.

10. Brush burns refers to

25th March 2003 a. Injury due to friction
1. Which of the following is the remnant of the b. Injury due to electrocution
transverse obliterated ligament c. Injury due to steam
a. Flexor pollicis longus d. None of the above
b. Flexor carpi ulnaris 11. Erythema ab igne
c. Flexor carpi radialis a. Is due to excessive heat
d. Flexor digitorum sublimes b. Due to excessive cold
2. The failure of degeneration of the the part of aorta c. Due to increased friction
from the 4th arch to the segmental artery is d. None of the above
a. Double arch of aorta 12. The main controlling agent for respiratory drive is
b. Patent ductus arteriosus a. Co2
c. Coarctation of aorta b. Oxygen
d. Hypoplastic aorta c. No
3. Bunion is d. Hbo3
a. Exostosis of the base of the 1st metatarsal 13. The left to right shunt is seen in all of the
bone following except
b. Bursa at the base of the metatarsal bone a. PDA
c. Inflamed adventitial bursa at the base of b. VSD
the 1st metatarsal bone c. ASD
d. Exostosis at the head of the 1st metatarsal d. TGA
bone 14. Digoxin is used in which of the following
4. Unexpectedly increase in diffusing capacity is conditions
found in a. Atrial ectopics
a. Cystic fibrosis b. Flutter with 2:1 block
b. Pulmonary heamorrage c. Ventricular tachyarrhythmia
c. Bronchitis d. Ventricular bigeminy
d. Bronchiectasis 15. Digoxin toxicity can be recognized when there is
5. The adenylate cyclase is found is associated with a. QT interval is shortened
a. cAMP b. Ventricular bigeminy
b. Phosphodiesterase c. Atrial flutter
c. GTP regulating proteins d. Mobitz II degree heart block
d. Nuclear receptors 16. The duration of the depolarisation of the heart
6. AMP activates which of the following from the SA node to the AV node is reflected on
a. Phosphofructokinase I the ECG by
b. Pyruvate kinase a. QT interval
c. Phosphoglucomutase b. PR interval
d. Hexokinase c. RS interval
7. Packed cells are formed by d. RR interval
a. Filtration 17. An adult female presented with thickening of base
b. Centrifugation of nail plate of all the fingers .The most likely
c. Precipitation cause for her condition would be
d. Sedimentation a. Lead poisoning
8. The sequence in respiratory chain in the b. Psoriasis
mitochondria is c. Lichen Planus
a. c-c1-b-a-a3 d. Pemphigus
b. c1-c-b-b1-a3-a 18. A 13 year old boy presented with a 6 year old
c. b-c1-c-a3-a lesion over his buttock.On examination the lesion
d. a-a3-b-c-c1 showed scarring at one side and also there was
9. The riders bone is due to calcification of which of puckering of the overlying skin. The lesion is
the following bones most likely to be
a. Adductor longus a. Tuberculous Chancre
b. Adductor magnus b. Lupus vulgaris
c. Popliteus c. Scofuloderma
d. Vastus lateralis d. None of the above

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19. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction 29. Which of the following structures enter through
in an adult is the greater sciatic notch and leave through the
a. Diverticula lessor notch
b. Adhesions a. Obturator nerve
c. Trichobezoar b. Pudendal artery
d. Volvulus c. Femoral vessels
20. In pheochromocytoma there is increased level of d. Lesser sciatic nerve
a. Serum HMA 30. The sacrotuberous ligament represents the origin
b. Serum bradykinin of
c. Urinary VMA a. Gluteus Maximus
d. All of the above b. Semimembrabus
21. In Werdnig Hoffman’s disease the lesion is at c. Medial head of biceps femoris
a. Posterior horn cell d. Sacrospinus lig
b. Anterior horn cell 31. Ventral hernia includes
c. Peripheral nerve a. Obturator hernia
d. Motor end plate b. Incisinal hernia
22. Neonatal seizures with best prognosis is seen c. Femoral hernia
a. Hypoglycemia d. Indirect inguinal hernia
b. Late onset hypocalcemia 32. Strangulated hernia is commonly seen in which of
c. Hypoxia the following
d. Kernicterus a. Direct inguinal hernia
23. In a 30 year old patient presenting at 38weeks b. Indirect inguinal hernia
gestation with increased reflexes and hypertension c. Femoral hernia
and pedal edema all of the following can be seen d. Obturator hernia
except 33. In a child who presented with twitching
a. Hypocalcemia movements of the face and the upper
b. Increased platelets extremities ,most probably has lesion involving
c. Increased uric acid levels a. Precentral gyrus
d. Increased creatine levels b. Post central gyrus
24. In toxic shock syndrome all of the following can c. Caudate nucleus
be seen except d. Frontal lobe
a. Shock 34. The root values of the pudendal nerve is
b. Fever a. S1,2,3
c. Hypercalcemia b. S4
d. Rash c. L1,2,3
25. Muscle crossing both shoulder and elbow joint is d. L2,3,4
a. Corochobrachialis 35. In a patient with thyroid surgery the block to be
b. Medial head of triceps given is at the
c. Biceps bracii a. Stellate ganglion
d. Brachilais b. Upper cervical ganglion
26. The main bone of the nasal septum is c. Dorsal sympathetic ganglia
a. Vomer d. Any of the above
b. Nasal bones 36. The stellate ganglion block would cause which of
c. Maxillary bone the following
d. None of the above a. Myosis
27. All of the following open in the middle meatus b. Flushing of skin
except c. Ptosis
a. Anterior ethmoidal sinus d. All of the above
b. Nasolacrimal duct 37. The muscle arising from the scaphoid fossa is
c. Maxillary sinus a. Tensor tympani
d. Frontal sinus b. Levator pelatii
28. Deep peronial nerve supplies all of the following c. Stylopharyngeus
except d. Tensor palitii
a. Tibialis anterior 38. EB virus belongs to which virus
b. Extensor Hallusis longus a. Retro virus
c. Extensor digitorum longus b. Herpes virus
d. Peroneus brevis c. RNA virus
d. Pox virus

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39. Butchers thigh would refer to 48. In brain the breakdown of L-DOPA is prevented
a. Lipodystrophy of subcutaneous tissue by
b. Section of femoral vessels during boning a. Deprinyl
c. Rupture of vastus lateralis b. Pyridoxine
d. Fracture of femur c. Haloperidol
40. The abnormal deposition of calcium pyro d. Bromocriptine
phosphate dyhydrate crystals(CPPD) would cause 49. Selective reuptake inhibitor of serotonin but not
all of the following except norepinephrine is by
a. Pseudogout a. Protryptiline
b. Pseudoosteoarthritis b. Flouxetine
c. Pseudorheumatoid arthritis c. Meprotriline
d. Pseudoankylosing spondylitis d. Amytrptiline
41. All of the following procedures can be done in 50. Presence of sensation without the presence of a
osteoarthrosis except stimuli would refer to
a. Synovectomy a. Delusion
b. Osteotomy b. Hallucination
c. Arthrodesis c. Illusion
42. 1st change in TB spine is d. Projection
a. Erosion of pedicle 51. Spider leg appearance is seen in
b. Narrowing of disc space a. Polycystic kidneys
c. Abcess with soft tissue swelling b. Horse shoe kidney
d. Disc collapse c. Angiomyolipoma’s
43. LeFort’s fracture would include all of the d. Renal TB
following except 52. PQLI would include all of the following except
a. Maxilla a. IMR
b. Mandible b. MMR
c. Zygoma c. Life expectancy at 1 year
d. Nasal bones d. Literacy rate
44. An infant was brought with history of running 53. The treatment of choice in otosclerosis is
nose ,fever ,myalgia. There were also similar a. NaF
complaints seen in 3 other family members. Over b. Stapedectomy
the last 8 hours the infant has developed wheeze c. Cochlear implant
hyperexpansion of chest with difficulty in d. Antibiotics
breathing ,but there were no rales on examination. 54. The response to iron administration would be
The likely diagnosis is earliest seen by
a. Viral croup a. Increased TIBC
b. Epiglotitis b. Increased haemoglobin
c. Bronchiolitis c. Reticulocytosis
d. Bronchiectasis d. Increased hematocrit
45. On examination of a specimen the lung showed 55. Which of the following is true in the nitrogen
exudation of inflammatory cells with metabolism
displacement of air .This is a pathologic feature of a. Ammonia is the most important nitrogen
a. Bronciectasis containing substance in urine
b. Bronchial asthma b. There is breakdown and resynthesis of 56
c. Lobar pneumonia gms of protein everyday
d. Bronchitis c. The enzymes aminotransferase and
46. At the end of a 48 hours fast the substance likely glutamate dehydrogenase are the main
to be involved in the formation of blood glucose enzymes in the formation of urea
would be d. Excess of aminoacid are used in the
a. Muscle glycogen synthesis of proteins
b. Liver glycogen 56. Methyl trap which occurs due to vitamin B12
c. Aminoacid deficiency would be due to
d. Acetoacetate a. Methionine metabolism is decreased
47. The test commonly used to follow up patients to b. Conversion of glutamyl coA to Succinyl
check for response of treatment in syphilis is coA
a. FTAbs c. Conversion of methyl coA to succinyl
b. VDRL coA
c. Microheamglutination
d. TPI

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57. RNA is extracted through which of the following

a. Northern blot 67. Anterior uveitis is seen in which of the following
b. Southern blot a. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Eastern blot b. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Western blot c. HLA B27
58. X linked inheritance is seen in all of the following d. All of the above
except 68. All of the following are dimorphic fungi except
a. Fabry’s disease a. Blastomycosis
b. G6PD deficiency b. Candida
c. Myotonic dystrophy c. Coccidiodomycosis
d. Heamophilia A d. Histoplasmosis
59. All of the following are true about ZES except 69. Which of the following is true about IV
a. Multiple ulcers may be seen administration of gamma globulin
b. Ulcers at unusual places may be seen a. Should be given slow IV because it
c. Gastrin level is increased induces anticomplementary activity
d. Urease breath test is positive b. Can be safely given in IgA deficiency
60. In a 40 year patient there was pleural fluid c. Known to cause AIDS
.Analysis of this fluid showed a protein ratio of d. Large doses in ITP cause remission
0.38 and a LDH level of 125 U/L and LDH ratio 70. Aschoff nodules are seen in
of pleural fluid to serum of 0.48. The most a. Rheumatoid arthritis
probable diagnosis is b. Rheumatic fever
a. Ureamia c. SLE
b. Congestive cardiac failure d. Sjogren’s syndrome
c. Sarcoidosis 71. Raynouds phenomenon is seen in all of the
d. Pulmonary embolism following except
61. Horner Trantas spots are seen in which of the a. Scleroderma
following b. Beurgers disease
a. Trachoma c. Thoraxic outlet syndrome
b. Vernal Cataarh d. Vibratory tool users
c. Disciform keratitis 72. Heamorhagic cystitis is seen in use of
d. Fungal infection a. Adriamycin
62. Cromolyn’s are used in the treatment of Asthma b. Cyclophosphamide
to prevent recurrecnces. The mechanism of action c. Bleomycin
is by d. Busulphan
a. Leukotreine antagonist 73. Cardiac toxicity is seen most in
b. Beta 2 agonist a. Bleomycin
c. Mast cell stabilizer b. Adriamycin
d. Inhibits neutrophils c. Methotrexate
63. Corneal guttata is seen d. Busulphan
a. Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy 74. Hepar lobatum is associated with
b. Senile endothelial dystrophy a. Hepatitis A
c. Secondary endothelial dystrophy b. Syphillis
64. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with which of c. Yellow fever hepatitis
the following d. Dengue
a. Anterior capsular cataract 75. All of the following arise from the ovum except
b. Posterior capsular cataract a. Teratoma
c. Zonular cataract b. Struma ovarii
d. Nuclear cataract c. Krukenberg’s
65. Most unstable vaccine is d. Dysgerminoma
a. OPV 76. Endometrial hyperplasia is seen to be associated
b. BCG with
c. DPT a. Cystic terratoma
d. Measles b. Endodermal tumor
66. Addition of detergent which causes disruption of c. PCOD
phospholipid membrane in all of the following d. Sertoli leydig cell tumor
except
a. Polio virus
b. Vaccinia
c. Variola
d. Eastern equine encephalitis virus

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77. Endometrial carcinoma is associated with all of 87. Increased field of vision is associated with which
the following except of the following
a. Obesity a. Yellow
b. Multiparity b. Blue
c. Hypertension c. White
d. Diabetes Mellitus d. Green
78. A young male presented with gynecomastia and 88. Cough is an adverse effect seen in administration
was found to have 47 XXY. He is also likely to of which of the following
have a. Nifedipine
a. Decreased levels of LH and FSH b. Enalapril
b. Estrogen excess c. Prazocin
c. Azoospermia d. Furesimide
d. Progesternoe excess 89. Drug which can be safely used in pregnancy is
79. All of the following are seen in turners syndrome a. Tetracycline
except b. Sulphonylurea
a. Short stature c. Heparin
b. Mental retardation d. Warfarin
c. Primary amenorrhea 90. Cauliflower ear is due to
d. Coarctation of aorta a. Otitis externa
80. Regulation of registered medical practitioner is b. Haematoma of the ear
under the purview of c. Mastoiditis
a. State medical health council d. Congenital
b. Medical council of India 91. All of the following are true about achondroplasia
c. Health welfare ministry except
d. Central health ministry a. Large skull
81. Somniferous toxin is b. Dwarfism
a. Dhatura c. Mental retardation
b. Opium d. Short trunk
c. Belladona 92. Digoxin is used in
d. Cannabis a. HOCM
82. Gastric lavage is contraindicated in b. Atrial fluttet
a. Carbolic acid poisoning c. Ventricular arrhythmia’s
b. Sulphuric acid poisoning d. Ectopics
c. Barbiturate poisoning 93. The antibioitic which can be safely used in
d. Benzodiazepine poisoning pregnancy is
83. Gall stone is commonly impacted at a. Tetracycline
a. Ileum b. Ampicillin
b. Colon c. Streptomycin
c. Stomach d. Sulphonomides
d. Rectum 94. Ototoxicity is seen in all of the following except
84. MTP act of 1971 provides for termination of a. Ampicillin
pregnancy till what age b. Streptomycin
a. 12 weeks c. Kanamycin
b. 16 weeks d. Gentamycin
c. 20 weeks 95. To differentiate between supraventricular
d. 24 weeks tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia of
85. Zero order kinetics is followed by all of the aberrant conduction all the following points
following except support the latter except
a. Phenytoin a. Wide QRS >0.16 secs
b. Ethanol b. Carotid massage causes a 2:1 block
c. Barbiturates c. Oesophageal leads show A-V
d. Salycilates dissociation
86. Frequent changes in glasses is associated with 96. Carotid sinus massage produces
which of the following diseases a. Reflex bradypnea
a. Closed angle glaucoma b. Reflex bradycardia
b. Open angle glaucoma c. Reflex tachycardia
c. Senile cataract d. Hyperpnea
d. Vitreus heamorrage

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97. Cardiospasm is 107.In a diabetic lady the head is delivered but there is
a. Coronary artery stenosis difficulty to deliver the shoulder. The condition
b. Presbyoesophagus that is likely suspected is
c. Esophageal webs a. Omphalocele
d. Cricoid narrowing b. Hydrocephalus
98. Hirudin is c. Shoulder dystocia
a. Blood coagulant d. Siamese twins
b. Found in human saliva 108.Carcinoma in situ is treated by all of the following
c. Inhibits thrombin except
d. Is an antidote for heparin a. Laser ablation
99. The treatment of choice for resistant gonococcal b. Cryosurgery
infection is c. Radical hysterectomy
a. Erythromycin d. Conization
b. Benzathine pencillin 109.Calot’s triangle is in relation to
c. Benzylpencillin a. Right hepatic artery
d. Ceftriaxone b. Left Gastric artery
100.Theophylline levels are increased by c. Right gastric artery
a. Ciprofloxacin d. Cystic artery
b. Cotrimoxazole aIp p g.com
c. Erythromycin 110.Urokinase and streptokinase are contraindicated in
d. All of the above a. Malignancy
101.Best muscle relaxant effect is seen by b. A-V fistula
a. Halothane c. Pulmonary embolism
b. Nitrous oxide d. Thrombophlebitis
c. Ether 111.The 2nd stage of labour is defined as
d. Theophylline a. Onset of true labour pains to expulsion of
102.True about halothane is fetus
a. Colourless liquid stored in amber b. Complete dilation of cervix to expulsion
coloured bottles of fetus
b. Used in vaporizers like floutec c. Labour pains to expulsion of placenta
c. Used in neurosurgery d. Dilatation of cervix to expulsion of
d. All of the above placenta
103.Regarding Pentothal sodium is 112.Early deceleration is seen with
a. Amorphous yellow powder a. Cord compression
b. General anaesthetic b. Placental hypoxia
c. Both A and B c. Head compression
d. Inhalational anaesthetic d. None of the above
104.True regarding Ozeana is all of the following 113.Best (specific) assessment of foetal well being is
except by
a. More common in females a. Biophysical profile
b. Unilateral b. Oxytocin challenge test
c. Feotor is essential feature c. Non stress test
d. Full of greenish crusts d. Urinary estradiol estimation
105.Ectopic pregnancy is more common seen in all of 114.Which of the following precipitates an attack of
the following except glaucoma in a patient
a. IUCD use a. Dark environment
b. Adenomyosis b. Atropine
c. Endometriosis c. Sleep
d. Tuberculosis d. Timolol
106.Genital tuberculosis affects predominantly 115.Prostaglandins are generally not used in tocolysis
a. Uterus because
b. Ovary a. They are terratogenic and cause fetal
c. Fallopian tubes structural abnormalities
d. Cervix b. They may close the patent ductus
arteriosis prematurely
c. Cause placental hypoxia
d. None of the above

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116.Engagement refers to passage of 125.The factor which is responsible for the virulence
a. Presenting part through the inlet of H. Influenza is
b. Passage of occiput through inlet a. Potent endotoxin
c. Passage of greatest diameter of the b. Pili
presenting part through the inlet c. A rubital and a ributol containing capsule
d. Passage of presenting part through the d. Exotoxin
outlet
117.In a diabetic patient post renal transplant there 126.Which of the following features about
was decreased renal function within one month campylobacter jejuni is true
All of the following could explain the cause a. It releases an enterotoxin
except b. Bloody diarhea is rare
a. Acute transplant rejection c. Presents within 6 hours of ingestion of
b. Uretric rejection resulting in its contaminated food
obstruction d. Organism can be detected in stools
c. Recurrence of disease process 127.The polymorphous rash which develops due to
d. Renal artery stenosis exposure to light is due to what wave length
118.The most common cause of secondary commonly
hypertension in children is a. 210-300
a. Renal artery stenosis b. 290-400
b. Adrenal tumors c. 400-700
c. Renal disease d. 700-900
d. Coarctation of aorta 128.The most common cause of occupational skin
119.Carcinoid tumors of the GIT commonly are cancer is
known to affect which of the following valves a. UV rays
a. Pulmonary b. Coal tar
b. Mitral c. Aniline dye’s
c. Tricuspid d. Crysolite
d. Aortic 129.The causal agent associated with mesothelioma is
120.All of the following drugs are known to cause a. Lead
cholestatic jaundice except b. Arsenic
a. INH c. Asbestos
b. Chlorpromazine d. Silica
c. O.C.Pills 130.Vinyl choride is known to cause which of the
d. Erythromycin following
121.Mid day meal contains proteins and calories in a. Hepatoma
what proportions b. Angiosarcoma of the liver
a. ½ proteins and ½ calories c. Angiosarcoma of the kidney
b. ½ proteins and 1/3rd calories d. Small cell carcinoma
c. 1/3rd proteins and 1/3rd calories 131.The lymphatic spread is seen in all of the
d. 2/3rd calories and 1/3rd proteins following except
122.The optimum calories to be provided by proteins a. Terratoma
should be b. Seminoma
a. 5-10% c. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. 10-15% d. Basal cell carcinoma
c. 15-20% 132.Which of the following is true regarding ESR
d. 20-30% a. Increased in polycythemia
123.If a drug is given repeatedly at approximately the b. Increased in sickle cell anemia
same time as its half life, after hom many dosings c. Useful in monitoring the treatment
will the drug achieve a steady state in plasma response in temporal arteritis
a. 2-3 d. Decreased in pregnancy
b. 4-5 133.Which of the following is a T cell malignancy
c. 8-9 a. CML
d. 6-8 b. Hodgkins disease
124.The most common complication of H. Infleunza c. Mycosis fungoides
meningitis is d. Burkits lymphoma
a. Otitis media
b. Bronchopneumonia
c. Orchitis
d. Sub dural effusion

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134.Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in which 144.Supraclavicular lymphnode involvement is

of the following conditions commonly commonly seen in
a. Hairy cell leukaemia a. Primary lymphoma’s
b. Chronic myeloid leukaemia b. Stomach and lung cancer
c. Chronic lymphoid leukaemia c. Lateral 1/3rd tumors of tongue
d. Lymphomas d. Tumors of the ear
135.The phildelphia chromosome is classically 145.In a 48 year old patient the serum osmolality was
associated with which of the following found to be low. His serum sodium was 120
a. CLL meq/l. To make a diagnosis of SIADH which of
b. CML the following would be consistent
c. Burkits lymphoma a. Persistently urine osmolality<300 mosm
d. Hairy cell leukaemia “AI PP G”. c om b. Serum potassium 6 mmol/l
136.All of the following are poor prognosticators c. Presents with nocturia
except d. Collapse of right apical lobe on X-Ray
a. Mediastinal tumors 146.Uncinate fits are commonly preceded by
b. Leucocyte count>100000 cells/cmm at a. Visual hallucinations
the time of presentation b. Unpleasant olfactory sensations
c. Age between 2-10 years c. Feeling of unreality
d. Aneuploidy d. Auditory hallucinations
137.The treatment of choice in pancreatic abcess is 147.The olfactory tract ends by passing through which
a. Cystogastrostomy of the following
b. Cystoenterostomy a. Medial olfactory striae
c. External drainage b. Lateral olfactory striae
d. Antibiotics c. Diagonal band of broca’s
138.Chronic pancreatitis is associated with all of the 148.Mondor’s disease is
following except a. Terratoma of the mediastinum
a. Calcification of pancreatic duct b. Thrombophlebitis of the breast vessels
b. Steatorrhea c. Associated with renal carcinoma
c. Bronze skin discoloration d. None of the above
d. Diabetes mellitus 149.The origin of the medial epiphyseal centre is
139.Pyloric stenosis is associated with all of the a. 3 years
following except b. 7 years
a. Weight loss c. 11 years
b. Diarrhea d. 5years
c. Ramsteads operation 150.Which of the following peptides antogonizes the
d. Hypokalemia is seen actions of insulin
140.Functions of the amniotic fluid include a. Neuropeptide Y
a. Decreased fetal weight b. Growth hormone
b. Reduce trauma to fetus c. Substance P
c. Conjugate and store hormones d. Vasoactive intestinal peptide
d. All of the above 151.The discovery of the small pox vaccination is
141.True about medullary carcinoma of thyroid is all credited to
of the following except a. Pasteur
a. Arises from parafollicular cells b. Jenner
b. APUD tumor c. Lister
c. Familial association with parathyroid d. Koch
adenoma’s and pheochromocytoma’s 152.The audiometry in noise induced hearing loss
d. Intense lymphocytic infiltration would show a dip at what frequency
142.Best prognosis is seen in which of the following a. 2000 Hz
thyroid carcinoma’s b. 1000 Hz
a. Papillary c. 3000 Hz
b. Follicular d. 4000 Hz
c. Medullary 153.The treatment of choice in otosclerosis is
d. Anaplastic a. NaF
143.KFD is transmitted by b. Stapedectomy
a. Soft tick c. Cochlear implant
b. Hard tick d. Antibiotics
c. Mosquito
d. Body louse

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154.Epiphyseal dysgenesis is seen in which of the 163.True about spina bifida and anencephaly is all of
following the following except
a. Hypoparathyroidism a. May be familial
b. Hyperparathyroidism b. Always caused by toxin
c. Hypothyroidism c. Can be reliably diagnosed by ultrasound
d. Hyperthyroidism and AFP levels
155.A farmer after several hours after entering his d. Associated with hydramnios
farm develops fever myalgia and dyspnea. All of 164.TB cases can be detected in mass populations by
the following are true about his disease except which of the following
a. PFT would reveal a restrictive pattern a. Sputum AFB
b. Precipitating antibodies can be b. Tuberculin
confirmative c. Sputum culture
c. Thermophilic actinomycetes can be the d. MMR
causative agent 165.A technologist forgets iodine fixation step while
d. Immediate IgE is not associated with this doing the gram stain preparation of a
disease process ataphylococci containing specimen. The
156.Social pathology would refer to organisms would appear
a. Determinants of disease in community a. Pink
b. Frequency of disease in community b. Blue
c. Type of disease in community c. The organisms would be washed off the
d. Relation between disease and social slide
pathology d. Colourless
157.KF rings are found in 166.Retinitis pigmentosa would affect
a. Heamochromatosis a. Rods predominantly
b. Wilson’s disease b. Cones predominantly
c. Diabetes Mellitus c. Both equally
d. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Rods only
158.Epidemic typhus is caused by 167.Cyclic trends are seen in which of the following
a. R. typhii a. Rabies
b. R. prowazaki b. Measles
c. R. akari c. Cholera
d. R. Rickettsiae d. Hepatitis
159.Which of the following can be found in chronic 168.Most labile vaccine is
active hepatitis a. OPV
a. HbsAg positive HbsAb negative b. Measles
b. HbsAg negative HbcAb positive and c. BCG
HbsAb negative d. DPT
c. HbsAg negative HbsAg positive 169.Which of the following are true about ANP
d. HbsAg positive HbcAb negative a. Increased blood pressure
160.All of the following are included as causes of b. Increased GFR
maternal death except c. Increased sodium reabsorption
a. Following abortion d. Causes decreased sodium secretion
b. During lactation 1st month 170.Basophilic stippling is seen which of the
c. During lactation 8th month following cells
d. During the last trimester due to APH a. Neutrophils
161.PQLI would include all of the following except b. RBC’s
a. IMR c. Basophils
b. MMR d. Eosinophils
c. Life expectancy at 1 year 171.Median is defined as
d. Literacy rate a. The most repeatable value in a sequence
162.Inspite of use of tocolytics there were labour b. Core value in a randomly arranged set of
pains, to increase the fetal lung maturity the drug values
to be used is c. The mid value in a set of values arranged
a. Methyldopa in ascending or descending way
b. Propranolol d. Sum of all the value divided by the
c. Insulin number of variables
d. Betamethasone

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172.All of the following about turners syndrome are 182.True regarding atopic dermatitis is
true except a. Can be reliably diagnosed by history of
a. Amennorhea atopy and pruritus and the clinical
b. Mental retardation features
c. Short stature b. Involves the extensor aspect in adults
d. Coarctation of aorta c. Is an autoimmune process
173.True regarding cystic hygroma is 183.Ingestion of eggs with the passage of the larva to
a. Is a type of cavernous hemangioma the lungs is the life cycle seen in
b. Is brilliantly translucent a. Strongoloides stercoralis
c. Is due to defect in 2nd arch b. Ankylostoma duodenale
174.Genetic counselling is helpful in decreasing the c. Ascaris
incidence of d. Shistosomiasis
a. AIDS 184.In the life cycle of anopheles mosquito the
b. Coronary artery disease humans are
c. Sickle cell disease a. Accidental hosts
d. Cleft palate b. Intermediate host
175.Blood supply of nasal mucosa is through c. Definitive host
a. Mostly Internal carotid artery d. Obligatory hosts
b. Mostly external carotid artery 185.Accole forms are seen in
c. Only internal carotid artery a. P.vivax
d. Only external carotid artery’ b. P. falciparam
176.True about cerebellum is c. P.malraie
a. Is largely a negative output from the d. P.ovale
cortex 186.The root values of the pudendal nerve is
b. Has a inhibitory tone on the muscle a. S1,2,3
c. Causes conscious motor activity b. S4
d. The deep cerebellar nuclei have a c. L1,2,3
predominantly a excitatory output d. L2,3,4
177.Dapsone is useful in all of the following except 187.The most common complication of H. Infleunza
a. Dermatitis herpetiformis meningitis is
b. Mycetoma a. Otitis media
c. Lymphoma b. Bronchopneumonia
d. Leprosy c. Orchitis
178.Space spray is d. Sub dural effusion
a. Malathion 188.Aschoff nodules are seen in
b. Pyrethrum a. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. DDT b. Rheumatic fever
d. Chlorfos c. SLE
179.Index case is defined as d. Sjogren’s syndrome
a. The 1st case to start the epidemic 189.The optimum calories to be provided by proteins
b. The 1st case to come to the notice of the should be
investigator a. 5-10%
c. The 1st confirmed case responsible for the b. 10-15%
epidemic c. 15-20%
180.The common problem seen in tracheostomy in d. 20-30%
children is 190.False regarding embrolyologic development is
a. Vocal cord granuloma a. Fossa ovalis is from primary septum
b. Decannulation b. Septum fossa ovalis is from ostium
c. Vocal cord paralysis secundum
d. Tracheal stenosis c. Foramina venereum is arising form the
181.Regarding surfactant all of the following are true interventricular septum
except d. Foramina venereum is arising form the
a. Composed of phosphosphingolipids left side
b. Decreased compliance
c. Secreted by type II cells Send in more corrections / papers / questions to
d. Prevents lung collapse [email protected]

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Suggested answer Key (beta version)

1. B 49. B 97. B 145. D
2. * 50. B 98. C 146. B
3. C 51. A 99. D 147. B
4. B 52. B 100. D 148. B
5. A 53. B 101. B 149. B
6. C 54. C 102. D 150. B
7. C 55. C 103. C 151. B
8. C 56. C* 104. B 152. D
9. B 57. A 105. B 153. B
10. A 58. C 106. C 154. C
11. A 59. D 107. C 155. D
12. A 60. B 108. C 156. D
13. D 61. B 109. D 157. B
14. B 62. C 110. A 158. B
15. B 63. A 111. B 159. B
16. B 64. C 112. C 160. C
17. C 65. A 113. A 161. B
18. * 66. A 114. B* 162. D
19. B 67. D 115. B 163. B
20. D 68. B 116. C 164. A
21. B 69. D 117. C 165. *
22. B 70. B 118. C 166. A
23. B 71. C 119. B 167. B*
24. C 72. B 120. A 168. A
25. C 73. B 121. B 169. B
26. A 74. B 122. C 170. B
27. B 75. C 123. B 171. C
28. D 76. C 124. D 172. B
29. B 77. B 125. C 173. B
30. * 78. C 126. D 174. C
31. B 79. B 127. B* 175. B
32. C 80. A 128. A 176. A
33. C 81. B 129. C 177. C
34. A 82. B 130. B 178. B
35. B 83. A 131. D 179. B
36. D 84. C 132. C 180. B
37. * 85. C 133. C 181. B
38. B 86. B 134. B 182. A
39. B 87. A 135. B 183. C
40. D 88. B 136. C 184. B
41. * 89. C 137. C 185. A
42. B 90. B 138. C 186. A
43. B 91. C 139. B 187. D
44. C 92. B 140. B 188. B
45. C 93. B 141. D 189. C
46. D 94. A 142. A 190. C
47. B 95. B 143. B
48. A 96. B 144. B

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