Ee Mock Test 2 Jan 2017 Qa 2

PharmacyPREP.
com Pharmacy Practice Test
Pharmacy Prep
EE MOCK TEST 2
1. Colon transit time measurement is used in diagnosis of?
A. Prostate cancer B. constipation C. Heartburn D. Prokinetic
effect E. Fever in children
Ans. B
Tips: laxative shortens transit time
2. Which of the following is incorrect statement about body cavities and

membranes?
A. dorsal body cavity divided into cranial cavity and vertebral cavity
B. cranial cavity host the brain
C. Ventral body cavity consist of thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic cavity
D. Pelvic cavity consist of digestive organs, peritoneal cavity
Ans. D
Tips. Dorsal cavities are cranial and vertebral. Cranial cavity contains brain and
vertebral cavities contain spinal cord.
Ventral cavities are thoracic (heart & lungs), diaphragm, abdominal (digestive
viscera), pelvic (urinary bladder, reproductive organ and rectum).
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3. A women clients comes at your pharmacy for codeine syrup for her
3 yo daughter cough symptoms. She is allergy to amoxicillin and
otherwise healthy child. What is pharmacist concern?
A. Penicillin allergy B. age C. body weight D. other
symptoms
Ans. B
Tips: Antitussive contains codeine is suitable to be used by more than
which age 12 yrs. Dextromethorphan is used over 6 yr age.
4) What is not related diabetic foot ulcer?

a) Erythema
B) Increase risk of infection
C) Should not cover with bandage
D) Diabetic neuralgia
E. Uncontrolled blood glucose
Ans. D
Tips. Diabetic foot ulcer signs and symptoms of infection. Redness
(Erythema), increased warmth, or swelling around the wound. Extra
drainage. Pus. Odor. Fever or chills. Increased pain. Increased
firmness around the wound. Foot ulcer occurs at high pressure areas,
lower extremity. Drug of choice for diabetic foot infection is
cloxacillin.

5) What is correct Tallman letters for diphenhydramine and

dimenhydrinate
A) dimenhyDRINATE and diphenhydrAMINE
B) diMENhydrinate and diPHENhydramine
C) DIMENHYDRINATE and diphenhydramine
D) dimenhydrinate and DIPHENHYDRAMINE
E. All of the above
Ans. A
Tips. FDA-Approved list of generic drug names with Tall Man Letters
6. Escape of the fluids from blood capillaries or vessels to the

surrounded tissues is termed as?
A. Infiltration B. Extravasations C. Intramuscular D.
Transdermal E. Vesicant
Ans. B

7) A mother of 2 year old child approaches to pharmacist. Asking

what is appropriate recommendation for eczema or atopic
dermatitis of her child?
I) Olive oil is applied directly to rehydrated skin after bath.
II) Give colloidal oat meal bath
III) Wash with excessive soap and dry thoroughly after shower
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III E. I,II,III
Ans. C
8.Which of the following can contribute to medication incidents or

environmental?
A) Poor lighting
B) Poor handwriting
C) Lack of patient education
D) Clutter in work area
E) All of the above
Ans. E
9. Calculate the mark up on cost. A regular customer of your

pharmacy get refill of rosuvastatin 10 mg for 3 mo and gliclazide 30
mg for 3 m. Each 3 mo is $120 and $150. Prescription fee is $11.
Patient has prescription coverage of 70% for drugs only. What
patient pays?
A) 211 B) $103 C) $189 D)$200
Ans. B
70% of $270 = $189

$270-$189 = $81
plus $11 x 2 = $103
10. Which of the following is the dependent variable in statistical

analysis determining risk factors for hypertension?
A. Age B. Gender C. Demographic D. Hypertension E. body weight
Ans. D
Tips.
Clinical trial project example
Variable Independent variable Dependant variable
Patient Patient hypertension
Age Age
Gender Gender
Demography Demography
Body weight Body weight
hypertension Salt diet
11. What is a rate of constant of the drug having initial

concentration of drug 1000 mg/ml and 100 mg/ml after 90 minutes?
a. 0.025 min-1
b. 0.5 min-1
c. 2.2 min–1
d. 3.2 min-1
Ans. A
k = 2.303 x log C◦
t C
= 2.303 x log 1000 = 0.025 -1 min
90 100
Calculator in Exam: SHARP EL 510

LOG: PRESS 2ndF then press log ENTER NUMBER,

SQUARE ROOT: PRESS 2ndF then press Sqrt then enter number
Exponent: press 2ndF then press ex then enter number
12. How many gram of Mg present in every 350 ml dose

MgCO3 15 g
Citric acid 27.4 g
Syrup 60 ml
H2O qs 350 ml
(Mg = 24.3, CO3 = 60) MgCO3 = 84.3
A) 4.3 gram B) 8.7 gram C) 87 gram D) 19 gram E) 21 gram
Ans. A
TIPS.
84.3  24.3
15  ? ? = 15 x 24.3 / 84.3 = 4.32 g of Mg
13) What is sensitivity?

A) Measures how well a test identifies truly, accurately.
B) Measures close to true value
C) Ability to reproduce with accurately
D) Ability to be specific
E) Ability to be correct and perfect
Ans. A
Tips.
Sensitivity. The sensitivity tell how well positive test detects the disease. or

The sensitivity (also called completeness) measures the degree to which the inferior source or
method correctly identifies individual who, according to superior method or source, possess
the characteristic interest (i.e. every one used the drug).
Specificity. The specificity tell how well a negative test detect non disease. or
The specificity measures the degree to which inferior source or method correctly identifies
individual who, according to the superior method or source, lack the characteristic of interest
(i.e. never used the drug). The following figure illustrates calculation of sensitivity and
specificity?

14) Collect data after both disease and exposure. Measured by cross
sectional study
A) Prevalence
B) Incidence
C) Validity
D) Sensitivity
E) Specificity
Ans. A
15) The major analgesic effect of morphine is due to action on?

A) Enkephalins B) Endorphins C) Dinorphins D) Serotonins
E) Norepinephrines
Ans. A
Tips. Morphine analgesic action is due to action on mu receptors
which binds with Enkephalin peptide type of neurotransmitters. Mu
and kappa receptors strongly bind with endorphins.
Enkephalin Mu and delta
Endorphin mu
16) Which of the following conditions is NOT mediated by

antibody?

a) Hay fever
b) Anaphylaxis
c) Serum sickness
d) Contact dermatitis
e) Autoimmune hemolytic disease
Ans. D
Tips. Contact dermatitis, like poison ivy, is a type IV, hypersensitive
reaction, and mediated by T.cell.
17) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of plasmids?

a) Confer conjugal fertility
b) Carry genetic information
c) Exist as circular RNA molecules
d) Exist as extra chromosomal elements in bacteria
e) None of the above
Ans. C
18) Insertion of genes into an individual cells and tissues to treat a

disease such as hereditary diseases is referred as?
A) DNA recombination
B) Cloning
C) Gene therapy
D) Retrovirus
E) Reverse transcriptase
Ans. C
19) Which of the following has been shown to have a relationship to

carcinoma of the cervix?

a) Papilloma virus
b) Varicella-zoster virus
c) Herpes virus type I
d) Herpes virus type II
Ans. A
Tips. Some strains of papilloma virus causes cervical cancer. The
Gardasil can be used for prevention. Papilloma virus also cause
warts. Zoster is prevented by zostavax II vaccine.
20) Hyperplasia is a condition in which there is?

a) An increase in the size of a part, organ, or cell
b) A decrease in the size of a part, organ or cell
c) An increase in the number of individual tissue elements or cells in
a given organ
d) A congenital defective formation in which there is incomplete
development of an organ or part
e) The production of one type of adult tissue by cells which normally
produce tissue of another type
Ans. C
21. The following hormone catalyzed by 5-alpha reductase to form

potent dihydrotestosterone hormone. The following structure of
hormone is?

A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Androgen D. Vitamin D E.

hydrocortisone
Ans. C
Testosterone ------------------------ dihydrotestosterone
5-alpha reductase
22) All of the following are pharmacodynamic reactions, except?

A) Release of 5ASA from Sulfasalazine
B) Diuretic and insulin actions
C) Sedative with alcohol gives sedation
D) Salbutamol and propranolol drug interactions
E. sulphamethoxazole + trimethoprin
Ans. A
Tips: release of 5ASA from sulfasalazine is a metabolic reaction,
called azoreduction. Some examples of pharmacodynamic
interactions are: alcohol & antihistamine, diuretic with lithium, or
digoxin. Anticoagulants like warfarin with ASA.
23) A patient comes to pick up refills alprazolam 0.5 mg tablets, 15

days before refill time, what action is appropriate?
A) Ask him to come just before 4 to 5 days before refill
B) Call doctor to get refill date change
C) Ask patient reason for early refill
D) Go to emergency or walk in clinic to get medication

E) Refuse refills and educate patient about compliance

Ans. C
24) Phrenic nerve injury can cause?

A. Inability to move elbow
B. Inability to move wrist
C. Sciatic pain in thigh and foot
D. Breathing regulations
Ans.D
Tips: The phrenic nerve is a nerve that originates in the neck and passes down
between the lung and heart to reach the diaphragm.
25) What is defined as "near missed errors"?

a) Dispensing error just occurred but did not harm the patient
B) Dispensing error occurred and caused side effects to patient
C) Dispensing error occurred and did harm to patient
D) Dispensing error occurred but did not reached to patient
E) Dispensing never occurred but once only
Ans. D
Tips. According to ISMP, “near miss or close call” is an event,
situation, or error that took place but was captured before reaching
to patient. Examples Penicillin was ordered for patient with allergic
to drug. However pharmacist was alerted to allergy during computer
order entry, the prescription was called and the penicillin was not
dispensed to patient. Or nurse caught the error before it was
administered to patient.
Q. oncology admixture preparation was identified from inventory

item available on pharmacy computer system, an incorrect
concentration was selected to prepare an infusion. The error was
detected before dispensing and administration and patient was not
affected.
26) Which of the following abbreviation is categorized dangerous

abbreviation by the Institute of safe Medication Practices (ISMP)
A) Q4H B) HS C) IU D) Daily E) Once week
Ans. C

Tips: List of ISMPs dangerous abbreviation are, IU, trailing zero (e.g
4.0), µg, cc (cubic meter) mistaken for U, @, >, <, and lack of .4, D/C,
OD, QOD, QD.
27) Prostaglandins are ecosanides are made within cells

a) On an RNA template
b) On rough endoplasmic reticulum
c) From methionine
d) From progesterone
e) From polyunsaturated fatty acids (arachidonic acid)
Ans: E
28. A man wearing a mask and brandishing a weapon enters your

pharmacy and demands that you hand over the keys of the narcotics
cupboard. What do you do?
A. Hand the keys to him immediately

B. Pretend to look for the keys in order to delay him

C. Try to reach for the phone to alert the police or security
D. Ask patient if you could be helpful by any means
E. Leave the pharmacy immediately
Ans. A
29) Carbon monoxide DECREASES the amount of

a) Bicarbonate in the blood plasma
b) Carbonic anhydrase available in the lungs
c) Oxygen that can be transported by hemoglobin
d) Alveolar surface available for gaseous exchange
e) Carbon dioxide that can be transported by the blood
Ans. C
30) Which of the following is not a diabetic complication?

a) Retinopathy
b) Cardiovascular complication
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Hepatic necrosis

Ans. E
Tips. Liver disease is NOT a complication of diabetes.
31) The physiologically active form of vitamin D produced in the

kidney is
a) 1, 25-dyhyroxycholecalciferol
b) 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
c) 7-dehydrocholesterol
d) Cholescalciferol
e) Ergosterol
Ans. A
Tips: Vitamin D3 i.e. 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol is active vitamin
D.
UV
Cholesterol -------> cholecalciferol --> Vitamin D2 (liver) ------->
Vitamin D3 (renal)
Cholesterol is natural precursor of vitamin D
32) Which of the following diuretic cause hyperchloremic systemic

acidosis?
A) Spironolactone B) acetazolamide C) hydrochlorothiazide
D) furosemide E) mannitol
Ans. B
Tips: ACIDzolamide causes metabolic acidosis. Spironolactone cause
intracellular alkalosis.
Metabolic alkalosis. HCTZ, furosemide

Metabolic acidosis. Acetazolamide, dorzolamide, spironolactone.
33) A patient receiving phenytoin 200 mg BID has a steady-state

level of 8 mg/L. The physician increases the dose to 300 mg BID.
What steady-state concentration would you expect?
a) Greater than 8 mg/L but, less than 12 mg/L
b) Nearly equal to 12 mg/L
c) Significantly greater than 12 mg/L
D) No change in phenytoin steady state concentration
E) None of the above
Ans. C
Tips: Phenytoin displays non-linear metabolism, specifically its
metabolism is reduced with higher serum concentrations; therefore,
resultant steady state phenytoin serum concentrations should
increase in greater proportion than the increase in dosage rate.
34) Calcium supplements separate 2 to 4 hrs from all, except?

A) Ciprofloxacin B) Tetracycline C) Alendronate D) Thyroxin
E) ASA
Ans. E
35. What is used in toothpastes to prevent dental caries?

A.Triclosan
B. Glycerol
C. Sodium triphosphate
D) Menthol

E) Fluoride
Ans. E
36. Cellular protein synthesis is expressed by DNA, RNA to ribosome.

Which of the following is the correct process?
A) Transcription occurs before translation
B) Translation occurs before transcription
C) Transcription occurs after translation
D) Transcription occurs in ribosomal RNA
E) Translation occurs on DNA template
Ans. A

37) A patient cannot afford to buy new medication that is not

covered by his insurance plan. Pharmacist called his doctor and
asked him to change the medication into another medication
covered by the patient’s insurance plan. Which ethical principle did
the pharmacist follow?
a) Beneficence
b) Veracity
c) Justice
d) Nonmaleficence
e) Fidelity
Ans: e
38. What drug act by inhibits the conversion of testosterone to the

androgen 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone?
A. Tamoxifen
B. Clomiphene
C. Raloxefine
D. Finasteride
E-Alendronate
Ans. D

39.Which of the following require shaking before use?

A. Salbutamol inhaler
B. Budesonide nebulizer
C. salmeterol/budesonide diskus
D. Tiotropium handihaler
E. Salmeterol turbuhaler
Ans. A
Tips. MDI require shaking. NO NEED TO SHAKE Powder dose such as
turbuhaler, diskus, handihaler and nebulizer.
40) Selective B 1 adrenergic agonists will produce

a) Glycogenolysis
b) Increased cardiac output
c) Decreased diastolic pressure
d) Decreased peripheral resistance
e) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
Ans. b
41. Carboxyhemoglobin is formed due to?

A. hemoglobin plus O2
B. hemoglobin plus CO2
C. hemoglobin plus CO

D. hemoglobin plus ferrous

E. hemoglobin plus ferric
Ans. C
42) Which one of the following is not a side effect associated with
the use of B 2 agonists in asthma?
a) Tremor resulting from B 2 receptor activation
b) Tachycardia resulting from B 1 receptor activation
c) Bradycardia resulting from B 1 receptor activation
d) Headache and apprehension resulting from vasodilatation
Ans. C
43) Which of the following reference books contain information

about infant formula milk?
A) Compendium Pharmaceutical Specialties
B) Pediatric handbook
C) Compendium of Therapeutic Minor Ailment
D) Martindale
E) Compendium of Therapeutics choices
Ans. C

Tips. Compendium of Therapeutic Minor Ailments consist

information about the types of formula milk for children. (Infant
nutrition).
44. Which of the following vitamins is depleted in the blood by

smoking?
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin A
Ans. A
Tips. Smokers have more tendencies to vitamin C depletion rather
than other vitamins
45) Protrusion of upper part of stomach into thorax through a tear

is defined as?
A. Peptic ulcer b. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Crohn's disease D.
Hiatal hernia
Ans. D

46. Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs

may include:
I- Nasal route has a higher surface area
II. Nasal route has more blood vessels
III- Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-I, II and III
Ans. D
47. Which of the following risk increase after hip or knee

replacement surgery?
A. Myocardial infarction B. stroke C. Angina D. Vein thrombosis
Ans. D
48) which of the following is an infectious complication associated

with HIV if the CD4 is 350?
A. Mycobacterium avium, complex
B. Oral candidiasis
C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D. Hodgkin's lymphoma
E. All of the above
Ans. A
Tips: All of these infectious disorders are associated with HIV infect
and also known opportunistic infections.
Q.

CD 4 cells /microL (µL) Type of opportunistic infections

350 Q. M. tuberculosis
275 Kaposis sarcoma
200 Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
100 Q. P. carinii jerovici (pneumonia)
50 Cytomegalovirus and M. avium intracellular
49. When you acquire business, what is the first step you should
plan to do?
A. Talk to your competitors
B. Check prescription fee of other pharmacies in area
C. Meet prescribers in area
D. Geographical market area analysis
E. Check the salary of staff
Ans. c
50. There are 12 cranial nerve. Of these cranial nerve, the vagus
nerve?

A. sensation from visceral (internal) organs and parasympathetic

motor regulation of visceral organs
B. serves muscle that move head, neck, and shoulders
C. serves muscles of the tongue
D. Equilibrium and hearing
Ans. A


51. A very frequent customer at your pharmacy, request for 15 days

supply of Lipitor 10 mg tablets. Next few hours he has to take a flight
for vacation. Currently all walk-in-clinics are closed and his physician
is not available for prescription. Customer has no prescription and no
refills of Lipitor? According to extended scope of pharmacy practice
pharmacist dispensed 15 days of drugs? This is defined as?
A. Adaptation
B. Advancing a drug
C. Pharmaceutical opinion
D. Professional discretion
E. Professional judgement
Ans. B
52. Coalescence is problem affecting on stability of?

A. suspension b. emulsion c. tablets D.Capsule E.
suppositories
Ans. b
Tips: coalescence is fusing globules into larger drops.
53) What is purpose of academic detailing?

A) To enhance patient compliance of medication
B) Drug coverage in insurance plans and formularies
C) Drug use and drug overuse
D) To enhance physician prescription practices
E) To enhance appropriate use of broad spectrum antibiotics

Ans: D
Tips: A process of outreach in which a knowledgeable heath
professional (pharmacist) visit physicians to discuss issues of to
improve physician prescription practices. The goal of academic
detailing is to improve or enhance physician prescription practices.
54. What types of drugs having these properties SHOULD NOT be

formulated into SR forms
A) Poor solubility (dissolution rate is limiting step)
B) Very long half-life (no need) or very short half life (need very large
amounts)
C) Very high potency (individual variation increase high dose)
D) Narrow margin of safety e.g. digoxin
E) All of the above
Ans. E
Tips. Poor solubility (dissolution rate is limiting step). Very long half
life (no need) or very short half life (need very large amounts). Very
high potency (individual variation increase high dose)
Narrow margin of safety e.g. digoxin
55. Which of the following resources would provide the most up-to-
date answer when checking new approved drug marketed in
Canada?

a) eCPS
b) Health Canada's drug product data base
c) Food and Drug Administration website
d) Martindale’s
e) Compendium of Therapeutic choices
Ans: BNS
Tips. Health Canada's drug product database (DPD) consist most up-
to-date information about approved and marketed drugs in Canada.
56. What is the drug of choice in diabetic foot infection?

a. ciprofloxacin B. cloxacillin C. Amoxicillin D. Cotrimoxazole E.
vancomycin
Ans. B
57. When we add salt to solvent, what is correct?

A. Increase boiling point
B. Increase vapor pressure
C. Decrease boiling point
D. Increase freezing point
Ans. A
Tips. Colligative properties
• Lowering vapor pressure
• Increase in boiling point
• Decrease in freezing point
• Osmotic pressure (proportional to particle)
58. Presence of 17-ethinyl group in the following estrogen structures

results in?

A) Oral stable products

B) Carcinogenic side effects
C) Nausea and vomiting side effects
D) Weight loss side effects
E) Na/water retention
Ans. A
59. Lithium carbonate is particularly effective in treating

a) Parkinson’s Disease
b) Hypertension
c) Schizophrenia
d) Acute anxiety
e) Manic-depressive psychosis
Ans. E
60. Amphetamine acts by

a) Promoting storage of the mediator
b) Causing a rapid release of the mediator
c) Causing a slow depletion of the mediator
d) Combining with a receptor substance on the effectors cell
e) Interfering with the response of the receptor to the mediator
Ans. B

61. Generally, elixirs do not require antimicrobial preservatives. The

reason is:
A. They contain high sugar content.
B. If they contain greater than 12% alcohol, they are self-
preserving.
C. The active ingredient is usually an antimicrobial agent.
D. The active ingredient is usually an antimicrobial agent.
E. They are only used as vehicles. Final product must contain a
preservative.
Ans. B
62) All the following are examples of long acting benzodiazepines,

EXCEPT:
a) Clonazepan b) Diazepam c) Chlorazepate
d) Flurazepan e) Temazepan
Ans: E
63) ABC pharmacy revenue for the last financial year was
declined. The financial statement of pharmacy reflect which of
the following?
A. increase in revenue
B. Increase in net profit
C. decrease in net profit
D. increase in expenses
E. Decrease in expenses
Ans. c

64. Using the following correct procedures can reduce the presence
of micro organisms in parenteral products:
A) Using 0.22 micron filter
B) Working in a laminar flow hood
C) Using aseptic techniques
D) Preparation by qualified personal
E) All of the above
Ans. E
65. Septal defect is?

A. Ventricular arrhythmias B. Atrial Arrhythmias C. Hole in the heart
D. Myocardial infarction E. Congestive heart failure
Ans. C
Tips. Atrial septal defect is a congenital heart defect in which blood
flows between the atria of the heart. The hole occurs in the wall of
septum (chamber wall) allows blood to pass from left to the right
side of the heart.

66) Biohazard products should be prepared in:

I) Vertical flow hood
II) Horizontal flow hood
III) Can be prepared open atmosphere no needed of flow hood.
A) I only
B) III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, III
Ans: A
Tips: biohazard and chemotherapeutic products should be prepared
in vertical laminar airflow hood also known as biological safety
cabinets (BSC). This minimized exposure to operator.
67) What is correct about nucleoside?

A. base + phosphate
B. base+ sugar
C. sugar + phosphate
D. phosphate+ base
E. base + sugar + phosphate
Ans. B
Tips: nucleoside has no phosphate
NucleoTIDE = base+sugar+ phosphate

68. A new drug require $20,000 more than older drug per deep vein
thrombosis? What is the type of the study? What type of
pharmacoeconomic methodology is used to analyse this?
A. Cost effective analysis
B. Cost benefit analysis
C. Cost minimization analysis
D. Cost utility analysis
Ans. A
69) A pharmacist is required to give knowledge of drugs and supply

the patient with enough pieces of information to overcome the
patient ignorance. This is done by:
a) Written information only
b) Verbal information only
c) Verbal and written information
d) Magazines and folders information
e) Video information
Ans: C
70) The MOST common clinical cause of bacterial resistance is

a) Improper antibiotic selection

b) Faulty gastrointestinal absorption of antibiotics
c) Use of antibiotics when they are not indicated
d) Failure to use culture and sensitivity tests
Ans. C
71. Double set of unpaired chromosomes are?

A) Recombination
B) Hemophilia
C) Hapten
D) Haploid
E) Diploid
Ans. D
Tips: Unpaired chromosomes are haploids. Paired is diploid.
72) GLP-1 analog are structurally and functionally same as human

GLP-1. When administered subcutaneously they increase GLP-1
action by five folds. Which of the following is a GLP-1 analog?
A. Canagliflozin B. Sitagliptine C.Exenatide D. Linagliptine
E. Glimepiride
Ans. C

73. You are working as pharmacist in pharmacy A. The Pharmacist in

pharmacy B was breaking a pharmacy law?
A. Complain to college of pharmacy
B. Talk to manager of pharmacy B
C. Ignore it is not your pharmacy problem
D. Complain to police
Ans. B
74) Penicillin should be administrated 1 hour before meals or 2 to 3

hours after meals in order to:
A. Improve the bioavailability
B. Maximize the dissolution rate
C. Avoid interaction with calcium ions
Ans. A
Tips: Penicillin’s should be administrated in an empty stomach in
order to improve its bioavailability.
75) For a patient suffering from headache and who is on ranitidine

and allopurinol, what would be your recommendation to treat
headache?
a) Aspirin
b) Acetaminophen
c) Enteric coated Aspirin
d) Discontinue the allopurinol
e) Ibuprofen
Ans. B
Tips. NSAID should be avoided in patient with GI problem. Aspirin
may cause GI ulcers (patient is on ranitidine) and Aspirin increase
gout arthritis.

LEAD-IN
76) Insurance companies pay for the drugs of cheapest price of

substituted medications. According to the following data which
medication could be chose?
a) 40 mg bid with a cost of $0.55/tablet
b) 20 mg qid with a cost of $0.60/tablet
c) 80 mg qd with a cost of $1.90/tablet
d) 120 mg hs with a cost of $2.30/tablet
e) 40 mg qid with a cost of $0.50/tablet
Ans. A
77) Correct statements regarding aminoglycosides may include:

I) Has a half-life of 32 hours
II- The effect continue remain after all drug is eliminated
III- The relation plasma concentration and half life is not clear
A) I only B-III only C) I and II only D) II and III only
E) I, II, III
Ans. D
Tips. Aminoglycosides are inhibitors of protein synthesis
characterized for having a very small therapeutic window and for
having the relation plasma concentration and half-life not clear,
therefore its therapeutic use should be closely monitored to avoid
serious side effect.

78. All of the following are TNF alpha inhibitors except?

A. Adalimumab
B. Infliximab
C. Golimumab and Certrolizumab
D. Etanercept
E. Rituximab
Ans. E
Tips. Rituximab is a b-cell depletor.
79. A results in statistically significant and reject the null hypothesis,

when in fact null is true?
A. type 1 error B. type 2 error C. statistical significant D.
confidence interval
Ans. A


80. According to Institute of safe medication practices (ISMP), which

of the following drug require label as high alert?
A. Simvastatin
B. Lisinopril
C. Digoxin
D. progesterone
E. Estrogen
Ans. C
Tips. High Alert Drugs: The drug that bare heightened risk of causing
patient harm when they are used in error. Example. IV epinephrine,
norepinephrine, IV BBs, IV antiarrhythmic drugs, anticoagulants
(warfarin, LMWH, heparin), chemotherapy, dextrose, NaCl hyper
tonic 20% or greater. Digoxin, opioid, TPN, sterile water for injection,
>100 ml container. All insulin, pregnancy category X drugs.
Metformin, methotrexate, PTU.
Reference. www.ISMP.org/tools/highalertmedicationLists.asp
81. A patient checks the blood pressure in pharmacy. The patient blood
pressure was 140/90. Pharmacist assist patients to double check the blood
pressure. The patient blood pressure was 140/90 what is appropriate action?
A. patient should be recommend to do lifestyle modifications to control blood
pressure
B. patient should be referred to doctor to confirmation of blood pressure.
C. patient should be referred to emergence
D. patient blood pressure is not too high so patient need not to worry.
E. Pharmacist should check again patient blood pressure
Ans. B

82) Four types of physician, and their patient involved in study.

Which non-parametric method is appropriate?
A. T-test
B. Chi-square
C. Anova
D. F-Test
E. Mean
Ans. B
Tips. Non parametric method is Chi-square. The other tests are
parametric mean, T-test, Anova, and F-Test.
83) Second generation antipsychotic drug are mainly indicated for:

A) Positive schizophrenia symptoms
B) Negative schizophrenia symptoms
C) Negative and positive symptoms
D-Depression and schizophrenia
E-Seizures and depression
Ans. C
Tips. The second generation antipsychotics i.e. olanzapine,
risperidone, clozapine and quetiapine are mainly indicated for the
treatment of negative schizophrenia symptoms where as 1st
generation antipsychotics i.e. haloperidol, chlorpromazine,
phenothiazines are mainly indicated for the treatment of positive
schizophrenia symptoms. Clozapine is indicated for +ve and –ve
symptoms.

84) Which of the following prescription require pharmacist

intervention?
A. Amoxicillin 500 mg 4 capsules before procedure
B. Azithromycin 250 mg, take 2 tab day 1 and 1 tab day 2-5.
C. Atorvastatin daily for 3 months
D. Metformin 500 mg bid for 3 month
E. Gliclazide 30 mg (Dimicron MR) one tab daily for 3 month
Ans. C
Tips. Atorvastatin daily, dose is missing.
85) A drug was wrongly dispensed to a patient what is the main

concern?
A. Legal action
B. Financial Liability
C. Patient safety
D. Drug effectiveness
E. Licence suspension
Ans. C
86) You are to prepare 750 mg medication in 75 mL for infusion over 30

minutes, using a 10-drop set. How many drops/min will that be?
A. 20 drops/min
B. 25 drop/min
C. 30 drops/min

D. 10 drops/min
E. 5 drops/min
Ans. B
Specified volume of fluid = 75 mL
Drops/ml of the administered set = 10 drops/mL
First calculate the rate in mL/hr:
Now we can use the formula for drops/minute:

x drops/min = (150 mL/hr) x (10 drops/mL)
60 min/hr
x drops/min = 25 drops/min
or
75 ml........30 min
?................1 min
= 2.5 ml/min
1 ml ....... 10 drops
2.5 ml...........?
= 25 drop/min
Flow rate (ml/min) = total volume (ml) x drop factor
Time in minutes
Infusion = Total volume to infuse (ml)
Milliliter per min being infused (min)
87) You are requested to add 44 mEq of sodium chloride (NaCl) to

an IV bag. Sodium chloride is available as a 4 mEq/ml solution. How
many milliliters will you add to the bag?
a. 20 ML b. 8 mL C. 11 mL D. 15 mL E. 25 mL
Ans. C
x mL = 1mL

44 mEq 4 mEq
x mL = (44 mEq) x 1 mL
4 meq
x mL = 11 mL
88) Which of the following receptors are mediated by chemotherapy

induced nausea and vomiting?
A. type 1 serotonin
B. type 2 serotonin
C. type 3 serotonin
D. type 4 serotonin
Ans. c
Tips: type 3 serotonin receptors are 5HT3. Setrons are 5HT3
antagonist
89. Simethicone is?

A) Laxative
B) Antiflatulance
C) Antidiarrheal
D) Antacids
E) Mucosal protective agent
Ans. B

90) Buffers are made with?

A. Sodium acetate and acetic acid
B. Base and acid mixture
C. Acid and Acid mixture
D. Base and base mixture
Ans. A
Tips. Buffer are made with acid and their salt (sodium acetate and
acetic acid) or base and their salt.
91) The molecular weight of magnesium sulfate (Mg 2+ SO4 2-) is 120
mg and its valence is 2. How many milligrams does 1 mEq of
magnesium sulfate weigh?
A. 20 mg B. 40 mg C.60 mg D. 80 mg E. 100 mg
Ans. C
1 mEq = (120 mg/2)
= 60 mg
92) An average adult has a body surface area of 1.72 m2 and requires
an adult dosage of 12 mg of a given medication. The same
medication is to be given to a child in a pediatric dosage. If the child
has a body surface area of 0.60 m2, and if the proper dosage for
pediatric and adult patients is a linear function of the body surface
area (in other words, think of the child as a small adult), what is the
proper pediatric dosage?
A. 7mg B. 4 mg C. 6 mg D. 8 mg E. 10 mg
Ans. B

The assumptions regarding the calculation of pediatric dosages make it possible

to use a proportion:
x mg = 12 mg
2
0.06 m 1.72 m2
1.72x mg = 7.2 mg
x mg = 4.2 mg
Rounding down, since it is for a child, the proper dosage is 4 mg.
93. Which of the following is not available as over the counter drug?
A. bisacodyl b. mupirocin c. Cetirizine D. diclofena topical E.
ibuprofen 300 mg
Ans. b
Tips: mupirocin is prescription antibiotic. WWW.NAPRA.ORG
94) You have a stock solution that contains 10 mg of active

ingredient per 5 ml of solution. The physician orders a dose of 4 mg.
how many milliliters of the stock solution will have to be
administered?
A. 2 mL B. 4 mL C. 6 mL D. 8 mL E. 10 mL
Ans. A
Using the information provided, set up a proportion:
x mL = 5 mL
4 mg 10 mg
10x mL = 20 mL
x mL = 2 mL
Thus 2 ml of solution are needed to provide the dose.
95. A researcher develops a new drug to prevent the common cold in

children . 1000 children received placebo and 1000 received the
drug. During the one-year follow up the research diagnosed colds in

2.5% of the kids on placebo and in 2% of the active treatment. What

is the absolute risk reduction?
A) 0.5% B-20% C-10% D-40% E) 5%
Ans. A
Tips. Absolute risk reduction (ARR) = EER – CER
2.5% - 2% = 0.5%
96. Who set the prices of prescription brand name of patented

medicine drugs in Canada?
A) Patented Medicine Price Review Board (PMPRB)
B)Health Canada
C) Provincial government
D) Federal government
E) Manufacturer
Ans. A
97. Which of the following drug combination therapy most likely

associated with serotonin syndrome?
A) Fluoxetine and bupropion
B) Tranylcypromine and paroxetine
C) Amitriptyline and selegiline
D) Rasagiline and fluoxetine
E) Bupropion and venlafaxine
ans. B
Tips. Tranylcypromine is non-selective MAOi and SSRIs or TCA
combination is more likely can cause serotonin syndrome.
Q, Signs and symptoms of Serotonin syndrome
Neurobehavioral confusion, agitation, seizures, coma,
Autonomic Hyperthermia (fever), diaphoresis (sweating), tachycardia,

hypertension, diarrhea
Neuromuscular Myoclonus, rigidity, tremor (shivering), ataxia, shivering,
nystagmus
98) All of the following statements with regard to the autocoids

prostaglandin are correct EXCEPT,
a) It is a fatty acid
b) It is derived from essential amino acids
c) It is thought to be involved in the inflammatory process
d) It is thought to be involved in the reproductive process
e) Its synthesis may be inhibited by non steroidal anti-inflammatory
agents
Ans. B
99. Diabetic supplies e.g. blood glucose testing agents, syringes,

lancets are identified as?
A) Drug identification number
B) Natural product number
C) Product identification number (PIN)
D) Homeopathic Medicine Number (DIN-HM)
E) Universal product code
Ans. C

100) Which phase involves the comparison between the test drug
and the standard drug in the process of developing a new drug?
A. Preclinical trial
B-Phase I trial
C- Phase II trial
D- Phase III trial
E- Phase IV trial
Ans. D
101) What is the p?

A. probability of error or level of significant in type 1 error
B. probability of error or level of significant in type 2 error
C. probability of all errors in a study
E. probability of false negative error
Ans. A
102) MK is 60 year old post menopausal women, recently had

hysterectomy and currently suffering from vasomotor symptoms.
Which of the following is hormonal therapy is appropriate?
A. Androgen
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. estrogen and progesterone
E. no hormonal therapy is recommended
Ans. B

103) What is suitable reference source to locate detail information

about drug-grape fruit juice interaction?
A. CTC
B. USP-DI Vol. I
C-PDR
D-CPS
E-Merck Manual
Ans. D
104. Which of the following is the incorrect about a general

anesthetic ketamine regulations?
A. It is regulated as straight narcotic
B. Ketamine should be given only by written prescription.
C. Ketamine can be refilled only 3 times maximum
D. Ketamine prescription cannot be transferred
E. Ketamine prescription hard copy should be stored for minimum 2
years
Ans. C
105) What is not recommended for the management of burn?

A. Ibuprofen
B. Fusidic Acid 2%
C. Amikacin IM

D. Fentanyl IV
E. Silver Sulfadiazine 1%
Ans. C
106) What is correct about Reverse Phase High Performance Liquid Chromatography?
I- Mobile phase is a non-polar solvent
II- The particle size of stationary phase affects resolution
III) Utilize high pressure pump to increase efficiency in the resolution
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) I,II,III
Ans. D
Tips. In HPLC if use organic solvents (non polar), it is normal phase. If use water or polar
solvents than it is reversed phase.
MOBILE Normal HPLC MOBILE Reversed phase HPLC
Organic solvent (non polar) Aqueous solvents
Hydrophobic (lipid soluble) drugs Hydrophilic Water soluble drugs
107) What is the mechanism of action of propylthiouracil in

treatment o of hyperthyroidism?
A) Interferes with concentration of iodide ion in the thyroid gland
B) Inhibits the synthesis of both idotyrosine and idothyronine
C) Inhibition of T4 deiodination (blocks the conversion of T4 to T3)
D) Inhibition of T3 deiodination
E) Inhibition of serum TSH
Ans. C

Tips. Inhibits the thioglobulins and inhibit T4 to T3 formation.
108. MK is 55 yo man just diagnosed with COPD. He smokes half pack of

cigarettes daily. His pharmacist advised and counselled to quit smoking. MK
started nicotine patch. He returns after 3 days complains he is not able to
sleep or feeling insomnia?
A. Insomnia is nicotine withdrawal symptom
B. Insomnia side effect of nicotine patch
C. Insomnia is due to COPD
D. All nicotine product can cause insomnia, he should be switched to
bupropion
E. COPD patient should not use nicotine patch
Tips. A
Tips. Insomnia is withdrawal symptoms of nicotine. Counsel patient on sleep
hygiene.
109) A customer of your pharmacy using metformin 500 mg bid and

glyburide qd. Complains to have gritty and sandy feeling in eye.
What is appropriate to do?
A) Refer to doctor because of diabetic condition
B) Refer to doctor because sandy and gritty feeling in eye is
conjunctivitis.
C) Refer to doctor because glyburide side effect is dry eye
D) Refer to doctor because metformin side effect is dry eye
E)Refer to doctor because these are side effects of anticholinergic
drugs
Ans. A

110) Which of the followings is Not correct?

A) Children receive smaller doses of drugs, as their metabolizing
enzymes are not developed
B) Deficiencies of vitamins affect drug-metabolizing capacity
C) Congestive heart failure affects liver metabolism by altering
hepatic blood flow
D) Genetic differences affect both the rate and extent of drug
metabolism
E) Increasing the dose does not affect metabolizing capacity, as
enzymes are continuously formed in liver at a constant rate
Ans. E
111) Acetylcholine and epinephrine antagonize the effect of each

other. What type of antagonism is it?
A. Physiological antagonism
B. Somatic antagonism
C-Competitive antagonism
D-Neutralizing antagonism
E-Opposite antagonism
Ans. A

112) What is BPMH?

A. Blood pressure medication history
B. Best possible medication history
C. Best possible medication records
D. Best possible myocardial history
E. Best person medication history
Ans. B
Tips. BPMH is best possible medication histories. Used for gather
patient medication information in medication reconciliation process.
The purpose of med. Reconciliation is to distribute information to
healthcare professionals.
113) Which one is incorrect about oleaginous base?

I) Decrease side effects of corticosteroids
II. Prevent water evaporation from skin
III. Petrolatum and glycerine is an examples
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans. A

114) A patient reports to emergence with diabetic keto acidosis

medical condition. What incorrect about diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) the major ketone is beta hydroxybutyric acid
B) it is mainly occurs in type 1 DM
C) Fruity smell is symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis
D) Diabetic ketoacidosis is NOT life threatening
E) diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to severe hyper/hypoglycemia
Ans. D
Tips: The most common causes of diabetic ketoacidosis are
1. Concomitant infections (40%)
2. Missed insulin treatment (25%)
3. Newly diagnosed and previously unknown diabetes (15%)
4. Other cause make up roughly 20% in various scenarios.
DKA is the most common of death in children with diabetes, and
fatal <1%.
115) A 9 years old boy is suffering from absence seizure. Which drug
is recommended for this patient?
a) Phenytoin
b) Ethosuximide
c) Gabapentin
d) Carbamazepine
e) Pregabalin
Ans. B
116) Which of the following contraceptive methods prevents

gonorrhea and Chlamydia infections?

A) Transdermal contraceptives
B) Intrauterine device
C) Vaginal cream
D) Sub dermal progesterone implants
Ans. E
Tips: only condoms prevent STIs.
117) Medications to be prescribed and sold in Canada are approved

by?
A. Canadian Health Act
B. NAPRA
C. Therapeutic Directorate, Health Canada
D.Federal Government of Canada
E. Provincial governments
Ans. C
118) Which of the following acne therapy available only oral?

A) ErythromycinB) clindamycin C) Isotretinoin D) Tretinoin
Ans. C
Tips. Isotretinoin is only available as oral prep is 13-cis retinoic acid.
However all of the above have topical preps. Tretinoin is only topical
and is 13-trans retinoic acid.
119. Which of the followings is Not associated with isoniazid?

A. Vitamin B 6 supplements is given to minimize the neuropathy side

effects
B-Orange-red urine
C-Convulsion
D-Agranulocytosis
E-Hepatotoxicity
Ans. B
120) Which of the following special population has high water

content in body?
A. Pregnant women b. Infants C. Elderly D. Neonates E. children
Ans. D
121) A nurse mistakenly administered double dose of insulin to a 80

year old senior diabetic patient? Which of the following symptoms
may NOT occur
A. Confusion
B. Tremor
C-Palpitation
D. Hunger
E. Diarrhea
Ans. E
Tips. Over dose of insulin gives hypoglycemia symptoms such as
sweating, confusion, tremors, palpitation. However no diarrhea

122) Which of the following is NOT screening test for cancer?

A) Prostate specific antigen
B) Digital rectal exam
C) Pap smear
D) ESR
E) Colonoscopy
Ans. D
Tips: Prostate specific antigen (PSA) and DRE screened for prostate
cancer screening. Pap smear screening cervical cancer. Colonoscopy
for colon cancer.
123) All of the following drugs are associated with decreased

appetite, Except?
A. Metformin
B. Clomipramine
C. Bupropion
D. Atomoxetine
E. Methylphenidate
Ans. B
124) A prescription signs as indicates “ii gtt. au qd x 1/52”. It can be

interpreted as:
a. 2 drops in each of both the ears four times a day for 1 week
b. Apply 1 tube to affected area four times a day for 1 day
c. 2 drops in left ear once a day for 7 days
d. 2 drops in each of both the ears once a day for 7 days
e. 2 drops in each of both the eyes once a day for 1 week
Ans. D

125.What spectroscopic methods detects hydrogen, carbons by

nuclear spinning of hydrogen ion ?
A. Mass spectrometer
B. Nuclear magnetic resonance
C. Western blot
D. Ultra violet spectrometer
E. HPLC
Ans. B
Tips: NMR detects hydrogen, carbon by nuclear spinning of hydrogen
ion. NMR also detects isomers.
126. What is correct about Alpha lipoic acid?

A) Essential for aerobic metabolism
B) Has antioxidant properties
C) Organosulfur compound derived from octanoic acid
D) Lipoic acid is cofactor for some enzymes
E) all of the above
Ans. E

127. Which of the followings is Not a correct recommendation for a

patient with Congestive Heart Failure?
A-Restricted sodium intake (<2 to 3 g/day) in all patients
B-Regular physical exercise like walking, jogging, swimming in all
patients
C-Control obesity, hypertension and diabetes mellitus if present
D. Restricted fluid intake (1.5 to 2L/day) in all patients
E-Allowed moderate alcohol consumption in patients with less
severe condition
Ans. B
128) What is incorrect of subcutaneous injections

A) Given just below the skin and the layer of fatty tissue usually in
the arm or thigh
B) Suspensions or oily fluids can be used
C) A small volume (<2 mL) can be administered
D) All types of insulin can be administered by subcutaneous injection
E) Larger amount can be administered in subcutaneous injection
Ans. E
Tips. SC are given <2 mL and IM are <5 mL.
129) Which of the followings are communication barrier?

A) Pharmacy counter height
B) Confidence
C) Cell phone
D) Language

E) All of the above

Ans. E
130. What is the primary pathogen to cause Acute Otitis Media?

I) H. influenza
II) S. pneumonia
III) M. catarrhalis
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans. E
131. Which of the following statement is incorrect about alcohol and

drug interactions?
A. Alcohol and metronidazole can give disulfiram reactions
B-Alcohol and metformin can give lactic acidosis
C-Alcohol and chlorpropamide can give lactic acidosis
D-Alcohol and benzodiazepines can give sedation
E-All are correct
Ans. C
132) What is primary protein structure?

a) Linear sequence

b) Alpha helix
c) Beta pleated sheet
d) Protein consisting more than one protein chain
e) Three dimensional structure
Ans. A
Tips. Primary structure linear sequence
Secondary are alpha helix and beta pleated sheet.
Tertiary are three dimensional.
133) All of the following are true about transdermal patches? Except
A) Drug with short half-life and large quantity can be used
B) Effectiveness for a long period of time allowing for retention of
patch for a number of hours
C) Consistent blood drug level of drug is achieved.
D. Fentanyl patch is applied for 48 hours
E. Fentanyl has short half life
Ans. D
Tips. Fentanyl patch is used for 72 hours. Transdermal should have
short half lives.

134) What modifies protein activity by adding phosphate group or by

phosphorylation?
A) Transcription B) post-Translation C) Protein kinases D)
Epimerization E) Catalysis
Ans. C
Tips. Phosphorylation is the addition of a phosphate (PO43−) group to
a protein or other organic molecule e.g. organophosphate.
Phosphorylation turns many protein enzymes on and off, thereby
altering their function and activity. Protein phosphorylation is one
type of post-translational modification.
Protein kinases
Protein ------------------------> phosphorylated proteins
135) Sitagliptin (Januvia) act by?

A) Inhibiting DPP4 enhances incretin like GLP hormones
B) Inhibiting insulin
C) Inhibiting glucagon
D) Increasing incretin levels
E) Analog of incretin
Ans. A

136. A patient using glargine insulin and insulin lispro morning and bedtime.
Patient feels hypoglycemia at bedtime? What is appropriate to do?
A. decrease dose of glargine
B. decrease dose of lispro
C. Recommend to take snacks before bedtime
D. Recommend to avoid lispro insulin
Ans. C
137) Contraceptive methods that may protect STDs such as, gonorrhea,
syphilis, chlamydia, and AIDS?
A) Vaginal rings
B) Spermicidal gel
C-Intrauterine devices
D-Vaginal cream
E-Condoms
Ans. E
138. A pharmacy cost of drug for over the counter drug is $2.00 and sales price
is $2.50. Calculate the mark up (percentage of margin)?
A) 25% B) 30% C) 40% D) 50% E) 80%
Ans. A
markup% = 100 * (sales price-cost)/cost.
= 100 x ($2,50 - $2.00)/$2.00 = 25%
retail price or sales price = Cost + (cost x %markup)
Cost = retail price/(1+%markup)
Cost = $2.50/(1+0.25) = $2.00
139) A prescription sign as indicates “1 gtt ou qid x 10”. It can be

interpreted as:
a) 1 drop to right eye four times a day for 10 days
b) Apply 1 tube to affected area four times a day for 10 days

c) 1 drop to both eyes four times a day for 10 days

d) 1 drop to left eye four times a day for 10 days
Ans. C
140) A hospital pharmacist attending a pharmaceutical product trade

show. A sales representative provides information of a new
promotional products in CD. What is appropriate to do?
A) Do not accept any promotional CD.
B) Take this CD, and review then give it to your hospital pharmacy
manager.
C) Take this CD but do NOT discuss with your manager
D) Do not attend any tradeshows or conferences in future
Ans. B
Tips. The promotional information that are given in conferences or
tradeshows can be worth discussing with supervisor.
141) Antibiotics with high partition coefficient from bacterial cell

wall have?
A) Lower absorption
B) Higher absorption
C) Absorption of drugs does not depends on partition coefficient
D) Absorption of drugs does not depends on bacterial cell wall
E) Partition coefficient <1 has high absorption
Ans. B
Tips. Higher partition coefficient the higher the absorption.

142) A medication previously approved by insurance is referred as?

A. off label drug
B. Pre-authorized medication
c. Special access program
D. orphan drug
Ans. B
143. Who promotes, sets and implements model standards of

pharmacy practice in Canada?
A-Provincial colleges of pharmacy
B-Pharmacy examination of board of Canada
C-National association of pharmacy regulatory authority (NAPRA)
D. Federal government
Ans. C
144. The axillary nerve supplies which one of the following muscles?
A. Deltoid. B. Supraspinatus. C. Teres major. D. Infraspinatus. E
Latissimus dorsi.
Ans. A

145) Which of the following an example of luteinizing hormone

releasing hormone (LHRH), a hormone that is naturally produced in
the body and involved in the release of testosterone. Administering
such agents reduces testosterone production. All of the following are
example of analog of LHRH that is used as chemotherapy for
prostate cancer treatment? Except
A) goseriline acetate
B) buserelin acetate
C) leuprolide acetate
D) Finasteride
Ans. D
Tips: The other drugs for prostate cancer include anti testosterone
that inhibits androgen are flutamide, bicalutamide, and nelutamides.
146) Muscle temporalis have the following functions?

A. Adduction B-Abduction C-flexion D-biceps E-mastication
Ans. E

147. Atrial fibrillation, all of the following are true, except?

A. irregularly irregular rhythm
B. P wave can be frequent or not seen
C. can increase the risk of stroke
D. Can be due to heart valve defect
E. heart rate will not change
Ans. E
Tips. Atrial fibrillation, P wave and QRS wave are affected. In atrial
flutter only P wave changes.
148) What is daily maximum dose of acetaminophen?

A. 10 g B. 4 g C-7 g D-1 g E. 8 g
Ans. B
149. MP is 49 year old male, has been prescribed amlodipine 10 mg

daily to treat hypertension. What is incorrect about amlodipine?
A) Bradycardia
B) May cause peripheral or ankle edema
C) Dihydropyridine is essential for activity
D) Avoid taking grapefruit juice
E) May cause orthostatic hypotension and headache
Ans. A
Tips. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers may cause reflex
tachycardia. Verapamil and diltiazem causes bradycardia
150) A pharmacist is making a presentation on medication

adherence and compliance to group of patients. Which of the
following is the most effective in your presentation.

A-reduce the number of prescription refill dates per month

B-Reduce the number of prescription filled per month
C-have more quantities in each refill
D-prescription fill dates closer to expected fill intervals
E-None of the above
Ans. D

151. Which of the following group is NOT covered by the federal

drug benefit program?
A) inmates
B)refugees
C)seniors >65 yr old
D)natives or aboriginals
E)RCMP
Ans. C
152. The hospital pharmacist is asked for advice from a physician

after a newly admitted patient is diagnosed with ischemic stroke. In
the selection of drug therapy for the initial management of this
patient, the pharmacist would find all of the following resources
useful, EXCEPT:
A) Published clinical guidelines
B) Harrison’s principles of internal medicine
C) Cochrane database
D) Compendium of Therapeutic Choices
E) Compendium of Therapeutic Minor Ailment
Ans.E
Tips: Cochrane database is evidence based medicine data base.
Harrison's principles of internal medicine is text book of medicine.
Therapeutic choices offers treatment options.
153. The practice of writing part of a drugs name in upper letter to

help distinguish?
A. Dispensing error of generic and brand name drugs
B. Packaging error of medication
C. Dose errors of drugs
D. To prevent incidents of Sound alike and look alike drugs

E. drugs name with same first and last letter
Ans. D
154. A compounding technique used in preparing creams, ointment,

and supps that involves integrating a soluble solid substance (active
ingredient) into an oleaginous base by first melting the base under
low heat, then mixing the solid substance into the melted base and
allowing the mixture to cool and solidify is termed as?
A. Geometric dilution B. Fusion C. Trituration D. Levigation E.
Pulverisation
Ans. B
155.MP is 50 year old women. She is using metformin 1000 mg bid

for the past one year but her blood glucose levels HbA1C is >8%.
What is appropriate to add medication to control her blood glucose
levels?
A. Sitagliptine
B. Acarbose
C. Liraglutide
D. Gliclazide
E. Insulin
Ans. d
Tips. Metformin is the drug of choice. if not controlled by metformin
then add sulfonylureas.
Sequence DM2. Metformin --> sulfonylurea --> sitagliptin/liraglutide
/insulin.
DM1. Insulin basal insulin

156. JP 60 yo man hospitalized for a surgical procedure. A clinician

describes the surgical procedure. This is termed as?
A. Confidentiality
B. Consent
C. Disclosure
D. Ethical standard
E. Legal requirement
Ans. C
157. A chemical drug-drug incompatibility between gentamycin and

penicillin's takes place thus inactivates both antibiotics. Gentamycin
N-acetylation by the penicillin's?
A. Beta lactam ring
B. Amide bond
C. Ester on dihydrothiazine ring
D. Thiazolidine ring
E. carboxylic acid on penicillin
Ans. A
Tips. A chemical drug-drug incompatibility between gentamycin C 2a
and beta lactam. Two drugs react with each other so that N-acylation
of C1 of gentamycin by the beta lactam bond takes place, thus
inactivates both antibiotics.

158. Which of the following cytochrome drug interactions are

incorrect?
A. grapefruit juice is inhibitor of CYP3A4
B. SSRIs fluoxetine is inhibitor of CYP2D6
C. clopidogrel is substrate of CYP2C19
D. Carbamazepine is inducer of CYP2C9
E. Macrolides are substrates of CYP3A4
Ans. E
Tips. Macrolides (erythromycin and clarithromycin) are inhibitors of
CYP3A4.
159. The major mechanism of drug absorption from placenta in

pregnancy?
A. Passive diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Protein assisted
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. All of the above
Ans. A
Tips. The physicochemical characteristics of drugs low mol. weight,
pH, degree of ionization. Lipid soluble, less protein binding drugs can
diffuse into placenta.
160. The "contact angle" is an important parameter reflective of the

angle that a droplet of the liquid makes with the solid surface at the
point of contact. This parameter is wetting phenomenon is used to
measure?
A. Degree of wetting of a solid by a liquid
B. Rate of dissolution

C. Rate of disintegration
D. Rate of solubility
E. All of the above
Ans. A
161. What is incorrect about benzodiazepines regulations?

A) Prescription expires in one year
B) Prescription can have 5 refills
C) Prescription with refills are NOT allowed
D) Prescription can have one transfer
E) Prescription direction can be as needed or PRN
Ans. C
Tips: benzodiazepine can have any number of refills and one year
expiry of prescription. Regular prescription also expires in a year
however the refills can be more than a year.
162. Health Canada's advisories and product recalls are related to?
A) Information about drug warnings or advisories.
B) Information about drugs that are recalled
C) Information about products that are discontinued
D) When a product recalled. This should be tracked by product lot
number.
E) All of the above
Ans. E
Tips. Health Canada Med Effect program provides drug advisories,
product recalls and drug warnings.

163.Edema is?
A) Excessive accumulation of water in the extra cellular fluid
B) Excessive accumulation of fluids in the intra cellular fluid
C) Accumulation of fluids in the extra cellular's spaces
D) Excessive accumulation of water in the tissues
E) Excessive accumulation of fluids in peritoneal cavity
Ans. D
164. Arrange higher elemental iron to low elemental iron

supplements?
A) Ferrous fumarate>Dried ferrous sulfate>Ferrous sulfate> Ferrous gluconate
B) Ferrous gluconate > Dried ferrous sulfate > Ferrous sulfate> Ferrous fumarate
C) Ferrous sulfate > Dried ferrous sulfate > Ferrous gluconate > Ferrous fumarate
D) Ferrous sulfate > Dried ferrous sulfate > Ferrous fumarate > Ferrous gluconate
E) All of the above are same elemental content iron supplements
Ans. A
Tips. Ferrous fumarate 33%, Dried ferrous sulfate 30%, Ferrous sulfate 20%,
Ferrous gluconate 12%. Iron supplements absorption is increased by ascorbic
acid.
165. Which of the following ophthalmic preparations have higher

bioavailability?
A) Ophthalmic solutions
B) Ophthalmic suspensions
C) Ophthalmic liquid
D) Ophthalmic drops
E) All of the above

Ans. B
Read. Ophthalmic liquids, and drops, often slip from, thus have less have
bioavailability. Ophthalmic preservative are benzalkonium chloride + EDTA
0.001%. Polyvinyl alcohol in used in ophthalmic preps to enhance viscosity
thus increase contact time.
Sequence; ophthalmic ointments>suspension>liquid.
166. A clinical trial for a drug A on 300 patients shows no difference.

Again trail done on 30,000 patient’s shows difference. What is
appropriate biostatical hypothesis error?
A) Type I error
B) Increase in sample size
C) Type II error
D) Probability of error
Ans. C
Tips. Sample size cause type II error.
Read: p= probability of error, it is level of significance in type I error
(false +ve).
167. Bone metastasis disease is?

A. Tumor spreading to the bone
B. Weakening of bone
C. Bone fracture due to osteoporosis
D. Osteopenia conditions of bone
E. Paget disease
Ans. A
Tips. If a tumor spreads to the bone, it is called bone metastasis.
Pain is the most common symptom of bone metastasis.

168. Which of the following are the requirement of parenteral

preps?
A. Terminal "sterile testing" by membrane filtration methods
B. Pyrogen test by LAL test or rabbit tests
C. Particulate test by Light Obscuration particle count test
D. Packaging test by "Package leak test"
E. All of the above
Ans. E
Tips. sterile preps should be sterile, pyrogen free, particulate free.
169. 70/30 insulin?

A. Insulin analog suspension containing 70% insulin aspart protamine crystals
and 30% soluble insulin aspart.
B. Insulin analog suspension containing 70% insulin aspart protamine
amorphous and 30% soluble insulin aspart.
C. Insulin analog suspension containing 70% insulin aspart protamine
Ans.A
170. Atypical antipsychotics antagonistic action on 5HT2a is used to

treat?
A) Hallucinations
B) Delusion

C) Agitation
D) Social withdrawal and isolation
E) Extra pyramidal symptoms
Ans. D
Tips. Social withdrawal and isolation are types of negative
schizophrenic symptoms. The 2nd gen antipsychotic are effective for
treating negative symptoms.
171. Guanine contain same number as ?

A. Cytosine
B. Uracil
C. Thiamine
D. Adenine
Ans.D
Purine bases: PURE AS GOLD
Pyrimidine bases: CUT the Pye (Cytosine, Uracil and Thiamine)
172.What is incorrect about lymphatic system functions?

A) Remove excessive interstitial fluids
B) Absorbs and Transport of dietary lipids to cells
C) Specific immunity as compared to non specific immunity
D) Absorbs water soluble vitamins
E) The lymphatic system also removes excess fluid, and waste
products from the interstitial spaces between the cells.
Ans. D
Tips. Absorbs only fat soluble vitamins.

173. Cisplatin is widely used as chemotherapy agent. Which act by?

A. Cisplatin cross links to DNA and forms intra and inter strand
adduct.
B. Cisplatin induce DNA breakage linkage by free radical
C. Cisplatin act by mediating topoisomerase II
D. Cisplatin is a microtubule inhibitor
Ans. A
174. What is correct about drug excretion into breast milk?

A. Basic drug excrete more into breast milk
B. Acid drug excrete more into breast milk
C. Water soluble drugs excrete more into breast milk
D. Lipid soluble drugs does not excrete into breast milk
Ans. A
Tips. Basic drugs, lipid soluble, low molecular weight, non protein bound drugs
have high excretion into breast milk.
Basic drugs, because breast milk is acidic.

Tips. Drug excretion in breast milk depends mostly on passive diffusion or

unionized (weakly alkaline have higher breast milk levels), unbound, the
protein, and lipid content milk, long elimination half life.
Low molecular weight more likely excreted into breast milk
Weak alkaline drugs have higher breast milk levels than weak acid.
175. Why COMT inhibitors always should use with levodopa?

A) COMT inhibitor decrease metabolism of levodopa to 3-methyl
dopa in CNS and peripheral
B) COMT inhibitors have synergistic action with levodopa
C-COMT inhibitors have additive action with levodopa
D-COMT inhibitors should not be combined with levodopa
E-None of the above
Ans. A
Tips. Entacapone and tolcapone are COMT inhibitors. Read Chapter
Parkinson's disease.
176. Polysorbate are?

A) Dispersing agent
B) Suspending agent
C) Levigating agents
D) Fillers
E) Glidant
Ans. A

Tips. Polysorbate are TWEEN, can be used as surfactant, emulsifying

and also can be used as dispersing agent. Sorbital ester are SPAN.
177. Which of the following can be used for evidence based

reference for decision making?
A) Compendium of Therapeutic choices
B) Compendium of Therapeutic Minor ailments
C) Compendium of pharmaceutical specialties
D) Cochrane review database
E) Martindale
Ans. D
Tips. Cochrane review/database provide evidence based medicine
database.
178. The pharmacy staff are complaining about one pharmacist who has just
come back from maternity leave, also patient complains because of the
frequent errors in Rx filling and due to delay in their Rx filling due to lengthy
phone calls. What is the best response from the manager especially when he
asked the pharmacist and knew that a problem with the nanny of the baby is
found and she is looking for a better one:

A. He might tell the pharmacy staff and patient that this is a temporary
situation and it will be solve soon.
B. He might tell the pharmacist that the existing behavior is unacceptable and
so a discipline might be applied if it is continued
C-Hire more staff temporarily to help the pharmacist, ↓↓ frequency of errors
D-Arrange a trusted co-worker to follow the pharmacist’s behaviour to ensure
that the future decision is the right one.
E-Apply a discipline for her
Ans. B
179.Who among the following patients can use oral contraceptives

with caution?
A) Patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
B) Patient with migraine and aura
C) Patient with BP >160/100 and uncontrolled hypertension
D) A 28 yo women smoker with one child
E) Patient with genital bleeding
Ans. D
Tips: oral contraceptives should auxiliary labels " do not smoke"
180. To prepare a solution of 25 mmols/L of NaCl, how many grams

of NaCl should you use for 1L solution (MW of NaCl 58.5)
a) 0.50
b) 0.73
c) 1,25
d) 1.46
e) 2.50
Ans. D
Working:

25 mmols = 1,462.5 mg (mmols x mol weight)

or 1 mmol ----------- 58 mg
25 mmol…………?
181. What is the minimum quantity that can be weight on a balance

with sensitivity requirements of 15 mg, where permissible error is
5%?
a) 100mg
b) 200mg
c) 300mg
d) 400mg
e) 500mg
Ans. C
Tips. Sensitive requirement = weight x error
182. If a patient is noted to have experienced an allergic reaction

to a medication, the pharmacist should:
a) Tell the patient the physician make a mistake and refuse
to fill the prescription.
b) Assume the physician knew about the allergy and fill the
prescription and document in computer.
c) Ask the patient about the type of allergic reaction
experienced, document the allergy and contact prescriber
d) Recommend the patient call the physician before taking
the medication and document.
e) Allergy is minor and assume the physician is already
aware

Ans. C
Tips. Take each potential allergy seriously. Patients may
believe minor side effects to be allergies, but leave that
determination to the pharmacist. Never send the patient
away, and never assume the physician is already aware.
183. What would be the loading dose of a drug to achieve a 20

mcg/ml steady state plasma concentration? The apparent volume of
distribution is 4.5 L.
A) 25 mg B) 35 mg C) 90 mg D) 56 mg E) 70 mg
Ans. C
DL = Css x Vd ; DL = 20x 4.5 x 1000 ; DL = 90000 mcg; DL = 90mg
184. What is least likely true in patient using inhaled corticosteroid?

A. Dysphonia (hoarseness) is likely side effect
B. Oral fungal infections can be minimized by rinsing mouth after
inhalation
C. Patient has been on treatment for asthma
D. Patient has been on treatment for COPD
E. Patient using inhaler with aerochamber
Ans. D

185. Alpha 1-antitrypsin (A1AT) is produced in the liver, and one of

its functions is to protect the lungs from neutrophil elastase, an
enzyme that can disrupt connective tissue. The deficiency of alpha-1-
antitrypsin can cause?
A. Diabetes
B. Cardiovascular diseases
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Increase in low density proteins
E. Hypertension
Ans. C
Tips. Alpha 1 antitrypsin test is used to determine genetic related
COPD.
186. The antipsychotic effects of the phenothiazines are probably the

result of
a) release of serotonin in the brain
b) release of norepinephrine in the brain
c) blockade of dopaminergic sites in the brain
d) prevention of the release of norepinephrine form brain
neuron terminals
e) increase in the dopamine content of the cerebral cortex
Ans. C
187. A 70 year old patient has chronic renal disease, which of the
following is the pharmacist least concern?
A. Enoxaparin
B. Heparin
C. Warfarin

D. Ramipril
E. Hydrochlorothiazide
Ans. C
Tips. Warfarin does not require dose adjustment in renal disease
patient. Warfarin is hepatically eliminated. Heparin and LMWH, new
anticoagulants require dose adjustment in renal diseases.
188. Which one is the most appropriate antidepressant for a patient,

who is already suffering from sexual dysfunction?
A) Paroxetine
B) Bupropion
C) Fluoxetine
D. Venlafaxine
E. Amitriptyline
Ans. B
Tips. Bupropion, moclobemide and mirtazapine are the good
alternate to treat depression in sexual dysfunction.
189. Enterohepatic recirculation between?

A. Small intestine to portal vein and liver
B. Small intestine to bile duct and liver
C. Small intestine to liver recircular
D. Portal vein to small intestine
E. bile duct to portal vein
Ans. A

190. What is incorrect about binders in tablet manufacturing?

A-Binder to cause the adhesion of the powdered drug and inactive
ingredients
B. Excessive binder will present capping problem
C-Excessive binder will present excessive hardness
D. Corn starch is used as binder in tablet manufacturing
E. Magnesium stearate is used as binder in tablet manufacturing
Ans. E
Tips. Magnesium stearate have lubricant, glidant and anti-adherent
actions.
191. Venous pooling occurs due to lack of sympathetic activity and

loss of active muscle function in the lower extremities and trunk
musculature, this results more retention of blood in veins. There are

drugs know to induce venous pooling. What drugs more likely can
cause venous pooling?
A. Isosorbide dinitrate
B. Propranolol
C. Amlodipine
D-Captopril
E-Hydrochlorothiazide
Ans-A
192. What type acetaminophen metabolism saturation can cause

hepatotoxicity?
A) phenacetin and acetanilide
B) Glutathione conjugation
C) Glycine conjugation
D) Glucuronidation
E) Sulphate conjugation
Ans.b
Tips: phenacetin and acetanilide are precursor or acetaminophen.
Phenacetin dealkylation produce acetaminophen where as
hydroxylation of acetanilide produce acetaminophen.
Benzoquinoneimine is an intermediate of CYP metabolism of
acetaminophen.
193. What is incorrect about cholesterol lowering drug statins?

A) Essential group of statin action is 3,5 dihydroxycarboxylate

B) All statins have similar onset, duration, dosing interval and plasma
protein binding
C) Statin takes 2 weeks to lower plasma cholesterol
D) Decrease liver Trans aminases
E) Atorvastatin can be taken anytime of the day.
Ans. D
Tips: statins increase liver Trans aminase (ALT, AST) thus monitor
liver function test.
194. ACE, is a central component of the renin-angiotensin system (RAS),

which controls blood pressure by?
A. regulating the volume of fluids in the body and potent
vasoconstrictor effect
C. blocking beta2 receptors
D. peripheral vasodilatation
E. decrease work load on heart
Ans. A
195. what day of menstrual cycle, the luteinizing hormone (LH) is

surged?
A. day 1 of menstruation
B. day 5 of menstruation
C. day 14 of menstruation
D. day 21 of menstruation
E. day 28 of menstruation
Ans. C
Tips. Day 14 is ovulation phase LH and FSH surge on ovulation.

196. The neurocranium consists of eight bones. Which of the

following is not cranial bone
A. occipital bone
B. temporal bone
C. Parietal bone
D. Facial bone
E. Sphenoid bone
Ans. D
Tips. Occipital bone, two temporal bones, two parietal bones,
sphenoid bone, ethmoid bone, and frontal.
197. What is true about combination drug Acetaminophen 300 mg + codeine 8 mg + caffeine
15 mg
A. It is schedule 2 and can be given by pharmacist
B. Require prescription because it contain codeine
C. it is over the counter drug
D. It is straight narcotic and given by written prescription only
E-None of the above
Ans. A
Tips. Straight narcotic (single opioid alone: morphine, codeine): written prescription only.
No refills. (Tylenol 4).
Verbal narcotic or narcotic preps: 1 opioid + 2 non opioids drugs combination: Tylenol 2
(acetaminophen 300 mg+15mg codeine + 15 mg caffeine), Tylenol # 3.
Exempted narcotics or OTC narcotics: (1 opioid (8 mg)+ 2 non opioid);Tylenol 1 (codeine
8mg+Acetaminophen 300 mg + 15 mg caffeine), codeine 19.8 mg/30 ml+ 2 non opioid. 222
(ASA 325 mg +codeine 8 mg+ caffeine 15 mg).
No prescription necessary, schedule 2
198. Dental abscess is treated by?

A. Erythromycin base

B. Erythromycin estolate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
E. Clotrimazole
Ans.B
199. Which of the following drug require to dispense only by written

prescription?
A) Lorazepam
B) Clonazepam
C) Methylphenidate
D) OxyNeo (oxycodone)
E) Anabolic steroids
Ans. D
Tips: Straight narcotics like opioids, OxyNeo is only dispensed by
written prescription.
200. What is selection bias?

A. The selection of subjects into your sample or their allocation to treatment
group produces a sample that is not representative of the population, or
treatment groups that are systematically different.
B. Random selection and random allocation to produce a sample.
C. A factor that is prognostically linked to the outcome of interest and is
unevenly distributed between the study groups.
D. None of the above
Ans. A
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What are some common body cavities and their contents?

What are some common body cavities and their contents?

What is the pharmacist's main concern regarding a codeine syrup prescription for a 3-year old child?

What is the pharmacist's main concern regarding a codeine syrup prescription for a 3-year old child?

PharmacyPREP.

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2. Which of the following is incorrect statement about body cavities and

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4) What is not related diabetic foot ulcer?

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5) What is correct Tallman letters for diphenhydramine and

6. Escape of the fluids from blood capillaries or vessels to the

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7) A mother of 2 year old child approaches to pharmacist. Asking

8.Which of the following can contribute to medication incidents or

9. Calculate the mark up on cost. A regular customer of your

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10. Which of the following is the dependent variable in statistical

11. What is a rate of constant of the drug having initial

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LOG: PRESS 2ndF then press log ENTER NUMBER,

12. How many gram of Mg present in every 350 ml dose

13) What is sensitivity?

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15) The major analgesic effect of morphine is due to action on?

16) Which of the following conditions is NOT mediated by

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17) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of plasmids?

18) Insertion of genes into an individual cells and tissues to treat a

19) Which of the following has been shown to have a relationship to

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20) Hyperplasia is a condition in which there is?

21. The following hormone catalyzed by 5-alpha reductase to form

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A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Androgen D. Vitamin D E.

22) All of the following are pharmacodynamic reactions, except?

23) A patient comes to pick up refills alprazolam 0.5 mg tablets, 15

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E) Refuse refills and educate patient about compliance

24) Phrenic nerve injury can cause?

25) What is defined as "near missed errors"?

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Q. oncology admixture preparation was identified from inventory

26) Which of the following abbreviation is categorized dangerous

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27) Prostaglandins are ecosanides are made within cells

28. A man wearing a mask and brandishing a weapon enters your

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B. Pretend to look for the keys in order to delay him

29) Carbon monoxide DECREASES the amount of

30) Which of the following is not a diabetic complication?

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31) The physiologically active form of vitamin D produced in the

32) Which of the following diuretic cause hyperchloremic systemic

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Metabolic acidosis. Acetazolamide, dorzolamide, spironolactone.

33) A patient receiving phenytoin 200 mg BID has a steady-state

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