Surface Preparation:

1- According to BS 7079 how many photographs for cleanliness grades are available when hand
and power tool cleaning technique is used?
a) 14 b) 6 c) 4 d) 16
2- Very Through blast cleaning is referring to …………….
a) Sa1 b) Sa2 c) Sa2½ d) Sa3
3- If profile is higher than specified, the result will be
a) Rash Rusting b) Cause adhesion problem c) Blisters d) Bittiness
4- High pressure wet blasting operates at which pressure?
a) 100 psi b) 2500 psi c)up to 20000 psi d) up to 30000 psi
5- The test for iron salts is important because
a) These salts may be present and increase the corrosion rate
b) These salts may be present because of improper procedures at the steel rolling mill.
c) These salts will mix with the coating and improve adhesion
d) These salts will leach out and cause curing problem for primer layer of paint system
6- Which Surface preparation is used for weathered galvanizing?
a) Sweep Blasting b)Stiff bristle Brushing c)Through Blast cleaning d) Sa2½
7- Amplitude is a term associated with
a) Dry film thickness
b) Wet film thickness
c) Matt film
d) Surface profile
8- A surface comparator is used to:
a) Measure the surface profile of a blast cleaned surface
b) Compare the cleanliness of a blast cleaned surface
c) Assess the roughness of a blast cleaned profile
d) Record the peak to trough height of a blast cleaned profile
9- All surface breaking laminations observed on a surface shall be:
a) Reported to the welding inspector immediately
b) Removed by chipping hammer under supervision of the blasting foreman
c) Reported to engineer immediately
d) Removed by sharp edged scraper with the permission of the safety manager
10- Enclosed blasting chambers are used because of:
a) They protect other personnel and equipment from blast scatter
b) They are relatively portable and inexpensive to set up
c) Possibility of recycling the expandable abrasives in these systems.
d) They normally use expandable abrasives
11- A wheelabrator is:
a) A portable item of blasting equipment used on site
b) A direct charge mill used during the paint manufacture
 c) A centrifugal blasting unit
d) A viscosity measurement equipment
12- Two examples of Hygroscopic salts would be:
a) Iron Phosphate and Iron Chromate
b) Iron Chloride and Iron Oxide
c) Iron Sulphate and Iron Chloride
d) Iron Sulphate and Iron Silicate
13- When checking surface profile using X-Coarse replica tape
a) 50 microns must be added to the final reading
b) The average number of the readings must be taken
c) 50 microns must be deducted from the reading
d) A minimum of ten readings must be taken
14- How many abrasive blast cleaning photographs are in BS 7079 part A?
a) 4 b) 14 c) 8 d) 16
15- Rust grade A can be described as
a) Tightly adhering millscale, with evident heavy pitting
b) Clean white metal
c) Tightly adhering millscale, with no apparent corrosion
d) Millscale which has begun to flake, or can be scraped away
16- Which blasting grade best describes “Through blast cleaning”
a) Sa2 b) Sa2½ c) Sa3 d) Sa1
17- The two factors to consider when inspecting a surface preparation
a) Degree of cleanliness and hygroscopic salts
b) Surface profile and metal rust grade
c) Surface profile and degree of cleanliness
d) Degree of cleanliness and surface contamination
18- Abrasive used in site for British Gas projects must be
a) Mixed with sand, to reduce cost
b) Stored correctly prior to use
c) Expandable
d) Used up to maximum 3 times only
19- After putting the Testex between anvils of an imperial gauge this is the result. What is the
exact amount of profile on this surface?
a) 4.6 Thou
b) 2.6 Thou
c) 46 Thou
d) 0.26 Inch

20- Garnet can be expandable up to three times if:

a) The situation justify
b) We want to decrease the expenses
c) For environmental protection and decreasing the expenses
d) The situation justify and cleansing units are available to extract contaminants
21- According to which regulation(s) it is not allowed to use sand as an abrasive?
a) BS 410
b) SI 1657 & BS 7079
c) SI 1657 & COSHH REGs
d) COSHH REGs and BS 3900
22- What is the meaning of “mixing ratio”?
a) It is the ratio of large and small particles when we prepare a mixture of metallic abrasives
b) It is the ratio of shot and grit in a mixture of metallic abrasive
c) It is the ratio of garnet to copper slag in a mixture of abrasives
d) It is the ratio of Garnet to Shot and Grit in preparing a mixture of abrasives
23- Why use of sand as an abrasive is not allowed?
a) Because it can not cut the surface and roughen it
b) Because causes Preumonicosis or Silicosis
c) Because releases Silica which is dangerous for human health
d) B and C are correct
24- We use a mixture of shot and grit
a) To decrease the surface preparation cost
b) To make the abrasive un-expandable
c) To prevent the Silicosis
d) To control the peak heights and reduce the number of rogue peaks
25- According to PA10 what should be the mix ratio for shot and grit in a pipe coating mill?
a) 70-80 % grit to 20-30 % shot
b) 60-70 % grit to 30-40 % shot
c) 50% shot to 50% grit
d) 70-80 % shot to 20-30 % grit
26- Which sentence is correct about abrasives?
a) Hardness and density of abrasive material don’t effect the surface profile
 b) Grit particles control the peak height and greatly reduce the number of rogue peaks
c) Shot particles work harden the surface rather than cutting into it
d) According to BGAS specifications shot and grit mix is not recyclable
27- Which sentence is not correct about surface profile?
a) Anchor pattern, key and amplitude are different words which are used for surface
profile
b) According to BGAS specification surface profile should be 30-75 microns
c) Mixing of shot and grit helps to reduce the number of rogue peaks
d) Surface profile can not affect the molecular attraction or chemical bonding of paint
to its substrate
28- According to below figure:

B
A D

C
a) This figure shows a shot blasted profile and C shows a surface lamination
b) B shows a hackle and A shows a rogue peak
c) C shows a hackle and B shows a rogue peak
d) D shows a hackle and should be referred to engineer for ultrasonic check
29- Profile assessment
a) Should be only quantitative and measured by Dial gauges
b) Can be qualitative or quantitative and is measured by gauges or comparator
c) With Dial Micrometer and Replica tape is a good method which provides permanent record
d) b and c are correct
30- In measuring the surface profile by testex and Dial micrometer gauge:
a) We need to zero the Gauge on a flat surface such as a smooth piece of glass
b) Testex tape has another names such as press-o-film and replica tape
c) Coarse grade of replica tape is for measuring profiles 37-115 um
d) Extra coarse grade replica tape is suitable for 20-50 um profiles
31- Needle gauge is:
a) Suitable for profile measurement on curved surfaces and pipe
b) A quantitative gauge which can give permanent record and is more costly than the Testex
c) Used in three random positions on the surface and report the average calculated as surface
profile
d) A safe gauge which is applied for profile measurement on flat blasted substrates
32- According to below gauge

a) Micrometer is reading 80 um and therefore the surface amplitude is 80 um

b) Each small division is equal to 1 um
c) Micrometer is reading 80 um and the surface amplitude is equal to 30 um
d) Scale of the gauge is 1/100 mm which is equal to 1 um

Testex

33- Which is not correct about assessing a blasted surface with comparator
a) Comparators can be used for assessment of surface profiles according to BS 7079 Pt C or ISO
8503-1
b) There are two types of comparators one for grit G and another for shot S
c) When a mix of abrasives has been used for surface blasting the reference should be grit
d) Using the visual aid is not allowed for assessing the roughness characteristics
34- In assessment of the surface profile using the comparator
a) There are two methods which are Naked eye and Tactile
b) We look for a segment which its profile is same as the surface profile
c) In all methods we are not allowed to touch the surface because of contamination
d) Using the magnification and visual aid is not acceptable
35- Which definition is correct for rust grade B
a) Steel surface on which the millscale has rusted away and slight pitting under normal vision is
visible
b) Steel surface which general pitting is visible under normal vision
c) Steel surface which has begun to rust and from which the millscale has begun to flake
d) Steel surface which is largely covered by adherent millscale
36- When abrasive blasting used for surface preparation
a) We have three degree of cleanliness which are Sa1, Sa2 and Sa3
b) In all grades after the preparation surface should free of visible oil grease and dirt
c) In all grades after preparation surface should be free of mill scales
d) Sa2 and Sa3 are not achievable on rust Grade B
37- When we are going to prepare a steel substrate before application of paints
 a) We should determine rust grade of the surface according to BS 3900 and ISO 8503
b) Primary surface has no effect on degree of surface Cleanliness after preparation
c) SS 05 59 00 gives high quality pictorial standards for profile assessment of surface before
and after preparation
d) Degree of surface cleanliness after preparation related to rust grades
38- According to abrasive blast cleaning grades in BS 7079 Pt.A
a) Surface should be checked for degree of cleanliness with 7x magnification
b) Sa 1 and Sa 2 are not achievable on rust grade A
c) If the surface cleanliness is equal to Sa 2 ½ it means that there is no millscale on it
d) There are three grades of surface cleanliness as fine medium and coarse
39- How much is the speed of impelled abrasive in a wheelabrator?
a) 450 mph
b) 220 mph
c) 280 mph
d) 200 mph
40- When wheelabrators are used:
a) They have less operator safety because the operator is involved directly
b) They have less productivity than open systems
c) They are ideal for long production runs on similar sections
d) They may damage if shot abrasive is used in them because can cut impellers
41- What is “knock out pot “in a open blasting system?
a) It is a pot which containing abrasives
b) It is a operation safety part in this system
c) It is a pot which traps vapour, water and oil
d) It is a pot which draws out low density materials from abrasives
42- In Choosing a compressor for a open blasting system:
a) It should be chose according to its capacity and energy consumption
b) It must be able to pressurize the air to 200 psi
c) It is far better if use a compressor which its capacity is equal to maximum capacity which is
needed
d) Maximum capacity will achieve when it can pressurize the air to 100 psi on back side of the
nozzle
43- In an Open blasting system, hose:
a) Should be carbon impregnated to avoid static electricity
b) Line length are better to restricted to around 10 meters
c) Diameter is related to nozzle size and should be at least 3 to 4 times of the nozzle diameter
d) Size should be ½ to ¾ nozzle diameter
44- How much is the abrasive speed with a venturi type nozzle?
a) 300 mph
b) 220 mph
c) 450 mph
d) 100 mph
45- In an open area blasting system
a) Venturi nozzles provide narrow blast pattern
b) Straight bore nozzles provide even spread of abrasives
c) Particle speed with a venturi nozzle is higher than others and is about 400 mph
d) Particles speed with straight bore nozzles is about 200 mph and with venturi type is about
450 mph

46- Safety consideration during surface blasting should be according to which standard?
a) BS 3900
b) IGE SR 21
c) COSHH
d) SI 1657
47- In comparison of open blasting with wet blasting:
a) Open blasting is more environmentally friendly
b) Wet blasting is more ideal for removal of insoluble salts
c) Open blasting is not suitable for removal of layers of toxic materials
d) Open blasting produces higher amount of disposal

48- What is the main disadvantage of wet blasting methods?

a) Using large amount of water and producing huge volume of disposal
b) This method can not cut the surface
c) It needs corrosion inhibitors for avoiding surface rusting ( according to BG using corrosion
inhibitor is not allowed)
d) All of the above
49- How much is the water pressure in high pressure water plus abrasive blasting system?
a) 20,000 psi
b) 100 psi
c) 30,000 psi
d) 10,000 psi
50- Using hand and power tool cleaning method:
a) Increase the surface profile
b) There are 8 photographs for this method according to BS 7079 Pt A
c) According to BS 7079 Pt A there is no photograph for Rust grade A in this method
d) Performing this method with needle guns and jeason hammers may cause burnishing
51- Which are flame cleaning mechanisms?
a) Expansion, dehydration and heat penetration
b) Oxidation, expansion and heat penetration
c) Heat penetrant, hydration and oxidation
d) Heat penetration, combustion and expansion
52- Flame cleaning
 a) Is a suitable surface preparation method in Oil and Gas plants
b) BG 7079 contains 6 photographs showing flame cleaning
c) Can increase the surface profile
d) Can help to painting process with accelerating drying process and keeps the surface above
dew point
53- What is the pickling process?
a) It is a process for surface pH assessment
b) It is a general term relating to removal of oxide layers from a metal surface
c) It is a process for surface passivation
d) It is an acidic process for surface degreasing
54- Which acid is used in pickling of steel products?
a) Chloric acid
b) Phosphoric acid
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Chromic acid
55- Which acids can be used for Passivation stage of Footners Duplex System?
a) Phosphoric and Chromic acids
b) Chromic and Sulfuric acids
c) Chloric and Sulfuric acids
d) Phosphoric and Sulfuric acids
56- Which sentence is correct about Footners Duplex System?
a) Acid sulfuric is used in passivation step of process
b) This process has three steps which are pickling, surface blasting and passivation
c) In passivation step of this process surface is made phosphated or chromated
d) In final step, surface pH should be between 7 to 9.5
57- Which choice shows Duplex System steps completely?
a) Surface degreasing, pickling, passivation
b) Pickling, passivation, blast cleaning, water rinsing
c) Surface degreasing, pickling, blast cleaning, passivation, water rinsing
d) Surface degreasing, pickling, passivation, water rinsing
58- Which method is used for detection of Iron soluble salts on the surface?
a) Footner Duplex
b) Potassium Ferrocyanide test
c) Silver Nitrate test
d) Merkoquant test
59- Which solution is used for detection of Iron soluble salts?
a) Silver chloride, 2% with distilled water
b) CuSO4, 5% in distilled water
c) 5- 10% solution of Potassium Hexa cyaniferrate
d) 20% solution of Iron Chromate
60- Which test is quantitative in detecting the soluble salts on the surface?
a) Silver Nitrate test
 b) Merkoquant test
c) Bresle sample patch
d) Potassium Hexa-cyanoferrate
61- When test of presence of millscale is mandatory before painting?
a) When blast cleaning method is used for surface cleaning
b) When surface cleanliness is equal to St3 or Sa3
c) When surface cleanliness is equal to Sa3
d) When surface cleanliness is equal to Sa2 or upper

62- Which solution is used for detection of millscale on the surface?

a) 5- 10% solution of Potassium Hexa-cyanoferrate
b) Merkoquant solution
c) Acidic copper sulfate solution
d) 2% silver Nitrate solution

Question Question
Answer Answer
No. No.
1 B 36 B
2 C 37 D
3 A 38 B
4 D 39 B
5 A 40 C
6 B 41 C
7 D 42 D
8 C 43 C
9 C 44 C
10 A 45 D
11 C 46 B
12 C 47 C
13 C 48 D
14 B 49 A
15 C 50 C
16 A 51 A
17 C 52 D
18 C 53 B
19 B 54 C
20 D 55 A
21 C 56 C
22 B 57 A
23 D 58 C
24 D 59 C
25 D 60 C
26 C 61 C
27 D 62 C
 28 D
29 D
30 B
31 D
32 C
33 D
34 C
35 C

Corrosion theory:
1- What is the chemical composition of red rust on steel surfaces in ambient temperature and
normal condition?
a) Millscale b) Hematite c)Hydrated Hematite or Iron Hydroxide d) Iron Sulphate
2- An anode become positively charged by:
a) Releasing electrons
b) Releasing protons
c) Releasing charged atoms
d) None of the above
3- In the Galvanic List, which of the following materials has the ‘lowest known average potential
value’?
a) Aluminum b) Copper c) Zinc d) Graphite
4- Hydrogen is evolved at:
a) The anode all the time
b) The cathode all the time
c) The cathode as a by-product of the corrosion reaction
d) The anode as corrosion takes place
5- Current direction in a corrosion cell is :
a) Positive to negative in electrolytic side
b) Anode to Cathode in electrolyte
c) Cathode to Anode via electrolyte
d) Cathode to Anode in electric side
6- Which one is not correct about SRB bacteria:
a) They are active in temperature 25-45˚C
b) They cause retarding the corrosion rate by decreasing the oxygen content of environment
c) They are active in anaerobic condition
d) They reduce sulphate compounds to sulphide
7- In the Galvanic List, which of the following materials has the ‘lowest highest known average
potential value’?
a) Aluminum b) Copper c) Zinc d) Graphite
8- Bi-metallic corrosion
 a) Only occurs when two identical materials are in close proximity
b) Causes accelerated metal loss on the more noble material
c) Causes Embrittlement in more active material
d) Causes accelerated metal loss on the more active material
9- What is an electrolyte?
a) It is a saline solution
b) A substance which conduct electricity and causes rusting
c) Oxidizing liquid which attack steel
d) A substance which will conduct a current and broken by it
10- Another name for Galvanic list
a) The corrosion list
b) Electro negative list
c) Electrical corrosive properties series
d) Electromotive force series
11- In the corrosion circuit electrons travel from
a) Anode to cathode
b) Cathode to Anode
c) Electrolyte to both cathode and anode
d) None of the above
12- If Zinc and Aluminum were in close contact, in presence of electrolyte
a) Aluminum would corrode
b) They would corrode equally
c) Zinc would corrode
d) In this connection Zinc is cathode
13- MEMs are also known as
a) Moisture enriched materials
b) Metal eating microbes
c) Maximum evolved moistures
d) Material microbe mobility
14- Which of the following is not a sub atom particle?
a) Electron b) Ion c) Proton d) Neutron
15- Three factors which can affect the corrosion rate on a coated surface are
a) Temperature, time and coating system
b) Bi-metallic contact, hygroscopic salts and bacteria
c) Coating system, pipe diameter and UV light
d) Blasting grades, Rust grades and surface profile
16- Thickness of mill scale is approximately
a) 25-100 um
b) 100-150 um
c) Negligible and near to zero
d) Dependent to material thickness
17- The three compressed oxide layers which form millscale are
 a) Iron Oxide, rust and Iran Sulphate
b) Wustite, Hematite and magnetite
c) Iron sulphate, Iron chloride and Iron Phosphate
d) RSC, RSJ, and RSA
18- Which two materials are commonly used as sacrificial anodes?
a) Copper and tungsten
b) Aluminum and graphite
c) Zinc and Aluminium
d) Lead and tin
19- Anode becomes positively charged by:
a) Releasing protons to the cathode
b) Releasing electrons to the cathode
c) Receiving the electrons from cathode
d) Evolving the hydrogen in anode
20- Which one of Iron oxides is protective for steel?
a) Hematite b) Magnetite c) Wustite d) Millscale
21- When measuring the Acidity and Alkalinity, distilled water has a pH value of:
a) 1 b) 3.5-4.5 c) Near 7 d) 7.5-9
22- Aerobic and anaerobic conditions refer to
a) Presence and absence of Hydrogen in our environment
b) Presence and absence of electrolyte
c) Presence and absence of nitrogen and hydrogen in surrounding environment
d) Presence and absence of Oxygen in environment
23- Which is correct for definition of corrosion:
a) An electrochemical combustion of metal
b) Degradation of Metal by electrochemical or chemical means
c) Submersion of a metal in an electrolyte
d) Joining of two different metal together and putting them in atmosphere
24- Which sentence is not correct:
a) Anode is a positively charged area
b) Each Iron atom has 26 electrons
c) Formation of corrosion products occurs at the cathode
d) An electrolyte is a substance which can conduct current and be broken down by it
25- Which is correct about a corrosion reaction:
a) An electrolyte is a substance which can conduct electrons
b) Acids, alkalis and salts out of solutions are effective electrolytes
c) The chemical reaction, formation of corrosion products only occurs at the anode
d) Corrosion occurs only at the cathode and never in at the anode
26- Which factors can affect the corrosion reaction rate?
a) Temperature, Abrasives, Surface preparation
b) Hygroscopic salts, Aerobic condition, millscale
c) Bi-metallic contact, Aerobic condition, Temperature
 d) Presence of water, temperature, Acids and alkalis
27- In a Galvanic list:
a) more noble metal is one which will be protected in contact with more active one
b) More active metals are more cathodic
c) Magnesium is cathodic to Iron
d) Zinc is anode to Magnesium

28- Which figure shows current directions in a corrosion triangle correctly?

E E
a) b)

A C A C

b) E d) E

A C A C

29- Which sentence is correct about millscale:

a) It is anodic to steel and its thickness varies between 25-100 um
b) It is formed during rolling operation of steel sections
c) It is compact oxides of Iron which forms very quickly at temperatures in excess of 580˚ C
d) B and C are correct
30- What are hygroscopic salts?
a) Salts which can be found in some industrial and agricultural areas
b) Salts which are predominant in marine environments
c) All mineral salts which can be found in an industrial or marine environment
d) They are salts which can attract water and dissolve in it
31- In which bi-metallic contact, steel can be protected?
a) Tin-Steel
b) Copper- Steel
c) Magnesium-Steel
 d) Mill Scale- Steel
32- What is a reference electrode?
a) An electrode which is more noble than steel and can considered zero for potential measurement
b) An electrode which is made of a metal with the maximum nobility in a galvanic list which its
potential considered equal to zero and used in potential measurement
c) An electrode with minimum tolerance in potential in different conditions which its potential
can be considered equal to zero in potential measurements
d) An electrode which has potential equal to zero in 25˚ C and is used for potential measurement

33- Which figure shows oxide layers of millscale correctly?

a) H W M c) H M W
a u a a a u
e s g e g s
m t n m n t
Fe a i e Fe a e i
t t t t t t
i e i i i e
t t t t
e e e e

W M
b) u a d) W M H
g u a a
s
n s g e
t
n
Fe i e t m
t t Fe i e a
e i t t t
t e i i
e t t
e e

34- What are SRB microbes?

a) They are microbes which in presence of Oxygen accelerate the corrosion rate of steel
b) They are sulphate reducing bacteria and accelerate the corrosion rate in absence of Oxygen
c) Microbes which in presence of Hygroscopic salts and oxygen make steel more anodic
d) They are sulfur reducing bacteria and accelerate the corrosion rate in absence of Oxygen
35- Which one is not correct about millscale :
a) Hematite, Wustite and Magnetite are three layers of this mixed Oxide coating on rolled steel
b) Magnetite is mixture of Wustite and Hematite
c) The amount of Oxygen in Hematite is the highest among these three.
d) Among 3 Oxides of Iron just Wustite is Corrosion protective
Question Question
Answer Answer
No. No.
1 B 19 B
2 A 20 B
3 C 21 C
4 C 22 D
5 C 23 B
6 B 24 C
7 D 25 C
8 D 26 C
9 D 27 A
10 D 28 A
11 D 29 D
12 C 30 D
13 B 31 C
14 B 32 C
15 B 33 D
16 A 34 B
17 B 35 D
18 C
Paint Constituents, Polymerization and Paint System:
1- Which binder has branched polymerization?
a) Epoxy b) Alkyd c) Acrylic d) Urethane
2- Which one is not natural Oil?
a) Copal b) Tall c)Linseed d)Tung
3- What is the main constituent of a mordant primer?
a) Chromic Acid b) Phosphoric Acid c) Sulphoric Acid d) Polyvinyl Butyral
4- Which one is not a Laminar pigment?
a) Graphite b) Coal tar c) Mica d) MIO
5- Which constituent of paint provide opacity?
a) Plasticizer b) Pigment c) Thixotropic agent d) Drier
6-Which of the following is rust inhibitive pigment?
a) Mica b) Coal tar c) Magnesium Silicate d) Talc
7-Rust inhibitive primers operate by :
a) Oxidation of substrate and passivation
b) Reaction with substrate and producing protective salt
c) Isolation by barrier effect
d) All of the above
8- Too much pigment to binder ratio gives:
a) Good opacity b) Good gloss c) Cohesive strength d) Porous film
9- Which of the following is added to paint to prevent settlement during storage?
a) Plasticizer b) Thixotrope c) Stabilizer d) Oxidation Agent
10- Which one is not a laminar pigment?
a) Glass flake b) Mica c) Slate flour d) MIO
11- Which is not a property of extender pigment?
a) Increase Gloss b) Increase adhesion c) Increase cohesion d) Increase film strength
12- Which solvent is suitable for chlorinated rubber paints?
a) Xylene b) Ketone c) Water d) White spirit
13- Which factors affect gloss of paint?
a) Resin type, Solvent type, Paint application method
b) Refractive index of binder, pigment color, Dft
c) Pigment size, PVC, resin and solvent type,
 d) Pigment size, resin type, paint color
14- What would be the main problem of low CPVC?
a) High opacity b) Permeability c) Low gloss d) Low opacity
15- Which additive in Paint helps to prevent film cracking during Service?
a) Plasticizer b) Thixotrope Agent c) Stabilizer Agent d) Extender pigments
16- A device which is used to measure the degree of dispersion of paint is called:
a) Glossmeter b) Cryptometer c) PIG gauge d) Hegman grind gauge

17- The use of sealer to improve performance and prolong the coating life is associated with
which of the following coating system?
a) Polysiloxane
b) Thermal Metal Spray
c) Polyurethane
d) Urethane paint systems
18- If I use Chlorinated rubber for mid-coat in a paint system, which one can be good for top
coat?
a) Zinc rich epoxy b) Water-Born Zinc rich epoxy c) Urethane d) Water-born Epoxy
19- Example for paint involving barrier principle?
a) Zinc rich epoxy
b) Zinc or aluminum pigmented Paint
c) Urethane
d) Rust inhibitive primers
20- A barrier type paint system, must provide
a) Good opacity b) Good flexibility c) High permeability d) Low permeability
21- How ‘Brightness’ of a color is identified in BS 4800?
a) By even numbers between 02-24 and 00
b) By numbers 01-56
c) By letters A-E
d) By letters E-M
22- How ‘Hue’ of a color is identified in BS 4800?
a) By even numbers between 02-24 and 00
b) By numbers 01-56
c) By letters A-E
d) By letters E-M
23- Which choice is not a consideration for binder?
a) Ease of application
b) Ease of evaporation
c) Resistance to chemical attack
d) Dielectric strength
24- Which choice is correct about Alkyds?
 a) They are derived from reaction of Alcohol and Alkalis
b) They are very suitable for use on offshore structures
c) They have good resistance to Alkalis
d) They are brittle and need modification with oil
25- Asphaltic Bitumens:
a) Has good resistance to sunlight
b) They are relatively more expensive than other binders
c) They have good resistance to HC solvents
d) They are petroleum based material and known for water proof properties

26- Epoxies as a binders:

a) Provide good resistance to solvent and chemicals
b) Have good exterior durability but are prone to chalking
c) Are good because of their ideal heat resistance
d) A and B are correct
27- Chlorinated rubber is not widely used
a) Because of its poor resistance to chemicals
b) Because it is expensive
c) Because of strict VOC and EPA regulations
d) Because of its poor resistance to HC solvents
28- Which binder has good resistance to heat?
a) Acrylic
b) Chlorinated rubber
c) Ethyl and Methyl Silicates
d) Epoxies
29- Which binder is more prone to “chalking”?
a) Ethyl and Methyl Silicates
b) Epoxies
c) Asphaltic Bitumens
d) Phenolic resins
30- “Hot drying Oils” is another name for which binders?
a) Phenolic resins
b) Silicones
c) Polyurethanes
d) Ethyl and Methyl Silicates
31- Which binders are ideal for above 150˚ C service?
a) Ethyl and Methyl Silicates
b) Phenolic resins
c) Silicones
d) Polyurethanes
32- Which binder can be ideal for production of a Zinc rich paint with galvanic protection
effect?
 a) Ethyl and Methyl silicates
b) Alkyds
c) Epoxies
d) A and C are correct
33- Polyurethane as binder:
a) Have poor resistance to chalking
b) They are ideal for above 150˚ C service
c) They are known as oleoresins
d) They have good resistance to abrasion and chemicals

34- A substrate is coated by a Phenolic paint, which paint is good for its over coating?
a) Solvent borne epoxy
b) Water borne epoxy
c) Chlorinated rubber
d) Ethyl and Methyl Silicates
35- Which is one of disadvantages of CR?
a) Poor resistance to chemical attack such acids and alkalis
b) It is a toxic material
c) For application needs a coarse profile
d) It has low resistance to solvents
36- Which is not a name for a “linear polymer”?
a) Non-convertible
b) Thermoplastic
c) Reversible
d) Thermosetting
37- Which binder falls under convertible category?
a) Vinyl
b) Phenolic resin
c) Chlorinated rubber
d) Asphalt Bitumen
38- An oil can be usable as a paint binder if:
a) It is a saturated oil
b) Be a type which can not combine with Oxygen
c) Be a non-drying oil
d) It is an unsaturated oil
39- In a descending order which increase the solvent strength, which solvent order is correct?

White Spirit Xylene

a) Xylene b) White Spirit

Turpentine Acetone

Xylene Turpentine
40- Which paint is good choice for over coating of Chlorinated Rubber (CR)?
a) Modified Water-borne Acrylic
b) Silicone paint
c) Polyurethane
d) Solvent borne Epoxy paint
41- What is the ratio of oil to resin in a long oil paint?
a) More than 80%
b) More than 60 %
c) 45-60%
d) 60-80%
42- Which resin has cross link polymerization?
a) Alkyd resins
b) Phenolic resins
c) Epoxies
d) Chlorinated rubber
43- Which of these pigments is toxic?
a) Zinc chromate
b) Zinc Phosphate
c) Barium Metaborate
d) Zinc Phosphosilicate
44- Zinc and Aluminium:
a) are metallic pigments with Cathodic protection effect of steel surface
b) are metallic pigments with passivation effect of steel surface
c) are extender pigments with cathodic protection effect on steel surface
d) both are metallic pigment with cathodic protection and UV reflection properties
45- Which is not a major consideration for a pigment?
a) Abrasion resistance
b) Resistance to chemical attack
c) Opacity
d) Resistance to ultra violet rays
46- Which pigment group has lower price than others?
a) Opaque pigments
 b) Metallic pigments
c) Extender pigments
d) Rust inhibitive pigments
47- Extender pigments:
a) Provide rust inhibitive properties
b) Can reflect the ultra violet A and B
c) Can improve the opacity properties of paint
d) Can give bulk to our paint

48- Carbon, Kaolin, Zinc and MIO are from which group of pigments respectively?
a) Opaque, extender, metallic and laminar pigment
b) Extender, opaque, metallic and laminar pigment
c) Rust inhibitive, opaque, passivation, and extender pigment
d) Opaque, laminar, metallic and extender pigment
49- What is the pigment volume concentration (PVC)?
a) It is the ratio of the pigment size to its concentration in paint
b) It is the ratio of pigment to binder volume in paint
c) It is the ratio of pigment to volume (VOC) of solid of a paint
d) It is the ratio of pigment to solvent
50- Which BS code defines critical pigment volume concentration (CPVC)?
a) BS 7079
b) BS 2015
c) BS 2235
d) BS 3900
51- Which is not correct about paint solvent properties?
a) The higher the flash point safer the solvent
b) Solvents with lower number of carbon atoms in chemical composition have higher flash point
c) Modern solvents are toxic
d) Evaporation rate of the solvent governs start point of polymerization
52- Which is correct about solvent evaporation rate?
a) Quick evaporation of solvent makes the paint film more even
b) Quick evaporation increase the paint sagging on vertical surfaces
c) Evaporation rate affects the rate of polymerization
d) Decorative paints need solvents with quick evaporation rate
53- What are paint additives?
a) Driers, anti-skinning agent, plasticizers and extenders
b) Extenders, plasticizers, binder and anti-skinning agent
c) Opaque pigments, anti-skinning agent, Driers and anti-fouling agent
d) Driers, anti-skinning agent, plasticizers and anti-settling agent
54- What is the induction period?
a) The period of time after mixing in which the paint must be used
 b) It is the period of time in which can keep a paint without settlement
c) It is the period of time in which curing of the paint completed
d) The length of time which the paint should stand after mixing and before use
55- What is the difference between a forced drying and stoving paint?
a) A forced drying paint needs air convection for drying but stoving paint needs oven
b) Both of them need heat for drying but stoving paint needs temperatures more than 65˚C
c) Forced drying paint can dry in the ambient temperature but stoving paint needs oven
d) Stoving paint has cross linked polymerization but forced drying has linear polymerization

56- What is the drying mechanism of Acrylic paints?

a) Solvent evaporation
b) Oxidation
c) Chemical curing
d) Cross linked polymerization
57- What is pot life?
a) It is the period of time after mixing in which the paint must be used
b) It is the period of time in which can keep a paint without settlement
c) It is the period of time in which curing of the paint completed
d) The length of time which the paint should stand after mixing and before use
58- What is the curing agent of 2 pack Polyurethanes?
a) Amines
b) Amides
c) Isocyanates
d) Cyanates
59- Which is another name for induction period?
a) Stand time
b) Lead time
c) Pot life
d) A and B are correct
60- Which paint is from oxidation drying group?
a) Epoxy paints
b) Phenolic paints
c) Polyurethane paints
d) Chlorinated rubbers
61- Paints from which category of drying need activator for drying?
a) Solution polymer group
b) Oxidation drying group
c) Chemical curing drying group
d) Coalescence group
62- What is the definition of gloss transition temperature (Tg)?
a) The temperature at which full cross linking of paints starts
 b) The temperature at which the material changes from a rubbery to glassy solid and vise versa
c) The temperature at which the material changes from a glass solid to crystalline solid
d) The temperature at which full cross linking occurs
63- What is meant by “Vehicle” for paint constituents?
a) It is another name for paint binder
b) It is another name for paint solvent
c) Binder plus solvent in solvent borne paints is called vehicle
d) A and C are correct

64- Which is a correct definition for solute?

a) It is the dispersed phase in a solution
b) It is fine particles of a solid or tiny droplets of a liquid in a solution
c) It is the material which dissolved by the solvent
d) It is a liquid which can dissolve another material, liquid or solid
65- Solvent is:
a) The continuous phase in a dispersion
b) The carrier of the solution
c) A liquid which can dissolve another material, liquid or solid
d) A liquid which can wet solid particles and agglomerate them
66- What is the aggregate size?
a) It is the ratio of particles size to their amount in a dispersion
b) It is the average size of droplets in an emulsion
c) It is the biggest size pigment size that is found in paint mixture
d) It is a parameter which shows the ration of solvent to solid solute in a solution
67- Carrier is
a) Another name for solvent in a solution
b) The continuous phase in a solution
c) The continuous phase in an emulsion or suspension
d) Tiny droplets of liquid which is dispersed in an emulsion
68- Which sentence is correct about dispersions and solutions?
a) There are two types of solutions: suspension and emulsion
b) Suspension is a solution of solid particles in a liquid solvent
c) Emulsion is a type of dispersion and is a dispersed liquid in another liquid
d) Dispersions are a type of solution where there is no solubility in its constituents
Question Question
Answer Answer
No. No.
1 B 36 D
2 A 37 B
3 B 38 D
4 B 39 D
5 B 40 A
6 B 41 B
7 D 42 C
8 D 43 A
9 B 44 A
10 C 45 B
11 A 46 C
12 A 47 D
13 C 48 A
14 D 49 B
15 A 50 B
16 D 51 B
17 B 52 C
18 D 53 D
19 C 54 D
20 D 55 B
21 C 56 A
22 A 57 A
23 B 58 C
24 D 59 D
25 D 60 B
26 D 61 C
27 C 62 B
28 C 63 D
29 B 64 C
30 A 65 C
31 C 66 C
32 D 67 C
 33 D 68 C
34 B
35 D

Paint testing and paint Manufacture

1- Fineness of grind is a term used for …………..
a) Premixing b) Aggregate size c) Profile roughness d) PVC
2- Which of the following tests would be performed to determine the adhesion of a coating?
a) Pendulum rocker b) Pull of test c) Falling sand d)Taber Abraser
3- Why an inspector must use PIG gauge?
a) When Substrate is non-Ferromagnetic or Coating is non-ferromagnetic
b) When Substrate is non-Ferromagnetic or Coating is ferromagnetic
c) When Substrate is Ferromagnetic or Coating is ferromagnetic
d) When Substrate is Ferromagnetic or Coating is non-ferromagnetic
4- In FBE coating greater than 25 thou thickness, holidays are detected using which of the
following?
a) Wet sponge holiday detector
b) Low voltage holiday detector
c) High voltage holiday detector
d) Low voltage DC holiday detector
5- Dry film thickness measurement using a banana gauge can be carried out on the following:
a) Zinc galvanized surfaces which have been painted with specified zinc layer thickness
b) Painted Aluminum substrates
c) Any paint containing MIO pigments
d) None of the above
6- A Paint said to process low opacity will:
a) Have low permeability
b) Have high hiding power
c) Contain laminar pigment
d) Have low hiding power
7- Which one is used for hiding power measurement of paint?
a) Reflectometer b) Banana gauge c) Psycrometer d) Cryptometer
8- The pencil hardness test is used for:
a) Scratch hardness resistance of a coating
b) Adhesion of a coating
 c) Abrasion resistance of a coating
d) Indentation resistance hardness of a coating

9- A banana gauge works on which principle

a) Magnetic resistance
b) Conductive resistance
c) Tension inductance
d) Electrostatic attraction

10- Dry film thickness measurement of a paint film containing MIO pigments can be carried out by
using:
a) Banana gauge
b) Elcometer 456 digital Film Thickness Micrometer
c) Painting Inspector gauge (PIG)
d) Tinsley pencil
11- Which one is used for determination of kinematic viscosity?
a) Hegman gauge b) Closed Abel Cup c) Krebs Stormer d) Rotothinner
12- For Wft measurement of a non-ferrous coating on a carbon steel pipe, which of the following
methods would be acceptable?
a) Banana gauge
b) Eccentric wheel used longitudinally
c) Comb gauge used circumferentially
d) Eccentric wheel used circumferentially
13- Which of the following can be used to measure viscosity?
a) Pyknometer b) Aspirated Psycrometer c) Abel Closed Cup d) Zahn Cup
14- The correct voltage setting on wet sponge holiday detector over a coating with Dft of 250 um
is:
a) 67.5 V b) 90 V c) 9 V d) 15 KV
15- What is the equipment which is used for production of expensive mastics which containing
gilts or silver?
a) Sand mill b) Triple roll mill c) Single roll mill d) Attritor mill
16- Which one is a direct charge mill for paints?
a) Sand mill b) Single roll mill c) Triple roll mill d) Attritor mill
17- Which mill can be used for mixing of emulsions and water-born paints?
a) Sand mill b) Pearl mill c) Kaddy mill d) Attritor mill

Question Question
Answer Answer
No. No.
1 B 10 C
2 B 11 C
3 B 12 D
4 C 13 D
 5 A 14 C
6 D 15 C
7 A 16 D
8 A 17 C
9 A

PA10 questions;
1- According to PA10, an engineer is
a) Appointed by contractor and notified in writing to client
b) Appointed by Transco and notified in writing to contractor
c) Responsible for coating and reports
d) Higher Authority
2- The use of sealer to improve performance and prolong the coating life, is associated with
which of the following coating systems?
a) Polysiloxane
b) Polyurethane
c) Inorganic Zinc silicate(IZS)
d) Electrostatic Spraying
3- A barrier type paint system, must provide
a) Good opacity b) Good flexibility c) High permeability d) Low permeability
4- The BGAS specification for site application of a paint system is
a) BGC/PS/PA10 b) BGC/PS/CW5 c) BGC/PS/PA8 d) BS 7079
5- According to PA10, what is the abrasive which is used for Stainless steel surface preparation?
a) Copper Slag
b) Steel Shot
c) Aluminum Oxide
d) Angular chilled Iron
6- Abrasive used on site for British Gas projects must be
a) Mixed with sand, to reduce cost
b) Stored correctly prior to use
c) Expandable
d) Used up to maximum 3 times only
7- According to PA10, ‘Wet blast cleaning’ of a surface should be followed by ‘Dry abrasive
cleaning’:
a) Only as directed by the engineer
b) To remove the surface profile created by wet process
c) Because of the immediate oxidation of the substrate after wet blasting which must be
removed.
d) Does not need to carry out if moisture tolerant paints are used
 8- All mechanical damages, like surface laminations sharp edges, observed on a substrate should
be:
a) Immediately should be removed by grinding carefully
b) Carefully removed by means of spark free power brushes
c) Reported to engineer for his assessment
d) They will be normally removed during the blasting operation
9- According to PA10 for maintenance painting which method can be used for paint application?
a) Roller b) Brush c) Conventional Spray d) Engineer makes decision about it

10- In accordance with PA10 section 2, paint application by roller is

a) Not allowed
b) Highly desirable for large areas
c) Is not suitable for corrosion protection painting
d) Only allowed for primer application on blasted substrate
11- The use of sealer to improve performance and prolong the coating life is associated with
which of the following coating system?
a) Polysiloxane
b) Thermal Metal Spray
c) Polyurethane
d) Urethane paint systems
12- According to PA10, Properties and performance requirements of paints are according to which
document and British Standard?
a) PA9 for paint minimum requirements and BS 3900 for test methods
b) PA8 for paint minimum requirements and BS 7079 for test methods
c) PA7 for Paint minimum requirements and BS 3900 for test methods
d) CW5 for paint minimum requirements and BS 3900 for test methods
13- According to PA10 What is the first and preferred options for Stainless steel Surface
preparation and Which type of abrasive can be used for this material?
a) Sweep Abrasive Blast, Hand Abrading, Garnet
b) Hand Abrading, Wet blasting, Cooper Slag
c) Hand Abrading, sweep abrasive blast, Aluminum Oxide
d) The only option is Sweep abrasive blasting and abrasive must be Aluminum Oxide
14- In accordance to PA10 for protection of Hot duty surfaces above 340ᵒ C TSA and IZS
a) Must be chemically cured to provide highest performance
b) Both must be heated to 340ᵒ C for curing
c) They should be sealed by Polysiloxane inorganic coating for better performance
d) They must be sealed by silicon sealer for better performance.
15- Dew point is defined as: the temperature at which the water vapor present in the air…………
a) Will evaporate b) Will condensate c) Will dry d) Will cause osmotic blisters
16- Which of the following substrates is not dealt with in table SPA6 of PA10?
a) Concrete b) Stainless Steel c) Galvanized Surfaces d) Glass
17- According to PA10 a new galvanized substrate has a surface:
 a) Where a cohesive oxide layer has not been formed and which exhibits a dull appearance
lacking metallic sheen
b) On which a cohesive oxide layer has been formed and which exhibits a dull appearance
lacking in metallic sheen
c) Where a cohesive oxide layer has not been formed, showing a bright metallic sheen
d) Where a cohesive layer has been formed, showing a bright metallic sheen
18- Which British standards cover the color coding of pipework?
a) BS2481 b) BS 1710 c) BS 4800 d) BS 5252
19- Minimum Wft and Dft recommendations for paint application and advice on the addition of
thinners etc. can be found in:
a) On the label of the paint container
b) Project specification
c) Manufacturer’s product data sheet
d) In BS 7079 Part A
20- What are the total Dft requirements for the 2 preferred systems in table SPA1e of PA10?
a) 255 and 225 b) 265 and 235 c) 265 and 225 d) Both 225

Question
Answer Question No. Answer
No.
1 B 11 B
2 C 12 A
3 D 13 D
4 A 14 D
5 C 15 B
6 C 16 D
7 C 17 C
8 C 18 B
9 B 19 C
10 C 20 C
 Paint Application and paint Faults:
1- What result will get by temperature cycling test?
a) Cracking b) Blistering c) Chalking d) Discoloring
2- Which application method provides more uniform film thickness?
a) Stripe Coating
b) Airless Spray
c) Conventional Spray
d) Electrostatic Spray
3- A common method for applying ‘Hot Metal Spray’ coating is:
a) Conventional spray ‘Gravity Cup’
b) A gun containing gas burner and compressed air
c) High pressure airless spray system
d) Plural component pumps and gun

4- Thermal spray coating method may expel a VOC of

a) 100% b) Near 75% c) Under 80% d) 0 %
5- Coating defect which resembles to holiday?
a) Cratering b) Crazing c) Cissing d) Ropiness
6- In electrostatic spray, the thickness of paint film is controlled by:
a) Time used to spray b) Delivery pressure c) Orifice size d) Voltage
7- Which coating fault looks like discoloration?
a) Chalking b) Bleeding c) Cissing d) Curtaining
8- The relevant paint application information for any particular paint product, such as
paint spray tip size, pressure recommendations etc. are generally found:
a) On the paint container
b) In the project specification
c) On the product data sheet
d) In British standards
9- The most common type of thermally sprayed material for hot duty application is:
a) Zinc b) Graphite c) Silicon d) Aluminum
10- Most tips used on Airless spray equipment are reversible, it can help:
a) To prolong the tip life
b) Costs can be kept down
c) Blockage can be cleared
 d) Both sides of the nozzle can be used for paint application
11- The main difference between Conventional Spray and Airless is:
a) Conventional spray gives better deposition rate
b) Conventional spray gives less waste
c) Airless gives better quality finish
d) Conventional spray gives better atomization

Question
Answer
No.
1 A
2 D
3 B
4 D
5 C
6 D
7 A
8 C
9 D
10 C
11 D
 Calculation Questions
1- If 7.5 Liters paint weighs 9.75 Kg, relative density is…………….
a) 0.76 b) 0.76 gm/cc c) 1.3 gm/cc d) 1.3
2- What is the volume of paint required to cover a circular area of 15 meters radius, if the paint
layer has Wft of 176 um?
a) 76.38 Lit b) 124.34 Lit c) 214.34 Lit d) 31.08 Lit
3- What volume of paint would be required to coat the external shell of a storage tank with 19 m
diameter and 8 m height, to a Wft of 175 um?
a) 52.34 liters b) 98.59 liters c) 133.11 liters d)107.87 liters
4- What Wft should be measured, if a coating of 88 um Dft is required with a 66% VS paint?
a) 158 um b) 75 um c) 58 um d) 133 um
5- What would be the DFT if Paint with VS of 66% was applied to a WFT of 150 microns?
a) 67 um b) 95 um c) 99 um d) 84.5 um
6- What Dft should be achievable if paint with volume of solid content of 54% is applied with Wft
of 135 um?
a) 65 um b) 72.9 um c) 75 um d) 82.9 um
7- What volume of paint would be required to coat external shell of a storage tank with 25
meters radious and 10 meters height, to Dft of 194 um if %VS of paint be 65%?
a) 1560 Liters b) 234 Liters c) 1170 Liters d) 1054 Liters
8- What would be weight of 17.5 liters of Paint with a SG of 1.45?
a) 25.37 gr b) 25.37 Kg c) 19.45 Kg d) 14.65 Kg
9- A mixed two-pack Paint has a density of 1.37 g/cc. the density of the base was 1.5 g/cc and
activator 0.9 g/cc. the mixing ratio was 3:1. Has the paint been mixed correctly? If no which
one is more than enough?
a) Yes, Mixing is correct
b) No, Base is more than enough
c) No, hardner is more than enough
d) With this information cannot say anything about mixing ratio
10- The dynamic viscosity of water in 20ᵒ C to be approximately :
a) 1 gm/cc b) 1 Poise c) 1 Centi-Stoke d) 1 Centi-Poise
11- How much paint would be required to cover a circular area of 10 m diameter, using a solvent
free paint with DFT of 60 um?
a) 18.84 Liters b) 4.71 Liters c) 5.4 Liters d) 3.1 Liters
12- A DFT of 53 um was obtained from a WFT of 110 um, what was the %VS of the paint?
 a) 52% b) 56% c) 45% d) 48%
13- 25 Litters of a paint, 65% VS was used to cover a circular area of 10 m diameter. What would
be the resulting WFT and DFT?
a) 315, 207 b) 318, 207 c) 320, 210 d) 318, 204
14- What is the volume of paint required to cover a circular area of 15 meters radius if the
material has a specified Wft of 176 um?
a) 76.38 Liters b) 124.24 Liters c) 214.34 Liters d) 312.56 Liters

Question
Answer
No.
1 D
2 B
3 C
4 D
5 C
6 B
7 D
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 D
13 B
14 B