Parasitology:

🔺Prosthogonimus = Radial stage is absent

🔺Dicrocoelium =Radial stage is absent

🔺Schistosomiasis =Radial& Metacercarial stage is absent

🔺Nanophytes salminicola=Sporocyst absent

🔺Nodular tapeworm of Ruminants=Stilesia globipunctata

🔺Nodular tape worm of poultry= Railletina echinobothridia

🔺Double pored ruminant tapeworm=Moniezia expansa

🔺Double pored poultry tapeworm=Cotugnia diagnopora

🔺Double pored Dog tape worm =Dipylidium caninum

Milk spots: Ascaris suum

Balling up in horse: Parascaris equorum

Mud colour faeces: Toxocara vitulorum

Rat tail appearance: Oxyuris equi

Black head: Heterakis gallinae (Egg carrier of Histomonas meleagridis)

Parasitic otitis: Rabditis bovis

Black scours: Trichostrongylus worms

Villous atrophy: Trochostrongylus and Nematodirus

Ringworm lesions: Trichostrogylus

Morocco leather: Ostertagia ostertagi

Pulpy kidney disease (with Cl. welchi): nematodirus

Swimmer’s itch: Schistosoma spp (non human)

Foot rot in sheep: Strongyloides papillosus

Pimply gut: Oesophagostomum spp

Colic in horse: Cythiostomum tetracanthum

“Morocco leather” appearance associated with: Ostertagia ostertagi

“Ring worm like lesions” associated with: Trichostrongylus spp

“Horse shoe” shaped ovary: Echinococcus granulosus

“Boot” shaped spicule: Dictyocaulus filariae

“Heart” shaped spicule: Nematodirus baltus

“Lancet” shaped spicule: Nematodirus fillicolis

“Spoon” shaped spicule: Nematodirus spathiger

“Y” shaped dorsal ray: Haemonchus contortus

Recurved spicules: Gaigeria pachyscelis

No spicule: Trichinella spiralis

Black scours worm: Trichostrongylus colubriformis

Barber’s pole worm/ wire worm/ large stomach worm/ twisted stomach worm: Haemonchus
contortus

Eyeworm of poultry: Oxyspirura mansoni

Brown stomach worm: Ostertagia ostertagi

Red stomach worm of pig: Hyostrongylus rubidus

Fox hook worm: Uncinaria stenocephala

Pig hook worm: Globocephalus (G. urosubulatus, G. longimucornatus)

Elephant hook worm: Barthomostomus (B. sangeri), Grammocephalus clatheratus

Lungworm of dog: Filaroides osleri

Lungworm of cat: Aleurostrongylus spp

Lungworm of rat: Angiostrongylus cantonensis- causes “eosinophilic meningio encephalitis”

in man

Eddy worm: Class Turbellaria

Larva with “S” shaped tail: Filaroides osleri

Nurse cells characteristic of Trichinella spiralis

Clutching of Toes =Marek‘s disease

🎗️Vitamin-A- sparer=Vitamin E
🎗️Vitamin-E-sparer=Selenium

🎗️Protein sparer=Growth hormone

🎗️Fat sparer = Insulin hormone

🎗️ATP sparer =Creatinine phosphate

🎗️Rhinorrhagia=Large quantity Bleeding from nostrils

🎗️Haemoptysis=Bleeding from lung

🎗️Haematemosis=Bleeding from stomach

🎗️Osteoclastomas=Egg-shell crackling
Or Giant cell tumor
Dog flesh consumption = Kynophagia

🎗️Largest organ in the Body=Skin

🎗️Largest gland in the body=Liver

🎗️Largest lymphoid organ in the Body=Spleen

🎗️Abdominal salivary gland=Pancreas

🎗️Duct of gall bladder is called=Cystic duct

🎗️Duct of liver= Hepatic duct

🎗️Crackling noise of muscle due to=Clostridium welchii

🎗️Egg-shell crackling noise of bone=Osteoclastoma or Giant cell tumor

🎗️Hotis test=For staphylococcus aureus

🎗️Dick Test= For Streptococcus pyogens

🎗️CAMP Test=Streptococcus agalactiae

🎗️Optochin test=Difference between the Pneumococcus & str.viridans

🎗️Cortico-steriod therapy are contraindicated in Demodicosis

🎗️Acidic PH will favour the absorption of calcium from the intestine(Duodenum)

🎗️Paird muscle =Ischiocavernosus

🎗️Unpaird muscle=Diaphragm

🎗️Shortest cranial nerve=Vestibulocochlear

🎗️Longest cranial nerve=Vagus

🎗️Trematodes have no bodycavity

🎗️In trematodes excretory function is caried out by flame cells

#Biochemistry of semen

👉Fructose is the normal sugar providing energy to spermatozoa in ruminants

👉Fructose is low in boar,very low jn stallion and #absent in dog

👉Seminal vesicles are absent in dog and cat

👉Fructose is mainly produced in seminal vesicles and is derived from glucose

👉The avarage level of fructose in (mg/100 ml ) are

#500 in bull

#250 in sheep and goat

#10 in boar

#2 in stallion

#Absent in dog

👉Inositol (from seminal vesicles) occur in high concentration in boar semen and act as
#chiefly osmotic pressure regulator

👉Ergothioneine secreted from vesicular gland and present in boar and Stallion in
appreciable amount

👉Ergothioneine is uniquely present in stallion ampullarry gland

🎗️Trematodes have no Anus

🎗️All trematodes are hermaphrodite excepts Schistosomes

Catgut obtained from sub-mucosa of – Sheep

🔺 Horse is which type of animal – Seasonally polyestrous

🔺 Drug inhibiting cell wall synthesis – Penicillin

🔺 Organism devoid of cell wall – Mycoplasma

🔺 Microscopic lesion in bse - Vacuolation of neurons

🔺Cyclozoonosis related to – Ecchinococcosis

🔺 Long acting local anesthetic – Bupivaquone

🔺Accepted fluoride content in water – 1mg / lit water

🔺Vector for leishmaniasis – Phlebotomus

🔺Stomach fluke of bovine – Paramphistomiasis

🔺Pipe stem liver is caused by - Fasciola hepatica

🔺 Organism not having filaments – Mycobacterium

🔺Irritable non ionic drug should be administered in which route – Intravenous

🔺Example of brachiocephalic breed – Pug

🔺Acute gangrenos myositis associated with – Black quarter

🔺Organism causing interstitial nephritis – Leptospira

🔺Most abundant leukocytes type in bovines – Lymphocyte

🔺Blood cells containing granules toxic to parasite – Eosinophils

Steroidal anti inflammatory drugs

(SAIDS)
 
Sr.
No Name of
. Drugs Dose T.N. WITH PRESANTATION Indications
Acute
inflammatio
n bursitis,
tendinitis,
arthritis,
allergic skin
disease,
hyper
sensitivity
reaction,
shock,
toxemia,
stress from
trauma,
ketosis
ophthalmic
inflammator
y conditions 
Avoid use
in late preg
nancy rece
nt
Inj. DEXONA(4.4mg/ml)… major surg
5ml(zydus) ery, deep
corneal
Tab. DEXONA(0.5mg)… ulceration 
Total dose 10’S(zydus) diabetes
Cattle : 10 – 30 mg mellitus ca
Inj.
Calf/G/S :2-5 mg DEXAMETHASONE(4mg/ml)..5 rdiac in
ml insufficienc
Dog : 0.5 – 2 mg
dexamet y
Inj. GOLDEX(4mg/ml).10,30ml
hasone Cat : 0.25 – 0.5 mg of renal dis
1. Inj. MORDEX(4mg/ml)…10ml eases.
(glucocor for induction of parturition
  ticoid) LA:40mg    
Arthritis,
tendocynovi
tis, myositis,
bovine
ketosis, and
other
inflammator
y condition.
Pregnancy,
glaucoma,
inj. VETALOG(6mg/ml)… cardiac
5ml(zydus) insufficienc
y,
tab. KENACORT(4mg)… osteoporos
Triamcin 10’S(AHPL) is, diabetes
olone inj.  KENACORT(10mg/ml)… mellitus,
(glucocor 1ml(AHPL) renal
ticoid) C/H/D:10-20mg(TD) disease.
inj.  KENACORT(40mg/ml)…
2.   D: 0.5mg/kg PO BID/TID 1ml(AHPL)  
 Pregnancy
toxemia
induction of
Parturition
and ketosis
Avoid
in late
pregnancy,
recent
major
surgery,
deep
Corneal
ulceration 
diabetes
mellitus ca
rdiac
insufficienc
Inj. BETAVET(4mg/ml)…
y
5ml(tineta)
and renal d
Inj.  BETNESOL(4mg/ml)… iseases.
1ml(GSK)
Total dose (IM,IV)  
Inj. BETAZON(4mg)…5ml
C : 10 – 30 mg  
Betameth tab.  BETNESOL(0.5mg)…
Calf/G/S :2 – 5 mg  
asone 10’s(GSK)
Dog : 0.5 – 2 mg  
(glucocor tab.  BETNESOL FORT(1mg)…
3. ticoid) Cat : 0.25 – 0.5 mg 10’s  
Sr.
No Name of
. Drugs Dose T.N. WITH PRESANTATION Indications
4. predenis C/H: 10-20 ml T.D. Inj. PREDENISOLONE…10ml Arthritis,
olone myositis,
Calf :2.5 – 5 ml (T.D.) Inj.  PREDENISOLONE…
tendinitis,
(10mg/ml 10ml(MSD)
D/cat:1-3ml (T.D.) bursitis,
)
Local treatment Inj. SOLON…10ml inflammatio
(Glucoco ns, allergic
tab. WYSOLONE
rticoid)  LA. 2.5 – 7.5 ml (T.D.) bronchitis,
D/C : 0.5 – 2 ml (T.D.) asthma,
CANINEATROPY,                C Food
ONTACTALLERGY, FLEA allergy.  
ALLERGY -
D:0.5mg/ kg BW BID Hydrocepha
lus, atropy,
PO for 5 – 10 days. contact &
URETHRITIS,PERSISTENT food allergy.
HAEMATURIA   Urethritis,
Persistent
Cat:2.5 -5mg in every
haematuria.
24- 48 hrs PO  
 
 
 
Glaucoma,
Pregnancy,
degenerati
ve, joint
 disease,
osteoporos
is, fracture,
diabetes
Mellitus,
infections
renal
disease.  
Bovine
ketosis,
lameness
and same
as above.
isofluperi
done In late
C/B:10-20 mg pregnancy
(2mg/ml) it may
H: 5-20mg (TD)
(glucocor induce
5. ticoid) Intrasynoveal 5-20mg TD Inj. ISOFLUD…5,10ml(zydus) parturition.
Methyl Inj. SOLU-MEDROL(500mg)…
prednisol 4,8ml
one
Inj. SOLU-MEDROL(1g)… Shock CNS
sodium
8ml,16ml trauma
succinate
Inj. SOLU-MEDROL(2g)…  
(corticost D: 30mg/kg BW and repeat at
30.6ml
6. eroid) 15mg/kg BW in 2-6hrs IV  
(intralesiona
l) therapy
intra
articulor
therapy
inflammator
y conditions.
Use of
methyl
prednisolo
ne is
carefully
b/c once
gluco
D: 1 mg / kg BW every corticoid
Methyl effect
predenis 1- 3 wks IM occurs that
olone
cat :10 – 20 mg/cat persist
acetate several
every 1- 3 weeks IM
(corticost Inj. DEPO- days to
7. eroid)   MEDROL(40mg/ml).1,2,5ml wks.
SOME IMPORTANT POINTS OF ANGIOLOGY 💉💊

👉Internal iliac artery is otherwise known as hypogastric artery.

👉A large common trunk of interior iliac artery in male is divided into umbilical
and vesical whereas in female umbilical and middle uterine artery
👉Middle uterine artery supplies the horn and body of uterus.

👉The hindlimb is supplied with blood by external iliac artery

👉Popliteal artery is the continuation of femoral artery

👉Popliteus is supplied by posterior tibial artery

👉 Internal jugular vein is formed by the union of occipital, thyroid and laryngeal branches.

👉 Cephalic vein is the continuation of medial metacarpal vein.

👉Accessory cephalic vein is formed by dorsal metacarpal vein.

👉 In horse, the spur vein is known as subcutaneous thoracic vein.

👉 Posterior vena cava is formed by union of two common iliac veins.

Saphenous vein is thesubcutaneous vein on the medial aspect of thigh and leg.

👉 Recurrent tarsal vein of hindlimb is used for giving I / V injection.

👉Cephalic vein of forelimb is used for giving I / V injection.

👉External jugular vein is used for giving I / V injection in large animals.

👉 Internal jugular vein is absent in horse

👉Two main lymphatic ducts in the body are thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
Thoracic duct arises from the cisterna chyli

👉 Cisterna chyli is a reservoir of lymph formed by the union of lumbar and gastrointestinal
trunk
🎗️SOME IMPORTANT POINTS OF NEUROLOGY 🎗️

🔺Meninges consist of duramater, arachnoid and piamater from without inward.

🔺The space between the arachnoid and piamater is called subarachnoid space.

🔺The space between the duramater and arachnoid is called subdural space.

🔺Olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve.

🔺The lingual gyri consists of vision area.

🔺The inferior cervical ganglion unites with first thoracic ganglion to form the stellate
ganglion.

🔺Jugular ganglion is seen in the vagus nerve.

🔺Cauda equine is seen in the spinal cord

🔺The three branches of the Trigeminal nerve are ophthalmic, maxillary and
mandibular nerve.

🔺Trigeminal nerve is the largest cranial nerve.

🔺The finest cranial nerve is Trochlear nerve

🔺The widest distributed cranial nerve is vagus nerve

🔺Two major divisions of the autonomic NS are sympathetic and parasympathetic

🔺The dorsal surface of the corpus callosum is covered by a gray matter called
indusium griseum
🔺Nerve to diaphragm is phrenic nerve

🔺Lumbo sacral plexus is formed by the last three lumbar and first two sacral spinal
nerves.

🔺Longest cranial nerve in the body is vagus

🔺Sensory nerve to eye is optic nerve

🔺Motor nerves to eye are oculomotor, trochlear and abducent nerves

🔺The three nerves arising from the anterior division of the lumbo sacral plexus are
iliopsoas, femoral and obturator nerve....
 Learning ability, starting about the age of six, rapidly grows till the age of 20, then it 
begins to level off until around 50. The rate of learning declines about one per cent a year after
the 
age of 35)
Byssinosis=Cotton dust or Lint dust

🔺Anthracosis= Carbon particles

🔺Silicosis=Stone deposition

🔺Siderosis=Iron dust deposition

🔺Chalicosis=cement deposition

🔺Asbestosis=Asbestos dust

🔺Estrogen=Mammary alveolar duct development

Hormones involved in milking process

🔺Progesteron=Mammary alveolar gland development

🔺Prolactin=Keep the alveoli as functionally

🔺Oxytocin=Milk letdown process

🔺Hemlock poisoning=Arsenic&Mice smell

🔺Cyanide poisoning= Bitter almond smell

🔺Phosphorus poisonining =Garlic odor

🔺Hydrogen sulfied poisonining =Rotten eggs odor

🔺Selenium toxicity=Rotten garlic odor

🔺Urea toxicity=Strong ammonical odor in Rumen

🔺Zinc phosphide toxicity=Acetylene odor

🔺Ketosis=Fruity odor

🔺Rubber jaw=Calcium deficiency in Dog

🔺Bottlejaw=Amphistomiasis,Fasciolosis,Hook worm infection

🔺Lumpy jaw=Actinomyces bovis

🔺Honey combed jaw=Actinomyces bovis

Infective stage of schistosoma – Cercaria

🔺 Cuboni test for pregnancy diagnosis done in which animal – Mare

🔺 Duration of spermatogenesis in buffalo – 64 days

🔺Drainage of middle ear provided through – Zepps operation

🔺 Feline distemper is known as – Feline panleukopenia

🔺Ketone bodies in the urine is due to – Hypoglycemia

🔺 Smallest virus – FMD virus

🔺 Breech presentation is also known as – Posterior longitudinal

🔺 Diagnosis of camphylobactor is done by – Vaginal mucous agglutination test

🔺 Dolphins and whales breath through- Lungs

🔺Agar contains - Carbohydrates

🔺 Raw egg feeding in dogs causes deficiency of – Biotin

🔺Paralysis of hind quarters is known as – Paraplegia

🔺Garlic odour of food content is seen in -Phosphorus poisonining

🔺Antidote for lead poisoning – Ca-Na EDTA

🔺 Bronze coloured liver is seen in Fowl typhoid

🔺 Ulcers in abomasum is seen in –Theileriosis

🔺Caecal coccidiosis is caused by – Eimeria tenella

🔺Sugar needed for multiplication of brucella – Erythrital

🔺Brucella ovis in sheep causes – Epididymitis

Ectoparasite is a parasite that lives on the surface of a host e.g. Fleas, ticks, lice, flies etc.
👉Endoparasites are parasites that live inside the body of the host e.g. Flukes, tapeworms,
roundworms etc.

👉Obligate parasites are parasites that cannot complete their life cycle without spending a
part of their life cycle on the host e.g. trematodes.

👉Facultative parasites are not normally parasitic but become parasitic when they
accidentally find a host, E.g. Naegleria fowleri in humans causing primary amoebic
meningitis and Chrysomyia sp. larva in wound

👉Accidental parasites are free living organisms that enter or attaches to the host by
accident and leads a short parasitic existence. E.g. Larva of Musca domestica in hosts

👉Incidental parasite is a parasite found in a host that is not its original host e.g. Toxocara
vitulorum in goats

👉Permanent parasites are those that spend their entirelife cycle in or on the body of the
host e.g. lice

👉Temporary parasites are those whose life cycles are not spent entirely on the host and are
seen only for certain periods of time (short or long duration) E.g.mosquitoes and bugs.
01. Constant presence of a disease in a perticular area is termed as- 

 (a) Endemic (b) Epidemic
 (c) Pandemic (d) Sporadic

02. Total number of new cases in a population over a given period of time is-?
 (a) Pathogenecity (b) Prevalence
 (c) Incidence (d) Virulence

03. Animal host that shed infectious agent during recovery or even after recovery -?
 (a) Paretenic host (b) Reservoir host
 (c) Amplifier host (d) Convalescent carrier
04. Representation of disease dynamics & effects of different control stratagies by using 
mathematical equations is-
 (a) Surveillance (b) Monitoring
 (c) Modelling (d) Screening

05. Ability of a strain of microbe to cause disease -?

 (a) Virulence (b) Exaltation
 (c) Pathogenecity (d) Attenuation

06. Which is an example of obligatory cyclozoonosis -?

 (a) Hydatidosis (b) Rabies
 (c) Taeniosis (d) Yellow fever

07. Which is an example of direct zoonosis -?

 (a) Hydatidosis (b) Rabies
 (c) Taenia solium (d) Yellow fever

08. Which is the following is mismatched-?

 (a) Type 1 metazoonosis- Yellow fever 

 (b) Type 3 metazoonosis- Paragonimiosis

 (c) Non-obligatory cyclozoonosis- 

Hydatidosis

 (d) Type 4 metazoonosis- Tick born encephalitis 

09. Extrinsic incubation period is characteristic of-?

 (a) Direct zoonosis (b) Cyclozoonosis
 (c) Saprozoonosis (d) Metazoonosis

10. Type of zoonosis that requires a non-animate object for completion of life cycle in addition
to vertebrate or invertebrate host?
 (a) Direct zoonosis (b) Cyclozoonosis
 (c) Saprozoonosis (d) Metazoonosis

11. Leptospirosis is an example of -

 (a) Anthropozoonosis (b) Cyclozoonosis
 (c) Saprozoonosis (d) Amphixenosis

12. Microflora best growth at 20-450C temperature-

 (a) Psychrophilic (b) Thermophilic
 (c) Mesophilic (d) Amphiphilic
13. Disease which is normally passes from man to other vertebrate animals-
 (a) Anthrapozoonoses (b) Zooanthroponoses
 (c) Saprozoonosis (d) Amphixenoses

14. Infection acquired in hospital is termed as-

 (a) Iatrogenic (b) Notifiable
 (c) Nosocomial (d) Opportunistic

15. Disease spreading over a wide geographical area is-

 (a) Endemic (b) Epidemic
 (c) Pandemic (d) Sporadic

16. Fomits are-

 (a) Inanimate vectors (b) Carrier vector
 (c) Reservoir vector (d) Mechanical vector

17. Unit of an epidemiological examination-?

 (a) Individual (b) Family
 (c) Population (d) Group

18. Survey is the examination of aggregate of:-

 (a) Individuals (b) Units
 (c) Social group (d) Family

19. World zoonoses day is celebrated on-?

 (a) 6th July 
(b) 11th July
 (c) 28th September
 (d) 26th November

20. A zoonoses with long history is called -?

 (a) Xenozoonoses (b) Direct zoonoses
 (c) Lingering zoonoses (d) Reverse zoonoses

21. A host, agent & environment forms -?

 (a) Epidemiological factor
 (b) Epidemiological triad
 (c) Web of disease causation
 (d) None of the above
22. Focus of infection is termed as-
 (a) Fomite (b) Niche
 (c) Nidus (d) Screening 

23. Disease which do not produce any overt clinical signs-?

 (a) Subclinical (b) Subacute
(c) Peracute (d) Sporadic

24. Headquarter of World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) -?

 (a) Paris (b) Italy
 (c) Rome (d) Geneva

25. Coombs’ test is a diagnostic test for-?

 (a) Rabies (b) Anthrax
 (c) Brucellosis (d) Q-fever

 
26. Which is an example of occupational zoonoses-?
 (a) Woolsorter’s disease 
(b) Sugarcane workers disease
 (c) Slaughterhouse worker’s disease
 (d) All the above

27. Which is not an example of rickettsial zoonoses-?

 (a) Q-fever
 (b) Crimean congo hemorrhagic fever
 (c) Rocky mountain spotted fever 
(d) Scrub typhus

28. Causative agent of Scarlet fever-?

 (a) Stapylococcus aureus
 (b) Streptococcus pyogenes
 (c) Brucella abortus 
(d) Mycoplasma mycoides

29. Which is not a form of human anthrax-?

 (a) Intestinal form (b) Pulmonary form
 (c) Cutaneous form (d) Nervous form

30. Index organism for pasteurization of milk-?

 (a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 
(b) Burkholderia mallei
 (c) Aphtho virus
 (d) Coxiella burnetti

31. Smallest spatial unit which provide all possible conditions of life-?
 (a) Niche (b) Biotope
 (c) Biocenosis (d) Ecosystem

32. Attenuation is-?

 (a) Enhancement of virulence
 (b) Enhancement of pathogenecity
 (c) Reduction of virulence 
(d) Reduction of pathogenecity

33. Which is the following is mismatched-?

 (a) Census: Survey conducted over total animal population
 (b) Surveillance: Continuous daily watchfullness
 (c) Prevalence: No distinction between old & new cases of disease
 (d) Iatrogenic infection: Physician induced infection

34. Identification of undiagnosed cases of disease by using rapid tests-

 (a) Monitoring (b) Surveillance
 (c) Screening (d) Control

35. Reduction of morbidity & mortality from the disease-?

 (a) Control (b) Prevention
 (c) Screening (d) Vaccination

36. Time period between infection & availability of an infectious agent in an arthropod vector-?
 (a) Incubation period (b) Prepatent period
(c) Extrinsic incubation period (d) Serial interval

37. Capillary agglutination test is used to diagnose-?

 (a) KFD (b) Brucellosis
 (c) Q-fever (d) Listeriosis

38. Which is the following is mismatched-?

 (a) Widal test: Typhoid
 (b) Schick test: Tuberculosis
 (c) Dick test: Scarlet fever 
(d) Casoni test: Hydatidosis

39. Occupational disease caused by constant inhalation of coal dust-?

 (a) Byssinosis (b) Anthracosis
 (c) Silicosis (d) Siderosis
40. Which of the following drinking water poisoning is not correctly matched-?
 (a) Itai-Itai: Cadmium 
(b) Black foot disease: Arsenic
 (c) Minamata disease: Mercury
 (d) Blue baby disease: Lead

41. Commonly used cheap, effective & reliable method for large scale purification of water-?
 (a) Chlorination (b) Filtration
 (c) Superchlorination (d) Ozonization

42. Widely used method for sterilization of swimming pool water-?

 (a) Chlorination (b) Filtration
 (c) Superchlorination (d) Ozonization

43. Black lungs disease is caused due to constant inhalation of-?

 (a) Cotton dust (b) Coal dust
 (c) Silica dust (d) Iron dust

44. Maximum permissible limit (MPL) of fluoride in drinking water supply should be-?
 (a) 0.5 mg/l (b) 1.5 mg/l
 (c) 3.0 mg/l (d) 5.0 mg/l

45. Most probable number (MPN) of coliform in drinking water can be determined by----table?
 (a) McConkey’s table (b) Pasteur’s table
 (c) McCardy’s table (d) Coliform table

 
46. Plate count for pasteurized milk should not exceed-------per ml of milk-?
 (a) 10000 (b) 30000
 (c) 50000 (d) 200000

47. Treatment of water with potassium permanganate is effective against-?

 (a) Salmonella typhi (b) Vibrio cholerae
 (c) Trichomonas (d) Corynebacterium

48. Phosphatase test is used to detect---------pasteurization.

 (a) Adequate (b) Complete
 (c) Perfect (d) Inadequate

49. Japanese encephalitis is an example of ---------zoonoses?

 (a) Metazoonoses type 1 
(b) Metazoonoses type 2
 (c) Metazoonoses type 3
 (d) Metazoonoses type 4
50. Bifidus factor is present in-?
 (a) Cow milk (b) Pasteurized milk
(c) Camel milk (d) Human milk

51. Species acts as amplifying host for Japanese encephalitis?

 (a) Pigs (b) Pond herons
 (c) Both (d) None of these

52. Main function of food preservatives-

 (a) Prolongation of lag phase of bacterial growth curve
 (b) Prolongation of log phase of bacterial growth curve
 (c) Prolongation of stationary phase of bacterial growth curve
 (d) Prolongation of decline phase of bacterial growth curve

53. To avoid selective feeding, best method of poultry feeding-

 (a) Pellet feeding (b) All mash feeding
 (c) Whole grain feeding (d) Restricted feeding

54. Volatile fatty acid responsible for milk fat synthesis-

 (a) Acetate (b) Propionate
 (c) Butyrate (d) Valerate

55. Best quality silage is prepared with crops rich in-

 (a) Lipids (b) Proteins
 (c) Carbohydrate (d) Minerals

56. Starch equivalent system of energy evaluation was proposed by-

 (a) Armsby (b) Kellner
 (c) Lavoisier (d) Morrison

57. Bright blindness is caused by-

 (a) Acute poisoning of selenium 
(b) Acute poisoning of copper
 (c) Acute poisoning of fluorine 
(d) Acute poisoning of cobalt

58. Egg white injury factor is-

 (a) Biotin (b) Choline
 (c) Avidin (d) Thiamin

59. Moles of ATPs produced by complete oxidation of 1mole of propionate-

 (a) 02 ATP (b) 10 ATP
 (c) 17 ATP (d) 22 ATP

 
60. Steely wool is caused due to deficiency of-
 (a) Copper (b) Cobalt
 (c) Iodine (d) Manganese

61. Molasses is added to silage at the rate of-

 (a) 01- 1.5% (b) 02- 2.5%
 (c) 03- 3.5% (d) 04- 4.5%

62. Lactation tetany in mare is caused due to deficiency of-

 (a) Mangnesium (b) Calcium
 (c) Phosphorus (d) Selenium

63. Nutritional roup in poultry is caused due to deficiency of-

 (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B1
(c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin B2

64. Which is known as lipotropic factor-?

 (a) Biotin (b) Folic acid
 (c) Choline (d) PABA

65. Polio-encephalomalacia in cattle is caused due to deficiency of-?

 (a) Vitamin B1 (b) Folic acid
 (c) Vitamin B2 (d) Vitamin A

 
66. Antisterility vitamin is-
 (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B1
 (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin C

67. Enzyme used for the treatment of poor quality roughage-

 (a) Amylase (b) Cellulase
 (c) Protease (d) Lipase

 
68. DCP, TDN & Digestibility of untreated 
wheat straw are respectively- 
 (a) 0%, 50%, 56% (b) 0%, 40%, 46%
 (c) 2%, 40%, 66% (d) 2%, 65%, 70%

69. Urea cannot be used as a source of NPN in ration of-?

 (a) Horse (b) Pig
 (c) Both (d) None

70. Age at which rabbit starts coprophagy-

 (a) 1 week (b) 2 week
 (c) 3 week (d) 4 week

71. Method of absorption of volatile fatty acids in cattle-

 (a) Active transport through small intestine
 (b) Passive diffusion through small intestine
 (c) Facilitated transport through ruminal wall
 (d) Passive diffusion through ruminal wall

72. Example of acid detergent soluble (ADS)-

 (a) Cellulose (b) Hemicellulose
 (c) Silica (d) Lignin

73. Which is not an example of nitrogen free extract-?

 (a) Sucrose (b) Glucose
 (c) Starch (d) Cellulose

74. Which is not true about concentrate feed-?

 (a) High density feed
 (b) High energy feed
 (c) Low digestibility feed
 (d) Provides nutrients to animal

75. Which is true about energy feeds-?

 (a) CF>18%, CP>20% (b) CF>18%, CP<20%
 (c) CF<18%, CP<20% (d) CF<18%, CP>20% 

76. Antinutritional factor in Khejri leaves-

 (a) Mimosin (b) Oxalate
 (c) Tannin (d) Arabinoxylan

77. Precursor of vitamin D-

 (a) Tyrosine (b) Glucose
 (c) Cholesterol (d) Tryptophan

78. Ration formulation on the basis of body weight which fulfills all the animal requirements-
 (a) Ideal ration (b) Balanced ration
 (c) Maintenance ration (d) Production ration

79. Production ration contains-

 (a) Roughage only (b) Concentrate only
 (c) Both roughage & concentrate (d) None
80. Molasses is-
 (a) Succulent roughage
 (b) Energy rich concentrate
 (c) Protein rich concentrate 
(d) Dry roughage

81. Which is the following is mismatched (antinutritional factor)-?

 (a) Aflatoxin- Groundnut cake 
(b) Avidin- Raw egg white
 (c) Trypsin inhibitor- Guar meal 
(d) Thiaminase- Sweet clover

82. Dry matter requirement for zebu cattle-

 (a) 2Kg/100Kg body weight 
(b) 2.5Kg/100Kg body weight
 (c) 3Kg/100Kg body weight
 (d) 4Kg/100Kg body weight

83. Energy loss in the form of methane in case of cattle-

 (a) 2-3% of Gross energy 
(b) 4-5% of Gross energy
 (c) 7-9% of Gross energy
 (d) 10-12% of Gross energy

84. Legumes are difficult to ensiled due to-

 (a) High Ca & P content
 (b) High protein content
 (c) Low carbohydrate content
 (d) High buffering capacity

85. Main essential aminoacid in cat-

 (a) Methionine (b) Glycine
 (c) Taurine (d) Lysine

 
86. Hydrolysis of 1mole of ATP yields--------energy.
 (a) 5.5 Kcal (b) 7.3 Kcal
 (c) 10.5 Kcal (d) 13.3 Kcal

87. Fungus commonly used in the treatment of poor quality roughage-?

 (a) White rot fungus (b) Brown rot fungus
 (c) Black rot fungus (d) Red rot fungus
88. Which is not an example of internal indicator for digestibility determination-?
 (a) Lignin (b) Silica
 (c) Chromic oxide (d) Acid insoluble ash

89. Stutzer’s reagent is used to determine-?

 (a) Crude fiber (b) True protein
 (c) Ether extract (d) Nitrogen free extract

90. Calf starter ration should contain-?

 (a) 10% DCP, 15% CP, 70% TDN 
(b) 19% DCP, 25% CP, 75% TDN
 (c) 22% DCP, 20% CP, 70% TDN
 (d) 15% DCP, 55% CP, 75% TDN

91. Ratio of water, protein & Ash on fat-free animal basis-?

 (a) 3: 2: 1 (b) 19: 5: 1
 (c) 65: 20: 10 (d) 10: 5: 1

92. Energy produced by fat is how much times as energy of carbohydrate-

 (a) 2.25 times (b) 2.5 times
 (c) 6.25 times (d) 6.5 times

93. Portion of true protein in ruminant ration which by-passes the ruminal degradation?
 (a) 20% (b) 40%
 (c) 50% (d) 60%

94. Precursor of glucose is-

 (a) Acetate (b) Propionate
 (c) Butyrate (d) Valerate

95. Urea treatment of 100 Kg straw-?

 (a) 1 Kg urea & 10 L water
 (b) 2 Kg urea & 20 L water
 (c) 4 Kg urea & 40 L water
 (d) 5 Kg urea & 50 L water

96. Which is the following is mismatched-?

 (a) Crude protein- Kjaldahl method 
(b) Water content- Muffle furnace
 (c) Ether extract- Soxhlet method 
(d) Gross energy- Bomb calorimeter

97. How much TDN is required by a cow for 1 litre of milk production -?
 (a) 0.25 Kg (b) 0.32 Kg
 (c) 0.55 Kg (d) 0.75 Kg
98. Proximate principles are-?
 (a) Feed stuff (b) Basal feeds
 (c) Feed additives (d) Nutrients

99. Majority of ruminal bacteria are-?

 (a) Gram+ve, Obligate aerobes 
(b) Gram+ve, Obligate anaerobes
 (c) Gram-ve, Obligate aerobes
 (d) Gram-ve, Obligate anaerobes

 
100. Urea treatment of poor quality roughage will improves-?
 1. DCP 
2. Ether extract 
3. TDN 
4. Energy 
5. Digestibility 
6. N2 Content
 Which of the following is correct:-

 (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 5, 6
 (c) 1, 3, 4, 5 (d) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6