Academic Question Paper Test 1 (10 Files Merged) PDF

ieltshelpnow.
com ACADEMIC MODULE Questions 6 - 8

PRACTICE TEST 1
Circle THREE letters A - F.
What items did Kirsty’s bag contain?

ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 1
A 17 pounds
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 B pens
Questions 1 - 5 C her passport
Complete the form below. D a book

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.
E 200 dollars
F her house keys

PAN ASIAN AIRWAYS
LOST PROPERTY REPORT FORM
Questions 9 and 10
Example Answer Choose a letter (A - D) that correctly answers questions 9 and 10.
First Name Kirsty 9 What has Kirsty done regarding the loss of her credit card?
Surname Allen A Informed the police but not the credit card company.
Address (1) ____________________ Windham Road B Informed the credit card company but not the police.
Richmond
Postcode (2) ____________________ C Informed both the police and the credit card company.
Home tel. 020 8927 7651 D Informed neither the police nor the credit card company.
Mobile tel. (3) ____________________

10 What must Kirsty do after the call regarding her lost handbag?
Flight Number (4) ____________________ A Call back after 11⁄2 hours.
Seat Number (5) ____________________ B Just wait for a call back.
From New York C Call back after 11⁄2 hours if she has heard nothing.
To London Heathrow D Call back the next day if she has heard nothing.
Page 1
Academic Test 1; Page 1 Academic Test 1; Page 2

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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 15 - 20
Complete the notes below.

Questions 11 - 14
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Label the locations on the map below.
Notes on Student Facilities
Students’ Union Very cheap

(14) Bookshop
_______________ Food and drink available
_______________ Parties!
_______________ Offices - travel, welfare etc.
Open 8am - 12 midnight
Library Must register

Main Tours every (15) ____________________ for 2 weeks.
Lecture Open 9am - 9pm (later during (16) ____________________)
Hall
Refectory Cheap meals
WE ARE Lunch 12 noon - 3pm
HERE Dinner (17) __________ - 8.30pm
Types of food - favourites
healthy
ethnic
(18) ____________________
Car Park
vegan
Hall Sports Hall Must join Athletic Union which - lets me use facilities
of lets me play for teams
Residence (19) ______________ me all year
(11)_______________ (12)
__________________ ____________
Discount Card Costs (20) £_______________
__________________ ____________
Refectory Gives me discounts on all uni. services
____________
(13) ______________
__________________
__________________

SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40
Questions 21 - 25
Questions 31 - 34
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Choose the correct letters A - C.
John Jane
Day of Arrival Thursday (21) _______________________
31 Japan relies on oil tankers because...
Subjects Studying economics (22) _______________________
maths history
A the country consists of islands.
french music
B the country has no pipeline network.
Monday’s 9am lecture french history C the country has no natural oil resources.
Monday’s 2pm lecture maths (23) _______________________
Wednesday afternoon sport (24) _______________________ volleyball 32 Professor Wilson says that oil tankers are...
selected
Location of Sport sports hall (25) _______________________ A very safe.
B quite safe.
Questions 26 - 29 C quite unsafe.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 33 According to Professor Wilson, the main cause of oil slicks is...
26 Students can choose from how many essay titles for their first assignment? A accidents while loading and unloading oil.
B collisions.
_________________________________________________________________________ C deliberate releases of oil.
27 Where did John travel during the summer? 34 According to Professor Wilson, slicks are rarely burned off nowadays because...
_________________________________________________________________________ A the oil is refined.

B it usually doesn’t work.
28 What is the word limit for the essays? C it creates too much air pollution.
_________________________________________________________________________
29 When must the first essay be handed in by?
_________________________________________________________________________
Question 30
Circle the correct letter A - C.
30 Where will John and Jane meet up later that day?
A the economics course office

B the economics common room
C the campus cafeteria
Questions 35 - 39 ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 1
READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 -13
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.
Oil exploration clean-up techniques
THE BIG CATS AT THE SHARJAH BREEDING CENTRE

Techniques Advantages Disadvantages
The Containment Boom Cheap and easy Only good when there are It is one of the few places where you will be able to spot them all at the same time… the
(35) ________________ Arabian wolf, an African cheetah, an Arabian leopard, an oryx, a gazelle. These are just some of
____________________ the animals, which, on the brink of extinction, are now getting a new lease of life thanks to the
Chemical Detergents Good for treating (36) _________ Chemicals remain in the water + exemplary work being done at the Breeding Centre for Endangered Arabian Wildlife in Sharjah.
___________________________ kill marine life. Sharjah is one of the seven emirates that make up the United Arab Emirates. The Breeding
The Sponge Oil remains permanently in the The sponge mats turn into Centre’s expertise and facilities have made it a prime destination for illegally imported animals
sponge. (37) _______________________ confiscated by UAE and Sharjah authorities. In the last four years, more than 900 mammals and
___________________________ reptiles and 969 birds have arrived at the centre, including 25 North African cheetahs, Houbara
Bacteria Cheap (39) _______________________ bustard and falcons, lions, a baby Nile crocodile and a Burmese python that was left in a rental car
Easy to administer at the airport.
Totally (38) _________________ The 25 cheetahs were all imported illegally into the UAE and were intercepted at the UAE
___________________________ harbour and airport entry points. They nearly all arrived malnourished, dehydrated and highly
stressed after long voyages stuffed into boxes, crates and suitcases. Now they are bright and full
of energy. The Centre’s efforts have also been rewarded when the first cheetah mating took place
at the end of 2002. Playing matchmaker with these beautiful creatures is no easy task – successful
breeding requires considerable patience and intimate knowledge of each animal’s personality, and
Question 40 it is the result of intensive and expert management of each animal within the group as well as of the
group as a whole.
Complete the notes below. Because this group was still young and inexperienced in courtship matters, the keepers had
to make the introductions only after careful planning and management, much like the lead role in
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. a Jane Austen novel. The female cheetahs were initially intimidated by the presence of the male;
however, as they advance to oestrus, the roles are reversed and the male cheetah becomes too
wary to approach during the female’s most receptive phase of the cycle. It is the responsibility of
the keeper therefore to monitor each individual and to be able to respond to any indication from
Optional essay question. the cheetahs that the time is right for introducing a pair. The close bond that invariably develops
between the keeper and the cheetahs enables the keeper to spot even the most subtle signs from
Remember to check out the faculty’s notice boards. You will find: the animals in their care. The trust between keeper and animal has also allowed the opportunity to
study cellular changes in the sexual organs of the females during the hormonal cycles that occur
* reading lists prior to reproduction.
* essay questions The Breeding Centre’s cheetahs are also participants in the European breeding programme,
* (40) __________________________________________________ which aims to ensure that the genetic diversity of this endangered species is maintained and
expanded by breeding as many founder animals as possible to introduce new bloodlines into the
captive population. In this way, the group held at the centre plays a very important role in the future
health of the international captive population, as they are potentially all new founders.
Also very important for the Sharjah Breeding Centre is the leopard-breeding programme.
The Arabian leopard, Panthera pardus nimr, is critically endangered around the world and 5 These animals can be dangerous to one another.
particularly in the Arabian peninsula, where it was once found throughout the coastal mountain
ranges. Activities like hunting, trapping and habitat destruction has reduced their range to a few 6 The role of the keeper is vital in the breeding programme of these animals.
isolated and fragmented populations in Oman, Yemen and Saudi Arabia.
In the 1980s, a captive breeding programme was established near Muscat with the capture 7 The first of these animals at the Breeding Centre were relatively young.
of three leopards in southwestern Oman. The breeding programme in the UAE was initiated by
the Arabian Leopard Trust and started with the arrival of two mature specimens: a male Arabian 8 It is normally difficult for humans to approach these animals.
leopard from Yemen and a female on breeding loan from Oman in 1995. The arrival of these two
animals led to the construction of the Breeding Centre in which the leopard has played the role of
flagship species.
Questions 9 – 13
Today there are twelve leopards at the Breeding centre, eight of which have been born at
the centre since the first cub in 1998. Once more, the secret to the centre’s success is the close Complete the summary below.
relationship between animal and keeper. The leopard is usually shy and secretive with people
around, but here they react positively to the presence of their keepers, approaching the fence so Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes
they can be talked to or scratched behind an ear. 9 – 12 on your answer sheet.
The bond is particularly important during breeding season, when keepers decide to
introduce pairs to each other. Male leopards are known to have killed their partners on introduction,
so it is essential for the keeper to understand the leopards’ behaviour to decide when it is safe to NB There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them at all.
do so. The trust is also important if keepers need to enter dens to check on and monitor the cub’s
growth. Leopard females have been known to kill their cubs if the dens have been disturbed, but
Example Answer
the centre’s leopards are quite comfortable with the staff handling the new generation of cubs.
Source: The Gulf News, UAE
Questions 1- 8 The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a __________ of variety

animals including birds,…
Use the information in the text to match the statements (1 – 8) with the animals
(A – D). Write the appropriate letter (A – D) in boxes 1 – 8 on your answer sheet.
Write: SUMMARY
A if the statement refers to cheetahs at the Breeding Centre.
The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a variety of animals including birds, mammals and
B if the statement refers to leopards at the Breeding Centre.
(9) __________. As its name suggests, the Centre is primarily involved in breeding and
C if the statement refers to both cheetahs and leopards at the Breeding Centre. (10) __________ the numbers of the species housed there whilst still maintaining the (11)
D If the statement refers to neither cheetahs nor leopards at the Breeding Centre. _________ of bloodlines in order to retain genetic health. In spite of problems involving
Example Answer the complex (12) __________ of the animals, a fair amount of (13) __________ has been
These animals are endangered C achieved with North African cheetahs and Arabian leopards.
1 These animals were smuggled into the UAE.

reptiles variety behaviour success creating
2 At first these animals did not adapt to life at the Sharjah Breeding Centre
expanding difficulty diversity action habitat
3 These animals are regarded as the most important animal at the Centre.
season fish change working programme
4 Half of these animals were born at the Breeding centre.
READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 14 - 27 by how often it occurs. Another way is to identify the insomnia by what is causing the sleep
deprivation. The two main types of insomnia have been described as Primary Insomnia and
Secondary Insomnia. Primary Insomnia is a chronic condition with little apparent association with
stress or a medical problem. The most common form of primary insomnia is psychophysiological
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. insomnia. Secondary insomnia is caused by symptoms that accompany a medical condition such
as anxiety, depression or pain.
INSOMNIA – THE ENEMY OF SLEEP
E
A
Improving one’s sleep hygiene helps improve insomnia in all patients. Relaxing during the hour
It is not unusual to have sleep troubles from time to time. But, if you feel you do not get enough before you go to sleep and creating a comfortable environment suited for sleep can be helpful.
sleep or satisfying sleep, you may have insomnia, a sleep disorder. People with insomnia have Older people who wake up earlier than normal or have trouble falling asleep may need less sleep
one or more of the following: difficulty falling asleep, waking up often during the night and having than they used to. Changing one’s sleep pattern, either by going to bed later or waking up earlier,
trouble going back to sleep, waking up too early in the morning and unrefreshing sleep. Insomnia can be effective in dealing with insomnia in older people. Therapy also depends on the cause
is not defined by the number of hours you sleep every night. The amount of sleep a person needs and severity of the insomnia. Transient and intermittent insomnia may not require any direct
varies. While most people need between 7 and 8 hours of sleep a night, some people do well with action since these conditions last only a few days at a time. However, if insomnia interferes with
less, and some need more. a person’s daily activities, something should be done. Usually the best method of dealing with
insomnia is by attacking the underlying cause. For example, people who are depressed often have
B insomnia and looking at this problem may eliminate it.
Insomnia occurs most frequently in people over age 60, in people with a history of depression, and F
in women, especially after menopause. Severe emotional trauma can also cause insomnia with
divorced, widowed and separated people being the most likely to suffer from this sleep disorder. Not getting enough sleep can make you less productive, irritable and unable to concentrate.
Stress, anxiety, illness and other sleep disorders such as restless legs syndrome are the most Lack of sleep can make it seem as if you “got up out of the wrong side of the bed.” Early morning
common causes of insomnia. An irregular work schedule, jet lag or brain damage from a stroke or headaches and waking up feeling as if you never went to sleep can result in frustration. Stress
Alzeimer’s disease can also cause insomnia as well as excessive use of alcohol or illicit drugs. It can cause insomnia but insomnia also increases stress. Insomnia can make driving unsafe as
can also accompany a variety of mental illnesses. well. Insomnia can result in missed work, which can cause you to become less productive and
miss promotions. It can leave you feeling as if you just can’t get enough done. Insomnia can also
C mask serious mental disorders. People with insomnia may think that not getting enough sleep is
their only problem, but the insomnia may actually be one symptom of a larger disorder, such as
The mechanism that induces sleep is not known. When it becomes dark, the pineal gland in the depression. Studies show that people with insomnia are four times more likely to be depressed
brain secretes a hormone called melatonin, which is thought to induce sleep. Exactly why sleep than people with a healthy sleeping pattern. In addition, lack of sleep can tax the heart and lead to
is necessary for good health and efficient mental functioning is unknown. We do know that sleep serious conditions like heart disease. All of these are important problems that can affect every part
consists of two very different states: rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and non-REM sleep. In of your life.
REM sleep, dreams occur, the eyes move under the closed lids and there is an increase in oxygen
consumption, blood flow and neural activity. REM sleep occurs four or five times during a night. G
Beginning periods last about ten to fifteen minutes but the periods get longer as the night goes on.
The periods of REM sleep alternate with longer periods of non-REM sleep, when body functions Establishing certain set routines can help insomniacs get better sleep. Examples of these routines
slow. Non-REM sleep has four stages. During the deepest stages (3 and 4) it is hard to rouse include: going to bed and getting up at the same time every day, avoiding napping, avoiding
a sleeper. As the night goes on, the periods of non-REM sleep become progressively lighter. caffeine, nicotine, alcohol and eating heavily late in the day, exercising regularly and making your
Sleep in stages 1 and 2 are felt to be restorative as during this time the body repairs itself utilising bedroom comfortable in terms of the bed, noise and temperature. Insomniacs should also only
a hormone called somatostatin. Lack of stage 4 sleep is believed to be important in chronically use their bedroom for sleep so that their bodies associate the room with sleep. Finally, if you can’t
painful conditions such as fibromyalgia. get to sleep, don’t toss and turn all night. Get up and read or do something that is not overly
stimulating until you feel really sleepy again.
D Source: 4woman.gov + McKinley Health Centre, Illinois
Healthcare providers diagnose insomnia in several ways. One way is to categorize insomnia

Questions 14 - 19
17 Paragraph E
The reading passage on Insomnia has 7 paragraphs (A – G).
18 Paragraph F
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs
19 Paragraph G
B – G.
Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 14 – 19 on your answer sheet. Questions 20 - 27
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading
passage on Insomnia?
Example Answer
In Boxes 20 - 27 write:
Paragraph A iv
YES if the statement agrees with the writer
i The Role of Sleep NO if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer
ii Insomnia Medication NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
iii Habits to Promote a Good Night’s Sleep
iv What is Insomnia
20 Someone who only gets four hours of sleep a night must be suffering from insomnia.
v Complications for Insomniacs
21 Travelling can cause insomnia.
vi Government Action
vii Available Treatment for Insomnia 22 REM sleep is felt to be the most important for the body’s rest.
viii The Causes of Insomnia 23 Secondary insomnia is far more common than primary insomnia.
ix Therapy Solutions
24 Sufferers of insomnia can attend specialist sleep clinics.
x Types of Insomnia
25 Many people suffering from insomnia don’t realise that they suffer from it.
xi Current Research
26 There is no actual correlation linking insomnia and depression.
14 Paragraph B
27 Sleeping during the day can make insomnia worse.
15 Paragraph C
16 Paragraph D

READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 28 - 40 “Our challenge is to greatly improve the communication to and from growers, to learn what works
and what doesn’t. The work coming from OSU researchers must be adopted in the field and not
simply languish in scientific journals.”
Reading Passage 3 below. In Oregon, growers and scientists are working together to instigate new practices. For example, a
few years ago scientists at OSU’s Malheur Experiment Station began testing a new drip irrigation
system to replace old ditches that wasted water and washed soil and fertilizer into streams. The
ALTERNATIVE FARMING METHODS IN OREGON new system cut water and fertilizer use by half, kept topsoil in place and protected water quality.
In addition, the new system produced crops of very large onions, rated “super colossal” and
highly valued by the restaurant industry and food processors. Art Pimms, one of the researchers
Onion growers in eastern Oregon are adopting a system that saves water and keeps topsoil
at Malheur comments: “Growers are finding that when they adopt more environmentally benign
in place, while producing the highest quality “super colossal” onions. Pear growers in southern
practices, they can have excellent results. The new practices benefit the environment and give the
Oregon have reduced their use of some of the most toxic pesticides by up to two-thirds, and
growers their success.”
are still producing top-quality pears. Range managers throughout the state have controlled the
poisonous weed tansy ragwort with insect predators and saved the Oregon livestock industry up to
OSU researchers in Malheur next tested straw mulch and found that it successfully held soil in
$4.8 million a year.
place and kept the ground moist with less irrigation. In addition, and unexpectedly, the scientists
found that the mulched soil created a home for beneficial beetles and spiders that prey on onion
These are some of the results Oregon growers have achieved in collaboration with Oregon
thrips – a notorious pest in commercial onion fields – a discovery that could reduce the need for
State University (OSU) researchers as they test new farming methods including integrated pest
pesticides. “I would never have believed that we could replace the artificial pest controls that we
management (IPM). Nationwide, however, IPM has not delivered results comparable to those
had before and still keep our good results,” commented Steve Black, a commercial onion farmer in
in Oregon. A recent U.S General Accounting Office (GAO) report indicates that while integrated
Oregon, “but instead we have actually surpassed expectations.”
pest management can result in dramatically reduced pesticide use, the federal government has
been lacking in effectively promoting that goal and implementing IPM. Farmers also blame the
OSU researchers throughout the state have been working to reduce dependence on broad-
government for not making the new options of pest management attractive. “Wholesale changes in
spectrum chemical sprays that are toxic to many kind of organisms, including humans. “Consumers
the way that farmers control the pests on their farms is an expensive business.” Tony Brown, of the
are rightly putting more and more pressure on the industry to change its reliance on chemical
National Farmers Association says. “If the farmers are given tax breaks to offset the expenditure,
pesticides, but they still want a picture-perfect product,” said Rick Hilton, entomologist at OSU’s
then they would willingly accept the new practices.” The report goes on to note that even though
Southern Oregon Research and Extension Centre, where researchers help pear growers reduce
the use of the riskiest pesticides has declined nationwide, they still make up more than 40
the need for highly toxic pesticides. Picture perfect pears are an important product in Oregon
percent of all pesticides used today; and national pesticide use has risen by 40 million kilograms
and traditionally they have required lots of chemicals. In recent years, the industry has faced stiff
since 1992. “Our food supply remains the safest and highest quality on Earth but we continue to
competition from overseas producers, so any new methods that growers adopt must make sense
overdose our farmland with powerful and toxic pesticides and to under-use the safe and effective
economically as well as environmentally. Hilton is testing a growth regulator that interferes with the
alternatives,” charged Patrick Leahy, who commissioned the report. Green action groups disagree
molting of codling moth larvae. Another study used pheromone dispensers to disrupt codling moth
about the safety issue. “There is no way that habitual consumption of foodstuffs grown using toxic
mating. These and other methods of integrated pest management have allowed pear growers to
chemicals of the nature found on today’s farms can be healthy for consumers,” noted Bill Bowler,
reduce their use of organophosphates by two-thirds and reduce all other synthetic pesticides by
spokesman for Green Action, one of many lobbyists interested in this issue.
even more and still produce top-quality pears. These and other studies around the state are part
of the effort of the IPPC to find alternative farming practices that benefit both the economy and the
The GAO report singles out Oregon’s apple and pear producers who have used the new IPM
environment.
techniques with growing success. Although Oregon is clearly ahead of the nation, scientists Source: Peg Herring / Oregon State University
at OSU are taking the Government Accounting Office criticisms seriously. “We must continue
to develop effective alternative practices that will reduce environmental hazards and produce
high quality products,” said Paul Jepson, a professor of entomology at OSU and new director of
OSU’s Integrated Plant Protection Centre (IPPC). The IPPC brings together scientists from OSU’s
Agricultural Experiment Station, OSU Extension service, the U.S. Department of Agriculture and
Oregon farmers to help develop agricultural systems that will save water and soil, and reduce
pesticides. In response to the GAO report, the Centre is putting even more emphasis on integrating
research and farming practices to improve Oregon agriculture environmentally and economically.
“The GAO report criticizes agencies for not clearly communicating the goals of IPM,” said Jepson.

Questions 28 – 35 Questions 36 - 40
Match the views (28 – 35) with the people listed below. Read the passage about alternative farming methods in Oregon again and look at
the statements below.
28 There is a double advantage to the new techniques. In boxes 36 - 40 on your answer sheet write:
29 Expectations of end users of agricultural products affect the products.
TRUE if the statement is true
30 The work on developing these alternative techniques is not finished.
FALSE if the statement is false
31 Eating food that has had chemicals used in its production is dangerous to our health.
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the
32 Changing current farming methods is not a cheap process.
advertisement
33 Results have exceeded anticipations.
34 The research done should be translated into practical projects.

36 Integrated Pest Management has generally been regarded as a success in the US.
35 The U.S. produces the best food in the world.
37 Oregon farmers of apples and pears have been promoted as successful examples of
Integrated Pest Management.
38 The IPPC uses scientists from different organisations.
TB Tony Brown 39 Straw mulch experiments produced unplanned benefits.
PL Patrick Leahy 40 The apple industry is now facing a lot of competition from abroad.
BB Bill Bowler
PJ Paul Jepson
AP Art Pimms
SB Steve Black
RH Rick Hilton

ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 1 WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
With the pressures on today’s young people to succeed academically, some people
WRITING TASK 1 believe that non-academic subjects at school (eg: physical education and cookery)
should be removed from the syllabus so that children can concentrate wholly on
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. academic subjects.
The chart below shows estimated world literacy rates by region and by gender for the To what extent do you agree or disagree?
year 2000.
You should write at least 250 words.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below.

ACADEMIC SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 1 ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE
PRACTICE TEST 2
Section 1
* Tell me about your family. ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 2

* Where do they live?
* What do you like doing when you are with your family?
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10
Topic 1 Health and Exercise
Questions 1 - 6
* What sorts of things do you do to keep healthy?
* What other sorts of things are popular in your country to keep healthy? Circle the correct letters A - C.
* What sorts of exercise do you not like doing?
* How can we get young people to do more exercise?
Example
Topic 2 Music
Mr. Griffin is coming for...
* What is your favourite type of music and why?
* Do you think that a country’s traditional music is important for its culture? (Why?) A a holiday.
* Why do people’s tastes in music often change as they get older? B a business trip.
* What are some of the different uses of music in your country? C to see family.
Section 2
1 Mr. Griffin has been to the Sunrise Hotel..
Describe your favourite film or television programme
You should say: A once previously.
when you watch it B twice previously.
who is in it C three times previously.
what happens in it
and explain why you particularly like it 2 Mr. Griffin is from...
Section 3 A Melbourne.
B Sydney.
Topic 1 TV and Radio C Perth.
* Why do you think television has become so popular over the last 50 years? 3 Mr. Griffin’s passport number is...
* Do you think that there is still a future for radio with television being so popular?
* Which is better for presenting the news: television or radio? (Why?) A 87647489.
* How can we stop young people today watching too much television? B 87637289.
C 87637489.
Topic 2 Films and Cinema
4 Mr. Griffin wants to book...
* Can you compare television and cinema as forms of entertainment?
* Do people in your country prefer American films or films from their part of the World? A a single room for 2 nights.
* How do you think World cinema will develop over the next 50 years? B a double room for 2 nights.
* Do you feel that “film stars” are overpaid for what they do? C a single room for 1 night.
Academic Test 2; Page 1

5 Mr. Griffin will arrive at the Sunrise Hotel at...
A 9.15 pm.
B 10.00 pm.
C 9.35 pm. Questions 11 - 15
6 When he gets to the Sunrise Hotel, The food Mr. Griffin will find in his room will be...
Complete the descriptions below.
A a cheese sandwich with fries.
B a cheese sandwich.
C a burger.
Below are descriptions that Police have released for the two men wanted in connection with the
robbery at the local jewellery store, Nicholls.
Questions 7 - 10
7 What number room will Mr. Griffin be in at the Sunrise Hotel?
__________________
PHOTOFIT PICTURES TO BE RELEASED LATER TODAY
8 How much will Mr. Griffin pay per night at the Sunrise Hotel?
Man 1 Man 2
$_________________
Height (11) ___________ Height 5 foot 8
Build Slight Build (13) ___________
9 Who will take Mr. Griffin’s food to his room? Hair Dark Hair Red
Face Small moustache Face (14) ___________
__________________________________________________________ Age Early 20s Age (15) ___________
Clothing Blue jeans Clothing Dark blue sweater
White t-shirt Black jeans
10 How much will Mr. Griffin pay for his food? (12) ___________ Motorbike helmet
Motorbike helmet
$_________________

Questions 16 - 20 SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30
Complete the sentences below. Questions 21 - 26

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.
* CompTec blamed the job losses on reduced sales and (16) _____________________ Complete the admission tutor’s notes below.
_________________________.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
* The airport route expansion will result in a (17) _________________________ of new jobs.
* The Oakley Woods development project was opposed by local residents

and local (18) _____________________________________. George Finchly, the Westley ADMISSION TUTOR’S NOTES
(19) __________________________, gave the news to the media.
Student’s Name Robert Johnson
* East Moors CC will play their final on Sunday (20) _______________________ August.
Subject to study (21) _________________________________________________
Why this subject Always interested

Father’s field
At school, good at mathematics and (22) ____________________
Gap year Worked and travelled in Australia and New Zealand
Jobs during Gap Year (23) _________________________________________________

Pub work
(24) _________________________________________________
Building site
Why Westley University Department has (25) ___________________________________

Graduates from Westley get jobs in industry quickly
Near Snowdonia for (26) ________________________________
Likes football - Westley has lots of teams

Complete Robert’s notes below. Questions 31 - 33

Complete the sentences below.
ROBERT JOHNSON’S NOTES Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.
Type of Course (27) _______________________________ (3rd year in industry)

31 The lecture will be useful for any students who are writing ___________________________
_________________________________.
Assessment Year 1 5 exams
Year 2 (28) _________________________________

32 Modernised countries are described by the speaker as now being ____________________
_________________________________.
Year 3 No assessment
Year 4 Dissertation of (29) _______________________________

33 The size of a sample depends on the __________________________________________
8 final exams during (30) __________________________
required.

READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 - 14
Survey Size Depends on statistical quality needed and total population size DIABETES
A 1000 individual survey can reflect the total population
Here are some facts that you probably didn’t know about diabetes. It is the
world’s fastest growing disease. It is Australia’s 6th leading cause of death. Over 1
Types of Survey million Australians have it though 50% of those are as yet unaware. Every 10 minutes
someone is diagnosed with diabetes. So much for the facts but what exactly is diabetes?
Advantages Disadvantages Diabetes is the name given to a group of different conditions in which there is too much
Mail (34) _____________________ Not good for decent response glucose in the blood. Here’s what happens: the body needs glucose as its main source of fuel or
Good for particular groups rate energy. The body makes glucose from foods containing carbohydrate such as vegetables containing
Telephone Good for when time and survey (35) _____________________ carbohydrate (like potatoes or corn) and cereal foods (like bread, pasta and rice) as well as fruit
length are limited and milk. Glucose is carried around the body in the blood and the glucose level is called glycaemia.
In-Person Good for collecting complex Can mean lots of Glycaemia (blood sugar levels) in humans and animals must be neither too high nor too low, but
information (36) _____________________ just right. The glucose running around in the blood stream now has to get out of the blood and into
the body tissues. This is where insulin enters the story. Insulin is a hormone made by the pancreas,
Street Interview (37) _____________________ Not scientific sampling a gland sitting just below the stomach. Insulin opens the doors that let glucose go from the blood
to the body cells where energy is made. This process is called glucose metabolism. In diabetes,
the pancreas either cannot make insulin or the insulin it does make is not enough and cannot work
properly. Without insulin doing its job, the glucose channels are shut. Glucose builds up in the
Survey Content Questions can ask about: opinions and attitudes blood leading to high blood glucose levels, which causes the health problems linked to diabetes.
factual characteristics or behaviour People refer to the disease as diabetes but there are actually two distinctive types of the
Questions can be open-ended or (38) _________________________ disease. Type 1 diabetes is a condition characterized by high blood glucose levels caused by a
Questions can be from 5 mins long to 1 hour + total lack of insulin. It occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the insulin-producing beta
cells in the pancreas and destroys them. The pancreas then produces little or no insulin. Type 1
Survey can be (39) ____________________________ - interviewees diabetes develops most often in young people but can appear in adults. Type 2 diabetes is the most
can be questioned on 2 or more occasions common form of diabetes. In type 2 diabetes, either the body does not produce enough insulin
or the cells ignore the insulin. Insulin is necessary for the body to be able to use sugar. Sugar is
the basic fuel for the cells in the body, and insulin takes the sugar from the blood into the cells.
Ethics Results must not be used commercially The diagnosis of diabetes often depends on what type the patient is suffering from. In Type 1
Individuals should not be mentioned diabetes, symptoms are usually sudden and sometimes even life threatening - hyperglycaemia (high
Results should be in (40) ___________________________________ blood sugar levels) can lead to comas – and therefore it is mostly diagnosed quite quickly. In Type 2
ie: statistical tables or charts diabetes, many people have no symptoms at all, while other signs can go unnoticed, being seen as part
of ‘getting older’. Therefore, by the time symptoms are noticed, the blood glucose level for many people
can be very high. Common symptoms include: being more thirsty than usual, passing more urine,
feeling lethargic, always feeling hungry, having cuts that heal slowly, itching, skin infections, bad breath,
blurred vision, unexplained weight change, mood swings, headaches, feeling dizzy and leg cramps.
At present there is no cure for diabetes, but there is a huge amount of research looking
for a cure and to provide superior management techniques and products until a cure is found.
Whether it’s Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes, the aim of any diabetes treatment is to get your blood
glucose levels as close to the non-diabetic range as often as possible. For people with Type 1
diabetes, this will mean insulin injections every day plus leading a healthy lifestyle. For people
with Type 2 diabetes, healthy eating and regular physical activity may be all that is required at
Questions 8 - 11
first: sometimes tablets and/or insulin may be needed later on. Ideally blood glucose levels are Complete the following statements with the best ending from the box on the next
kept as close to the non-diabetic range as possible so frequent self-testing is a good idea. This
will help prevent the short-term effects of very low or very high blood glucose levels as well as
page
the possible long-term problems. If someone is dependent on insulin, it has to be injected into the Write the appropriate letters A - H in boxes 8 - 11 on your answer sheet.
body. Insulin cannot be taken as a pill. The insulin would be broken down during digestion just like
the protein in food. Insulin must be injected into the fat under your skin for it to get into your blood. 8 Bizarre as it may seem, many people with diabetes…
Diabetes can cause serious complications for patients. When glucose builds up in the blood instead
of going into cells, it can cause problems. Short term problems are similar to the symptoms but long 9 Insulin is a hormone that allows glucose to be absorbed by…
term high blood sugar levels can lead to heart attacks, strokes, kidney failure, amputations and
blindness. Having your blood pressure and cholesterol outside recommended ranges can also lead 10 Non severe type 2 diabetes can be solely treated by…
to problems like heart attack and stroke and in fact 2 out of 3 people with diabetes eventually die
of these complications. Young adults age 18 - 44 who get type 2 diabetes are 14 times more likely 11 Increases in diabetes related heart problems are mainly seen in…
to suffer a heart attack, and are up to 30 times more likely to have a stroke than their peers without
diabetes. Young women account for almost all the increase in heart attack risk, while young men are
twice as likely to suffer a stroke as young women. This means that huge numbers of people are going A a healthy lifestyle.
to get heart disease, heart attacks and strokes years, sometimes even decades, before they should.
B never suffer any ill effects.
Questions 1 - 7 C women.
Do the following statements reflect the views of the writer in Reading Passage 1?
D people also suffering strokes.
In boxes 1 - 7 on your answer sheet write:
E body cells.
YES if the statement agrees with the information
F the pancreas.
NO if the statement contradicts the statement
G do not realise the fact.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage
H injections.
1 Carbohydrate foods are the body’s source of glucose.
Questions 12 - 14
2 Diabetics cannot produce insulin.
According to the text which of the following are symptoms of diabetes?
3 Some patients develop diabetes due to faults in their own immune
systems Choose THREE letters (A – G) and write them in boxes 12 – 14 on your answer
sheet.
4 Hyperglycaemia leads to type 1 diabetes being diagnosed quite quickly.
A hot flushes
5 Artificial insulin is the most effective treatment for those patients B muscle pains
requiring insulin. C nausea
D losing consciousness
6 Frequent check ups at the doctor can drastically reduce the chances of E tiredness
suffering from problems related to diabetes. F bleeding gums
G dilation of the eyes
7 The majority of diabetics develop heart problems or suffer strokes.

READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 15 - 27 Arctic is covered by a layer of this haze the size of the continent of Africa. When the spring light
arrives in the Arctic, there is a smog-like haze, which makes the region, at times, looks like pollution
over such cities as Los Angeles.
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on This polluted air is a well-known and well-characterized feature of the late winter Arctic
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. environment. In the North American Arctic, episodes of brown or black snow have been traced to
continental storm tracks that deliver gaseous and particulate-associated contaminants from Asian
deserts and agricultural areas. It is now known that the contaminants originate largely from Europe
Contaminating the Arctic and Asia.
Arctic haze has been studied most extensively in Point Barrow, Alaska, across the Canadian Arctic
Our perception of the Arctic region is that its distance from industrial centers keeps it pristine and in Svalbard (Norway). Evidence from ice cores drilled from the ice sheet of Greenland indicates
and clear from the impact of pollution. However, through a process known as transboundary that these haze particles were not always present in the Arctic, but began to appear only in the last
pollution, the Arctic is the recipient of contaminants whose sources are thousands of miles away. century. The Arctic haze particles appear to be similar to smog particles observed in industrial areas
Large quantities of pollutants pour into our atmosphere, as well as our lakes, rivers, and oceans farther south, consisting mostly of sulfates mixed with particles of carbon. It is believed the particles
on a daily basis. In the last 20 years, scientists have detected an increasing variety of toxic are formed when gaseous sulfur dioxide produced by burning sulfur-bearing coal is irradiated by
contaminants in the North, including pesticides from agriculture, chemicals and heavy metals from sunlight and oxidized to sulfate, a process catalyzed by trace elements in the air. These sulfate
industry, and even radioactive fall-out from Chernobyl. These are substances that have invaded particles or droplets of sulfuric acid quickly capture the carbon particles, which are also floating in
ecosystems virtually worldwide, but they are especially worrisome in the Arctic. the air. Pure sulfate particles or droplets are colourless, so it is believed the darkness of the haze is
caused by the mixed-in carbon particles.
Originally, Arctic contamination was largely blamed on chemical leaks, and these leaks were
thought to be “small and localized.” The consensus now is that pollutants from around the world The impact of the haze on Arctic ecosystems, as well as the global environment, has not been
are being carried north by rivers, ocean currents, and atmospheric circulation. Due to extreme adequately researched. The pollutants have only been studied in their aerosol form over the Arctic.
conditions in the Arctic, including reduced sunlight, extensive ice cover and cold temperatures, However, little is known about what eventually happens to them. It is known that they are removed
contaminants break down much more slowly than in warmer climates. Contaminants can also somehow. There is a good degree of likelihood that the contaminants end up in the ocean, likely
become highly concentrated due to their significantly lengthened life span in the Arctic. into the North Atlantic, the Norwegian Sea and possibly the Bering Sea — all three very important
fisheries.
Problems of spring run-off into coastal waters during the growth period of marine life are of
critical concern. Spring algae blooms easily, absorbing the concentrated contaminants released Currently, the major issue among researchers is to understand the impact of Arctic haze on global
by spring melting. These algae are in turn eaten by zooplankton and a wide variety of marine climate change. The contaminants absorb sunlight and, in turn, heat up the atmosphere. The global
life. The accumulation of these contaminants increases with each step of the food chain or web impact of this is currently unknown but the implications are quite powerful.
and can potentially affect northerners who eat marine mammals near the top of the food chain.
Pollutants respect no borders; transboundary pollution is the movement of contaminants across
political borders, whether by air, rivers, or ocean currents. The eight circumpolar nations, led by
the Finnish Initiative of 1989, established the Arctic Environmental Protection Strategy (AEPS) in
which participants have agreed to develop an Arctic Monitoring and Assessment Program (AMAP).
AMAP establishes an international scientific network to monitor the current condition of the Arctic
with respect to specific contaminants. This monitoring program is extremely important because it
will give a scientific basis for understanding the scope of the problem.
In the 1950’s, pilots traveling on weather reconnaissance flights in the Canadian high Arctic
reported seeing bands of haze in the springtime in the Arctic region. It was during this time that
the term “Arctic haze” was first used, referring to this smog of unknown origin. But it was not
until 1972, that Dr. Glenn Shaw of the Geophysical Institute at the University of Alaska first put
forth ideas of the nature and long-range origin of Arctic haze. The idea that the source was long
range was very difficult for many to support. Each winter, cold, dense air settles over the Arctic.
In the darkness, the Arctic seems to become more and more polluted by a buildup of mid-latitude
emissions from fossil fuel combustion, smelting and other industrial processes. By late winter, the

Questions 15 - 27 Questions 22 – 27
Read the passage about alternative farming methods in Oregon again and look at Complete the summary relating to Arctic Haze below.
the statements below.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes
In boxes 15 - 21 on your answer sheet write: 22 – 27 on your answer sheet.
TRUE if the statement is true NB There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them at all.
FALSE if the statement is false Example Answer
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the ____________ that the origins of spring, arctic haze, Theories
advertisement first seen over the ice cap...
(eg) ______________________ that the origins of spring, arctic haze, first seen over
15 Industry in the Arctic has increased over the last 20 years. the ice cap in the 1950s, came from far away were at first not (22) _______________
16 Arctic conditions mean that the break down of pollutants is much accelerated _______. This haze is a smog formed in the dark, arctic winter by pollution delivered to
17 Pollution absorbed by arctic algae can eventually affect humans. the Arctic by storms (23) ______________________ in Europe and Asia. It is known to
be a recent phenomenon as proof from (24) ______________________ shows it only

18 The AEPS has set up scientific stations in the Arctic to monitor pollution.
starting to occur in the 20th Century. The smog consists of sulphates and carbon, the
19 Arctic pollution can sometimes resemble US urban pollution.
latter creating the (25) ______________________ of the haze. Due to lack of research,
20 Evidence that this smog has only occurred in the 20th Century has been found in
the ice on the polar ice cap. the final destination of the pollution is unknown but it probably ends up in the (26)
21 Research has shown that aerosol arctic pollutants remain the air indefinitely. ______________________ and therefore into the food chain. Scientists are presently
more worried about the (27) ______________________ effect it has on climate change.
burning terrible ice cores valid certain
originating sea destroying theories unknown
agriculture decided bird life dissipating accepted
gases darkness air density

are in turn coated with a kind of resistant, golden yellow parchment, (called endocarp). When
READING PASSAGE 3 Questions 28 - 40 peeled, the real bean appears with another very thin silvery film. The bean is bluish green verging
on bronze, and is at the most 11 millimetres long and 8 millimetres wide.
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on F
Reading Passage 3 below. Coffee plants need special conditions to give a satisfactory crop. The climate needs to be hot-wet
or hot temperate, between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, with frequent rains
THE STORY OF COFFEE and temperatures varying from 15 to 25 Degrees C. The soil should be deep, hard, permeable,
well irrigated, with well-drained subsoil. The best lands are the hilly ones or from just-tilled woods.
A The perfect altitude is between 600 and 1200 metres, though some varieties thrive at 2000-2200
metres. Cultivation aimed at protecting the plants at every stage of growth is needed. Sowing
Coffee was first discovered in Eastern Africa in an area we know today as Ethiopia. A popular should be in sheltered nurseries from which, after about six months, the seedlings should be
legend refers to a goat herder by the name of Kaldi, who observed his goats acting unusually moved to plantations in the rainy season where they are usually alternated with other plants to
friskily after eating berries from a bush. Curious about this phenomenon, Kaldi tried eating the shield them from wind and excessive sunlight. Only when the plant is five years old can it be
berries himself. He found that these berries gave him renewed energy. counted upon to give a regular yield. This is between 400 grams and two kilos of arabica beans for
B each plant, and 600 grams and two kilos for robusta beans.
The news of this energy laden fruit quickly moved throughout the region. Coffee berries were G
transported from Ethiopia to the Arabian Peninsula, and were first cultivated in what today is the Harvesting time depends on the geographic situation and it can vary greatly therefore according
country of Yemen. Coffee remained a secret in Arabia before spreading to Turkey and then to the to the various producing countries. First the ripe beans are picked from the branches. Pickers can
European continent by means of Venetian trade merchants. selectively pick approximately 250 to 300 pounds of coffee cherry a day. At the end of the day, the
pickers bring their heavy burlap bags to pulping mills where the cherry coffee can be pulped (or
C wet milled). The pulped beans then rest, covered in pure rainwater to ferment overnight. The next
day the wet beans are hand-distributed upon the drying floor to be sun dried. This drying process
Coffee was first eaten as a food though later people in Arabia would make a drink out of boiling the
takes from one to two weeks depending on the amount of sunny days available. To make sure
beans for its narcotic effects and medicinal value. Coffee for a time was known as Arabian wine
they dry evenly, the beans need to be raked many times during this drying time. Two weeks later
to Muslims who were banned from alcohol by Islam. It was not until after coffee had been eaten
the sun dried beans, now called parchment, are scooped up, bagged and taken to be milled. Huge
as a food product, a wine and a medicine that it was discovered, probably by complete accident
milling machines then remove the parchment and silver skin, which renders a green bean suitable
in Turkey, that by roasting the beans a delicious drink could be made. The roasted beans were
for roasting. The green beans are roasted according to the customers’ specifications and, after
first crushed, and then boiled in water, creating a crude version of the beverage we enjoy today.
cooling, the beans are then packaged and mailed to customers.
The first coffee houses were opened in Europe in the 17th Century and in 1675, the Viennese
established the habit of refining the brew by filtering out the grounds, sweetening it, and adding a Source: Sovrana Trading (Lavazza Coffee)
dash of milk.
D
If you were to explore the planet for coffee, you would find about 60 species of coffee plants
growing wild in Africa, Malaysia, and other regions. But only about ten of them are actually
cultivated. Of these ten, two species are responsible for almost all the coffee produced in the
world: Coffea Arabica and Coffea Canephora (usually known as Robusta). Because of ecological
differences existing among the various coffee producing countries, both types have undergone
many mutations and now exist in many sub species.
E
Although wild plants can reach 10 - 12 metres in height, the plantation one reaches a height of
around four metres. This makes the harvest and flowering easier, and cultivation more economical.
The flowers are white and sweet-scented like the Spanish jasmine. Flowers give way to a red,
darkish berry. At first sight, the fruit is like a big cherry both in size and in colour. The berry is
coated with a thin, red film (epicarp) containing a white, sugary mucilaginous flesh (mesocarp).
Inside the pulp there are the seeds in the form of two beans coupled at their flat surface. Beans
Questions 28 - 33
30 Paragraph D
The reading passage on The Story of Coffee has 7 paragraphs A – G.
31 Paragraph E
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for
paragraphs B – G.
32 Paragraph F
Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 28 – 33 on your answer sheet.
33 Paragraph G
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
Questions 34 - 36
i Growing Coffee
Complete the labels on the diagram of a coffee bean below.
ii Problems with Manufacture
iii Processing the Bean

Choose your answers from the text and write them in boxes 34 - 36 on your answer
sheet.
iv First Contact
v Arabian Coffee
(35) ________________
vi Coffee Varieties
(34) ________________
vii Modern Coffee
viii The Spread of Coffee
ix Consuming Coffee
x Climates for Coffee

(36) ________________
xi The Coffee Plant
Example Answer
Paragraph A iv
28 Paragraph B
29 Paragraph C

Questions 37 – 40 ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 2
Using the information in the passage, complete the flow chart below.
Write your answers in boxes 37 – 40 on your answer sheet. WRITING TASK 1
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The Coffee Production Process The chart below shows how the UK unemployed spent their time in the year 1982.
The coffee (eg) ____________ is picked by hand and Answer
delivered to mills. cherry You should write at least 150 words.
The coffee cherry is pulped or (37) _________________________________.
How the Unemployed Spend their Time, UK, 1982

The pulped beans are left (38) _________________ to ferment in pure water.
morning morning afternoon afternoon
men women men women
% % % %
The wet beans are sun dried for one or 2 weeks to make parchment – they are Housework 19 49 7 21
(39) _________________________ often to ensure an even drying procedure. Shopping 20 26 9 17
Job hunting 22 16 12 13
Visiting friends 6 10 12 17
or relatives
The parchment is then bagged and taken to be milled to make the green beans.
Gardening 14 2 13 3
TV 4 2 14 12
Reading 9 5 8 10
Decorating 7 3 7 2
The green beans are then roasted to (40) ________________________________. Walking 5 3 8 2
Nothing/Sitting 3 3 9 6
around
Staying in bed 8 8 1 0
The roasted beans are cooled. Visiting town 5 7 3 4
Playing sport 4 1 4 0
Drinking 2 1 3 1
The finished product is packaged and mailed to the customer.

WRITING TASK 2 ACADEMIC SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 2
Section 1
* Tell me about the part of the country where you live.
Do you believe that experimentation on animals for scientific purposes is justified.
* What are the main ways of earning money in this area?
Are there any alternatives to animal experimentation?
* What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of living in this area?
Topic 1 Studying English
* Where have you studied English?

* What do you find most difficult about studying English?
* What’s the best way for you to study English?
* How can speaking English well help you in your life?
Topic 2 Transport
* What is the best way to get around the place where you live?
* How would you improve transport in your town or area?
* How does transport cause pollution?
* Do people prefer using public or private transport in your country?
Section 2
Describe what you think would be the perfect holiday.

You should say:
where it would be
what activities you would do
how long it would last
and explain why this holiday would be perfect for you.
Section 3
Topic 1 Tourism
* What are some of the best places in your country for a tourist to visit?
* What are some of the advantages and disadvantages that tourism brings to an area?
* Could you compare the tourism industry in your country today with that of 50 years
ago?
* What factors do you think could limit the expansion of tourism in the future?
Topic 2 Holidays
* Why do you think people need holidays?

* How much holiday a year do you think a person needs?
* How have people’s expectations about holidays changed over the last 50 years?
* How do you think holidays will change in the next 50 years?

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE Questions 6 - 8
PRACTICE TEST 3 Circle THREE letters A - F.
ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 3 What type of books does Peter like?
A Wildlife books
B Romance books
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 C Travel books
D Historical novels
Questions 1 - 5 E Science Fiction novels
F Mystery books
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Questions 9 and 10
WESTLEY PUBLIC LIBRARY Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
MEMBERSHIP APPLICATION FORM 9 How much does it cost to join the library?
_________________________________
Example Answer
10 How much does it cost to rent a DVD?
NAME Camden
_________________________________
FIRST NAME Peter
ADDRESS Flat 5
53 (1) _________________________________
Finsbury
POSTCODE (2) ____________________________________
DATE OF BIRTH 8th July (3) _____________________________
HOME TEL None
MOBILE TEL (4) ____________________________________
PROOF OF RESIDENCE PROVIDED (5) ____________________________________

GIVING BLOOD
Questions 11 - 14 DAYS Wednesday + next 2 days
List FOUR reasons given for people needing blood transfusions. WHERE Westley General Hospital, (18) ___________________________
Department
WHEN Between 9.00am and (19) ___________________________
Write your answers in boxes 11 - 14 on your answer sheet.
MUST be healthy
be (20) ______________________ or over
weigh more than 110 pounds
11 ____________________________________________________________
have had no tattoos this year
not have donated blood within past 56 days
12 ____________________________________________________________
13 ____________________________________________________________
14 ____________________________________________________________
Questions 15 - 20
Complete the 2 sets of notes below.
Blood
Types of Blood O, A, B + AB
Component Parts
PART USED FOR

red blood cells (15) __________________________ to cells
white blood cells help patients’ (16) ______________________
_____________________________________
platelets blood clotting
plasma (17) ________________________ the other
blood parts

Questions 21 - 27 Choose the correct letters A - C.

28 The introductory computer course that James decides to take is...
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. A beginner.
B intermediate.
C advanced.
Computer Labs 29 The computer laboratory for James’ introductory computer course is in...
The 4 labs below can be used by undergraduates. Other computer labs can only be A Wimborne
used by postgraduates and (21) _________________________ B Franklin
C Court
Lab Locations Wimborne Johnson Building
Franklin Computer Sciences Building 30 James will take his introductory computer course...
Salisbury (22) ____________________
Court Johnson Building A on Thursday at 2.00pm.
B on Tuesday at 4.30pm.
Reservations (23) ________________ a day unless computers are free C on Tuesday at 5.00pm
Write reservation in book (24) ________________
(Penalty for erasing someone else’s reservation - 1 year ban)
User Name jamessmith2
Password (25) _________________
Printing Pick up print outs from (26) ______________ in Franklin

Costs (27) ________________

Questions 31 - 35
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 36 French TGV locomotives pull the TGV trains from both ends using a _______________.
37 Japanese ground is unsuitable for the TGV type of train because it is _______________
and the tracks frequently curve horizontally and vertically.
The Shinkansen or Bullet Train 38 An extra advantage of the Japanese electric car system is that it can act as
a _______________.
Safety No deaths (bar 1 from passenger misadventure) since its
launch in (31) ___________________________. 39 Even after the power supply is cut off in the electric car system, electricity is still produced
by _______________.
Speed Holds world train record for (32) _______________________
of 261.8 kph. 40 Huge improvements in power, operability and safety administration have been made
500 series Nozumi’s fastest speed is 300kph. possible by advances in _______________.
Punctuality Punctual to within the second.
All bullet trains for 1 year were a total of (33) __________ late.
History First used on Tokyo to Osaka route.

Old models have now been retired.
300, 500 and 700 are recent models.
Services Nozomi trains stop at the (34) _________________________.

Hikari stop more frequently.
Kodama trains stop at (35) ____________________________.

ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 3 litter off boats, and rubbish in the street being blown or washed into the river. Once litter hits the water
it becomes too heavy to be blown away again and therefore the rivers act as a sink in the system.
While the Port of London already collects up to 3,000 tons of solid waste from the tideway every year,
Thames Water now plans to introduce a new device to capture more rubbish floating down the river.
READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 - 14 It consists of a huge cage that sits in the flow of water and gathers the passing rubbish. Moored just
offshore in front of the Royal Naval College at Greenwich, south-east London, the device is expected
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 14 which are based on to capture up to 20 tons of floating litter each year. If washed out to sea, this rubbish can kill marine
Reading Passage 1 below. mammals, fish and birds. This machine, known as the Rubbish Muncher, is hoped to be the first of
many, as the TW is now looking for sponsors to pay for more cages elsewhere along the Thames.
Cleaning up The Thames Monitoring of the cleanliness of the River Thames in the past was the responsibility of a welter
of agencies - British Waterways, Port of London Authority, the Environment Agency, the Health
The River Thames, which was biologically “dead” as recently as the 1960s, is now and Safety Commission, Thames Water – as well as academic departments and national and
the cleanest metropolitan river in the world, according to the Thames Water Company. The local environment groups. If something was not right, someone was bound to call foul and hold
company says that thanks to major investment in better sewage treatment in London and the somebody to account, whether it was the local authority, an individual polluter or any of the many
Thames Valley, the river that flows through the United Kingdom capital and the Thames Estuary public and private sector bodies that bore a share of the responsibility for maintaining the River
into the North Sea is cleaner now than it has been for 130 years. The Fisheries Department, Thames as a public amenity. Although they will all still have their part to play, there is now a
who are responsible for monitoring fish levels in the River Thames, has reported that the central department in the Environment Agency, which has the remit of monitoring the Thames.
river has again become the home to 115 species of fish including sea bass, flounder, salmon, This centralisation of accountability will, it is hoped, lead to more efficient control and enforcement.
smelt, and shad. Recently, a porpoise was spotted cavorting in the river near central London. Source: US Water News 2000
But things were not always so rosy. In the 1950s, sewer outflows and industrial effluent had
killed the river. It was starved of oxygen and could no longer support aquatic life. Until the early 1970s,
Questions 1 - 6
if you fell into the Thames you would have had to be rushed to hospital to get your stomach pumped. A
clean-up operation began in the 1960s. Several Parliamentary Committees and Royal Commissions Some of the actions taken to clean up the River Thames are listed below.
were set up, and, over time, legislation has been introduced that put the onus on polluters - effluent-
producing premises and businesses - to dispose of waste responsibly. In 1964 the Greater London The writer gives these actions as examples of things that have been done by various
Council (GLC) began work on greatly enlarged sewage works, which were completed in 1974. agencies connected with the River Thames.
The Thames clean up is not over though. It is still going on, and it involves many disparate
arms of government and a wide range of non-government stakeholder groups, all representing a
necessary aspect of the task. In London’s case, the urban and non-urban London boroughs that Match each action with the agency responsible for doing it.
flank the river’s course each has its own reasons for keeping “their” river nice. And if their own
reasons do not hold out a sufficiently attractive carrot, the government also wields a compelling Write the appropriate letters (A - G) in boxes 1 - 6 on your answer sheet.
stick. The 2000 Local Government Act requires each local borough to “prepare a community strategy
for promoting or improving the economic, social and environmental well-being of their area.” And
if your area includes a stretch of river, that means a sustainable river development strategy. Actions to Clean up the River Thames
Further legislation aimed at improving and sustaining the river’s viability has been proposed.
There is now legislation that protects the River Thames, either specifically or as part of a general A Operating the Rubbish Muncher
environmental clause, in the Local Government Act, the London Acts, and the law that created the post
of the mayor of London. And these are only the tip of an iceberg that includes industrial, public health B Creating Community Strategies
and environmental protection regulations. The result is a wide range of bodies officially charged, in
one way or another, with maintaining the Thames as a public amenity. For example, Transport for C Monitoring the Cleanliness of the River Thames
London - the agency responsible for transport in the capital - plays a role in regulating river use and
river users. They now are responsible forcontrolling the effluents and rubbish coming from craft using D Monitoring Fish Levels
the Thames. This is done by officers on official vessels regularly inspectiing craft and doing spot
checks. Another example is how Thames Water (TW) has now been charged to reduce the amount E Collecting Solid Waste from the Tideway
of litter that finds its way into the tidal river and its tributaries. TW’s environment and quality manager,
Dr. Peter Spillett, said: “This project will build on our investment which has dramatically improved the F Creating Enlarged Sewage Works
water quality of the river. London should not be spoiled by litter which belongs in the bin not the river.”
Thousands of tons of rubbish end up in the river each year, from badly stored waste, people throwing G Controlling the River Thames’ Traffic

Example Answer READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 15 - 27
The Fisheries Department D
1 The Environment Agency
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
2 Transport for London If it weren’t for nicotine, people wouldn’t smoke tobacco. Why? Because of the more than
4000 chemicals in tobacco smoke, nicotine is the primary one that acts on the brain, altering
3 The Greater London Council people’s moods, appetites and alertness in ways they find pleasant and beneficial. Unfortunately,
as it is widely known, nicotine has a dark side: it is highly addictive. Once smokers become hooked
4 Thames Water on it, they must get their fix of it regularly, sometimes several dozen times a day. Cigarette smoke
contains 43 known carcinogens, which means that long-term smoking can amount to a death
5 Port of London sentence. In the US alone, 420,000 Americans die every year from tobacco-related illnesses.
Breaking nicotine addiction is not easy. Each year, nearly 35 million people make a
6 Local Boroughs concerted effort to quit smoking. Sadly, less than 7 percent succeed in abstaining for more than a
year; most start smoking again within days. So what is nicotine and how does it insinuate itself into
Questions 7 - 14 the smoker’s brain and very being?
The nicotine found in tobacco is a potent drug and smokers, and even some scientists,
say it offers certain benefits. One is enhance performance. One study found that non-smokers
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading
given doses of nicotine typed about 5 percent faster than they did without it. To greater or lesser
passage on Cleaning up the Thames? degrees, users also say nicotine helps them to maintain concentration, reduce anxiety, relieve
pain, and even dampen their appetites (thus helping in weight control). Unfortunately, nicotine can
In Boxes 7 - 14 write: also produce deleterious effects beyond addiction. At high doses, as are achieved from tobacco
products, it can cause high blood pressure, distress in the respiratory and gastrointestinal systems
YES if the statement agrees with the writer and an increase in susceptibility to seizures and hypothermia.
First isolated as a compound in 1828, in its pure form nicotine is a clear liquid that turns
brown when burned and smells like tobacco when exposed to air. It is found in several species of
NO if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer plants, including tobacco and, perhaps surprisingly, in tomatoes, potatoes, and eggplant (though in
extremely low quantities that are pharmacologically insignificant for humans).
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this As simple as it looks, the cigarette is highly engineered nicotine delivery device. For
instance, when tobacco researchers found that much of the nicotine in a cigarette wasn’t released
when burned but rather remained chemically bound within the tobacco leaf, they began adding
7 The Thames is now cleaner that it was in 1900.
substances such as ammonia to cigarette tobacco to release more nicotine. Ammonia helps
keep nicotine in its basic form, which is more readily vaporised by the intense heat of the burning
8 Swimming in the Thames now poses no health hazards.
cigarette than the acidic form. Most cigarettes for sale in the US today contain 10 milligrams
or more of nicotine. By inhaling smoke from a lighted cigarette, the average smoker takes 1 or
9 It is now mainly the responsibility of those who pollute the Thames to clean their waste up.
2 milligrams of vaporised nicotine per cigarette. Today we know that only a miniscule amount
of nicotine is needed to fuel addiction. Research shows that manufacturers would have to cut
10 All local London boroughs are now partly responsible for keeping the Thames clean.
nicotine levels in a typical cigarette by 95% to forestall its power to addict. When a smoker puffs
on a lighted cigarette, smoke, including vaporised nicotine, is drawn into the mouth. The skin and
11 Transport for London now employs a type of River Police to enforce control of their
lining of the mouth immediately absorb some nicotine, but the remainder flows straight down into
regulations.
the lungs, where it easily diffuses into the blood vessels lining the lung walls. The blood vessels
carry the nicotine to the heart, which then pumps it directly to the brain. While most of the effects a
12 Rubbish Munchers are now situated at various locations on the Thames.
smoker seeks occur in the brain, the heart takes a hit as well. Studies have shown that a smoker’s
first cigarette of the day can increase his or her heart rate by 10 to 20 beats a minute. Scientists
13 Previously no one department had overall responsibility or control for monitoring the
have found that a smoked substance reaches the brain more quickly than one swallowed, snorted
cleanliness of the Thames.
(such as cocaine powder) or even injected. Indeed, a nicotine molecule inhaled in smoke will
reach the brain within 10 seconds. The nicotine travels through blood vessels, which branch out
14 British Waterways will no longer have any part in keeping the Thames clean.
into capillaries within the brain. Capillaries normally carry nutrients but they readily accommodate 20 Nicotine dilates the blood vessels that carry it around the body.
nicotine molecules as well. Once inside the brain, nicotine, like most addictive drugs, triggers the
release of chemicals associated with euphoria and pleasure. 21 Nicotine molecules allow greater electrical charges to pass between neurones.
Just as it moves rapidly from the lungs into the bloodstream, nicotine also easily diffuses
through capillary walls. It then migrates to the spaces surrounding neurones – ganglion cells that Questions 22 - 26
transmit nerve impulses throughout the nervous system. These impulses are the basis for our
thoughts, feelings, and moods. To transmit nerve impulses to its neighbour, a neurone releases
chemical messengers known as neurotransmitters. Like nicotine molecules, the neurotransmitters
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER from Reading Passage 2,
drift into the so-called synaptic space between neurones, ready to latch onto the receiving neurone answer the following questions.
and thus deliver a chemical “message” that triggers an electrical impulse.
The neurotransmitters bind onto receptors on the surface of the recipient neurone. This Write your answers in boxes 22 - 26 on your answer sheet.
opens channels in the cell surface through which enter ions, or charged atoms, of sodium. This
generates a current across the membrane of the receiving cell, which completes delivery of the
“message”. An accomplished mimic, nicotine competes with the neurotransmitters to bind to the 22 What is the natural colour of nicotine?
receptors. It wins and, like the vanquished chemical, opens ion channels that let sodium ions into
the cell. But there’s a lot more nicotine around than the original transmitter, so a much larger current 23 By how much would cigarete companies have to cut the nicotine content in cigarettes to
spreads across the membrane. This bigger current causes increased electrical impulses to travel prevent them from being addictive?
along certain neurones. With repeated smoking, the neurones adapt to this increased electrical
activity, and the smoker becomes dependent on the nicotine. 24 Name ONE of 2 things that first take nicotine into a smoker’s body?
Questions 15 - 21 25 According to the passage, by how many beats a minute can a cigarette raise a smoker’s
heart rate?
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of Reading
26 What type of cell in the human body encloses neurones?
Passage 2?
In Boxes 15 - 21 write: Questions 27
YES if the statement agrees with the writer From the list below choose the most suitable title for Reading Passage 2.
NO if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer A How to Quit Smoking
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this B The Dangers of Smoking
15 Although nicotine is probably the well-known chemical in cigarettes, it is not nessarily the C Cell Biology
one that changes the psyche of the smoker when cigarettes are smoked.
D Why Smoking is Addictive
16 In spite of the difficulties, according to the text more than thirty-five million people a
year give up smoking. E Nicotine is a Poison
17 It has been shown that nicotine in cigarettes can improve people’s abillities to perform some
actions more quickly.
18 Added ammonia in cigarettes allows smokers to inhale more nicotine.
19 Snorted substances reach the brain faster than injected substances.

READING PASSAGE 3 Questions 28 - 40 Deer Farming In Australia
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on Paragraph A
Reading Passage 3.
Deer are not indigenous to Australia. They were introduced into the country during the
nineteenth century under the acclimatization programs governing the introduction of exotic
Questions 28 - 32 species of animals and birds into Australia. Six species of deer were released at various
locations. The animals dispersed and established wild populations at various locations across
The reading passage on Deer Farming In Australia has 5 paragraphs (A – E). Australia, mostly depending upon their points of release into the wild. These animals formed
the basis for the deer industry in Australia today.
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs Commercial deer farming in Australia commenced in Victoria in 1971 with the authorized
A – E. capture of rusa deer from the Royal National Park, NSW. Until 1985, only four species of deer,
two from temperate climates (red, fallow) and two tropical species (rusa, chital) were confined
for commercial farming. Late in 1985, pressure from industry to increase herd numbers saw the
Write the appropriate number (i – viii) in boxes 28 – 32 on your answer sheet. development of import protocols. This resulted in the introduction of large numbers of red deer
hybrids from New Zealand and North American elk directly from Canada. The national farmed
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. deer herd is now distributed throughout all states although most are in New South Wales and
Victoria.
i Industry Structures Paragraph B
ii Disease Affects Production The number of animals processed annually has continued to increase, despite
the downward trend in venison prices since 1997. Of concern is the apparent increase in
iii Trends in Production the number of female animals processed and the number of whole herds committed for
processing. With more than 40,000 animals processed in 1998/99 and 60,000 in 1999/2000,
iv Government Assistance there is justified concern that future years may see a dramatic drop in production. At least 85%
of all venison produced in Australia is exported, principally to Europe. At least 90% of all velvet
v How Deer Came to Australia antler produced is exported in an unprocessed state to Asia.
Schemes to promote Australian deer products continue to have a positive effect on
vi Research and Development sales that in turn have a positive effect on prices paid to growers. The industry appears
to be showing limited signs that it is emerging from a state of depression caused by both
vii Asian Competition internal and external factors that include: (i) the Asian currency downturn; (ii) the industry’s
lack of competitive advantage in influential markets (particularly in respect to New Zealand
viii Industry Development competition), and; (iii) within industry processing and marketing competition for limited product
volumes of venison.
Paragraph C
28 Paragraph A
From the formation of the Australian Deer Breeders Federation in 1979, the industry
29 Paragraph B
representative body has evolved through the Deer Farmers Federation of Australia to the Deer
Industry Association of Australia Ltd (DIAA), which was registered in 1995. The industry has
30 Paragraph C
established two product development and marketing companies, the Australian Deer Horn and
Co-Products Pty Ltd (ADH) and the Deer Industry Projects and Development Pty Ltd, which
31 Paragraph D
trades as the Deer Industry Company (DIC). ADH collects and markets Australian deer horn
and co-products on behalf of Australian deer farmers. It promotes the harvest of velvet antler
32 Paragraph E
according to the strict quality assurance program promoted by the industry. The company also
plans and co-ordinates regular velvet accreditation courses for Australian deer farmers.
Questions 33 - 37
Paragraph D
Read the passage about Deer Farming in Australia again and look at the statements
Estimates suggest that until the early 1990s the rate of the annual increase in the below.
number of farmed deer was up to 25%, but after 1993 this rate of increase fell to probably less
than 10%. The main reasons for the decline in the deer herd growth rate at such a critical time In boxes 33 - 37 on your answer sheet write:
for the market were: (i) severe drought conditions up to 1998 affecting eastern Australia during
1993-96 and (ii) the consequent slaughter of large numbers of breeding females, at very low
prices. These factors combined to decrease confidence within the industry. Lack of confidence
saw a drop in new investment within the industry and a lack of willingness of established
farmers to expand their herds. With the development of strong overseas markets for venison FALSE if the statement is false
and velvet and the prospect of better seasons ahead in 1996, the trends described were
seen to have been significantly reversed. However, the relatively small size of the Australian NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in Reading Passage 3
herd was seen to impose undesirable restraints on the rate at which herd numbers could be
expanded to meet the demands for products. 33 Until 1985 only 2 species of the originally released Australian deer were not used for
Supply difficulties were exacerbated when the supply of products, particularly venison, farming.
was maintained by the slaughter of young breeding females. The net result was depletion of
the industry’s female breeding herds. 34 Since 1985 many imported deer have been interbred with the established herds.
Paragraph E 35 The drop in deer numbers since 1997 led to an increase in the price of venison.
Industry programs are funded by statutory levies on sales of animals for venison, velvet 36 Only a small amount of Australian venison production is consumed domestically.
antler sales and the sale of live animals into export markets. The industry has a 1996 - 2000
five year plan including animal nutrition, pasture quality, carcass quality, antler harvesting, 37 Current economic conditions in Asian countries have had positive effect on the
promotional material and technical bulletins. All projects have generated a significant volume Australian deer industry.
of information, which compliments similar work undertaken in New Zealand and other deer
farming countries.
Major projects funded by levy funds include the Venison Market Project from 1992 to Questions 38 - 40
1996. This initiative resulted in a dramatic increase in international demand for Australian
venison and an increase in the domestic consumption of venison. In an effort to maintain Complete each of the following statements (Questions 38 - 40) with words taken from
existing venison markets in the short term and to increase them in the long term, in 1997 the Reading Passage 3.
industry’s top priority became the increase in size and production capacity of the national herd.
Source: Rural Industries Research & Development Corporation Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
38 A stringent __________ allows the Australian deer industry to maintain their excellence of
product.
39 Herd stock expansion was made difficult by the killing of __________ to continue product
supply.
40 Foreign and home markets for Australian venison increased due to the __________.

WRITING TASK 1 With the rise in popularity of the internet, newspapers will soon become a thing of
the past.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
The charts below show information on crime in the UK for 2002. You should write at least 250 words.

Section 1
PRACTICE TEST 4
* Tell me about the job or studies that you are doing.
LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 4
* Why did you choose this field?
* Do you think you will ever change this job or study? (Why/Why not?) SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10
Topic 1 Schooldays
Questions 1 - 5
* What were the good parts and the bad parts about your schooldays?
* What was your favourite subject at school? (Why?) Complete the form below.
* How did your school teach sports?
* How would you improve the school that you went to? Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Topic 2 Rivers
* Describe a river in your country.

* What kinds of things are rivers used for in your country? Oakham Surgery
* Are there any pollution problems with rivers in your country? (What?)
* What kind of problems do people face if they live near a big river? New Patient Form
Section 2 Example Answer
Describe your favourite restaurant
NEW PATIENT’S ROAD Dawson Road
You should say:
where the restaurant is and how you found it
what type of food it serves
how often you go there FULL NAME Mike (1) _________________________________
and explain exactly why you like this restaurant so much.
WIFE’S FIRST NAME Janet
Section 3
CHILDRENS’ FIRST NAMES 1st (2) ________________________________
Topic 1 Fast Food 2nd
3rd
* Is fast food popular in your country? (Why?) 4th
* Why has fast food become so popular over the last 30 years?
* Could you compare fast food with traditional meals? ADDRESS 52 Dawson Road
* How can we stop young people eating so much fast food? (3) ______________________________________
Melbourne
Topic 2 Food Problems
HEALTH CARD NUMBER (4) ______________________________________
* What are some of the problems that some countries have with food production?
* Could you suggest any ways to solve these problems? WIFE’S HEALTH CARD NUMBER will give later
* What other problems can you predict happening in terms of food in the next 50
years? PREFERRED DOCTOR SELECTED (5) ______________________________________
* Could you compare methods of food production and distribution today with that of 50
years ago?
Circle the correct letters A - C.
Questions 11 - 16
6 When is Mike’s wife’s first appointment?

A Friday 21st at 2.00pm. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
B Friday 21st at 2.30pm.
C Friday 21st at 3.30pm.
7 What is the surgery’s phone number?
A 7253 9819
B 7253 9829 Notes on Library
C 7523 9829
8 What is the name of the girl with whom Mike is speaking at the surgery? Joining You will need: A completed application form.
Library (11) _____________________________________________
A Rachel (12) ____________________________________________
B Elizabeth Two passport photos.
C Angela
Opening Library 8am - 10pm (13) ___________________________________
9 What’s the night doctor’s mobile number? Hours Reception 9am - 5pm (- 6.30 on (14) ___________________________)
(Mon - Sat; closed on Sundays)
A 0506 759 3856
B 0506 759 3857 Borrowing Undergraduates 4 books
C 0506 758 3856 Postgraduates (15) _________________________________ books
Borrowing for 2 weeks + (16) _________________________ renewals (in person)
10 Which of the following does the surgery NOT make a charge for? No renewals over phone
Late return penalty: ₤2 per week
A Travel vaccinations
B Consultations
C Insurance reports

Label the library layout below below.
Questions 21 - 24
Ground Floor
reception; (17) _______________________________ Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
bathrooms; (18) _______________________________
21 When will Simon begin writing his essay?
___________________________
First Floor 22 According to Simon, what kind of problems did Jaguar have in the 1970s and 80s?
(19) _______________________ section
___________________________
23 What is the word limit for the essay?
___________________________
Second Floor
Science Section
24 What is the preferable method for handing in the essay?
___________________________
(20) ___________________ Stack System
Questions 25 - 27
25 Jennifer wants to write about how _______________ are used by supermarkets.
26 Jennifer found some publications in the library _______________ to help her analysis.
27 The tutor warned Jennifer about _______________ in her work.

Complete the tutor’s summary notes on Melanie below.
Questions 31 - 33
Choose the correct letters A - C.
31 The Pacific is more prone to tsunami because...
Notes on Student Essays
A it has many faults.
Student Melanie needs an (28) _______________ as she has been B its faults undergo subduction.
C its tectonic plates are bigger than elswhere.
unwell with the flu. She will get a (29) _______________ from the
32 The biggest tsunami are usually created by...
doctor. She’s going to write about (30) _______________ in the UK
and their effect on housing trends. She should be on track with the A undersea volcanic eruptions.
B undersea earthquakes.
essay by the end of the weekend. C undersea landslides.
33 Tsunami are difficult to detect in deep water because of...
A their wavelength.
B their high speed.
C their wave rate.
Questions 34 and 35
List the two ways which the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has set up to detect
tsunami.
34 _____________________________________________________
35 _____________________________________________________

TSUNAMI EXAMPLES
Questions 1 - 6
When Happened Cause Deaths Caused Wave Height
Reading Passage 1 has 7 paragraphs (A – G).
1992 (36) _____________ none 3 feet
_________________
1992 Underwater none (37) _____________
earthquake B – G.
1998 (38) _____________ 1200 23 feet
_________________ Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 14 – 19 on your answer sheet.
1998 Underwater 3000 40 feet
volcanic eruption NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
1896 Underwater (39) _____________ 35 feet
earthquake Example Answer
8000 years ago Underwater (40) _____________ 30 feet
landslide Paragraph A iv
i Factory Closures
ii The Human Cost
iii The Tragedy of State Mismanagement
iv A Warning to the World
v European Techniques
vi Destructive Trawling Technology
vii Lessons to be Learned
viii The Demise of the Northern Cod
ix Canadian Fishing Limits
x The Breaking of Agreements
xi Foreign Over-fishing

ecosystem. The draggers targeted huge aggregations of cod while they were spawning, a time
1 Paragraph B when the fish population is highly vulnerable to capture. Excessive trawling on spawning stocks
became highly disruptive to the spawning process and ecosystem. In addition, the trawling activity
2 Paragraph C resulted in a physical dispersion of eggs leading to a higher fertilization failure. Physical and
chemical damage to larvae caused by the trawling action also reduced their chances of survival.
3 Paragraph D These draggers are now banned forever from Canadian waters.
4 Paragraph E D
5 Paragraph F Canadian media often cite excessive fishing by overseas fleets, primarily driven by the capitalist
ethic, as the primary cause of the fishing out of the north Atlantic cod stocks. Many nations took
6 Paragraph G fish off the coast of Newfoundland and all used deep-sea trawlers, and many often blatantly
exceeded established catch quotas and treaty agreements. There can be little doubt that non
North American fishing was a contributing factor in the cod stock collapse, and that the capitalist
dynamics that were at work in Canada were all too similar for the foreign vessels and companies.
COD IN TROUBLE But all of the blame cannot be put there, no matter how easy it is to do, as it does not account for
the management of the resources.
A
E
In 1992, the devastating collapse of the cod stocks off the East coast of Newfoundland forced the
Canadian government to take drastic measures and close the fishery. Over 40,000 people lost Who was to blame? As the exploitation of the Newfoundland fishery was so predominantly
their jobs, communities are still struggling to recover and the marine ecosystem is still in a state of guided by the government, we can argue that a fishery is not a private area, as the fisher lacks
collapse. The disintegration of this vital fishery sounded a warning bell to governments around the management rights normally associated with property and common property. The state had
world who were shocked that a relatively sophisticated, scientifically based fisheries management appropriated the property, and made all of the management decisions. Fishermen get told who
program, not unlike their own, could have gone so wrong. The Canadian government ignored can fish, what they can fish, and essentially, what to do with the fish once it is caught. In this
warnings that their fleets were employing destructive fishing practices and refused to significantly regard then, when a resource such as the Newfoundland fishery collapses, it is more a tragedy of
reduce quotas citing the loss of jobs as too great a concern. government negligence than a tragedy of the general public.
B F
In the 1950s Canadian and US east coast waters provided an annual 100,000 tons in cod Following the ‘92 ban on northern cod fishing and most other species, an estimated 30 thousand
catches rising to 800,000 by 1970. This over fishing led to a catch of only 300,000 tons by 1975. people that had already lost their jobs after the 1992 Northern Cod moratorium took effect, were
Canada and the US reacted by passing legislation to extend their national jurisdictions over joined by an additional 12,000 fishermen and plant workers. With more than forty thousand people
marine living resources out to 200 nautical miles and catches naturally declined to 139,000 tons in out of jobs, Newfoundland became an economic disaster area, as processing plants shut down,
1980. However the Canadian fishing industry took over and restarted the over fishing and catches and vessels from the smallest dory to the monster draggers were made idle or sold overseas at
rose again until, from 1985, it was the Canadians who were landing more than 250,000 tons of bargain prices. Several hundred Newfoundland communities were devastated.
northern cod annually. This exploitation ravaged the stocks and by 1990 the catch was so low
(29,000 tons) that in 1992 (121⁄2000 tons) Canada had to ban all fishing in east coast waters. In a G
fishery that had for over a century yielded a quarter-million ton catches, there remained a biomass
of less than 1700 tons and the fisheries department also predicted that, even with an immediate Europeans need only look across the North Atlantic to see what could be in store for their cod
recovery, stocks need at least 15 years before they would be healthy enough to withstand fishery. In Canada they were too busy with making plans, setting expansive goals, and then
previous levels of fishing. allocating fish, and lots of it, instead of making sound business plans to match fishing with the
limited availability of the resource. Cod populations in European waters are now so depleted that
C scientists have recently warned that “all fisheries in this area that target cod should be closed.”
The Canadian calamity demonstrates that we now have the technological capability to find
The devastating fishing came from massive investment poured into constructing huge “draggers”. and annihilate every commercial fish stock, in any ocean and do irreparable damage to entire
Draggers haul enormous nets held open by a combination of huge steel plates and heavy chains ecosystems in the process. In Canada’s case, a two billion dollar recovery bill may only be a part
and rollers that plough the ocean bottom. They drag up anything in the way, inflicting immense of the total long-term costs. The costs to individuals and desperate communities now deprived of
damage, destroying critical habitat and contributing to the destabilization of the northern cod meaningful and sustainable employment is staggering.
Questions 7 - 10
C
Choose the appropriate letters A – D and write them in boxes 7 – 10 on your answer
sheet.
7 The Canadian government didn’t want to reduce cod catches pre 1992 because they were
worried about…
A possible rising unemployment

B the ecological effects
C the marine ecosystem
D drastic measures
8 Which graph most accurately describes Canadian cod catches from 1950 to 1992?
A
D
B 9 According to Reading Passage 1, which of the following is now true about the
Newfoundland fisheries?
A Catches of 1700 tons a year only are permitted.

B Normal fishing could start again in 2007.
C No cod fishing is allowed but some other species can be caught.
D Fishing with draggers will be allowed again in 2007.
10 Who does the writer blame for the collapse of the Newfoundland cod fishery?
A The Canadian fishing industry.

B The foreign fishing industry.
C The Canadian government.
D The US fishing industry.
Questions 11 - 14 READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 15 - 27
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on
passage on Cod in Trouble? Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
In Boxes 11 - 14 write: The Rise of Antibiotic-Resistant Infections

A
When penicillin became widely available during the Second World War, it was a medical
NO if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer miracle, rapidly vanquishing the biggest wartime killer - infected wounds. Discovered initially by a
French medical student, Ernest Duchesne, in 1896, and then rediscovered by Scottish physician
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this Alexander Fleming in 1928, Penicillium crippled many types of disease-causing bacteria. But
just four years after drug companies began mass-producing penicillin in 1943, microbes began
appearing that could resist it.
11 Disruption of cod breeding was a major factor in the Newfoundland cod disaster. B
12 Foreign trawlers frequently broke the catch allowances. “There was complacency in the 1980s. The perception was that we had licked the bacterial
infection problem. Drug companies weren’t working on new agents. They were concentrating
13 There was often conflict between the foreign fishermen and the Canadian authorities. on other areas, such as viral infections,” says Michael Blum, M.D., medical officer in the Food
and Drug Administration’s division of anti-infective drug products. “In the meantime, resistance
14 Europe does not face the seriousness of the Canadian disaster. increased to a number of commonly used antibiotics, possibly related to overuse. In the 1990s,
we’ve come to a point for certain infections that we don’t have agents available.”
The increased prevalence of antibiotic resistance is an outcome of evolution. Any population

of organisms, bacteria included, naturally includes variants with unusual traits - in this case, the
ability to withstand an antibiotic’s attack on a microbe. When a person takes an antibiotic, the
drug kills the defenceless bacteria, leaving behind - or “selecting,” in biological terms - those that
can resist it. These renegade bacteria then multiply, increasing their numbers a million fold in a
day, becoming the predominant microorganism. “Whenever antibiotics are used, there is selective
pressure for resistance to occur. More and more organisms develop resistance to more and more
drugs,” says Joe Cranston, Ph.D., director of the department of drug policy and standards at the
American Medical Association in Chicago.
Disease-causing microbes thwart antibiotics by interfering with their mechanism of action.

For example, penicillin kills bacteria by attaching to their cell walls, then destroying a key part of
the wall. The wall falls apart, and the bacterium dies. Resistant microbes, however, either alter
their cell walls so penicillin can’t bind or produce enzymes that dismantle the antibiotic.
Antibiotic resistance results from gene action. Bacteria acquire genes conferring resistance
in different ways. Bacterial DNA may mutate spontaneously. Drug-resistant tuberculosis arises this
way. Another way is called transformation where one bacterium may take up DNA from another
bacterium. Most frightening, however, is resistance acquired from a small circle of DNA called a
plasmid, which can flit from one type of bacterium to another. A single plasmid can provide a slew Questions 15 - 21
of different resistances.
Match the views (15 – 21) with the people listed below.
E
Many of us have come to take antibiotics for granted. A child develops a sore throat or Write the appropriate letters in boxes 15 - 21 on your answer sheet.
an ear infection, and soon a bottle of pink medicine makes everything better. Linda McCaig, a
scientist at the CDC, comments that “many consumers have an expectation that when they’re ill, 15 Antibiotics are sometimes used to only prevent infections.
antibiotics are the answer. Most of the time the illness is viral, and antibiotics are not the answer.
This large burden of antibiotics is certainly selecting resistant bacteria.” McCaig and Peter Killeen, 16 Choosing the correct antibiotic for particular infections is important.
a fellow scientist at the CDC, tracked antibiotic use in treating common illnesses. The report cites
nearly 6 million antibiotic prescriptions for sinusitis alone in 1985, and nearly 13 million in 1992. 17 Today there are some bacterial infections for which we have no effective antibiotic.
Ironically, advances in modern medicine have made more people predisposed to infection. McCaig
notes that “there are a number of immunocompromised patients who wouldn’t have survived in 18 Untested drugs can be used on terminal patients as a last resort.
earlier times. Radical procedures produce patients who are in difficult shape in the hospital, and
there is routine use of antibiotics to prevent infection in these patients.” 19 Resistance develops every time an antibiotic is used.
F 20 Merely washing hands can have a positive effect.
There are measures we can take to slow the inevitable resistance. Barbara Murray, M.D., 21 Antibiotics are often impotently used against viruses.
of the University of Texas Medical School at Houston writes that “simple improvements in public
health measures can go a long way towards preventing infection”. Such approaches include more PK Peter Killeen
frequent hand washing by health-care workers, quick identification and isolation of patients with
drug-resistant infections, and improving sewage systems and water purity. JC Joe Cranston
Drug manufacturers are also once again becoming interested in developing new antibiotics.
The FDA is doing all it can to speed development and availability of new antibiotic drugs. “We can’t LM Linda McCaig
identify new agents - that’s the job of the pharmaceutical industry. But once they have identified a
promising new drug, what we can do is to meet with the company very early and help design the MB Michael Blum
development plan and clinical trials,” says Blum. In addition, drugs in development can be used for
patients with multi-drug-resistant infections on an emergency compassionate use basis for people BM Barbara Murray
with AIDS or cancer, for example.” Blum adds.
Appropriate prescribing is important. This means that physicians use a narrow spectrum Questions 22 - 27
antibiotics - those that target only a few bacterial types - whenever possible, so that resistances
can be restricted. “There has been a shift to using costlier, broader spectrum agents. This Reading Passage 2 has 6 paragraphs (A - F). Which paragraphs concentrate on the
prescribing trend heightens the resistance problem because more diverse bacteria are being following information? Write the appropriate letters (A - F) in boxes 22 - 27 on your
exposed to antibiotics,” writes Killeen. So, while awaiting the next wonder drug, we must answer sheet.
appreciate, and use correctly, the ones that we already have.
Another problem with antibiotic use is that patients often stop taking the drug too soon, 22 How antibiotic resistance happens.
because symptoms improve. However, this merely encourages resistant microbes to proliferate.
The infection returns a few weeks later, and this time a different drug must be used to treat it. The 23 The survival of the fittest bacteria.
conclusion: resistance can be slowed if patients take medications correctly.
Source: US Food and Drug Administration
24 Factors to consider in solving the antibiotic-resistant bacteria problem.
25 The impact of the discovery of the first antibiotic.
26 The misuse and overuse of antibiotics.
27 The cessation of research into combating bacterial infections.

READING PASSAGE 3 Questions 28 - 40 peak electrical demand, the higher reservoir releases water through the turbines to the lower
reservoir.
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on “Low head” hydroelectric plants usually exploit heads of just a few meters or less. These
Reading Passage 3 on the following pages. types of power station use a weir or low dam to channel water, or no dam at all and merely use
the river flow. Unfortunately their electricity production capacity fluctuates with seasonal water
flow in a river.
Hydroelectric Power Until only recently people believed almost universally that hydroelectric power was an
environmentally safe and clean means of generating electricity. Hydroelectric stations do not
Hydroelectric power is America’s leading renewable energy resource. Of all the release any of the usual atmospheric pollutants emitted by power plants fuelled by fossil fuels
renewable power sources, it’s the most reliable, efficient, and economical. Water is needed to so they do not add to global warming or acid rain. Nevertheless, recent studies of the larger
run a hydroelectric generating unit. It’s held in a reservoir or lake behind a dam, and the force of reservoirs formed behind dams have implied that decomposing, flooded vegetation could give
the water being released from the reservoir through the dam spins the blades of a turbine. The off greenhouse gases equal to those from other electricity sources.
turbine is connected to the generator that produces electricity. After passing through the turbine, The clearest result of hydroelectric dams is the flooding of huge areas of land. The
the water re-enters the river on the downstream side of the dam. reservoirs built can be exceptionally big and they have often flooded the lands of indigenous
Hydroelectric plants convert the kinetic energy within falling water into electricity. The peoples and destroyed their way of life. Numerous rare ecosystems are also endangered by
energy in moving water is produced in the sun, and consequently is continually being renewed. hydroelectric power plant development.
The energy in sunlight evaporates water from the seas and deposits it on land as rain. Land Damming rivers may also change the quantity and quality of water in the rivers below
elevation differences result in rainfall runoff, and permit some of the original solar energy to be the dams, as well as stopping fish migrating upstream to spawn. In addition, silt, usually taken
harnessed as hydroelectric power. Hydroelectric power is at present the earth’s chief renewable downstream to the lower parts of a river, is caught by a dam and so the river downstream loses
electricity source, generating 6% of global energy and about 15% of worldwide electricity. the silt that should fertilize the river’s flood plains during high water periods.
Hydroelectric power in Canada is plentiful and provides 60% of their electrical requirements. Theoretical global hydroelectric power is approximately four times larger than the
Usually regarded as an inexpensive and clean source of electricity, most big hydroelectric amount that has been taken advantage of today. Most of the residual hydro potential left in the
projects being planned today are facing a great deal of hostility from environmental groups and world can be found in African and Asian developing countries. Exploiting this resource would
local people. involve an investment of billions of dollars, since hydroelectric plants normally have very high
The earliest recorded use of water power was a clock, constructed around 250 BC. Since building costs. Low head hydro capacity facilities on small scales will probably increase in the
then, people have used falling water to supply power for grain and saw mills, as well as a host future as low head turbine research, and the standardization of turbine production, reduce the
of other uses. The earliest use of flowing water to generate electricity was a waterwheel on the costs of low head hydro-electric power production. New systems of control and improvements
Fox River in Wisconsin in 1882. in turbines could lead in the future to more electricity created from present facilities. In addition,
The first hydroelectric power plants were much more dependable and efficient than the in the 1950’s and 60’s when oil and coal prices were very low, lots of smaller hydroelectric
plants of the day that were fired by fossil fuels. This led to a rise in number of small to medium plants were closed down. Future increases in the prices of fuel could lead to these places being
sized hydroelectric generating plants located wherever there was an adequate supply of falling renovated.
water and a need for electricity. As demand for electricity soared in the middle years of the 20th
century, and the effectiveness of coal and oil power plants improved, small hydro plants became
less popular. The majority of new hydroelectric developments were focused on giant mega-
projects.
Hydroelectric plants harness energy by passing flowing water through a turbine. The
water turbine rotation is delivered to a generator, which generates electricity. The quantity
of electricity that can be produced at a hydroelectric plant relies upon two variables. These
variables are (1) the vertical distance that the water falls, called the “head”, and (2) the flow rate,
calculated as volume over time. The amount of electricity that is produced is thus proportional to
the head product and the flow rate.
So, hydroelectric power stations can normally be separated into two kinds. The most
widespread are “high head” plants and usually employ a dam to stock up water at an increased
height. They also store water at times of rain and discharge it during dry times. This results in
reliable and consistent electricity generation, capable of meeting demand since flow can be
rapidly altered. At times of excess electrical system capacity, usually available at night, these
plants can also pump water from one reservoir to another at a greater height. When there is

Questions 28 - 32 Questions 33 - 36
Read the passage about Hydroelectric Power again and look at the statements Complete each of the following statements (Questions 33 - 36) with words taken from
below. Reading Passage 3.
In boxes 28 - 32 on your answer sheet write: Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
TRUE if the statement is true Write your answers in boxes 33 - 36 on your answer sheet.

33 The origin of hydroelectric power is the __________ produced when water obeys the laws
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the of gravity.
passage
34 How far water drops to the turbines in a power station is known as __________.
35 A drawback to low head hydroelectric power stations is that they depend on __________.
28 Canada uses the most hydroelectric power in the world today.
36 Derelict hydroelectric power stations could be __________ in the future.
29 An early use of hydroelectric power was in the timber industry.
30 The first hydroelectric power stations were more effective than those using competing
energy sources.
Questions 37 - 40
31 People have been drowned by the flooding of their traditional territory when reservoirs Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage 3, answer the
are created. following questions.
32 Nowadays, agriculture below hydroelectric dams is not affected by the change in water Write your answers in boxes 37 - 40 on your answer sheet.
flow.
37 What proportion of the world’s electricity supply is provided by hydroelectric power?
38 How is the flow rate of a hydroelectic power station quantified?
39 When do high head power plants use surplus electricity to transfer water to a second
reservoir?
40 What underwater action can lead to the production of pollution similar to that produced by
fossil fuel power stations?

WRITING TASK 1 Many people in the undeveloped world die from diseases that are curable because
they can’t afford the medication to treat themselves. Do you believe that drug
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. companies in the developed world should be obliged to make their products available
at reduced prices in these undeveloped countries so that people do not die
The charts below give information on UK spending habits for books bought unecessarily.
over the internet.
Academic
Academic Test
Test 4;
4; Page
Page 21
22 Academic Test 4; Page 23
Section 1
PRACTICE TEST 5
* Describe the house or flat/apartment in which you live at the moment.
* Do you think it is better to live in a house or a flat/apartment?
* What are the advantages and disadvantages of having a garden?
Topic 1 Parks
* Do you visit parks? (Why/Why not?)

Questions 1 - 5
* Do you think parks are important for towns and cities? (Why/Why not?)
* Do you think that parks should be free or that people should pay to use them? Complete the form below.
* What are some of the disadvantages of parks in a town or city?
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer.
Topic 2 Free Time
* Do you have much free time in your life? (Why/Why not?)

* What do you like doing in your free time?
* What free time activities do you particularly dislike? BUS PASS APPLICATION FORM
* How much free time do you think a person should have every day?
Example Answer
Section 2
PASS APPLIED FOR 1 month
Describe one of your good friends
You should say
where you met NAME Nathalie (1) ______________________________
what this person does
what things you do together ADDRESS 45 (2) ___________________________________
and why you particularly like this person Newlands
Section 3 Adelaide
Topic 1 Family and Friends POSTCODE (3) _____________________________________
* Do you prefer spending time with your family or with your friends? (Why?) DATE OF BIRTH (4) 13th May 1982
* Can you compare the activities that you do with your friends and your family?
* Do you think it is important for your family and friends to like each other? TEL NUMBER (4) _____________________________
* Can you compare the relationships that you have with friends and the ones you have
with family? UNIVERSITY CARD SHOWN Yes
Topic 2 Living with Friends ZONES REQUIRED (5) _____________________________________
* Do you live alone, with friends or with family? (Why?)

* What are some of the advantages of living with friends?
* What are some of the disadvantages of living with friends?
* What are some of things that can break a friendship?

Questions 11 - 16
Adelaide Day Trips on the Bus
Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
1 The MacDonald Nature Park
Outward Journey Leaves 8.00am

Length of Journey 2 hours
Return Journey Leaves (6) ______________________________________ 11 The highest point of the bridge is 134m above __________________________________.
Things to do/see Walk nature trails + MacDonald River
Bring A camera
12 The two pairs of pylons are made of __________________________________.
2 Pearl Bay
13 _______________________________% of the steel for making the bridge came from
Outward Journey Leaves 9.00am the UK.
Length of Journey (7) ______________________________________
Return Journey Leaves 4.00pm
Things to do/see Walk along (8) _____________________ + see view 14 800 families from __________________________________ homes were moved without
Lie on the beach + swim compensation to accomodate the construction of the approaches to the bridge.
Bring Swimming gear + a towel
15 People _________________________________ was the main cause of death of workers

3 The Huron Gold Mine while constructing the bridge.
Outward Journey Leaves 9.30am

Length of Journey Half an hour 16 Three __________________________________ were made to mark the opening of the
Return Journey Leaves (9) ______________________________________ bridge. One is worth several hundred dollars today.
Things to do/see Go round the museum and tunnels
Find some gold!!
Bring (10) ______________________________________

Which FOUR of the following facts are NOT true about the Sydney Harbour Bridge
today? Questions 21 - 27
Choose FOUR letters (A - J) and write them in boxes 17 - 20 on your answer sheet.
21 While waiting for Phil, Mel and Laura were _______________________________________.
A There are no more trams crossing the bridge.
22 A telephone survey was rejected because it would be ______________________________.
B There are eight traffic lanes on the bridge.
23 A mail survey was rejected because it would _____________________________________.
C Trains still cross the bridge.
24 The best number of people to survey would be ___________________________________.
D People are allowed to walk across the bridge.
25 If their survey only included 100 people, it would not be ____________________________.
E Buses are allowed to cross the bridge.
26 The number of people that Laura, Phil and Mel agree to survey was __________________.
F The Harbour Tunnel has not helped traffic congestion on the bridge.
27 The number of questions in the survey was agreed to be ___________________________..
G More than 182 000 vehicles cross the bridge daily.
H Horses can no longer cross the bridge.

Questions 28 - 30
I Bicycles are not allowed to cross the bridge.
Circle THREE letters A - G.
J To go back and forward across the bridge costs $6.
What are the three locations that Laura, Phil and Mel chose for their survey?
A The town square
B The train station
C The university cafeteria
D Dobbins department store
E The corner of the High Street and College Road
F The bus station
G The corner of the High Street and Wilkins Road

Questions 31 - 34 Choose the correct letters A - C.
35 The coelacanth was...

Complete the table below by matching the individual with their role (Questions 31 -
34) in the lecture on the coelacanth. A well known to Indonesian fishermen.
B unknown to Indonesian fishermen.
Write the approprate letters (A - F) on your answer sheet. C a first in the market.
36 The only difference between the Comoros coelacanth and the Sulawesi coelacanth is...
NB There are more roles than individuals so you will not need to use them all.
A their intercranial joint.
B their paired fins.
C their colour.
INDIVIDUAL ROLE
Dr. J.L.B. Smith (31) _____________________ 37 Coelacanths seemed to have their greatest population...
Marjorie Courtney-Latimer (32) _____________________
Dr. Mark Erdmann (33) _____________________ A 360 million years ago.
Captain Goosen (34) _____________________ B 240 million years ago.
C 80 million years ago.
38 Modern coelacanths probably left no fossilised remains over the past 80 million years
because...
ROLES A of too much clay sediment.

B conditions where they lived were not favourable for fossilisation.
A Paid fishermen for unidentified finds. C volcanoes are needed for fossilisation.
B Caught a strange looking fish. 39 Scientists had a better understanding of the coelacanth after 1991 because...
C Contacted scientists in Indonesia. A the French government had previously limited study on the Comoros coelacanth.
B the Comoros were far away and difficult to reach.
D Photographed a coelacanth seen by accident. C the Comoros opened an airport.
E First recognised the coelacanth for what it was. 40 On the 1991 expedition, scientist studied the coelacanth...
F Bought a specimen of a coelacanth in a market. A only from fishermen’s specimens.

B through the windows of their submarine.
C from diving down.

ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 5 Wildfires
A
READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 - 13 Wildfires are usually the product of human negligence. Humans start about 90% of wild fires
and lightning causes the other 10%. Regular causes for wildfires include arson, camping fires,
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on throwing away cigarettes, burning rubbish, and playing with fireworks or matches. Once begun,
Reading Passage 1 below. wildfires can spread at a rate of up to 23 kph and, as a fire spreads over a landscape, it could
undertake a life of its own – doing different things to keep itself going, even creating other blazes
Questions 1 - 4 by throwing cinders miles away.
Three components are necessary to start a fire: oxygen, fuel and heat. These three make
Reading Passage 1 has 5 paragraphs (A – E). up “the fire triangle” and fire fighters frequently talk about this when they are attempting to put out
blazes. The theory is that if the fire fighters can remove one of the triangle pillars, they can take
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs control of and eventually put out the fire.
B – E.
B
Write the appropriate number (i – viii) in boxes 1 – 4 on your answer sheet. The speed at which wildfires spread depends on the fuel around them. Fuel is any living or
dead material that will burn. Types of fuel include anything from trees, underbrush and grassland
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. to houses. The quantity of inflammable material around a fire is known as “the fuel load” and is
determined by the amount of available fuel per unit area, usually tons per acre. How dry the fuel
is can also influence how fires behave. When the fuel is very dry, it burns much more quickly and
forms fires that are much harder to control.
Example Answer Basic fuel characteristics affecting a fire are size and shape, arrangement and moisture, but
with wildfires, where fuel usually consists of the same type of material, the main factor influencing
Paragraph A iii ignition time is the ratio of the fuel’s total surface area to its volume. Because the surface area of
a twig is not much bigger than its volume, it ignites rapidly. However, a tree’s surface area is much
smaller than its volume, so it requires more time to heat up before ignition.
C
i Climate Conditions
Three weather variables that affect wildfires are temperature, wind and moisture.
ii Solutions from the Air Temperature directly influences the sparking of wildfires, as heat is one of the three pillars of the
fire triangle. Sticks, trees and underbrush on the ground receive heat from the sun, which heats
iii Fire Starters and dries these potential fuels. Higher temperatures allow fuels to ignite and burn more quickly
and add to the speed of a wildfire’s spread. Consequently, wildfires tend to rage in the afternoon,
iv Battling the Blaze during the hottest temperatures.
The biggest influence on a wildfire is probably wind and this is also the most unpredictable
v The Lie of the Land variable. Winds provide fires with extra oxygen, more dry fuel, and wind also makes wildfires
spread more quickly. Fires also create winds of their own that can be up to ten times faster than
vi Rain – The Natural Saviour the ambient wind. Winds can even spread embers that can generate additional fires, an event
known as spotting. Winds also change the course of fires, and gusts can take flames into trees,
vii Fuelling the Flames starting a “crown fire”.
Humidity and precipitation provide moisture that can slow fires down and reduce their
viii Fires and Trees intensity, as it is hard for fuel to ignite if it has high moisture levels. Higher levels of humidity mean
fewer wildfires.

6 What is measured in tons per acre?
D
7 When do wildfires burn at their fiercest?
Topography can also hugely influence wildfire behaviour. In contrast to fuel and weather,
topography hardly changes over time and can help or hamper the spread of a wildfire. The 8 What can travel in the wind to create fires at some distance from the initial fire?
principal topographical factor relating to wildfires is slope. As a rule, fires move uphill much faster
than downhill and the steeper the slope, the quicker fires move. This is because fires move in the 9 Name a method using an additional fire that fire fighters use to control wild fires.
same direction of the ambient wind, which generally blows uphill. Moreover, the fire can preheat
fuel further uphill as smoke and heat rise in that direction. On the other hand, when the fire
reaches the top of a hill, it has to struggle to come back down.
E Questions 10 - 13
Each year thousands of fire fighters risk their lives in their jobs. Elite fire fighters come in Complete each of the following statements (Questions 10 - 13) with words taken from
two categories: Hotshots and Smokejumpers. Operating in 20 man units, the key task of hotshots Reading Passage 1.
is to construct firebreaks around fires. A firebreak is a strip of land with all potential fuel removed.
As their name suggests, smokejumpers jump out of aircraft to reach smaller fires situated in
inaccessible regions. They attempt to contain these smaller fires before they turn into bigger ones. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
As well as constructing firebreaks and putting water and fire retardant on fires, fire
fighters also use “backfires”. Backfires are created by fire fighters and burn towards the main fire Write your answers in boxes 10 - 13 on your answer sheet.
incinerating any potential fuel in its path.
Fire fighters on the ground also receive extensive support from the air with tankers dropping
thousands of gallons of water and retardant. Dropped from planes and helicopters, retardant is a
10 The most important factor in how quickly a wildfire catches fire is the surface
red chemical containing phosphate fertilizer, which slows and cools fires.
to volume _____________________.
Source: National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
11 The most significant weather factor to affect wildfires’ actions is _____________________.

Questions 5 - 9
12 Fires on the tops of trees are known as _____________________.
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage 2, answer the
following questions. 13 Wildfires usually travel much faster _____________________ because of the typical
direction of prevailing winds.
5 Complete the last pillar of the fire triangle.
(5) _______________
Δ
heat
source
fuel

READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 14 - 27 Justice in southern Africa. Those who have their water supply cut off also automatically forfeit
their right to 6000 free litres of water for a family a month under South Africa’s “water for all”
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 27 which are based on policy. In the face of continued increases in unemployment, payment for water and other
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. utilities has the potential to fast undo government’s high profile feats in delivery since 1994.
It is also the way of ensuring sufficient water supply and its management that will
PROBLEMS WITH WATER increasingly become a political battleground in South Africa. Water Affairs director-general
Mike Muller says South Africa is near the end of its dam-building programme. However,
Nearly half the world’s population will experience critical water shortages by 2025, there are big projects proposed elsewhere in southern Africa that could possibly be halted
according to the United Nations (UN). Wars over access to water are a rising possibility in by activists who could bring pressure on funding agencies such as the World Bank.
this century and the main conflicts in Africa during the next 25 years could be over this most Greef says her group will campaign during the summit against the proposed Skuifraam
precious of commodities, as countries fight for access to scarce resources. “Potential water Dam, which would be built near Franschhoek to supply additional water to Cape Town.
wars are likely in areas where rivers and lakes are shared by more than one country,” says Rather than rely on new dam construction, the city should ensure that
Mark Evans a UN worker. Evans predicts that “population growth and economic development water is used wisely at all times rather than only in dry spells, Greef says. Another
will lead to nearly one in two people in Africa living in countries facing water scarcity or what battleground for her group is over the privatisation of water supply, she says. Water
is known as ‘water stress’ within 25 years.” Water scarcity is defined as less than 1,000 cubic supply, she insists, is best handled in the public interest by accountable government.
metres of water available per person per year, while water stress means less than 1,500 There is increasing hope from advances in technology to deal with water shortages. It
cubic metres of water is available per person per year. The report says that by 2025, 12 more is agricultural production which takes up about 90% of water consumed for human purposes,
African countries will join the 13 that already suffer from water stress or water scarcity. What says the UN. To lower agricultural demand for water the Sri Lanka-based International Water
makes the water issue even more urgent is that demand for water will grow increasingly fast Management Institute is researching ways of obtaining “more crop per drop” through the
as larger areas are placed under crops and economic development. Evans adds that “the development of drought resistant crops, as well as through better water management techniques.
strong possibility that the world is experiencing climate change also adds to this urgency.” One of the institute’s research sites is the Limpopo River basin. According to the institute’s
How to deal with water shortages is in the forefront of the battle between environmental director-general, Frank Rijsbereman, rice growers in China use a quarter of the water a ton of
activists on the one hand and governments and construction firms on the other. At the recent World produce to those in South Africa. The institute hopes the “green revolution” in crop productivity
Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg activists continued their campaign to halt dam will soon be matched by the “blue revolution” in improving water utilisation in agriculture.
construction, while many governments were outraged about a vocal minority thwarting their plans.
One of the UN’s eight millennium development goals is to halve the proportion of people
without “sustainable” access to safe drinking water by 2015. How to ensure this happens was Questions 14 – 21
one of the big issues of the summit. Much of the text on this was already agreed, but one of the
unresolved issues in the implementation plan was whether the goal on water would be extended
to cover sanitation. The risks posed by water-borne diseases in the absence of sanitation facilities
Match the views (25 – 32) with the people listed below.
means the two goals are closely related. Only US negotiators have been resisting the extension
of goals to include sanitation due to the financial commitment this would entail. However, Evans
14 Water needs to be utilised more prudently by some people.
says the US is about to agree to this extension. This agreement could give the UN a chance
to show that in one key area the world development agenda was advanced in Johannesburg.
15 South Africa has almost completed its plans for building dams.
But the UN has said Johannesburg was not about words alone, but implementation. A
number of projects and funding initiatives were unveiled at the summit. But implementation is always
16 Local government has excluded some South African households from getting free water
harder, as South Africa has experienced in its water programme. Graham Bennetts, a water official
for not meeting their bills.
in the South African government explains: “Since the 1994 elections government has provided
easy access to water to 7 million people, but extending this to a further 7 million and ensuring this
17 The World Summit in Johannesburg will soon have its aims on hygiene agreed among all
progress is sustainable is one of South Africa’s foremost implementation challenges.” In South
participants.
Africa, access to water is defined as 25 litres a person daily, within a distance of 200m from where
they live. “Although South Africa’s feat far exceeds the UN millennium goal on water supply, severe
18 Faster development of water supply in South Africa is limited by the facilities of community
constraints on local government capacity make a more rapid expansion difficult,” says Bennetts.
administrations.
For some of those who have only recently been given ready access to water, their
gains are under threat as the number of cut-offs by municipalities for non-payment rise, says
19 Water use is more efficient than in South Africa in some foreign food production.
Liane Greef of the Environmental Monitoring Group. Greef is programme manager for Water

20 Government should be answerable for water delivery and not private companies.
21 The water question’s importance has been increased due to the risk of global weather Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
temperature rises.
The History of Papermaking in the United Kingdom

MM Mike Muller
The first reference to a paper mill in the United Kingdom was in a book printed
FR Frank Rijsbereman by Wynken de Worde in about 1495. This mill belonged to a certain John Tate and was
near Hertford. Other early mills included one at Dartford, owned by Sir John Speilman,
ME Mark Evans who was granted special privileges for the collection of rags by Queen Elizabeth and one
built in Buckinghamshire before the end of the sixteenth century. During the first half of
LG Liane Greef the seventeenth century, mills were established near Edinburgh, at Cannock Chase in
Staffordshire, and several in Buckinghamshire, Oxfordshire and Surrey. The Bank of England
GB Graham Bennetts has been issuing bank notes since 1694, with simple watermarks in them since at least
1697. Henri de Portal was awarded the contract in December 1724 for producing the Bank of
England watermarked bank-note paper at Bere Mill in Hampshire. Portals have retained this
Questions 22 - 27 contract ever since but production is no longer at Bere Mill.
There were two major developments at about the middle of the eighteenth century in
the paper industry in the UK. The first was the introduction of the rag engine or hollander,
Read the passage about problems with water again and look at the statements invented in Holland sometime before 1670, which replaced the stamping mills, which had
below. previously been used, for the disintegration of the rags and beating of the pulp. The second
was in the design and construction of the mould used for forming the sheet. Early moulds had
In boxes 22 - 27 on your answer sheet write: straight wires sewn down on to the wooden foundation, this produced an irregular surface
showing the characteristic “laid” marks, and, when printed on, the ink did not give clear, sharp
lines. Baskerville, a Birmingham printer, wanted a smoother paper. James Whatman the Elder
developed a woven wire fabric, thus leading to his production of the first woven paper in 1757.
Increasing demands for more paper during the late eighteenth and early nineteenth
FALSE if the statement is false centuries led to shortages of the rags needed to produce the paper. Part of the problem
was that no satisfactory method of bleaching pulp had yet been devised, and so only white
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the rags could be used to produce white paper. Chlorine bleaching was being used by the end
passage of the eighteenth century, but excessive use produced papers that were of poor quality and
deteriorated quickly. By 1800 up to 24 million pounds of rags were being used annually, to
produce 10,000 tons of paper in England and Wales, and 1000 tons in Scotland, the home
22 Some African countries are currently at war over water resources.
market being supplemented by imports, mainly from the continent. Experiments in using other
materials, such as sawdust, rye straw, cabbage stumps and spruce wood had been conducted
23 A recent report says by 2025 that 25 African countries will suffer from water scarcity alone.
in 1765 by Jacob Christian Schäffer. Similarly, Matthias Koops carried out many experiments
on straw and other materials at the Neckinger Mill, Bermondsey around 1800, but it was not
24 Vocal environment activists were arrested at the World Summit.
until the middle of the nineteenth century that pulp produced using straw or wood was utilised
in the production of paper.
25 Questions at the World Summit over including water sanitation have not yet been agreed.
By 1800 there were 430 (564 in 1821) paper mills in England and Wales (mostly
single vat mills), under 50 (74 in 1823) in Scotland and 60 in Ireland, but all the production
26 The World Summit had many good ideas but had little contribution on how to put the ideas
was by hand and the output was low. The first attempt at a paper machine to mechanise the
into practice.
process was patented in 1799 by Frenchman Nicholas Louis Robert, but it was not a success.
However, the drawings were brought to England by John Gamble in 1801 and passed on to
27 Plants are being introduced that can flourish with little water.
the brothers Henry and Sealy Fourdrinier, who financed the engineer Henry Donkin to build
31 Chlorine bleaching proved the answer to the need for more white paper in the 18th and 19th
the machine. The first successful machine was installed at Frogmore, Hertfordshire, in 1803.
centuries.
The paper was pressed onto an endless wire cloth, transferred to a continuous felt blanket
and then pressed again. Finally it was cut off the reel into sheets and loft dried in the same
32 The first mechanised process that had any success still used elements of the hand made
way as hand made paper. In 1809 John Dickinson patented a machine that that used a wire
paper-making process.
cloth covered cylinder revolving in a pulp suspension, the water being removed through the
centre of the cylinder and the layer of pulp removed from the surface by a felt covered roller
33 Modern paper making machines are still based on John Dickinson’s 1809 patent.
(later replaced by a continuous felt passing round a roller). This machine was the forerunner
of the present day cylinder mould or vat machine, used mainly for the production of boards.
34 The development of bigger mills near larger towns was so that mill owners could take
Both these machines produced paper as a wet sheet, which require drying after removal from
advantage of potential larger workforces.
the machine, but in 1821 T B Crompton patented a method of drying the paper continuously,
using a woven fabric to hold the sheet against steam heated drying cylinders. After it had been
pressed, the paper was cut into sheets by a cutter fixed at the end of the last cylinder.
By the middle of the nineteenth century the pattern for the mechanised production
Questions 35 - 40
of paper had been set. Subsequent developments concentrated on increasing the size and
production of the machines. Similarly, developments in alternative pulps to rags, mainly wood
and esparto grass, enabled production increases. Conversely, despite the increase in paper
production, there was a decrease, by 1884, in the number of paper mills in England and Match the events (35 – 40) with the dates (A - G) listed below.
Wales to 250 and in Ireland to 14 (Scotland increased to 60), production being concentrated
into fewer, larger units. Geographical changes also took place as many of the early mills were Write the appropriate letters in boxes 35 - 40 on your answer sheet.
small and had been situated in rural areas. The change was to larger mills in, or near, urban
areas closer to suppliers of the raw materials (esparto mills were generally situated near a port
35 Invention of the rag engine.
as the raw material was brought in by ship) and the paper markets.
Source: Paper Technology March 1999 / British Association of Paper Historians
36 A new method for drying paper patented.
Questions 28 - 34 37 First successful machine for making paper put into production.
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading 38 Manufacture of the first woven paper.
passage on The History of Papermaking in the U.K.?
39 Watermarks first used for paper money.
40 The first machine for making paper patented.
DATES
NO if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer
A 1803
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this B 1757
C 1821
28 The printing of paper money in the UK has always been done by the same company. D 1697
29 Early paper making in Europe was at its peak in Holland in the 18th century. E 1799
30 18th Century developments in moulds led to the improvement of a flatter, more even paper. F 1670
G 1694
With all the troubles in the world today, money spent on space exploration is a
WRITING TASK 1 complete waste. The money could be better spent on other things.
The diagrams below show how humans and plants interact to produce oxygen and To what extent do you agree or disagree?
carbon dioxide.
Plants produce oxygen

through photosynthesis.
Humans and animals produce carbon
dioxide by breathing.
carbon dioxide,
sunlight in
co2, in carbon dioxide,
oxygen, o2, in co2, out
oxygen, o2,
out
water, h2o, in

Section 1 PRACTICE TEST 6
* Tell me a little about your country.
* What are some of the good things and some of the bad things about living in your
country? ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 6
* Where would be your favourite place to live in your country? (Why?)
Topic 1 Libraries SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10

* Do you ever go to libraries? (Why/Why not?) Questions 1 - 3
* Do you think libraries should be free or that people should have to pay to use them?
* How can we get more people to use libraries? Complete the form below.
* Do you think government money for libraries could be spent on better things?
Topic 2 Team Sports Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
* Do you play or watch a team sport? (Why/Why not?)

* Why do you think people like playing or watching team sports?
* What are some of the disadvantages of playing or watching team sports?
DRURY’S ELECTRICAL STORE
WORK FORM
* How can we encourage younger people to play more sport?
Section 2
Example Answer
Describe a place that you like
You should say: Customer’s Name Phillipa Hutton
where this place is
when you first went there Address 13 Glen Avenue
what you do or did there Westley
and explain why this place is so special for you. Postcode (1) ____________________
Section 3
Home Tel. 01748 524965
Topic 1 Places of Interest
Mobile Tel. (2) ____________________
* What kinds of places in your country are threatened by building or other types of
Customer Receipt Yes / No
progress?
* Do you think it is important to preserve historical areas in countries? (Why?)
Date of Repair Enquiry (3) ____________________
* How can governments protect places of interest?
* What sort of places will be of interest to people in the future?
Job Number J25
Topic 2 The Environment
Problem New TV doesn’t work
* What kinds of pollution problems does your country face?
* How can ordinary people help fight pollution?
* Do you think that there should be stricter punishments for people and companies that
pollute the environment?
* What sort of pollution problems do you think the world will face in the future?
Questions 4 and 5 SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20
Circle the correct letter A - D.
Questions 11 - 15
4 Which room did Jane want to use the new television?
A The dining room

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
B The kitchen
11 Who has organised the safety talk?
C The bedroom
12 What crime is most common amongst students?
D The study
13 Where does PC Fair suggest that students can hide their belongings?
5 What will Jane do while the man is looking at her new television?
A She’ll wait in the shop

14 What should you take with you when you visit an insurance broker about your belongings?
B She’ll come back tomorrow
15 What does PC Fair say that you can use to mark your property?
C She’ll go shopping and come back in half an hour
D She’ll go shopping and come back in an hour Questions 16 - 20
Questions 6 - 10 Complete the notes below.

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A
6 What was the problem with the television? UNI. SAFETY TALK
_________________________________________________________________________ At Home
7 What day is Jane’s nephew’s birthday next week? DOORS: Lock front door & ask (16) ____________________ to put lock on bedroom door.
Fit chain and keep it fastened while at home.
_________________________________________________________________________
WINDOWS Lock windows, install extra locks and (17) ____________________ 24 hours.
8 How old will Jane’s nephew be next week?
If frightened, tell someone in hall, (18) ____________________ at the Union or go to the police.
_________________________________________________________________________
Going Home
9 What does Jane think her nephew would like for his birthday?
* Walking home - stay in (19) ____________________ with good light + don’t be alone.
_________________________________________________________________________ * 2 late regular night minibuses - priority for women.
* Taxi better than walking - licensed taxis only and from rank.
10 What time will Jane go back to the shop tomorrow? * Keep mobile with you with trusted taxi number inside.
_________________________________________________________________________ *** Most Important Thing - (20) ____________________.

Academic Test 6; Page 2 © ieltshelpnow.com Academic Test 6; Page 3 © ieltshelpnow.com
Questions 21 - 26 Complete Dr. Jones’ notes below.
Circle the correct letter A - C. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
21 What is Rachel’s extended essay about?
A Hospitals
Books for Rachel’s Presentation on the Reform Act
B Factories
C Towns
Book Author Where to get it
22 What did Rachel mainly use to help her with her essay?
A A book Great 19th Century Reform Mark Needham (27) _________ in library
B The internet
C Magazines
Article in “History Monthly” Jim Wood (28) _________ in library
23 How does Rachel feel about her essay at the moment?
A Happy (29) _________ Rob Jenkins Inter Library Loan

B Quite happy
C Not happy
Reform and the Nineteenth Century (30) _________ From me
24 Which part of Rachel’s extended essay did Dr. Jones like best?
A The introduction
B The middle
C The conclusion
25 Which part of Rachel’s essay does Dr. Jones most want Rachel to change?
A The statistics tables

B The statistics analysis
C The bibliography
26 By when does Rachel’s essay have to be finally given in?
A 21th April
B 24th April
C 28th April

Questions 31 - 36 Complete the summary below of the second half of the food science lecture on
garlic.
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
each answer.
31 Where did garlic originally come from?

Today investigations into garlic have shown that it can help cure and prevent many
____________________________________________________________________________
diseases as it boosts the (37) _______________. During World War 2 it was even used
as (38) _______________ when other drugs were not available.
32 What time of year does garlic begin its growth cycle?
____________________________________________________________________________
Although expert opinion differs on many aspects of garlic use, it is agreed that using (39)
_______________ is the best form. This contains the most “allicin”, a compound that
33 What, along with its small leaves, is the key to garlic’s survival in harsh climates?
is efficient at killing many types of bacteria and, when heated, has beneficial effects in
____________________________________________________________________________
the blood. Indian doctors have recently shown its help in preventing such ailments as
arteriosclerosis, thrombosis and (40) _______________.

34 According to an ancient Egyptian record, how many sicknesses can garlic be used to treat?
____________________________________________________________________________
35 In ancient Egypt, how much garlic could buy you a good slave?
____________________________________________________________________________
36 What did Europeans in the Middle Ages believe garlic could help stop?
____________________________________________________________________________

ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 6 flora and fauna, which are found within it. The most frequent inclusions to be found in
amber, particularly Baltic, are examples of the order Diptera or true flies. These tiny flies would
have lived on the fungus growing on the rotting vegetation of the amber forest of which no doubt
READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 - 14 there was enough to support an enormous population. Occasionally a small lizard will be found
trapped and encased in amber, particularly from the Dominican Republic deposits. The American
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 14 which are based on Natural History Museum has a famous example of a 25,000,000 year old gecko. Another
unusual find is the remains of a frog discovered in a piece mined in the Dominican Republic.
At first it was thought to be just one animal with some tissue preserved. The distinct shape of
the frog can be seen but most of the flesh has deteriorated and several bones are exposed,
Amber - Frozen Moments in Time some broken. Under closer scrutiny a count of the bones suggests that this particular frog must
have had at least 6 legs. Palaeontologists speculate that a bird that ate the frogs may have had
Amber has a deep fascination both for ordinary people as a gem and for the scientist for a feeding site, perhaps on a branch directly above an accumulating pool of resin; hence the
whom it provides a glimpse into the past, a window into history. The majority of amber which has numerous bones present. The complete frog was perhaps an unlucky drop by the bird when it
been discovered and studied originates in the Cenzoic Era. The earlier Mesozoic which consists alighted on the branch. Mammalian hair can also infrequently be found trapped as tufts or single
of the Cretaceous, Jurassic and Triassic periods has also produced amber but in smaller and strands. When found in the Baltic area, hair in amber is often attributed to sloths that lived within
scarcer quantities due to its much older age. One of the problems associated with Mesozoic the ancient forest. Resin in the process of hardening usually develops a skin whilst the interior
amber is the level of degradation it undergoes. Ancient fossil resin can be badly affected by is still soft. Occasionally amber of this nature has impressions stamped on its surface and thus
oxidation, erosion, excessive heat and pressure. becomes a trace fossil. For instance the clear impression of a cat’s paw has ben found on a
Amber begins as resin exuded from trees millions of years ago possibly to protect piece of amber found in the Baltic area.
themselves against fungal or insect attack or as a by-product of some form of growth process. The faking of inclusions in amber has been a major cottage industry since the earliest
Most known deposits of amber come from various tree species which are now extinct. Baltic times. Gum is melted gently and suitable inclusions placed into the matrix; this is frequently
amber was produced by a giant tree called Pinites succinifer, a tree sharing many characteristics some kind of colourful insect. Artificial colour is always a dead give away of a bogus amber
of the currently living genus Pseudolarix. The true reason for this resin discharge from various fossil.
species of trees is not fully understood. Scientists have theorised that it also could be a form
of desiccation control, an aid to attract insect pollinators or even a reaction to storm or weather
damage.
The resin from the trees needs to go through a number of stages in order to become
amber. The first stage involves the slow cross chain linking of the molecular structure within
Questions 1 - 4
the resin, a kind of polymerisation. This makes the resin hard but easily broken compared to
its original state of being soft and plastic. Once it is in this state, the resin can be called copal. Read the passage Amber - Frozen Moments in Time again and look at the
Following the polymerisation the next stage is the evaporation of volatile oils inside the copal. statements below.
The oils, called turpenes, slowly permeate out of the amber. This second stage may take millions
of years before the process turns the copal into something approaching the structure of amber. In boxes 1 - 4 on your answer sheet write:
It is speculated that either one or both of these stages in the formation of amber must take place
in an anaerobic environment or it may have to sustain a period of immersion in sea water. Amber
which is exposed to air for several years undergoes oxidation which causes a distinct darkening
and crusting of the gem’s surface producing over many years tiny splinters and shards.
The chemical structure of amber is not consistent, not even within a single fragment, let FALSE if the statement is false
alone a single deposit. Consequently numerous chemical formulas have been attributed to it.
The reason for this wide variation is simply because amber is not a true mineral; it is an organic NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the text
plastic with variable mixtures. Some aspects of amber are fairly consistent though. On Moh’s
scale of hardness it lies between 2 and 2.5. It has a refraction index of 1.54 and a melting point
between 150 - 180oC. The colour range is extremely varied, ranging from near white (osseous) 1 Both animal and plant life have been found trapped in amber.
through all shades of yellow, brown and red. There are even examples of blue and green amber.
Blue - green amber is thought to have two possible causes: either the permeation of raw resin by
mineral deposits present in the soil into which it fell, or the settling of volcanic dust and ash onto 2 Theorists claim that amber must be submerged at some point during its formation process.
the resin when it was first secreted.
One of the most exciting and interesting aspects of amber are the inclusions, both
Academic Test 6; Page 8 © ieltshelpnow.com © ieltshelpnow.com
3 It’s common to find impressions of animals made on the skin of amber while it was
hardening.
Questions 9 - 11
According to the text which THREE of the following are NOT given as possible
4 There are two theories for how amber can develop different colours. reasons for the production of the resin by trees which later forms amber?
Choose THREE letters (A – H) and write them in boxes 9 – 11 on your answer

sheet.
Questions 5 - 8
The order of your answers does not matter.
Complete the following statements with the best ending from the box on the next
page
Write the appropriate letters A - G in boxes 5 - 8 on your answer sheet.
A A defence system
5 For the most part Baltic amber found today was originally created by plant life which… B Changes in the molecular structure of the tree
C A development side-effect
6 The faking of encasing things in amber is something which…
D An effect of the Baltic weather
7 Prehistoric decaying forests provided food which… E A way of dealing with water loss
F The result of oxidisation

8 Amber is a natural material which…
G Part of the reproduction process
H A result of damage
A ... grew to a great height all over the world.
B … takes place in small houses.
C … entrapped flies would have fed on.
D … can be spotted by the colour.
E … happened only in the Baltic area.
F … produced gases conducive to amber formation.
G … has a broad diversity in its chemical formula.

Questions 12 – 14 READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 15 - 26
Complete the summary below describing the amber formation process. You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 26 which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes
12 – 14 on your answer sheet. The Death of the Wild Salmon
NB There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them all. The last few decades have seen an enormous increase in the number of salmon farms in
countries bordering the north Atlantic. This proliferation is most marked in two countries famous
for their salmon, Norway and Scotland. Salmon farming in Norway and Scotland has expanded
to become a major industry and as the number of farmed salmon has exploded, the population
of its wild relatives has crashed. The rivers of these countries that used to have such great
summer runs of fish every season that they used to attract thousands of anglers from all over
SUMMARY the world are now in perilous decline. Recently Truls Halstensen, a Norwegian fishing writer,
wrote that his local river, the Driva, where he used to be able to catch five or more fish of over
The formation of amber goes through various stages of which at least one it has been 20 pounds weight in a morning, is now almost totally fishless.
theorised will need the absence of air. Starting as a viscous (12) __________from a tree, The link between the increase in farmed salmon and the decline in the wild population is hotly
disputed. Environmentalists claim that the increase in farming has affected wild salmon and
the malleability changes as the material becomes (13) __________with a modification of the sea environment in various ways. Firstly it is claimed that the mass escapes of farmed fish
present a grave threat to the gene pool of wild salmon stocks. Escapees breed less successfully
its structure at the molecular level. The next stage takes place over a long time as turpenes than wild salmon but the young of the escapees, known as parr, breed aggressively and can
produce four times more successfully than their wild counterparts. The parr bred by escapees
seep out of the material leaving an amber-like material which must undergo further also become sexually active far sooner than wild salmon and fertilise more eggs. The farmed
salmon are therefore genetically changing the wild salmon stocks. Jeremy Read, director
degradation from exposure to (14) __________before it can finally be recognised as what of the Atlantic Salmon Trust points out that: “the major problem of interbreeding is that it
reduces a population’s fitness and ability to survive. Native salmon have evolved to meet the
we know as amber today. circumstances and habitat of sea and river life. Farm fish are under very different selection
pressures in an artificial habitat. This could leave the world with a north Atlantic salmon which
could not survive in its native conditions.” The huge increase in sea lice in coastal waters
is another growing problem. Sea lice thrive in salmon farm conditions and their increase in
numbers means that wild salmon and other fish entering waters where there are farms can fall
tough evaporation polymers prey to the lice.
soft secretion sea water Another difficulty and one of the most worrying side effects of the salmon farm industry is that
salmon farmers cannot function without vast quantities of tiny sea creatures to turn into food
oxygen expansion brittle pellets to feed their stock. Lars Tennson of the Norwegian Fishermen’s association complains
that “ the huge quantities of small fish caught by industrial trawlers is helping to strip fishing
grounds of the small fish and of other species, including wild salmon, that depend on the feed
fish.”
Fish farms are also being blamed for increasing levels of nitrogen in the ocean. Over the last
2 years there have been 26 effluent leaks involving nitrogen-rich fish droppings. Naturally
occurring algae feed on this and grow into large toxic blooms that kill most other marine life.
Even legal chemicals used in farms, such as those used to combat the sea lice, can unbalance
micro-organism populations, affecting the other organisms that feed on them. Kevin Dunnon,
director of FEO Scotland, has warned that “using inappropriate chemicals and medicines has
© ieltshelpnow.com Academic Test 6; Page 13 © ieltshelpnow.com
the potential to do real environmental damage… We will prosecute if we find enough evidence.”
In spite of the evidence that farming is harming fish populations, fish farmers are adamant JR Jeremy Read
that they are not responsible. Nick Jury insists that “algal blooms and the decline in fish stocks
have occurred naturally for decades because of a wide range of unrelated and more complex PK Paul Knight
factors.” Jury feels that fish farms are being made a scapegoat for lack of government control of
fishing. AK Angus Kilrie
Overfishing is a major problem that affects salmon stocks and not just salmon. A combination
of high trawler catches, net fishing at estuaries, sport fishing and poaching have all led to
TH Truls Halstensen
stocks of wild salmon diminishing. The UK government likes to think that this problem has been
recognized and that the roots of the problems have been attacked by laws passed by them. KD Kevin Dunnon
Fishermen, at sea and in estuaries, have been set quotas and many salmon rivers have been
closed to fisherman. Poachers are more difficult to control but their effect is not as marked NJ Nick Jury
as that of the fishermen. Angus Kilrie of the NASF feels that the efforts have been wasted:
“Legislation has merely scratched the surface. Not enough money has been forthcoming to LT Lars Tennson
compensate fishermen and the allowances have been set too high.”
The fate of the wild Atlantic salmon is anybody’s guess. Farmers and governments seem
unworried, environmentalists fear the worst. Wild Scottish salmon stocks this year have actually
gone up this year which is heralded by the UK’s fisheries department as a result of their Questions 22 - 26
policies. Paul Knight, Director of the Salmon and Trout Fishing Association has stated that he
is “delighted with the upturn in numbers this year.” He adds the warning though that “ there are
Complete each of the following statements (Questions 22 - 26) with words taken from
still significant threats to salmon stocks and that it is important not to take our eye off the ball.”
Statistics though can always be interpreted in different ways. All issues concerning the health of Reading Passage 2.
the wild north Atlantic salmon need to continue to be addressed in order to protect the viability
of future runs. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Questions 15 – 21 Write your answers in boxes 22 - 26 on your answer sheet.
Match the opinions or statements (15 – 21) with the people who expressed or said
them listed on the next page. Write the appropriate initial of the person in boxes 15 22 The connection between the increase in the salmon raised on fish farms and the drop in the
- 21 on your answer sheet. naturally raised salmon is fiercely ____________________.
15 Says farming cannot be blamed for the salmon stock collapse. 23 The ____________________of farmed salmon reproduce in larger numbers and more
effectively than their wild equivalent.
16 Claims the demand for feed for salmon farms is destroying the natural food for other types
of fish. 24 Fishing by ____________________ has led to a huge reduction in the numbers of
smaller fish which other larger fish use as food.
17 Says that efforts must be maintained to protect the salmon.
25 Fish waste matter which escapes into the water is used for food by ___________________
18 Gives an example from his local area. which accelerates their growth leading to the death of other aquatic organisms.
19 States that measures taken to stop overfishing are not adequate. 26 The British government has tried to control fishing at sea and at river mouths by allocating
specific ____________________ for netters and fishermen.
20 Says salmon could soon be genetically incapable of continuing to exist.
21 Threatens legal action against farms that misuse chemicals. Academic Test 6; Page 15
READING PASSAGE 3 Questions 27 - 40 internal can pressures created by carbonation (especially during warm summer months), which
meant increasing the thickness of the metal used in the can ends. Another concern for the
new beverage can was its shelf life. Even small amounts of dissolved tin or iron from the can
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27 – 40 which are based on could impair the drinking quality of drinks. Also the food acids, including carbonic, citric and
Reading Passage 3 below. phosphoric, in soft drinks presented a risk for the rapid corrosion of exposed tin and iron in
the can. At this point the can was upgraded by improving the organic coatings used to line the
inside. The can manufacturers then embarked on a program of material and cost savings by
The Can – A Brief History Lesson reducing both the amount of steel and the amount of coating used in can making. These efforts
were in part inspired by a new competitor - aluminium.
A
E
The story of the can begins in 1795 when Nicholas Appert, a Parisian, had an idea: why not
pack food in bottles like wine? Fifteen years later, after researching and testing his idea, he Beverage cans made from aluminum were first introduced in 1965. This was an exciting
published his theory: if food is sufficiently heated and sealed in an airtight container, it will innovation for the packaging industry because the aluminum can was made with only two
not spoil. In 1810 Peter Durand, an Englishman, wanted to surpass Appert’s invention, so pieces - a body and an end. This made production easier. Some of the reasons for the
he elected to try tin instead of glass. Like glass, tin could be sealed airtight but tin was not aluminum can’s acceptance were its ductility, its support of carbonation pressure, its lighter
breakable and was much easier to handle. Durand himself did no canning, but two other weight and the fact that aluminum does not rust. Both steel and aluminum cans used an
Englishmen, Bryan Donkin and John Hall, used Durand’s patent. After experimenting for more easy-open end tab but the aluminum tab was much easier to make. Perhaps the most critical
than a year, they set up a commercial canning factory and by 1813 they were sending tins of element in the aluminum can’s market success was its recycling value. Aluminum can recycling
food to British army and navy authorities for trial. excelled economically in the competition with steel because of the efficiencies aluminum
cans realized in making new cans from recycled materials compared with 100 percent virgin
B aluminum. Steel did not realize similar economies in the recycling process.
Perhaps the greatest encouragement to the newborn canning industry was the explosion in the F
number of new colonial territories. As people and goods were being transported to all parts of
the world, the can industry itself was growing in new territories. Englishmen who emigrated to Prior to 1970, can makers, customers and consumers alike were unaware of the impact
America brought their newfound knowledge with them. One of these was Thomas Kensett, who that the mining and manufacturing of steel or aluminium had on the environment. The
might fairly be called the father of the can manufacturing industry in the United States. In 1812 concept of natural resource preservation was not an issue of great importance and the low
he set up a small plant on the New York waterfront to can the first hermetically sealed products growth of population during these early years further de-emphasized concerns for resource
in the United States. depletion. Both industries, however, came to realize the importance of reducing their impact
on the environment in the late 1960s and early 1970s as a new environmentally conscious
C generation emerged. Manufacturers began to recognize the economics of recycling, namely
lower manufacturing costs from using less material and less energy. By the 1980s and 1990s,
Just before the Civil War, a technical advance by canners enabled them to speed up recycling had become a way of life. Aluminum can recycling has become a billion-dollar
production. Adding calcium chloride to the water in which cans were cooked raised the water business and one of the world’s most successful environmental enterprises. Over the years,
temperature, speeding up the canning process. Also for almost 100 years, tin cans were made the aluminum can has come to be known as America’s most recyclable package, with over 60
by artisans by hand. It was a laborious process, requiring considerable skill and muscle. As percent of cans being recycled annually
the industrial revolution took hold in the United States, the demand for cans increased and
machines began to replace the artisans’ handiwork. A good artisan could make only 10 cans G
a day. True production progress in can making began in 1922, when American engineers
perfected the body making process. New methods soon increased production of cans to as Advances in can manufacturing technology have also brought us lighter aluminum cans. In
many as 250 a minute. 1972, one pound of aluminum yielded only 21.75 cans. Today, by using less material to make
each can, one pound of aluminum makes approximately 32 cans - a 47 percent improvement.
D Just the lightening of can ends makes a huge difference. When you multiply the savings by the
100 billion cans that are made each year, the weight and savings are phenomenal - over 200
As early as 1940, can manufacturers began to explore the possibility of adapting cans to million pounds of aluminum!
package carbonated soft drinks. The can had to be strengthened to accommodate higher
Questions 27 - 32 27 Paragraph B
The reading passage on The Can - A Brief History Lesson has 7 paragraphs A – G.
28 Paragraph C
B – G. 29 Paragraph D

30 Paragraph E
31 Paragraph F
32 Paragraph G
Example Answer
Questions 33 - 38
Paragraph A iv
Below are two lists. The first list (questions 33- 38) is a list of dates of events in
Reading Passage 3: The Can - A Brief History Lesson. The second list (A - G) is a
list of the events. Match the year with the correct event in the history of the can.

i The Invention of the Aluminium Can
One of the dates and and one of the events are matched as an example.
ii Technological Breakthroughs
Example Answer
iii Canning and the Beer Industry
1810 E
iv The Invention
v Canning and War QUESTION DATE
vi Further Manufacturing Advances EG 1810
vii Problems with Spoiled Contents

33 1922
viii Expansion of the Industry
ix Today’s Uses for Canning 34 1812
x Drinks Canning
35 1813
xi Cans and The Environment
36 1965
37 1813 ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 6
38 1940
WRITING TASK 1
EVENTS
A Mass production techniques revolutionized the canning process.
The tables below show predicted and actual immigration figures for the UK for the
B Tinned food was tested by military authorities. years 1984 - 2000.
C Today’s canning material was first introduced. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below.
D The first American canning factory was opened. You should write at least 150 words.
E Tin was used in the canning process for the first time. TABLE 1 - Predicted Immigration Figures for UK 1984 - 2000; in thousands
F The canning of fizzy drinks began.

YEAR 1984 1985 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991
G The first business canning plant was opened.
FIGURE 38 40 42 45 46 80 97 91
Questions 39 and 40
1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000

Read paragraphs F and G of Reading Passage 3 The Can - A Brief History
Lesson again and look at the statements below.
80 67 80 98 117 121 133 140 148
In boxes 39 and 40 on your answer sheet write:
TABLE 2 - Actual Immigration Figures for UK 1984 - 2000; in thousands
FALSE if the statement is false YEAR 1984 1985 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991

text FIGURE 58 60 40 43 71 80 100 93
39 Recycling has helped reduce manufacturing overheads. 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
40 Aluminium can production costs have fallen by nearly 50% since 1972. 64 66 82 114 102 105 140 158 163

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Section 1
Many countries have compulsory military service for men after they leave school. It * Could you describe your bedroom in your house or apartment?
would be a good idea for all countries to adopt this system for men and possibly * How would you make your bedroom better?
women. * Do you think it’s a good idea to have a TV in a bedroom? (Why/Why not?)
Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Topic 1 The Seasons
You should write at least 250 words. * What is your favourite time of year?
* How much do you think people are affected by the seasons and the weather?
* What sorts of things do people in your country like to do in winter?
* What sorts of things do people in your country like to do in summer?
Topic 2 Food and Cooking
* What kinds of food do you like? (Why?)

* What kinds of things don’t you like to eat? (Why not?)
* Do you like cooking? (Why/Why not?)
* What was the last thing that you cooked?
Section 2
Describe an accident or injury that has happened to you

You should say:
when and where it happened
how it happened
what happened afterwards
and explain how you felt about it
Section 3
Topic 1 World Health
* What are the worst health problems facing the world today?
* What do you think will be the major health problems to face the world over the next 50
years?
* Should richer countries assist with the health problems in poorer countries?
* What are some of the things that we can do to help provide cleaner water in poor
countries?
Topic 2 Your Country’s Health System
* Describe the health system in your country?

* What’s the procedure for seeing a doctor in your country?
* What are the advantages and disadvantages of private health insurance?
Academic Test 6; Page 22 * Do you think a country’s health system should be free? (Why/Why not?)
PRACTICE TEST 7 Complete the Cheapies Customer Information Leaflet below.
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Cheapies Customer Information Leaflet
Dear Sir/Madam
Questions 1 - 5
Thank you for hiring a car from Cheapies. We value your custom and we will endeavour to
Complete the form below. provide you with the service that you expect.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Total Price (6) ______________________
Pick up point The International Hotel
Drop off point (7) ______________________

CHEAPIES CAR HIRE
RENTAL FORM
We provide some things in the car to help you. Your sales representative will go through all
Example Answer
the things that you will find in your glove compartment and boot. Different cars have different
things provided.
Date Car Needed 7th August
In case of (8) ______________ or ______________, call our emergency number
06387 638 972 to order a replacement car.
Customer’s Name Mr. John Wilson
Customer’s Address (1) ____________________

Manchester
Postcode MW7 4DF Questions 9 and 10
Home Tel. 020 6834 6387
Which TWO items are NOT provided in Mr. Wilson’s hire car? Choose and circle
Mobile Tel. (2) ____________________ TWO letters A - J.
Driving Licence No. (3) ____________________ A insurance documents F a spare wheel
Number of Drivers 1 B Westley town map G a set of tools
Length of Rental (4) ____________________ days C the car manual H RAC membership card
Car Make Chosen (5) ____________________ D a larger area map of the local district I a small fire extinguisher
E a map of London J spare keys for the car

Questions 11 - 15
Questions 21 - 26
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for
each answer. Complete Judith’s notes below.
11 When is breakfast served in Chelston Hall on Sundays? Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
12 What method of food service is provided at Chelston Hall dining hall?
13 Where is coffee and tea served after dinner at Chelston Hall? NORTH SEA OIL AND GAS INDUSTRY BACKGROUND
* North Sea oil and gas exploration was initially rejected but has now really expanded
14 How much does it cost to do 1 wash in a washing machine at Chelston Hall? during (21) ______________________ years.
* First significant quantities of gas first discovered in Groningen area off The
15 From where can students buy washing powder inside Chelston Hall? Netherlands in 1959.
* First British discovery of same in West Sole field, off the coast of East Anglia,
Questions 16 - 20 by (22) ______________________ in 1965.
* British oil and gas industry experienced rapid growth in the early years.
* An (23) ______________________ in the UK led to enormous pressure to increase
Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer. production of North Sea gas and oil.
* Oil field discoveries increased with British, European and American firms buying North
16 It is not the job of the cleaners at Chelston Hall to clear up _______________. Sea exploration (24) ______________________.
* In 1990s the oil business suffered due to (25) ______________________ of oil.

17 Students at Chelston Hall are asked to be careful going to and from the bathrom as
the Hall is _______________. * Production grew and peaked around 2000/1.
* North Sea is currently looked upon as a (26) ______________________ on a

18 If there is a fire at Chelston Hall, leave the building and meet your block leader slow decline.
in _______________ where the block leader will take a roll call.
19 Chelston Hall has to perform at least _______________ emergency fire practices yearly.
20 If a student is asked to leave for disciplinary reasons, he or she will not get
a _______________.
Complete the summary of Fred’s talk below. Questions 31 - 34

Complete the lecture notes below.

NORTH SEA OIL AND GAS INDUSTRY SAFETY INFORMATION
Although the Sea Gem was the first North Sea oil exploration accident, the most well known
accident was aboard the Piper Alpha platform in 1988 when 13 people died. Because of Billboard Advertising
these and other accidents, platforms now have rigorous safety procedures, for example:
● Installation Safety Tour showing * Johannes Gutenberg invented (31) ______________________ in 1450.
all safety aspects eg: * (27) ____________________
* emergency muster stations * The lithographic process perfected in 1796.
* (28) ______________________
* emergency procedures * In (32) ______________________ Jared Bell’s office in New York made the first large
● Rig Safety Programme Introduction US outdoor poster when he printed circus posters.
● Weekly Safety Meetings
● Daily Pre “Tour” Meetings * In 1900 a boom in national billboard campaigns was created in America with the
● Inter Company Safety Information Scheme advent of a (33) ______________________ of billboard.
● Fire and Boat Practice with (29) ______________________
● Mock Abandon the Rig Exercise * Last year US expenditure on outdoor advertising reached $5.5 billion.
Statistics now show that these measures have succeeded and that workers are more likely to * Over the next few years there is expectation of a (34) ______________________ in
be killed on (30) ______________________. outdoor advertising.

Choose a letter (A - D) that correctly completes the following statements (questions
35 - 40). READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 - 13
35 Allan Odell decided to use roadside advertising because... Reading Passage 1 below.
A ...no one else had tried it. The Canals of De Lesseps

B ...other people were beginning to use it.
C ...it was the cheapest form of advertising. Two of the most spectacular engineering feats of the last 200 years were of the same
D ...other people were improving their sales through it. type though thousands of miles apart. They were the construction of the Suez and Panama
canals. The Panama Canal joins the Pacific and Atlantic oceans while the Suez joins the Red
36 Allan Odell’s first advertisements were... Sea (Indian Ocean) and the Mediterranean (Atlantic Ocean). Both offer ships huge savings in
time and mileage. For example, a nine hour trip on the Panama Canal would save a total of
A ...successful. 18,000 miles on a trip from New York to San Francisco. Amazingly enough the same French
B ...boring. engineer, Ferdinand de Lesseps, played a major part in the construction of both.
C ...hard to understand. The history of the Panama Canal goes back to 16th century with a survey of the isthmus
D ...too far apart. and a working plan for a canal ordered by the Spanish government in 1529. In the 18th century
various companies tried and failed to construct the canal but it wasn’t until 1880 that a French
37 Allan Odell’s second type of advertising... company, organized by Ferdinand Marie de Lesseps, proposed a sea level canal through
Panama. He believed that if a sea level canal worked when constructing the Suez Canal, it
A ...criticised people. must work for the Panama Canal. Finally the Panama Canal was constructed in two stages.
B ...amused people. The first between 1881 and 1888, the work being carried out by the French company headed by
C ...made fun of people. de Lesseps, and secondly, the work by the Americans which eventually completed the canal’s
D ...irritated people. construction between 1904 and 1914. The French company ran out of money and an attempt
was unsuccessful to raise funds by applying to the French government to issue lottery bonds
38 Allan Odell’s company eventually decided to stop this form of advertising because... which had been successful during the construction of the Suez Canal when that project was at
the point of failure through lack of money. The French problems stemmed from their inability to
A ...it was no longer effective. create a viable solution to the differences in tidal changes in the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
B ...people were in a hurry. There is a tidal range of 20 feet at the Pacific whereas the Atlantic range is only about 1 foot.
C ...it was old fashioned. The Americans proposed that a tidal lock should be constructed at Panama which solved the
D ...people criticised the rhymes. problem and reduced excavation by an enormous amount. When construction was finally
finished, the canal ran through various locks, four dams and ran the lengths of two naturally
39 The main purpose of Lyndon Johnson’s bill was to... occurring lakes, the 32 mile Gatun Lake and the 5 mile Miraflores Lake.
When the US took on finishing the canal they and the new state of Panama signed the
A ...improve the condition of the roads. Hay-Bunau-Varilla treaty, by which the United States guaranteed the independence of Panama
B ...stop roadside advertising. and secured a perpetual lease on a 10 mile strip for the canal. Panama was to be compensated
C ...reduce federal grants. by an initial payment of $10 million and an annuity of $250,000, beginning in 1913. On
D ...make the roads and countryside more attractive. December 31st 1999 United States transferred the 51 mile Panama Canal, the surrounding
Panama Canal Area and the income back to the Panamanian government.
40 Roadside advertising continued because... The idea of a canal linking the Mediterranean to the Red Sea also dates back to ancient
times. Unlike the modern canal, earlier ones linked the Red Sea to the Nile, therefore forcing
A ...it was good for business. the ships to sail along the River on their journey from Europe to India. It consisted of two parts:
B ...some states did not get federal aid. the first linking the Gulf of Suez to the Great Bitter Lake, and the second connecting the Lake
C ...federal laws did not apply to some roads. to one of the branches in the Nile Delta that runs into the Mediterranean. The canal remained in
D ...some states ignored the law. good condition during the Ptolemaic era, but fell into disrepair afterwards and was completely
abandoned upon the discovery of the trade route around Africa.
It was Napoleon’s engineers who, around 1800 AD, revived the idea of a shorter 5 Previous labour conditions of construction workers at the canal have been criticised.
trade route to India via a Suez canal. However, the calculation carried out by the French
engineers showed a difference in level of 10 meters between both seas. If constructed under 6 The canal’s construction was held up by war.
such circumstances, a large land area would be flooded. Later the digging of the canal was
undertaken by the Ferdinand de Lesseps, who showed the previous French sea height 7 The canal is also a holiday destination.
estimates to be incorrect and that locks or dams were not needed.
In 1859, Egyptian workers started working on the construction of the canal in conditions 8 Over half the canal is within a single lake.
described by historians as slave labor, and the project was completed around 1867. The canal
is 163 km long, and has a width of a minimum of 60 metres. The canal cuts through three
lakes, Lake Manzala in the north, Lake Timsah in the middle and the Great Bitter Lake further
south. The largest, the Great Bitter Lake makes up almost 30 km of the total length. The canal
is extensively used by modern ships as it is the fastest crossing from the Atlantic Ocean to the
Indian Ocean.
Questions 9 - 13
In July 1956 the Egyptian president Nasser announced the nationalization of the canal
in response to the British, French and American refusal for a loan aimed at building the Aswan
High Dam on the Nile. The revenue from the canal, he argued, would help finance the High Read the passage The Canals of de Lessep’s again and look at the statements
Dam project. Since then the Egyptians have controlled the canal. Today, approximately 50 ships below.
cross the canal daily and the cities and beaches along the Great Bitter Lake and the canal
serve as a summer resort for tourists. In boxes 9 - 13 on your answer sheet write:

Questions 1- 8 FALSE if the statement is false
Use the information in the text to match the statements (1 – 8) with the canal
references (A – D). Write the appropriate letter (A – D) in boxes 1 – 8 on your
passage
answer sheet. Write:
A if the statement refers to the Panama Canal.

9 De Lessep’s Suez Canal construction theories were equally successful in the building of
B if the statement refers to the Suez Canal. the Panama Canal as they were in building the Suez Canal.
C if the statement refers to both the Panama Canal and the Suez Canal.
10 The decision to use locks in the Panama Canal also saved time doing other activities.
D If the statement refers to neither the Panama Canal and the Suez Canal.
11 The US were not happy about returning the control of the Panama Canal to Panama.
1 The surface of the whole canal is at sea level.
12 The current Suez Canal is the second canal that has joined the Red Sea to the
2 The canal’s construction had financial problems. Mediterranean.
3 Dams had to be built to construct the canal.

13 The British government refused to give assistance in constructing the Suez Canal.
4 The canal generates money for the country it passes through.

The Ozone Hole
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 27 which are based on Paragraph A
Reading Passage 2 on the following page.
Ozone is a bluish gas that is harmful to breathe. Nearly 90% of the Earth’s ozone is in the
Questions 14 - 19 stratosphere and is referred to as the ozone layer. Ozone absorbs a band of ultraviolet radiation
called UVB that is particularly harmful to living organisms. Stratospheric ozone is constantly
being created and destroyed through natural cycles. Various ozone depleting substances
The reading passage on The Ozone Hole has 6 paragraphs (A – F). however, accelerate the destruction processes, resulting in lower than normal ozone levels.
Reductions in ozone levels will lead to higher levels of UVB reaching the Earth’s surface. The
From the list of headings below (i – ix) choose the most suitable headings for sun’s output of UVB does not change; rather, less ozone means less protection, and hence more
paragraphs A – F. UVB reaches the Earth. Studies have shown that in the Antarctic, the amount of UVB measured
at the surface can double during the annual ozone hole. Laboratory and epidemiological studies
demonstrate that UVB causes non melanoma skin cancer and plays a major role in malignant
Write the appropriate number (i – ix) in boxes 14 – 19 on your answer sheet. melanoma development. In addition, UVB has been linked to cataracts.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. Paragraph B
Dramatic loss of ozone in the lower stratosphere over Antarctica was first noticed in the
i The Destruction Process
1970s by a research group from the British Antarctic Survey (BAS) who were monitoring
the atmosphere above Antarctica from a research station. Folklore has it that when the first
ii How Is Ozone Formed?
measurements were taken in 1975, the drop in ozone levels in the stratosphere was so dramatic
that at first the scientists thought their instruments were faulty. Replacement instruments were
iii How Technology Can Help
built and flown out and it wasn’t until they confirmed the earlier measurements, several months
later, that the ozone depletion observed was accepted as genuine. Another story goes that the
iv Artificial Emissions
BAS satellite data didn’t show the dramatic loss of ozone because the software processing the
raw ozone data from the satellite was programmed to treat very low values of ozone as bad
v What Is Being Done?
readings. Later analysis of the raw data when the results from the British Antarctic Survey team
were published, confirmed their results and showed that the loss was rapid and large-scale; over
vi The Function of the Ozone Layer
most of the Antarctica continent.
vii Empirical Analysis
Paragraph C
viii Initial Identification
Ozone occurs naturally in the atmosphere. The earth’s atmosphere is composed of several
layers. We live in the Troposphere, ground level up to about 10km high, where most of the
ix Hospitalisation
weather occurs such as rain, snow and clouds. Above that is the Stratosphere, an important
region in which effects such as the Ozone Hole and Global Warming originate. The layer
14 Paragraph A next to space is the Exosphere and then going inwards there are the Thermosphere and the
Mesosphere. Supersonic passenger jets fly just above the troposphere whereas subsonic
15 Paragraph B commercial airliners are usually well in the troposphere. The narrow region between these two
parts of the atmosphere is called the Tropopause. Ozone forms a layer in the stratosphere,
16 Paragraph C thinnest in the tropics and denser towards the poles. The amount of ozone above a point on the
earth’s surface is measured in Dobson units (DU) - typically ~260 DU near the tropics and higher
17 Paragraph D elsewhere, though there are large seasonal fluctuations. It is created when ultraviolet radiation
in the form of sunlight strikes the stratosphere, splitting oxygen molecules to atomic oxygen. The
18 Paragraph E atomic oxygen quickly combines with further oxygen molecules to form ozone.
19 Paragraph F
Paragraph D
Questions 20 - 25
The Ozone Hole often gets confused in the popular press and by the general public with the Complete the following statements (questions 20 - 25) with the best ending from the
problem of global warming. Whilst there is a connection because ozone contributes to the box below (A - H) according to the information in the reading passage The Ozone
greenhouse effect, the Ozone Hole is a separate issue. Over Antarctica (and recently over Hole.
the Arctic), stratospheric ozone has been depleted over the last 15 years at certain times of
the year. This is mainly due to the release of man-made chemicals containing chlorine such
Write the appropriate letter (A - H) on your answer sheet.
as CFCs (ChloroFluoroCarbons), but also compounds containing bromine, other related
halogen compounds and also nitrogen oxides. CFC’s are a common industrial product, used in
refrigeration systems, air conditioners, aerosols, solvents and in the production of some types There are more sentence endings (A - H) than questions so you will not need to use
of packaging. Nitrogen oxides are a by-product of combustion processes, for example aircraft them all.
emissions.
20 International agreements will eventually lead to...
Paragraph E
The ozone depletion process begins when CFCs and other ozone depleting substances are
21 An apocryphal BAS story cites that equpiment was changed to measure...
emitted into the atmosphere where winds efficiently mix and evenly distribute the gases. CFCs
are extremely stable, and they do not dissolve in rain. After a period of several years natural
gases in the stratosphere combine with CFCs and this releases chlorine atoms, halons and
22 It is a common mistake to associate the Ozone Hole problem with...
methyl bromide. These in turn all release bromine atoms and it is these atoms that actually
destroy ozone. It is estimated that one chlorine atom can destroy over 100,000 ozone molecules
before it is removed from the stratosphere.
23 The thickness of the Ozone layer varies with...
Paragraph F
24 The Ozone layer is destroyed by a by product of CFCs reacting with...
The first global agreement to restrict CFCs came with the signing of the Montreal Protocol in
1987 ultimately aiming to reduce them by half by the year 2000. Two revisions of this agreement
have been made in the light of advances in scientific understanding, the latest being in 1992.
25 Common household appliances contribute to...
Agreement has been reached on the control of industrial production of many halocarbons
until the year 2030. The main CFCs will not be produced by any of the signatories after the
end of 1995, except for a limited amount for essential uses, such as for medical sprays. The
countries of the European Community have adopted even stricter measures. Recognizing their
A ...the location of the layer relative to the earth.
responsibility to the global environment they have agreed to halt production of the main CFCs
from the beginning of 1995. It was anticipated that these limitations would lead to a recovery
B ...the discharge of synthetic chemicals into the atmosphere.
of the ozone layer within 50 years of 2000. The World Meteorological Organisation estimated
2045 but recent investigations suggest the problem is perhaps on a much larger scale than
C ...the satellite orbiting the earth.
anticipated.
D ...the normal components of the earth’s atmosphere.
E ...the apparently anomalous readings taken earlier.
F ...the issue of the heating up of the earth’s atmosphere.
G ...recent investigations into the strength of Dobson Units.
H ...the cessation of the release of most CFC gases into the atmosphere.

Questions 26 and 27 READING PASSAGE 3 Questions 28 - 40
Answer questions 26 and 27 below with reference to the diagram of the earth and You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on
its layers of atmosphere at the bottom of the page. Reading Passage 3 on the following pages.
Write the appropriate letter (A - E) on your answer sheet. OLIVE OIL PRODUCTION
Olive oil has been one of the staples of the Mediterranean diet for thousands of years
and its popularity is growing rapidly in other parts of the world. It is one of the most versatile oils
26 In which atmosphere layer would you find the Ozone layer and hole?
for cooking and it enhances the taste of many foods. Olive oil is the only type of vegetable/fruit
oil that can be obtained from just pressing. Most other types of popular oils (corn, canola, etc.)
must be processed in other ways to obtain the oil. Another important bonus is that olive oil has
27 In which atmosphere layer would you find a conventional passenger airliner usually flying?
proven health benefits. Three basic grades of olive oil are most often available to the consumer:
extra Virgin, Virgin and Olive Oil. In addition to the basic grades, olive oil differs from one country
or region to another because of the types of olives that are grown, the harvesting methods, the
time of the harvest, and the pressing techniques. These factors all contribute to the individual
characteristics of the olive oil.
Olive trees must be properly cared for in order to achieve good economic yields. Care
includes regular irrigation, pruning, fertilising, and killing pests. Olives will survive on very poor
sites with shallow soils but will grow very slowly and yield poorly. Deep soils tend to produce
excessively vigorous trees, also with lower yields. The ideal site for olive oil production is a clay
loam soil with good internal and surface drainage. Irrigation is necessary to produce heavy crops
and avoid alternate bearing. The site must be free of hard winter frosts because wood damage will
occur at temperatures below 15°F and a lengthy spell of freezing weather can ruin any chances
for a decent crop. The growing season also must be warm enough so fruits mature before even
light fall frosts (usually by early November) because of potential damage to the fruit and oil quality.
Fortunately olive trees are very hardy in hot summer temperatures and they are drought tolerant.
The best olive oils hold a certificate by an independent organization that authenticates the
stone ground and cold pressed extraction process. In this process, olives are first harvested by
hand at the proper stage of ripeness and maturity. Experts feel that hand harvesting, as opposed
to mechanical harvesting, eliminates bruising of the fruit which causes tartness and oil acidity. The
olives harvested are transferred daily to the mill. This is very important because this daily transfer
minimizes the time spent between picking and pressing. Some extra virgin olive oil producers are
known to transfer the olives by multi-ton trucks over long distances that expose the fragile fruit to
crushing weight and the hot sun, which causes the olives to begin oxidizing and thus becoming
acidic. In addition to the time lapse between harvesting and pressing, olive oil must be obtained
using mechanical processes only to be considered virgin or extra virgin. If heat and/or chemical
processes are used to produce the olive oil or if the time lapse is too long, it cannot be called virgin
or extra virgin.
Once at the mill, the leaves are sucked away with air fans and the olives are washed with
circulating potable water to remove all impurities. The first step of extraction is mashing the olives
to create a paste. The oil, comprising 20% to 30% of the olive, is nestled in pockets within the
fruit’s cells. The olives are crushed in a mill with two granite millstones rolling within a metal basin.
Crushing and mixing the olives releases the oil from the cells of the olive without heating the
paste. A side shutter on the mill’s basin allows the mixed olive paste to be discharged and applied
to round mats. The mats are stacked and placed under the head of a hydraulic press frame that
applies downward pressure and extracts the oil. The first pressing yields the superior quality oil,
and the second and third pressings produce inferior quality oil. Some single estate producers
collect the oil that results from just the initial crushing while many other producers use an
additional step to extract more oil. The olive pulp is placed on mats constructed with hemp or 30 According to the text, what is the main danger of frost?
polypropylene that are stacked and then pressed to squeeze the pulp. Oil and water filter through
the mats to a collection tank below. The water and oil are then separated in a centrifuge. A It kills the olive trees
Regardless of the method used for the first pressing, the temperature of the oil during B The fruit won’t mature
production is extremely important in order to maintain the distinct characteristics of the oil. If the C Not enough fruit will be produced
temperature of the oil climbs above 86ºF, it will be damaged and cannot be considered cold- D The olives produced will be small in size
pressed.
The first pressing oil contains the most “polyphenols”, substances that have been found to
be powerful antioxidants capable of protecting against certain types of disease. The polyphenols 31 According to the text, which of the following does NOT affect the “extra virgin” olive oil
are not the only substances in the olive with health-promoting effects, but they are quite unique certification?
when compared to other commonly used culinary oils such as sunflower and soy. It is these
polyphenols that really set extra virgin olive oils apart from any other oil and any other form of olive A The temperature of the extraction process
oil. The more refined the olive oil is, the smaller the quantity of polyphenols. B The time gap between tree and bottle
The result of the producers’ efforts is a cold pressed extra virgin olive oil with high quality C Which pressing the oil is taken from
standards and organoleptic characteristics, which give the oil its health-protective and aromatic D Using water in the extraction process
properties.
Questions 32 - 34
Read the passage Olive Oil Production again and look at the statements below.
Questions 28 - 31
Choose the appropriate letters A – D that best finish the sentence or best answer In boxes 32 - 34 on your answer sheet write:
the question and write them in boxes 28 – 31 on your answer sheet.
28 According to the text, which of the following does NOT affect the individual features of olive
oils from different regions?
A Picking techniques NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the text
B The date of the picking
C Olive varieties
D Access to water
32 Olive trees don’t need a regular supply of water to survive.
29 According to the text, which of the following is NOT part of olive tree management?
33 No other cooking oils apart from olive oil contain polyphenols.
A Careful watering
B Replanting
C Killing parasites 34 Damage to olives before they are pressed can affect the taste of the oil.
D Feeding

Questions 35 – 40 ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 7
Using the information in Reading Passage 3, complete the flow chart below.
WRITING TASK 1
Write your answers in boxes 35 – 40 on your answer sheet.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
The bar graph below shows the numbers of employed persons by job type and
sex for Australia in the year 2003.
The Olive Oil Production Process
The three grades of oil produced are (eg) ____________, Virgin Answer You should write at least 150 words.
and Olive Oil. extra Virgin
Olive trees should be planted in (35) _________________ earth with good

drainage in a year round warm climate. Numbers of Employed Persons by Job Type and Sex, Australia, 2003
Trees must be carefully irrigated and fertilised and (36) _________________ must
be controlled if you want to get (37) _________________ that will make you profit.
Olives are harvested when they are correctly ripened and matured and they are
then taken to the mill.
JOB TYPE
Leaves are removed with drinking water.
Olives are crushed to form a (38) _________________.
(000s)
The paste is put on round mats inside a (39) _________________. Water is
blended in with the paste as it’s pressed and a water/oil mixture escapes.
Water is removed by a (40) _________________ process. The Oil is then bottled

and distributed.
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Section 1
Government investment in public transport and reductions in public transport prices * Describe the house where you lived when you grew up?
will greatly help the fight against transport pollution. * Do you prefer sharing the house/flat where you live or do you prefer living on your own?
* Do you think it’s better to share a house with friends or with someone you don’t know?
Do you agree or disagree with this statement?
Topic 1 Habits and Routines
* Tell me what you would do on a normal working day?
* How do you like to relax after a hard day?
* Do you think it is a good thing or a bad thing for someone to develop routines?
* Do you have a bad habit that you would like to lose? (Why/Why not?)
Topic 2 Birthdays
* How do people celebrate birthdays in your country?

* Are there any ages that have special significance in your culture?
* What are some of the advantages of getting older?
* What are some of the disadvantages of getting older?
Section 2
Describe your favourite city

You should say:
what city it is and when you went there
your favourite places there
what you do when you’re there
and explain why exactly it’s your favourite city
Section 3
Topic 1 City Life
* Does your country have many big cities? (Why/Why not?)

* What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of living in a city?
* How can we reduce some of the pollution problems in today’s cities?
* Would you ever consider living long term in a city in a different country? (Why/Why not?)-
Topic 2 The Growth of Cities
* Could you compare life in your country today with life in your country 50 years ago?
* Why have so many people nowadays gone to live in big cities?
* Do you think it is a good thing or a bad thing that the world has so many huge cities today?
* What are some of future problems that might happen with the growth of so many big cities?

1 Academic Test 7; Page 22
PRACTICE TEST 8
Complete George’s notes below.

Possible Holiday Ideas
Questions 1 - 5
Top End Prices Italy and France
Complete the Travel agent’s notes below. Bottom End Prices (6) __________, Greece and Turkey (Turkey + Cyprus too far)
Crete Hotel Tropicana

* 1 mile safe walk on (7) __________ to beach.
* Nice pool; only a few beach bars and restaurants.
* Really quiet; not near other tourist destinations.
SUN TOURS TRAVEL AGENTS
Palm Hotel
Example Answer
* 2 miles from beach but has (8) __________ service.
Number of people 4 * Hotel in quite a busy tourist town: lots of bars, restaurants and discos.
Rhodes Ocean Hotel

Customer’s Name Mr. George Collins
* Right on beach: less than (9) __________ from the rooms.
Other travellers Mrs. Jane Collins
* 4 star hotel quite far from main town; eat in hotel; good meals.
(+ ages of children) (1) __________ 7 years old
Jennifer (2) __________
Hotel Spiros
* (10) __________ hotel quite close to beach (5/10 mins walk) in small village
Require 4 star quality hotel + breakfast; safe, warm, quietish, beach; pref. pool; lots of res-
with small swimming pool.
taurants near hotel; no (3) __________ needed
* A few restaurants in small, quiet village; not much to do.
Dates of Holiday Friday July 8th TO (4) Sunday __________
Pref. Flight Time Less than (5) __________

Questions 11 - 15 Complete the activities information sheet below.
Complete the food options information sheet below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Solaris Hotel and Holiday Village - Activities
Beaches: main beach

Solaris Hotel and Holiday Village - Food Options
adult beach (17s or over)
Meal Times
(16) _________________ on duty from 9.00am to 6.00pm on main beach (none on adult beach)
Breakfast: 6.30am and 9.30am every day (Only in Harvest restaurant; English, American and
* Decked area with sun loungers in front of Harvest Restaurant with our 25
(11) _________________ breakfasts on offer
metre swimming pool
* Steps from pool area to beach - wash feet in foot pool to remove sand
Lunch 12.00 noon to 2.30pm
* (17) _________________ on beach + in pool area.
Dinner 7.00pm to 10.30pm
Sports
Menus same for lunch + dinner; see (12) _________________ for specials
8 tennis courts + 3 squash courts
Fully equipped gym (No under 18s)
Food Styles
6 full sized snooker tables + 5 pool tables in games room adjoining the bar.
(only charge for hiring any equipment)
The Harvest Restaurant Traditional English + popular UK foreign dishes (eg: curry and
spaghetti)
Water Sports
The Dene Restaurant (13) _________________
water skiing + jet skis available (extra charge)
snorkelling, inflatables and pedallos (free)
The Mekong Restaurant Far Eastern Cuisine
(details from (18) _________________)
Payment
Library & Cinemas
* All restaurants free; (14) _________________ needed for some specials
* All soft drinks free; pay for alcoholic drinks
Library contains books, magazines + newspapers. See (19) _________________ for terms +
* Pay any bill at end of meals or put on main bill - pay at end of holiday
conditions
Extras
2 cinemas show 3 different films each every day.
Shows at 2.00pm, 5.30pm + 8.30pm (First 2 shows always have a film for kids)
* Bar menu available in (15) _________________ for pub food
(20) ________________ not allowed to attend 8.30 shows
* Fast Food available until 2.30am at take away

Questions 21 - 26 Complete the notes below of the second half of Jamie and Rebecca’s presentation.
Complete the three tables below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

World’s Most Spoken Languages
By Number of Individual Speakers Jamie and Rebecca’s Presentation
Rank Language No. of Speakers Large countries currently shifting world economic balance of power:
1 Mandarin Chinese 836 million China

Russia
2 (21) __________ 333 million India
(27) _______________
3 Spanish 332 million
Reasons for shift size of the populations
4 English (22) __________ cheap labour
prices of (28) _______________
World’s Most Spoken Languages
By Number of User Countries * Big growing demand for people knowing languages of above countries + for teachers
and English language training
Rank Language No. of Countries
* China could be less important than possibly India or (29) _______________ due to their
1 English 115 population increase. English will probably remain important though
2 French 35 * Number of spoken languages between approx. (30) _______________. Hardly any of
these studied by non native speakers
3 (23) __________ 24
* English taught in most countries with structured education program. This trend is getting
4 Spanish (24) __________ stronger.
World’s Most Influential Languages - 6 weighing factors
1 Number of primary speakers
2 Number of (25) __________
3 Number and population of countries where languages are used
4 Number of major fields using the language internationally
5 (26) __________ of countries using the language
6 Socio-literary prestige of the language

Complete the summary below of the second half of the humanities lecture on
Questions 31 - 35 BSE.
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SUMMARY
31 Mad cow disease attacks the ______________ of the affected cows’ brains.
CJD causes gradual loss of mental function and movement due to brain damage
32 BSE is thought to be caused by infectious forms of ______________ known as prions. from abnormal prions or it can be possibly (36) _______________. CJD usually
affects younger people (between ages 20 to 70) usually showing symptoms in

33 Abnormal prions in BSE infected cattle are found in the small intestines, ______________
and the central nervous tissues. patients’ (37) _______________. Symptoms include personality changes and
problems with (38) _______________. Once symptoms appear, the disorder

34 Humans can take in the abnormal prions when they eat infected beef as the prions are progresses quickly to disability and death.
resistant to the usual _______________ such as heat.
35 The one American case of CJD was a woman who caught it in _______________ before The exact causes of BSE are unknown but the first UK cases have indicated that
going to the US.
it could come from a prion disease in (39) _______________ called scrapie that
was fed to cattle. Dead cattle with scrapie were then fed to (40) _______________
making them cannibals. So, we are in turn infected by the disease that we created
when we eat infected beef.

ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 8
A wide number of mosquitoes, fleas, ticks, mites and lice have also been shown to be
vectors. This allows the spread of the virus to take place between colonies of rabbits and in
READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 - 13 the case of the fleas, allows rabbits from a different colony to become infected by coming into
contact with flea-infested carcasses of rabbits in warrens where all the occupants have been
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on killed by myxomatosis some months previously.
Reading Passage 1 below. The initial Australian epidemic continued during the next few years, spreading and
remaining highly virulent, especially in the summers when the mosquito population was at its
Myxomatosis is a highly lethal disease affecting rabbits caused by the myxoma virus. The highest. Epidemics were often started by the continued inoculation by farmers of the wild rabbit
disease was uncovered in South America in 1896 where it had a devastating effect on the rabbit population every summer and spring, a method still used today. However, the capacity for the
population there. It was found that it was mainly the European rabbit imported early that century virus to survive over the winter favoured a less lethal disease, and this, combined with genetic
that contracted the disease as resistance had been built up by the local populations. resistance, has resulted in a much reduced mortality rate, even though sporadic outbreaks of the
Up until recently rabbits have been extensively hunted for both their fur and their meat. original virulent virus sometimes occur.
This activity as well as the presence of other predators such as foxes and feral cats acted in the Rabbits which recover from myxomatosis are immune to re-infection for the rest of their
past to keep down the population of rabbits and man is still the main predator in South American lives. Also immune mothers pass passive immunity to their young. However, due to the short
countries. However, in other countries man has had a less and less important role as a predator lifetimes of rabbits, often little more than a year in the wild, this has little effect in practice. Of
and has in fact helped to reduce the population of the rabbits’ natural predators through habitat more importance has been the in-built genetic immunity of certain rabbits in the population.
destruction, urbanisation and cultivation. These changes have resulted in a precarious balance Survival of these rabbits, combined with their high reproduction rate and the death of the
of the rabbit population in many areas where any factors enhancing rabbit survival can result in competition, meant that a population of genetically more resistant rabbits was quickly built up.
a huge population boom. Rabbits compete with livestock and native herbivores for food. They Today myxomatosis in Australia kills only about 40% of infected rabbits but rabbit
are highly selective grazers that concentrate on the most nutritious plants, including seedlings, numbers are much lower than they would have been in the absence of this disease. However,
and eat them to below ground level. This can change the species composition of pastures and they still are a major pest in Australia and other methods for their eradication are being
reduce productivity. They act as competition for hares and other herbivores and grazing animals, investigated.
reducing the agricultural output of the land.
The European wild rabbit was introduced into Australia in 1759 when Thomas Austin
imported 24 rabbits from England where it was also an exotic animal, having been introduced
from Spain during the Norman conquests. He released the rabbits onto his property for sport
hunting. The rabbit spread so rapidly that it reached the Queensland - New South Wales border
by 1886. Almost all of the rabbits in Australia are descendants of the 24 original rabbits and are
genetically homogenous. This fact beyond all others might be the cause of the spectacular effect
the introduction of the virus had on the rabbit population as a whole. The lack of any herbivores
capable of competing with the rabbit for food and burrows resulted in the decline of many
species of native wildlife. This applied particularly to the small ground-dwelling mammals of the
arid lands. This situation was made worse by the lack of a large population of predators able to
deal with this new prey. However, to the human population of Australia, all of this was irrelevant
next to the economic loss caused by rabbits grazing on pasture used by sheep and other
herbivores, reducing the number of sheep capable of grazing per acre, and the loss of wool and
revenue thus caused.
It was not until 1950 that myxomatosis was successfully released among Australian
rabbits. This occurred after much debate, experimentation of what the effects of such a
drastic move would be and political wrangling. After a slow start the initial results fulfilled all
expectations with a mortality rate of over 90%. The virus spread most quickly during the summer
when the mosquito population was at its maximum, resulting in very successful transmission
of the virus between separate colonies. Myxomatosis is accompanied by a profuse ocular
discharge as well as a discharge from skin lesions, both of which are rich in virus. These
discharges allow transmission of the virus by direct contact. Transmission via the respiratory
tract is also possible if rare. Infection does not occur by feeding and therefore there is no faeco-
oral transmission.
Questions 1 - 5 8 Why were rabbits originally taken to Australia?
Look at the following 10 statements A - J. According to Reading Passage 1, 9 What are TWO things that rabbits challenge other Australian plant eating animals for?
FIVE statements are TRUE. The other FIVE statements are either FALSE or the
information is not given in the passage. Choose from the appropriate letters A - J
which statements are true and write them on your answer sheet for questions 1 - 5. 10 Which Australian raw material was particularly affected by the increase in Australian rabbit
The answers may be written in any order. numbers?
A Predators helped keep Australian rabbit numbers in check before the population boom. 11 What helped the spread of myxomatosis during the Australian summers?
B Rabbits can still infect other rabbits after they have died from myxomatosis.
12 What other factor has united with a more harmless form of the myxoma virus to allow more
C The rabbit is not a native animal to England. Australian rabbits to survive myxomatosis infection?
D Rabbits that recover from myxomatosis can still die if they are re-infected.
E Enthusiastic support of myxomatosis introduction into Australia ensured that the

introduction process went forward quickly.
Questions 13
F Selected wild Australian rabbits are injected every year with the myxoma virus.
From the list below choose the most suitable title for Reading Passage 1. Write the
G Discharge from the eyes of infected rabbits contributes to the spread of myxomatosis. appropriate letter (A - E) in box 13 on your answer sheet
H Interbreeding with Asian rabbit breeds has helped boost the Australian rabbits’ immunity
to myxomatosis. A A Threat to Humanity
I 60% of Australian rabbits are now unaffected by myxomatosis. B Australian Diseases
J The main reason for releasing myxomatosis into Australia was financial. C The Disease that Saved Australian Farmers
D The Genetics of Australian Rabbits
Questions 6 - 12 E The Pathology of Rabbit Infections
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER from Reading Passage 1,

answer the following questions.
6 Where are humans still the main threat to rabbits?
7 Apart from damage to their natural environment, what TWO other factors have reduced the
amount of animals that feed on rabbits?
READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 14 - 26 Conveyor Belt had shut down. Once the Gulf Stream was no longer flowing, it only took
a year or three for the last of the residual heat held in the North Atlantic Ocean to dissipate into
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 26 which are based on the air over Europe and then there was no more warmth to moderate the northern latitudes.
Reading Passage 2 on the following page. When the summer stopped in the north, the rains stopped around the equator. At the same time
that Europe was plunged into an Ice Age, the Middle East and Africa were ravaged by drought
and wind-driven firestorms. If the Great Conveyor Belt, which includes the Gulf Stream, were to
The Cause of the Next Ice Age? stop flowing today, the result would be sudden and dramatic. Winter would set in for the eastern
half of North America and all of Europe and Siberia and never go away. Within three years,
If you look at a globe, you’ll see that the latitude of much of Europe and Scandinavia is those regions would become uninhabitable and nearly two billion humans would starve, freeze
the same as that of Alaska and permafrost-locked parts of northern Canada and central Siberia. to death or have to relocate. Civilization as we know it probably couldn’t withstand the impact of
Yet Europe has a climate more similar to that of the United States than northern Canada or such a crushing blow.
Siberia. It turns out that our warmth is the result of ocean currents that bring warm surface Most scientists involved in research on this topic agree that the culprit is global warming,
water up from the equator into northern regions that would otherwise be so cold that even in which melts the icebergs on Greenland and the Arctic icepack and thus flushes cold, fresh water
summer they’d be covered with ice. The current of greatest concern is often referred to as the down into the Greenland Sea from the north diluting its salinity. When a critical threshold is
Great Conveyor Belt which includes what we call the Gulf Stream. This is mostly driven by reached, the climate will suddenly switch to an ice age that could last minimally 700 or so years,
the force created by differences in water temperatures and salinity. The North Atlantic Ocean and maximally 100,000 years. No one knows when it will happen but what’s almost certain is
is saltier and colder than the Pacific. As a result, the warm water of the Great Conveyor Belt that if nothing is done about global warming, it will happen sooner rather than later.
evaporates out of the North Atlantic leaving behind saltier waters which are cooled by the cold
continental winds off the northern parts of North America. Salty, cool waters settle to the bottom
of the sea, most at a point a few hundred kilometres south of the southern tip of Greenland, Questions 14 - 18
producing a whirlpool of falling water that’s 5 to 10 miles across. This falling column of cold,
salt-laden water pours itself to the bottom of the Atlantic, where it forms a great undersea river Read the passage The Cause of the Next Ice Age? again and look at the
forty times larger than all the rivers on land combined, flowing south down to and around the
southern tip of Africa where it finally reaches the Pacific. Amazingly, the water is so deep and
statements below.
so dense that it often doesn’t surface in the Pacific for as much as a thousand years after it first
sank in the North Atlantic off the coast of Greenland. In boxes 14 - 18 on your answer sheet write:
The out-flowing undersea river of cold, salty water makes the level of the Atlantic
fractionally lower than that of the Pacific, drawing in a strong surface current of warm, fresher TRUE if the statement is true
water from the Pacific to replace the outflow of the undersea river. This warmer, fresher water
slides up through the South Atlantic, loops around North America where it’s known as the
Gulf Stream, and ends up off the coast of Europe. By the time it arrives near Greenland, it’s
cooled off and evaporated enough water to become cold and salty and sink to the ocean floor,
providing a continuous feed for that deep-sea river flowing to the Pacific. These two flows - NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the text
warm, fresher water in from the Pacific, which then grows salty and cools and sinks to form an
exiting deep sea river - are known as the Great Conveyor Belt.
Prior to the last decades it was thought that the periods between glaciations and warmer 14 Another name for the Great Conveyer Belt is the better known name the Gulf Stream.
times in North America, Europe, and North Asia were gradual. We knew from the fossil record
that the Great Ice Age period began a few million years ago and during those years there
were times when for hundreds or thousands of years North America, Europe, and Siberia were 15 The surface of the Atlantic Ocean is higher than the surface of the Pacific Ocean.
covered with thick sheets of ice year round. In between these icy times, there were periods
when the glaciers thawed, bare land was exposed, forests grew, and land animals (including
early humans) moved into these northern regions. Most scientists figured the transition time 16 The last time the Great Conveyer Belt shut down it caused the deaths of thousands.
from icy to warm was gradual, lasting dozens to hundreds of years and nobody was sure
exactly what had caused it. Recently however, scientists have been shocked to discover that
the transitions from ice age-like weather to contemporary-type weather usually took only two or 17 The arrival of cooler water in the Pacific Ocean affects the weather there too.
three years. Something was flipping the weather of the planet back and forth with a rapidity that
was startling.
What brought on this sudden effect was that the warm-water currents of the Great 18 Global warming has caused the North Atlantic Ocean to become less salty.
Questions 19 - 23 READING PASSAGE 3 Questions 27 - 40
Complete each of the following statements (Questions 19 - 23) with words taken from You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27 – 40 which are based on
Reading Passage 2. Reading Passage 3 on the following pages.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Malaria
Write your answers in boxes 19 - 23 on your answer sheet. A
Approximately 300 million people worldwide are affected by malaria and between 1 and 1.5
million people die from it every year. Previously extremely widespread, malaria is now mainly
19 The author points out the reason why Europe is not __________ like other countries of the
confined to Africa, Asia and Latin America. The problem of controlling malaria in these countries
same latitude.
is aggravated by inadequate health structures and poor socio-economic conditions. The situation
has become even more complex over the last few years with the increase in resistance to the
drugs normally used to combat the parasite that causes the disease.
20 The author likens the north – south flow of the Great Conveyer Belt to a __________.
B
21 Scientist can date the last great Ice Age thanks to __________.
Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium. Four species of Plasmodium
can produce the disease in its various forms: plasmodium falciparum, plasmodium vivax,
22 Lately there has been a __________ discovery that the change from today’s temperate plasmodium ovale and plasmodium malaria. Plasmodium falciparum is the most widespread
style weather to ice age weather was in fact a fast change. and dangerous of the four: untreated it can lead to fatal cerebral malaria. Malaria parasites are
transmitted from one person to another by the female anopheline mosquito. The males do not
transmit the disease as they feed only on plant juices. There are about 380 species of anopheline
23 The author identifies the __________ for the possible shutting down of the Great Conveyer mosquito, but only 60 or so are able to transmit the parasite. Their sensitivity to insecticides is
Belt as being global warming. also highly variable.
Plasmodium develops in the gut of the mosquito and is passed on in the saliva of an infected
Questions 24 - 26 insect each time it takes a new blood meal. The parasites are then carried by the blood into the
victim’s liver where they invade the cells and multiply. After nine to sixteen days they return to the
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER from Reading Passage 2, blood and penetrate the red cells where they multiply again, progressively breaking down the red
answer the following questions. cells. This induces bouts of fever and anaemia in the infected individual. In the case of cerebral
malaria the infected red cells obstruct the blood vessels in the brain. Other vital organs can also
Write your answers in boxes 24 - 26 on your answer sheet. be damaged often leading to the death of the patient.
D
24 What do the sinking waters create on the surface of the North Atlantic Ocean?
Malaria is diagnosed by the clinical symptoms and microscopic examination of the blood. It can
normally be cured by anti-malarial drugs. The symptoms - fever, shivering, pain in the joints
25 How long can it take for water leaving the surface near Greenland to travel through the and headache - quickly disappear once the parasite is killed. In certain regions, however, the
Great Conveyer Belt to the surface of the Pacific Ocean? parasites have developed resistance to certain anti-malarial drugs, particularly chloroquine.
Patients in these areas require treatment with other more expensive drugs. In endemic regions
where transmission rates are high, people are continually infected so that they gradually
26 If the Great Conveyer Belt stopped, what would be the maximum amount of time for it to develop immunity to the disease. Until they have acquired such immunity, children remain highly
stop heating northern Europe? vulnerable. Pregnant women are also highly susceptible since the natural defence mechanisms
are reduced during pregnancy. Questions 27 - 33
E The reading passage on Malaria has 8 paragraphs (A – H).
Malaria has been known since time immemorial but it was centuries before the true causes were From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for
understood. Surprisingly in view of this some ancient treatments were remarkably effective.
An infusion of qinghao containing artemisinin has been used for at least the last 2000 years in
paragraphs B – H.
China and the antifebrile properties of the bitter bark of Cinchona Ledgeriana were known in
Peru before the 15th century. Quinine, the active ingredient of this potion, was first isolated in Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 27 – 33 on your answer sheet.
1820 by the pharmacists. Although people were unaware of the origin of malaria and the mode
of transmission, protective measures against the mosquito have been used for many hundreds NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
of years. The inhabitants of swampy regions in Egypt were recorded as sleeping in tower-like
structures out of the reach of mosquitoes, whereas others slept under nets as early as 450 B.C.
F i Old Remedies
Malaria has social consequences and is a heavy burden on economic development. It is ii Fatality Rates
estimated that a single bout of malaria costs a sum equivalent to over 10 working days in
Africa. The cost of treatment is between $US0.08 and $US5.30 according to the type of drugs iii Shifting Demographics Cause Further Problems
prescribed as determined by local drug resistance. In 1987 the total cost of malaria - health care,
treatment, lost production, etc. - was estimated to be $US800 million for tropical Africa and this iv The Current Situation
figure is currently estimated to be more than $US1800 million.
v The Bug and its Carriers
G
vi Total Elimination of Malaria
The significance of malaria as a health problem is increasing in many parts of the world.
vii Tackling Malaria Today
Epidemics are even occurring around traditionally endemic zones in areas where transmission
had been eliminated. These outbreaks are generally associated with deteriorating social and
viii Transmission to Humans and Effects
economic conditions and the main victims are underprivileged rural populations. Economic
and political pressures compel entire populations to leave malaria free areas and move into
ix Local African Medicine
endemic zones. People who are non-immune are at high risk of severe disease. Unfortunately,
these population movements and the intensive urbanisation are not always accompanied by
x Malaria’s Effect on the Community
adequate development of sanitation and health care. In many areas conflict, economic crises
and administrative disorganization can result in the disruption of health services. The absence
xi Identification
of adequate health services frequently results in recourse to self-administration of drugs often
with incomplete treatment. This is a major factor in the increase in resistance of the parasites to
previously effective drugs.
H Example Answer
The hope of global eradication of malaria was finally abandoned in 1969 when it was recognised Paragraph A iv
that this was unlikely ever to be achieved. Ongoing control programs remain essential in endemic
areas. In all situations control programs should be based on half a dozen objectives: provision
of early diagnosis, prompt treatment to all people at risk, selective application of sustainable 27 Paragraph B
preventive measures, vector control adapted to the local situations, the development of reliable
information on infection risk and assessment of living conditions of concerned populations.
Malaria is a complex disease but it is a curable and preventable one. 28 Paragraph C
29 Paragraph D Questions 37 - 40
Complete the following statements (Questions 37 - 40) with the best ending from the
30 Paragraph E
box below (A - H) according to the information in the reading passage Malaria.
31 Paragraph F Write the appropriate letter (A - H) in boxes 37 - 40 on your answer sheet.
There are more sentence endings (A - H) than questions so you will not need to use
32 Paragraph G them all.
33 Paragraph H
37 Anopheline mosquitoes…
38 Parasites located in victims’ livers…
Questions 34 - 36
39 Unfinished courses of anti-malarial drugs…
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of Reading
Passage 3 Malaria?
40 Control programs to protect people from malaria…
NO if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer

A …have finally been eradicated.
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this B …are not always affected by insecticides.
C …are the results of incompetent doctors.
D …are always female.

34 Ancient Peruvian doctors were famous for their malarial treatment.
E …have been taken for hundreds of years.
35 Children are always under great threat from malaria. F …should be based on seven clear goals.
G …have resulted in parasitic resistance to treatment.

36 Poorer people are usually more at risk from malaria.
H …are later found again in the bloodstream.

WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. Success is something which most people try to achieve. What can success mean to
different people? What is your view of success?
The two pie charts below show the marital status of Australia’s and Canada’s
populations for 1999 and 2000 respectively. You should write at least 250 words.
Marital Status of Australia’s Population, 1999
3%
53%
29%
7%
7%
1%
Marital Status of Canada’s Population, 2000
2%
41%
46%
5%
6%

Section 1
PRACTICE TEST 9
* Do you work or study? - What job do you do? / What job would you like to do?
*
*
What hours do you work? / What hours would you like to work?
At what age would you like to stop working?
Topic 1 Taking Photographs SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10

* How often do you take photographs? Questions 1 - 5
* Why do people take photographs?
* Do you like being in photographs? (Why/Why not?)
* What’s your favourite photograph? (Why?)
Circle the correct letters A - C.
Topic 2 Sleep Example
* How many hours a night do you sleep? When was the last time that John and Frank saw each other?
* How many hours sleep a night do you think people need?
* Do you ever find it difficult to fall asleep? (Why/Why not?) A 9 years
* Do you think it’s a good idea to have a short sleep during the day? (Why/Why not?) B 10 years
C 11 years
Section 2
Describe a memorable journey you have taken 1 What is John’s job?

You should say:
where you went
how long it took A Doctor
why you went on it B Teacher
and explain why it was so memorable for you C Chemist
2 Which of the following continents did John not visit on his travels?
Section 3
A Europe
Topic 1 Changes in Travelling B Africa
C North America
* What’s the best way to travel around your country?
* Could you compare how people travel today with how they used to travel 50 years ago? 3 What’s Frank’s job?
* What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of being able to travel around the
world so easily nowadays? A Journalist
* Do you feel that the globalisation of big business is a good or bad thing for the world? B Travel writer
C College lecturer
Topic 2 Flying
4 How many children do Frank and Liz have?
* How often do you travel by plane?
* Do you think flying is justified when you take into account how much pollution it produces? A 0
* Could you compare travelling by plane and travelling by train? B 2
* How do you think we will replace flying when we run out of fossil fuels? C 3
5 When did John and Kate get married? SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20
A the last year of college Questions 11 - 14
B the year after graduation
C 2 years after graduation
What FOUR sports facilities are currently NOT available at the Westley University
Sports Centre.
Questions 6 - 10 football hockey basketball badminton
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. martial arts netball trampolines aerobics
6 What time should Frank and Liz go to dinner? modern dance spinning yoga weight training
__________________
aerobic training running machines squash football
7 What’s Frank’s mobile phone number?
swimming pool rugby cricket hockey
__________________
Questions 15 - 20
8 What’s on the other side of the road from John and Kate’s flat?
Complete the student’s notes below.
__________________
9 What does Liz NOT like to eat? Joining the Sports Centre
__________________ To be student member of Sports Centre you must be full time/part time at uni. + Students’ Union
member. Come with NUS card to Sports Centre reception between 9.00am and 3.30pm from
(15) __________ to Saturday.
Questions 10
Present NUS card, fill out application form and pay subscription. Student subscription is
Circle the correct letter A - C. (16) __________. Pay by cash or cheque; not credit cards.
10 Which bell button is the one for John and Kate’s flat? No photos necessary; (17) __________ at reception.
Members can use the facilities at any time. Because of (18) __________ members must show
membership card every time they come in.
A ☼ B ☼ C ☼ Replacement cards cost (19) __________.
☼ ☼ ☼
Members can book courts, not by phone, with membership cards.
☼ ☼ ☼
☼ ☼ ☼ Opening Times (7 days a week) Monday to Saturday
Sunday
(20) __________
9.00am to 6.00pm

Questions 21 - 25
Answer questions 21 - 25 below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A
26 The students will have a choice of _______________ titles for this semester’s extended
essay.
21 What subject does Professor Cameron teach?
27 Professor Cameron says that he will look at _______________ until the end of April.
___________________________
22 What time will next week’s seminar be?

28 This semester’s extended essay word limit range is between _______________.
___________________________
29 The students extended essay for this semester will be based on _______________ at the
23 To what problem of Maggie’s does Professor Cameron refer?
university’s facilities.
___________________________
30 Rob will be able to help students at _______________.
24 Who has the students’ extended essays from the last semester?
___________________________
25 How many students did badly in last semester’s extended essay?
___________________________

Questions 31 - 36 Are the following statements TRUE or FALSE.
Complete the Megalodon description below. 37 The speaker gives another example of a fish that everyone mistakenly thought was extinct.

38 In 1918, a giant shark attacked some Port Stephens fishermen killing one of them.
THE MEAGALODON (Carcharadon Megalodon) - the largest predator that ever lived on Earth 39 The Port Stephens fishermen all agreed with each other on their description of the shark
that they saw.
Size
* 12 m + (possibly up to 15m or 31m) 40 The Megalodon sighting near Broughton Island happened again the next day.
* About 3 X length of Great White Shark (estimates from fossilized teeth + vertebrae)
Teeth
* Size of (31) _________________

* Very hard and fossilised well unlike all other parts of sharks’ cartilage skeletons
* Bone-like material coated with (32) _________________
* Like Great White Shark teeth but bigger, thicker + more finely serrated
Appearance
* Possibly like a huge, streamlined Great White Shark
Jaws
* Open (33) _________________ wide and 7 feet high; could swallow enormous objects
* Loosely attached by ligaments and muscles to the skull
* Teeth probably located in rotating rows
* First two rows of teeth for (34) _________________, others rotate into place as needed
* Lost, broken or worn teeth replaced by new ones
* Did not chew food; gulped whole large chunks
Diet
* Mainly whales.
* Sharks eat approx. (35) _________________ of body weight daily
* Remains of whales with (36) _________________ indicate predator - prey relationship

ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 9 it has also been credited for certain things. John Fancher, a critic of phrenology,
states that it was a curious mixture, combining some keen observations and insights with
an inappropriate scientific procedure. Most criticism is aimed at the poor methods used by
READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 - 14 phrenologists and the tangent from standard scientific procedure in investigating.
Pierre Flourens was also appalled by the shoddy methods of phrenologists and was
determined to study the functions of the brain strictly by experiment. The specific technique that
Flourens used was ablation, the surgical removal of certain small parts of the brain. Flourens
Reading Passage 1 below. was a very skilled surgeon and used ablation to cleanly excise certain slices from the brain. He
ablated precisely determined portions of bird, rabbit, and dog brains. Flourens then observed
the behavior of his subject. Since, for obvious ethical reasons, he was only able to use animals,
PHRENOLOGY – INTERPRETING THE MIND he could not test uniquely human faculties. He never tested or measured any behaviour until
he nursed his subjects back to health after their operations. Flourens’s subjects did show a
Phrenology is the doctrine that proposes that psychological traits of personality, intellect,
lowering of all functions but not just one function as Gall’s theory would have predicted. Gall
temperament, and character are ascertainable from analysis of the protrusions and depressions
asserted that he wiped out many organs all at once when he ablated part of the brain. This
in the skull. It was an idea created by Franz Joseph Gall in 1796. Gall referred to his new idea
explained the general lowering of all functions in many of his subjects. Despite attacks from
in English as cranioscopy. It was only later that Johanne Spurzheim, one of Gall’s students,
Flourens and others, phrenology held its appeal to scientists in Europe who would bring the idea
labeled the idea phrenology after Gall’s death. Gall’s idea was spurred when he noticed that
across to America where it would flourish.
university classmates who could memorize great amounts of information with relative ease
seemed to have prominent eyes and large foreheads. He speculated that other internal
qualities, besides memory, might be indicated by an external feature also. Gall theorised that Questions 1 – 8
traits were located in particular regions of the brain. Enlargements or depressions in the brain
in particular areas meant a greater than normal or less than normal quantity of the given trait. It Answer questions 1 - 8 below by writing the initials of the phrenology scientist to
was assumed that the external contour of the skull accurately reflected the external contour of which the questions refer in boxes 1- 8 on your answer sheet. The initials of the
the brain where traits were localized. phrenology scientists are in the table on the folowing page.
Carl Cooter, another advocate of phrenology asserted that there were five major parts to
phrenology theory. The first was simply that the brain was the organ of the mind. The second NB In one question you must write the initials of TWO phrenology scientists.
was that the brain was not a homogeneous unity, but a compilation of mental organs with
specific functions. The third was that the organs were topographically localised. The fourth
was that the relative size of any one of the organs could be taken as a measure of that organ’s 1 Which phrenology scientist did not use the term phrenology?
power over the person’s behaviour. The fifth and final part of Cooter’s theory was that external
craniological features could be used to diagnose the internal state of the mental faculties. All of 2 Which phrenology scientist theorised that you could identify people’s morality using
these parts were based on observations Cooter made. phrenology?
Sebastian Leibl, a student of Cooter’s, theorized that there could be anywhere from 27 to
38 regions on the skull indicative of the organs of the brain, each of which stood for a different 3 Which phrenology scientist theorised that the size of certain parts of human brains would
personality characteristic. Leibl further theorised that the different regions of the brain would increase if they were used a lot?
grow or shrink with usage, just as muscles will grow larger when exercised. If a certain part of
the brain grew from increased use, the skull covering that part of the brain would bulge out to 4 Which TWO phrenology scientists did not agree with the way phrenologists came to their
make room for the expanded brain tissue. With these assumptions, the bumps on one’s skull conclusions?
could be felt and the abilities and personality traits of a person could be assessed.
Spurzheim put a more metaphysical and philosophical spin on Gall’s concept when he 5 Which phrenology scientist theorised that the size of a certain part of the brain
named it phrenology, meaning “science of the mind”. To Spurzheim phrenology was the science corresponds to that part of the brain’s influence over a person’s actions?
that could tell people what they are and why exactly they are who they are. Spurzheim wrote
that the premise of phrenology was to use the methods to identify individuals who stood out 6 Which phrenology scientist theorised that the human brain was a collection of cerebral
at both poles of society: those with a propensity for making important social contributions and organs?
those with a greater than normal tendency for evil. The former were to be encouraged, nurtured,
and developed in order to maximize their potential for good. The latter needed to be curbed and 7 Which phrenology scientist was an expert at performing operations?
segregated to protect society from their predisposition to be harmful to others.
Phrenology has met up with a good deal of criticism since it was proposed, but over time 8 Which phrenology scientist proposed theories based on his observations of colleagues?
The Phrenology Scientists
FG Franz Joseph Gall Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
CC Carl Cooter
DETECTING DECEPTION
SL Sebastian Leibl
According to lay theory there exist three core basic signs for spotting liars. These are
JS Johanne Spurzheim speaking quickly and excessive fluctuations in pitch of voice, the liar becoming fidgety and
hesitant when questioned on detail, and failure to make eye-contact. There is nothing too
perplexing about that. Yet, a good liar will be just as aware of these as the person they’re lying
JF John Fancher
to and thus will ensure that eye contact especially is evident. Shifty eyes can indicate that
someone is feeling emotional perhaps from a lie, or perhaps just from nerves as a result of
PF Pierre Flourens lying. Of course, this does not apply to instances where eye contact is non-existent, like during
a telephone conversation. Psychologist Paul Eckman states that extensive use of details can
make lies more believable. But they can also often trip up the liar. If the details change or
Questions 9 - 14 contradict each other, you should suspect you’re being had.
There exists an intrinsic link between emotional connections and effective lying. The
notion is that it is harder to lie to those whom we know well and care for. There are two reasons
Read the passage Phrenology - Interpreting the Mind again and look at the
for this: firstly, those close to us are more aware of our mannerisms and behavioural patterns
statements below. and can more readily detect our default lying techniques. The second reason is that people
we don’t know lack the emotional response that people we are close to have regarding lying.
In boxes 9 - 14 on your answer sheet write: Robert Galatzer-Levy, MD, a psychoanalyst in private practice, reasons that, “The good liar
doesn’t feel bad or have a guilty conscience, so it’s much more difficult to pick up on cues that
TRUE if the statement is true they are lying.” This is why it is apparently so easy for salesmen and politicians alike to lie so
effortlessly.
Recently a lot of politicians have been making outrageous claims about their ability to tell
FALSE if the statement is false when a person is lying. Many lay people apparently believe that people can make a pretty good
assessment of when a person is lying or not. Research illustrates, however, that nothing could
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the text be further from the truth.
University of Maryland professor, Patricia Wallace, an expert on deception detection
states, “Psychological research on deception shows that most of us are poor judges of
truthfulness and this applies even to professionals such as police and customs inspectors
9 Flourens conducted brain experiments on human patients. whose jobs are supposed to include some expertise at lie detection.” She then goes on to
describe two of the many experiments in the psychological research literature which support
10 The theories of phrenology thrived in America. this contention.
The first study was conducted in 1987 and looked at whether police officers could be
11 Gall theorised that phrenology could only indicate memory ability. trained to detect deceptive eye witness statements. They watched videotaped statements of
witnesses, some of whom were truthful and others who were not. They were told to pay close
12 Flourens worked with Fancher to investigate phrenology using standard scientific attention to non-verbal cues, such as body movements and posture, gestures, and facial
experiments. expressions. They were also instructed to pay attention to the tempo and pitch of voices. In
the end, however, the officers did only slightly better than chance at determining whether the
13 Gall also conducted experiments on live subjects. witnesses were being truthful. And the more confident the officer was of his or her judgment, the
more likely he or she was to be wrong.
14 Spurzheim’s theories were used by governments as a rationale to segregate certain Airline customs inspectors, whose very job is to try and determine suspiciousness and
undesirable parts of society. lying, and lay people were used in another experiment. The inspectors and lay people in this
19 Not looking people in the eye was one technique used by the airline customs inspectors to
experiment weren’t given any specific training or instructions on what to look for. They were
help successfully spot liars.
simply told to judge the truthfulness of mock inspection interviews viewed on videotape and
determine whether the passenger was carrying contraband and lying about it. The “passengers”
being interviewed were actually paid volunteers whose job it was to try and fool the inspectors.
20 Patricia Wallace has carried out at least two deception experiments.
Neither lay people nor inspectors did much better than chance. When questioned about what
types of signs they looked for to determine lying behavior, the inspectors and lay people relied
largely on preconceived notions about liars in general: liars will give short answers, volunteer Questions 21 - 24
extra information, show poor eye contact and nervous movements and evade questions.
What nearly all deception experiments have in common to date is that they use
videotape instead of live people in their design. Some might argue that it is this very difference
which politicians and others are trying to emphasize. This is that people can’t tell when people Reading Passage 2.
are lying on videotape but can when the person is there, live, in front of them. Without research
teasing out these subtle differences, however, it would be a leap of logic to simply assume Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
that something is missing in a videotaped interview. This is a seemingly baseless assumption.
A person interviewed on videotape is very much live to the people doing the interviewing. It is Write your answers in boxes 21 - 24 on your answer sheet.
simply a recording of a live event. While there may be differences, we simply don’t know that
any indeed exist. Without that knowledge, anyone who claims to know is simply speaking from
ignorance or prejudice.
21 It has been put forward that politicians use the _____________ between speaking live and
The conclusions from this research are obvious. Trained professionals and untrained lay
on television to help them fool people.
people, in general, cannot tell when a person is lying. If you’ve known someone for years, your
chances for detecting truthfulness are likely higher, but strangers trying to guess truthfulness in
other strangers will do no better than chance in their accuracy.
22 Liars are often _____________ the things that people look for in liars.
Questions 15 - 20 23 Two vocal clues that policemen listened for in their experiment were _____________.
Do the following statements reflect the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2?
24 _____________ were used to try and fool the airline customs inspectors and lay people.
In boxes 15 - 20 on your answer sheet write:
YES if the statement agrees with the information Questions 25 - 27
NO if the statement contradicts the statement Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER from Reading Passage 2,
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage answer the following questions.
15 Tactics that liars use to trick people frequently give them away.
25 Apart from television, what example does the text give of conversation when people don’t
16 Good liars show less emotional response to the fact that they are lying. look each other in the eye?
17 In the two experiments described in the text, the police performed better than the airline 26 Who have recently asserted that they can spot liars easily?
customs inspectors.
27 What is the similarity in most psychological lying research?

18 The preparation for both experiments described in the text were very similar.
E
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on The demand for paper also created the need for greater efficiency in production. In the late 18th
Reading Passage 3 below. century the labours of Nicholas Luis Robert resulted in the creation of a machine that could
produce a seamless length of paper on an endless wire mesh with squeeze rollers at one end.
The History of Paper Perfected and marketed by the Fourdrinier brothers, the new machine made papers that soon
replaced traditional single sheets made by hand. In Europe and America, the mass-production
A of paper became a thriving industry supplying huge volumes of paper for a huge variety of
purposes.
When we think of the origins of paper, our minds might wander back over 5000 years ago to the
Nile river valley in Egypt. It was there that a marsh grass called Cyperous Papyrus flourished. F
The Egyptians cut thin strips from the plant’s stem and softened them in the muddy waters of
the Nile. These strips were then layered in right angles to form a kind of mat. The mat was then Papermaking in essence is a simple process. Whether using recycled materials or fresh organic
pounded into a thin sheet and left in the sun to dry. The resulting sheets were ideal for writing on. matter, the process starts as the material is shredded into small strips and soaked overnight to
Since they were also lightweight and portable they became the writing medium of choice of the loosen the fibres. Next, the fibres are boiled for 2 to 6 hours, being turned every so often. When
Egyptians, Greeks and Romans for record keeping, spiritual texts and works of art. finished, the fibres are washed with fresh water to remove impurities and then small particles or
specks are removed by hand. The fibres are beaten in a blender creating a creamy pulp. At this
B stage, dyes can be added to create coloured papers. The pulp is then poured into a large tub
and the fibres are suspended in the water. Framed screens are lowered into the water and then
Paper as we know it today comes from another source, China. It wasn’t until the 3rd century lifted to the surface catching the fibres onto the screen. The screens are then dried, pressed and
that the secret art of papermaking began to creep out of China, first to Vietnam and later to smoothed.
India. It made its true push westward in 751AD when the Tang Dynasty was at war with the
Islamic world. During a battle on the banks of the Tarus River, Islamic warriors captured a G
Chinese caravan which happened to include several papermakers. They spirited them away to
Samarkand, which soon became a great centre for paper production. Finally, when the Moors In the west, as industrial paper production boomed, the art of hand paper-making has been
from North Africa invaded Spain and Portugal they brought the technology with them and so it driven nearly to extinction - being practiced only by a few fine artists and crafts people. However,
was that papermaking entered Europe in the 12th century. in small areas throughout Asia, the tradition has lived on through regular and rice paper made
by hand. Incidentally, the traditional Asian paper which is often referred to as “rice paper” is not
C made from rice fibres at all. More commonly it is made from the versatile mulberry tree - varieties
of which are also used for feeding silkworms and in medicine. In contrast to the cold precision
In Europe, the use of papyrus had dropped out in the 9th century. The preferred medium for the and standardisation which industrial production demands, the soft, subtle textures and natural
artists and literati of the time was the smooth and lustrous parchment. However, parchment - feeling of handmade paper is said to echo the warm heart of the papermaker who makes each
made from animal skin - was extremely expensive. The notion of paper being used as a practical sheet with devotion.
everyday item did not occur until the 15th Century when Johann Gutenburg perfected movable
type and sparked off a revolution in mass communication. The birth of the modern paper and H
printing industry is commonly marked from this time.
The new Millennium will be dominated by the tremendous progress that has been made
D in computer science, thus triggering a complete change in our commercial and private
communication and information behaviour. Does this mean that the paper era will come to an
Printing technology rapidly developed and created an ever increasing demand for paper. Early end? The answer is most definitely “No”. Clearly there will be a huge amount of data being
european paper was made from recycled cotton and linen - and a huge trade quickly developed generated electronically, but the issue is how to preserve it. The difficulties of data storage over
around the trading of old rags. It is said that the black plague entered England from Europe on a long period of time are well known (for example, the durability of disks; frequent changes
these old rags. Others experimented with fibres such as straw, cabbage, wasp nests and finally of hardware and software, electronic breakdowns etc.). Once again, paper offers the most
wood. This resulted in inexpensive - and replaceable - materials for paper making. Today, the convenient and durable storage option.
long soft fibres of softwoods such as spruce have become the most suitable source of pulp for
mass production.
Questions 28 - 34 30 Paragraph D
The reading passage on The History of Paper has 8 paragraphs A – H.

31 Paragraph E
B – H. 32 Paragraph F

33 Paragraph G
34 Paragraph H
Example Answer
Paragraph A iv Questions 35 - 38
Look at the following 8 statements A - H. According to Reading Passage 3, which

FOUR statements are TRUE? The other four statements are either false or the
i Arabian Expertise information is not given in the passage. Choose from the appropriate letters, A - H,
and write them on your answer sheet for questions 35 - 38. The answers may be
ii Traditional Paper Producers written in any order.
iii Superstition
A Today’s style of paper originated in Egypt.
iv The Origins of Paper
v The Development of Mass Production B Papyrus style paper was employed up to the 18th century.
vi The Journey to the West

C There is a story that disease was spread due to the great demand for paper.
vii The Prospects for Paper
viii The Age of Experimentation D The author cites reasons why computer technology is not dependable.
ix The Father of Modern Paper

E Rice Paper has been used in medicine.
x The Modern Process
xi A Change of Material F Paper was not used extensively until movable type was commonly used.
28 Paragraph B G Robert’s invention led to the redundancy of the hand made paper industry.
29 Paragraph C H Today paper is no longer hand made.

Questions 39 and 40 ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 9
Using the information in the passage, complete the flow chart below.
WRITING TASK 1
Write your answers in boxes 39 and 40 on your answer sheet.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
The two line graphs below show different New Zealand import figures from Australia
The Paper Production Process and Japan.

The paper raw material is (eg) ____________ and then Answer
saturated in water. shredded You should write at least 150 words.
The sodden material is then boiled while being turned periodically.
Material fibres are washed and checked manually.
Fibres are then blended to (39) _________________.
Colouring added if desired and mixed with water.
(40) _________________ are dipped into the liquid.
Liquid paper is then pressed, smoothed and dried.
Dried paper is cut packaged and distributed.

Section 1
* Describe the town where you live?
The American film industry has too much influence on the film industry around the * Describe the countryside outside your town?
world. Governments have a duty to invest money in their own film industries in order * What’s the weather like in your town?
to protect and develop their own culture.
Topic 1 Driving
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement?
* What do you think is the best age for people to learn to drive?
You should write at least 250 words. * What advice would you give someone who is about to drive for 5 hours?
* How can we reduce the amount of traffic on our roads?
* Do you think it should be law to wear a seat belt in the front and back seats of cars?
Topic 2 The Telephone
* How often do you use the telephone?

* Do you ever turn your phone off? (Why/Why not?)
* Do you think the mobile phone is a good thing or a bad thing? (Why?)
* If you were having dinner with someone, would you keep your phone on or off? (Why?)
Section 2
Describe a memorable book you have read

You should talk about:
its name and the person/people who wrote it
what it was about/what happened
why you read it
and explain why it was so memorable for you
Section 3
Topic 1 Books
* How can we encourage young people to read more books?

* Is there a future for books and libraries with the rise in popularity of the internet?
* What kind of skills does a person need to write a book?
* Would you like to write a book? (Why/Why not?)
Topic 2 Information Technology and Computers
* How has the computer affected society in your country?

* Do you think computer skills should be taught in schools? (Why/Why not?)
* How do you think computer technology and IT will develop in the future?
* Could you comment on the idea that the introduction of computers has enormously
increased unemployment?

PRACTICE TEST 10 Complete the list of Norma’s valuables below.
HiFi
ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 10 TV
(6) ____________________
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Video player
Couple of radios
(7) ____________________
Questions 1 - 5 Laptop
Printer
Complete the form below. DVDs
CDs
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Jewelry - necklaces, (8) ____________________, rings + brooches
Questions 9 and 10
Tennants Insurance Brokers
Car Insurance Form Circle the correct letters A - C.
Example Answer
9 Which list, A, B or C, correctly assesses the protection for Norma’s flat?
Client’s Name Mrs. Norma Willis
A B
Ground floor flat Ground floor flat
Address Flat 8 neighbourhood watch scheme dead bolt lock
(1) ____________________ motion sensor burglar alarm
Dene Road double glazed windows + extra locks motion sensor
Westley smoke alarm double glazed windows + extra locks
Postcode (2) ____________________
smoke alarm
Home Tel. none yet
C
Mobile Tel. (3) ____________________ 1st floor flat
dead bolt lock
Car Make Toyota burglar alarm connected with police station
Model MR2 motion sensor
Age (4) ____________________ double glazed windows + extra locks
Engine Size 2 litre smoke alarm
Garaged YES / NO
10 What does Norma buy at the end?
No Claims Bonus (5) ____________________
A Car insurance only
Endorsements 3 points
B Contents insurance only
C Car insurance + Contents insurance
Questions 11 - 15
Questions 21 - 25
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A Circle the correct letter A - C.
21 According to Nick the first Australian immigrants were:

11 Where will the future residence launderette be?
A The ancestors of aborigines
B Petty criminals
12 What special facility does Betty offer at the Launderette? C Sailors
22 What was the name of the first British colony in Australia?

13 Which number bus does Simon advise Jo to take?
A Victoria
B New South Wales
14 Where can students get advice on Council Tax? C New London
23 When was the White Australia Policy started?

15 Where does Simon say that Bill should register for his Council Tax?
A Just after the first colony expanded
B After Australian Federation
C After World War II
Questions 16 - 20 24 Why was there bad feeling towards many Chinese immigratants in the 1850s?
Complete the sentences below. A They opened restaurants

B They were searching for gold
C They would work for less money than the local Australians
25 When were Asian students first allowed to study at Australian universities?
16 If there is a fire, residents should meet on _______________. A 1950
B 1957
C 1973
17 Fire practices are held every _______________.
18 If you want to watch a _______________, do so in your own room.
18 Strangely enough the Chinese family sells _______________.
20 Simon suggests asking for a _______________ when residents order a meal from a
takeaway.
Complete Adrian’s notes below.
Questions 31 - 36
Complete the lecture notes below.
Australian Immigration
Two Current Immigration Programs 1 The Migration Program
2 The Humanitarian Program
1 The Migration Program The Super Volcano
To get Australian permanent residence, immigrants must be: * No specifically defined scientific meaning - refers to volcanoes that have generated the
Earth’s largest volcanic eruptions.
* (26) _______________, or
* sponsored by a family member currently resident in Australia * Super volcano eruption form calderas. Whereas normal volcano craters are measured in
the hundreds of metres, a caldera can be easily as large as (31) __________
2004-05 Migration Program has 120,000 places available miles wide.
The Department of Immigration particularly wants: Super Volcano Caldera Locations: Long Valley, Eastern California
(not all active) Toba, Indonesia
* skilled immigrants Lake Taupo, (32) __________
* immigrants who will move to regional areas of Australia Japan
Indonesia
2 The Humanitarian Program Scotland
Alaska
Two Components designed for refugees + others in special humanitarian need
Normal Volcano Formation - Magma column rises from Earth, erupts and hardens down sides
* (27) _______________: assists people overseas in humanitarian need creating the familiar (33) __________ mountain
* Other component: People in Australia on temporary visas/without permission Super Volcano Formation - Magma rises from Earth’s mantle creating (34) __________
claiming asylum in the Earth’s crust. Chamber increases to enormous size, creating colossal pressure. Eruption
finally forms massive caldera.
2004 and 2005 Humanitarian Program has (28) _______________ places available
Results of Super Volcano Eruption
Australian Illegal Migrants * Ash, dust and sulphur dioxide ejected, blocking sun & creating cold wave lasting
People who... * enter Australia without authority several years. Plants and animals (including humans) would die.
* (29) _______________
* work without appropriate approval * Most recent caldera-forming eruption ((35) __________ ago approx.). Ash,
* have their visas cancelled and stay pumice, and gases covered more than 3000 square miles and also went high into the
stratosphere to circle the Earth, affecting its temperature. Ash from this eruption stll
Australia’s Migration Act1958 All non Australian citizens unlawfully in Australia to be found in Iowa and in (36) __________ from the Gulf of Mexico.
detained and (30) _______________ unless given permission to remain

Acording to the Earth Sciences lecture, which FOUR of the following facts are NOT READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 - 14
true.
Choose FOUR letters (A - H) and write them in any order in boxes 37 - 40 on your Reading Passage 1 below.
answer sheet.
Hydrogen Cars
A Yellowstone Park has previously suffered three enormous eruptions.

A
Record gas prices are making road trips more expensive than ever. But what if, instead of gas,
your car ran on the most abundant element in our universe? Many experts think hydrogen will
B The first super eruption in Yellowstone was over three million years ago.
replace petrol, diesel and natural gas as the main fuel for cars, buses and trucks over the next
few decades. Already car manufacturers around the world have invested billions of dollars in
research and development.
C The first super eruption in Yellowstone park created a caldera bigger than another state of
the US.
B
D Scientists say Yellowstone Park should erupt approximately every 600 000 years. The advantages of hydrogen are enormous: no more smog-forming exhaust gases, no more
carbon dioxide emissions that contribute to global warming, no more worries about diminishing
oil supplies and rising prices. But some tricky questions need to be answered before mass-
E The ground level of Yellowstone Park has increased by over half a metre over the last 10 produced hydrogen cars start appearing on the streets. Where will the hydrogen come from?
years. How will motorists fill up? How will cars store the fuel? And there’s also the question of how best
to tap the energy in the fuel for good, on-road performance.
F A taskforce has been set up to plan for the possible devastation that a Yellowstone C
eruption would cause.
Two kinds of engines can use hydrogen as a fuel; those that have an internal combustion engine
converted to use it and those that are made up of a stack of fuel cells. Internal combustion
G Evidence suggests that the super-eruption at Toba caused the Earth’s population of engines have powered cars since they first began to replace horse-drawn carriages more than
humans to drop to about 10 000. 100 years ago. These engines can be converted to run on a variety of fuels, including hydrogen.
However, most car makers think that fuel cells powering an electric motor offer a better
alternative. Unlike heavy batteries that need frequent recharging, fuel cells make electricity as
H A super-eruption could make the Earth’s temperature drop to 5 to 10 degrees celsius. they go. Recent developments in technology too have greatly increased the amount of power
that a stack of cells can provide. This has opened up the prospect of efficient, non-polluting
electric cars.
Fuel cell technology sounds simple. The hydrogen fuel reacts with oxygen from the air to
produce water and electricity, the reverse of the familiar electrolysis process that releases
oxygen and hydrogen from water. In reality of course it’s a bit more complicated. The big
advantage of a fuel cell engine over an internal combustion engine running on hydrogen is its
greater efficiency. The same amount of hydrogen will take a fuel cell car at least twice as far as
one with a converted internal combustion engine.
Questions 1 - 7
E
Reading Passage 1 has 8 paragraphs (A – H).
Hydrogen has many advantages as a fuel for vehicles, but a big disadvantage is that it is difficult
to store. This is because at normal temperatures hydrogen is a gas. The obvious solutions are From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs
to strongly compress the hydrogen, or liquefy it. However, tanks designed to hold hydrogen B – H.
at extremely high pressures, or at temperatures approaching absolute zero, are heavy and
expensive. So, high cost and the large amount of energy needed to liquefy the fuel are likely to
be the main problems with refuelling with liquid hydrogen. Filling up with compressed hydrogen Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 1 – 7 on your answer sheet.
gas will probably prove more practical, even though it may reduce the distance between fills.
Cars could store the hydrogen in high pressure tanks similar to those used for compressed NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
natural gas or specially treated carbon may also hold large amounts.
F
Example Answer
Although there’s no risk that we’ll ever run out of hydrogen, on Earth it exists naturally only
in chemical compounds, not as hydrogen gas. A relatively simple principal technology, steam Paragraph A iv
reforming, can produce hydrogen gas for cars at central plants or filling stations. Alternatively
fuel tanks could be filled with petrol or methanol, with the cars using on-board reformers to
generate hydrogen for their fuel cells. This shows promise as a transitional measure while
research proceeds on the problems of storing hydrogen. Water is the only potentially pollution- i Hydrogen Storage
free source of hydrogen. Researchers are looking at new ways of producing hydrogen from
water such as using algae, bacteria or photovoltaic cells to absorb sunlight and split water ii Traditional Production Methods
into hydrogen and oxygen. But the technology most likely to be adopted on a large scale is
electrolysis, which uses an electric current to split water into oxygen and hydrogen. iii The Possible Danger of Combustible Hydrogen
G iv A Plentiful Alternative
‘Remember the Hindenburg’ – that’s a phrase often heard when hydrogen is discussed. This v Looking Forward
German passenger airship, kept aloft by hydrogen, crashed in flames as it came in to land at
Lakehurst, New Jersey, USA in May 1937. Thirty-five people died. Nowadays helium, which vi Good Idea but…
can’t burn, is the gas of choice for lighter-than-air craft. Hydrogen is highly flammable, but recent
research has indicated that the airship’s fabric, not hydrogen, was the culprit in the Hindenburg vii Today’s Hydrogen Production
disaster. Properly handled, there’s no reason to think hydrogen is any more dangerous as a
fuel than petrol, the explosive liquid now carried safely in the tanks of untold millions of motor viii How the Process Works
vehicles.
ix Hydrogen Sources and Production
H
x The Workings of the Internal Combustion Engine
Recent technological advances, particularly in fuel cell design, have made hydrogen-powered
xi The Engine Dilemma
cars a practical proposition, and car makers expect to start mass-producing them within the
next decade or so. Their power and acceleration should match those of today’s conventionally-
powered vehicles, but they may have to be refuelled more often. The best ways to produce,
distribute and store the hydrogen still have to be sorted out. In the short term fossil fuels may 1 Paragraph B
remain in demand as a hydrogen source. However, the idea that in the not too distant future
most of us will be driving non-polluting cars fuelled by hydrogen from a clean, renewable source
is no longer a flight of fantasy. 2 Paragraph C

Questions 13 and 14
3 Paragraph D
Choose the appropriate letters A – D that best answer the question and write them
in boxes 13 and 14 on your answer sheet.
4 Paragraph E
5 Paragraph F
13 Which of the following is NOT a potential problem with the introduction of hydrogen cars?
6 Paragraph G A The frequency of refueling stops.

B The creation of by-products of the electricity production process.
C The volatility of hydrogen.
7 Paragraph H D Keeping hydrogen in cars.
Questions 8 - 12
14 Which of the following hydrogen production methods for hydrogen powered cars is
viewed in the article as a temporary measure?
Reading Passage 1. A A system producing hydrogen from fossil fuels.
B A method producing hydrogen from water vapor.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. C A process using microscopic organisms to produce hydrogen.
D An electrolysis basis hydrogen production system.
8 There is no reason that we’ll run out of hydrogen as it’s the ________ that exists.
9 ________ have been devoted by companies to producing hydrogen cars.
10 ________ could use traditional fuels to produce the hydrogen needed to power hydrogen
cars.
11 Investigations have proved that ________ was the cause of the Hindenburg disaster.
12 Hydrogen cars have the potential to offer the ________ that we associate with today’s fossil
fuel powered vehicles.

READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 15 - 27 be exactly like Dolly; it would involve the creation of a cloned embryo which would then be
implanted into a womb to develop to term and the birth of a clone. On the other hand, therapeutic
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on cloning involves the use of pluripotent cells to repair damaged tissue, such as found after
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. strokes, Parkinson’s disease and spinal cord injuries.
CLONING Paragraph E
Paragraph A There is evidence for the effectiveness of therapeutic cloning as shown by work involving the
introduction of stem cells into the brain of patients suffering from brain diseases, when the cells
The ethics of human cloning has become a great issue over the past few years. The advocates which have been added differentiate to form nerve cells which can in turn then lead to recovery
for both sides of the issue have many reasons to clone or not to clone. A recent poll has shown of the lost function. In the US, foetal human cells have been similarly used though recent reports
the differences in opinions with half as many women as men approving of the process. Many indicate that the results so far are disappointing. However, apart from the ethical problems
people find it strange to see such a clear difference between men and women with twenty-six associated with the use of foetal cells in this way, there are simply not enough cells available for
percent of men favouring cloning. it to be an effective treatment, since it needs the cells from three foetuses to treat one patient.
Paragraph B Paragraph F
So, what is cloning? It has been defined as “the production of genetically identical organisms After Dolly, governments began to take control and make laws before anything drastic could ever
via somatic cell nuclear transfer”. You take an egg and remove its nucleus, which contains the happen. Several ethics committees were asked to decide whether scientists should be allowed
DNA/genes. Then you take the DNA from an adult cell and insert it into the egg, either by fusing to try to clone humans. In the United States, the Bioethics Advisory Commission recommended
the adult cell with the enucleated egg, or by a sophisticated nuclear transfer. You then stimulate a five-year moratorium on cloning a child through somatic cell nuclear transfer. In the United
the reconstructed egg electrically or chemically and try to make it start to divide and become Kingdom, the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority and the Human Genetics Advisory
an embryo. You then use the same process to implant the egg into a surrogate mother that Commission have approved human cloning for therapeutic purposes, but not to clone children.
you would use with artificial insemination. What cloning does is that it copies the DNA/genes Many organisations have come out and stated their opinions also. Amongst all this ethical
of the person and creates a genetic duplicate. The person will not be a Xerox copy. He or she defining, many people are being ignored by the governments. People are speaking out about
will grow up in a different environment than the clone, with different experiences and different what they want done.
opportunities. Genetics does not wholly define a person and the personality.
Paragraph G
Paragraph C
Historically, we find that many a great medical breakthrough, now rightly seen as a blessing, was
In February 1997, when embryologist Ian Wilmut and his colleagues at Roslin Institute in in its own time condemned by bio-conservative moralists. Such was the case with anaesthesia
Scotland were able to clone a lamb named Dolly, the world was introduced to a new possibility during surgery and childbirth. People argued that it was unnatural and that it would weaken our
and will never be the same again. Before this, cloning was thought to be impossible, but now moral fibre. Such was also the case with heart transplantations and with in vitro fertilization. It
there is living proof that the technology and knowledge to clone animals exist. Questions began was said children created by IVF would be dehumanised and would suffer grave psychological
to arise within governments and scientific organisations and they began to respond. Are humans harm. Today, of course, anaesthesia is taken for granted; heart transplantation is seen as one
next? Is it possible to use this procedure to clone humans also? Would anyone actually try? of medicine’s glories and the public approval rate of IVF is up from 15% in the early seventies to
What can we learn if we clone humans? How will this affect the world? These are only a few over 70% today.
of the questions that have surfaced and need answering. A whole new concept in ethics was
created when the birth of Dolly was announced.
Paragraph D
When the cells used for cloning are stem cells, we are talking about cells that are pluripotential.
This means that they have the capacity to develop into any of the numerous differentiated cell
types that make up the body. Early embryonic cells are pluripotent and a limited number of stem
cells are also found in adults, in bone marrow for instance. There is an important distinction to
be made between therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning. Reproductive cloning would
Questions 15 - 20 B
Reading Passage 2 has 7 paragraphs (A - G). Which paragraphs offers information

on the following ideas? Write the appropriate letters (A - G) in boxes 15 - 20 on your
answer sheet. One paragraph is used more than once and two are not used at all.
15 Different types of cloning.
16 Protective legislation.
17 Similar situations
18 A survey on attitudes towards cloning.
19 Scientific reasons why cloning is currently not viable for medical cures.
20 Illness examples that cloning could help treat.

C
Questions 21 - 24
Choose the appropriate letters A – D and write them in boxes 21 – 24 on your
answer sheet.
21 Which bar chart most accurately describes attitudes indicated in the text towards cloning by
men and women?

22 Which of the following is a feature of cloning used for possible medical treatment?
A A genetic duplicate is born through use of a surrogate mother.
B The creation and implantation of an embryo.
C Implantation of differentiated pluripotent cells.
D Genetic mutation of pluripotent cells. Reading Passage 3 below.
What is Intelligence?
23 Which of the following is NOT a feature of cloning?
Intelligence can be defined in many different ways since there are a variety of individual
A Reproduction of a genetic copy of the subject cloned. differences. Intelligence to a lot of people is the ability to reason and respond quickly yet
B Reproduction of exact personality characteristics of the subject cloned. accurately in all aspects of life, such as physically, emotionally, and mentally. Anyone can define
C Reproduction of the pluripotential stem cells of the subject cloned. intelligence because it is an open-ended word that has much room for interpretation but there
D Reproduction of the DNA of the subject cloned. are some theories which have more general acceptance than others.
Jean Piaget, a Swiss child psychologist, is well known for his four stages of mental growth
theory. The first stage is the sensorimotor stage, from birth to age 2, the child is concerned
24 Which of the following is NOT an example from the text of previous medical technologies with gaining motor control and getting familiar with physical objects. Then from age two to
that were initially mistrusted by people? seven, the child develops verbal skills. This is called the preoperational stage. In the concrete
operational stage the child deals with abstract thinking from age seven to twelve. The final
A Test tube babies. stage, called the formal operational stage, ends at age fifteen and this is when the child learns
B Anaesthesia. to reason logically and systematically. Piaget’s theory provides a basis for human intelligence
C Antiseptics. by categorising the major stages in child development and how they contribute to intelligence.
D Heart replacements. Each of these invariant stages has major cognitive skills that must be learned. Knowledge is not
merely transmitted verbally but must be constructed and reconstructed by the learner. Thus this
development involves a few basic steps. The first fundamental process of intellectual growth is
the ability to assimilate the new events learned into the pre-existing cognitive structures. The
second fundamental process is the capability to change those structures to accommodate the
new information and the last process is to find equilibrium between the first two processes.
Questions 25 - 27 Howard Gardener, a psychologist at Harvard University, has formulated an even more
intriguing theory. He arranged human intelligence into seven sections. First of all Gardner
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage 2, answer the characterises the logistical-mathematical intelligence as people who think logically and are
following questions. able to transfer abstract concepts to reality. These people enjoy solving puzzles and can be
good inventors because they can visualize an invention even before making a prototype. They
normally do better in school, which is for the most part due to the fact that schools are designed
Write your answers in boxes 25 - 27 on your answer sheet. for logical-mathematical type of thinkers. The linguistic type, as you might guess, is the natural
born writer and poet. They usually have excellent storytelling skills, spelling skills, and love to
play with words. They tend to be bookworms and can easily learn more than one language.
This type of intelligence seems to be located in the Broca’s Area, since damage to that portion
25 In what part of an egg is found the DNA used for cloning? of the brain will cause a person to lose the ability to express themselves in clear grammatical
sentences, though that person’s understanding of vocabulary and syntax remains intact. Next
Gardener traced musical intelligence to certain areas of the brain. Impaired or autistic children
26 In what country has medical treatment through cloning been shown to be of limited value? who are unable to talk or interact with others have often exemplified exceptional musical
talent. People of this type of intelligence show great aptitude for music, have excellent pitch,
and a good sense of rhythm. They concentrate better with music playing in the background.
27 According to the text, what body wants to wait before cloning a human? A particular concerto by Mozart has shown positive changes in the brains of listeners. Thus,
musical intelligence can be a form or a means of learning. Another form of intelligence is
the interpersonal intelligence. This category is for people who are very well aware of their
environment. They tend to be sensitive to people around them, have an excellent idea of how
people behave, and are especially sociable. Politicians, leaders, counselors, mediators, and
clergy are excellent examples of people with this type of intelligence. Damage to the 28 People with this type of intelligence are often good at developing new products for a
frontal lobe has shown damage to this type of person’s personality and his or her ability to company.
interact with others. Intrapersonal intelligence is almost the opposite of interpersonal intelligence.
This kind of intelligence deals with how well you know yourself. People who possess a higher
degree of this type of intelligence have a high self-esteem, self-enhancement, and a strong 29 People with this type of intelligence are often good novelists.
sense of character. They are usually deep thinkers, self-teachers, skilled in music or art, and
have an inner discipline. This sort of intelligence is hard to measure since it is often difficult to
recognize externally. Spatial intelligence is the ability to perceive and interpret images or pictures 30 People with this type of intelligence often mix well with other people.
in three-dimensional space. The right hemisphere of the brain has been proven to control this
form of intelligence and scientists are certain that spatial intelligence is clearly an independent
portion of this intellect. A person of this intellect enjoys making maps and charts. Lastly, Gardner 31 People with this type of intelligence are often very self-confident.
classifies people who are athletically inclined into the body-kinesthetic intelligence. They perform
the best in atmospheres of action, touching, physical contact and working with their hands.
Dancers and athletes are good examples of this form of intellect. Critics are a little sceptical that 32 Young people with mental handicaps frequently display this type of intelligence.
Gardner considers this a form of intellect since it is only a physical component of intelligence, but
nonetheless, the brain does use both hemispheres to control movement.
Gardner believes that everyone has a mixture of all the categories varying at different 33 People with this type of intelligence often learn by imagining things as pictures.
levels. We can see a couple of intelligence types that stand out in people we know and including
ourselves. For example a math major’s logical-mathematical intelligence would be more
predominant than his linguistic intelligence. 34 People with this type of intelligence are often good physiotherapists.
Questions 28 - 34 Questions 35 - 40
Gardner’s Intelligence Types and some descriptions of different types of people Read the passage What is Intelligence? again and look at the statements below.
displaying different aspects of Gardner’s Intelligence types are listed below in two
boxes. In boxes 35 - 40 on your answer sheet write:
Match each description with the appropriate intelligence type. TRUE if the statement is true
Write the appropriate letters (A - G) in boxes 28 - 34 on your answer sheet. FALSE if the statement is false
Gardner’s Intelligence Types NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the text
A Logistical-mathematical type
35 There are no theories of intelligence which have universal recognition around the world.
B Linguistic type
36 Part of Piaget’s development theory includes children learning how to walk.
C Musical type
37 Piaget theorised that psychological development is finished before adulthood.
D Interpersonal type
38 Piaget’s and Gardner’s theories are not mutually exclusive.
E Intrapersonal type
39 People usually have a blend of Gardner’s intelligence types.
F Spatial type
40 Someone can identify in themselves the kinds of Gardner’s intelligence types that they
G Body-kinesthetic type display.

WRITING TASK 1
Today our communications, medicine and transport systems all depend on computer
technology. Our reliance on computer technology has created a dangerous situation.
The diagrams below show the process of how uranium is used in the production of
nuclear power. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement?
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should write at least 250 words.
Step 1: Uranium is Step 2: Uranium ore is con- Step 3: Uranium fuel (U-
mined from the earth verted into first a gas and 235) is used in nuclear
then enriched to make U-235 power stations to deliver up
fuel pellets to 7billion kWh of electricity
per station per year
Step 5: Some spent fuel is re-

processed and then re-used in
the nuclear power station
Step 4: Spent fuel is taken

Step 6: Finally, spent fuel away after about 4 years of us-
that cannot be re-pro- age and then stored
cessed is stored in stain-
less steel containers and
buried deep in the earth

ACADEMIC SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 10
Section 1
* Could you describe the street that your house or apartment is in?
* Do you prefer to live in a town or in the country?
* Which town would you most prefer to live in (if you had to) and why?
Topic 1 Animals and Pets
* Do you have a pet at home? (Why/Why not?)

* What are the advantages and disadvantages of having a pet?
* Describe an animal that is famous in your country?
* What’s your favourite animal? (Why?)
Topic 2 The Weather
* What’s your favourite kind of weather?

* What’s the weather like in your country?
* What do you like to do when it’s raining?
* Would you like to live in a very hot/cold country?
Section 2
Describe your ideal house

You should say:
how big it would be
what it would look like
what would be inside it
and explain why it would be your ideal house
Section 3
Topic 1 Where people live
* Do people in your country prefer to rent or own the place where they live?
* How has architecture changed in your country over the last 50 to 100 years?
* What do you think the housing of the future will look like in your country?
* Does your country have restrictions on how people can change or construct buildings?
Topic 2 Buildings and Tourism
* Do you think it’s important for a country to preserve old houses and buildings? (Why?)
* Describe some of the famous buildings that a visitor to your country should see?
* Do you think that important buildings should be free of charge to visit? (Why/Why not?)
* Can you compare the importance of spending money on restoring a country’s old buildings
and spending money on education and health?
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ieltshelpnow.

com ACADEMIC MODULE Questions 6 - 8

What items did Kirsty’s bag contain?

Questions 1 - 5 C her passport

Complete the form below. D a book

F her house keys

Mobile tel. (3) ____________________

Flight Number (4) ____________________ A Call back after 11⁄2 hours.

Seat Number (5) ____________________ B Just wait for a call back.

Academic Test 1; Page 1 Academic Test 1; Page 2

Complete the notes below.

Students’ Union Very cheap

Library Must register

Academic Test 1; Page 3 Academic Test 1; Page 4

_________________________________________________________________________ A the oil is refined.

29 When must the first essay be handed in by?

30 Where will John and Jane meet up later that day?

A the economics course office

Oil exploration clean-up techniques

THE BIG CATS AT THE SHARJAH BREEDING CENTRE

Questions 1- 8 The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a __________ of variety

1 These animals were smuggled into the UAE.

Academic Test 1; Page 11 Academic Test 1; Page 12

iii Habits to Promote a Good Night’s Sleep

26 There is no actual correlation linking insomnia and depression.

Academic Test 1; Page 13 Academic Test 1; Page 14

Academic Test 1; Page 15 Academic Test 1; Page 16

34 The research done should be translated into practical projects.

38 The IPPC uses scientists from different organisations.

TB Tony Brown 39 Straw mulch experiments produced unplanned benefits.

Academic Test 1; Page 17 Academic Test 1; Page 18

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

You should write at least 150 words.

Academic Test 1; Page 19 Academic Test 1; Page 20

* Tell me about your family. ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 2

Academic Test 1; Page 21

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

7 What number room will Mr. Griffin be in at the Sunrise Hotel?

Academic Test 2; Page 2 Academic Test 2; Page 3

Complete the sentences below. Questions 21 - 26

* The Oakley Woods development project was opposed by local residents

Why this subject Always interested

Gap year Worked and travelled in Australia and New Zealand

Jobs during Gap Year (23) _________________________________________________

Why Westley University Department has (25) ___________________________________

Academic Test 2; Page 4 Academic Test 2; Page 5

Complete Robert’s notes below. Questions 31 - 33

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Type of Course (27) _______________________________ (3rd year in industry)

Year 2 (28) _________________________________

Year 4 Dissertation of (29) _______________________________

Academic Test 2; Page 6 Academic Test 2; Page 7

Academic Test 2; Page 10 Academic Test 2; Page 11

Academic Test 2; Page 12 Academic Test 2; Page 13

FALSE if the statement is false Example Answer

be a recent phenomenon as proof from (24) ______________________ shows it only

burning terrible ice cores valid certain

originating sea destroying theories unknown

agriculture decided bird life dissipating accepted