Indian Association of Chemistry Teachers: National Standard Examination in Chemistry (Nsec) 2018-19
Indian Association of Chemistry Teachers: National Standard Examination in Chemistry (Nsec) 2018-19
Indian Association of Chemistry Teachers: National Standard Examination in Chemistry (Nsec) 2018-19
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
1. Use of mobile phones, smart phones, ipads during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given answer sheet along with Candidate’s copy.
3. On the answer sheet, fill up all the entries carefully in the space provided, ONLY In BLOCK
CAPITALS. Use only BLUE or BACK BALL PEN for making entries and marking answer.
Incomplete / incorrect / carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the answer sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and filling the bubbles.
5. The question paper contain 80 multiple-choice question. Each question has 4 options, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as shown
6. A correct answer carries 3 marks and 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
7. Any rough work should be done only in the space provided.
8. Periodic Table is provided at the end of the question paper.
9. Use of a nonprogrammable calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting your answer paper, take away the Candidate’s copy for your reference.
Please DO NOT make any mar other than filling the appropriate bubbles properly in the space provided on the answer
sheet. Answer sheet are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT ALLOWED.
Scratching or overwriting may result in wrong score.
DO NOT WRITE ANYTHING ON THE BACK OF ANSWER SHEET.
Read the following instructions after submitting the answer sheet.
12. Comments regarding this question paper, if any, may be filled in Google forms only at https://google/forms/Lxb1|8Bqov3C|9FQ2
till 27th November, 2018.
13. The answers/solutions to this question paper will be available on our website — www.iapt.org.in by 2nd December, 2018.
14. Certificates & Awards
Following certificates are awarded by the IAPT to students successful in NSEs
(i) Certificates to “Centre Top” 10% students
(ii) Merit certificates to “State wise Top” 1% students.
(iii) Merit certificate and a prize in term to “National wise” Top 1% students.
15. Result sheets can be downloaded from our website in the month of February. The “Centre Top 10%” certificates will be
dispatched to the Prof-in-charge of the centre by February, 2019.
16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS will be displayed on our website
(www.iapt.org.in) by 22nd December, 2018. See the Eligibility Clause in the Student’s brochure on our website.
17. Students eligible for the INO Examination on the basis of selection criteria mentioned in Student’s brochure will be informed
accordingly.
18. Students qualified for OCSC (Chemistry) - 2019 will be awarded gold medals.
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1. Which of the energy values marked as I, II and III in the following diagram, will change by the
addition of a suitable catalyst?
II
Energy
III
I
Progress of reaction
(A) II only (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) III only
Ans. (C)
Sol. In presence of suitable catalyst both Eaf & Eab decreases.
Cl Cl O
H2SO4 C
Sol. + COOH
O
OH
Optically active
single stereoisomer
3. At 298 K, change in internal energy for the complete combustion of fullerene, C 60(s), an allotrope
of carbon, and the enthalpy of formation of CO 2(g) are –25970 kJ mol–1 and –393 kJ mol–1
respectively. The enthalpy of formation of C60(s) at 298 K is
(A) –2390 kJ (B) 4.95 × 104 kJ (C) 2.60 × 104kJ (D) 2390 kJ
Ans. (D)
Sol. C60(s) + 60 O2(g) 60 CO2(g) U = –25970 kJ/mole.
H = U + ngRT
= –25970 kJ/mole
Hrxn = 60Hƒ(CO2, g) –Hƒ(C60,S) – 60Hƒ(O2, g)
–25970 = 60 (–393) –Hƒ(C60)
Hƒ(C60) = 60(–393) + 25970
= 2390 kJ
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5. Solubility product of AgCl is 1.8 × 10–10. The minimum volume (in L) of water required to dissolve
1 mg of Ag Cl is close to
(A) 0.5 (B) 7.5 (C) 50 (D) 0.75
Ans. (A)
Sol. Ksp(AgCl) = 1.8 × 10–10
= (s)2 = 1.8 × 10–10
s = 1.8 105 mole/lit.
= 1.8 105 × 143 gram/lit.
= 1.8 143 10–2 milligram/lit.
= 191.85 × 10–2 milligram/lit
= 0.5 lit/milligram.
6. The complex [M(en)Br)2(Cl)2] has two optical isomers. Their configurations can be represented as
Cl Cl Cl
Br Cl Br Br Cl
Br Cl
(A) (B)
en en
Br Br Br
Cl en en
Cl Br
en en
Cl Br Br
Cl Br Br
(C) (D)
en en
Cl Br Cl Br
Cl
Cl Cl
Br Br Cl Cl
Ans. (D)
Sol. Option (A), (B) & (C) have plane of symmetry so show no optical isomerism. In option (D), given
structures are non super-imposable mirror image.
7. A sample of water from a river was analyzed for the presence of metal ions and the observations
were recorded as given below
The water sample is likely to contain
Reagent added Observation
dil. HCl No change
aq. Na2CO3 White precipitate
aq, Na2SO4 No change
(A) Ba2+ (B) Cu2+ (C) Li+ (D) Mg2+
Ans. (D)
Sol. Only Mg2+ gives ppt. with Na2CO3.
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8. The lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution in water for solid NaCl are 753 kJ mol –1 and
5 kJ mol–1 respectively (Fig. above). If the solution enthalpies of Na + and Cl– are in the ratio 6 : 5,
the enthalpy of hydration of Na+ ion is
(A) 408 kJ mol–1 (B) –412 kJ mol–1 (C) –408 kJ mol–1 (D) –412 kJ mol–1
Ans. (C)
5kJ/mol
NaCl(s) Na+(aq) + Cl–(aq)
Na+ + Cl–
753 + 6x + 5x = 5
x = –68 kJ/mol.
enthalpy of hydration of Na+ = 6x = –408 kJ/mol.
10. The equilibrium constant K for the reversible reaction A=B is 2 × 103 at 350 K. The rate constants
of the forward reaction in the presence and absence of a suitable catalyst at the same temperature
are 5 × 104 s–1 and 4 × 10–6 s–1 respectively. The rate constant of the reverse reaction in the
absence of the catalyst is
(A) 2 × 10–3 s–1 (B) 2.5 × 10–3 s–1 (C) 1.6 × 10–7 s–1 (D) 1.25 × 10–2 s–1
Ans. (All options are incorrect)
kf
Sol. A B Keq. = 2 × 103
kb
kf
K eq in absence of catalyst
kb
4 106
2 103
kb
4 106
Kb = 2 × 10–9 sec–1
2 103
V0bPO
12. An adsorption isotherm equation proposed by Langmuir is of the form V = where V is the
(1 bP)
volume of gas adsorbed at pressure P. For a given adsorbate/adsorbent system, V 0 and b are
constants. The dependence of V on P can be depicted as
1/V 1/V
(A) (B)
1/P 1/P
1/V 1/V
(C) (D)
P P
Ans. (B)
1 bP 1
Sol.
V0bP V
1 1 1 1
V V0P P V0
1/V
1/P
13. For the reaction 4NO2(g) + O2(g) 2N2O5(g), Hreaction = – 112 kJ. If the N2O5 is assumed to be
formed in the reaction as a solid, Hreaction will be (Hsublimation of N2O5 is 54 kJ mol–1)
(A) – 220 kJ (B) – 4 kJ (C) – 166 kJ (D) – 332 kJ
Ans. (A)
Sol. –112 kJ 2(–54)
4NO2(g) + O2(g) 2N2O5(g) 2N2O5(s)
Hreaction
Hreaction = – 112 – 108 = – 220 kJ
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0.1
[CO(NH2)2] (M)
0.08
0.06
0.04
0.02
0
0 10 20 30
Time(h)
15. If for an aqueous solution of a weak acid, pH = pKa + 2 at 25ºC, the approximate fraction of the
acid in the dissociated form is
(A) 1.1 % (B) 0.99 % (C) 99.0 % (D) 9.9 %
Ans. (C)
Sol. pH = pKa +2
log
Ionised 2 ;
Ionised
100
Unionised Unionised 1
Ionised
100
Ionised Unionised 101
100
Approximate % fraction of the acid in the dissociated form is = 100 = 99%
101
16. 2.0 L of N2 gas kept at 25ºC and 5 atm pressure were expanded isothermally against a constant
pressure of 1 atm until the pressure of the gas reaches 1 atm. Assuming ideal behavior, reversible
work of expanstion in this process (in J) is close to
(A) 810 J (B) –194 kJ (C) – 810 kJ (D) 3390 kJ
Ans. (A)
P
Sol. w = –nRT ln 1
P2
5
= – (2 × 5) × 2.303 log
1
= –16.121 lt atm
= –16.121 × 101.3 = –1633 J
w = –Pext(V2 – V1)
nRT nRT
= 1
1 5
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1 4
= nRT 1 = –2 × 5 × L atm
5 5
= –810 J
Note : As per given information process is irreverisible isothermal, but in question
reversible isothermal work of expanstion is asked.
17. The compound which would undergo a reaction with ammonia by SN1 mechanism is
Br
(A) (B) Br
Br
(C) Br (D)
Ans. (D)
Sol. Among the given, carbocation is most stable at benzylic position.
18. The daily energy requirement of a teenager is 7800 kJ. As calculated from the data given in the
table below, the amount of glucose he has to consume (g) per day assuming that the entire energy
he requires comes from the combustion of glucose is
Molecule Hf (kJ mol–1)
C6H12O6 – 1273
CO2(g) – 394
H2O – 286
(A) 262 (B) 500 (C) 131 (D) 250
Ans. (B)
Sol. C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O
HComb = 6(–394) + 6(–286) – (–1273)
= –2358 – 1716 + 1273
= –2801 kJ/mol
7800
Amount of glucose required per day = 180 = 501 gm
2801
19. The pressure inside two gas cylinders of volume 25 m 3 and 50 m3 are 10 kPa and 20 kPa
respectively. The cylinders are kept at the same temperature and separated by a valve. What is
the pressure in the combined system when the vale is opened?
(A) 30 kPa (B) 15 kPa (C) 16.7 kPa (D) 2.5 kPa
Ans. (C)
Sol. nT = n1 + n2
P (25 50) 10 25 50 20
RT RT RT
P × 75 = 250 + 1000 = 1250
P = 16.7 kPa
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20. Aluminium and copper are extracted from their oxide and sulphide ores respectively. Which of the
following is correct?
I. Copper is extracted by the auto reduction of copper oxide by copper sulphide
II. Aluminium cannot be obtained by chemical reduction due to its strong affinity for oxygen,
III. In electrometallurgy of Al, graphite is used as cathode to avoid reoxidation of Al into Al2O3 by
preventing formation of O2.
IV. Sulphide ores of copper are difficult to be reduced than the oxide ores
(A) I, II, IV (B) II and III (C) II and III (D) II and IV
Ans. (A)
Sol. It is facts.
21. Which of the following graph describes the relationship between [H3O+] and [OH–] in an aqueous
solution at a constant temperature ?
[OH–]
[OH–]
(A) (B)
0 0
[H3O+] [H3O+]
[OH–]
[OH–]
(C) (D)
0 0
[H3O+] [H3O+]
Ans. (D)
Sol. [H3O+] × [OH–] = Kw constant at given constant temperature.
23. Number of moles of KClO3 that have to be heated to produce 1.0 L of O2 (g) at STP can be
expressed as
(A) 1/3 (1/22.4) (B) ½(1/22.4) (C) 2/3 (1/22.4) (D) 3/2 (22.4)
Ans. (C)
Sol. 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
1
mole of O2 produced =
22.4
1 2
moles of KClO3 required =
22.4 3
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(A) (i) B2H6/H2O2/ OH– (ii) Na (iii) C2H5 (B) (i) HCl (ii) C2H5ONa
(C) (i) H3O+ (ii) Na (iii) C2H5OH (D) (i) H3O+ (ii) Na (iii) C2H5Cl
Ans. (D)
H3O OH
Sol. Na O Na
CH3–CH2–Cl
O–CH2–CH3
25. Among the following, number of oxygen atoms present in the maximum in
(A) 1.0 g of O2 molecules (B) 4.0 g of O atoms
(C) 1.0 g of O3 (D) 1.7 g of H2O
Ans. (B)
Sol. Given species Number of oxygen atoms
1 1
(A) 1.0 g of O2 molecules 2 NA = NA
32 16
4 1
(B) 4.0 g of O atoms ×NA = N A
16 4
1 1
(C) 1.0 g of O3 3 NA = NA
48 16
1.7 1
(D) 1.7 g of H2O 1 NA = NA
18 10.58
26. Which of the following elements will exhibit photoelectric effect with light of the longest
wavelength?
(A) K (B) Rb (C) Mg (D) Ca
Ans. (B)
Sol. Among these to exhibit photoelectric effect Rb needed light of minimum energy or longest
wavelength.
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Ans. (C)
O O O
CH3 O– Na OH
+ CHCl3
(1) O HO
2
Cl / NaOH
Sol. 3 O 3
28. The standard molar entropies of H2(g), N2(g) and NH3(g) are 130. 190 and 193 J mol–1.K–1
respectively, For the reaction ½ N2(g) + 3/2 H2 (g) NH3(g) (Hreaction= –45 kJ) to be in
equilibrium, the temperature must be equal to
(A) 464 K (B) 928 K (C) 737 K (D) 354 K
Ans. (A)
1 3
Sol. N2 (g) + H2 NH3(g)
2 2
H° = –45 kJ/mol
1 3
S° = 193 – 90 130 = 193 – [95 + 195] = –97 J/mol–k.
2 2
G = H – TS° = 0
H 45000
Teq = 464 K
S 97
29. Density of CO2 gas at 0ºC and 2.00 atm pressure can be expressed as
(A) 2 g m–3 (B) 4 g m–3 (C) 4 × 103 kg m–3 (D) 8 g L–1
Ans. (All options are incorrect)
Sol. PM = dRT
2 44
d= = 3.93 gm/lt.
0.082 273
3.93 103 kg
= 4 kg/m3
103 m3
30. The maximum number of moles of CH3 consumed by one mole of crixivan, a drug against AIDS is
N OH Ph OH
H
N N
N
HN O
O
Crixivan
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
Ans. (B)
Ph
OH OH
Sol.
NH
O
HN O
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31. Concentration of K+ ions inside a biological cell was found to be 25 times higher than that outside.
The magnitude of the potential difference between the two sides of the cell is close to (2.303 RT/F-
can be taken as 59 mV; difference in concentrations of other ions can be taken as negligible)
(A) 4.2 mV (B) 195 mV (C) 82 mV (D) –82 mV
Ans. (C)
Sol. Anode : K (s) K+ (aq) + e–
_____________________________________
K+ (aq) |c K+ (aq) |a
0.0591 [K (aq)] a
Ecell = E°cell – log
1 [K (aq)] c
0.0591 1
=0– log
1 25
= 82 mV
32. The standard redox potential for the reaction 2H2O O2 + 4H+ + 4e– is –1.23V. If the same
reaction is carried out at 25ºC and at pH = 7, the potential will be
(A) –0.82 V (B) –3.28V (C) 0.82V (D) –1.18V
Ans. (A)
0.059
Sol. E = E log [H+]4
4
0059
= –1.23 – log (10–7)4
4
0059 4 7
= –1.23 + = –0.82 V
4
33. The order of pKa values of the following acids is
COOH COOH COOH
COOH OH HO OH
OH
OH OH
(II) (III) (IV)
(I)
(A) IV > I > III > II (B) III > IV > I > II (C) II > I > III > IV (D) II > III > I > IV
Ans. (D)
Sol. After loosing H order of stability of conjugate base.
O O
C COO
–1/2
O C O–1/2 O
C O H
H O
H >
H> >
O O O
OH OH
(IV) (I) (III) (II)
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34. If the radius of the hydrogen atom is 53 pm, the radius of the He+ ion is close to
(A) 75 pm (B) 38 pm (C) 106 pm (D) 27 pm
Ans. (D)
n2
Sol. r = r0 ×
z
1
= 53 = 26.5
2
35. A substance X was heated at constant pressure and the temperature observed at various times of
heating was plotted as given below
s Heating Curve of Substance X
80
70 e
60 c
Temperature (ºC)
50
40
30 c
20
10 b
0 a
–10
–20
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 30
Time (min)
Which of the following is/are correct ?
I. Melting point of X is –5ºC
II. Solid and liquid forms of X coexist in the region b
III. Boiling point of X is 55ºC
IV. Solid and liquid forms of X coexist in the region d
(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) III only (D) I, II and III
Ans. (B)
Sol. From the graph (B) option is correct.
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37. In which of the following, all the bond lengths are not the same ?
I. F4 II. BF4 III. SF4 IV. TeCl4
(A) I, II, IV (B) II, III, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III
Ans. (C)
Sol. In (I), (III) & (IV) hybridization is sp3d and shape is sea-saw. So all bond length are not the same.
In BF4 all the bond lengths are same.
38. Among the following, the reaction/s that can be classified as oxidation-reduction is/are.
I. Cr2O72 aq 2OH aq 2CrO 24 H2O
l
II. SiCl4(l) + 2Mg(s) 2MgCl2(l) + Si(s)
III. 6Cl2(l) + 12KOH(l) 2KClO3(g) + 10 KCl + 6H2O(l)
IV. 2H2O2 2H2O(l) + O2(g)
(A) I and IV (B) I, II and III (C) II, III and IV (D) IV only
Ans. (C)
Sol. (I) reaction is non-redox reaction.
39. Among the following pairs, the one in which both the compounds as pure liquids can show
significant auto ionization is
(A) H2O and H2S (B) BrF3 and Cl3 (C) PF5 and PCl5 (D) HF and HCl
Ans. (B)
Sol. 2BrF3 (liquid) BrF2+ + BrF4 ; 2Cl3 (liquid) Cl2+ + ICl 4
40. The number of quaternary and chiral carbon atoms present in elatol, isolated from an algae are
respectively
Br
HO
Cl
Elatol
(A) 2, 3 (B) 4, 2 (C) 3, 2 (D) 1, 3
Ans. (A)
Br = Quaternary carbon
HO * = Chiral carbon
Sol.
** Cl
*
41. Compounds X (pKa ~ 15) and Y (pKa ~ 10), both produce H2 on treatment with sodium metal and
both yield a mixture of isomers on mononitration. X and Y respectively are
O OH OH
OH
CH2OH
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O– NH– O– CH2–
O
V
(A) V (B) V (C) V (D) V
Ans. (B)
—
—
NH O— > O—
Sol.
> >
O
V
Ans. (A)
H
Sol. OH OH2
Aromatic
49. The Newman projection shown is the same as
C2 H5
H3C CH3
H C2 H5
H
(1) (2)
(3)
(4) (5)
3-Ethyl-2-methyl pentane
Which resembles with III and IV only Ans. (C).
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50. Which one of the following is not used as a monomer for the synthesis of a high molecular weight
silicone polymer ?
(A) MeSiCl3 (B) Me2SiCl2 (C) Me3SiCl (D) PbSiCl3
Ans. (C or D)
Sol. From the hydrolysis of (CH3)3SiCl only dimer is formed
H2O
(CH3)3SiCl (CH3)3Si(OH)
"Pb" mentioned in (D) option suggests the metal "Lead". There is no compound like PbSiCl 3, since
it can be rejected on the basis of valancies.
Actually, it should be PBSiCl3. Note that "PB" here is represents polybutadiene polymer derivative.
Interestingly, this question is repeated from as NEET-2013. In that paper correct printing was
done.
51. In YBa2Cu3O7–x, a superconducting oxide that got George Bednorz and Karl Muller the Noble prize
in 1986, Cu can exist in both +2 and +3 oxidation states and their proportion depends on the value
of ‘x’. In YBa2Cu3O7–0.5
(A) 0.5 moles of Cu are in +3 oxidation state (B) 5% of Cu is in +3 oxidation sate
(C) All the Cu is in +3 oxidation state (D) All Cu is in +2 oxidation state
Ans. (D)
Y Ba2 Cu3 O7–0.5
Sol. In
+2 +3
y (3–y)
Charge balance
+3 + 4 + 2y + 3(3 – y) + 2(–6.5) = 0
+ 7 + 2y + 9 – 3y – 13 = 0
y=3
all Cu is in +2 oxidation state
52. Compound ‘Y’ (molar mass = 88.12 g mol–1) containing 54.52% carbon, 9.17% hydrogen and
36.31% oxygen gives a reddish-brown precipitate in Fehling’s test. ‘Y’ is
OH
O
(A) (B)
OH O
O OH
(C) HO O (D) O O
Ans. (A)
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Br
Cl
(A) 1-Bromo-4-chloro-3-ethenylbutane (B) 4-Bromo-1-chloro-3-ethenylbutane
(C) 3-(Bromomethyl)-5-chloropent-1-ene (D) 3-(Bromomethyl)-1-chloropent-4-ene
Ans. (C)
1
2
Sol. 5
Br
3
Cl
4
3-(Bromomethyl)-5-chloropent-1-ene.
The alkyl group is same in all, but extent of hydrogen bond is in the sequence
–COOH > OH > –NH2 >
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Ans. (C)
H H
C=C=C
H
Sol.
· · ·
(A) (B) (C) (D)
·
Ans. (D)
58. During World War II, soldiers posted at high altitudes experienced crumbling of the tin buttons of
their uniforms into a grey powder. This can be attributed to
(A) oxidation of tin
(B) interaction with nitrogen in the air at low pressure
(C) change in the crystal structure of tin
(D) reaction of tin with water vapour in the air
Ans. (C)
Sol. White metallic tin i.e. -Sn) changes to another allotrope, grey (-Sn) at low temperature
(T < 13.2ºC).
O
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) I, IV (B) II, III (C) III, IV (D) I, II
Ans. (C)
Sol. Only III and IV can exhibit tautomerism as
O
HH
O C
H
HH and HH has -hydrogen
H
(III) (IV)
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60. A scientist attempts to replace a few carbon atoms in 1.0 g of diamond with boron atoms or
nitrogen atoms in separate experiments. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) The resulting material with B doping will be an n-type semiconductor
(B) The resulting material with B doping will be an p-type semiconductor
(C) B doping is NOT possible as B cannot from multiple bonds
(D) The resulting material with N doping will be a p-type semiconductor
Ans. (B)
Ans. Carbon doped with boron forms p-type of semiconductor. Boron contains one less electron than
carbon which create a hole which is responsible for semiconductor properties.
61. Compound ‘P’ that undergoes the sequence of reactions given below to give the product Q is
O
(i) excessCH3OH
P
(ii) PCC
(iii) CH3MgBr
(iv) H3O
Q
O O
(A) (B)
HO
OHC
O O
(C) (D)
HO
OHC
Ans. (B)
O H3CO OCH3 H3CO OCH3
Sol. Excess PCC
HO CH3OH HO
(P) O
H CH3MgBr
O
H3CO OCH3
H3CO OCH3
H3O
–H2O
OH
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(A) (B)
O 2N
NO2
(C) (D)
O2N NO2
Ans. (C)
Sol. anhyd
+ Cl
AlCl3
HNO3, H2SO4
O2N
64. Which of the following accounts best for the fact that F – is smaller than O2– ?
(A) F– has a larger nuclear mass than O2– (B) F– has a larger nuclear charge than O2–
(C) F– is more polarizable than O2– (D) F is more electronegative than O
Ans. (B)
Sol. Size F– < O2– : Zeff. of F– > Zeff. of O2–
65. The correct sequence of reagents from those listed below for the following conversion is
Br NaNH2
H
(Meso)
Trans
Lindlar
CC
catalyst
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66. An orbital among the following that has two radial nodes and two angular nodes is
(A) 3d (B) 4p (C) 4f (D) 5d
Ans. (D)
Sol. Radial node = n – – 1
Angular node =
For 5d Radial node = (5 – 2 – 1) = 2
Angular node = 2
Cl Cl OH
COOH C
Heat O
H2O C
COOH
O
(C8H4O3)
(i) + H_______
Cl NH2
Ans. (C)
H –
Sol. (i) (Electrophilic addition)
Cl NH2
NaNH
(ii) 2
(Benzyne mechanism)
OH2 H2O OH
(iii) OH H–Cl
71. The rate of the reaction between two reactants X and Y can be expressed as R = k [X] 2 [Y]. In an
experiment, the initial rate of the reaction was found to be R 1 when the initial concentrations of X
and Y are [X0] and [Y0]. Another experiment was performed in which [X0] was taken as ½ [X0].
What should be [Y0] in this experiment to get the initial rate as 0.5 R1 ?
(A) 4 [Y0] (B) 1/2 [Y0] (C) 2 [Y0] (D) [Y0]
Ans. (C)
Sol. R = k[X]2 [Y]
R1 = k[X0]2[Y0] ……(1)
2
X
R2 = K 0 [Y] ……(2)
2
2
1
R 2 2
[Y]
0.5R1
R1 [Y0 ] R1
[Y] = 2[Y0]
72. Among the following, the compound that has the highest dipole moment is
(A) CH3COOCH3 (B) CH3CONH2 (C) CH3COC2H5 (D) CH3COCl
Ans. (B)
O O–
Sol. CH3—C CH3—C
H H
N N
+ H
H
Due to ionic resonating form of amide its has highest dipole moment.
73. A common method to clean spills is to use to Na2CO3(Molar mass 106 g.) If 50.0 mL of 0.75 M HCl
is split on a wooden surface, the amount of Na2CO3 required is
(A) 3.75 g (B) 7.5 g (C) 2.0 g (D) 4.0 g
Ans. (C)
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74. The spin-only magnetic moments of [Fe(NH3)6]3+ and [FeF6]3– (in units of BM) respectively are
(A) 1.73 and 1.73 (B) 5.92 and 1.73 (C) 1.73 and 5.92 (D) 5.92 and 5.92
Ans. (C)
Sol. = n(n 2)BM n = number of unpaired electron
In [Fe(NH3)6]3+ , NH3 is SFL so t2g2,2,1 eg0,0 = 1.73 B.M.
In [FeF6]3– , F– is WFL so t2g1,1,1 eg1,1 = 5.92 B.M.
3+
Note : [Fe(NH3)6] does not exist.
CH3
(C) Br C(OH)CH2COOC2H5 (D) Br COCH2COCH3
Ans. (A)
CH3
O O BrMg— Cl (1 mol)
Cl C—CH2–COOEt H O
Sol. 3
OEt Ether
O
CH3
Cl C—CH2–COOEt
OH
Ketone is more reactive than ester towards Grignard reagent.
76. The standard electrode potential (E°) of the Daniel cell is 1.1 V and the overall cell reaction can be
represented as Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s). Under which of the following conditions will
the cell potential be higher than 1.1 V ?
(A) 1.0 M Zn2+, 1.0 M Cu2+ (B) 1.2 M Zn2+, 1.2 M Cu2+
(C) 0.1 M Zn2+, 1.0 M Cu2+ (D) 1.0 M Zn2+, 0.01 M Cu2+
Ans. (C)
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0.059 [Zn2 ]
Sol. E = E° – log
2 [Cu2 ]
0.059 [Zn2 ]
E = 1.1 – log
2 [Cu2 ]
For E > 1.1
[Zn2+] < [Cu2+]
77. Penicillamine is used in the treatment of arthritis. One molecule of penicillamine contains a single
sulphur atom and the weight percentage of sulphur in penicillamine is 21.49%. Molecular weight of
penicillamine in g mol–1 is
(A) 85.40 (B) 68.76 (C) 125.2 (D) 149.2
Ans. (D)
32 1 100
Sol. % of S = 21.49
Molecular mass
3200
Molecular mass = = 149 g/mol.
21.49
78. An ion exchange resin, RH2 can replace Ca2+ in hard water as RH2 + Ca2+ RCa2+ + 2H+.
When a 1.0 L hard water sample was passed through the resin, all H + ions were replaced by Ca2+
ions and the pH of eluted water was found to be 2.0. The hardness of water (as ppm of Ca 2+) in
the sample of water treated is
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 125 (D) 200
Ans. (D)
Sol. RH2 + Ca2+ RCa + 2H+
pH = 2 [H+] = 10–2 mol/lt.
Mole of H+ in 1 lt. = 10–2
102
Mole of Ca2+ 1 lt. water =
2
102
Mass of Ca2+ in 1 lt. = 40 = 0.2 g
2
Hardness (in terms of Ca2+ ppm) = 0.2 × 1000 = 200 ppm
79. The analysis of three different binary oxides of bromine (Br) and oxygen (O) gives the following
results :
Compound Mass of O combined with 1.0 g of Br
X 0.101 g
Y 0.303 g
Z 0.503 g
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
I Compound Y is Br2O3 II Compound Z is Br2O5
III Compound Z is Br2O7 IV Compound Y is Br2O5
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) III and IV (D) I and II
Ans. (C)
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