1.

A 500 kg car is initially at rest and is pushed by a constant horizontal force for a distance
of 30 meters at which point the car has a kinetic energy of 18,000 J. The magnitude of the
force is most nearly [Ch#03]
(A) 500N. (B) 600N.
(C) 1,500 N. (D) 15,000 N.
(E) 540,000 N.

2. Two objects collide on a surface with negligible frictioll. In the absence of external
forces,
which of the following statements is true? [Ch#03]
(A) The total momentum before the collision is always qual to the total momentum after
the collision.
(B) Both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved in the collision.
(C) The two objects must stick together.
(D) The speed of each object must remain the same before and after the collision.
(E) The momentum of each object must remain the same before and after the collision.
3. A ball with a large mass and a ball with a small mass roll off a horizontal table at exactly
the same time with exactly the same velocity. Neglecting air resistance, which of the
following is true? [Ch#03]
(A) The larger ball will reach the ground first, since it has more weight.
(B) The two balls will reach the ground at the same time, but the smaller ball will travel
farther horizontally.
(C) The two balls will reach the ground at the same time and will travel the same
horizontal distance.
(D) The two balls will reach the ground at the same time, but the larger ball will travel
farther horizontally.
(E) The smaller ball will land first, since it has less weight.
4. An electric generator produces current by the process of [Ch#14]
(A) capacitance. (B) electromagnetic induction.
( C) an electric motor. (D) a battery.
(E) resistance.
5. A mass is attached to the end of a fixed spring. The spring is compressed upward and
then released
Immediately after the spring is released, which of the following increase? [Ch#08]
(A) kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, elastic potential energy
(B) kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy
(C) kinetic energy only
(D) gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy
(E) elastic potential energy only
6. If a rotating amusement park ride completes 6 revolutions in one minute, its frequency of
rotation is [Ch#04]
(A) 360 Hz (B) 60Hz (C) 10 Hz
(D) 1 Hz (E) 0.1 Hz
7. Pluto orbits the Sun in an elliptical orbit. Which of the following statements is true of.
Pluto's orbit? [Ch#06]
(A) The gravitational force acting between Pluto and the Sun must point in the direction
of Plutds velocity.
 (B) The gravitational force between Pluto and the Sun is greater when Pluto is farthest
from the Sun.
(C) The speed of Pluto is greatest when Pluto is closest to the Sun.
(D) The speed of Pluto is greatest when Pluto is farthest from the Sun.
(E) The gravitational force between the Sun and Pluto is constant at all points in Pluto's
orbit.
8. The pitch of a middle-C sound wave has a frequency of 256 Hz. If the speed of sound in
air is 350 m/s, what is the wavelength of middle-C in air? [Ch#08]
(A) 89,600 m (B) 350 m (C) 94 m
(D) 1.4 m (E) 0.73 m
9. The energy transferred between two bodies due to a temperature difference is called
[Ch#11]
(A) potential energy. (B) nuclear energy.
( C) chemical energy. (D) heat energy. (E) temperature energy.
-31
10. An electron of mass9.1 x io kg is orbiting in a circular path of radius 100 meters with a
speed of 3 x 107 ml s in a magnetic field. Which of the following is the best estimate of
the order of magnitude of the magnetic force needed to maintain this orbit? [Ch#14]
(A) 10-n N (B) 10-" N ·
(C) 10-" N (D).10~ N
(E) 10-' N
11. Two blocks A and B are attached to a string that passes over a pulley of negligible mass
and friction as shown above. The two blocks do not have equal mass. Which of the
following statements is true? [Ch#03]
(A) Block A is more massive than block B.
(B) Block Bis more massive than block A.
(C) Both blocks will move with the same constant velocity.
(D) Both blocks will move with the same constant acceleration.
(E) Block A must have a greater acceleration than block B.
12. Sound has the highest speed in which of the following? [Ch#08]
(A) steel (B) wood (C) water
(D) air (E) helium
13. A converging lens has a focal length of 20 cm. A candle is placed at 30 cm from the lens,
and an image is formed 60 cm from the lens. The magnification is [Ch#10]
14.
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.67
(C) 1.5 (D) 2.0 (E) 3.0
15. The image formed by a plane mirror alone is always [Ch#10]
(A) real. (B) virtual.
(C) larger than the object. ' (D) smaller than the object. (E) inverted.
16. Which of the following statements is true of two waves that interfere with each other?
(A) They always create a larger wave than either of the individual waves. [Ch#08]
(B) The larger wave always cancels the smaller Wave.
(C) The displacements of the individual waves are added at each point.
(D) An antinodes is always created. (E) A node is always created
17. How much energy does a 2,400-watt microwave oven use in 3 minutes? [Ch#07]
(A) 432,000 J (B) 7,200 J
 (C) 800 J (D) 24 J (E) 13.3
18. A standing wave is produced in a string when a periodic wave is passed through the
string and is
reflected off the fixed end. The wavelength of the wave in the string shown above is 0.5
m, and the
19. frequency of vibration is 120 Hz. The speed of the wave is [Ch#08]

(A) 240 m/s. (B) 120 m/s.

(C) 60 m/s. (D) 30 m/s. (E) 20 m/s.
20. A standing wave is produced in a string when a periodic wave is passed through the
string and is
reflected off the fixed end. The wavelength of the wave in the string shown above is 0.5
m, and the
21. frequency of vibration is 120 HzThe length of the string is [Ch#08]

(A) 2.0 m. (B) 1.0 m.

(C) 0.5 m. (D) 0.25 m. (E) 0.1 m.
22. How much heat is required to raise the liquid water from 0° C to 30° C?
(A) 1.26 x JO' J (B) 4.2 x IO' J
(C) 3.8 x IO' J (D) 6.6 x JO' J
(E) 9.9 x IO' J
23. A beam of light is incident on a piece of glass, and most of the beam is refracted
through the glass. Which of the following properties of the light does NOT change as it
is refracted?
(A) speed (B) frequency (C) wavelength
(D) direction (E) intensity
24. The photoelectric effect is best explained by the [ch#17]
(A} wave model of light. (B} photon model of light.
(C) interference of light waves. (D) diffraction of light waves.
(E) Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
25. If the average speed of the molecules of an ideal gas is doubled, the temperature of
the gas [ch#11]
(A) remains the same. (B) is doubled.
(C) is halved. (D) is quadrupled. (E) is
quartered.
26. A heat engine uses heat to do 50 J of work, and then exhausts 100 J of energy into a cold
reservoir.
The heat added to the heat engine is [ch#11]
(A) 150 (B) 100 (C) 50 J.
(D) 200 (E) zero.
27. 53. A heat engine uses heat to do 50 J of work, and then exhausts 100 J of energy into a
cold reservoir The efficiency of the heat engine is [ch#11]
(A) 25%. (B) 33%.
(C) 50%. (D) 75%. (E) 100%.
28. ` What is the magnitude of the change in momentum of the ball? [ch#03]
(A) mv (B) 2mv
 (C) mv/2 (D) mv/4
(E) zero
29. A periodic wave is sent through a tight spring. If the tension in the spring is reduced,
the wavelength of the wave will [ch#08]
(A) decrease. (B) increase.
(C) remain the same. (D) become zero.
(E) equal the length of the spring.
30. A child on a skateboard crosses a line on the sidewalk traveling with a speed of 2 m/s
when he
begins accelerating at a constant rate of 2 m/s2What will be the child's speed after 3 s?
[ch#03]
(A) 8 m/s (B) 9 m/s
(C) 12 m/s (D) 15 m/s
(E) 18 m/s
How far past the line on the sidewalk. will the child be after 3 s? [ch#03]
(A) 8 m (B) 9 m (C) 12
m
(D) 15 m (E) 18 m
31. . A series of alternate bright and dark bands of light appear on a screen. What most likely
caused this pattern on the screen? [ch#09]
(A) light passing through a converging lens
(B) light passing through a diverging lens
(C) light passing through two very narrow slits
(D) photons emitted from a metal,
(E) photons in an emission spectrum
32. A constant force acts on a mass. If the mass were tripled but the force remained constant,
the acceleration of the mass would be
(A) nine times as much. (B) three times as much.
_ (C) unchanged. (D) one third as much.
(E) one ninth as much.
33. As the moon orbits the earth in a circular orbit, [ch#06]
(A) its velocity is parallel to the gravitational force between the moon and the Earth.
(B) its speed increases.
(C) its acceleration increases.
(D) its acceleration is constant in both magnitude and direction.
(E) its acceleration is constant in magnitude but variable in direction
34. Neglecting air resistance, all objects fall with [ch#03]
(A) the gravitational force is the same on each.
(B) their weights are equal.
(C) the ratio of weight to mass for all objects is a constant.
(D) the ratio of force to acceleration for all objects is a constant.
(E) the inertia of all objects is the same.
35. A boy facing forward in a tall bus throws a ball straight up at the same instant the bus
begins to accelerate forward. Which of the following best describes the subsequent
motion of the ball? [ch#03]
(A) The ball goes up and then straight back down into the boy's hand.
 (B) The ball goes up and lands in front of the boy.
( C) The ball goes up and lands behind the boy.
(D) The ball stops in the air as the bus is accelerating and "floats" until the bus stops
accelerating.
(E) The ball goes up and ro the right of the boy.
36. On a cold morning, a metal floor feels colder to your feet than a wood floor because
[ch#11]
(A) metal conducts heat more readily than wood.
(B) wood conducts heat more readily than metal.
(C) metal has a higher specific heat than wood.
(D) the temperature of the wood is higher than the temperature of the metal.
(E) the temperature of the metal is higher than the temperature of the wood.
37. The number 300,000,000 can be written as [ch#01]
{A) 3 x 106 (B) 3 x 107
.
(C) 3 x 108• (D) 3 x 10'.
(E) 3 x 10-9•
38. The fundamental SI units for mass, length, and time, respectively , are [ch#01]
(A) newton, meter, minute. (B) kilogram, meter, second.
(C) pound, foot, hour. (D) pound, foot, second.
(E) kilogram, centimeter, hour.
39. A millimeter is [ch#01]
(A) JOl m. (B) 10' m.
(C) 101 m. (D) 10-3 m.
(E) 10-6 m.
40. How many nanometers are in a kilometer [ch#01]
(A) 10-9 (B) 109 (C) 10-12
{D) 1012 (E) 1021
41. Which of the following quantities is NOT a vector quantity? [ch#02]
(A) displacement (B) mass
(C) resultant (D) equilibrant
(E) 10 km at 30° north of east
42. The resultant of the two displacement vectors 3 m east and 4 m north is
(A) 5 m northeast. (B) 7 m northeast.
{C) 1 m southwest. {D) 1 m northeast.
(E) 12 m northeast.
43. Two displacement vectors, each having a y-component of 10 km, are added together to
fonn a resultant
that forms an angle of 60° from the +x-axis. What is the magnitude of the resultant?
(sin 60° = 0.87, cos 60° = 0.5)
(A) 23 m (B) 40 m
(C) 12 m (D) 20 m (E) 30 m
 44. A car is traveling at 40 km/hr and the driver puts on the brakes, bringing the car to rest in

a time of 6 seconds. What’s the magnitude of the average acceleration of the car in units

of km/hr2? [ch#03]

A. 240 km/hr2 B. 12,000 km/hr2

C. 24,000 km/hr2 D. 30,000 km/hr2

45. If an object is released 19.6 m above the ground, how long does it take the object to reach

the ground? [ch#03]

A. 1 s B. 2 s C. 4s D. 10s

46. At a place where g is 9.8 m/s2, an object is thrown vertically downward with a speed of
10 m/s while a different object is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 20 m/s. Which
object undergoes a greater change in speed in a time of 2 seconds? [ch#03]

A. The first object, because the speed vector points in the same direction as the acceleration due to

gravity

B. The second object, because it has a higher velocity

C. Both objects undergo the same change in speed.

D. Cannot be determined from the information given.

47. A firefighter jumps horizontally from a burning building with an initial speed of 1.5 m/s.
At what time is the angle between his velocity and acceleration the greatest?

A. The instant he jumps

B. When he reaches terminal velocity

C. Halfway through his fall

D. Right before he hits the ground

48. If a toy magnet is able to generate one centi tesla, how many teslas would 108 magnets be
able to generate?[ch#01]

A. 1 kT B. 1 MT C. 1 GT D. 1 TT

49. Which of the following quantities is NOT a vector? [ch#02]
A. Velocity
B. Force
C. Displacement
D. Distance
50. A 1,000 kg rocket ship, traveling at 100 m/s, is acted on by
an average force of 20 kN applied in the direction of its
motion for 8 s. What is the change in velocity of the rocket?
[ch#03]
A. 100 m/s
B. 160 m/s
C. 1,600 m/s
D. 2,000 m/s
51. An elevator is designed to carry a maximum of weight of

9,800 N (including its own weight) and to move upward at

aspeed of 5 m/s after an initial period of acceleration. What
is the relationship between the maximum tension in the
elevator cable and the maximum weight of 9,800 N when the
elevator is accelerating upward? [ch#06]

A. The tension is greater than 9,800 N.

B. The tension is less than 9,800 N.
C. The tension equals 9,800 N.
D. It cannot be determined from the information given.
52. A 10 kg wagon rests on a frictionless inclined plane. The
plane makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. What is the
force, F, required to keep the wagon from sliding down the
plane? [ch#06]
A. 10 N B. 30 N
C. 49 N D. 98 N
 A 20 kg wagon is released from rest from the top of a 15 m long
plane, which is angled at 30° with the horizontal. Assuming there
is friction between the ramp and the wagon, how is this frictional
force affected if the angle of the incline is increased? [ch#03]

A. The frictional force increases.

B. The frictional force decreases.
C. The frictional force remains the same.
D. It cannot be determined from the information given.
53. An astronaut weighs 700 N on Earth. What is the best

approximation of her new weight on a planet with a radius

that is two times that of Earth, and a mass three times that of
Earth? [ch#06]

A. 200 N
B. 500 N
C. 700 N
D. 900 N
54. A 30 kg girl sits on a seesaw at a distance of 2 m from the
fulcrum. Where must her father sit to balance the seesaw if
he has a mass of 90 kg? [ch#05]
A. 67 cm from the girl
B. 67 cm from the fulcrum
C. 133 cm from the girl
D. 267 cm from the fulcrum
 55. Anobject is moving uniformly in a circle whose diameter is
200 m. If the centripetal acceleration of the object is 4 m/s ,
2

then what is the time for one revolution of the circle? [ch#04]
A. 10π s
B. 20π s
C. 100 s
D. 200 s
An elevator is accelerating down at 4 m/s . How much does a 10
2

kg fish weigh if measured inside the elevator? [ch#006]

A. 140 N
B. 100 N
C. 60 N
D. 50 N
56. A 1 kg ball with a radius of 20 cm rolls down a 5 m high

inclined plane. Its speed at the bottom is 8 m/s. How many

revolutions per second is the ball making when at the bottom
of the plane? [ch#04]

A. 6 revolutions/second
B. 12 revolutions/second
C. 20 revolutions/second
D. 23 revolutions/second
57. A 1,000 kg satellite traveling at speed v maintains an orbit of
radius, R, around the earth. What should be its speed if it is
to develop a new orbit of radius 4R ? [ch#04]
A. ¼ v
B. ½ v
 C. 2 v
D. 4 v

58. A 2,000 kg experimental car can accelerate from 0 to 30

m/s in 6.3 s. What is the average power of the engine needed
to achieve this acceleration? [ch#07]
A. 143 W
B. 143 kW
C. 900 J
D. 900 kJ
4. A 40 kg block is resting at a height of 5 m off the ground. If the
block is released and falls to the ground, what is its total energy at
a height of 2 m? [ch#07]
A. 0J
B. 400 J
C. 2 kJ
D. It cannot be determined from the information given.
59. Two billiard balls, one moving at 0.5 m/s, the other at rest,

undergo a perfectly elastic collision. If the masses of the

billiard balls are equal and the speed of the stationary one
after the collision is 0.5 m/s, then what is the speed of the
other ball after the collision?

A . 0 m/s
B . 0.5 m/s
C . 1 m/s
D . 1.5 m/s
60. A 2,500 kg car traveling at 20 m/s crashes into a 6,000
kg truck that is originally at rest. What is the speed of the
truck after the collision, if the car comes to rest at the point
of impact? (Neglect the effects of friction.) [ch#03]
A . 0 m/s
B . 8.33 m/s
C . 16.7 m/s
D . 83 m/s
61. Which of the following are elastic collisions? [ch#03]

I. A planet breaks into several fragments.

II. Two balls collide and then move away from each other with the
same speed but reverse directionality.
III. A volleyball hits the net, slows down, and then jumps back with
one-half its initial speed.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
A 1 kg cart travels down an inclined plane at 5 m/s and strikes
two billiard balls, which start moving in opposite directions
perpendicular to the initial direction of the cart. Ball A has a mass
of 2 kg andmoves away at 2 m/s, while ball B has a mass of 1 kg
 and moves away at 4 m/s. Which of the following statements is
true? [ch#03]

A. The cart will come to a halt in order to conserve momentum.

B. The cart will slow down.
C. The cart will continue moving as before, while balls A and B will
convert the gravitational potential energy of the cart into their own
kinetic energies.
D. These conditions are impossible because they violate either the
law of conservation of momentum or conservation of energy.
62. If an object with an initial temperature of 300 K increases its
temperatures by 1 K every minute, by how many degrees
Celsius will its temperature have increased in 10 minutes?
[ch#11]
A. 10°C
B. 27°C
C. 100°C
D. 270°C
63. Which of the following choices correctly identifies the
following three heat transfer processes? [ch#11]
1.Heat  transferred from the sun to the earth
2. A metal spoon heating up when placed in a pot of hot soup
3. A rising plume of smoke from a fire
A. 1.Radiation ; 2. Conduction; 3.
B. 1. Conduction; 2.Radiation ; 3.
C. 1. ; 2. ; 3. Conduction
D. 1. ; 2. Conduction; 3.

64. Inan adiabatic compression process, the internal energy of

the gas [ch#11]
A. increases, because the work done on the gas is negative.
B. increases, because the work done on the gas is positive.
C. decreases, because the work done on the gas is negative.
D. decreases, because the work done on the gas is positive.
65. the entropy of a system can [ch#11]

A.never decrease.
B. decrease when the entropy of the surroundings increases by at
least as much.
C. decrease when the system is isolated and the process is
irreversible.
D. decrease during an adiabatic reversible process.
66. The internal energy of an object increases adiabatic in an
process. Which of the following must be true regarding this
process? [ch#11]
A. The kinetic energy of the system is changing.
B. The potential energy of the system is changing.
C. is Work done on the system.
D.Heat  flows into the system.
 66. Ifthe electric field at 3 m away from a charge is 8 N/C, what
is the electric potential at a point 6 m away from the charge?
[ch#12]
A. 2 V
B. 6 V
C. 12 V
D. 24 V
67. The electric potential applied to a certain electron is
increased by a factor of 4. The velocity of the electron will
increase by a factor of [ch#12]
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2
68. Acertain 9-volt battery is used as a power source to move a 2
C charge. How much work is done by the battery? [ch#13]
A. J
B. 9 J
C. 18 J
D. 36 J
69. A proton and an alpha particle (a helium nucleus) repel
each other with a force of F while they are 20 nm apart. If
each particle combines with three electrons, what is the
new force between them? [ch#12]
A. 9F
B. 3F
 C. F
D. F/9
70. Which of the following is NOT a necessary condition for
having a magnetic force on a particle? [ch#14]
A. The particle must have a charge other than zero.
B. The particle must move in a direction that is neither parallel nor
antiparallel to the direction of the magnetic field.

C. There must be a current.

D. The particle must have a certain length.
71. If the magnetic field a distance r away from a current
carrying wire is 10 T, what will be the total magnetic field at
r if another wire is placed a distance 2r from the original
wire and has a current twice as strong flowing in the opposite
direction? The magnetic field generated by a current carrying
wire is B = μ i/(2πr). [ch#14]
o

A. 0 T
B. 15 T
C. 20 T
D. 30 T
72. Two positive charges are traveling in opposite directions
parallel to the uniform magnetic field. It can be inferred that
the magnetic force on both charges
A. is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
B. has the same direction but different magnitudes.
C. is zero.
D. is different in both magnitude and direction.
 73. Anegatively charged particle of 2 C and 0.005 g is spinning
in a uniform magnetic field along the circle with a radius of 8
cm. knowing that the strength of magnetic field is 5 T,
calculate the speed of the particle. [ch#14]
A. 1.3 × 10 m/s
-2

B. 160 m/s
C. 1.6 × 10 m/s
5

D. 1.3 × 10 m/s
-5

74. A power cable, stretched 8 m above the ground, is carrying

50 A of current. Determine the magnetic field produced by
the current at the ground level under the wire if μ , the
o

permeability of free space, is 1.26 × 10 Tm/A. [ch#14]

-6

A. 1.26 × 10 T -6

B. 4.5 × 10 T -6

C. 33 × 10 T -6

D. 0.5 × 10 T -6

75. A researcher is interested in creating a particle accelerator

that can spin particles in the uniform magnetic field at the

highest possible speed. This can be achieved by all of the
following EXCEPT [ch#14]

A. increasing magnetic field strength.

B. increasing mass of the particles.
C. increasing orbital radius.
D. increasing charge of the particle.
76. A proton and an electron are traveling in the uniform
magnetic field with identical velocities. If the movement of
 both particles is perpendicular to the magnetic field lines,
which of the following is/are NOT true? [ch#14]
I. The acceleration of the proton is greater than that of the
electron.
II. The proton will experience a greater kinetic energy
change than the electron.
III. The magnetic force on both particles is zero.
A. III only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
77. If the resistance of two conductors of equal cross-sectional
area and equal lengths are compared, they are found to be in
the ratio 1:2. The resistivities of the materials from which
they are constructed must therefore be in what ratio? [ch#13]
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 1:3
78. If a voltaic cell provides a current of 0.5 A, the resistor in the
circuit has a resistance of 3 Ω, and the internal resistance of
the battery is 0.1 Q, what is the voltage across the terminals
of the battery when there is no current flowing? [ch#13]
A. 0.05 V
B. 1.5 V
C. 1.505 V
D. 1.55 V
79. Which of the following will most likely increase the electric
field between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor? [ch#12]
A. Adding a resistor that is connected to the capacitor in series
B. Adding a resistor that is connected to the capacitor in parallel
C. Increasing the distance between the plates
D. Adding an extra battery to the system
80. If the length of a pendulum is increased from 2 m to 8 m,
how will the period of oscillation be affected? [Ch#08]
A. It will double.
B. It will be halved.
C. It will quadruple.
D. It will decrease by one-fourth.
If the speed of a wave is 3 m/s and its wavelength is 10 cm, what
is the period? [ch#08]
A. 0.01 s
B. 0.03 s
C. 0.1 s
D. 0.3 s
81. A certain sound level is increased by an additional 20 dB. By
how much does its intensity increase? [ch#08]
A. 2
B. 20
C. 100
D. log 2
 82. Iftwo waves are 180° out of phase, what is the amplitude of
the resultant wave if the amplitudes of the original waves are
5 cm and 3 cm? [ch#08]
A. 2 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 8 cm
83. In which of the following media does sound travel the
fastest? [ch#08]
A. Vacuum
B. Air
C. Water
D. Glass
84. A mass on a pendulum oscillates under simple harmonic
motion. A student wants to double the period of the system.
She can do this by which of the following?[ch#08]
I. Increasing the mass
II. Dropping the mass from a higher height
III. Increasing the mass length of the string
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
85. As an officer approaches a student who is studying with his
radio playing loudly beside him, he experiences the Doppler
effect. Which of the following statements remains true as the
officer moves closer to the student? [ch#08]
I. The apparent frequency of the music increases.
II. The same effect will be produced if the officer is stationary and
the student approaches him.
III. The apparent velocity of the wave increases.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III
86. If the frequency of a pendulum is four times greater on an
unknown planet than it is on earth, then the gravitational
constant on that planet is [ch#08]
A. 16 times greater.
B. 4 times greater.
C. 4 times lower.
D. 16 times lower.
87. If a light ray has a of frequency 5.0 × 10 Hz, in which
14

region of the electromagnetic spectrum can it be located?

[ch#09]
A. X-ray
B. UV
C. Visible
D. Infrared
 A standing child has a plane mirror 5 m away from his left arm
and another plane mirror 7 m away from his right arm. How far
 apart are the two images produced by the mirrors if the child has
an arm span of 0.5 m? [ch#10]

A. 2 m
B. 12 m
C. 12.5 m
D. 24.5 m
88. An object is placed at the center of curvature of a
concave mirror. Which of the following is true about the
image? [ch#10]
A. It is real and inverted.
B. It is virtual and inverted.
C. It is virtual and upright.
D. It is real and upright.
4. When monochromatic light is refracted as it passes from air to glass,
which of the following does not remain the same? (Assume that
the wave is fully transmitted.) [ch#10]
A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Period
89. Which of the following describes the image formed by an
object placed in front of a convex lens at a distance smaller
than the focal length? [ch#10]
A. Virtual and inverted
B. Virtual and upright
C. Real and upright
D. Real and inverted
90. A student is analyzing the behavior of a light ray that is
passed through a small opening and a lens and allowed to
project on a screen a distance away. What happens to the
central maximum (the brightest spot on the screen) when the
slit becomes narrower?[ch#09]
A. The central maximum remains the same.
B. The central maximum becomes narrower.
C. The central maximum becomes wider.
D. The central maximum divides into smaller light fringes.
91. Which of the following are able to produce a virtual image?
[Ch#10]
I. Convex lens
II. Concave lens
III. Plane mirror
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
92. The near point, or nearest point at which an object can be

seen clearly, of one of your eyes is 100 cm. You wish to see
your friend’s face clearly when she stands 50 cm in front of
you. If you use a contact lens to adjust your eyesight, what
must be the radius of curvature and power of the contact
lens?[ch#10]
 A. r = 33 cm; P = 3 diopters
B. r = 67 cm; P = 3 diopters
C. r = 100 cm; P = 2 diopters
D. r = 200 cm; P = 1 diopter
93. In the hydrogen atom, how many electron states fall in the
energy range -10.2 eV to -1.4 eV?[ch#18]
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
94. Which of the following statements is NOT consistent with
Bohr’s set of postulates regarding the hydrogen atom model
with regard to the emission and absorption of light? [ch#18]

A. Energy levels of the electron are stable and discrete.

B. An electron emits or absorbs radiation only when making a
transition from one energy level to another.
C. To jump from a lower energy to a higher energy, an electron must
absorb a photon of precisely the right frequency such that the
photon’s energy equals the energy difference between the two
orbits.
D. To jump from a higher energy to a lower energy, an electron
absorbs a photon of a frequency such the photon’s energy is
exactly the energy difference between the two orbits.
 95. What
is the difference in ionization energy for a hydrogen
atom with its electron in the ground state and a hydrogen
atom with its electron in the n = 4 state? [ch#18]
A. 0 eV
B. 0.85 eV
C. 12.75 eV
D. 13.6 eV
96. When a hydrogen atom electron falls to the ground state from
the n = 2 state, 10.2 eV of energy is emitted. What is the
wavelength of this radiation? (Use 1 eV = 1.60 × 10 J, h =
-19

6.63 × 10 J × s.)[ch#18]
-34

A. 1.22 × 10 m -7

B. 3.45 × 10 m -7

C. 5.76 × 10 m -9

D. 2.5 × 10 m
15

97. Radiation is emitted from a small window in a large furnace.

When the temperature of the furnace is doubled, the peak
emitted energy [ch#17]
A. remains constant.
B. increases by a factor of 2.
C. increases by a factor of 4.
D. increases by a factor of 16.
98. Ultraviolet light is more likely to cause a photoelectric effect
than visible light. This is because photons of ultraviolet light
[ch#17]
A. have a longer wavelength.
B. have a higher velocity.
C. are not visible.
D. have a higher energy.
99. All of the following are characteristics of the photoelectric
effect EXCEPT [ch#17]
A. The intensity of the light beam does not affect the photocurrent.
B. The kinetic energies of the emitted electrons do not depend on the
light intensity.
C. A weak beam of light of frequency greater than the threshold
frequency yields more current than an intense beam of light of
frequency lower than the threshold.
D. For light of a given frequency, the kinetic energy of emitted
electrons increases as the value of the work function decreases.
100. Element X is radioactive and decays via α decay with a
half-life of four days. If 12.5 percent of an original sample of
element X remains after N days, what is the value of N?
[ch#19]
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
101. A patient undergoing treatment for thyroid cancer
receives a dose of radioactive iodine ( I), which has a half-
131

life of 8.05 days. If the original dose contained 12 mg of I,

131

what mass of I remains after 16.1 days? [ch#19]

131

A. 3 mg
B. 6 mg
C. 9 mg
D. 12 mg

102. A certain carbon nucleus dissociates completely into α

particles. How many particles are formed? [ch#19]
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
103. The half-life of C is approximately 5,730 years, while
14

the half-life of C is essentially infinite. If the ratio of C to

12 14

C in a certain sample is 25% less than the normal ratio in

12

nature, how old is the sample? [ch#19]

A. Less than 5,730 years
B. Approximately 5,730 years
C. Significantly greater than 5,730 years, but less than 11,460 years
D. Approximately 11,460 years

A nuclide undergoes 2 alpha decays, 2 positron decays, and 2

gamma decays. What is the difference between the atomic number
of the parent nuclide and the atomic number of the daughter
nuclide? [ch#19]
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
 104. A red car and a blue car have the same mass and are moving on the highway. The red car is
traveling at 60 miles per hour and the blue car is traveling at 30 miles per hour. 14. The ratio of the red
car's momentum to the blue car's momentum is [ch#03]
(A) 4.
(B) 2.
(C) I.
(D) l/2
(E) l/4
105. A red car and a blue car have the same mass and are moving on the highway. The red car is
traveling at 60 miles per hour and the blue car is traveling at 30 miles per hour. The ratio of the red
car's kinetic energy to the blue car's kinetic energy is [ch#07]
(A) 4.
(B) 2.
(C) I.
(D) l/2
(E) l/4
106. A 15 kg block rests on a surface of negligible friction and is pulled by a string that is passed
over a pulley of negligible mass and connected to a hanging5 kg block. The net force acting on the 15
kg block is equal to [ch#07]
(A) the weight of the 5 kg block.
(B) the tension in the string.
(C) the difference between the weight of the
15 kg block and the 5 kg block.
(D) the sum of the weight of the 15 kg block
and the 5 kg block.
(E) the weight of the 15 kg block.
107. A 15 kg block rests on a surface of negligible friction and is pulled by a string that is passed
over a pulley of negligible mass and connected to a hanging5 kg block . In terms of the acceleration
due to gravity g, the acceleration of the system is[ch#03]
(A) g/5 (B) g/4 (C) g/3
(D) g (E) 3 g.
108. The energy levels above ground state for a hypothetical atom are shown above. What
is the energy of a photon emitted as a result of an electron in this atom making a transition from the third
energy level to the second energy level? [ch#18]
(A) 10 eV (B) 6 eV (C) 4 eV
(D) 2 eV (Ej 1 eV
109. Consider the three statements below. [ch#18]
I. The atom is mostly empty space.
II. Electrons orbit the nucleus of the atom,
III. The atom has a dense, positively charged nucleus.
Which of the above statements were conclusions drawn by Rutherford about the structure of the
atom after studying the results of his alpha scattering experiment?
(A) I only (B) II only ( C) I and II only
(D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
110. Which of the following colors of light has the lowest frequency? [ch#09]
(A) violet (B) blue (C) green
(D) yellow (E) orange
111. A resistor in a closed circuit that has 2 A of current flowing through it and 12 volts across it.
The value of the resistor is
(A) 6 (B) 10 . (C) 14.
(D) 24. (E) 144
30. A resistor in a closed circuit that has 2 A of current flowing through it and 12 volts across it. The power
dissipated in the resistor is
(A) 6 watts. (B) 10 watts. ( C) 14 watts.
(D) 24 watts. (E) 144 watts.
112. Which of the following is NOT a unit for energy'?[ch#01]
(A) joule (B) kilowatt-hour (C) calorie
(D) watt (E) eV
113. A pendulum is dropped from a height of 4 m . The speed of the pendulum
at the lowest point in the swing is most nearly [ch#08]
(A) 6 m/s (B) 7 m/s. (C) 8 m/s.
(D) 9 m/s. (E) 10 m/s.
114. Two blocks of equal mass are connected bya string. Block 2 is pulled by a force of 40 N,
which accelerates both blocks at 3 m/s2 along a surface of negligible friction. The tension in the string
connecting the blocks is [ch#03]
(A) 120 N. (B) 80N. (C) 40N.
(D) 20N. (E) 13N.
115. A ball dropped from a tower will strike the ground below in 3 s. If the ball is launched
horizontally from the tower at a speed of 10 m/s, how far horizontally from the base of the tower will
the ball land on the level ground [ch#04]
(A) 100 m (B) 45 m (C) 30 m
(D) 10 m (E) 3.3 m
116. On the microscopic scale, friction is caused by which of the following fundamental forces?
[ch#03]
(A) gravitational (B) electrostatic (C) strong nuclear
(D) weak nuclear (E) proton and neutron
117. The time for one complete swing of a pendulum is called its period. The period of a
pendulum for small swings near the Earth depends on its [ch#08]
(A) length and amplitude of swing only. (B) amplitude of swing and mass only.
(C) length only. (D) amplitude only.
(E) length . mass, and amplitude of swing.
118. A cluster of magnetically aligned atoms in a magnetic material is called a [ch#14]
(A) domain. (B) molecule.
(C) pole. (D) charge. (E) electron cloud.
119. A 50 volt battery supplies 100 w of power to each of the two identical light bulbs. The current
passing through bulb 1 is 4 A. The voltmeter across bulb 1 will read [ch#13]
(A) 100 V. (B) 50 V. (C) 25 v.
(D) 4 V. (E) zero.
120. A 50 volt battery supplies 100 w of power to each of the two identical light bulbs. The current
passing through bulb 1 is 4 A The current through bulb 2 is [ch#13]
(A) 2 A. (B) 4 A. (C) 8 A.
(D) 100 A. (E) zero.
121. A 50 volt battery supplies 100 w of power to each of the two identical light bulbs. The current
passing through bulb 1 is 4 A. The resistance of each bulb is most nearly [ch#13]
(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 6
(D) 4 (E) 2
122. Two beams of light, red and blue, enter a prism as shown above. Which of the following
Statements is true concerning the light as it passes through the prism? [ch#09]
(A) The blue light will bend more than the red light, since the blue light has a longer wavelength.
(B) The red light will bend more than the blue light, since the red light has a longer wavelength.
(C) The blue light will bend more than the red 1ight,!since the blue light has a shorter wavelength.
(D) Thu red light will bend more than the blue light, since the red light has a shorter wavelength.
(E) The red and blue light will bend by the same amount, since all colors of light refract equally.
Green light is passed through two narrow slits and forms a pattern of bright and dark lines on a screen. The
phenomena primarily responsible for this pattern is [ch#09]
(A) refraction. (B) reflection. (C) polarization.
(D) interference, (E) intensity
123. An ultraviolet photon has twice the frequency of a red photon. The ratio of the energy of the
ultraviolet photon to the energy of the red photon is[ch#17]
(A) 4. (B) 2. (C) 1.
(D) ½ (E) ¼
124. Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity?
(A) kinetic energy (B) force ( C) displacement
(D) velocity (E) momentum
125. The molecules of an ideal gas are increasing their collisions per unit time with the walls
of a sealed container of constant volume. Which of the three choices below must also be increasing?
I. pressure II. Temperature III. number'of moles of gas
(A) I only (B) II only (C) I and II only
(D) II and III only (E) I and III only
126. Let g be the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the Earth. What would be the
acceleration due to gravity at a distance of four Earth radii from the center of the Earth?
(A) 16 g
(B) 4g
(C) 2g
(D) ¼ g
(E) 1/16 g
127.In 1887, Heinrich Hertz discovered the photoelectric effect. When ultraviolet light is shined on a zinc metal
surface, he found that the metal
(A) emitted protons. (B) emitted neutrons.
( C) became negatively charged. (D) became positively charged. (E) emitted photons.
128. Which of the following is NOT a postulate or result of Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom?
(A) Excited gases emit a bright-line emission spectrum.[ch#18]
(B) The electron in the hydrogen atom can be found at any radius around the nucleus of the atom.
( C) When the electron makes a transition to a higher energy level, it has absorbed energy.
(D) When the electron makes a transition to a lower energy level, it has emitted energy.
(E) The energy levels of the electron are quantized.
129. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that
(A) we can measure the position of an electron only if we know its momentum.
(B) we can measure the momentum of an electron only if we know its position.
(C) only one electron can exist in the lowest energy level of an atom.
(D) light can behave like a wave or a photon.
(E) there is a limit to the accuracy of the measurement of subatomic particles.
130.You are sitting on a seat facing forward on an airplane with its wings parallel to the ground.
The window shades of the airplane are closed, and the vibration of the plane is negligible. When you place your
class ring on the end of a necklace chain and hold the other end in front of you, you notice that the chain and
ring hang vertically and point directly to the floor of the airplane. Which of the following could be true of the
airplane? [ch#17]
I. The airplane is at rest.
II. The airplane is moving with a constant velocity.
III. The airplane is increasing its speed.
IV. The airplane is decreasing its speed.
(A) I only (B) I1I only ( C) I or II, but not III or IV
(D) III or IV, but not I or II (E) IV only
131.If 400 g of water at 40°C is mixed with 100 g of water at 30°C, the resulting temperature of
the water is [ch#11]
(A) 13°C. (B) 26°C. (C) 36°C.
(D) 38°C. (E) 44°C.
 132. A 40 ohm resistor in a closed circuit has 20 volts across it. The current flowing through the
resistor is [ch#13]
(A) 0.5 A. (B) 2A. (C) 20A.
(D) 80A. (E) 800A.
133. Two blocks each weighing 50 N are connected to the ends of a light string that is passed over
a pulley. The tension in the string is
(A) 25 N. (B) 50 N. (C) 100 N.
(D) 200 N. (E) 500 N.
134. A horizontal force Facts on a block of mass m that is initially at rest on a floor of negligible
friction. The force acts for a time t and moves the block a displacement d. The acceleration of the block
is[ch#03]
(A) Ft.
(B) Fd.
(C) F/m
(D) m/F.

(E)d/t
135. A horizontal force Facts on a block of mass m that is initially at rest on a floor of negligible
friction. The force acts for a time t and moves the block a displacement d.The change in momentum of the
[ch#03] block is
(A) F/t
(B) m/t
(C) Fd.
(D) Ft.
(E) mt.
136. A horizontal force Facts on a block of mass m that is initially at rest on a floor of negligible
Friction. The force acts for a time t and moves the block a displacement d. The change in the kinetic energy of
the block is[ch#07]
(A) Fd.
(B) F/d
(C) Ft.
(D) t/d
(E)d/t
137. An ideal gas is enclosed in a container that has a fixed volume. If the temperature of the gas is
increased, which of the following will also increase? [ch#11]
I. The pressure against the walls of the container.
II. The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules.
III. The number of moles of gas in the container.
(A) I only (B) I and II only ( C) II and III only
(D) II only (E) III only
138. A charge is placed near a magnetic field. In which of the following cases would the charge
experience a force? [ch#14]
I. The charge is placed inside the magnetic field and is not moving.
II. The charge is moving and its velocity is perpendicular to the magnetic field lines.
III. The charge is moving and its velocity is parallel to the magnetic field lines.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) II only
(E) III only
139. A bar magnet is moving through a stationary coil of wire. If the magnet suddenly
stops halfway through the coil, which of the following will occur? [ch#14]
(A) The magnet will lose its magnetic field.
(B) The current induced in the coil will , continue flowing in the same direction.
( C) The current induced in the coil will stop.
(D) The current induced in the coil will reverse direction.
(E) The magnet will be pushed out of the coil
140. A generator is constructed by placing a coil of wire in a magnetic field. The coil is rotated in a
clockwise direction in the magnetic field at a constant rate to induce a current in the wire. If the coil of
wire is rotated in a counterclockwise direction at the same constant rate, which of the following will
occur? [ch#14]
(A) The current in the coil will reverse its direction.
(B) The current in the coil will stop flowing.
(C) The current in the coil will continue to flow in the same direction as before.
(D) The current in the coil will decrease steadily.
(E) The current in the coil will increase steadily ..
141.If the distance between the masses is doubled, which of the following is true?[ch#06]
(A) The gravitational force will increase.
(B) The electric force will increase.
( C) The gravitational force will decrease, but the electric force will remain the same.
(D) The electric force will decrease, but the gravitational force will remain the same.
(E) Both the gravitational and electric forces will decrease.
142.An ohm is defined as one volt per ampere, and an ampere is a coulomb per second. Afarad, the unit for
capacitance, is a coulomb per volt. An ohm times a farad is a unit of [ch#12]
(A) voltage. (B) resistance. (C) energy.
(D) time. (E) charge.
143.A sealed bottle contains 100 grams of radioactive iodine. After 24 days, the bottle contains only 12.5
grams of radioactive iodine. The half-life of this isotope of iodine is most nearly [ch#19]
(A) 24 days. (B) 16 days. (C) 12 days.
(D) 8 days. (E) 3 days.
144. A converging lens forms an image primarily due to the phenomenon of [ch#10]
(A) refraction. (B) reflection.
(C) diffraction. (D) constructive interference. (E) destructive interference.
145. Sound is an example of a [ch#08]
(A) electromagnetic wave. (B) longitudinal wave.
(C) transverse wave. (D) torsional wave. (E) circular wave.
146. A car has a speed of20 m/s and a momentum of 12,000 kg m/s. The mass of the car is [ch#03]
(A) 240,000 kg. (B) 6,000 kg. (C) 1,200 kg.
(D) 600 kg. (E) 120 kg.
147. Two metal spheres of equal size are charged and mounted on insulated stands. One sphere
has- a chaige of +8 μC arid the second sphere has a charge of-14 μC‘;The two spheres are touched together
and: then separated. The charge on the second sphere will now be
(A) zero. (B) +11 μC. (C) -6 μC.
(D) -3 μC. (E) +2 μC.
148.relate to the following properties of waves.
I. speed IL wavelength III. frequency

Which of the properties change when a wave is refracted? [ch#08]

(A) I only (B) II only (C) I and II only
(D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
149.relate to the following properties of waves.
I. speed IL wavelength III. frequency
Which one of the three is the product of the other two? [ch#08]
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) Any one is the product of the other two.

(E) None of the three is the product of the

other two.
150.A woman standing on a train platform listens to a train as it approaches her at a constant
speed. The train engineer blows the whistle of the train that he knows to produce a frequency
of 450 Hz. As the train approaches the woman on the platform, she will hear the frequency (pitch) of the whistle as
[ch#08]
(A) greater than 450 Hz but constant.
(B) less than 450 Hz but constant.
( C) greater than 450 Hz and steadily increasing.
(D) less than 450 Hz and steadily increasing.
(E) greater than 450 Hz and steadily decreasing.
151. If electrons are added or removed from an atom, the atom is said to be [ch#18]
(A) polarized.
(B) ionized.
(C) neutralized.
(D) an isotope.
(E) a molecule.
152. Which of the following particles has the largest mass [ch#20]?
(A) electron (B) proton
(C) neutron (D) alpha particle
(E) beta particle
153. A stone of mass I kg and weight 10 N falls through the air. The air resistance acting on
the stone is 2 N. What is the acceleration of the stone? [ch#03]
(A) 12 m/s2 (B) 9.8 m/s2
(C) 8 m/s2 (D) 5 m/s2 (E) 2 m/s2
154. If the volume of a gas is decreased ·while its temperature is held constant, which of the
following will occur? [ch#11]
(A) The average kinetic energy of the molecules of the gas will increase.
(B) The average kinetic energy of the molecules of the gas will decrease.
( C) The mass of the gas will decrease.
(D) The pressure of the gas will increase.
(E) The pressure of the gas will decrease.
A satellite is orbiting the Earth in an elliptical orbit. Which of the following must be true if the satellite's speed
is increasing? [ch#05]
(A) The satellite's distance from the Earth is increasing.
(B) The satellite's distance from the Earth is decreasing.
(C) The kinetic energy of the satellite is decreasing.
(D) The momentum of the satellite is decreasing.
(E) The gravitational force acting on the satellite is decreasing.
155. The angle above which total internal reflection will occur is called the [ch#09]
(A) critical angle. (B) refracted angle. (:C) diffracted angle ..
(D) incident angle. (E) normal angle.
156. Which of the following radioactive processes, when occurring separately, must alter
the atomic number of the radioactive nucleus? [ch#19]
I. alpha decay II. beta decay III. gamma decay
(A) !only (B) II only (C) III only
(D) I and II only (E) I, II, and III
Which of the following particles would experience the greatest electric force in the same
uniform electric field? [ch#12]
(A) proton (B) electron (C) alpha particle
(D) neutron (E) photon
157. Neutral isotopes of the same element may have different numbers of [ch#19]
(A) protons. (B) neutrons. (C) electrons.
(D) alpha particles. (E) positrons.
158. Which of the following was one of the two basic postulates of special relativity formulated
by Albert Einstein? [ch#17]
(A) Accelerating reference frames are equivalent to reference frames that are moving with a constant velocity.
(B) The speed of light has the same constant value in all inertial reference frames.
(C) Photons move slightly faster than light waves.
(D) When moving the speed of light, mass will be converted to pure energy.
(E) All physical laws are relative.
159. A space traveler is moving relative to the Earth at 0.6 times the speed of light, as mea-,
sured in the Birth's frame of reference. In one year as measured in the Earth’s frame of reference-e, the space
traveler will[ch#17]
(A) age more than one year. (B) age less than one year.
(C) age exactly one year. (D) not age at all.
(E) become younger.
160. Which of the following transitions will produce the photon with the highest frequency?
[ch#18]
(A) n=2 to n=l (B) n = 3 to n = 1
(C) n = 3 to n = 2 (D) n = 4 to n = 1
(E) n=4to n=3
161. If the. mass of an object is doubled, and the net force acting on the object is quadrupled,
the acceleration of the object is [ch#03]
(A) quartered. (B) halved. (C) unchanged.
(D) doubled. (E) quadrupled.
162. An object starts from rest and accelerates at 5 rn/s2• How far will it travel during the first 4
Seconds [ch#03]?
(A) 20 m (B) 40 m (C) 80 m
(D) 120 m (E) 160 m
163. An ideal gas in a closed container initially has a volume V, a pressure P, and Kelvin
temperature T. If the temperature is changed to 4 T, which of the following pairs of pressure and
volume is possible?
(A) Pand V
(B) P and V/2
(C) 4Pand4 V
(D) 4Pand V
(E) ¼ P and V
164. A gas in a container absorbs 300 J of heat, then has 100 J of work done on it, then does
50 J of work. The increase in the internal energy of the gas is [ch#11]
(A) 450 J. (B) 400 J. (C) 350 J.
(D) 200 J. (E) 100 J.
165. A block of weight 180 N is pulled along a horizontal surface at a constant speed by a
force of 80 N. The force acts at an angle of 30° with the horizontal The normal force by the
surface on the block is most nearly [ch#03]
(A) 20 N.
(B) 40 N.
(C) 60 N.
(D) 80 N.
(E) 140 N.
166. A block of weight 180 N is pulled along a horizontal surface at a constant speed by a
force of 80 N. The force acts at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The frictional force acting
between the block and the surface is most nearly [ch#03]
(A) 20 N.
(B) 40 N.
(C) 70 N.
(D) 80 N.
(E) 92 N.
167. A block of weight 180 N is pulled along a horizontal surface at a constant speed by a
force of 80 N. The force acts at an angle of 30° with the horizontal The coefficient of friction
between the block and the surface is most nearly [ch#03]
(A) 5.
(B) 2.
(C) 0.87.
(D) 0.50.
(E) 0.13.
168. a ball thrown straight up, reaching its maximum height in 3 s. Air resistance may be
neglected. The initial velocity of the ball is most nearly [ch#03]
(AJ 10 m/s.
(B) 15 m/s.
(CJ 30 m/s.
(DJ 45 m/s.
(EJ 60 m/s
169. a ball thrown straight up, reaching its maximum height in 3 s. Air resistance may be
neglected. The magnitude of the acceleration of the ball at the instant it reaches its maximum
height is most nearly [ch#03]
(AJ zero.
(B) 5 m/s'.
(C) 10 m/s'.
(D) 12 m/s'.
(E) 20 m/s'.
170. a ball thrown straight up, reaching its maximum height in 3 s. Air resistance may be
neglected The maximum height of the ball is [ch#03]
most nearly
(AJ 10 m.
(B) 15 m.
(C) 30 m.
(D) 45m.
(E) 60 m
171. The half-life of thorium is 24 days. If you start with a 60 μg sample of thorium,
approximately how many micrograms of thorium remains after 120 days? [ch#19]
(A) zero (B) 2 μg (C) 4 μg
(D) 8 μg (E) 15 μg.
172. The three statements below relate to ammeters and voltmeters used in an
electrical circuit. [ch#15]
I. An ammeter must be placed in series with a resistor to correctly measure the current.
II. A voltmeter must be placed in series with a resistor to correctly measure the voltage across the resistor.
III. A voltmeter must have a high resistance.
Which of the above statements are true?
(A) I only (B) II only (C) I and II only
(D) II and III only (E) I and III only
173. Two identical metal spheres are equally but oppositely charged. If the spheres are brought
into contact with each other for a long time and then separated, which of the following
statements is true? [ch#12]
(A) The charge on each sphere is the same as it was before the spheres were brought into contact.
(B) The spheres will be equally charged and positive.
(C) The spheres will be equally charged and negative.
(D) The spheres will both be neutral.
(E) The positive sphere must have more charge than the negative sphere.
174. A pencil is placed in a beaker of water and appears to be bent or broken. The property of
light responsible for the pencil appearing to be bent is [ch#09]
(A) refraction. (B) reflection. (C) diffraction.
(D) interference. (E) polarization.
175. The second law of thermodynamics (law of entropy) explains which of the following?
[ch#11]
(A) The heat lost by one object must be gained by another object.
(B) Heat flows naturally from a hotter body to a cooler body.
(C) Celsius degrees and Kelvin degrees are equivalent.
(D) Heat can be transformed into work.
(E) The average kinetic energy of molecules is proportional to temperature
176. A toy railroad car of mass 3 kg moving east collides with a 6 kg railroad car at rest, and the
two cars lock together on impact and move away together toward the east at 2 m/s. The speed of the
first car before the collision is [Ch#03]
(A) 2 m/s. (B) 3 m/s. (C) 4 m/s.
(D) 6 m/s. (E) 9 m/s.
A machine can lift a 500 N weight up to a height of 2 m in 20 seconds. The power developed by this machine
is [ch#07]
(A) 10,000 W. (B) 1,000 W. (C) 50 w.
(D) 40 W. (E) 25 W.
177. Electromagnetic induction is the basic principle for [ch#14]
(A) a resistor. (B) an electric generator.
(C) a capacitor. (D) a battery.
(E) an electroscope
178. In a radioactive decay process, the parent atom undergoes the following radioactive
decays: alpha, alpha, beta. The atomic number of the final daughter element is how many .atomic mass units
less than the parent atom? [ch#19]
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4
(D) 5 (E) 7
179. A pattern of alternating bright and dark lines is produced on the screen when light is passed
through the two narrow slits The property of light that is responsible for the bright and dark lines on
the screen is ..[ch#09]
(A) refraction.
(B) reflection.
(C) polarization.
~{D) frequency.
(E) interference
180. A pattern of alternating bright and dark lines is produced on the screen when light is passed
through the two narrow slits . If the screen is moved a greater distance from the slits, the center
bright band of light will [ch#09]
·(A) become wider. (B) become narrower .(C) remain unch"'1ged.
(D) disappear completely (E) rotate 90°.
In a photoelectric effect experiment, light of a particular frequency is shined on a metal
surface, and as a result electrons are emitted from the metal surface. Which of the following
actions would produce more electrons per second? [ch#17]
(A) Increase the frequency of the light.
(B) Decrease the frequency of the light.
(C) Increase the intensity (brightness) of the light.
(D) Decrease the intensity (brightness) of the light.
(E) Increase the wavelength of the light.
181. Which of the following statements is NOT a correct assumption of the model of an
ideal monatomic gas? [ch#11]
(A) The atoms are constantly moving.
(B) The atoms' collisions with one another create pressure directly on the container of the gas.
(C) The collisions between atoms are elastic.
(D) The only significant forces acting on the atoms are those that are applied as a result of collisions.
(E) The volume of each atom can be neglected.
182.Which of the following lists the electromagnetic waves from longest wavelength to shortest wavelength?
[ch#09]
(A) X-ray, ultraviolet, visible light
(B) visible light, ultraviolet, X-ray
(C) ultraviolet, X-ray, visible light
(D) ultraviolet, visible light, X-ray
(E) X-ray, visible light, ultraviolet
183.In a vacuum, all electromagnetic waves have the [ch#09]
(A) amplitude. (B) frequency. (C) wavelength.
(D) intensity. (E) speed.
184. A beam of light passes from air into glass. Which of the following statements is true? [ch#09]
(A) The angle of incidence is greater than the angle of refraction in the glass.
(B) The angle of incidence is less than the angle of refraction in the glass.
(C) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction in the glass.
(D) The frequency of the light decreases.
(E} The frequency of the light increases.
185. Total internal reflection occurs when [ch#09]
(A) light passes from air into water.
(B} light refracts as it exits glass into air.
(C) light reflects off of a mirror.
(D) light passing through glass is reflected inside the glass.
(E) the angle of incidence is less than the critical angle.
186. Which of the following quantities are conserved in an elastic collision? [ch#03]
(A) momentum only
(B) momentum and potential energy
(C) kinetic energy only
(D) momentum and kinetic energy
(E) momentum and velocity
187. Which of the following is NOT true of work [ch#07]?
(A) It is the scalar product of force and displacement.
(B) It is a vector that is always in the same direction as the force.
(C) It is measured in joules.
(D) lt has the same units as energy.
(E) It takes energy to perform work
188. A 5 kg box is pushed across a level floor with a force of 50 N for a displacement of 10 m, then lifted to a
height of 3 m. What is the total work done on the box? [ch#07]
(A) 250 J (B) 500J (C) 650 J
(D) 2,500 J (E) 7,500 J
 189. A 30 kg cart is pushed up the inclined plane shown by a force F to a height of 5 m. What is the potential energy
of the cart when it reaches the top of the inclined plane? [ch#07]
(A) 1,500 J (B) 630J (C) 600 J
(D) 300 J (E) 150J.
190. The work done on a system [ch#07]
(A) always changes the potential energy of the system.
(B) always changes the kinetic energy of the system.
(C) always changes the momentum of a system.
{D) can change either the potential energy or kinetic energy of the system.
(E) is not related to the energy of the system
191. A ball falls from a height h from a tower. Which of the following statements is true? [ch#07]
(A) The potential energy of the ball is conserved as it falls.
(8) The kinetic energy of the ball is conserved as it falls.
(C) The, difference between the potential energy and the kinetic energy is a constant as the ball falls.
(D) The sum of the kinetic and potential energies of the ball-is a constant.
(E) The momentum of the ball is constant as the ball fal1
192. A 0.5 kg ball is dropped from a third story window that is 10 m above the sidewalk. What is the speed of
the ball just before it strikes the sidewalk? [ch#07]
(A) 5 m/s
(B) 10 m/s
(C) 14 m/s
(D) 28 m/s
(E) 200 m/s
193. A crane can lift a 600 kg mass to height of 20 m in 2 minutes. The power at which the crane is operating is
[ch#07]
(A) 1,000 watts.
(B) 6,000 watts.
(C) 60,000 watts.
(D) 240,000 watts.
(E) 1,440,000 watts.
194.Torque [ch#05]
(A) is the vector product of force and lever arm length.
(B) is a scalar and has no direction associated with it.
(C) is always equal to force.
(D) is always greater for shorter lever arms.
(E) must always equal zero.
195. According to Hooke's law for a mass vibrating on an ideal spring, doubling the stretch distance will [ch#08]
(A) double the velocity of the mass.
(B) double the force that the spring exerts on the mass.
(C) quadruple the force the spring exerts on the mass.
(D) double the period.
(E) double the frequency.
196. As a planet orbits the Sun, which of the following must remain constant? [ch#05]
(A) velocity
(B) gravitational force
(C) radius of orbit
(D) angular momentum
(E) the product of mass and velocity
197. When charge is transferred from one object to another, which of the following are actually transferred? [ch#12]
(A) electrons
(B) protons
(C) neutrons
(D) quarks
(E) photons
198. If the electric force between two charges is attractive, which of the following must be true?
(A) One charge is positive and the other charge is negative.
(B) Both charges are positive.
(C) Both charges are negative.
(D) The two charges must be equal in magnitude.
(E) The force must be directed toward the larger charge.

199. A force of 40N acts on a charge of 0.25 C in a region of space. The electric field at the point of the charge
[ch#12]
(A) 10 N/C.
(B) 100 N/C.
(C) 160 NIC.
(D) 40 N/C.
(E) 0.00625 N/C.
200. Electric potential
(A) is a vector quantity.
(B) is proportional to the work done in an electric field.
(C) is always equal to the electric field.
(D) is zero when a charge is in an electric field.
(E) is measured in N/C.
201. Two conducting plates are separated by a distance of 0.001 m. A 9 V battery is connected across the plates.
The electric field between the plates is [ch#12]
(A) 9,DOV V/m.
(8) 900 V/m.
(C) 9 V/m.
(D) 0.009 V/m.
(E) 0.00011 V/m.

A parachutist jumps from a plane. Beginning at the point when she

reaches terminal velocity, which of the following is/are true?

1. The jumper is in translational equilibrium.

2. The jumper is not being acted upon by any forces.
3. There is an equal amount of work being done by gravity and air
resistance.
a)I only
b)I and III only
c)II and III only
d)I, II, and III
Which of the following is NOT a state function?

A. Internal energy
B. Heat
 C. Temperature
D. Entropy
Which of the following best characterizes ideal voltmeters and
ammeters?

A. Ideal voltmeters and ammeters have infinite resistance.

B. Ideal voltmeters and ammeters have no resistance.
C. Ideal voltmeters have infinite resistance, and ideal ammeters
have no resistance.
A. Ideal voltmeters have no resistance, and ideal ammeters have
infinite resistance.
For electromagnetic induction to occur, [ch#14]
(A) a magnet must be at rest within a coil of wire.
(B) a coil of wire must be at rest relative to the magnet.
(C) a magnet must move through a coil of wire.
(D) a magnet and a coil must have the same velocity.
(E) a magnet must be pointing north.
A generator [ch#14]
(A) converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
(B) converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
(C) converts heat energy into mechanical energy.
(D) converts electrical energy into heat energy.
(E) converts nuclear energy into heat energy.

The Doppler effect produces apparent changes in [ch#08]

(A) loudness.
(B) pitoh.
(C) amplitude.
(D) velocity.
(E) acceleration.

A girl on the beach watching water waves sees 4 waves pass by in 2 seconds, each. with a wavelength
of 0.5 m. The speed of the waves is [ch#08]
{A) 0.25 m/s.
(B) 0.5 m/s.
(C) 1.0 m/s.
(D) 2.0 m/s.
(E) 4.0 m/s.

Making a light wave vibrate in only one plane is called [ch#09]

(A) refraction. (B) reflection.
(C) interference. (D) diffraction.
(E) polarization.
 If light is passed through a narrow, single-slit opening onto a screen, the pattern of light produced
on the screen is [ch#09]
(A) alternating bright and dark lines of equal width.
(B) a bright central band oflight with much smaller, dimmer bands toward the edges.
{C) concentric circles of light.
(D) one circle of light.
(E) one band of light.

If light is passed through a double-slit opening onto a screen, the pattern produced on the screen is [ch#09]
(A) a bright central band of light with slightly diminished, alternating bright and dark bands called antinodes and nodes.
(B) a bright central band of light with tiny lines toward the edges of the screen.
(C) a large circle of light with tiny circles around it.
(D) equally sized concentric circles of light.
(E) one antinode and no nodes.
Which of the following colors, when passed through a double-slit opening, will produce the widest central band of light?
(A) red
(B) orange
(C) yellow
(D) green
(E) blue

A plane mirror will produce a virtual image [ch#10]

(A) when the object distance is greater than the
image distance.
(B) when the object distance is less than the
image distance.
(C) when the object is on the principal axis of
the mirror.
(D) when the rays converge at the focal point of
the mirror.
(E) at all distances from the mirror.

Which of the following mirrors converge parallel light rays to a focal point? [ch#10]
(A) plane
(B) convex
(C) concave
(D) inverted
{E) upright

Which of the following is true of a diverging lens? [ch#10]

(A) Incoming parallel rays passing through the lens converge to a focal point.
(B) The lens is thinner in the center than on the edges.
{C) The lens is thicker in the center than on the edges.
{D) Light must enter it parallel to the principal axis.
(E) The lens must be flat on one side.

A candle is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. The focal length of the lens is 20
cm. The image formed will be [ch#10]
{A) real, upright, and enlarged.
(B) real, inverted, and enlarged.
(C) real, inverted, and smaller.
(D) virtual, upright, and enlarged.
~E) virtual, upright, and smaller.

A candle is placed on the principal axis of a convex. lens at a distance of 20 cm from the lens. The image formed is magnified 3
times. The image distance is [ch#10]
(A) 7 cm. {B) 20 cm. {C) 60 cm.
{D) 90 cm. {E) 120 cm.
The average kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance is most closely associated with [ch#11]
(A) heat capacity. (B) temperature.
(C) specific heat. (D) potential energy.
The first law of thermodynamics is a form of [ch#11]
(A) the law of conservation of energy.
(B) the law of specific heat.
{C) the ideal gas law.
(D) the law of entropy.
(E) the law of conservation of temperature.
A system has 60 J of heat added to it, resulting in 15 J of work being done by the system, and exhausting
the remaining 45 J of heat. What is the efficiency of this process? [ch#11]
(A) 100%
(B) 60%
(C) 45%
(D) 25%
(E) 15%
The law of entropy states that [ch#11]
(A) heat always flows spontaneously from a colder body to a hotter one.
(B) every natural system will tend toward lower entropy.
(C) heat lost by one object must be gained by another.
(D) the specific heat of a substance cannot exceed a certain value.
(E) ev¢ry natural system will tend toward disorder.
Which of the following is NOT true of an ideal gas? [ch#11]
(A) Gas molecules have no intermolecular forces.
(B) Gas particles are in random motion.
(C) Gas particles have no volume.
(D) The collisions between any two gas particles are elastic.
(E) The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is proportional to the temperature in Celsius degrees.
A sample of argon occupies 50 liters at standard temperature. Assuming constant pressure, what volume will argon occupy
if the temperature is doubled [ch#11]
(A) 25 liters,
(B) 50 liters
(C) 100 liters
(D) 200 liters
(E) 2,500 liters
The smallest discrete value of electromagnetic energy is called the [ch#17]
(A) photon.
(B) proton.
(C) electron.
(D) neutron.
(E) quark
Which of the following photons has the highest energy? [ch#17]
(A) X-ray
(B) ultraviolet light
(C) green light
(D) microwave
(E) radio wave
The threshold frequency of zinc for the photoelectric effect is in the ultraviolet range. Which of the
following will occur if X-rays are shined on a zinc metal surface? [ch#17]
(A) No electrons will be emitted from the metal.
(B) Electrons will be released from the metal but have no kinetic energy.
(C) Electrons will be released from the metal and have kinetic energy.
(D) Electrons will be released from the metal but will immediately be recaptured by the zinc atoms.
(E) Electrons will simply move from one zinc atom in the metal to another zinc atom in the metal.
Which of the following is true of the momentum of a photon? [ch#17]
(A) It is proportional to the wavelength of the photon.
(B) It is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the photon.
(C) It is inversely proportional to the square of the wavelength of the photon.
(D) It is proportional to the mass of the photon.
(E) It is equal to the energy of the photon.
The Heisenberg uncertainty principle implies that [ch#17]
(A) electrons are too small to be studied.
(B) every photon is exactly the same size.
(C) the more you know about the momentum of an electron, the less you can know about its position.
(D) the more you know about the energy of a photon, the less you can know about its frequency.
(E) you cannot state with accuracy the number of electrons in an atom.
Which of the following statements is true for the de Broglie wavelength of a moving particle? [ch#17]
(A) It is never large enough to measure.
(B) It is proportional to the speed of the particle.
(C) It is inversely proportional to the momentum of the particle.
(D) It is equal to Planck's constant.
(E) It has no effect on the behavior of electrons.
Which of the following was a result· of Rutherford's alpha-scattering experiment? [ch#18]
(A) The electrons in the gold foil absorbed the alpha particles and changed energy levels.
(B) Most of the alpha particles passed through the foil un deflected.
(C) A few of the alpha particles knocked the nucleus completely out of the atom.
(D) A large percentage of alpha particles were turned back when striking the foil.
(E) The gold foil began to emit a bright-line spectrum.
Which of the following is NOT one of the
conclusions drawn by Rutherford after his alpha scattering experiment? [ch#18]
(A) There is a large space between the nucleus of the atom and the electrons.
(B) The electrons orbit the nucleus of the atom.
(C) The nucleus is positively charged.
(D) The atom is neutral.
(E) Electrons can change orbits when they absorb or emit energy.
An emission spectrum is produced when [ch#18]
(A) electrons in an excited gas jump up to a higher energy level and release photons.
(B) electrons in an excited gas jump down to a lower energy level and release photons.
(C) electrons are released from the outer orbitals of an excited gas.
(D) an unstable nucleus releases energy.
(E) light is shined on a metal surface and electrons are released.
An electron is in the ground state energy level, and 5 eV is the highest energy level present in the atom If a photon of
energy 6 eV is given to the electron which of the following will occur? [ch#18]
(A) The electron will ignore the photon since the photon's energy does not match the energy levels.
(B) The electron will absorb the photon, jump up to the 5 eV level shown, and convert the remainder of the photon's
energy into kinetic energy, but will stay in the 5 eV energy level.
(C) The electron will absorb the photon, jump out of the atom completely, and convert the remainder of the photon's
energy into kinetic energy.
(D) The electron will absorb the photon, jump up to the 5 eV level, then go back down to the 4 eV level.
(E) The electron will jump up to the 3 eV level, then immediately go back down the ground state.

The neutral element magnesium 24Mg14 has [ch#19]

(A) 12 protons, 12 electrons, and 24 neutrons.
(B) 12 protons, 12 electrons, and 12 neutrons.
(C) 24 protons, 24 electrons, and 12 neutrons.
(D) 24 protons, 12 electrons, and 12 neutrons.
(E) 12 protons, 24 electrons, and 24 neutrons.
All isotopes of uranium have
(A) the same atomic number and the same mass
(B) different atomic numbers but the same mass
(C) different atomic numbers and different mass
(D) the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
(E) no electrons.
The half-life of a certain element is 4 years. What fraction of a sample of that isotope will remain after
12 years? [ch#19]
 (A) ½ (B) 1/3 (C)1/4 (D) 1/8 (E) 1/12
A motorcyclist moves along a straight road with a constant acceleration 4 ms-2• If initially he was at
a position of 5 m and had a velocity of 3 m.s-1 , the position and velocity at time t = 2 s.
a) 14m b) 21m c)19m d) 9m
A motorcyclist moves along a straight road with a constant acceleration 4 ms-2• If initially he was at
a position of 5 m and had a velocity of 3 m.s-1 the position of the motorcyclist when its velocity is 5
m/s?

a) 10m b) 15m c) 7m d) 9m
Which of the following will always be in the direction of net external force acting in the body?
(a) Displacement (c) acceleration
(b) Velocity (d) momentum.
When a constant net external force acting on an object, which of the following may not change?
(a) position (b) speed
(c) velocity (d) acceleration
Find the recoil force on a machine gun that fires 150 bullets per minute, each with a speed of 900 m/s . Mass of each
bullet is 12 g.
When catching a fast moving ball, the hands are drawn back while the ball is being
brought to rest .
a) to decrease the momentum b) to decrease the speed
b) to increase the time of contact d) to reduces the pressure