × 342
= = 0.342
1.86 × 1000
Again 𝑤 + W = 1000
[As weight of solution = 1000 g ]
From equation (3) & (4) we get At least two digit are odd
𝑤 = 254.84 g = exactly two digit are odd + exactly three digit
W = 754.16 g are odd
As the solution freezed up to -3.534 , the wt. of
sucrose remains unchanged.
So, from (i) we get
exactly three digit are odd = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125
1.86 × 1000 × 254.84
3.534 = For exactly two digits are odd
342 × W1
If 0 is used then = 2 × 5 × 5 = 50
W1 = 392.18 g
∴ Ice separated = 745.16 − 392.18
= 352.98 g ≃ 353 g
Mathematics
If 0 is not used = 3 C1 × 4 × 5 × 5
51. (1) Given: |𝑧1 | = |𝑧2 | = |𝑧3 | = 1
= 3 × 4 × 5 × 5 = 300
⇒ |𝑧1 |2 = 1 = 𝑧1 𝑧‾1 300+125+25+7
|𝑧2 |2 = 1 = 𝑧2 𝑧‾2 Required Probability = 900
|𝑧3 |2 = 1 = 𝑧3 𝑧‾3 475
=
1 1 1 900
∵| + + |=1 19
𝑧1 𝑧2 𝑧3 =
𝑧1 𝑧‾1 𝑧2 𝑧‾2 𝑧3 𝑧‾3 36
⇒| + + |=1 54. (4) Curve is 𝑦 2 = 4𝑎𝑥 and 𝑥 2 = 4𝑎𝑦
𝑧1 𝑧2 𝑧3
⇒ |𝑧‾1 + 𝑧‾2 + 𝑧‾3 | = 1
⇒ |𝑧1 + 𝑧2 + 𝑧3 | = 1
⇒ |𝑧1 + 𝑧2 + 𝑧3 | = 1
52. (2) I = ∫ 1 ⋅ (log e 𝑥)2 𝑑𝑥
Using integration by patrs, take 1 as second
function

18
JEE MOCK TEST
Intersection points are (0,0) and (4𝑎, 4𝑎) 𝑒
given 𝑦(𝑒) =
4𝑎 𝑥2 3
So, Area = ∫0 (√4𝑎𝑥 − 4𝑎) 𝑑𝑥 𝑒 2𝑒
3× =
Given that, Area = 1 3 log 𝑒 𝑒 − 𝑐
4𝑎
𝑥2 2
⇒ ∫ (√4𝑎𝑥 − ) 𝑑𝑥 = 1 ⇒ 1=
0 4𝑎 1−𝑐
4𝑎 ∴ 1−𝑐=2
2 3 𝑥3 𝑐 = 1 − 2 = −1
⇒ [√4𝑎 ⋅ 𝑥 2 − ] =1
3 12𝑎 0 2𝑥
log 𝑥 = −1
2 (4𝑎)3 3𝑦
⇒ (4𝑎)2 − =1 𝑐 = 1 − 2 = −1
3 12𝑎
√3 2𝑥
⇒ 𝑎= ∴ 3𝑦 =
4 log 𝑥 + 1
55. (2) 1 2𝑥
⇒ 𝑦= ( )
𝑑𝑦 2𝑥𝑦 − 3𝑦 2 3 log 𝑥 + 1
= Put 𝑥 = 1
𝑑𝑥 2𝑥 2
Which is Homogeneous linear differential 1 2×1 2
𝑦(1) = × =
equation of first order 3 log 1 + 1 3
Put = 𝑥 ⋅ 𝑣 𝑎𝑥+𝑏
56. (3) 𝑦 = 𝑥 2−5𝑥+4
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑣
=𝑥⋅ +𝑣 (𝑎𝑥 2 − 5𝑎𝑥 + 4𝑎) − (𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏)(2𝑥 − 5)
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥 ′
⇒𝑦 =
𝑑𝑣 2𝑥 ⋅ 𝑥𝑣 − 3𝑥 2 𝑣 2 (𝑥 − 1)2 (𝑥 − 4)2
𝑥 +𝑣= 2
−𝑎𝑥 + 4𝑎 − 2𝑏𝑥 + 5𝑏
𝑑𝑥 2𝑥 2
=
𝑑𝑣 2𝑣 − 3𝑣 2 (𝑥 − 1)2 (𝑥 − 4)2
𝑥 +𝑣=
𝑑𝑥 2 Since, 𝑦 has extremum at (2, −1)
𝑑𝑣 2𝑣 − 3𝑣 2 2𝑣 − 3𝑣 2 − 2𝑣 ∴ 𝑦 ′ (2, −1) = 0
𝑥 = −𝑣 =
𝑑𝑥 2 2 ⇒ −4𝑎 + 4𝑎 − 𝑏 =0
2
𝑑𝑣 −3𝑣 ⇒
⇒ 𝑥 =
𝑑𝑥 2 =0
𝑑𝑥 −2 and 2𝑎 + 𝑏 =2
∫ =∫ 𝑑𝑣 (∵ (2, −1) lies on the curve)
𝑥 3𝑣 2
−2 −1 Put 𝑏 = 0 in above equation
log 𝑥 = × +𝑐
3 𝑣 ⇒ 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 0
2𝑥 57. (1) 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 + 𝜆𝑥 + 1
log 𝑥 = +𝑐
3𝑦 Differentiating w.r.t. 𝑥, we get
2𝑥 𝑓 ′ (𝑥) = 3𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 + 𝜆 + 0 < 0
log 𝑥 − 𝑐 =
3𝑦 Also, 𝑓(𝑥) is a monotonically decreasing
2𝑥 function for 𝑥 ∈ (−2, −2/3)
3𝑦 =
log 𝑥 − 𝑐 2
⇒ (𝑥 + 2) (𝑥 + ) < 0
3
2 4
⇒ 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 𝑥 + < 0
3 3

19
JEE MOCK TEST
 8 4 61. (3)
⇒ 𝑥2 + 𝑥 + < 0
3 3
2
⇒ 3𝑥 + 8𝑥 + 4 < 0
Comparing equation (1) and (2),
we get, 𝜆 = 4
58. (1)
𝑦 = 𝑥 loge 𝑥 ∴ Domain of 𝑓 −1 (𝑥)
⇒ log 𝑦 = log 𝑥 ⋅ log 𝑛 = range of 𝑓(𝑥)
1 𝑑𝑦 2log 𝑛
= = {−1,0,7,26}
𝑦 𝑑𝑥 𝑥 62. (3) log1/3 (𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1) > −1
2log e 𝑥𝑥 loge 𝑥
= 1 −1
𝑥 ⇒ 𝑥2 + 𝑥 + 1 < ( )
tan 𝑥log (𝑥−2) 3
59. (2) 𝑓(𝑥) = (𝑥 2 ; 𝑥 ∈ (2,4) − 2
𝑥 +𝑥+1>0⇒𝑥 ∈R
−4𝑥+3)
{3, 𝜋} ⇒ 𝑥2 + 𝑥 + 1 < 3
Now, lim𝑥→𝜋 𝑓(𝑥) = lim𝑥→𝜋
tan 𝑥log (𝑥−2) ⇒ 𝑥2 + 𝑥 − 2 < 0
𝑥 2 −4𝑥+3
tan 𝜋log (𝜋 − 2) ⇒ (𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 + 2) < 0
= =0 ⇒ 𝑥 ∈ (−2,1)
𝜋 2 − 4𝜋 + 3
1 63. (2) (𝑦 − 1)(𝑦 − 3) … … (𝑦 − 99)
and 𝑓(𝜋) = 6 tan 𝜋 = 0
Total term is 50
∴ 𝑓(𝑥) is continuous at 𝑥 = 𝜋 So, coefficient of 𝑦 49 is −(1 + 3 + 5 +
1 tan 𝑥log (𝑥−2)
Now, 𝑓(3) = 6 tan 3 and lim𝑥→3 ⋯ . . +99)
𝑥 2 −4𝑥+3
tan 𝑥log (𝑥 − 2) 50
= lim = − [2 + 49 × 2]
𝑥→3 (𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 − 3) 2
tan 𝑥log (1+𝑥−3) = −2500
i.e., lim𝑥→3 𝑓(𝑥) = lim𝑥→3 (𝑥−1)(𝑥−3) 64. (4) 𝛼, 𝛽 are the roots of
tan 𝑥 log (1 + 𝑥 − 3) 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 − 𝑞 = 0
= lim × lim
𝑥→3 𝑥 − 1 𝑥→3 𝑥−3 𝛼 + 𝛽 = −𝑝
tan 3 1 𝛼𝛽 = −𝑞
∴ lim𝑥→3 𝑓(𝑥) = × 1 = tan 3
2 2 𝛾, 𝛿 are the roots of
⇒ lim𝑥→3 𝑓(𝑥) ≠ 𝑓(3)
𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑟 = 0
Hence, 𝑓(𝑥) is discontinuous at 𝑥 = 3. 𝛾 + 𝛿 = −𝑝,
Number of values of 𝑥, where 𝑓(𝑥) is ⇒
𝛾𝛿 = 𝑟
discontinuous, is 1 . Therefore,
𝑥+7 𝑥+4
60. (4) Let A = lim𝑥→∞ (1 + 𝑥+2) 𝛾𝛿 = 𝑟
(𝛼 − 𝛾)(𝛼 − 𝛿)
Above limit has indeterminate form of 1∞
𝑥+7 =𝛼 2 − 𝛼(𝛾 + 𝛿) + 𝛾𝛿
So, A = 𝑒 lim𝑥→0 [𝑥+2−1](𝑥+4) =𝛼 2 + 𝑝𝛼 + 𝑟
5
⇒ A = 𝑒 lim𝑥→∞ [𝑥+2](𝑥+4) ∵ 𝛼 is root of
⇒ A = 𝑒5 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 − 𝑞 = 0
⇒ 𝛼 2 + 𝑝𝛼 = 𝑞

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JEE MOCK TEST
⇒ (𝛼 − 𝛾)(𝛼 − 𝛿) = 𝑞 + 𝑟
30
65. (3) 𝑑 = 𝑛+1
1 + 7𝑑 5
∵ =
1 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 9
30
1 +7𝑛 +1 5 Distance between two pins = 𝑆𝑆 ′ = 2𝑎𝑒
⇒ =
30 Here,
1 + (𝑛 − 1) 𝑛 + 1 9
On solving, we get 𝑏2 4 √5
𝑒 = √1 − 2
= √1 − =
146𝑛 = 2044 𝑎 9 3
⇒ 𝑛 = 14
3(1)+4(2)−7 √5
66. (4) Required ratio = − 3(−2)+4(1)−7 ∴ 2𝑎𝑒 = 2 × 3 × = 2√5
3
3+8−7 Length of string = SPSS ′
=−
−6 + 4 − 7 = SP + S ′ P + SS ′
4 4 = 2𝑎 + 2𝑎𝑒
=− =
−9 9 = 6 + 2√5
= 4: 9 ∴ Length of string = 6 + 2√5 and distance
28+16+9+𝜆
67. (4) 𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑛: =7 between pins = 2√5
8
⇒ 0 𝜆=3 70. (1) Foci of ellipse (−4,0)(4,0)
Variance : 9 = 25(1 − 𝑒 2 )
22 +12 +42 +12 4
So, 𝜎 2 = 𝑒=
8
5
11
⇒ 𝜎2 = focus (4,0) of hyperbola
4 𝑒=2
11
Variance = 4 𝑏 2 = 𝑎2 (𝑒 2 − 1)
68. (4) 𝑎𝑒 = 4
2 𝑎=2
Use 𝑡1 + 𝑡2 = − ⇒ 𝑎2 = 4
𝑡1
𝑏 2 = 12
Here, 2𝑎𝑡1 = 2 equation of hyperbola
⇒ 2 ⋅ 1 ⋅ 𝑡1 = 2 𝑥2 𝑦2
⇒ 𝑡1 = 1 and − =1
4 12
And 2𝑎𝑡2 = 2𝑡 𝜋 5𝜋 𝜋
71. [7.00] Use 7 + 14 = 2 and
⇒ 2 ⋅ 1 ⋅ 𝑡2 = 2.5 𝜋
⇒ 𝑡2 = 𝑡 sin ( − 𝜃) = cos 𝜃
2
2
From (1), 1 + 𝑡 = − 1 Now, 𝑓(𝑥) + 𝑔(𝑥) = sin 𝑥cos 𝑥(cos 2 𝑥 +
= −2 sin2 𝑥)
⇒ 𝑡 = −3 = sin 𝑥cos 𝑥
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
69. (4) Given, 2𝑎 = 6 and 2𝑏 = 4 ⇒ 𝑓 ( ) + 𝑔 ( ) = sin ⋅ cos
∴ 𝑎 = 3 and 𝑏 = 2 7 7 7 7
𝜋 5𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋
= sin ( − ) cos ( − )
2 14 2 14

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JEE MOCK TEST
 5𝜋 5𝜋
= cos sin
14 14
5𝜋 5𝜋
= 𝑔( )+𝑓( )
14 14
𝜋 𝜋
𝑓( )+𝑔( )
7 7
Now, 7 [ 5𝜋 5𝜋 ]=7
𝑔( )+𝑓( )
14 14
72. [8.00] 𝑦 = 1 + (tan2 𝜃 + cot 2 𝜃) +
(sec 2 𝜃 + cosec 2 𝜃)
⇒ 𝑦 = 1 + sec 2 𝜃 − 1 + cosec 2 𝜃 − 1
+ sec 2 𝜃
⇒ 𝑦 = 2(sec 2 𝜃 + cosec 2 𝜃) − 1
+cosec 2 𝜃
2
= −1
sin 𝜃cos2 𝜃
2

⇒ 𝑦 = 8cosec 2 2𝜃 − 1
𝑦 is least if cosec 2 2𝜃 = 1
⇒ cosec 2𝜃 = ±1,2𝜃 ∈ (0,8𝜋)
𝜋 3𝜋 5𝜋 7𝜋 9𝜋 11𝜋 13𝜋 15𝜋
⇒ 2𝜃 = , , , , , , ,
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Total = 8
73. [7.00] From cosine rule, 𝑎2 = 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 −
2𝑏𝑐cos A
⇒ 𝑐 2 − 3𝑐 − 7 = 0
16 = 9 + 𝑐 2 − 2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 𝑐cos 60∘
2𝑥
74. [3.00] Given: 𝜃 = sin−1 (1+𝑥 2) +
1−𝑥 2 3
cos−1 (1+𝑥 2) ; 𝑥 ≥ 2
⇒ 𝜃 = 𝜋 − 2tan−1 𝑥 + 2tan−1 𝑥
⇒𝜃=𝜋
cos 𝜋 + sin 𝜋 + 4 −1 + 4
∴ = = −3
sec 𝜋 −1
75. [7.00] Required number of ways
= Total when all A's seperated - Total when A's
separated and H's are together
7!
= ( 8 C4 ) − 6! ( 7 C4 )
2!
7! ⋅ 6!
= (6) = 41 ⋅ 52 ⋅ 63 ⋅ 71
4! .3!
Now, 4𝑎 ⋅ 5𝑏 ⋅ 6𝑐 ⋅ 7𝑑
= 41 ⋅ 52 ⋅ 63 ⋅ 71
⇒𝑎+𝑏+𝑐+𝑑 = 1+2+3+1= 7

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JEE MOCK TEST