AGK (Systems) - Pg 1; Air Law – Pg 6; Radio (Comms) – Pg 12; Flight Plan & Perf – Pg 25; Human Perf - Pg32;

Met – Pg 37; Navigation – Pg 43; Ops Proc - Pg53; Prin of Flight (PoF) – Pg 58

AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. CAS is IAS corrected for:

a. Position and instrument error

b. Instrument, pressure, and density error
c. Relative density only
d. Compressibility

2. With an almost discharged battery there will be:

a. A decrease of voltage with increasing load

b. Increase of current with decrease of voltage
c. Decrease of current with increasing load
d. Increase of voltage with increasing load

3. At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask?

a. 25,000ft
b. 32,000ft
c. 37,000ft
d. 41,000ft

4. When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded?

a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

b. During ground pressure testing
c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs
d. When changing to manual operation

5. Maximum Differential pressure:

a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the

fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump
c. Is the pressure loss over a given time limit
d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

6. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:

a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height

b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
c. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure
d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

7. With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ‘ON’:

a. Whenever the igniters are on

b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture
c. Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is raining
d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

8. Which of the following instruments require inputs of both pitot and static pressure?

a. Airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed indicator

b. Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter
c. Airspeed indicator only
d. Airspeed indicator and machmeter

9. When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select:

a. Normal
 b. 100%
c. Diluter
d. Emergency

10. When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur?

a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture

b. Cruise power
c. In the descent if you have not adjusted the mixture
d. Max take-off power

11. If a CSD overheat warning is shown:

a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself
b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator
c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has
reduced
d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

12. When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close?

a. After a booster pump failure

b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start
c. When flight idle is selected
d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

13. The LED indicator on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 seconds intervals. This indicates:

a. The battery is charging

b. The torch is serviceable
c. The battery needs replacing
d. The filament is broken

14. A shuttle valve will:

a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down

b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached
c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

15. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons?

a. To reduce wing bending at high speed

b. To reduce wing twisting at low speed
c. To reduce wing bending at low speed
d. To reduce wing twist at high speed

16. In what range is GPWS operative?

a. 2450 – 0 ft
b. 3000 – 50 ft
c. 2450 – 50 ft
d. 3000 – 0 ft

17. A nose wheel control system

a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times

b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position
c. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times
d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

18. At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is:

a. Inoperative
b. Operative
c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes
d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes
19. A pressure head is subject to the following errors:

a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature

b. Position, manoeuvre induced
c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density
d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

20. Total Air Temperature is:

a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest,

adiabatically
b. The temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise
c. The static air temperature minus the recovery factor
d. The recovery factor plus the ram rise

21. When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show:

a. No change in altitude
b. A slight climb
c. A slight descent
d. A slight descent at high airspeed only

22. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading
will be:

a. Correct
b. Greater than the real altitude
c. Less than the real altitude
d. Oscillating around the correct altitude

23. An aircraft is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one)
turn?

a. 30°
b. 12°
c. 18°
d. 35°

24. An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3° glidescope. What is its rate of
descent?

a. 500 ft/min
b. 300 ft/min
c. 250 ft/min
d. 600 ft/min

25. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature
increases by 5°. The CAS will:

a. Remain approximately constant

b. Increase by 10 kts
c. Decrease by 10 kts
d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA

26. . With air in the hydraulic system, you would:

a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it

b. Bleed the air out of the system
c. Allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself
d. Expect it to operate faster

27. A hand pump is usually fitted:

a. For ground servicing purposes

b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air
d. Retracting the gear after take-off
28. What controls cabin pressurisation?

a. ECS pack mass flow controller

b. Outflow valve
c. Engine bleed valve
d. Inflow valve

29. At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask?

a. 25,000ft
b. 32,000ft
c. 37,000ft
d. 41,000ft

30. The EGT indication on a piston engine is used:

a. To control the cooling air shutters

b. To monitor the oil temperature
c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

31. The magnetic heading reference unit has a precision rate of:

a. 1°/min
b. 2°/min
c. 5°/min
d. 3°/min

32. How do you control power in a jet engine?

a. By controlling the mixture ratio

b. By controlling the fuel flow
c. By controlling the airflow
d. By controlling the bleed valves

33. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single
failure below alert height?

a. Fail soft
b. Fail passive
c. Fail operational or fail active
d. Land 2 system

34. If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate:

a. Zero
b. Climb
c. Descent
d. Reducing pressure

35. The purpose of an accumulator is to:

a. Relieve excess pressure

b. Store fluid under pressure
c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation
d. Remove air from the system

36. How much fuel can be jettisoned?

a. A specific amount
b. The captain decides
c. All
d. A specified amount must remain
37. What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down?

a. The gear is down

b. The gear is down and locked
c. The gear and doors are down and locked
d. The gear is travelling between up and down

38. The most likely cause of brake fade is:

a. Oil or grease on the brake drums

b. Worn stators
c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure
d. The brake pads overheating

39. A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:

a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder

b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading
c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder
d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two

40. The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at:

a. 8,000ft
b. 10,000ft
c. 13,000ft
d. 14,000ft

AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE - SYSTEM

1. A magneto is switched off by

D. Grounding the Primary Circuit
2. A Cylinder Temperature Gauge measures
A. The temperature of the hottest cylinder
3. The flight deck warning on activation of an engine fire detection system is
C. Warning light and warning bell
4. A shuttle valve will
C. automatically switch to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
5. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons
D. to reduce wing twist at high speed
6. What is the purpose of trim tabs
B. To reduce stick holding forces to zero
7. When a battery is nearly discharged, does the
B. voltage and current decrease
8. With an almost discharged battery there will be:
A. decrease in voltage and increase in load.
9. How do you control power in a jet engine
B. by controlling the fuel flow
10. Autobrakes are disengaged
D. By the Pilot
11. The EGT indication on a piston engine is used
C. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
12. What controls cabin pressurization
B. Outflow valve
13. How do aircraft spoilers work?
C. Upper surfaces only, symmetrical and asymmetrical operation
14. At what height is the mandatory for one flight deck crew to wear an oxygen mask?
D. 41,000ft
15. If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate
B. Climb
16. A shuttle valve is used to
C. Allows to supply to be available to a service
17. What does three green lights represents when the landing gear is selected down
B. The gear is down and locked.
18. What is the effect of heating flight deck windows
D. to protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation.
19. How much fuel must be jettisoned
A. a specified amount must remain

HYDRAULICS
20. A shuttle valve
B. allows two supply sources to operate one unit
21. A relief valve
C. Relieves at a designed pressure
22. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir
A. to compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion
23. With air in the hydraulic system you would
B. bleed the air out of the system

24. The purpose of an accumulator is to:

B. store fluid under pressure
25. A shuttle valve will allow:
C. Two independent pressure sources to operate a system/component
26. A hand pump is usually fitted:
A. for ground servicing purposes
27. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is
B. Dry powder
28. The most likely cause of brake fade is
D. the brake pad overheating
29. At aircraft taxing speed at 10mph the antiskid braking system is
A. inoperative
30. To yaw the aircraft to the right:
B. the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right
31. A dump valve
B. is controlled manually

AIR LAW

1. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when
the cloud base is lower than:

a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility

b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility
c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility
d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

2. What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure?

a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed

b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
c. Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are
VMC conditions
d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

3. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:

a. 50 minutes before off-block time

b. 60 minutes before departure
c. 10 minutes before departure
d. 30 minutes before off-block time

4. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at
cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan
by at least plus or minus:

a. 10%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 2%
5. What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside
controlled airspace unless otherwise directed?

a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the heading
b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of
the aircraft
c. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track
d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

6. If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to:

a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
c. Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

7. When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance:

a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan
b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will
accept that clearance
c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that
clearance
d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

8. An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if:

a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures

b. The aircraft receives radar vectors
c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to
maintain visual contact
d. All of the above

9. What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace?

a. No flight plan required

b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting
advisory service or not
c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes
d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

10. What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace?

a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud
c. 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud
d. The same as Class D

11. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information

b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations
c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information
provided by an ILS or a PAR
d. An approach using bearing, elevation, and, optionally, distance information

12. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 6

13. An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To
continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain:
 a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 8km
b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km
c. 1500m horizontally and 1000m vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km
d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km

14. A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because:

a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly
c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome
d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

15. Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft
in distress?

a. Code 7500
b. Code 7700
c. Code 7000
d. Code 7600

16. Which has priority to land?

a. A hospital flight
b. An emergency
c. A military flight
d. A VIP flight

17. You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean?

a. Glider flying in progress

b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped
c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement
d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

18. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach?

a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed
approach
b. Land on the instrument runway
c. Initiate a missed approach
d. Return to the FAF

19. The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircrafts at the same FL, where
there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceeding aircraft has a higher true
airspeed of 20kts minimum is:

a. 3 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 10 minutes

20. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:

a. On the Captain’s initiative

b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c. If told by ATC
d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

21. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless:

a. They operate outside controlled airspace

b. If asked by ATC
c. Within controlled airspace
d. They operate a transponder with mode C
22. Repetitive flight plans (RPL’s) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently
on the same days of the following weeks and:

a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days
b. For at least 20 consecutive days
c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive
days
d. For at least 20 occasions

23. Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with:

a. AIC’s
b. AIP Supplements
c. AIRAC procedures
d. Trigger NOTAMS

24. An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the
control tower. What does this mean?

a. Do not land
b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable
c. Give way to other aircraft
d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

*104
25. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing
radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate
assistance?

a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights

b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

26. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously
operate this mode:

a. Only when directed by ATC

b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC
c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace
d. Regardless of ATC instructions

27. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled
airspace below FL290 is:

a. 500 feet (150m)

b. 2500 feet (750 m)
c. 1000 feet (300m)
d. 2000 feet (600m)

28. An aircraft is converging from the left. Which light will you see first?

a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. White

29. What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an
aerodrome in a CTR?

a. 1000m
b. 1500m
c. 2000m
d. 3000m
30. If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light?

a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed

b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed
c. Only at night with engines running
d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

31. What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided?

a. 25nm
b. 10nm
c. 15nm
d. 15km

32. The loading limitations shall include:

a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity

b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing
c. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading
d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

33. A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outward and then moves the
arms outwards. What does the signal indicate?

a. Clear to move forward

b. Brakes off
c. Remove chocks
d. Clear to close all engines

34. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:

a. On the Captain’s initiative

b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c. If told by ATC
d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

35. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the:

a. Pilot in command
b. Operator
c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d. Owner of the aircraft

36. Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC
clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the
right of way?

a. Aircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches

b. Aircraft B, regardless of the direction from which A approaches
c. Aircraft A, if B is to the right of him
d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

37. When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to
issuance of its own license, the validity shall:

a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license

b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
c. Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid
d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

a. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member

states
b. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states
c. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes
 d. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states,
signatory to the Chicago convention

39. Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state?

a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity
of such licenses
b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of
the annexes to the Chicago convention
c. ICAO must approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

40. You have been intercepted in the airspace of a foreign contracting state. What is the signal for
‘clear to proceed’ from the intercepting aircraft?

a. Rocking wings
b. Flashing lights
c. Cut across track
d. Breaking turn up and left

41. What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction
below FL 290?

a. 500ft
b. 1000ft
c. 2000ft
d. 4000ft

42. During a straight departure, the initial track is to be:

a. Within 5° of runway centre-line

b. Within 10 of runway centre-line
c. Within 15° of runway centre-line
d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

43. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:

a. Only use the word “wilco”

b. Only read back the code
c. Only use the word “roger”
d. Read back mode and code

44. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft?

a. The State
b. The Operator
c. The Commander
d. The Owner

45. The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made:

a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent
b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
c. At the transition level only
d. At the transition altitude only

46. A type rating is applicable to:

a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness

b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State
c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

47. If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an aerodrome, what should be entered in Box 16
of the Flight Plan?

a. ZZZZ
 b. NNNN
c. A/N
d. A/D XXX

48. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall
notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of
the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to:

a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose
citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to
be on board and ICAO
b. ICAO only
c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

49. If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may:

a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance

b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance
c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply
d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight
plan

50. The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation
facility at the aerodrome?

a. 20nm
b. 30nm
c. 25nm
d. 15nm

RADIOTELEPHONY

1. Clearance limit is defined as:

a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance

b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires
c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

2. The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should:

a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message

b. Pass the required information to ATC
c. Stay where you are
d. Examine a system or procedure

3. The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be:

a. CLEARANCE
b. GROUND
c. DELIVERY
d. PRESTO

4. The term “CORRECTION” is used when:

a. The readback of a message is incorrect

b. The readback of a message is correct
c. The message has to be deleted
d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

5. If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:

a. Has to cancel the flight
 b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission
c. Has to fly low level only
d. Should fly for another company

6. Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold
is:

a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA

b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA
c. EAT or ETA
d. Before it runs out of fuel

7. Readability 2 means that your transmission is:

a. Readable but with difficulty

b. Readable
c. Readable now and then
d. Two way communications have been established

8. What cannot be left out from a position report?

a. Callsign, Flight Level and Time

b. Callsign, Position and Time
c. Position, Time, Flight Level, Next position and ETA
d. Your signature

9. The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be:

a. APPROACH
b. CENTRE
c. INFORMATION
d. RADIO

10. The definition of the instruction “MONITORO” is:

a. Listen out on frequency

b. Establish communications on frequency
c. Watch out for visual signals on frequency
d. You are being watched

11. The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action:

a. Poor
b. Medium to poor
c. Medium
d. Slippery

12. Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be:

a. VFR/IFR
b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT
c. NOT BAD/SO SO
d. VMC/IMC

13. If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase:

a. WORDS TWICE
b. I REPEAT
c. I SAY AGAIN
d. DITTO

14. An example of a general call is:

a. STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDAITELY

b. BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE
c. ALL STATIONS
 d. GOOD DAY

15. The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that:

a. All traffic are to end their transmissions

b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency
c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency
d. ATC is shutting shop

16. The phrase used to separate portions of a message is:

a. BREAK BREAK
b. I SAY AGAIN
c. BREAK
d. UMM

17. The term “RECLEARED” means that:

a. Your last clearance is confirmed

b. Your last clearance has been cancelled
c. You may proceed as you please
d. A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance
supersedes your previous clearance

18. The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:

a. Respond in alphabetic order

b. Respond in numerical order
c. Give no response
d. Request a repeat of the message

19. The term “DISREGARD” means:

a. Ignore
b. Cancel the last clearance
c. You have not been cleared
d. Pay no attention to what I say

20. An urgency message should include the following information:

a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition,

intention of commander, position, level, heading
b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance
c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination
d. Captain’s number, rank and name

21. The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is:

a. QDR
b. QFE
c. QUJ
d. QTE

22. The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that:

a. There is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on

board or other vehicle but there is no need for immediate
assistance
b. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate
assistance
c. The aircraft has crashed
d. The aircraft is being hijacked
23. The Q code on which height is based on:

a. QNH
b. QFF
c. QFE
 d. QUJ

24. The frequency on which ATIS can be found is:

a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency

b. Discrete VHF only
c. VOR frequency only
d. Any ATC frequency

25. When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted:

a. When there is no likelihood of confusion

b. After the initial call
c. Never
d. By the ground station only

26. The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates:

a. Loss of communications
b. Distress
c. Urgency
d. Hijacking

27. If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should:

a. Try another appropriate frequency

b. Start transmitting blind
c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
d. Transmit words twice

28. The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE
FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is:

a. 118.7
b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD
c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD
d. 118.7 X-CD

29. The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is:

a. QDM
b. QDR
c. QTE
d. QNH

30. The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be:

a. TOWER
b. CLEARANCE
c. GROUND
d. APRON

31. The time given in aeronautical communications is:

a. Local mean time

b. In minutes only
c. UTC
d. Daylight saving time

32. The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is:

a. 3 to 30 MHz
b. 88 to 108 MHz
c. 108.0 to 139.95 MHz
d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz
33. The message “READABILITY 3” means:

a. Readable now and then

b. Unreadable
c. Readable
d. Readable but with difficulty

34. The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is:

a. Consider the transmission as not sent

b. Proceed with your message
c. Wait and I will call you
d. Hold your present position

35. The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is:

a. 123.725
b. 123.7
c. 12372
d. 123.72

36. The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is:

a. WILCO
b. ROGER
c. HOLDING SHORT
d. UNDERSTOOD

37. The priority of the message “LINE UP” is:

a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM”

b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND”
c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”
d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

38. The phrase to use when you want to say “yes” is:

a. AFFIRMATIVE
b. ROGER
c. WILCO
d. AFFIRM

39. When making a blind transmission you should:

a. Transmit the message twice

b. Transmit each word twice
c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz
d. Wait for visual signals

40. The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should:

a. Carry out a go around

b. Continue with 360 degree turns
c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only
d. Reverse the direction of the turn

COMMUNICATIONS (RT – Part 2 below)

COMMUNICATIONS
The term “RECLEARED” meanss that:
- a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance

The phrase used to separate portions of a message is:

- break

An example of a general call is:

- all stations

The condition that describes the state of an aircraft in serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance is:
- distress

Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITONS” should be

- VMC/IMC

The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is:
- poor

What cannot be left out from a position report?

- callsign, position and time

An altitude of 13,500 feet would be spoken as:

- ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET

How does ATC report RVR?

- In meters at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end of runway
Readability 2 means that your transmission is:
- readable now and then
An urgency message should include the following information:
- name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position,
level, heading

Following a communication failure the time at which aircraft should aim to leave the hold is:
- EAT or ETA

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:

- may proceed with the flight with ATC permission

The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:
- give no response

The term “CORRECTION” is used when:

- an error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is..

The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you would:

- examine a system or procedure

The term “DISREGARD” means:

- Ignore

The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take off includes the phrase:
- STOP IMMEDIATELY

Clearance limit is defined as:

- the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

The priority of the message “LINE UP”is

- same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”

The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is:

- HOLDING SHORT

The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25khz spacing is:

- 123.725

The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is

- wait and I will call you

The phrase to use when you want to say “yes”is:

- affirm

The message “READABILITY 3’’ means

- readable but with diffuculty

The full range of VHF frequencies used for communication is:

- 118.0 to 136.975

When making a blind transmission you should:

- transmit the message twice

The time given in aeronautical communication is:

- UTC

The instruction “ORBIT”from ATC means that the aircraft should:

- carry out one 360 degree turn only

The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is:
- Distress

The best signals for VHF communications are obtained when the position of the aircraft is at :
- high altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome

If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should:

- try a another appropriate frequency

Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to “RESET SQUAWK” is to

- reselect the numbers on the control unit

When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:

- SAY AGAIN

The call from an aircraft for a missed approach is:

- GOING AROUND

The Q code on which height is based on:

- QFE

The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that:

- the aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance
 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE & PLANNING

1. If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1:

a. The take-off can be continued or aborted

b. The take-off should be aborted
c. The take-off should be continued
d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between
VGO and VSTOP

2. When does THRUST = DRAG?

a. Climbing at a constant IAS

b. Descending at a constant IAS
c. Flying level at a constant IAS
d. All of the above

3. How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights
into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?

a. 3.00 hrs
b. 0.30 hrs
c. 1.00 hr
d. 0.10 hr

4. At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires:

a. More thrust and a lower coefficient of lift

b. Less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift
c. More thrust and a lower coefficient of drag
d. A higher coefficient of lift

5. Which of the following would give the greatest gliding performance?

a. Flight at VMD
b. Flight at 1.32VMD
c. Flight at the best CL/CD ratio
d. Flight close to CL MAX

6. You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled
airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC?

a. 10 mins
b. 20 mins
c. 30 mins
d. 45 mins

7. After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of
departure. You will arrive after:

a. 10 min 40 sec
b. 20 min
c. 24 min
d. 16 min

8. When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot
adapt?

a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible

b. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

9. The best EAS/Drag ratio is approximately:

a. 1.3 VMD
 b. 1.32 VMD
c. 1.6 VMD
d. 1.8 VMD

10. What factors affect descent angle in a glide?

a. Configuration and altitude

b. Configuration and angle of attack
c. Mass and altitude
d. Mass and configuration

11. An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does
the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft)

a. 6600 ft
b. 7800 ft
c. 6300 ft
d. 6000 ft

12. At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel
required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest
consumption rate acceptable?

a. 33.0 USG/Hr
b. 37.9 USG/Hr
c. 30.3 USG/Hr
d. 21.3 USG/Hr

13. In flight, it is possible to:

i. File an IFR flight plan

ii. Modify an active flight plan
iii. Cancel a VFR flight plan
iv. Close a VFR flight plan
(rules of the air ann2 3.3.5)

a. i and ii
b. i, ii, iii and iv
c. ii, iii and iv
d. i and iv

14. Maximum endurance:

a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption

b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight
c. Can be achieved in a steady climb
d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

15. By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA?

a. 30%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 15%

16. The maximum induced drag occurs at a speed of:

a. VMD
b. VMP
c. VSO
d. VATO

17. Define the useful load:

a. traffic load plus dry operating mass

b. traffic load plus usable fuel mass
c. dry operating mass plus usable fuel load
 d. that part of the traffic load which generates revenue

18. An aeroplane of 110,000kg has its CG at 22.6m aft of the datum. The CG limits are 18m to
22m aft of the datum. How much mass must be removed from a hold 30m aft of the datum to
bring the CG to its mid point?

a. 26,800 kg
b. 28,600 kg
c. 86,200 kg
d. 62,800 kg

19. What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan?

a. From take-off to overhead destination

b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins
c. From take-off to landing
d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

20. How is fuel consumption affect by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg?

a. Increases with a forward C of G

b. Decreases with an aft C of G
c. Decreases with a forward C of G
d. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position

21. For take-off performance calculations, what is taken into account?

a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight

b. Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight
c. Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight
d. Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight

22. BIRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX

SA0850 280850 18014kt 9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011 =
FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27kt 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 – DZ
BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37 =
FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010
BECMG 2201 25007kt

Refer to weather information for Birmingham above. What is the total time for which the weather is
forecast?

a. 9 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 28 hours

23. When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin?

a. When V2 is reached
b. When 35 feet is reached
c. When flaps are up
d. When gear and flaps are up

24. For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is:

a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off

b. The time at which the flight plan is filed
c. The estimated off-block time
d. The time of take-off

25. Given:
True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb;
required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C.

Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?
 a. FL150
b. FL140
c. FL120
d. FL110

Problem Solving. Show your solution. (5points each)

1. A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS
450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel
available is 6000kg.

The time and distance to PSR is:

a. 1hr 30 min, 660nm

b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm
c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm
d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

2. Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2

Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at
M0.74.

What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS?

a. 25,000ft & 445kt

b. 33,000ft & 420kt
c. 25,000ft & 435kt
d. 33,000ft & 430kt

3. Given:
DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg
Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel

Which of the following is correct?

a. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193kg

b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg
c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg
d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

4. Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6

Given:
Distance to alternate 400nm
Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg
Headwind component 25kt

The alternate fuel required is:

a. 2550kg
b. 2800kg
c. 2900kg
d. 2650kg

5. Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1

Given:
Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel
2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise:
LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C.

Find estimated trip fuel and time.

a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min
c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min
d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min
Flight Performance
1. When submitting a flight plan before flight, departure time is?
- at which the aircraft leaves the parking area

2. What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan?

- From take-off to overhead destination

3. “Total Elapsed Time”for an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan at box 16, is the time elapsed
from :
- take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome

4. In flight, it is possible to:

i. file an IFR flight plan
ii. modify an active flight plan
iii. cancel a VFR flight plan
iv. Close a VFR flight plan

- I, II, III and IV

5. If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan,
she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA
at destination.
The time is:
- 30 mins

6. How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas
subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
- 3.00 hrs

7. For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is:
- the estimated off-block time

8. Birmingham EGBB/BHX
SA0850 280850 18014KT 9999 SCT 024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011=
FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27KT 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 – DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214
19022G37=
FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010 BECMG 2201
25007KT

Refer to the weather information for Birmingham, above. What is the total time for which the weather is
forcast?
- 28 hours

9. Given:
True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600 ft; local airfield gives qnh as 1035 mb; Required terrain
clearance 1500 ft; temparute ISA-15C
Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?
-FL140

10. At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of useable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is
12 USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable?
- 30.3 USG/HR

11. After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of
departure. You will arrive after:
- 24 mins

12. The CG is found to be 652.5 inches aft of the datum.. What percentage is the CG to the MAC?
- 20%
13. Define the useful load:
- traffic load plus usable fuel mass

14. The useful load is:

- TOM minus the DOM
15. To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:
- make a “positive” landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.

16. The first segment of the take-off flight path ends:

- at completion of gear retraction

17. When does THRUST = DRAG?

- flying level at a constant IAS

18. For a turbojet aeroplane the second segment of the climb begins when:
- Landing gear is fully retracted

19. For a turbojet aeroplane the third segment of climb begins when:
- Acceleration to a flap retraction speed begins (min 400ft)

20. How is fuel consumption affected by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg?

- decreases with a forward C of G

21. Maximum Endurance:

- can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption

22. The best EAS/Drag ratio is approximately:

- 1.32 VMD

23. The maximum induced drag occurs at a speed of :

- VSO

24. Which of the following would give the greatest gliding endurance?
- Flight close to CL MAX

25. For takeoff performance calculations, what is taken into account?

- OAT, pressure altitude, wind , weight

26. By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA?

- 10 %

27. At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires:

- a higher coefficient of lift

28. When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin?
- When 35 feet is reached

29. Thrust equal drag:

- in unaccelerated level flight

-
 HUMAN PERFORMANCE

1. What is the time of useful consciousness at 20,000 feet (moderate activity)?

a. 5 minutes
b. 1 minute
c. 10 minutes
d. 30 seconds

2. What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying?

a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
 c. 12 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

3. With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to:

a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible

b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions
c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions
d. Rely on the checklist for all procedures

4. What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision?

a. Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew
b. Consider all implications
c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion
d. Monitor his motor programme (flying)

5. Discussing private matters in the cockpit:

a. Decreases the captain’s role in leadership

b. Should be avoided in flight
c. Can improve team spirit
d. Is appropriate at any stage of the flight

6. The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision.

a. True
b. False

7. During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize:

a. The complete delegation of all duties

b. The importance of crew coordination
c. The priority of departing on schedule
d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

8. Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily:

a. Speed of reaction
b. The distribution of tasks and crew coordination
c. Strong situational awareness
d. The whole crew to focus on the immediate problem

9. The effects of carbon monoxide:

a. Increases with altitude

b. Decreases with altitude
c. Increases with increase of density
d. Decreases with pressure loss

10. A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the
effects by:

a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around

b. Land regardless of the weather
c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
d. Declare a mayday

11. The best strategies to increase stress tolerance are:

a. Planning, experience and self-control (fewer unexpected situation)

b. Learning, experience and anticipation
c. Learning, experience and CRM
d. Planning, experience and CRM
12. Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is:

1. flying in VMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3. flying from IMC to VMC
4. approaching over still water at night

a. 1, 2 & 3 only are correct

b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct
c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct
d. 1 only is correct

13. The scanning technique should differ by day and night.

a. True
b. False

14. A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should:

a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight
at this or a lower level
b. Decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms
c. Continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve the pain in the
affected site
d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

15. A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can:

a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment

b. Never fly again as an operating pilot
c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot
d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

16. The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at:

a. 18,000ft
b. 20,000ft
c. 23,000ft
d. 3,600ft

17. What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC?

a. Vision
b. Turning head to recover from disorientation
c. Sense of balance
d. Instruments

18. What four factors affect night vision?

a. Age, alcohol, altitude and smoking

b. Age, altitude, instrument lights and smoking
c. Instrument lights, altitude, alcohol and smoking
d. Age, alcohol, altitude and instrument lights

19. If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action
should be taken:

a. Ignore and it will go away

b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher
c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible
d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

20. How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually?

a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until
seconds before the collision
 b. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds
before the aircraft passes close by
c. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds
before the aircraft passes above
d. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds
before the aircraft passes well clear

21. What visual technique should be used when searching for an aircraft?

a. Sweep from side to side with the eyes covering the whole field of vision
b. Search the sky portion by portion starting on the left
c. Pinpoint 10° segments of the sky and confirm before passing onto another
d. Use a succession of small and rapid eye movements

22. What are the personality traits of a good pilot?

a. Reliable and stable

b. Stable and extraverted
c. Reliable and extraverted
d. Reliable, calm and extraverted

23. What are the key points of a good briefing?

a. Individual, understood and simple

b. Individual, clear and simple
c. Individual, understood and short
d. Simple, clear, understood and individual

24. The most obvious sign of an individual suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning is:

a. Muscular impairment
b. Cyanosis of the lips and fingernails
c. Sensory loss, particularly tunnelling of vision
d. Cherry red lips and flushed cheeks

25. A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a
tight turn are symptoms of:

a. The Occulogyral Effect

b. Flicker-vertigo
c. Pilot’s Vertigo
d. Nystagmus

26. If you switch on the anti-collision light in IMC, what are the likely effects?

a. Depth perception increases

b. You can suffer from dizziness and disorientation
c. You can suffer from Color Illusion
d. Binocular vision is affected

27. The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by:

a. Snow and a tailwind

b. Snow and a headwind
c. Rain and a headwind
d. An unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground

28. A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by:

a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as
possible
b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object
c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of
detecting movement
d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on
peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side
29. How do misty/foggy conditions affect the pilot’s judgment on the approach?

a. Underestimating range due to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass

b. Underestimating range due to the lights appearing dim
c. Overestimating range due to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass
d. Overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim

30. Communication in the cockpit is primarily used for what purpose?

a. It is the main tool to ensure coordination

b. It is the main tool to ensure comprehension
c. It is the main tool to ensure harmony
d. It is the main tool to ensure understanding

HUMAN PERFORMANCE
1. What is one of the initial indications of HYPOXIA
- impaired judgment
2. What is the 1st action taken by the pilot in the event of a cabin decompression above 10,000 ft
- don oxygen mask and check oxygen flow
3. The carbon dioxide level of the blood level is higher than normal. Does the brain:
- increase the rate of breathing and pulse rate
4. What are the times of useful consciousness at 20,000 ft (moderate activity)
- 5 minutes
5. If the symptoms of hyperventilation occur at an altitude where hypoxia is not a consideration, what is the
correct remedial action
- decrease rate and depth of breathing
6. What should a pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC
- instruments
7. What four factors affect night vision?
- age, alcohol, altitude and smoking
8. What is the absolute minimum time a pilot should stop drinking before flying
- 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
9. If having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the ff. action should be taken
- seek medical advice as soon as possible
10. The best strategy to increase stress tolerance
- learning, experience CRM
11. With regards to procedure you are advised to:
- memorize immediate actions and refer to checklist for subsequent action
12. How do misty and foggy conditions affects the pilots judgment on the approach
- overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim
13. How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually
- there will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the
collision
14. What visual technique should be used when searching for an aircraft
- pinpoint 10 deg segments of the sky and confirmed before passing onto another
15. What should a captain do before making a non urgent decision
- encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion
16. Communication in the cockpit is primarily used for what purpose
- it is the main tool to ensure coordination
17. What are the key points of a good briefing
- individual, understood, short
18. The co pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the commanders decision
- False
19. The time of useful consciousness for an individual experiencing rapid decompression at an altitude of
25,000 ft is
- 2 minutes
20. Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily
- the distribution of tasks in crew coordination
21. Discussing private matters in the cockpit
- can improve team spirit
22. A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should
- land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
23. A pilot can improve probability of detecting other aircraft by
- minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible
24. The time useful consciousness when suffering a decompression at 40,000
 - 12 seconds
25. Following a sudden decompression at 30,000 ft, the time of useful consciousness is
- 30 seconds
26. A pilot suffering disorientation should
- line up with visual reference (e.g. Horizon)
27. During general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize the
- importance of crew coordination
28. A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can
- return to flying duties after a suitable course treatment is complete
29. Hyperventilation
- maybe caused by having too little carbon dioxide in the blood
30. Decompression sickness is caused by
- nitrogen bubbles coming out of solution in the blood to form bubble in the body tissues
31. Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning should include
- stop all smoking
32. Disorientation is more likely when pilot is
- letter b. – 1,2 and 4 only are correct
33. Critical zone of hypoxia begins at
- 20,000 ft
34. The effects of carbon monoxide
- increases with altitude
35. Vertigo – How to avoid

METEOROLOGY

1. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL?

a. QFE = QNH
b. QFE < QNH
c. QFE > QNH
d. There is no clear relationship

2. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?

a. Cirrocumulus
b. Nimbostratus
c. Altocumulus lenticularis
d. Stratocumulus

3. What causes wind?

a. Difference in pressure
b. Rotation of the earth
c. Frontal systems
d. Difference in temperature

4. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe?

a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Sc
d. Ci

5. Which cloud would you encounter the most intensive rain?

a. Ci
b. Ns
c. St
d. Sc
6. How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level?

a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA
c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA
d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

7. The most dangerous form of airframe icing is:

a. Clear ice
b. Hoar frost
c. Dry ice
d. Rime ice

8. Generally, as altitude increases:

a. Temperature decreases and density increases

b. Temperature, pressure and density decreases
c. Temperature and pressure increase and density decreases
d. Temperature decreases and pressure and density increase

9. Where is wind shear the greatest?

a. Near a strong low level inversion and in the region of a thunderstorm

b. Near a valley with wind speeds greater than 35kts
c. On the windward side of a mountain
d. When the wind is greater than 35kts

10. Where do you find the majority of the air within the atmosphere?

a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Mesosphere

11. Where is the 300mb level approximately in ISA?

a. 30,000ft
b. 39,000ft
c. 18,000ft
d. 10,000ft

12. What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?

a. Freezing rain
b. Light to moderate continuous rain
c. Drizzle
d. Showers associated with thunderstorms

13. Where are icing conditions on route specified?

a. TAF and METAR

b. METAR and SIGMET
c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET
d. SPECI and TREND

14. You are flying at FL170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the:

a. 300mb
b. 700mb
c. 500mb
d. 850mb

15. In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the
runway?

a. GAFOR
 b. TAF
c. METAR
d. SIGMET

16. TAFs are usually valid for:

a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself

b. For 18 hours
c. For 24 hours
d. For 8 hours

17. When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:

a. 1 hour after the time of observation

b. 2 hours after the time of observation
c. 2 hours after it was issued
d. 1 hour after it was issued

18. VOLMETs are updated

a. Every hour
b. 4 times a day
c. 2 times a day
d. Every half hour

19. QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200m AMSL. What is QNH? (use 8m per hPa)

a. 975 hPa
b. 1025 hPa
c. 1008 hPa
d. 992 hPa

20. What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?

a. Change of flight level

b. Change of course
c. Increase of speed
d. Decrease of speed

21. An inversion is:

a. A decrease of pressure with height

b. A decrease of temperature with height
c. An increase of temperature with height
d. An increase of pressure with height

22. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:

a. At flight level
b. At height of observatory
c. At a determined density altitude
d. Reduced to sea level

23. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor
land?

a. He ascends to the cold air layer above

b. He continues to fly at the same altitude
c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
d. He descends to the warm air layer below

24. Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying
through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small
supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice
accretion?

a. Aircraft T experiences more icing than S

 b. Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
c. Neither of the aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets
d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

25. ATC will only report wind as gusting if:

a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by >15kts

b. Gusts to over 25kts
c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts
d. Gusts to under 25kts

26. A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an
inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the
inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure?

a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions

b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion
d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

27. You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true
altitude.

a. 20,660 ft
b. 21,740 ft
c. 18,260 ft
d. 19, 340 ft

28. In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcasted?

a. LF
b. HF
c. ADF
d. VHF

29. Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30,065 ft pressure level (FL 300)?

a. 200 hPa
b. 700 hPa
c. 500 hPa
d. 300 hPa

30. With regard to RVR and Met vis:

a. Met vis is usually less than RVR

b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR
c. RVR is usually less than met vis
d. Met vis and RVR are usually the same

31. The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:

a. QNE
b. QFF
c. QFE
d. QNH

32. What is the coldest time of the day?

a. 1hr before sunrise

b. 1/2 hr before sunrise
c. At exact moment of sunrise
d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

33. The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means:

a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers

b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers
 c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers
d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers

34. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?

00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =

a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for runway 16 1500m, temperature -3°C, vertical
visibility 100m
b. Meteorological visibility 200ft, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m, vertical visibility
100ft, fog with hoar frost
c. Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800m, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
more than 1500m
d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility
improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

35. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich

LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ
BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:

a. 6km
b. 6nm
c. 4km
d. 10km

36. Which of the following statement is an interpretation of the SIGMET?

LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat
fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf =

a. Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross
this area above FL 380
b. Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of
the Alps
c. Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380
d. Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260

37. From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You
experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?

a. Stay level
b. Descend
c. Climb
d. Reduce speed

38. In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected?

a. The warm air side of the core

b. Exactly in the center of the core
c. About 12,000ft above the core
d. The cold air side of the core

39. In an area of converging air

a. Clouds cannot be formed

b. Clouds can be formed
c. Convective clouds can be dissolved
d. Stratified clouds can be dissolved

40. The greater the pressure gradient the:

a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures

b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
 d. Further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind

METEOROLOGY
1. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
- TROPOPAUSE
2. How would you characterize an air temperature of -55*C at the 200HPA level over western Europe?
- WITH IN + 5*C OF ISA
3. If you are flying at FL300 in an airmass that is 15*C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the
outside temperature likely to be?
- -30*C
4. The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
- Qff
5. What Positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
- POSITIONS WITH THE SAME AIR PRESSURE AT A GIVEN LEVEL
6. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
- REDUCED TO SEA LEVEL
7. Generally as altitude increases
- TEMPERATURE, PRESSURE AND DENSITY DECREASES
8. What type of air movement is associated with center line of a trough?
- CONVERGENCE WITH LIFTING
9. In an area of converging air
- CLOUDS CAN BE FORMED
10. How do you calculate the lowest useable flight level?
- LOWEST QNH AND LOWEST NEGATIVE TEMP BELOW ISA
11. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL?
- QFE > QNH
12. You are flying at FL160 with an OAT of -27*C, QNH is 1003HPA. What is your true altitude?
- 15,090 FT
13. Which statement is true?
- QNH CAN BE EQUAL TO QFE
14. You have landed on an airport elevation 1240 ft and QNH 1008 HPA, your altimeter subscale is
erroneously ser to 1013HPA, the indication on the altimeter will be?
- 1375 FT
15. You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40C, sea level pressure is 1033HPA. Calculate the true altitude?
- 19, 340 FT
16. How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by temperature changes?
- IT DECREASES WITH INCREASING TEMPERATURE
17. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
- ALTOCUMULUS LENTICULARIS
18. What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
- CHANGE OF FLIGHT LEVEL
19. In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected?
- TRHE COLD AIR SIDE OF THE CORE
20. A flight is to depart from an airport with RWY 09 and 27, surface wind is 270/05, an inversion is
reported at 300 ft with turbulence and windshear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/03. What is the
safest departure procedure?
- DEPART RWY 09 WITH TAILWIND
21. ATC will only report wind as gusting if?
- GUSTS EXCEEDS MEAN SPEED BY 10 KTS
22. What causes wind?
DIFFERENCE IN PRESSURE
23. From the preflight briefing, you know a jetsream is at 31,000 whilst you are at FL 270. You experience
moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?
- DESCEND
24. What cloud does hail fall from?
Cb
25. What type of cloud is associated with drizzle?
- St
26. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe?
- Cb
27. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land?
- HE TURNS BACK BEFORE THE AIRCRAFT LOOSES MANEUVERABILITY
28. When a trend is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is forecast valid for
- 2 HOURS AFTER THE TIME OF OBSERVATION
29. Which of the following correctly decodes the METAR shown below,
METAR EGKL 130350Z 32005KT 0400N DZ BCFG VV002
 - A. OBSERVED ON THE 13TH DAY OF THE MONTH. . . .
30. The code “BECMG FM 1100-RASH” in a metar means
- BECOMING FROM 1100 UTC SLIGTH RAIN SHOWERS
31. In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway
- METAR
32. In a tropical downpour the visibility is sometimes reduced to
- 200 m

NAVIGATION

1. On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to:

a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

b. Make a note of the details
c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC
d. Do nothing until a TA is received

2. Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF?

a. Selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect

b. Night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip
c. Mountain effect, station interference, static interference
d. Selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error

3. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is:

a. White, blue, amber

b. Blue, white, amber
c. Blue, amber, white
d. Amber, blue, white

4. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate within:

a. 3% of range
b. 1.25% of range
c. 0.5nm
d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

5. The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots:

a. To update the database

b. To read information only
c. To change information between the 28 day updates
d. To change the information to meet the sector requirements

6. A typical DME frequency is:

a. 1000 MHz
b. 1300 MHz
c. 1000 kHz
d. 1575 MHz

7. Which of the following is a primary radar system?

a. SSR
b. DME
c. GPS
d. AWR
8. The IRS position can be updated:

a. On the ground only

b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground
c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME
d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

9. Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200m?

a. UHF
b. LF
c. HF
d. MF

10. DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because:

a. The same receiver can be used for both aids

b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency
c. Cockpit workload is reduced
d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required

11. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the
direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______.

a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise

b. AM, FM, clockwise
c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise
d. FM, AM, clockwise

12. The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is:

a. UHF
b. VHF
c. SHF
d. VLF

13. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?

a. A VOR on the flight plan route

b. A VOR off the flight plan route
c. A DME on the flight plan route
d. A DME off the flight plan route

14. A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from:

a. Twin DME
b. VOR/DME
c. Twin VOR
d. Any of the above

15. The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are:

a. Continuous low pitched dashes with synchronized blue light

b. Continuous high pitched dots with synchronized amber light
c. Alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber light
d. One letter in Morse with synchronized white light

16. The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero:

a. Are magnetic
b. Are compass
c. Are relative
d. Must have deviation applied before being used

17. At the magnetic equator:

a. Dip is zero
 b. Variation is zero
c. Deviation is zero
d. The isogonal is an agonic line

18. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should
put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:

a. 285, TO
b. 105, TO
c. 285, FROM
d. 105, FROM

19. An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the
60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot:

a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from the center of the island
b. Range 45nm and QTE 240 from the center of the island
c. Range 45nm and QTE 317 from the center of the island
d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

20. An aircraft wishes to track a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W, what should be
set on the OBS?

a. 274
b. 264
c. 094
d. 084

21. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right
with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is
the aircraft in relation to the required track?

a. 6nm right of track

b. 3nm right of track
c. 6nm left of track
d. 3nm left of track

22. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications
from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates:

a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears
050° (M) from the NDB
b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears
050° (M) from the NDB
c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears
050° (M) from the NDB
d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and
bears 230° (M) from the NDB

23. An aircraft bears 175°(M) from a VOR. If the aircraft OBS is set to 002 and its heading is
359°(M), which diagram below represents the aircraft VOR/ILS deviation indicator? (Assume
1 dot = 2°)
A

24. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that:

a. The DME is unserviceable

b. The DME is trying to lock onto range
c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency
d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

25. The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate:

a. On take-off
b. At TOC
c. At TOD
d. On final approach

26. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:

a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially
conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance
confirmed by ATC
b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially
conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of
the other aircraft’s proximity
c. RAs must never be disregarded
d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially
conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

27. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is
that:

a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I
can only provide Traffic Advisories
b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers.
While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft.
c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS
II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S.
d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

28. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range
of 210nm. The reason for this is:

a. The beacon is saturated

b. The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME
c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range
d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

29. The radar in an aircraft at FL370 detects a cloud at 60nm. The cloud disappears when the tilt
is selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6°, at what altitude are the tops of the
cloud?

a. 6,000ft
b. 31,000ft
c. 43,000ft
d. 49,000ft
30. At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the
aircraft?

a. 3.5nm
b. 1.75nm
c. 7nm
d. 1nm

31. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications
from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates:

a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears
050° (M) from the NDB
b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears
050° (M) from the NDB
c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears
050° (M) from the NDB
d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and
bears 230° (M) from the NDB

32. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should
be set to:

a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication

b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication
c. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication
d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication

33. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?

a. Can be used in inhospitable terrain

b. Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS
c. Has a selective access ability
d. Is not affected by heavy precipitation

34. The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU is:

a. 5000.0N00527.0E
b. N50E00527
c. N5000.0E00527.0
d. N5000E00527

35. An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station
is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely
to be made?

a. 190ft
b. 1,378ft
c. 36,100ft
d. 84,100ft
Fill the tables below.

Fuel Flow Time Fuel Used

140 litres/hr 1 h 20 min 187 litres

2120 kg/hr 16 min 570 kg

117 Imp Gall 3 h 25 min 400 Imp Gall

8.7 US Gall/hr 2 h 15 min 19.6 US Gall

9800 lb/hr 5 h 20 min 52,267 lb

165 kg/hr 2 h 33 min 420 kg

603 lb/hr 1 h 47 min 420 kg

CAS (knots) Pressure Altitude SAT (°C) TAS

140 10000 -10 162
175 5000 +5 200
220 15000 -22 273
300 30000 -40 472
180 12500 -25 212
165 9000 +7 193
163 11000 +10 199
295 31000 -53 465

NAV

1. Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200 m ?

B. LF
2. The maximum range an aircraft at 2500 ft can communicate with a VHF station at 196 ft is:
A. 80nm
3. An aeroplane is flying at 486kt directly toward a beacon transmitting on a frequency of 12 GHz. The
change in frequency observed will be:
C. 10 Khz
4. An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300 nm, if the ground station is situated
2,500’ amsl which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made?
C. 36,100
6. The coverage of an ILS glideslope in azimuth is:
A. +/- 8 degree out to 10nm
7. The factor which determines the maximum range of radar is:
A. pulse repetition rate
8. The main advantage of continuous wave radars is:
C. Minimum range limitation
9. An advantage of an phased array (slotted antenna is):
C. reduces sidelobes and clutter
10. A primary radar system has a pulse repetition frequency of 450pps. Ignoring pulse width and flyback at
the CRT, the maximum range of the radar would be:
B. 180 nm

11. The radar in an aircraft at FL370 detects a cloud at 60nm. The cloud disappears when the tilt is selected
to 2degree up. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6degree. At what altitude are the tops of the clouds?
B. 31,000 ft
12. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:
C. it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses.
13. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate within:
D. +/- 0.25nm +/-1.25% of range
14. The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU is:
C. N5000.0E00527.0
15. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHZ) for a VOR?
D. 112.20
16. The ILS glideslope transmitter generates false glidepaths because of:
C. Multiple lobes in the radiation pattern
17. The sequence marker colours when flying an ILS approach is:
C. Blue, amber, white
18. The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:
A. Barometric altitude
19. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole
B. 90
20. The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the Promulgated Range (DOC) is:
B. +/- 5 degree
21. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain from a VOR
beacon situated at 900 feet above mean sea level.
a. 274 nms
22. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction
of rotation of the bearing is ________.
A. AM, FM, anti clockwise.

23. An aircraft is on the airway boundary range 100nm from a VOR marking the airway centre line.
Assuming that each dot equates to 2degree how many dots deviation will be shown on the deviation
indicator?
D. 1.5 dots
24. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 Radial. The OBS should be set to:
B. 244 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
25. The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying the ILS middle marker are
C. Alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber lights.
26. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance System. The difference between TCAS I and II is that:
A. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only
provide Traffic Advisories.
27. DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because
C. Cockpit workload is reduced.
28. The IRS position can be updated:
A. on the ground only
29. The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate:
C. at TOD
30. The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots:
B. to read information only
31. The period of validity of the navigational database is:
A. 28 days.
32. Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF?
C. Mountain effect, station interference, static interference
33. Which of the following is the most significant error in ADF?
d. Static from CB
34. At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1degree, how far off the centerline is the
aircraft?
a. 3.5 nm
35. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?
c. a DME on the flight plan route
36. A typical DME frequency is
A. 1000MHZ
37. An aircraft at FL360 is 10nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be:
B. 11.7nm
38. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that:
B. the DME is trying to lock onto range
39. The frequency band of the ILS glide path is:
A. UHF
40. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?
A. can be used in inhospitable terrain.
41. Which of the following is a primary radar system?
D. AWR
42. The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect?
A. snow
43. The MDA for a non-approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:
A. barometric altitude
NAVIGATION (Pt.2)

When and where are IRS positions updated?

- only on the ground during the alignment procedure

The period of validity of an FMS database is:

- 28 days

When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate?

- TOD

The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-NAV) system is:

- 1 nm standard deviation or better

As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the AWR display will change:
- green, yellow, red

The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:
- the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

The airborne weather rader (AWR) cannot detect:

- snow

Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?

- can be used in inhospitable terrain
The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is:
- UHF

The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is:

- blue, amber, white

On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz modulation. The action you
should take is:
- fly right and down

On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating. This indicates:

- the DME is in the search mode

The DME counters are rotating continuously.. This indicates that

- the DME is trying to lock onto range

An aircrafet at FL360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be:
- 11.7

When an aircraft is FL360 is directly above a DME, at mean sea level, the range displayed will be:
- 6 nm

A typical DME frequency is:

- 1000 MHz

Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?

- a DME on the flight plan route

The frequency band of VOR is:

\ - VHF

When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly:

- a great circle track

The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmission from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is:
- 275 nm

Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?

- lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference

Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF?

- mountain effect, station interference, static interference

Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF bearings?
- interference from other NDB’s, particularly at night

The accuracy of ADF within the DOC by day is:

- +/-5deg

The period of validity of the navigational database is:

- 28 days

The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU is
- N5000.0E00527.0

The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate:

- at TOD
The IRS position can be updated :
- on the ground only

The sequence of displays accessed on initialisation is:

- IDENT , POS INIT, RTE

A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from:

- VOR/DME

The accuracy required of a precision area navigation system is:

 - 1 nm

DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because:

-cockpit workload is reduced

The accuracy associated with DME is:

- +/-0.25nm +/-1.25% of range

An aircraft flying at FL250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400 ft amsl. What is the maximum
range likely to be achieved?
- 222 nm

The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within:

- 0.5 nm

A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers; the last identifying letter of the
DME is a Z. This means that:
- they are more than 600 m apart but serve the same location

A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive frequency of
- 1025 MHz

The coverage of the ILS glideslope in azimuth is:

- +/- 8deg out to 10 nm

The outer marker of an ILS installation has a visual identification of:

- continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, blue light

The visual and aural indication obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are:
- alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber light

The coverage of an ILS localiser extends to ______ either side of the on course line out to a range of ….
Nm
- 35 deg, 17

The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero:

- are magnetic

The normal maximum error which might be expected with a VOR bearing obtained within the DOC is:
- plus or minus 5deg

Both the VOR and the ADF in a aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are
shown on the RMI illustrated.. Use the information to answer the following: The information given on the
RMI indicates
- that the aircraft is heading 330 (M), is set on the 130 radial from the VOR , and bears 230 from
the NDB

What is the theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated 900 feet above mean
sea level in an aircraft flying at 18,000 feet?
- 205 nm

An aircraft wishes to track toward a VOR along the 274 radial.. If variation is 10 deg W what should be set
on the OBS?
- 094

An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The obs should be set to:
- 244 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication

What is the approximate maximum range that an aircraft flying at 25000’would expect to obtain from a
VOR beacon situated 900’above mean sea level?
- 235 nm

In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _________. The bearing signal is _____ and the direction
of rotation of the bearing signal is ______
- AM, FM, anti-clockwise
What is the theoretical maximum range that an airfract at flight level 420 will obtain from a VOR beacon
situated at 400 feet above mean sea level?
- 281 nm

What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain from a VOR beacon
situated at 900 feet above mean sea level?
- 274 nms

The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the Promulgated Range is :
- +/- 5deg

MAXIMUM THEORETICAL RANGE (nm) = 1.25 x (sqrt H1 + sqrt h2)

- H1 = receiver height in feet amsl
- H2 = transmitter height in feet amsl

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

1. Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference?

a. The Commander or the Operator

b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred
c. Any member of the flight crew
d. Any person on board the aeroplane

2. To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have:

a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days

b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days
c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days
d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

3. What is required for navigation in IMC?

a. Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until visual point

b. Anti-icing equipment
c. A serviceable weather radar
d. One VHF box and one HF box

4. What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach?

a. 1500m
b. 1600m
c. 2400m
d. 3600m

5. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made
and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?

a. The company’s cargo technicians

b. The captain
c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot
d. The operator

6. When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome?

a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome

and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC
b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours
c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour
d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing
7. What is the currency requirement for a pilot?

a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days
b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days
c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved
simulator within the last 90 days
d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator
within the last 60 days

8. When can special VFR be commenced?

a. Visibility greater than 1500m

b. Greater than 3km vis
c. Visibility no more than 3000m
d. Greater than 5km vis

9. When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL?

a. At parking before commencement of taxi

b. Prior to take-off
c. At any time in flight
d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

10. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?

a. No minimum
b. 50m
c. 75m
d. 100m

11. In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency
services?

a. ATC
b. The Commander
c. The local constabulary
d. The Operations Dispatcher

12. What is DH used for?

a. Visual maneuvering
b. Circling to land
c. Precision approaches
d. Non-precision approaches

13. What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?

a. 200ft
b. 250ft
c. 300ft
d. 350ft

14. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the
available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination
or, at an aerodrome of alternate destination, are, at the predicted time of:

a. take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
b. arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal to or
better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
c. arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use
d. arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

15. The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach:

a. 2400m
 b. 2500m
c. 2600m
d. 2700

16. On an ILS approach, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima.
When must you abort the approach?

a. Start of the glide-slope descent

b. FAF
c. Inner marker
d. Outer marker

17. Fuel is to be jettisoned:

a. Over the sea and then only above 10,000ft

b. Over the sea or over land above 10,000ft AGL
c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency
d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter

18. In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure
to be taken by the pilot in command?

a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC
clearance received if possible
b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the
frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared
c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation
forces deviation from the cleared flight plan
d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from
the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

19. With what a met phenomenon is wind shear most associated?

a. Thunderstorms
b. Passage of a warm front
c. Tropical revolving storms
d. Standing mountain waves

20. A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

a. 20,000kg
b. 5,700kg
c. 10,000kg
d. 7,000kg

21. After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the
original recordings for a minimum period of:

a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days

22. At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel
quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:

a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft
c. 30 minutes at cruising speed
d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

23. Aircrafts are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What
aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts – 165kts?

a. B
b. E
c. D
 d. C

24. During a slow decompression, passengers will occur:

a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces

b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require
assistance in venting
c. As soon as the pressure falls, the oxygen drop-out system will operate
d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

25. Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence?

a. Lights winds near the surface

b. Strong winds near the surface
c. Marked vertical wind shear
d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground

26. Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum
separation distance in NM is:

a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3

27. In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to:

a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate

b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems
c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over
loading of the structure
d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is
sufficient for all crew and passengers

28. One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is:

a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a
relaxed manner
b. For the captain or first officer to keep a running commentary going over the PA
c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening
and that they are complying with instructions
d. For the cabin staff to direct passengers’ attention to the emergency passenger brief
cards and make sure that they have read them

29. The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to:

a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate
all speeds plus 10kts
b. Reduce the approach angle to 1.5deg (150ft/mile), add 15kts to all speeds, keep the
aeroplane clean (no flaps or gear) and fly it into the surface
c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed
with the nose raised for the tail to strike first
d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto
the water

30. If the captain elects to ditch the aeroplane, it is recommended to:

a. Land along the swell

b. Land into the swell but down wind
c. Land into the swell but into wind
d. Land into wind regardless of the swell direction if the wind speed is over 20kts

31. Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly
decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You
should suspect what and what should you do?

a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power

 b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power
c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed
d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

32. If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken
are designed to:

a. Disable the device

b. Find out what will trigger the device
c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers
d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much
padding as possible

33. A precautionary landing is a procedure that:

a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a
normal instrument approach being carried out
b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency
c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered
d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

34. Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane
on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

35. When must a radiation indicator be carried?

a. For flight above 29,000ft

b. For flight above 39,000ft
c. For flight above 49,000ft
d. For flight above 59,000ft

36. An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum
visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may
the approach be started?

a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m

b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m
c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only.
d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

37. From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite
parallel track. What Nav light will be used?

a. Green
b. Red
c. White
d. All of the above

38. When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking:

a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking

b. All flight crew must be on board
c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on
board
d. The stairs shall be fully extended

39. Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the
minimum separation distance in NM is:

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
 d. 6

40. After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom?

a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry

b. Immediately and to the Authority of the State of the airspace in which the event
occurred
c. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of
Registration
d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State
of the Operator

PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT

1. Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state
level flight?

a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal
b. These forces are equal
c. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight
d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

2. The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by:

a. Changes in air density

b. Variations in aeroplane loading
c. Variations in flight altitude
d. Changes in pitch attitude

3. To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG:

a. Must always coincide with the AC

b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point
c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point
d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limit

4. The purpose of a trim tab is:

a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls

b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required
c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed
d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

5. What criteria determine which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine aeroplane?

a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage
b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage
c. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust
d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment

6. The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:

a. Depends on forward speed only

b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed
c. Depends on engine rotational speed only
d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller

7. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

 a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing and decrease
drag
b. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing and decrease
drag
c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag
d. An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient

8. If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer
produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft:

a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed

b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude
c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon
d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

9. A stall warning device must be set to operate:

a. At the stalling speed

b. At a speed just below the stalling speed
c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed
d. At a speed about 20% above the stalling speed

10. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach:

a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power
c. Eliminates floating
d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

11. A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by:

a. Wind speed
b. The aircraft weight
c. Excess engine power
d. Excess airspeed

12. What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag?

a. Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag

b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag
c. Changing aspect ratio has no effect on induced drag
d. Induced drag will equal 1:3 x aspect ratio/chord ratio

13. What phenomenon causes induced drag?

a. Wing tip vortices

b. Wing tanks
c. The increased pressure at the leading edge
d. The spanwise flow, inward below the wing and outward above

14. If the stalling speed in a 15 degree bank turn is 60kt, what would the stall speed be in a 45
degree bank?

a. 83kt
b. 70kt
c. 85kt
d. 60kt
15. In recovery from a spin:

a. Ailerons should be kept neutral

b. Airspeed increases
c. Ailerons used to stop the spin
d. Rudder and ailerons used against the direction of spin direction
16. To recover from a spin, the elevators should be:

a. Moved up to increase the angle of attack

b. Moved down to reduce the angle of attack
c. Set to neutral
d. Allowed to float

17. Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?

a. Low speed stall

b. High speed stall (shock stall)
c. Deep stall
d. Accelerated stall

18. What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?

a. Increased minimum glide angle

b. Decreased minimum glide angle
c. Increased glide range
d. Decreased sink rate

19. Which of the following increases the stall angle?

a. Slats
b. Flaps
c. Spoilers
d. Ailerons

20. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s:

a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag

b. Lift, gross weight and drag
c. Lift, airspeed and drag
d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

21. To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with:

a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy)

b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)
c. Flaps retracted and at best rate of climb speed (Vy)
d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

22. To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be:

a. Near to the stalling speed

b. As high as possible within VNE limits
c. About 30% faster than Vmd
d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

23. The control surface which gives longitudinal control is:

a. The rudder
b. The ailerons
c. The elevators
d. The flaps

24. Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?

a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the
propeller blades to remain unchanged
b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM
c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more
engine power for take-offs
d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines
remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes
25. At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed:

a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged
c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air
d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

26. If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be:

a. reduced
b. increased
c. the same as for landing with flaps
d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

27. What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from
wind shear?

a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed

indications
b. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed
c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power
d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

28. If flaps are lowered during the take-off run:

a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne

b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered
c. The lift would decrease
d. The acceleration would increase

29. A yaw damper:

a. Increases rudder effectiveness

b. Must be disengaged before making a turn
c. Augments stability
d. Increases the rate of yaw

30. An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling
speed would be:

a. 76kt
b. 84kt
c. 99kt
d. 140kt

31. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?

a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack

b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack
c. An increase in dynamic stability
d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

32. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?

a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind

b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind
c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind
d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

33. To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced?

a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag

b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag
d. Reduce thrust
34. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?

a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed

b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed
c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

35. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as
altitude is increased?

a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

b. The same true airspeed and angle of attack
c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack
d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed

36. An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a
direct headwind of 25kts?

a. 30:1
b. 15:1
c. 25:1
d. 7.5:1

37. If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will:

a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same
c. Decrease
d. Remain the same
38. If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause:

a. An increased angle of bank

b. An increased rate of roll
c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate
d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

39. The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is:

a. Higher maximum thrust available

b. Higher maximum efficiency
c. More blade surface area available
d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

40. If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range:

a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged
d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT

1. The point on an airfoil section through with lift acts to the

- center of pressure
2. The angle between the chord line of the aerofoil section and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
- angle of incidence
3. To maintain altitude, what must be done as indicated air speed (IAS) is reduced
- increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift
4. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane’s
- Lift, airspeed and drag
5. The Angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce
sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft
- regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude
6. What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when gross weight is increased
- induced drag increases more than parasite drag
7. As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an
airplane
- increases because of increased induced drag
8. An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50 knots in calm air, what would the L/D ratio be a direct headwind
of 25 kts
- 15:1
9. If the indicated airspeed of an aircraft is increased from 50 to 100 kts, parasite drag will be
- four times greater
10. If flaps are lowered during take-off run
- the lift would increase when the flaps are lowered
11. If a landing is to be made without flaps, landing speed must be
- increased
12. Lowering flaps during a landing approach
- increase angle of decent without increasing airspeed
13. Yaw damper
- augments stability
14. The purpose of a trim tab is
- to zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required
15. The control surface which gives longitudinal control is
- elevator
16. An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70 kts airspeed, in a 60 deg balanced turn, the stalling
speed would be
- 99 kts
17. What criteria determines which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin engine airplane
- the one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage
18. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (VFE) is lower than cruising speed because
- the additional lift and drag created would overload the wing and flap structure at higher speeds.

19. Which wind shear condition results in a loss of airspeed

- decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind
20. What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear
- avoid overstressing the aircraft, pitch to stick shaker and apply maximum power
21. Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant speed propeller?
- the propeller control regulates the engine RPM and turn the propeller RPM
22. Which of the following increases stall angle
- slats