SET - I BPC WEEKEND TEST

BOTANY
1. If the 'P' of cell - B is increased to 10, what would be the changes with regard to water movement

A B
π =8 π = 12
P=2 P=6
C
π =6
P=0

1) Water moves from cell B to cells A and C 2) Water moves from the C to cells A and B
3) Water moves from cell A to cells B and C 4) There is no net movement of water among the cells
2. 'T' is the symbol for
1) Solute potential 2) Water potential 3) Osmotic potential 4) Matric potential
3. Cell A : π = -2 MPa P = 2 atmospheres
Cell B π = -25 bars P = 2MPa
Cell C : Ψs = -10 atm P = 2 bars
Cell D = Ψ = - 3 MPa π = -40 bars
Arrange the cells in correct ascending sequence of their water potentials
1) B ← C ← A ← D 2) A → C → B → D 3) D → C → A → B 4) C ← B ← A ← D
4. Assertion (A) : A turgid plant cell has no negative water potential.
Reason (R) : Turgid plant cells have no solute
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is True but R is False. 4) R is True but A is False.
5. In a plamolysed cell
1) Ψ = 0 2) π = 0 3) π = 0 4) Ψ = 0
6. Ψ = 0 for
I) Turgid cell II) Pure water III) Plasmolysed cell
1) I and III 2) II and III 3) Only II 4) I and II
7. If a cell thoroughly coated with Suberin and Cutin is kept in hypertonic solutiion it shown the
change similar to a normal cell that is kept in
1) Hypertonic solution 2) Hypotonic solution
3) Hyper hypotonic solution 4) Isotonic solution
8. The following osmotic constants always have negative value
1) Ψ ,T 2) P , π 3) T , π 4) Ψ , π
9. Plasmolysic of cells is noticed during
1) Gametangial formation in Rhizopus 2) Gamete formation in Spirogya
3) Spore formation in Rhizopus 4) Akinete formation in Spirogyra.
10. Higher Ψ is seen in
1) Root hair 2) Root xylem 3) Leaf xylem 4) Mesophyll cells
11. The water potential of pure water is equal to the water potential of
1) Cell in incipient plasmolysis 2) Turgid cell
3) Plasmolysed cell 4) Free solution
12. Study the following cells and arrange them in an order with respect to water movement among
the cells in linear way
I) π = −7, P = 5 II) π = −20, P = 19 III) π = −6, P = 2 IV) π = −60, P = 55
1) I → II → III → IV 2) II → I → III → IV 3) II → I → IV → III 4) II → IV → I → III
13. Assertion (A) : Chemical potentials are usually expressed in energy units.
Reason (R) : Chemical potentials of plants are expressed in pressure units.
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is True but R is False. 4) R is True but A is False.
14. Assertion (A) : With increase in Turgor pressure water potential decreases
Reason (R) : Pressure potential is an integral part of water potential of a system
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is True but R is False. 4) R is True but A is False.
15. Assertion (A) : Pickles can be stored for longer periods
Reason (R) : Salt of the pickles plasmolyses the bacteria and fungi
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is True but R is False. 4) R is True but A is False.
16. Water potential is indicated with the symbol
1) Ψ 2) T 3) π 4) φ
17. This is zero in a plasmolysed cell
1) Water potential 2) Solute potential 3) Matric potential 4) pressure potential
18. If a cell has -0.3 Mpa water potential and 0.3 pressure potential. Its solute potential is
1) 0.6 Mpa 2) -0.6 Mpa 3) 0 Mpa 4) -0.09 Mpa
19. In a plasmolysed cell the water potential is equal to
1) Pressure potential 2) Matric potential
3) Osmotic Potential 4) Sum of pressure potential and matric potential
20. This is responsible for matric potential of a cell
I) Protein II) NaCL III) CuSO4
1) only II 2) Only I 3) Only III 4) II and III
21. The π and P of th cells A,B,C and D are as follows
I) Cell A : π = -20 bars, P = 18 bars II) Cell B : π = -30 bars, P = 20 bars
III) Cell C : π = -15 bars, P = 4 bars IV) Cell D : π = -25 bars, P = 5 bars
Arrange the cells in correct sequence of their water movement direction :
1) A → B → C → D 2) B → C → A → D 3) A → C → B → D 4) D → C → B → A
22. Entry of water from soil into the plant is due to the gradient of
1) Turgor pressure 2) Wall pressure 3) Pressure potential 4) Water potential
23. Water potential of a cell is decreased due to
I) High solute concentration II) High pressure potential
III) Presence of more matrices
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) only III
24. If Osmometer A with 10% sucrose, Osmometer B with 11% sucrose, Osmometer C with 8%
sucrose and Osmometer with 15% sucrose are respectively placed in beakers with 3% sucrose,
9% sucrose, 2% sucrose and 12% sucrose. The osmotic pressure of the following Osmometer
is the greatest
1) A 2) D 3) C 4) B
25. Identify the cell under relatively in high tension with respect to P
1) Ψ = −3, π = −5 2) Ψ = −10, π = −10 3) Ψ = −8, π = −6 4) Ψ = −9, π = −10
26. Assertion (A) : A cell is experiencing turgor pressure and wall pressure.
Reason (R) : In hypertonic solution it shows plasmolysis
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is True but R is False. 4) R is True but A is False.
27. Osmosis means
1) Movement of solute particle from region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration
2) Movement of water molecules and solute particle across a semipermeable membrane
3) Movement only water molecules across a semipermeable membrane from region of higher to Ψ egion
of lower Ψ
4) Movement of water molecules from higher concentrated solution to lower concentrated solution
28. The Ψ difference of two adjacent system A and B is 8 bars. If Ψ of a is -2 bars. What is Ψ of
B?
1) - 6 bar 2) - 10 bar 3) + 10 bar 4) + 6 bar
29. If cell A with π = −5 bars of ρ = 4 bar is surrounded by cells with π = −3 bar and ρ = 1 bar what
will be the direction of water movement ?
1) From other cell of A 2) From cell A to other cell
3) Water will not move 4) Wate will move up
30. A cell is place in 0.4M salt solution and no change in the volume of cell is observed. The conc
of cell sap is
1) 4M 2) 40 M 3) 0.4 M 4) 0.04 M
31. Find the correct pair
I) In fully turgid cell : Ψ = π II) In fully turgid cell : π = − ρ
III) In flaccid cell : π = − ρ IV) In flaccid cell : Ψ = π
1) I and III 2) II and IV 3) II and III 4I I and IV
32. Assertion (A) : A turgid plant cell has no negative water potential
Reason (R) : Turgid plant cell have no solute
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is True but R is False. 4) R is True but A is False.
33. EcoRI is the name of a restriction endonuclease. In this R indicates
1) Restriction 2) R.Plasmid has gene that codes the enzyme
3) Regulatory ezyme 4) RNA enzyme
34. Plasmid of the following bacterium is usually used as vector
1) Agrobacterium tumifascience 2) Bacillus thuringiensis
3) E.coli 4) Proteus vulgaris
35. An ideal cloning vector should not have this feacture
1) Several restriction sites for a restriction enzyme 2) Few genes
3) Genes for antribiotic resistance 4) Genes for autonomous replication
36. Arrange the following events in a sequence during the method of genetic engineering
I) Separation of DNA fragments of genomic DNA of donor
II) Restriction endonuclease activity on donor DNA
III) Use of restriction endonuclease to open the vector DNA (plasmid)
IV) Selection of desired DNA fragments by Southem Blotting
1) I, II, III, IV 2) III, II, IV, I 3) II, I, IV, III 4) II, IV, I, III
37. This is used as cloning vector
1) Virus 2) Bacterium 3) Fungus 4) Southem
38. The correct way of writing the restriction endonuclease that recognizes the palindromic sequence
'GAATTC' is
1) ECoRI 2) ECORI 3) EcoRI 4) ecoRI
39. The number of hydrogen bonds and phospho ester bonds broken by the action of EcoRI at a
restriction site of a DNA molecule is
1) 2,8 2) 8,2 3) 2,14 4) 14,2
40. Sodium lauryl sulphate is used during
1) Isolation of gene 2) Isolation of plasmid
3) Gene cloning 4) Screening the recombinat cells

ZOOLOGY
41. Find the wrong match
1. phalanges of thumb - biaxial 2. zygapophyses of vertebrae – nonaxial
3. pubic symphysis - synarthrose 4. head of femur and acetabulum - diarthrose
42. Find the correct match
1. gomphoses – teeth of frog 2. saddle joint – thumb of rabbit and axis
3. suture – frontal and parietal 4. condyloid – atlas
43. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Joint Example
A. Ginglymi 1. Joint between tarsals
B. Rotatoria 2. Joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
C. Enarthroses 3. Joint between humerus and glenoid cavity
D. Saddle joint 4. Joint between 1st and 2nd vertebrae
5. Joint between femur and tibia-fibula
1. A-5; B-4; C-3; D-2 2. A-5; B-4; C-2; D-3
3. A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2 4. A-5; B-4; C-1; D-2
44. Shoulder joint and knee joint are
1. monaxial amphiarthroses 2. biaxial diarthroses
3. multiaxial diarthroses 4. monaxial diarthroses
45. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Joint Example
A. Ginglymi 1. Joint between tarsals
B. Rotatoria 2. Joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
C. Enarthroses 3. Joint between humerus and glenoid cavity
D. Saddle joint 4. Joint between 1st and 2nd vertebrae
5. Joint between femur and tibia-fibula
5. Impermeable to water and more permeable to ions
1. A-5; B-4; C-3; D-2 2. A-5; B-4; C-2; D-3 3. A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2 4. A-5; B-4; C-1; D-2
46. Consider the following statements about nephron of rabbit:
I. Blood vessel that enters the kidney at hilus and that leaves Bowman’s capsule are
respectively renal artery and efferent renal arteriole.
II. Efferent renal arteriole is formed by the union of capillaries and divides into capillaries.
III. Efferent renal arteriole supplies blood to peritubular capillaries and vasa recta.
IV. Blood from peritubular capillary net and vasa recta is collected by renal venule.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I, II and III 2. Only II, III and IV 3. Only I, III and IV 4. All are true
47. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Part of Nephron Epithelium
A. Proximal Convoluted Tubule 1. Simple squamous with podocytes
B. Distal part of ascending limb 2. Simple cuboidal without brush border
C. Distal Convoluted Tubule 3. Simple squamous without podocytes
D. Descending limb 4. Simple couboidal with brush border
1. A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 2. A-4; B-2; C-2; D-3
3. A-2; B-3; C-4; D-3 4. A-4; B-3; C-2; D-3
48. Consider the following statements about mammalian nephron:
I. Both proximal convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule occur in cortex.
II. Both principal and intercalated cells occur in late DCT as well as collecting ducts.
III. Collecting ducts occur in both cortex and medulla.
IV. Loops of Henle occur in renal pyramids.
Which of the above are true?
1. All except II 2. All except III 3. All except IV 4. All are true
49. Consider the following statements about kidneys of rabbit:
I. Cortex spreads among the renal pyramids as columns of Bertini.
II. Medulla projects into pelvis as conical renal pyramids.
III. Free end of pelvis has cup-like cavities called calyces.
IV. Pelvis is a funnel-shaped cavity formed by the expansion of urinary bladder.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I, II and III 2. Only I, III and IV 3. Only I, II and IV 4. All are true
50. Metacarpophalangeal joint of thumb of man is
1. saddle joint 2. gliding joint 3. rotatory joint 4. condyloid joint
51. Study the following about joints in rabbit:
Joint Type of Movement Example
I. Ginglymi Angular movement in one plane Between femur and crus
II. Arthrodia Movement only in one plane Between zygopophyses
III. Enarthroses Free movement in more than Between humerus and
one plane radius-ulna
IV. Rotatoria Rotatory movement in one Between atlas and axis
plane
Which of the above are correct?
1. Only I, II and IV are correct 2. Only I and IV are correct
3. Only I, III and IV are correct 4. Only III and IV are correct
52. Joints that allow unrestricted movement in various planes are
1. arthrodia 2. ginglymi 3. enarthroses 4. rotatoria
53. Joint that allows angular movement only in one plane is
1. hinge joint 2. ball and socket joint 3. pivot joint 4. gliding joint
54. In the kidney of rabbit, cortex spreads among renal pyramids as
1. renal papillae 2. calyces 3. columns of Bertini 4. ducts of Bellini
55. Assertion (A) : Right kidney of rabbit is placed anterior to left kidney.
Reason (R) : Liver lies towards the right side of stomach.
1. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
2. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not correct explanation of ‘A’
3. ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false 4. ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
56. Consider the following statements about kidneys of man:
I. They are retroperitoneal organs.
II. They are lined by dorsal peritoneum on ventral side only.
III. Right kidney is placed some what more posterior when compared with left kidney.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II 2. Only II and III 3. Only I and III 4. All are true
57. Clavicle is attached to
1. xiphisternum and acromian process 2. manurbrium and acromian process
3. manubrium and deltoid ridge 4. Manubrium and olecranon process
58. Obturator foramen is associated with
1. vertebrarterial foramina 2. Os innominatum
3. olecranon process 4. Trochlea
59. Digital formula of hindlimb of rabbit is
1. 2-3-3-3-3 2. 3-3-3-3 3. 1-2-2-2-2 4. 1-3-3-3-3
60. Arrangement of tarsals in rabbit is
1. 3+5 2. 2+4 3. 2+3+1 4. 2+1+3
61. Ginglymus is present between
1. Proximal end of femur and distal end of fibula 2. Distal end of femur and proximal end of fibula
3. Proximal end of femur and distal end of tibia 4. Distal end of femur and proximal end of tibia
62. Identify the correct sequence in the origin and evolution of life:
A. Prokaryotes B. Prototherians C. Protobionts D. Protozoans
1. A à Cà D B 2. C à D à A à B 3. C à A à D B 4. C à A à B àD
63. Theory of spontaneous generation of life was supported by
1. Von Baer 2. Von Frisch 3. Von Helmont 4. Von Siebold
64. Study the following statements about microspheres:
I. In hot dilute soup, they were formed when organic molecules were mixed with cool water.
II. They were membrane bound.
III. They self multiplied by budding.
Which of the above statements are applicable to microspheres?
1. I and II only 2. I and III only 3. II and III only 4. I, II and III
65. The following are the statements about the origin of life according to Haldane and oparin. Find
out the wrong statements
A) First phase was the spontaneous generation of early molecules
B) Early molecules later transformed into protobionts
C) Protabionts evolved into chaemoautotrophs
1) A and B only 2) B only 3) C only 4) B and C
66. “The Origin of Life on the Earth” was written by
1. Charles Darwin 2. A.I.Oparin 3. J.B.Lamarck 4. Haldane
67. According to thoery of chemical origin of life, proteins and nucleic acids were first formed by
1. enzymatic processes in oxidising environment
2. non-enzymatic processes in oxidising environment
3. enzymatic processes in reducing environment
4. non-enzymatic processes in reducing environment
68. On earth, life cannot originate now from inorganic materials because of
1. low temperature of atmosphere 2. high pollution of atmosphere
3. free oxygen in atmosphere 4. absence of raw materials
69. Find the wrong match
1. Father Suarez –Theory of Special Creation
2. Pasteur – Theory of abiogenesis
3. Orbinge – Theory of catastrophism
4. Father of biology – Theory of spontaneous generation
70. As per theory of abiogenesis, frogs and salamanders originated from
1. rotten slime 2. coagulated slime 3. mud of nile 4. sweat
71. Assertion (A) : Planar joints are synarthoses.
Reason (R) : They are nonaxial.
1. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
2. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not correct explanation of ‘A’
3. ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false 4. ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
73. Deltoid ridge and olecranon process are respectively associated with
1. distal part of humerus and proximal part of ulna 2. shaft of humerus and proximal part of radius
3. shaft of humerus and proximal part of ulna
4. proximal part of humerus and proximal part of ulna
73. Number of carpals, tarsals, metacarpals, metatarsals and phalanges in rabbit are respectively
1. 16, 12, 10, 8, 26 2. 12, 16, 10, 8, 52 3. 16, 12, 10, 8, 52 4. 32, 24, 10, 8, 52
74. Study of motion in the body is known as
1. osteology 2. chondrology 3. arthrology 4. Kinesiology
75. Interosseous membrane is present between
1. inner border of tibia and outer order of fibula 2. Outer border of tibia and inner border of fibula
3. proximal border of tibia and distal border of fibula
4. anterior borders of tibia and fibula
76. Joint that allows unrestricted movement in different planes is
1. planar joint 2. Hinge joint 3. pivot joint 4. Ball and socket joint
77. Number of main bones that form pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle of rabbit are respectively
1. 4 and 6 2. 2 and 6 3. 2 and 3 4. 4 and 3
78. Astragalus is
1. outer bone of proximal row of tarsals 2. outer bone of proximal row of carpals
3. inner bone of proximal row of tarsals 4. inner bone of proximal row of carpals
79. Find the wrong statement
1. Malpighian bodies of juxtamedullary nephrons are present in inner cortex
2. loops of Henle of cortical nephrons are present in medulla
3. juxtaglomerular apparatus is present only in juxtaglomerular nephrons
4. vasa recta are present in renal pyramids
80. Macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells are respectively
1. principal cells of distal convoluted tubule and modified muscle fibres of afferent arteriole
2. crowded cells of distal convoluted tubule and modified epithelial cells of afferent arteriole
3. crowded cells of proximal convoluted tubule and modified muscle fibres of afferent arteriole
4. crowded

PHYSICS
81. A uniform electric field pointing in positive y direction exists in a region. Let A be the origin, B
be the point on the x axis at x = 2cm and C be point on the y axis at y = 2cm. Then the potential
at the points A, B and C satisfy
1) V A < VB 2) V A > V B 3) V A < VC 4) V A > VC
82. n small drops of same size are charged to 'V' to volt each, if they coalese to form a single large
drop. Then it's potential will be
1 2
1) nV 2) Vn −1 3) Vn 3 4) Vn 3

83. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric hollow spheres of Radii r and R(>r) such that the
surface charge densities are equal. The potential at the common centre is

Q (
Q r2 + R2 ) Q (R + r)
1) Zero 2)
R+r
3)
4πε o ( R + r )
4) 4πε R 2 + r 2
o ( )
84. An equipotential surface is that surface
1) on which each and every point has the same potential
2) which has negative potential
3) whcih has positive potential
4) which has zero potential
85. An unchanged insulated conductor A is brought near a charged insultated conductor B, then
1) the charge and potential of B, both remains constant
2) Both change
3) the charge remains constant, but potential decreases
4) the charge remains constant, but potential increases
86. Two conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 are equally charged, the ratio of their potentials is
2 2
r1 r2  r1   r2 
1) 2) 3)   4)  
r2 r1  r2   r1 
87. Identical charges -q each are placed at 8 corners of a cube of each side b. Electric potential
energy of a charge +q which is placed at the centre of the cube will be

−4 2 q 2 −8 2 q 2 −4 q 2 +8 2 q 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
πε ob πε ob 3πε ob πε ob
88. One moving a charge of 20 coulombs by 2cm, 2J of work is done. Then the potential difference
between the point is
1) 0.1V 2) 8V 3) 2V 4) 0.5V
89. An electric charge 10 −3 µc is placed at the origin ( 0, 0 ) of x - y co-ordinate system. Two points

A and B are situated at ( )

2, 2 and ( 2, 0 ) respectively. The potential difference between
the points A and B will be
1) 4.5V 2) 9 volts 3) zero 4) -9 volts
90. Three point charges +q, +2q and -4q where q = 0.1µc are placed at the vertices of an equilateral
triangle of side 10cm as shown in figure. The potential energy of the system is

1) 3 × 10 −3 J 2) − 3 × 10 −3 J 3) 9 × 10 −3 J 4) − 9 × 10 −3 J
91. In the electric field of a point charge q, a certain charge is carried from point A to B, C, D and E
then work done

B q E

C D

1) is least along the path AB

2) is least along the path AB
3) zero along any one of the path AB, AC AD and AE
4) is least along AE
92. If the electric potential at a certain distance from a point charge is 900V and electric intensity is
225 V m . The charge is
1) 4 × 10 −7 c 2) 2 × 10 −7 c 3) 4 × 10 −3 c 4) 2 × 10 −5 c
93. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle as
shown below. The net electrostatic energy of configuration is zero, if Q is equal to

Q
2a
a

q a q

−q − 2q − 2q
1) 2) 3) 4) −2q
2 +1 2+ 3 2+ 2
94. Two point charges 4µc and 9µ c are separated by 50cm. The potential at the point between
them where the field has zero strength is
1) 4.5 × 10 5V 2) 9 × 10 5V 3) 9 × 10 4V 4) zero
95. An infinite number of electric charges each equal to 2 nano coulombs magnitudes are placed
along x-axis at x = 1cm, x = 4cm, x = 16cm, x = 64cm and so on. In this set up if the consecutive
charges have opposite sign. Then the electric potential at x = 0 is
1) 720V 2) 1440V 3) 2160V 4) 1350V
96. The gravitational potential energy of two charged particles at a distance is equal to the
electrostatic potential energy of the system at the same distance. The specific charge of each of
the two identical particle is

4 πG 4πε o
1) 2) 3) 4πε oG 4) 4πε o G
εo G
97. A charged particle carrying a charge q and mass m starts from rest at the point A and moved to
the point B separated by a distance d. If V is the potential difference between the points, time
taken by the particle to reach the other point is

2md 2 md md 2 2Vq
1) 2) 3) 4)
Vq Vq Vq md 2
98. The ratio of momenta of an electron to an α -particle which are accelerated from rest to a
potnetial difference of 100V is

2 mα me me
1) 1 2) 3) 4)
me 2 mα mα
99. A battery of emf 12V is connected to the two parallel plates of a condenser whose electric field
is 1200 V m . The distance between the plates is
1) 1m 2) 1cm 3) 1mm 4) 10m
100. The electric potential energy of a proton electron system locates
1) In proton 2) In electron
3) Half energy in electron and half in proton
4) It does not locate precisely at a point but belongs to the total system
 4
101. There is a fish at a depth of 1m in clear water of refractive index . The fish sees the water
3
surface as a mirror exert a circular patch. The radius of patch is

1 3 6 9
1) m 2) m 3) m 4) m
7 7 7 7
102. The angle of minimum deviation of a prism of refractive index 3 is equal to its refracting
angle. Then the refracting angle of that prism is
1) 30° 2) 45° 3) 90° 4) 60°
103. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it for minimum
deviation

Q R
S
P

1) PQ is horizontal 2) QR is horizontal 3) RS is horizontal 4) An one will be horizontal

104. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to the
3
angle of emergence and the latter is equal to th of the angle of prism. The angle of deviation
4
1) 45° 2) 39° 3) 20° 4) 30°
105. A ray of light from a denser medium strike a rarer medium at an angle of incidence i shown
below. The reflected and refracted ray makes an angle of 90° with each other. The angle of
reflection and refraction are i and r. The critical angle

i i

1) sin −1 ( tan r ) 2) sin −1 ( tan i ) 3) sin −1 ( cot r ) 4) tan −1 ( sin i )

106. In n similar thin prisms of same material and refractive index are arranged in series as shown

A A A A A

1) If n is even number, no net deviation and no net dispersion

2) If n is odd, no net deviation and no net dispersion
3) It depends upon angle of prism
4) No sufficient information
107. The refractive index of the material of prism if a thin prism of angle A = 6° produces a deviation
δ = 3° is
1) 1.5 2) 1.2 3) 1.1 4) 1.25
108. The angle of minimum deviation by a prism of refracting angle A is (180 - 2A). It is critical angle
will be

1) sin
−1
(
cot A
2 )  ( )
2) sin  tan A 2  3) cos
−1

−1
cot A(2 ) 4) cos
−1
(
tan A
2 )
3
109. A ray of light is incident on a glass sphere of refractive index . What should be the angle of
2
incidence so that the ray which enters the sphere does not come out of the sphere

1) tan
−1 2
( )
3 2) sin ( )
−1 2
3 3) 90° 4) cos ( )
−1 1
3
110. The refractive index of the core of an optical fibre is µ 2 and that of the cladding is µ1 . The
angle of incidence on the face of the core so that the light ray just undergoes total internal
reflection at the cladding is

−1  µ1 
1) sin   2) sin −1 µ 22 − µ12 3) sin −1 µ 2 − µ1 4) sin −1 µ 2 + µ1
 µ2 
111. A light ray travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium. If the critical angle of the denser
medium with respect to rarer medium is "C". The maximum possible deviation of any ray will
be
π
1) π − C 2) +C 3) 2C 4) π − 2C
2
112. Arrange the following colours in increasing order of their critical angles with respect to glass
a) Red b) Yellow c) Blue d) Violet
1) d, c, b, a 2) a, b, c, d 3) b, c, d, a 4) a, d, b, c
113. Match the following
List - I List - II
a) for a ray normal incidence and e) D = 90 - A
emergent ray grazing the second face
b) for normal incidence f) D = i2 − A

c) for normal emergence g) D = i2 + 90 − A

d) for grazing incidence h) D = i1 − A

1) a - e, b - f, c - h, d - g 2) a - e, b - f, d - g, c - h
3) a - e, - h, c - g, d - f 4) a - h, b - g, c - f, d - e
114. Relation between critical angles of water and glass is
1) C w > C g 2) C w < C g 3) C w = C g 4) C w = C g = 0
115. The angle of minimum deviation measured with a prism is 30° and the angle of a prism is 60° .
The refractive index of prism material

2 3
1) 2 2) 2 3) 4)
3 2
116. Mono chromatic light falls on a right angled prism at an angle of incidence 45° .The emergent
light is found to slide along the face AC. Then the refractive index of the material is

A
45° 90°

B C

2 2
1) 1.5 2) 1.5 3) 4)
3 3
117. Critical angle for total internal reflection of light of a certain frequency at a denser-rarer boundary
is 30° . At what angle should the same light be incident on the boundary from the side of denser
medium that the reflected and the refracted rays are mutually perpendicular

−1 1 −1 2 −1 1
1) tan −1 ( 2 ) 2) tan   3) cos 3) cos
3 5 5
118. A prism is placed in water. The angle of minimum deviation
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains same 4) we cannot say
119. A light ray falls on a square glass slab as shown in the figure making an angle of incidence 45° .
What must be index of refraction of glass, if total internal reflection occurs at the vertical face

45°

r
i=c 90°

3 2 3 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2 3
120. As temperature increases critical angle
1) increases 2) decreases
3) remains the same 4) some time increase and some time decrease
 CHEMISTRY

121. The enthalpy change in the reaction PC! 5(g) → PC! 3(g) + C! 2(g) denotes
1) Heat of formation 2) Heat of ionisation 3) Heat of decomposition 4) Heat of reaction
122. Set – I Set – II
A) Heat of neutralisation 1) Always –Ve
B) Heat of solution 2) Always +Ve
C) Heat of atomisation 3) May be +Ve or – Ve
D) Heat of ionisation of H2 4) Taken as zero
in aqueous solution
5) Taken as 13.7 KJ
The correct matching is
A B C D A B C D
1) 2 3 4 5 2) 1 3 2 4
3) 1 2 3 5 4) 5 3 2 4
123. If heat of neutralisation of CH3COOH by a strong base is – 30 KJ, the enthalpy change in
H+ + CH3COO− → CH3COOH would be
1) –27.3 KJ 2) + 27.3 KJ 3) - 30KJ 4) + 30KJ
124. Heat of formation of H2O is – 64 Kcal. Hence the quantities of heat liberated by the combustion
of 4 gr of hydrogen is
1) – 64 Kcal 2) 64 Kcal 3) 128 Kcal 4) – 128 Kcal

125. Standard heat of combustion of C2H2 (g) and C2H4 (g) is – 310.6 Kcal and – 337.2 Kcal mol–1
respectively. Also heat of formation H2O is – 68.3 Kcal mol–1. Hence the heat of hydrogenation
of acetylene into ethene would be
1) –42 Kcal mol–1 2) –650 Kcal mol–1 3) –80 Kcal mol–1 4) –200 Kcal mol–1
126. Correct statements among the following is
A) Rusting of iron is a spontaneous process .
B) All spontaneous process are themodynamically irreversible.
C) For a spontaneous process in a non isolated system, ∆ S(system) must be +Ve .
D) Entropy of universe remains constant.
1) A, B 2) B, C 3) C, D 4) A, D
127. The process of evaporation of a liquid is accompanied by
a) Increase in enthalpy b) Increase in entropy c) Decrease in Gibbs energy
The correct statements are
1) Only a and c 2) Only b and c 3) Only a and b 4) a,b,c
128. An equilbrium reaction X + Y " W + Z ∆H = +ve is spontaneous in the forward direction.
Then corresponding sign of ∆G and ∆S should be spontaneous
1) +ve, –ve 2) –ve, +ve 3) +ve, +ve 4) –ve, –ve
129. One of the following reaction involves in decrease of entropy
1) Sublimation of dry ice 2) Crystallisation of salt from brine (aq)
3) Burning of rocket fuel 4) Decomposition of gaseous N2O4
130. For a reaction R1∆G = x kj mol–1. For a reaction R2 ∆G = y kj mol–1. Reaction R1 is non -
spontaneous but along with R2 it is spontaneous. This means that
1) x is –ve, y is +ve but in magnitude x > y 2) x is +ve, y is –ve but in magnitude y > x
3) Both x and y are –ve but not equal 4) Both x and y are +ve but not equal

131. ∆ H & ∆ S for the process 3O2 (g) " 2O3 (g) respectively are +284 KJ & +68 J/K. Then,
process is spontaneous at
1) At 3000 K 2) At 2000 K 3) At 5000 K 4) At 1000 K
132. If the heat of neutralisation for a strong acid - base reaction is –57.1 KJ what would be the heat
relased when 350cm3 of 0.20M H2SO4 is mixed with 650 cm3 of 0.10 M NaOH.
1) 8.3 KJ 2) 3.7 KJ 3) 10.5 KJ 4) 13.7 K.cal
133. 100 cm3 of 0.1 MHCl/and 100 cm3 of 0.1M NaOH solutions are mixed in a calorimeter. If the
heat liberated is "Q" kcal, the heat of neutralization of HCl(aq) by NaOH(aq) (in kcal) is
1) 10 Q 2) –100 Q 3) –50 Q 4) –10 Q
134. Absolute value of which of the following can be determined under standard conditions for a given substance.
1) S 2) H 3) E 4) G
135. Heat of combustion of benzene is –718 K.cals. When 39 gms of benzene undergoes combustion,
the heat liberated is
1) 718 K.cals 2) 359 K.cals 3) 135 K.cals 4) 1436 K.cals
136. 1 gram graphite on combustion in oxygen liberates 7.82 K.cal of heat. The amount of heat
evolved when 1 mole of oxygen is used in this oxidation process is
1) 7.82 K.cal 2) 78.2 K.cal 3) 9.384 K.cal 4) 93.84 K.cal
137. If x K.cal and y K.cals are the ∆ H values of ionisation of weak acid (WA) and weak base (WB)
respectively, ∆ H of neutralisation of the WA and WB is
1) 13.7 K.cal 2) -13.7 + (x-y) K.cal
3) -13.7 + (x+y) K.cal 4) -13.7 - (x+y) K.cal
138. If CH 3COOH + OH − → CH 3COO − + H 2O + q1

H + + OH − → H 2 O + q 2 then the enthalpy change for the reaction CH 3COOH → CH 3COO − + H + is equal to
1) (q1 + q 2 ) 2) (q1 − q 2 ) 3) (q 2 − q1 ) 4) ( − q1 − q 2 )
139. H2 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) → 2 HCl ( g ) , ∆ H = −44 K.cals

2 Na ( s) + 2 HCl ( g) → 2 NaCl ( s) + H2 ( g ) , ∆H = −152 K.cal

1
Na ( s) + Cl2 ( g) →NaCl ( s) , ∆ H = ?
2
1) +108 K.cal 2) -196 K.cal 3) -98 K.cal 4) 50 K.cal
140. Combustion of hydrogen in a fuel cell at 300 K J is represented as
2H2(g) + O2(g) --> 2H2O(g). If ∆ H and ∆ G are-241.60 KJ mol-1 and -228.40 KJ mol-1 of H2O.
 The value of ∆ S for the above process is
1) 4.4 kJ 2) -88 j 3) +88 J 4) -44 J
141. Number of σ sp3 − s bonds in halothane
1) 5 2) 1 3) 3 4) 2
142. The IUPAC name of the compound
CH3CH2 - C - CH2OH
||
CH2
1) 2 - methylene butan - 1 - ol 2) 2 - ethyl 3 - hydroxy prop-1-ene
3) 2 - ethyl prop - 2 - en - 1 - ol 4) 2 - (hydroxy methyl) but - 1 - ene
143. The chemical formula of chloretone is
1) CH3CH(OH)Cl 2) CCl3NO2 3) (CH3)2C(OH)CCl3 4) C6H6Cl6
144. Which of the following produces foul smelling compound on heating with chloroform and alcoholic
KOH ?
1) C6H5NHCH3 2) Dimethylamine 3) t-butylamine 4) N, N - diethyl ethanamine
145. Assertion (A) : Impure chloroform gives white precipitate with aq. Ag NO3
Reason (R) : COCl2 present in impure chloroform gives white precipitate
1) Both A & R are true R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A & R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false, but R is true
146. When chloral hydrate is heated with NaOH solution, a compound ‘x’ is obtained. When ‘x’ is
heated with Zn and H2O the product is
1) CH4 2) CH2Cl2 3) CHCl3 4) C2H6
147. The catalyst’s used in Grove’s process for the preparation of ethyl chloride is/are
A) ZnCl2 anhydrous B) Pyridine C) Dimethyl amine D) Conc H2SO4
1) A, B, C and D 2) A only 3) A, C & D 4) A & D
148. C2H5Cl + ethanolic AgCN → X ← C2H5NH2 + alc. KOH + Y, X and Y are respectively.
1) C2H5 CN, CHCl3 2) C2H5CN, CH3COOH
3) C2H5NC, C2H5NC, C2H5Cl 4) C2H5NC, CHCl3
149. Ethyl chloride on reaction with alcoholic KCN followed by hydrolysis gives
1) ethanoic acid 2) propanoic acid 3) ethyl cyanide 4) ethyl isocyanide
150. In the preparation of chloral from ethyl alcohol, chlorine obtained from bleaching powder solution
is utilised in the following steps
a) oxidation b) chlorination c) reduction d) hydrolysis
1) a and c a and d 3) a and b 4) b and c
151. The product formed between acetone and chloroform is used as
1) Insecticide 2) Hypnotic drug 3) Vinegar 4) Analgesic

152. The stability order in the following carbocations, CH 3 CH 2 ( I ) , (CH 3 )2 ( II ) , (CH 3 )3 C ( III )
+ +

+
and C H 3 ( IV ) is :

1) I > IV > III > II 2) I > II > III > IV 3) III > IV > I > II 4) III > II > I > IV
153. The order of reactivities of the following alkyl halides for a S N 2 reaction is :
1) RF > RCl > RBr > RI2) RF > RBr > RCl > RI3) RCl > RBr > RF > RI4) RI > RBr > RCl > RF

154. Which of the following undegoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively by S N1 mechanism ?

1) Ethyl chloride 2) Isopropyl chloride 3) Chlorobenzene 4) Benzyl chloride

155. The correct increasing order of the reactivity of halides for S N1 reaction is :

1) CH 3CH 2 − X < (CH 3 )2 CH − X < H 2C = CHCH 2 − X < PhCH 2 − X

2) (CH 3 )2 CH − X < CH 3CH 2 − X < H 2C = CHCH 2 − X < PhCH 2 − X

3) PhCH 2 − X < (CH 3 )2 CH − X < CH 3CH 2 − X < H 2C = CH − CH 2 X

4) H 2C = CHCH 2 − X < PhCH 2 − X < (CH 3 )2 CH − X < CH 3CH 2 − X

156. When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with cuprous chloride in HCl, chlorobenzene is
formed. This reaction is called :
1) Perkin's reaction 2) Etard's reaction 3) Gattermann reaction 4) Sandmeyer's reaction
157. Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction as compared to alkyl
halides due to :
1) the formation of less stable carbocation 2) resonance stabilization
3) longer cabon-halogen bond 4) inductive effect
158. The direct iodination of benzene is not possible because :
1) I 2 is an oxidising agent 2) resulting C6 H 5 I is reduced to C6 H 6 by HI
3) HI is unstable 4) the ring gets deactivated
159. Which chloroderivative of benzene among the following would undergo hydrolysis most readily
with aqueous NaOH to furnish the corresponding hydroxy compound ?

O2 N

1) O2 N Cl 2) O2 N Cl

3) (CH 3 )3 N Cl 4) Cl

160. Chlorobenzene is treated with Na in presence of dry ether to give diphenyl is called as
1) Wurtz reaction 2) Wurtz - Fittig reaction 3) Fittig reaction 4) Sandmeyer's reaction