1.

Inference which the law makes so preemptory that it will not allow them to be overturned
by any contrary proof.
a. Presumption
b. Disputable presumption
c. Conclusion
d. Conclusive presumption
2. Logical necessity which rests upon a party at any particular time during the trial to create a
prima facie case in his own favor or to overthrow one created against him.
a. Res gestae
b. Burden of evidence
c. Burden of proof
d. Estoppel
3. It is a bar which precludes a person from denying or asserting anything to the contrary of
established truth.
a. Res gestae
b. Estoppel
c. Burden of proof
d. Burden of evidence
4. These questions suggest to the witness the answer to which an examining party requires
a. Leading
b. Misleading
c. Estoppel
d. Res gestae
5. A written act or record of acts of a sovereign authority of private writing acknowledge
before a notary public
a. Public document
b. Official document
c. Private document
d. Official record
6. Which among the following may disqualify a witness?
a. Capacity of observation
b. Capacity of recollection
c. Capacity of knowledge
d. Capacity of communication
7. What would ascertain an alibi and denial in hearing
a. Testimony
b. Evidence
c. Proof
d. Positive identification
8. Prescribes that governing rules of evidence
a. Revised Penal Code
b. Constitution
c. Rules on Criminal Procedure
d. Rules of Court
9. Factum probans means
a. Evidentiary fact
b. Ultimate fact
c. Weigh of evidence
 d. Preponderance of evidence
10. Evidence which has some relation to what is sought to be proved
a. Relevant
b. Material
c. Competent
d. Admissible
11. It affects an issue in an important or substantial matter.
a. Relevant
b. Material
c. Competent
d. Direct
12. Those evidence which are admissible in court are held to be
a. Relevant
b. Material
c. Competent
d. Direct
13. Refers to an evidence of the same kind adduced to prove the same fact
a. Real
b. Cumulative
c. Corroborative
d. Circumstantial
14. Additional evidence of a different kind but tending to prove the same fact
a. Real
b. Cumulative
c. Corroborative
d. Circumstantial
15. Oral testimony given in open court.
a. Real evidence
b. Documentary evidence
c. Testimonial evidence
d. Admission evidence
16. An evidence delivered in open court wherein the witness states that he does not know
whether a fact did or did not occur
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Direct
d. Circumstantial
17. Evidence which is sufficient to prove an issue unless overcome or rebutted by other
evidence.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Prima facie
d. Best
18. Given by a person of specialized knowledge in some particular field
a. Primary
b. Best
c. Secondary
d. Expert
19. That kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome
a. Primary
b. Best
c. Real
d. Conclusive
20. Legal basis of inadmissibility of evidence obtained thru torture, violence or intimidation.
a. Sec. 2 Bill of Rights
b. Sec. 3 Bill of Rights
c. Sec. 12 Bill of Rights
d. Sec. 17 Bill of Rights
21. Cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take as fact because they are already
known to them
a. Cognizance
b. Judicial admission
c. Judicial knowledge
d. Judicial notice
22. One which assumes as true a fact not yet testified to by the witness or contrary to that
which he has previously stated.
a. Leading
b. Misleading
c. Confusing
d. Res gestae
23. In case of falsification of document what would be the best evidence
a. Authentic document
b. Holographic document
c. Questioned document
d. Genuine document
24. When a writing affirms that a fact di or did not occur, such testimony is said to be:
a. Relevant evidence
b. Material evidence
c. Positive evidence
d. Negative
25. Which among the following may not be a means to impeach a judicial record?
a. Want of jurisdiction in the court or judicial officer
b. Conclusion between the parties
c. Fraud in the party offering the record
d. Alteration
26. Which among the following may be used as evidence in a judicial processing?
a. Privileged conversation
b. Dying declaration
c. Filial privilege
d. Parental privilege
27. In PD 1612, the possession of the stolen good is:
a. Evidence against the accused
b. Means that the accused is not the owner
c. Means that the accused is an accessory to the crime
d. Prima facie evidence of fencing
28. Occurs when the evidence adduced proves the disputed fact.
 a. Cumulative
b. Corroborative
c. Circumstantial
d. Relevant
29. Evidence of this kind are those which are capable of perception
a. Testimonial
b. Corroborative
c. Real
d. Material
30. A priest may not be able to testify on pertinent matters to the case if said conversation or
facts relates to that told in the confession made by the
a. Penitent
b. Patent
c. Client
d. Secretary
31. Who among the following are automatically disqualified to take the witness stand?
a. Sick persons
b. Children
c. Homosexuals and lesbians
d. Insane persons
32. Evidence which show that best evidence existed as to the proof of the fact in question
a. Real evidence
b. Best evidence
c. Secondary evidence
d. Res gestae
33. Legal fitness of a witness to be heard on the trial
a. Admissibility
b. Compensation
c. Qualification
d. Eligibility
34. Means sanctioned by the rules of court to ascertain the truth respecting a matter of fact.
a. Proof
b. Intent
c. Motive
d. Evidence
35. A duplicate receipt signed and carbon copied at the same time is in terms of its evidentiary
value is deemed as:
a. Duplicate
b. Original
c. Authenticate
d. Genuine
36. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death.
a. Parole evidence
b. Ante mortem statement
c. Dead man statute
d. Mi ultimo adios
37. When are children deemed not competent to qualify as a witness?
a. They understand the obligation of the oath
 b. They have not reached the age of discernment
c. They must have sufficient knowledge to receive just impressions as to the facts on
which testify
d. They can relate to those facts truly to the court at the time they are offered as
witness
38. That degree of proof which produces in the mind of as unprejudiced person, that moral
certainty or moral conviction that the accused did commit the offense charged
a. Ultimate fact
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. Preponderance of evidence
d. Substantial evidence
39. Circumstantial facts and declarations incidental to the main fact; means things done
a. Factum probans
b. Factum probandum
c. Res gestae
d. Owes probans
40. A person who gives testimonial evidence in a judiciary tribunal.
a. Witness
b. Prosecution
c. Defense
d. Clerk of court
41. In this sort of action, a person merely acknowledges certain facts but does not admit his
guilt.
a. Testimony
b. Admission
c. Confession
d. Extra – judicial confession
42. When a categorical statement of guilt was made before a competent tribunal we classify it
as.
a. Confession
b. Admission
c. Judicial confession
d. Extra – judicial confession
43. Any evidence either oral or documentary wherein the probative value is not based on
personal knowledge of the witness but that from another.
a. Testimonial evidence
b. Dying evidence
c. Res gestae
d. Hearsay
44. Refers to family history or descent.
a. Pedigree
b. Tradition
c. Inheritance
d. Heritage
45. Obligations imposed upon a party establish their alleged fact by proof are termed as
“burden of proof”, what is its Latin translation?
a. Factum probans
b. Factum probandum
 c. Owe probandi
d. Owes probandi
46. The probative aide given by the court to particular evidence.
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Evidentiary fact
c. Ultimate fact
d. Weight of evidence
47. A degree of proof below that of proof beyond reasonable doubt, which taken in its entirely is
superior to that of another
a. Corpus delicti
b. Real evidence
c. Autoptic evidence
d. Physical evidence
48. The body of crime
a. Corpus delicti
b. Real evidence
c. Autoptic evidence
d. Physical evidence
49. Which among the foregoing is not part of the judicial rule for sufficiency of circumstantial
evidence to convict an accused?
a. There is more than one circumstance
b. The facts from which the inference are derived must be proved
c. The combination of all the circumstance is such as to produce a conviction beyond
reasonable doubt
d. It must be of a judicial recognizance
50. Minimum number of witnesses required in rape cases to secure a conviction
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None
51. A court may take judicial notice on matters that are of?
a. Public knowledge
b. Capable of unquestionable demonstration
c. Ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions
d. All the above
52. When may judicial admissions be mad?
a. The pleading filed by the parties
b. In the courts of the trial, either by verbal or written manifestation or stipulations
c. In other stage of judicial proceeding
d. All the above
53. The rules of evidence shall be same the in all courts and in all trials and hearing, As
otherwise provide by law or these rules.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. No

54. The result or effect of evidence

 a. Evidence
b. Testimony
c. Proof
d. Positive identification
55. A relevant evidence as a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to support a concussion.
a. Substantial evidence
b. Best evidence
c. Circumstantialevidence
d. Secondary evidence
56. The witness maybe re-examined by the party calling him, to explain or supplement his
answers given during the cross examination.
a. Direct examination
b. Cross-examination
c. Re-direct examination
d. Re-cross examination
57. The examination-in-chief of a witness by the party presenting him on the facts of the issue.
a. Direct examination
b. Cross examination
c. Re-direct examination
d. Re-cross examination
58. It is art of piecing together that is the invocation by the counsel of the rules logic and
rhetoric in the combinations of assumed facts as to reach ultimately the conclusion about
the truth of a certain position.
a. Argument
b. Evidence
c. Proof
d. Testimony
59. What are the requisites of the admissibility of evidence?
a. What is relevant to the issue
b. That is competent
c. A and B
d. None of the above
60. Where a facts is admissible for one purpose and is admitted for another purpose..
a. Multiple admissibility
b. Conditional admissibility
c. Curative admissibility
d. None of the above
61. Some facts may be inadmissibility when they are presented but may be relevant only
because they some connection w/ other facts not yet presented.
a. Multiple admissibility
b. Conditional admissibility
c. Curative admissibility
d. None of the above
62. One may offer evidence w/c as inadmissibility but w/c is admitted because there is no
objection form the opposite parts.
a. Multiple admissibility
b. Conditional admissibility
c. Curative admissibility
 d. None of the above
63. An, admission, verbal or written, made party in the course of the proceedings in the same
case, and it requires proof.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. No
64. A document INDEED , instrument or other duly authorized paper by w/c something is
proved, evidenced or set forth.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. No
65. Establishes a detached fact in a series tending to prove the fact in dispute.
a. Direct evidence
b. Circumstantial evidence
c. Cumulative evidence
d. Partial
66. Are the rules of evidence the same, in criminal as well as in civil case?
a. Yes, the rules of evidence shall be the same in all courts and in all trial and hearings
except as otherwise provided by law or these rules.
b. Yes, the rules of evidence shall be same in all courts and in all trials and hearsay.
c. No, the rules of evidence shall be same in all courts and in all trials and hearsay
d. No, the rules of evidence shall not be the same in all the courts and in all trials and
hearsay.
67. Are those other than the facts in issue and w/c are offered as a basic for inference as to
existence of the in issue.
a. Collateral matters
b. Prospect ant matters
c. Concomitant matters
d. Retrospect ant matters
68. Are those proceeding of the fact in issue and pointing forward to it, like moral character,
motive; conspiracy, etc.
a. Collateral matters
b. Prospect ant matters
c. Concomitant matters
d. Retrospect ant matters
69. Are those accompanying the fact in issue and pointing to it, like alibi, or opportunity and
incompatibility.
a. Collateral matters
b. Prospect ant matters
c. Concomitant matters
d. Retrospect ant
70. Are those succeeding the fact in issue but pointing forward to it, like flight concealment ,
behavior of the accused upon being arrested ; finger prints or foot print.
a. Collateral matters
b. Prospect ant matters
c. Concomitant matters
 d. Retrospect ant matters
71. It is a contact whereby the parties, by making reciprocal concessions, avoid a litigation or put
an end tone already commenced.
a. Privies
b. Compromise
c. Document
d. Competent
72. It denotes not only the idea of succession in right of heirship or testamentary legacy, but
also succession by virtue of acts inter vivos, as by assignment, subrogation, or purchase.
a. Privies
b. Compromise
c. Document
d. Competent
73. It is an oral evidence of an agreement should be writing, without prejudice to certain
exceptions.
a. Hearsay evidence
b. Best evidence
c. Parol evidence
d. Secondary evidence
74. These are the stances when parol evidence is allowed, exect for:
a. Where there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the written
agreement
b. When there is a failure of the written agreement to express the true intent and
agreement of the parties thereto;
c. When there arises a question as to the validity of the written agreement
d. When there is no other terms agreed by the party’s or there successor’s in interest
after the execution of the written agreement.
75. It is one where the document refers to a particular person or thing but there are two or
more persons having the same names or two more things to which the description in the
writing may apply.
a. Latent ambiguity or intrinsic ambiguity
b. Patent or intrinsic ambiguity
c. Intermediate ambiguity
d. None of the above
76. It is such ambiguity which is apparent on face the writing itself and requires something to be
added in order to ascertain the meaning of the words used.
a. Latent ambiguity or intrinsic ambiguity
b. Patent or intrinsic ambiguity
c. Intermediate ambiguity
d. None of the above
77. It is where the words of the writing through seemingly clear and with a settled meaning, is
actually equivocal and admits of two interpretation.
a. Latent ambiguity or intrinsic ambiguity
b. Patent or extrinsic ambiguity
c. Intermediation ambiguity
d. All of these
78. It is reference as to the existence of a fact not actually known, arising from its usual
connection with another which is known.
 a. Presumption
b. Estopel
c. Character
d. Compromise
79. Inference which the law makes so peremptory that that it will not allow them to be
overturned by any contrary proof however strong.
a. Presumption
b. Conclusive presumption
c. Disputable presumption
d. All of these
80. Are those presumptions which may be disputed, apposed, reputed or rebutted.

a. Presumption
b. Conclusive presumption
c. Disputable presumption
d. All of these
81. In civil cases, an offer of compromise is not an admission of any liability, and is not
admissible in evidence against offeror.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. no
82. In criminal cases, those who are involve in quasi-offences or those allowed by law to be
compromised, an offer of compromise by the accused may be received in evidence as an
implied admission of guilt.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. No
83. When is expert evidence admissible?
a. The fact to be proved is one requiring expert knowledge and
b. The witness is really an expert
c. A and B
d. None of the above
84. It is defined combination of properties, qualities or peculiarities which distinguishes one
from others.
a. Characters
b. Comparatives
c. Privies
d. Presumption
85. Republic Act No. 9775 is?
a. Anti-rape law
b. Speedy trial Act
c. Anti-child pornography act of 2009
d. Anti-hazing law
86. Republic act No. 8493 is?
a. Speedy trial act
b. Anti-rape law
 c. Anti-pornography act of 2009
d. Anti-hazing law
87. It is a categorical acknowledgement of guilt made by an accused in a criminal cases, without
any exculpatory statement or explanation.
a. Admission
b. Confession
c. Judicial admission
d. Extrajudicial
88. Those made on the record, or in connection with the judicial proceeding in which it is
offered.
a. Judicial admission
b. Admission
c. Confession
d. Extrajudicial
89. Those made elsewhere, irrespective of time, place, or to whom made.
a. Judicial admission
b. Admission
c. Confession
d. Extrajudicial
90. The totality of evidence presented for the consideration.
a. Quantum of proof
b. Quantum of evidence
c. Burden of proof
d. Burden of evidence
91. Refers to degree of proof required in order to arrive attract conclusion
a. Quantum of proof
b. Quantum of evidence
c. Burden of proof
d. Burden of evidence
92. Error in personae is?
a. Mistake in identity
b. Mistake in blew
c. Guilty mind
d. Guilty act
93. Actusreos is?
a. Mistake in identity
b. Mistake in blew
c. Guilty mind
d. Guilty act
94. Res IpsaLoquitor Is?
a. Mistake in identity
b. Mistake in blew
c. The thinks speaks for itself
d. At first glans
95. The behavior of a witness on the witness stand during trial to be consider by judge on the
issue of evediality exemplifying purpose
a. Demeanor evidence
b. Characters evidence
 c. Demonstrative evidence
d. Hearsay
96. Evidence that has tangible and exemplifying purpose
a. Demeanor evidence
b. Characters evidence
c. Demonstrative evidence
d. Hearsay
97. A question which calls for a single answer to more one question.
a. Leading question
b. Misleading question
c. Argumentative question
d. Compound question
98. A question which assume a disputed fact not stated
a. Leading question
b. Misleading question
c. Argumentative question
d. Speculative
99. You saw Jose killed juan because you we’re present when it happened as through.
a. Leading question
b. Misleading question
c. Argumentative question
d. Speculative
100. Do you still beat your wife?
a. Leading question
b. Misleading question
c. Argumentative question
d. Speculative

ANSWER KEY
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. C
21. D
22. B
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. C
30. A
31. D
32. C
33. B
34. D
35. B
36. B
37. B
38. B
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. D
44. A
45. D
46. D
47. D
48. A
49. D
50. A
51. D
52. D
53. A
54. C
55. A
56. C
57. A
58. A
59. C
60. A
61. B
62. C
63. B
64. B
65. D
66. A
67. A
68. B
69. C
70. D

71. B
72. A

73. C
74. D
75. A
76. B
77. C
78. A
79. B
80. C
81. A
82. B
83. C
84. A
85. C
86. A
87. B
88. A
89. D
90. B
91. A
92. A
93. D
94. C
95. A
96. C
97. D
98. D
99. A
100. B