DULAO INTEGRATED SCHOOL

Second Periodical Test

Science 7

Name: _________________________________ Grade &Section: _______ Score: _____

Direction: Encircle the letter of the best answer.

1. It is a part of microscope intended for carrying or holding.

A. Body Tube B. Arm C. Stage D. Base
2. The horizontal platform where specimen is put into.
A. Body Tube B. Arm C. Stage D. Base
3. In a science laboratory, students want to know more on the characteristics of microorganisms,
which of it are they going to use?
A. Microscope B. Stethoscope C. Telescope D. Thermometer
4. These are termed as specimen been studied by scientist who usually causes diseases and
illnesses of a certain living organism.
A. Microorganism B. Plants C. Animals D. Humans
5. Which of the following objective are you going to use to make specimen bigger?
A. LPO B. MPO C. SPO D. HPO
6. Maria likes to view the details of a certain specimen, which of the parts of the microscope is she
going to manipulate?
A. Coarse and adjustment knob C. Base and Arm
B. Stage and Stage Clip D. Diaphragm and Body Tube
7. Dana is a Grade 7 student of Ramon Magsaysay National High School, her adviser asked them to
bring with them a specimen. Which of the following is not an example of microscopic organism?
A. Pencil C. Hair follicle
B. Stomata of a leaf D. Microorganism
8. It is a field of Science which studies life.
A. Physics B. Chemistry C. Biology D. Botany
9. This is the collection of organ system of animals and plants.
A. Cell B. Tissue C. Organ D. Organism
10. Brain is considered as the control center of the body. Brain is an example of ____.
A. Cell B. Tissue C. Organ D. Organ System
11. Circulatory System has three main parts; the heart, blood, and blood vessel. Which level of
organization is the Circulatory System?
A. Cell B. Tissue C. Organ D. Organ System
12. It is a group of cell performing a common function.
A. Cell B. Tissue C. Organ D. Organ System
13. Heart is an example of _______.
A. Cell B. Tissue C. Organ D. Organ System
14. Skin is organ; Integumentary is a ______.
A. Cell B. Tissue C. Organ D. Organ System

15. Epidermis is _____: Skin is organ

A. Cell B. Tissue C. Organ D. Organ System
16. Which statement is true about organism except?
A. Organism starts in cell. C. Only animal has organ system.
B. A group of tissues is organ. D. Plants and animals are made up of cells.
17. A plant cell can be easily distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of the _____.
A. Cell Wall B. Vacuole C. Nucleus D. Lysosome
18. This is the storage warehouse of the cell wherein plants have bigger size compared to animals.
A. Cell Wall B. Vacuole C. Nucleus D. Lysosome
19. It considered as the Garbage Collector of the cell. What cell is being described that is not found in
plants?
A. Cell Wall B. Cell Membrane C. Nucleus D. Lysosome
20. Photosynthesis is the process of making food in plants. Which of the following part of the cell is
responsible for it which is not found in animals?
A. Mitochondria B. Golgi Bodies C. Chloroplast D. Nucleus
21. This refers as the basic unit of life.
A. Cell B. Tissue C. Organ D. Organ System
22. Human cells are animal cells.
A. True B. False C. Sometimes D. Maybe
23. All living organisms are made up of cells.
A. True B. False C. Sometimes D. Maybe
24. Which type of microbe is used in producing wine?
A. Fungi B. Virus C. Algae D. Bacteria
25. Which useful microbe is used in producing breads?
A. Yeast B. Cheese C. Viruses D. Bacteria
26. Which microbe causes dandruff?
A. Virus B. Fungi C. Algae D. Bacteria
27. Grade 8 students are suffering from cold, what causes them to have this so?
A. Fungi B. Virus C. Algae D. Bacteria
28. Nina is suffering from Microbial Diseases, which of the following medicine is she going to use?
A. Antibiotic B. Antiseptic C. Antibodies D. Immunization
29. Microorganisms are always bad in nature.
A. True B. False C. Sometimes D. Maybe
30. Which type of microbe is used to make yogurt and cheese
A. Fungi B. Virus C. Algae D. Bacteria
31. It is a program of the government to make child’s immunized from certain disease, what is this
process?
A. Antibiotic B. Antiseptic C. Antibodies D. Immunization
32. Which sort of microbe causes athletes foot?
A. Fungi B. Virus B. Algae D. Bacteria
33. What do we call food having some bacteria on it?
A. Fermented B. Contaminated C. Vaccinated D. Infected
34. It is the process of producing offspring.
A. Reproduction B. Menstruation C. Fermentation D. Respiration
35. It is a kind of reproduction wherein offspring are identical to their parents.
A. Sexual B. Asexual C. Homosexual D. Bisexual
36. Which type of asexual reproduction does starfish undergo for their production?
A. Binary fission B. Regeneration C. Vegetation D. Budding
37. What is the importance of reproduction among living things?
A. Change of Species C. Survival of the Species
B. Increase of Population D. Adaptation to the environment
38. If organisms cannot adapt to changing environmental conditions, what is likely to happen to the
species?
A. They will have to learn how to eat different foods.
B. They will have to find new ways to care for their offspring.
C. They may become extinct.
D. They will have to learn to attract mates from other areas.
39. It is the union of egg cell and sperm cell of humans
A. Fertilization B. Immunization C. Pollination D. Regeneration
40. Where does fertilization takes place?
A. Uterus B. Fallopian Tube C. Uterus D. Vagina
41. In the process of fertilization, what hormone does male released?
A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Testosterone D. Hestrogen
42. Aling Sophia was confirmed pregnant for 2 months? In normal pregnancy, what is the possible birth
of her child if their last intercourse is June?
A. January B. February C. March D. April
43. Fertilization takes place between male and female gametes.
A. True B. False C. Maybe D. Sometimes
 44. Aling Nona is a 49-year-old mother. At this age, she is now impossible to produce a baby, what
type of scenario does she experienced?
A. Menstruation B. Reproduction C. Fertilization D. Menopause
45. Plants and animals living together in a particular habitat are called as ___.
A. Biotic community C. Symbiotic community
B. Abiotic community D. Kabayotic community
46. Trees in the forest are abiotic components.
A. True B. False C. Maybe D. Sometimes
47. Water is really important to living organisms. Water is an example of ____.
A. Biotic B. Abiotic C. Symbiotic D. Kabayotic
48. Mang Jose owns a rice field in their community. Which of the following is not an example of abiotic
component?
A. Soil B. Water C. Light D. Rice
49. Which of the following statements are true except:
A. Abiotic components include temperature, sunlight, water, and soil
B. Biotic components are living organisms.
C. Abiotic components do not affect biotic components.
D. Plants and animals are biotic.
50. Elina has an experiment with regards to the effect of fertilizer on the production of corns. Which of
the following is abiotic component?
A. Water B. corn C. Light D. Fertilizer
51. It is considered as the largest and most complex level of organization in the natural world.
A. Community B. Ecosystem C. Population D. Environment

52. Based from the figure, what ecological relationship was shown?
A. Food Chain C. Nitrogen cycle
B. Food Web D. Carbon Oxygen cycle

53. In the figure, which of the following is the producer?

A. Grass B. Grasshopper C. Frog D. Snake
54. Snake in the figure is a _______.
A. Producer C. Secondary consumer
B. Primary consumer D. Tertiary consumer
55. It is a symbiotic relationship where they help one another
A. Parasitism B. Predation C. Competition D. Mutualism
56. Mosquito that sucks blood of human is an example of ______.
A. Parasitism B. Predation C. Competition D. Mutualism
57. In a forest, wild pigs and lions chase a deer as their food. What type of symbiotic relationship is
shown?
A. Parasitism B. Predation C. Competition D. Mutualism
58. Rapid population growth leads to problems except.
A. Shortage of natural resources C. Poor health
B. Pollution D. Abundance of food
59. A person who throws their garbage in the bodies of water may lead to ___.
A. Air Pollution C. Land pollution
B. Water Pollution D. Noise Pollution
60. Which of the following ways are true in conserving and preserving our nature except?
A. Reduce, Re-use, Recycle C. Clean and Green Program
B. Tree Planting D. Kaingin

Prepared by:
APRIL JOY Y. SIABABA
Science Teacher
 Republic of the Philippines
Region I
LA UNION SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE
City of San Fernando, La Union 2500
Aringay District

MANGA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

Second Periodical Test
Science 9

Name: _________________________________ Grade &Section: _______ Score: _____

Direction: Encircle the letter of the best answer.

1. Which combination describes the flame of the colour of the compound when heated?
A. Sodium chloride-orange C. Potassium chloride-blue
B. Copper(II) sulphate – violet D. Boric acid-red

2. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus
of an atom?
A. Proton electron C. Proton and neutron
B. Neutron and electron D. Proton only

3. In the first and second energy levels of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of
electrons in the atom?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 18

4. Who proposed the probability that electrons will be found in certain locations around the nucleus of
an atom?
A. Neils Bohr C. Ernest Rutherford
B. Erwin Schrodinger D. J.J. Thomson

5. Which of the following statements is Not true of the atomic model of Bohr?
A. The hydrogen is made up of positively charged nucleus.
B. The electron revolves around the nucleus in a circular orbit.
C. The energy of the electron in a given orbit is not fixed.
D. An electron can absorb or emit a quantity of radiation.

6. The second principal energy level of an atom can hold a total of.
A. 6 electrons B. 8 electrons C. 2 electrons D. 10 electrons
7. The lowest sublevel on each principal energy level is represented by the symbol
A. s B. p C. d D. f

8. For what values(s) of n can p orbital not exist?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

9. What is the atomic number (Z) of the element having neutral atoms with the configuration of
1s²2s²2p³?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7

10. Aluminum has an atomic number of 13 . What is its valence electron?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D.4

11. What is the Lewis dot structure of Carbon having an atomic number of 6?
A. C• B. •C• C. Ca• D. :C :

12. Within a group of elements, as the atomic number increases the size of the ions.
A. Increases B. Decreases C. Stays the same D. Change in irregular way

13. Which of the following element has the highest ionization energy?
A. Mg B. Ne C. Cl D. Ba

14. These refer as the transfer of electrons between ions.

A. Covalent Bonding C. Ionic bonding
B. Metallic bonding D. Polaric bonding

15. All of the following are ionic except.

A. Na B. CaS C. CO D. 𝑁𝑎2 0

16. How ionic bonding takes place?

A. Two non –metallic elements of different kinds form strong forces of attraction.
B. Two non-metallic elements of the same kind form strong forces of attraction
C. A non-metallic element like fluorine is attracted to a metallic element like sodium.
D. A metallic element like sodium transfers an electron to a non-metallic element like fluorine.

17. If Ionic bonding is the process of transferring of electrons, how about Covalent Bonding?
A. Share B. Transfer C. Produce D. Stay

18. What kind of particle is produced after covalent bonding?

A. Atom B. Molecule C. Ion D. Electron

19. When does covalent bonding take place?

A. It takes place when atoms share electrons with one another.
B. It takes place when the attraction between atoms is strong.
C. It takes place when atoms collide with one another.
D. It takes place when atoms attain stability.
20. This a type of bonding wherein two metals strongly holds with each other.
A. Covalent Bonding C. Ionic bonding
 B. Metallic bonding D. Polaric bonding

21. It is property of metal on which it is formed into thin sheets.

A. Malleability B. Ductility C. Luster D.Conductivity

22. Most metals are used in electrical wiring have the current flow, what property of metal is shown?
A. Malleability B. Ductility C. Luster D. Conductivity

23. Silver has a shiny appearance, what property of metal is shown?

A. Malleability B. Ductility C. Luster D.Conductivity

24. It is a property of metal that can be turned into wires.

A. Malleability B. Ductility C. Luster D.Conductivity

25. Why can metals be hammered without breaking?

A. They are ductile C. They are malleable
B. They are not brittle D. Their particles are strong.

26. Which of the following substances when dissolve in water will conduct electricity?
A. Glucose B. Oil C. Gasoline D. MSG

27. Why do atoms react with one another to form chemical bonds?
A. To attain stability C. To form molecules
B. To form compounds D. To produce ions

28. Juan Miguel wants to protect his bicycles from rusting fast. Which of the following materials do you
think Miguel will use?
A. Vinegar B. Alcohol C. Kerosene D. Lubricating oil

29. Marcela told her grandson, Miguel, never to play with gasoline. Why do you think she does not
allow him to do it?
A. Because gasoline is volatile C. Because gasoline is viscous
B. Because gasoline is flammable D. All of the above

30. Which hydrocarbon compound has a double bond in the molecule?

A. Butane B. Butene C. Butyne D. Butine

31. Which hydrocarbon compound has a single bond in the molecule?

A. Propane B. Propene C. Propyne D. Propine

32. Methane is a natural gas. What is the common use of methane?

A. Disinfectant B. Medicine C. Fuel D. Ripening agent

33. What is the common use of ethane?

A. Disinfectant B. Medicine C. Fuel D. Ripening agent

34. Emmanuel suddenly cut his finger accidentally. Which compound should he use to prevent from
infection?
A. Formalin B. Isorpropyl alcohol C. Kerosene D. Acetone
35. It is a compound used in preserving bodies of dead.
A. Formalin B. Isorpropyl alcohol C. Kerosene D. Acetone

36. In a salon, April wants to erase her nail polish. What should she use to remove it?
A. Formalin B. Isorpropyl alcohol C. Kerosene D. Acetone

37. Mang Lando is an owner of apple farm. In order to make the products last, what compound should
he use?
A. Formalin B. Isorpropyl alcohol C. Kerosene D. Acetone

38. How many particles are equal to 1 mole?

A. 6.02 x 10²² particles C. 60. 2 x 10²² particles
B. 6.02 x 10²³ particles D. 60. 2 x 10²³ particles

39. Which of the following units is used in expressing the amount of substance in terms of number of
particles?
a. liter B. gram C. mole D. Celsius

40. What is the representative particle of ionic compounds?

A. Atoms B. Ions C. Molecule D. Formula unit

41. The label of dark chocolate indicates its mass is 150g and it is 70% of cacao. If you consume the
whole chocolate bar, how much cacao did you eat?
A. 105g b. 45g C. 100g D. 50g

42. What percent of hydrogen (H) is present in water (𝐻2 𝑂)?

A. 12% B. 11% C. 13% D. 89%

43. How about the percentage of composition of O?

A. 12% B. 11% C. 13% D. 89%

44. What is molecular mass of 𝐻2 𝑂 if H atom is 1.01g and 0 is 16.00g?

A. 18.02g B. 18.04g C. 19.01g D. 19.04g

45. What is the molecular mass of 𝑀𝐺𝑐𝑙2 if the atomic mass of Mg is 24.21 and Cl is 35.45?
A. 85.2g B. 90.3g C. 95.11g D. 98.11g

46. What is the molecular mass of NaCl if Na is 6.94 and Cl is 35.45?

A. 39.02g B. 42.01g C. 41.06g D. 42.39g

47. What is the cmeical formula of nitrogen monoxide?

A. 𝐶𝑂2 B. 𝑂2 C. NaCl D. 𝑁𝑂2

48. How many moles of of oxygen do 𝑁𝑂2 have?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

49. How many sulphur atoms are there 96.3 of sulphur?

A. 1 B. 3 C. 6.02 x 10²³ D. 1.8 x 1024
 50. Who proposed that a mole is equal to 6.02 x 10²³?
A. Einstein B. Newton C. Avogadro D. Pascal

51. IF a mass of carbon is 12.01 and oxygen is 15.99 how many percent is Oxygen in𝐶𝑂2?
A. 52 B.62 C. 72 D. 82

52. Referring to # 51, how many percent is carbon?

A. 18 B. 28 C. 38 D. 44

53. Referring to # 51, what is the molecular mass of the substance?

A. 18 B. 28 C. 38 D. 44

54. How many atoms of oxygen are there in Carbon dioxide?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 44

55. What is the chemical formula of carbon dioxide?

A. 𝐶𝑂2 B. 𝑂2 C. NaCl D. 𝐻2 𝑂2

56. How about the chemical formula for the good air that we breathe?
A. 𝐶𝑂2 B. 𝑂2 C. NaCl D. 𝐻2 𝑂2

57. How about the chemical formula of a salt?

A. 𝐶𝑂2 B. 𝑂2 C. NaCl D. 𝐻2 𝑂2

58. Given the chemical formula NaCl or commonly known as salt. What is the percent of Na if sodium
and chlorines mass is 6.94 and 35.45 respectively?
A. 16% B. 84% C. 42. 39g D. 44%

59. Referring # 58, what is the percentage of composition of CL?

A. 16% B. 84% C. 42. 39g D. 44%

60. What is the the overall molecular mass of the compound NaCl?
A. 16% B. 84% C. 42. 39g D. 44%

Prepared by: Noted:

CHRIS JOHN PAUL M. FERRERAS RAQUEL M. CAOILE

Subject Teacher Head Teacher I

Approved:

MARIO P. PASCUA BELEN C. AQUINO Ed. D

Public Schools District Supervisor EPS I -English
 Republic of the Philippines
Region I
LA UNION SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE
City of San Fernando, La Union 2500
Aringay District

MANGA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

Second Periodical Test
Science 10

Name: _________________________________ Grade &Section: _______ Score: _____

Direction: Encircle the letter of the best answer.

1. In which case device is magnetic field present

A. A microphone undergoing a sound checks C. A cooling soldering iron
B. A charged balloon D. A very hot horse-shoe magnet

2. When two magnets have like poles, magnets tend to ____.

A. Repulse B. Attract C. Leave D. Hide
3. When two magnets are having unlike poles, magnets tend to ____.
A. Repulse B. Attract C. Leave D. Hide

4. Which of the following is a magnetic material?

A. H B. He C. Al D. Ar

5. Among the following are example of metals except

A. Sc B. Ti C. Cu D. Kr

6. The Earth is considered as giant magnet because of its gravitational force.

A. True B. False C. Sometimes D. Maybe

7. At What poles are magnets more attracted?

A. North and South B. North and North C. South and South D. South and East

8. When two magnets are broken into two, how many poles can we produce?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

9. Why do magnetic fields produce?

A. Because of the existence of coil C. Because of moving charges
B. Because of iron fillings D. Because of electrons

10. Which device can be used to determine the polarity of unmarked magnet?
A. A plastic cup C. A rubber band
B. A magnetized needle D. A twig of acacia
11. How will you describe the magnetic field around a current-carrying coil?
A. .The magnetic field is weakest near and around the coil
B. The magnetic field is strongest in the current carrying coil.
C. The magnetic field is strongest inside the current-carrying coil.
D. The magnetic field lines are closed loops along the loops in the coil.

12. These are negative charges among atoms.

A. Proton B. Electron C. Neutron D. Positron

13. When a negative charge is electron, how about proton?

A. Proton B. Electron C. Neutron D. Positron

14. In which case /cases is electric field present?

I. A spark jumping between two nearby rods
II. A charge that is momentarily at rest
III. A rotating bar Magnet
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

15. What is the material used in identifying polarity of object and use in navigation.
A. Thermometer B. Barometer C. Galvanometer D. Compass

16. What basic principle enables ALL electric motors to operate?

A. Iron is the only element that is magnetic
B. Opposite charges attract and like charges repel
 C. A current carrying conductor placed with a magnetic field will experience a magnetic force.
D. A moving conductor within a magnetic field will experience an electromotive force.

17. What is the electromagnet material that interacts with a magnet?

A. Thermometer B. Barometer C. Galvanometer D. Compass

18. A galvanometer includes a permanent magnet that rotates against a string.

A. True B. False C. Sometimes D. Maybe

19. What device is used to change electrical energy to mechanical energy?

A. Generators B. Transformers C. Electric Motors D. Electromagnet

20. These are coil of wire wrapped around by metal core wherein a very strong magnetic field is
produced
A. Generators B. Transformers C. Electric Motors D. Electromagnet

21. Which device is used to determine the polarity of an object?

A. A stirring rod C. A compass
B. A electroscope D. A twig

22. How will you describe the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying coil wire?
A. The magnetic field does not vary with the distance from the wire.
B. The magnetic field is strongest near and around the wire.
C. The magnetic field is strongest far the wire
D. The magnetic field is strongest not within the wire

23. Which of the following is an example of conductor?

A. Rubber B. Plastic C. Metal wire D. Clothes

24. Which of the following statement is true about conductors?

A. It stops the current to flow C. Conductors are also insulators
B. It allows current to flow D. Non-metals are good conductors

25. Who formulated the the principle of Electromagnetic induction?

A. Faraday B. Oersted C. Maxwell D. Newton

26. He is the one who showed how a current carrying wire behaves like a magnet.
A. Faraday B. Oersted C. Maxwell D. Newton

27. It is the term used to describe the transfer of EM waves.

A. Conduction B. Convection C. Radiation D. Sanitation

28. Which of the following best explains about EM waves?

A. Electromagnetic waves cannot travel in a vacuum.
B. A wave is a transfer of energy
C. All EM waves are visible
D. Most of EM waves are invisible but detectable

29. Which of the following spectrum has the longest wavelength and lowest frequency?
A. Radio Waves B. Microwaves C. Infrared D. Visible Light
30. Which of the following is a use of radio wave?
A. Telecommunications C. Medical Use
B. Medical treatments D. Production of Vitamin D

31. Which of the following statement is true about electromagnetic wave?

A. Gamma rays have the lowest frequency.
B. The length of waves is farther if the frequency is lower.
C. The length of waves is nearer if the frequency is lower.
D. Frequency does not affect the length of a wave.

32. All electromagnetic waves travel at ____________ in vacuum.

A. 3.0 x 105 m/s B. 3.0 x 106 m/s C. 3.0 x 107 m/s D. 3.0 x 108 m/s

33. Radio wave is only the electromagnetic spectrum that does not travel in a vacuum.
A. True B. False C. Sometimes D. Maybe

34. In the visible spectrum, which color has the longest wavelength?
A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. Violet

35. What electromagnetic wave is sometimes called as heat rays?

A. Gamma Rays B. Radio Waves C. Infrared D. Ultraviolet

36. Which of the following is use of infrared except?

A. Remote Control B. Photographs C. Navigation D. Sterilization

37. What is the best source of UV rays?

A. Sunlight B. Radioactive Materials C. Gases D. Moonlight

38. When a person is too much exposed to sunlight, what is maybe the result except?
A. Sunburn C. Damage to eyes
B. Damage to tissues D. Production of Vitamin D

39. What is the distance of your image from you if you stand 1.5 m in front of a plane mirror?
A. 4.5 m B. 3.0 m C. 2.0 m D. 1.5m

40. Zed stands 1.5m. tall in front of plane mirror. What is the height of his image?
A. 4.5 m B. 3.0 m C. 2.0 m D. 1.5m

41. You see the reflection of the clock without numbers in your plane mirror. The image formed by the
hands of the clock shows the time of 3:30. What is the real time?
A. 3:30 B. 8:30 C. 9:30 D. 10:30

42. Complete the statement. Angle of incidence is equal to angle of ______.

A. Refraction B. Reflection D. Diffraction D. Deflection
43. If you placed a number chart in front of plane mirror, what numbers will you read properly in the
mirror?
A. 0, 1, 6, 8, and 9 B. 0, 1, and 6 C. 6 and 9 D. 0 and 8

44. A white sheet of paper cannot act as mirror because it ______ the rays of light.
A. Diffracts B. Diffuses C. Interferes D. Refract

45. The entire two opposite walls in your room consist of plane mirrors, how much larger will your room
seem to appear?
A. 2x larger B. 3x larger C. 4x larger D. infinite

46. These are curved mirror in which reflective surfaces bulges towards the light source.
A. Convex mirror B. Concave mirror C. Plane mirror D. Glass

47. Where should be the object be placed in front of a concave mirror to form a virtual and magnified
image?
A. At the focus C. Between the focus and the vertex
B. At the center of curvature D. Between the center of curvature and focus

48. An object is placed between a concave mirror and its focal point. What is the type and orientation
of the image formed?
A. Virtual and inverted C. Virtual and erect
B. Real and inverted D. Real and erect

49. What type of mirror do dentists usually uses to see clearly the images of our teeth?
A. Plane mirror B. Convex mirror C. Concave mirror D. None of the above

50. A man 1.30 m. tall stands 5.20 meters from a concave mirror. If the image could be formed on a
screen 1.50 cm from the mirror, what is the size of the image?
A. 0.07cm B. 3.75cm C. 10.5 cm D. 14.6 cm

51. What kind of mirror is used in automobiles and trucks to give the driver a wider area and smaller
image of traffic behind him?
A. Plane mirror B. Convex mirror C. Concave mirror D. None of the above

52. This is a laboratory apparatus which is use to see a closer look on microorganism. What is this
optical instrument?
A. Telescope B. Microscope C. Thermometer D. Magnifying glass

53. Which of the following optical instruments will be used to produce a reduced and inverted image of
a distant object?
A. Telescope B. Microscope C. Thermometer D. Magnifying glass

54. What type of lens produces smaller and upright images?

A. Concave lens B. Convex lens C. Converging lens D. Can’t be determined

55. Sun’s rays are observed to focus at a point behind a lens. What kind of lens was used?
A. Converging lens B. Diverging lens C. Focusing lens D. None of the above
 56. Which of the following is not an example of optical instruments?
A. Telescope B. Microscope C. Thermometer D. Cameras

57. An object is 6 cm in front of convex mirror with a focal length of 6 cm. What is the location of the
image formed?
A. Between F and V B. Between C and F C. In front of the mirror D. Can’t be determined

58. An object is kept at a distance of 80.00 cm from a convex lens of focal length of 25.00 cm. Find the
distance between its image and lens.
A. 19.05cm B. 25.25cm C. 36.36cm D. No image

59. It is a box-like device used for taking pictures.

A. Telescope B. Microscope C. Thermometer D. Cameras

60. What is the focal length of the mirror in no. 59?

A. 0.07cm B. 3.75cm C. 10.5 cm D. 14.6 cm

Prepared by: Noted:

CHRIS JOHN PAUL M. FERRERAS RAQUEL M. CAOILE

Subject Teacher Head Teacher I

Approved:

MARIO P. PASCUA BELEN C. AQUINO Ed. D

Public Schools District Supervisor EPS I -English
 Republic of the Philippines
Region I
LA UNION SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE
City of San Fernando, La Union 2500
Aringay District

MANGA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

Second Periodical Test
Mathematics 8

Name: _________________________________ Grade &Section: _______ Score: _____

Direction: Encircle the letter of the best answer.

1. Which of the following is an example of linear inequality in two variables?

A. x+y >5 B. x<5 C. x – y = 6 D. y = x +2

2. How many solutions does linear inequality have?

A. One B. Two C. No D. Infinite

3. The lines to be used in graphing linear inequality in two variables are ______.
A. Broken B. Solid C. Endless D. solid and broken

4. The difference between the height of Jun (a) and Jake (b) is at most 10. Identify the linear
inequality in two variables.
A. a – b ≥ 10 B. a + b > 10 C. a – b ≤ 10 D. a + b < 10

5. To get a passing mark in school a student should have a grade (n) of at least 75, write the linear
model of the statement.
A. g > 75 B. g < 75 C. g ≥ 75 D. g ≤ 75

6. The difference between the scores of Jenny and Aira in their exam is more than 8 points. Suppose
Jenny’s score is 32 points, what could be the score of Aira?
A. 24 to 40 B. 24 and below C. above 40 D. between 24 and 40.

7. Which of the following real-life situation is an inequality?

A. The population of the Philippines is 103 000 000.
B. The ratio of male to female is equal to 1
C. Girls have equal rights to boys.
D. The expenses for food are greater than the expenses for water.

8. It is a relation wherein domain is mapped exactly in one element in the range.

A. Domain B. Equation C. Function D. Expression

9. What are the first coordinates in a given function?

 A. Domain B. Range C. Function D. Equation

10. What are the second coordinates in a given function?

A. Domain B. Range C. Function D. Equation

11. The first coordinates in a given function are the y-intercept.

A. True B. False C. Maybe D. Sometimes

12. If the set of ordered pairs have different x coordinates, then it is _______.
A. Relation B. Function C. Domain D. Range

13. If the function has same x-coordinates or different x-coordinates, then it is _____.
A. Relation B. Function C. Domain D. Range

14. The x-variables or the outputs are sometimes known as ______.

A. Relation B. Function C. Domain D. Range

15. Which of the following set of ordered pairs is a function?

A. { (1, 2), (4, -2), (5, -6), (4, 10)} C. { (2, 2), (5, -3), (5, -6), (2, 10)}
B. { (-1, 2), (-2, -2), (-3, -6), (-4, 10)} D. { (-2, 2), (4, -2), (-2, -4), (2, -5)}

16. Independent variables affect the _____________ variables.

A. Independent B. Dependent C. Equation D. Function

17. These are the intervening factors of the dependent variables.

A. Independent B. Dependent C. Equation D. Function

18. Proper sleep, balanced diet, and exercise affect the health of an individual. Which of the following
is the dependent variable?
A. Health B. Proper sleep C. Balanced Diet D. Exercise

19. Referring to # 14, which of the following is not an independent variable?

A. Proper sleep B. Balanced diet C. Exercise D. Absence of vices

20. In the given set of ordered pairs { (1, 2), (4, -2), (5, -6), (2, 10)} identify the following domains.
A. {1,4,5,2} B. {2,-2,-6,10} C. {1,2,4,-2} D. {5,-6,2,10}

21. Referring to # 15, what are the ranges of the given set of ordered pairs?
A. {1,4,5,2} B. {2,-2,-6,10} C. {1,2,4,-2} D. {5,-6,2,10}

3𝑥+4
22. What is the domain of the function f(x) = 𝑥+2 ?
A. Set of all real numbers C. set of all real numbers except x=-2
B. set of all real numbers except x=-2 D. Set of all integers

23. What is the range of the function f(x) = x²

A. All real numbers C. Less than or equal to 0
B. Greater than or equal to 0 D. Greater than 0
24. Which of the following illustrates a linear function
A. f(x)=x B. f(x) = x² C. f(x)= y D. f(x) = x³

25. Which of the following does not represents a linear function?

A. f(x) = x B. f(x)=x+1 C. f(x) = x+2 D. f(x) = x²

26. In the given linear function f(x) = x+ 2, what is the value of f(x) if x=5
A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8

27. Which of the following statement is true about function?

A. A function is a relation C. A relation is a function
B. A function is sometimes a relation D. A function is not a relation

28. What is the range of the linear function f(x) = 2x+1 if x= 2?

A. 4 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9

29. What is the range of the linear function f(x)= 3x given by the table? X f(x)
A. 3 and 6 C. 5 and 10 1
B. 4 and 8 D. 1 and 2 2

30. What is the domain of the linear function f(x) = -2x -2 if f(x) =-4
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

31. Evaluate the linear function f(x) = 5x -10 if x=3.

A. 5 B. -5 C. 10 D. -10

32. Referring to item # 31 if x=4, what is f(x)?

A. 5 B. -5 C. 10 D. -10

1
33. Given the linear function 2x , what is f(x) if x=10?
A. 5 B. -5 C. 10 D. -10

34. What is the graph of a linear function?

A. Parabola B. Straight line C. Hyperbola D. Superbola

35. Evaluate the function f(x)= x+ 2 if x= 4

A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12

36. These are the statements having the word if.

A. Hypothesis B. Conclusion C. Conditions D. Statements

37. What are the statements using the word then?

A. Hypothesis B. Conclusion C. Conditions D. Statements

38. A statement with a hypothesis and a conclusion.

A. Experimental B. Logical C. Conditional D. Developmental

39. If a polygon has 6 sides, then it is a hexagon. What is the hypothesis of the statement?
 A. a polygon has 6 sides C. it is a hexagon
B. a polygon D. a hexagon

40. What is the conclusion of the statement in item # 39?

A. a polygon has 6 sides C. it is a hexagon
B. a polygon D. a hexagon

41. A regular polygon has all it sides equal. Identify the if-then statement.
A. If a polygon has all its sides equal, then it is regular.
B. A polygon is regular, if it has all its sides equal.
C. If a polygon is regular, then it has all its sides equal.
D. A regular polygon has all its sides equal.

42. A five-sided polygon is a pentagon. What is the conditional statement?

A. If a polygon has five sides, then it is a pentagon.
B. If a pentagon has five sides, then it is a polygon.
C. A polygon having 5 sides is a pentagon.
D. Pentagon has five sides.

43. Referring to # 42, what will be the hypothesis of the formed conditional statement?
A. A polygon has five sides
B. If a polygon has five sides
C. It is a polygon
D. Then it is a polygon

44. The symbol use to denote as logical connector in a logical statement.

A. ← B. ↑ C. → D. ↓

45. The symbol use to negate the hypothesis (p) or the conclusion (q).
A. =p or = q B. p or q C. ~p or ~q D. →p or →q

46. The conditional statement “If two angles have the same measure, then they are congruent” What is
its converse?
A. If two angles are congruent, then they have same measure.
B. If two angles do not have the measure, then they are not congruent.
C. If two angles are not congruent, then they do not have the same measure.
D. If two angles are congruent, then they do not have the same measure.

47. Referring to # 46, what is its inverse?

A. If two angles are congruent, then they have same measure.
B. If two angles do not have the measure, then they are not congruent.
C. If two angles are not congruent, then they do not have the same measure.
D. If two angles are congruent, then they do not have the same measure.

48. What is the contrapositive of item # 46?

A. If two angles are congruent, then they have same measure.
B. If two angles do not have the measure, then they are not congruent.
C. If two angles are not congruent, then they do not have the same measure.
D. If two angles are congruent, then they do not have the same measure.
 49. It is negating the conditional statement, what is this kind of statement?
A. Conditional B. Converse C. Inverse D. Contrapositive

50. It is negating the converse statement.

A. Conditional B. Converse C. Inverse D. Contrapositive

51. The symbol use to negate both conclusion (q) and hypothesis (p).
A. ~q→ ~p B. ~p→ ~q C. p → q D. q → p

52. Refers to reasoning that takes from specific to general information.

A. Inductive B. Deductive C. Indirect D. Direct

53. It is a kind of reasoning that starts from general to specific.

A. Inductive B. Deductive C. Indirect D. Direct

54. From the concept of trees and giving its example. What is the reasoning used?
A. Inductive B. Deductive C. Indirect D. Direct

55. A Grade 8 mathematics student presents his findings by giving definitions until he come up with a
concept. What is the reasoning used?
A. Inductive B. Deductive C. Indirect D. Direct

56. It is a method of reasoning usually written in paragraph form.

A. Inductive B. Deductive C. Indirect D. Direct

57. This reasoning is known as proof of contradiction.

A. Inductive B. Deductive C. Indirect D. Direct

58. The product of two negative integers is a positive integer. What is the direct proof of the statement?
A. –a x –b = ab B. –a x b = -ab C. a x -b = -ab D. -a x –b = -ab

59. The quotient of a positive and a negative is negative. What is the direct proof of the statement?
A. –a ÷ - b =- ab B. –a ÷ b =- ab C. a ÷ - b =- ab D. a ÷ b = ab

60. What is the indirect proof of the statement “The quotient of two negative integers is positive.”?
A. a ÷ - b =- ab B. –a ÷ b =- ab C. a ÷ - b =- ab D. -a ÷ - b = ab

Prepared by: Noted:

CHRIS JOHN PAUL M. FERRERAS RAQUEL M. CAOILE

Subject Teacher Head Teacher I

Approved:

MARIO P. PASCUA BELEN C. AQUINO Ed. D

Public Schools District Supervisor EPS I –English