criminology board exam reviewer

Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions

1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.

What was the crime committed?

A. Murder

B. Parricide

C. Homicide

D. Qualified Homicide
Answer: B

2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will

on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms

in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?

A. Trespass to Dwelling

B. Violation of Domicile

C. Usurpation Of Authority

D. Forcible Trespassing
Answer: B

3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They

live together with the children of Lea from her first husband.

Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of
 Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed

by Charlie?

A. Simple Seduction

B. Qualified Seduction

C. Consented Abduction

D. Rape

Answer: B

4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When

the two met the following day, Lito slapped

Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?

A. Corruption of Public Officials

B. Direct Assault

C. Slight Physical Injuries

D. Grave Coercion
Answer: B

5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his

parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1

million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting

Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?

A. Indirect Bribery

B. Direct Bribery
 C. Corruption of Public Officials

D. Qualified Bribery
Answer: D

6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made

under the consciousness of an impending death?

A. Parol Evidence

B. Ante mortem statement

C. Suicide note

D. Dead man statute

Answer: D

7. Factum probans means __.

A. preponderance of evidence

B. ultimate fact

C. evidentiary fact

D. sufficiency of evidence
Answer: C

8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

generation to another.

A. inheritance

B. heritage

C. pedigree

D. culture Answer:
C
9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the

first instance.

A. Appellate Jurisdiction

B. General Jurisdiction

C. Original Jurisdiction

D. Exclusive Jurisdiction
Answer: C

10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

A. Counsel de officio

B. Attorney on record

C. Attorney at law

D. Special counsel Answer: A

11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary

Procedure?

A. Violation of rental laws

B. Violation of traffic laws

C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment

D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment

12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to

A. jurisdiction

B. jurisprudence

C. venue

D. bench Answer:
C

13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

A. RA 6425

B. RA 8353

C. BP.22

D. RA 6975 Answer: C

14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to

gain, by means of force and intimidation.

A. qualified thef

B. robbery

C. thef

D. malicious mischief
Answer: B

15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of

force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,

whether right or wrong.

A. grave threat

B. grave coercion
 C. direct assault

D. slander by deed
Answer: B

16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but

have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or

herself to lawful calling.

A. Pimps

B. prostitutes

C. gang members

D. vagrants
Answer: D

17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant

noises designed to annoy and insult.

A. Tumultuous

B. charivari

C. sedition

D. scandal
Answer: B

18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another

person to change his residence.

A. violation of domicile

B. arbitrary detention

C. expulsion
 D. direct assault
Answer: C

19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another

person without legal grounds.

A. illegal detention

B. arbitrary detention

C. forcible abduction

D. forcible detention
Answer: A

20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal

knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be

married, although the marriage can be later declared void.

A. concubinage

B. bigamy

C. adultery

D. immorality
Answer: C

21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

A. 15-18 years old

B. 18-70 years old

C. 9 years old and below

22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of

the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.

A. Accomplices

B. Suspects

C. principal actors

D. accessories
Answer: A

23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute

the final sentence afer the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.

A. prescription of crime

B. prescription of prosecution

C. prescription of judgement

D. prescription of penalty
Answer: D

24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty

is suspended.

A. Pardon

B. commutation

C. amnesty

D. reprieve Answer:
D
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a

more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.

A. mala prohibita

B. mala in se

C. private crimes

D. public crimes
Answer: A

26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an

act in consideration of a gif and this act is connected with the

discharge of his public duties.

A. qualified bribery

B. direct bribery

C. estafa

D. indirect bribery

Answer: B

27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood

affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.

A. libel

B. falsification

C. perjury

D. slander Answer:
C

28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

A. Treachery
 B. evident premeditation

C. ignominy

D. cruelty Answer:
B

29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted

together in the commission of a crime.

A. gang

B. conspiracy

C. band

D. piracy Answer:
C

30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.

A. Negligence

B. imprudence

C. omission

D. act Answer: C

31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and

capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.

A. Misfeasance

B. entrapment
 C. inducement

D. instigation
Answer: B

32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of

public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.

A. impossible crimes

B. aggravating circumstances

C. absolutory causes

D. Complex Crimes

Answer: C

33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.

A. Insanity

B. intoxication

C. passion or obfuscation

D. evident premeditation
Answer: B

34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

what shall be entered for him?

A. a plea of not guilty

B. a plea of guilty

C. a plea of mercy

D. a plea of surrender
Answer: A
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or

information?

A. at any time before his arrest

B. only afer entering his plea

C. any time before entering his plea

D. Monday morning

Answer: C

36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a

criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory

disposition on the case subject to court approval.

A. Arraignment

B. plea bargaining

C. preliminary investigation

D. trial Answer:
B

37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,

furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his

appearance before any court as required under the conditions

specified by law.

A. Subpoena

B. recognizance

C. bail

D. warrant Answer:
C
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the

laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose

of determining such issue.

A. Trial

B. Arraignment

C. pre-trial

D. judgment

Answer: A

39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not

guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper

penalty and

A. trial

B. Pre-trial

C. Arraignment

D. Judgment
Answer: D

40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining

whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded

belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is

probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.

A. pre-trial
 B. arraignment

C. preliminary investigation

D. plea bargaining
Answer: C

41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.

A. secondary evidence

B. prima facie evidence

C. corroborative evidence

D. best evidence
Answer: C

42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.

A. secondary evidence

B. prima facie evidence

C. corroborative evidence

D. best evidence
Answer: B

43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived

from conventional symbols, such as letters, by

which ideas are represented on material substances.

A. documentary evidence

B. testimonial evidence

C. material evidence

D. real evidence
 Answer: A

44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the

occurrence of a fact.

A. positive evidence

B. corroborative evidence

C. secondary evidence

D. negative evidence
Answer: D

45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.

A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an

offense

B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the

offense

C. subject of the offense

D. all of the above

46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known

their perception to others.

A. Suspects

B. witnesses

C. victims

D. informers
Answer: B
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of

human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in

death.

A. abortion

B. infanticide

C. murder

D. parricide Answer:
A

48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the

confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not

organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be

ascertained.

A. alarm and scandal

B. mysterious homicide

C. death under exceptional circumstances

D. tumultuous affray

Answer: D

49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the

logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the

cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.

A. legal question

B. juridical question

C. prejudicial question
 D. judicial question
Answer: C

50. The RPC was based on the

A. Spanish penal code

B. English penal code

C. American penal code

D. Japanese penal code

Answer: A

51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts

that is voluntary but not intentional.

A. impossible crime

B. mistake of facts

C. accidental crime

D. complex crime
Answer: B

52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

A. 36 hours

B. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 72 hours

Answer: D

53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.

B. parens patriae

C. res ipsa loquitur

D. dura lex sed lex

Answer: A

54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if

it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.

A. compound crime

B. impossible crime

C. complex crime

D. accidental crime
Answer: B

55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.

A. RA 5425

B. RA 8553

C. RA 7659

D. RA 8551

Answer: C

56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and

freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.

A. discernment

B. insanity

C. epilepsy

D. imbecility
Answer: D
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its

owner or author

A. responsibility

B. duty

C. guilt

D. imputability
Answer: D

58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and

although it comes about through some acts of our will,

lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.

A. fortuitous event

B. fate

C. accident

D. destiny Answer:
C

59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an

offense,subscribed by the offended party, any peace

officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of

the law violated.

A. subpoena

B. information

C. complaint

D. writ Answer:
C
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice

and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as

human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.

A. right to due process of law

B. presumption of innocence

C. right to remain silent

D. right against self-incrimination

61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,

practices,usages and rules of action which are not

recognized in our country.

A. penal laws

B. special laws

C. common laws

D. statutory laws
Answer: C

62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the

crime any of all the conditions that would make

an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability

there is civil liability.

A. Exempting

B. alternative

C. justifying
 D. aggravating
Answer: A

63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance

with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.

A. exempting

B. alternative

C. justifying

D. aggravating
Answer: C

64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim

suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical

pain in the consummation of the criminal act.

A. Ignominy

B. cruelty

C. treachery

D. masochism

Answer: B

65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been

previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced

in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.

A. Recidivism

B. habitual delinquency

C. reiteracion
 D. quasi-recidivism
Answer: A

66. Alevosia means

A. Craf

B. treachery

C. evident premeditation

D. cruelty Answer:
B

67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and

render judgment afer a fair trial.

A. ex post facto law

B. equal protection of the law

C. rule of law

D. due process of law

68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his

release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious

physical injuries, robbery, thef, estafa or falsification, he is

found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or ofener.

A. Recidivist

B. quasi-recidivist

C. habitual delinquent

D. hardened criminal
Answer: C
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

A. Primary

B. Best

C. Secondary

D. Conclusive

Answer: D

70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

A. Primary

B. Best

C. Secondary

D. Conclusive
Answer: D

71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

examining party requires.

A. leading

B. misleading

C. stupid

D. hearsay Answer:
A

72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of

persons alleged to have committed a crime, and

or their punishment in case of conviction

B. Criminal Evidence

C. Criminal Procedure

D. Criminal Jurisprudence
Answer: C

73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

A. 20 years

B. 15 years

C. 10 years

D. 40 years Answer:
A

74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

A. Accomplices

B. Accessories

C. Instigators

D. Principals Answer:
D

75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act

which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another

person.

A. libel

B. slander by deed

C. incriminating innocent person

76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be

done.

A. misfeasance

B. malfeasance

C. nonfeasance

D. dereliction
Answer: B

77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an

authorized magistrate or officer.

A. subpoena

B. writ

C. warrant

D. affidavit Answer:
D

78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself

without authority of law.

A. alias

B. common name

C. fictitious name

D. screen name

Answer: C
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, afer having

been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony

before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving

the same.

A. quasi-recidivism

B. recidivism

C. reiteracion

D. charivari Answer:
A

80. Which of the following is not a person in authority?

A. Municipal mayor

B. Private School Teacher

C. Police Officer

D. Municipal Councilor
Answer: C

81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or

disturbances in the State.

A. Sedition

B. Rebellion

C. Treason

D. Coup d’ etat Answer:

82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

A. 30 days
 B. 15 days

C. 10 days

D. 60 days Answer:
C

83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public

officer or employee.

A. illegal detention

B. arbitrary detention

C. compulsory detention

D. unauthorized detention
Answer: B

84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person

who owes allegiance to it.

A. treason

B. espionage

C. rebellion

D. coup d’ etat Answer:

85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

A. sanctuary

B. prison

C. jail

D. dwelling Answer:
D
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right

and wrong.

A. treachery

B. premeditation

C. recidivism

D. discernment
Answer: D

87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.

A. Estafa

B. Murder

C. Rebellion

D. Rape Answer:
C

88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is

intended.

A. Aberratio ictus

B. Error in personae

C. Dura Lex Sed lex

D. Praeter Intentionem
Answer: D

89. It means mistake in the blow.

A. Aberratio Ictus

B. Error in Personae
 C. Dura lex sed lex

D. Praeter Intentionem
Answer: A

90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its

execution and accomplishment are present.

A. Attempted

B. Frustrated

C. Consummated

D. Accomplished

answer: C

91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of

facts that is voluntary but not intentional.

A. Absolutory Cause

B. Mistake of facts

C. Conspiracy

D. Felony Answer:
B

92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.

A. Material

B. Formal

C. Seasonal

D. Continuing
Answer: A

93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are

A. Culpable

B. Intentional

C. Deliberate

D. Inculpable
Answer: B

94. It indicates deficiency of perception.

A. Negligence

B. Diligence

C. Imprudence

D. Inference Answer:
A

95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

A. Offenses

B. Misdemeanors

C. Felonies

D. Ordinances

Answer: A

96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons

who live or sojourn in the Philippines.

A. General

B. Territorial

C. Prospective

D. Retroactive
Answer: A
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.

A. Bill of Attainder

B. Bill of Rights

C. Ex Post Facto Law

D. Penal Law

Answer: A

98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be

bound to answer for the commission of an offense.

A. Search

B. Seizure

C. Arrest

D. Detention
Answer: C

99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?

A. Robbery

B. Farm Thef

C. Qualified Thef

D. Simple Thef
Answer: C

100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year

old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was

the crime committed?

B. Qualified Rape

C. Statutory Rape

D. None of these
Answer: C