JCSF Engineering Review Center IPD PPD E8 T11

INDUSTRIAL/POWER PLANT ENGINEERING

(Refresher Trivia Examination IPD/PPD E8 T11)

Prepared by: Engr. Jose R. Francisco

April 2006

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only.

1. The amount of heat required to melt a ton (2000 lbs) of ice at 32°F, 288,000 Btu/24 hr, 12,000 Btu/hr, or 200 Btu/min.
a. KW of Refrigeration b. Tons of Refrigeration c. Specific Heat d. Latent Heat

2. The temperature of vapor refrigerant above its saturation change of state temperature.
a. saturated b. superheat c. subcooled d. absolute

3. Process that maintains comfort conditions in a defined area.

a. air conditioning b. refrigeration c. filtration d. compression

4. The weight per unit of volume of a substance.

a. specific volume b. volume displacement c. density d. pressure

5. It is when the temperature of a liquid is cooled below its condensing temperature.

a. superheating b. condensing c. subcooling d. subliming

6. The exact temperature at which moisture begins to form.

a. freezing point b. pour point c. cloud point d. dew point

7. The lowest obtainable temperature where molecular motion stops, -460°F and - 273°C.
a. negative temperature b. absolute zero temperature c. absolute temperature d. dew point temperature

8. The trade name for refrigerants manufactured by E.I du Pont de Nemours & Co., Inc.
a. halon b. freon c. azeotropes d. hydrocarbons

9. The temperature scale that places the boiling point of water at 212° and the freezing point at 32°.
a. Fahrenheit Scale b. Celsius Scale c. Kelvin Scale d. Rankine Scale

10. Chemical substances found in many refrigerants containing chlorine, bromine, iodine, and fluorine.
a. Halogens b. Halon c. Xenon d. Freon

11. In refrigerating system, it is ratio of usable output energy divided by input energy.
a. Coefficient of Performance (COP) b. Power of Refrigeration
c. Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER) d. Tons of Refrigeration

12. A term used to describe a vapor when pressure is applied and the molecules are compacted closer together.
a. Expansion b. Extrusion c. Convection d. Compression

13. The temperature measured using a plain thermometer.

a. Wet-Bulb Temperature b. Dry-Bulb Temperature c. Dew Point d. None of the above

14. A term used to indicate the high-pressure side or condensing side of the refrigeration system.
a. Tight Side b. Low Side c. High Side d. Medium Side

15. Any substance in a refrigeration system that is foreign to the system, particularly if it causes damage.
a. Refrigerant b. Contaminant c. Toxic Gases d. Noncondensable gases

16. The part of the energy from the pressurization of a gas or a liquid converted to heat.
a. Heat of Evaporation b. Latent Heat of Fusion c. Heat of Compression d. Heat of Combustion

17. A temperature scale where absolute 0 equals 0 or where molecular motion stops at 0. It has the same graduation per degree of changes as
the Celsius scale.
a. Kelvin b. Rankine c. Centigrade d. Fahrenheit

18. An instrument use to measure the amount of moisture in the air.

a. Hydrometer b. Hygrometer c. Pyrometer d. Psychrometer

19. Heat energy absorbed or rejected when a substance is changing state and there is no change in temperature.
a. specific heat b. radiant heat d. latent heat d. none of these
20. The volume within the cylinder that is displaced with the movement of the piston form top to bottom.
a. Volume Displacement b. Piston Displacement c. both a and b d. none of these

21. Refrigerants that contain halogen chemicals, R-12, R-22, R-500, and R-502 are among them.
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a. Hydrocarbon b. Organic c. Azeotropes d. Halide

22. Substance in a refrigeration system drier that collects moisture.

a. Coagulants b. Receiver c. Desiccant d. Sifter

23. Monochlorodifluoromethane, a popular refrigerant for air conditioning systems.

a. R-714 b. R-11 c. R-22 d. R-12

24. Dichlorodifluoromethane, a popular refrigerant for refrigeration systems..

a. R-12 b. R-22 c. R-11 d. Ammonia

25. An azeotropic mixture of R-22 and R-115, a popular refrigerant for low-temperature refrigeration systems.
a. R-12 b. R-502 c. R-718 d. None of these

26. A form of positive displacement compressor that squeezes fluid from a low-pressure area to a high-pressure area, using screw-type
mechanisms.
a. Reciprocating Compressor b Screw Compressor c. Rotary Compressor d. Centrifugal Compressor

27. A compressor that uses rotary motion to pump fluid. It is a positive displacement pump.
a. Reciprocating Compressor b. Screw Compressor c. Rotary Compressor d. None of these

28. Lowest temperature at which fluid will flow.

a. Pour Point b. Drop Point c. Cloud Point d. Dew Point

29. Heat that causes a change in the level of a thermometer.

a. Latent Heat b. Specific Heat c. Sensible Heat d. Radiant Heat

30. A device with two thermometers, one a wet bulb and one a dry bulb, used for checking air conditions, temperature and humidity.
a. Sling Psychrometer b. Hydrometer c. Picnometer d. Double-thermometer

31. A device that transfers heat from one substance to another.

a. Compressor b. Pump c. heat exchanger d. cooling tower

32. A refrigeration system operated with the liquid refrigerant level very close to the outlet of the coil for improved heat exchange.
a. Flooded System b. Vapor Compression c. Steam Jet Refrigeration d. Heat Pump

33. The final device in many water cooled systems, which rejects heat from the system into the atmosphere by evaporation of water.
a. Cooling Tower b. Condenser c. Compressor d. Evaporator

34. Another term for pressure, usually referring to gas or liquid.

a. ambient b. head c. Pascal d. bar

35. The fluid in a refrigeration system that changes from liquid to vapor and back to a liquid at practical pressures.
a. coolant b. refrigerant c. desiccant d. halogens

36. The amount of heat required to the temperature of 1 lb of a substance 1°F.

a. specific heat b. latent heat c. heat of fusion d. Btu

37. The pipe that carries the heat-laden refrigerant gas from the evaporator to the compressor.
a. discharge line b. evaporator coil c. suction line d. expansion line

38. A term used to refer to that part of the refrigeration system that operates at the lowest pressure, between the expansion device and the
compressor.
a. medium side b. high side c. condensing side d. low side

39. A soft material that can be shaped and compressed to provide a seal. It is commonly applied around valve stems.
a. packing b. seal c. weld d. rubber

40. A substance where molecules push outward and downward and seek a uniform level.
a. gas b. liquid c. solid d. plasma

41. A container in the refrigeration system where liquid refrigerant is stored.

a. liquid receiver b. filter c. evaporator d. condenser

42. The term applied to a refrigeration system when the liquid refrigerant reaches the compressor.
a. flooding b. chilling c. condensing d. freezing

43. When a substance changes from the solid state to the vapor state without going through the liquid state.
a. sublimation b. condensation c. evaporation d. deposition

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44. When a substance changes from the vapor state to solid state.
a. sublimation b. evaporation c. deposition d. condensation

45. A totally enclosed refrigeration system where the motor and compressor are sealed within the same system with the refrigerant.
a. split system b. hermetic system c. flooded system d. none of these

46. A refrigeration or air conditioning system that has the condensing unit remote from the indoor (evaporator) coil.
a. flooded system b. hermetic system c. split system d. all of these

47. The movable component in a refrigeration compressor that allows hot gas to flow to the condenser and prevents if from refilling the
cylinder on the downstroke.
a. exhaust valve b. expansion valve c. suction valve d. none of these

48. Sound absorber at the compressor.

a. foundation b. muffler c. silencer d. all of these

49. The term applied to frozen food when it becomes dry and hard from dehydration due to poor packaging.
a. freezer cooled b. frosted c. freezer dry d. freezer burn

50. Excess ice or frost accumulation on an evaporator to the point that airflow may be affected.
a. freeze down b. freeze up c. freezer burn d. none of these

51. A plate used to keep fluids from moving back and forth at will in a container.
a. baffle b. angle plate c. template d. parallel plate

52. The amount (quantity) of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 lb of water 1°F.
a. specific heat b. BTU c. CHU d. latent heat

53. A condition of lubrication which involves the physical separation of sliding surfaces by a lubricant film.
a. hygrodynamic lubrication b. slide lubrication
c. natural lubrication d. hydrodynamic lubrication

54. A condition of frost of the suction line and even the compressor body usually due to liquid refrigerant in the suction.
a. frost down b. freeze up c. frost back d. all of these

55. A torch-type leak detector used to detect the halogen refrigerants

a. leak torch b. metal torch c. halide torch d. halogen torch

56. The term used to describe the pressure drop in an expansion device when some of the liquid passing through the valve is change quickly
to a gas and cools the remaining liquid to the corresponding temperature.
a. flash gas b. blaze gas c. drop gas d. none of these

57. The most widely used refrigeration cycle in practice. In this cycle a vapor is compressed, then condensed to a liquid, following which the
pressure is drooped so that the fluid can evaporate at a low pressure.
a. Rankine cycle b. Stirling cycle
c. Brayton Cycle d. Vapor Compression cycle

58. Is one whose efficiency cannot be exceeded when operating between two given temperature.
a. Carnot Cycle b. Rankine Cycle c. Diesel Cycle d. Brayton Cycle

59. All the process in the Carnot Cycle are thermodynamic _______________.
a. reversible b. irreversible c. either a or b d. none of these

60. A _____ Coefficient of Performance (COP) is desirable because it indicates that the given amount of refrigeration requires only a small
amount of work.
a. high b. low c. medium d. all of these

61. Uses the same equipment as refrigeration system but operates for the purpose of delivering heat at high level of temperature.
a. heat exchanger b. heat pump c. cooling tower d. condenser

62. The boiling point of ammonia at normal atmospheric pressure

a. -28°F b. -28°C c. 28°F d. 28°C

63. The heat required to change one pound of a liquid into its vapor or gaseous form at atmospheric pressure without changing temperature.
a. heat of condensation b. heat of fusion c. heat of vaporization d. specific heat

64. The process by which a vapor is change into a liquid without changing the temperature.
a. condensation b. sublimation c. deposition d. evaporation

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65. The part of the refrigeration system in which the refrigerant boils and, in so doing, absorbs heat.
a. expansion valve b. evaporator c. condenser d. evaporator

66. The part of the refrigeration system in which the refrigeration condenses, in so doing, gives off heat.
a. condenser b. liquid receiver c. evaporator d. compressor

67. The heat required to change one pound of vapor to a liquid at the same temperature.
a. heat of condensation b. heat of evaporation c. specific heat d. heat of vaporization

68. Refers to that heat which produces a temperature rise as it is added to a material.
a. sensible heat b. latent heat c. specific heat d. heat of fusion

69. Heat carrying ability of the refrigerant is called the ______________.

a. tons of refrigeration b. refrigerating effect c. subcooling effect d. KW of Refrigeration

70. The capacity of refrigeration system is determine by comparing its ability to absorb heat to that of the heat absorbed by the melting of
one ton of ice in a _______ period of time.
a. 12-hour b. 24-hour c. 1-hour d. 36-hour

71. Use to measure the relative humidity of air

a. anemometer b. ammeter c. psychrometer d. calorimeter

72. Controls the flow of refrigerant by maintaining the liquid at a constant level in a vessel or an evaporator.
a. float valve b. gate valve c. globe valve d. expansion valve

73. Controls the flow of refrigerant by the size of its internal diameter and its length.
a. thermostatic valve b. float valve c. gate valve d. capillary tube

74. Refrigeration system that has two or more low-side pressures.

a. vapor compression b. flooded system
c. multi-pressure system d. absorption refrigeration

75. Intercooling between two stages of compression ________ the work of compression per kg of vapor.
a. increases b. reduces c. no effect d. none of these

76. R-22 or Monochlorodifluoromethane is an example of what type of refrigerants.

a. inorganic b. organic c. azeotropes d. halocarbon

77. What is the numerical designation of ammonia refrigerant?

a. R-718 b. R-717 c. R-729 d. R-12

78. The most popular azeotrope refrigerant.

a. R-502 b. R-11 c. Ammonia d. Sulfur Dioxide

79. The type of refrigeration system combines two vapor-compression units, with condenser of the low temperature system discharging its
heat to the evaporator of the high-temperature system.
a. flooded system b. cascade system c. multi-pressure system d. all of these

80. The type of water evaporative refrigeration wherein water is used as the refrigerant.
a. flooded system b. cascade system c. steam-jet refrigeration d. multi-pressure system

81. Ratio calculated by dividing the cooling capacity (Btu/hr) by the power input (watts) at any set operating conditions expressed in Btu/hr.
a. Coefficient of Performance b. Aspect Ratio
c. Back Work Ratio d. Energy Efficiency Ratio

82. A compression process that begins in a region where the substance is completely not containing moisture.
a. Wet Compression b. Hot Compression c. Dry Compression d. Warm Compression

83. The inverse of coefficient of performance (COP).

a. Ton of Refrigeration b. Performance Factor
c. Energy Efficiency Ratio d. Power per Kw of Refrigeration

84. Used principally in large air conditioning installations, are believed to be less damaging ozone layer but still release chlorine
a. chlorofluorocarbons b. hydrocarbons
c. azeotropes d. hydrochlorofluorocarbons
85. Controls the compressor motor, turning it off when room temperature reaches the desired level and restarting it as the room air heats up.
a. pyrometer b. thermometer c. thermostat d. solenoid valve

86. When air is at 100% relative humidity, it is saturated, then wet bulb depression is
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a. 100% b. infinity c. zero d. unity

87. Area of the diagram from the relation of temperature and entropy plane.
a. work b. shaft work c. energy d. heat

88. Which of the following materials is suitable in refrigeration system applications with refrigerant ammonia employed?
a. aluminum b. cast iron c. steel d. copper

89. Property of a liquid in which they extend resistance to angular or shear deformation.
a. density b. viscosity c. specific weight d. specific gravity

90. Which of the following ascertains the effectiveness and the size of a condenser?
a. number of passes b. thickness of the shell c. heat transfer d. tube sizes

91. A refrigerant control in a refrigeration system that is used to prevent the flow of refrigerant gas from the condenser back to the
compressor during off cycles is called
a. expansion valve b. gate valve c. globe valve d. check valve

92. A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer which has constant specific humidity.
a. wet-bulb temperature d. dew point temperature c. dry-bulb temperature d. critical temperature

93. A condenser function converts

a. steam to vapor b. gas to liquid c. vapor to heavy gas d. gas to vapor

94. Receiver must be

a. vented to the atmosphere b. installed with safety valve c. tilted to the feed pumps d. both a and c

95. The diagonal lines in the Psychrometric Chart represent

a. dew-point temperature b. effective temperature c. wet-bulb temperature d. dry-bulb temperature

96. Combined process of cooling and humidifying is also known as

a. moisture removal process b. cooling tower
c. evaporative cooling d. heating and humidifying

97. The difference between the temperature of the water leaving a cooling tower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding air.
a. range b. approach c. cooling range d. wet-bulb depression

98. The quality of having a low-boiling point or subliming temperature at ordinary pressure.
a. evaporability b. volatility c. refrigerant d. condensability

99. Equipment designed to reduce the amount of water vapor in the ambient atmosphere.
a. drier b. dehumidifier c. fan d. cooling tower

100. The specific measurement of moisture content of air.

a. specific humidity b. degree of saturation c. percent saturation d. relative humidity

101. The sensible heat ratio is 0.8. That is

a) 20% latent and 60% sensible heat
b) 80% sensible heat and 20% latent heat
c) 80% sensible heat and 20% sensible heat and latent heat
d) 20% latent heat and 80% sensible heat and latent heat

102. The effect of superheating the refrigerant is

a. increase in COP b. high COP c. decrease in COP d. low COP

103. The ice making capacity is always

a. directly proportional to the refrigerating effect
b. less that the refrigerating effect
c. greater than the refrigerating effect
d. equal to the refrigerating effect

104. The most economical and low maintenance cost condenser

a. water-cooled b. air-cooled c. evaporative d. sub-cooled

105. The high pressure of refrigeration system consist of the line to the expansion valve, the receiver, the uppermost half of the compressor
and the
a. condenser b. expansion valve
c. evaporator d. lower most half of compressor

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106. What is the specific humidity of dry air?
a. 150 b. 100 c. 50 d. 0

107. When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner an engineer was so eager to drink it. Since it was hot, he added cubes of ice to cool the
soup and stirred it. He noticed that the dew starts to form on the outermost surface of the cup. He wanted to check the temperature of the
outermost surface of the cup. What is this temperature equal to:
a. superheated temperature b. standard temperature
c. equal to zero d. equal to air’s dew point temp.

108. A supervisor inspected an air-conditioning unit. He found that the unit does not produce any cooling effect, however, the air-conditioning
unit is running. He checked the temperatures of the condenser and evaporator and has the unit run. He found out the there was no change
in the temperature. What should he do?
a. replace fuse b. replace relay
c. adjust door seal d. charge with new refrigerant

109. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top surface. The heat that is first transferred to the air layer close to the block is by
conduction. It is eventually carried away from the surface by.
a. convection b. radiation c. conduction d. thermal radiation

110. The foreman was tested to design the air-conditioning system for a ballroom dance hall. Considering that these involve a lot of activity
form its users, the engineer would design that will require_________.
a. maximum attainable effective temperature b. constant effective temperature
c. lower effective temperatured. higher effective temperature

111. Cooling towers function on which basic principle.

a. evaporation b. air pressure
c. boiling refrigerant d. heat transfer in reversible to cool

112. A reversible adiabatic process is also called:

a. isothermal b. isochoric c. isobaric d. isentropic

113. The quantity of heat required to change the state of a substance from solid to liquid without change of temperature.
a. calorie b. heat of fusion c. latent heat d. specific heat

114. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water from 14.5°C to 15.5°C..
a. specific heat b. calorie c. latent heat d. heat of fusion

115. A refrigerating system in which the pressure-imposing element is mechanically operated.

a. compression b. absorption c. central point d. chilled water

116. Equivalent for removal of heat at the rate of 3516 watts.

a. specific heat b. sensible heat c. Tons of Refrigeration d. latent heat

117. Its purpose is to reduce the amount of water vapor present in the atmosphere.
a. evaporator b. exhauster c. dehumidifier d. ventilator

1B 51A 101B
2B 52B 102A
3A 53D 103A
4C 54C 104B
5C 55C 105A
6D 56A 106D
7B 57D 107D
8B 58A 108D
9A 59A 109A
10A 60A 110A
11A 61B 111A
12D 62A 112D
13B 63 C 113B
14C 64 A 114B
15B 65 B 115A
16C 66 A 116C
17A 67 A 117C
18B 68 A
19D 69 B
20C 70 B
21D 71 C
22C 72 A
23C 73 D
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24A 74 C
25B 75 B
26B 76 D
27C 77 B
28A 78 A
29C 79 B
30A 80 C
31C 81 D
32A 82 C
33A 83 D
34B 84 D
35B 85 C
36A 86 C
37C 87 D
38D 88 C
39A 89 B
40B 90 C
41A 91D
42A 92B
43A 93B
44C 94C
45B 95C
46C 96C
47A 97B
48B 98B
49D 99B
50B 100B