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JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous

Year Question Paper 2015 With Answer Key

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2015 Jipmer Question Paper

Jipmer 2015 Answer Key

Previous Year Question Paper

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JIPMER

Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year – 2015

Physics

1. The angle between two linear trans-membrane domains

is defined by following vectors 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (b)

2. The distance x(in μm) covered by a molecule starting

from point A at time t = 0 and stopping at another point B

in given by the equation 

The distance between A and B (in μm) is closed to

(a)   10.7

(b)   20.7

(c)   40.7

(d)   50.7

Ans: (a)

3. A tangential force acting on the top of sphere of mass m

kept on a rough horizontal place as shown in figure.

If the sphere rolls without slipping, then the acceleration

with which the centre of sphere moves, is

(a) 
(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (a)

4. The density of a rod having length l varies as ρ = c + dx,

where x is the distance from the left end. The centre of
mass is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (a)

5. One end of a massless spring of constant 100 N/m and

natural length 0.5 m is fixed and the other end is connected
to a p article of mass 0.5 kg lying on a frictionless
horizontal table. The spring remains horizontal. If the mass
is made to rotate at angular velocity of 2 rad/s, then
elongation of spring is

(a)   0.1 m

(b)   10 cm

(c)   1 cm

(d)   0.01 cm

Ans: (c)

6. A block slides down on an incline of angle 30° with an

acceleration g/4. Find the kinetic friction coefficient.
(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (c)

7. Two long straight wires, each carrying an electric current

of 5 A, are kept parallel to each other at a separation of 2.5
cm. Find the magnitude of the magnetic force experiment
by 10 cm of a wire.

(a)   4.0 × 10−4 N

(b)   3.5 × 10−6 N

(c)   2.0 × 10−5 N

(d)   2.0 × 10−9 N

Ans: (c)

8. A wire of resistance 10 Ω is bent to form a complete

circle. Find its resistance between two diametrically
opposite point.

(a)   5 Ω

(b)   2.5 Ω

(c)  1.25 Ω

(d) 

Ans: (b)
9. Find the resistance of a hollow cylindrical conductor of
length 1.0 mm and 2.0 mm respectively. The resistivity of
the material is 2.0 × 10−8 Ωm.

(a)   2.1 × 10−3 Ω

(b)   1.3 × 10−4 Ω

(c)   3.2 × 10−4 Ω

(d)   4.6 × 10−2 Ω

Ans: (a)

10. Three equal charges, each having a magnitude of 2.0 ×

10−6 C, are placed at the three corners of a right angled
triangle of sides 3 cm 4 cm and 5 cm. The force (in
magnitude) on the charge at the right

(a)   50 N

(b)   26 N

(c)   29 N

(d)   45.9 N

Ans: (d)

11. A diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) does 200 J of work when it is

expanded isobarically. Find the heat given to the gas in the
process.

(a)   500 J

(b)   700 J

(c)   600 J

(d)   900 J

Ans: (b)

12. A uniform ring of mass m and radius a is  placed

directly above a uniform sphere of mass m and of equal to
radius. The centre of the ring is at a distance √3a from the
centre of the sphere. The gravitational force (F) exerted by
the sphere on the ring is

(a) 

(b) 
(c) 

(d) 

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Ans: (a)

13. A projectile is fired with a velocity u at angle θ with the

ground surface. During the motion at any time it is making
an angle α with the ground surface. The speed of particle
at this time will be

(a)   u cos θ sec α

(b)   u cos θ ∙ tan α

(c)   u2 cos2 α sin2 α

(d)   u sin θ ∙ sin α

Ans: (a)

14. The earth receives solar radiation at a rate of 8.2 J

cm−2 min−1. If the sun radiates as the black bodies, the
temperature at the surface of the sun will be (the angle
subtended by sun on the earth in suppose 0.53° and Stefan
constant is σ = 5.67 × 10−8 Wm−2 K4)

(a)   5800 K

(b)   6700 K

(c)   8000 K

(d)   7800 K

Ans: (a)

( )
15. The rms speed (in m/s) of oxygen molecules of the gas
at temperature 300 K, is

(a)   483

(b)   504

(c)   377

(d)   346

Ans: (a)

16. A horizontal tube of length l closed at both ends,

contains an ideal gas of molecular weight M. The tube is
rotated at a constant angular velocity ω about a vertical
axis passing through an end. Assuming the temperature to
be uniform and constant. If p1 and p2 denote the pressure
at free and the fixed end respectively, then choose the
correct relation.

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (a)

17. The parts of two concentric circular arcs joined by two

radial lines and carries current i. The arcs subtend an angle
θ at the centre of the circle. The magnetic field at the
centre O, is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 
(d) 

Ans: (a)

18. 1 kg of water is converted into steam at the same

temperature and at 1 atm (100 kPa). The density of water
and steam are 1000 kgm−3 and 0.6 kgm−3 The latent heat
of vaporization of water is 2.25 × 10−6 J kg−1, What will be
increase in energy?

(a)   3 × 105 J

(b)   4 × 106 J

(c)   2.08 × 106 J

(d)   None of these

Ans: (c)

19. The ammeter shown in figure consists of a 480 Ω coil

connected in parallel to a 20Ω shunt. The reading of
ammeter is

(a)   0.125 A

(b)   1.67 A

(c)   0.13 A

(d)   0.67 A

Ans: (a)

20. A lead ball at 30℃ is dropped from a height of 6.2 km.

The ball is  heated due to the air resistance and it
completely melts just before reaching the ground. The
molten substance falls slowly on the ground. If the specific
heat of lead = 126 Jkg−1℃−1 and melting point of lead =
130℃ and suppose that any mechanical energy lost is
used to heat the ball, then the latent heat of fusion of lead
is
(a)   2.4 × 104 J kg−1

(b)   3.6 × 104 J kg−1

(c)   7.6 × 102 J kg−1

(d)   4.2 × 103 J kg−1

Ans: (a)

21. A inductor (L- 20 H), a resistor (R = 100 Ω) and a battery

(E = 10 V) are connected in series. After a long time, the
circuit is short-circuited and then the battery is
disconnected. Find the current in the circuit at 1 ms after
short circuiting.

(a)   4.5 × 105 A

(b)   3.2 × 10−5 A

(c)   9.8 × 10−5 A

(d)   6.7 × 10−4 A

Ans: (d)

22. Two charges of +10μC and +20μC are separated by a

distance 2 cm. The net potential (electric) due to the pair at
the middle point of the line joining the two changes, is

(a)   27 MV

(b)   18 MV

(c)   20 MV

(d)   23 MV

Ans: (a)

23. A copper rod of length 20 cm and cross-sectional area

2 mm2 is joined with a similar aluminium rod as shown
below

The resistance of pair of rods is

(ρAl = 2.6 × 10−8 Ω-m and ρCu = 1.7 × 10−8 Ω-m)

( )
(a)   1.0 mΩ

(b)   2.0 mΩ

(c)   3.0 mΩ

(d)   None of these

Ans: (a)

24. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions

along X-axis while other is along a line making angle 45°
with the X-axis. The two motions are given by x = x0 sin ωt
and s = s0 sin ω

The amplitude of resultant motion is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (d)

25. What is the change in the volume of 1.0 L kerosene,

when it is subjected to an extra pressure of 2.0 × 105 Nm−2
from the following data? Density of kerosene = 800 kg m−3
and speed of sound in kerosene = 1330 ms−1.

(a)   0.97 cm−3

(b)   0.66 cm−3

(c)   0.15 cm−3

(d)   0.59 cm−3

Ans: (c)

26. A 4 kg block is suspended from the ceiling of an

elevator through a spring having a linear mass density of
19.2 × 10−3 kg m−3. Find the speed with respect to spring
with which a wave pulse can proceed on the spring if the
elevator accelerates up at the rate of 2.0 ms−2. Take g = 10
ms−2

(a)   30 m/s

( )
(b)   42 m/s

(c)   46 m/s

(d)   50 m/s

Ans: (d)

27. The lower end of capillary tube is immersed in mercury.

The level of mercury in the tube is found to be 2 cm below
the outer level. If the same tube is immersed in water, upto
what height will the water rise in the capillary?

(a)   5.9

(b)   4.9

(c)   2.9

(d)   1.9

Ans: (c)

28. Find the increase in pressure required to decrease the

volume of water sample by 0.01% Bulk modulus of water  =
2.1 × 109 Nm−2.

(a)   4.3 × 104 N/m2

(b)   1.8 × 107 N/m2

(c)   2.1 × 105 N/m2

(d)   3.7 × 104 N/m2

Ans: (c)

29. Water level is maintained in a cylindrical vessel upto a

fixed height H. The vessel is kept on a horizontal plane. At
what weight above the bottom should a hole be made in
the vessel, so that the water stream coming out of the hole
strikes the horizontal p lane of the greatest distance from
the vessel.
(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (a)

30. Figure shows spring + block + pulley system which are

light. The time period of mass would be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (c)

31. A pendulum having a bob of mass m is hanging in a

ship sailing along the equator form east to west. When the
strip is stationary with respect to water, the tension in the
string is T0. The difference between T0 and earth attraction
on the  bob, is

(a) 
(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (d)

32. A solid sphere is set into motion on a rough horizontal

surface with a linear speed v in the forward direction and
an angular speed v/R in the anticlockwise direction as
shown in figure. Find the linear speed of the sphere when it

stops rotating and 

(a)   3v/5

(b)   2v/5

(c)   4v/3

(d)   7v/3

Ans: (a)

33. Two blocks of mass m1 and m2 are connected by a

spring of spring constant k. The block of mass m2 is given
a sharp empulse so that it acquires a velocity v0 towards
right. Find the maximum elongation that the spring will
suffer.
(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (a)

34. A ball of mass m hits the floor with a speed v making

an angle of incidence θ with the normal. The coefficient of
restitution is e.

The speed of reflected ball and the angle of reflection of

the ball will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (a)

35. A particle slides on surface of a fixed smooth sphere

starting from topmost point. The angle rotated by the
radius through the particle,, when it leaves contact with the
sphere, is

(a) 
(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (b)

36. What is the radius of curvature of the parabola traced

out by the projectile in the previous problem at a point
where the particle velocity makes and angle θ/2 with the
horizontal?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (a)

37. A block of mass 2 kg is pushed against rough vertical

wall with a force of 40 N, coefficient of static friction being
0.5. Another horizontal force of 15 N, is applied on the
block in a direction parallel to the wall. If the block will
move, then its direction would be

(a)   15° with 15 N force

(b)   53° with 15 N force

(c)   45° with 15 N force

(d)   75° with 15 N force

Ans: (b)

38. A block is kept on the floor of an elevator at rest. The

elevator starts descending with an acceleration of 12
m/s2. Find the displacement of the block during the first
0.2 s after the start. (Take, g = 10 m/s2)

(a)   30 cm

( )
(b)   zero

(c)   20 cm

(d)   25 cm

Ans: (c)

39. A monkey of mass 15 kg is climbing on a rope with one

end fixed to the ceiling. If it wishes to go up with an
acceleration 1 m/s2, how much force should it apply to the
rope if rope is 5 m long and the monkey starts from rest?

(a)   150 N

(b)   > 160 N

(c)   165 N

(d)   150 < T ≤ 160 N

Ans: (c)

40. A square loop is made y a uniform conductor wire as

shown in figure?

The net magnetic field at the centre of the loop if side

length of the square is a

(a) 

(b) zero

(c) 

(d) None of these
Ans: (b)

41. The electron of an H-atom is revolving around the

nucleus in circular orbit having radius 

 The current  produced due to the motion of electron is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (d)

42. Two small balls, each carrying a charge q are

suspended by equal insulator strings of length l m form the
hook of a stand. This arrangement is carried in a satellite in
space. The tension in each string will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (b)

43. A vessel of depth t is half filled with a liquid having

refractive index n1 and the other half is filled with water of
having refractive index n2. The apparent depth of the
vessel as viewed from top is

(a) 

(b) 
(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (c)

44. In photoelectric effect, the number of photo-electrons

emitted is proportional to

(a)   velocity of incident beam

(b)   frequency of incident beam

(c)   intensity of incident beam

(d)   work function for cathode material

Ans: (c)

45. A change of 8.0 mA in the emitter current brings a

change of 7.9 mA in the collector current. The value of α
will be

(a)   0.96

(b)   0.93

(c)   0.90

(d)   0.99

Ans: (d)

46. The half-life of 198Au is 2.7 days. The average life is

(a)   4 days

(b)   3.4 days

(c)   3.9 days

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (c)

47. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron falling on the

target in an X-ray tube is λ. The cut-off wavelength of the
emitted X-ray is

(a) 
(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (c)

48. If MO is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8O17, MP and

Mn are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively,
the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (d)

49. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which

have their velocities in the ratio 2 : 1. The ratio of their
nuclear size will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (d)

50. The given p-V diagram shows gases during adiabatic

process. Plots 1 and 2 should correspond respectively to
(a)    He and O2

(b)    O2  and He

(c)    He and Ar

(d)    O2 and N2

Ans: (a)

51. For an adiabatic expansion of a mono atomic perfect

gas, the volume increases by 24%. What is the percentage
decrease in pressure?

(a)   24%

(b)   40%

(c)   48%

(d)   71%

Ans: (b)

52. A body weighing 8 g when placed in one pan and 18 g

when placed on the other pan of a false balance. If the
beam is horizontal when both the pans are empty, then the
true weight of the body is

(a)   13 g

(b)   9 g

(c)   22 g

(d)   12 g

Ans: (d)

53. A rod PQ of length l is moving with ends remaining in

contact with frictionless wall and floor. If at the instant,
shown the velocity of end Q is 2 m/s towards negative
direction of x. The speed of end P will be
(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (b)

54. Universal time is based on

(a)   rotational effect of the earth about its axis

(b)   vibrations of cesium atom

(c)   orbital motion of the earth around the sun

(d)   oscillation of quartz crystal

Ans: (a)

55. A slab consists of portions of different materials of

same thickness and having the conductivities K1 and K2.
The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (c)

56. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are

placed on table. Box A contains one mole of nitrogen at
temperature T0, while box B contains 1 mole of helium at
temperature 7/3 T0. The boxes are then put into thermal
contact with each other and heat flows between them until
the gases reach a common final temperature (ignore the
heat capacity of boxes) then the final temperature of
gases, Tf in terms of T0 is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (c)

57. The temperature of the cold junction of thermocouple

is 0℃ and the temperature of hot junction is T℃. The emf
is E = 16T – 0.04 T2 μ The inversion temperature Ti is

(a)   300℃

(b)   200℃

(c)   500℃

(d)   400℃

Ans: (d)

58. The galvanometer resistance is 30Ω and it is connected

to 2 V battery along with a resistance 2000 Ω in series. A
full scale deflection of 25 divisions is obtained. In order to
reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in
series should be

(a)   2470 Ω

(b)   2320 Ω

(c)   2180 Ω

(d)   2210 Ω

Ans: (a)

59. A thin bar magnet of length 2 L is bent at the mid-point

so that the angle between them  is 60°. The new length of
the magnet is
(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (c)

60. The magnetic flux through each turn of a coil having

200 turns is given as (t2 – 2t) × 10−3 Wb, where t is in
second. The emf induced in the coil at t = 3 s is

(a)   0.7 V

(b)   1.2 V

(c)   0.8 V

(d)   0.9 V

Ans: (c)

Chemistry

1. Given that the reduced temperature, 

the reduced pressure, 

the reduced volume, 

Thus, it can be said that the reduced equation of state may

be given as

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 
Ans: (d)

2. The suitable reaction steps to carry out the following

transformation is

(a) 

(b)  

(c)  

(d) 

Ans: (c)

3. 

X + H2S → Z

Here, Z is

(a)   SO3

(b)   colloidal sulphur

(c)   gaseous sulphur

(d)   solid sulphur

Ans: (b)

4. For preparing 3.00 L of 1 M NaOH by mixing portions of

two stock solutions (A and B) of 2.50 M NaOH and 0.40 M
NaOH respectively. Find out the amount of B stock solution
(in L) added.

(a)   8.57 L

(b)   2.14 L

(c)   1.28 L

(d)   7.51 L

Ans: (b)
5. Sodium sulphite is used in preserving squashes and
other mildly acidic foods due to

(a)   potassium salt has preservative action

(b)   potassium metabisulphite prevents oxidation

(c)   potassium metabisulphite is not influcenced by acid

(d)   sulphur dioxide and sulphurous acid formed kill

bacteria and germs

Ans: (d)

6. The Vividh Bharti Station of All India Radio, Delhi,

broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (Kilohertz).
Calculate the wavelength (λ) of the electromagnetic
radiation emitted by transmitter. Which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum does it belong to

(a)   319.4 m and X-rays

(b)   319.4 m and raiowave

(c)   219.3 m and microwave

(d)   219.3 m and radiowave

Ans: (d)

7. Which of the following soap/detergent is least, reduce

space biodegradable?

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  

(d) 

Ans: (c)

8. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600

m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainty with which the
position of the electron can be located is
(Given, h = 6.6 × 10−34 kg m2 s−1, mass of electron em =
9.1 × 10−31 kg)

(a)    2.15 × 10−3 m

(b)    2.78 × 10−3 m

(c)    1.92 × 10−3 m

(d)    3.24 × 10−3 m

Ans: (c)

9. Buna-N, a synthetic rubber is copolymer of

(a) 

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Ans: (b)

10. What would be the heat released when an aqueous

solution containing 0.5 mole of HNO3 is mixed with 0.3
mole of OH−?

(enthalpy of neutralization is −57.1 kJ)

(a)   28.5 kJ

(b)   17.1 kJ

(c)   45.7 kJ

(d)   1.7 kJ

Ans: (b)

11. The number average molar mass and mass average

molar mass of a polymer are respectively 30,000 and
40,000. The polydispersity index (PDI) of the polymer is

(a)   −1

(b)   0

(c)   > 1

(d)   < 1
Ans: (c)

12. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its

polarizing power. Which one of the following sequences
represents the increasing order of the polarizing power of
the cationic species, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+?

(a)

(b)

(c) 

(d)

Ans: (a)

13. In an amino acids, the carboxyl group ionizes at and

ammonium ion at  The isoelectric point of the amino acid
is at pH

(a)   4.32

(b)   3.34

(c)   9.46

(d)   5.97

Ans: (d)

14. 40 g of helium in a bulb at a temperature of T K had a

pressure of p atm. When the bulb was immersed in water
bath at temperature 50 K more than the first one, 0.08 g of
gas had to be removed to restore the original pressure.

(a)   500 K

(b)   400 K

(c)   600 K

(d)   200 K

Ans: (d)

15. What percentage of β-D(+)-glucopyranose is found at

equilibrium in the aqueous solution?

(a)   64%

(b)   36%

(c)   ≈100%

(d)   ≈50%
Ans: (a)

16. Which of the following is correctly arranged in order of

increasing weight?

(a)  0.0105 equivalent of   of Fe <

0.006 g atom of 

(b) 0.625 g of Fe < 0.0105 equivalent of 

atoms of Zn < 0.006g atom of
Ag

(c) 0.625 g of   atoms of Zn < 0.006 g atom of

Ag < 0.0105 equivalent of 

(d) 0.0105 equivalent of   atom of 

atoms of Zn < 0.625 g of Fe

Ans: (c)

17. The correct order of basic strength of the following are

(a)   I > II > IV > III

(b)   IV > III > II > I

(c)   II > III > IV > I

(d)   III > IV > II > I

Ans: (d)

18. If for a given substance, melting point is TB and

freezing points is TA then correct variation of entropy by
graph between entropy change and temperature is

(a) 
(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (b)

19. When a mixture of 1-hexanol and hexanoic acid in

diethyl ether is shaken with an aqueous NaHCO3 solution,
then which of the following is right distribution?

(a)   In ether-Sodium hexanoate, In sodium bicarbonate

solution-1hexanol

(b)   In ether-1-hexanol, In sodium bicarbonate solution-

Hexanoic acid

(c)   In ether-1-hexanol, In sodium bicarbonate solution-

Sodium hexanoate

(d)   In ether-Sodium hexanoate, In sodium bicarbonate

solution-1hexanol

Ans: (c)

20. ΔH and ΔS for the reaction, 

 are 30.56 kJ mol−1 and

66.00 JK−1 mol−1 respectively. The temperature at which
the free energy change for the reaction will be zero, is

(a)   3528 K

(b)   463 K

(c)   73 K

(d)   144 K

Ans: (b)

21. 

The major product P will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (c)

22. If Ag+ + 2NH3 ⇌ Ag (NH3)2+; K1 = 1.7 × 107

Ag+ + Cl− ⇌ AgCl; K2 = 5.4 × 109

Then, for AgCl + 2NH3 ⇌ [Ag(NH3)2]+ + Cl− equilibrium

constant will be

(a)    4.68 × 10−3

(b)    5.2 × 10−17

(c)    0.31 × 10−2

(d)    3.1 × 10−2

Ans: (c)

23. What is product of the following sequence of

reactions?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (d)

24. For the following equilibrium (omitting charges)

I. M + Cl → MCl, Keq = β1

II. MCl + Cl → MCl2, Keq = β2

III. MCl2 + Cl → MCl3, Keq = β3

IV. M + 3Cl → MCl3, Keq = K

then relationship between K, β1, β2 and β3 is

(a)  

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Ans: (d)

25. R―CH2―CH2―OH can be converted into

RCH2CH2COOH by the following sequence of steps..

(a)  

(b)   

(c)  

(d)  

Ans: (b)

26. When KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing agent and ultimately

forms MnO42−, MnO2, Mn2O3 and Mn2+, then the number
of electrons transferred in each case respectively are

(a)   1, 3, 4, 5

(b)   3, 2, 1, 4

(c)   1, 5, 3, 7

(d)   4, 3, 2, 1

Ans: (a)

27. The product P of the given reaction is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (d)

28. In acidic medium, dichromatic ion oxidizes ferrous ion

to ‘ferric ion. If the gram molecular weight of potassium
dichromate is 294 g, its gram equivalent weight (in grams)
is

(a)   24.5

(b)   49

(c)   125

(d)   250

Ans: (b)

29. Find out the correct stereoisomeric product for the

following reaction,

(a)   d-form

(b)   I-from

(c)   meso-form

(d)   racemic mixture

Ans: (d)
30. Ferrous oxide has a cubic structure. The length of edge
of the unit cell is 5 Å and the density of the oxide is 4.0 g
cm−3. Then the number of Fe2+ and O2− ions present in
each unit cell will be

(a)

(b)  

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (b)

31. In the reaction  

(a)   o-bromotoluene

(b)   m-bromotoluene

(c)   p-bromotoluene

(d)   3-bromo-2, 2, 6-trichlorotoluene

Ans: (b)

32. Which of the following arrangements correctly

represents hexagonal and cubic close packed structure
respectively?

(a)   ABAB …………. and ACBACB ………….

(b)   ABCABC ……….. and ABAB ………

(c)   Both have ABCABC …….. arrangement

(d)   Both have ABAB ………… arrangement

Ans: (a)

33. 0.001 mole of [Co(NH3)5(NO3)(SO4)] was passed

through a cation exchanger and the acid coming out of it
required 20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH for neutralization. Thus, the
complex is

(a)  

(b)  

(c)  

( )
(d)

Ans: (a)

34. The molal freezing point depression constant for

benzene (C6H6) is 4.90 K kg mol−1. Selenium exists as a
polymer of the type Sex. When 3.26 g of selenium is
dissolved in 226g of benzene, the observed freezing point
is 0.112℃ lower than that of pure benzene. The molecular
formula of selenium is

(atomic mass of Se = 78.8 g mol−1)

(a)    Se8

(b)    Se6

(c)    Se4

(d)    Se2

Ans: (a)

35. In the complexes [Fe(H2O)6]3+ , Fe(CN)6]3−,

[Fe(C2O4)3]3− and [FeCl6]3−, mor stability is shown by

(a)  

(b)  

(c)  

(d) 

Ans: (b)

36. For an ideal binary liquid solution with   in which

relation between Xx( mole fraction of X in liquid phase) and
Yx (mole fraction of X in vapour phase) is correct, Xy and Yy
are mole fraction of Y in liquid and vapour phase
respectively

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 
Ans: (c)

37. Point out the incorrect reaction from the following.

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  

(d)   

Ans: (b)

38. 

X, Y and Z respectively are

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

 
Ans: (a)

39. A student made the following observation in the

laboratory.

I. Clean copper metal did not react with 1 molar Pb(NO3)2

solution

II. Clean lead metal dissolved in a 1 molar AgNO3 solution

and crystals of Ag metal appeared

III. Clean silver metal did not react with 1 molar Cu(NO3)2
solution

The order of decrease in reducing character of three

metals is

(a)   Pb, Cu, Ag

(b)   Pb, Ag, Cu

(c)   Cu, Ag, Pb

(d)   Cu, Pb, Ag

Ans: (a)

40. Choose the correct alkyne and reagents for the

preparation of

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (a)

41. The conductivity of 0.001028 mol L−1 acetic acid is

4.95 × 10−5 S cm−1. Find out its dissociation constant if m
for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm−1 mol−1.
(a)  

(b)  

(c)  

(d)  

Ans: (b)

42. In order to prepare one litre 1N solution of KMnO4, how

many grams of KMnO4 are required, if the solution to be
used in acid medium for oxidation?

(a)   128 g

(b)   41.75 g

(c)   31.60 g

(d)   62.34 g

Ans: (c)

43. Which of the following represents the correct order of

decreasing number of S = O bonds?

(a) 

(b) 

(c)

(d) 

Ans: (c)

44. A hypothetical reaction, X2 + Y2 → 2 XY follows the

following mechanism

X2 ⇌ X + X ….. fast

X + Y2 → XY + Y …….. slow

X+ Y → XY ……… fast

The order of the overall reaction is

(a)   2

(b)   3/2

(c)   1

(d)   0
Ans: (b)

45. The major role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in

small quantity in the electrolytic reduction of alumina
dissolved in fused cryolite (Na3AlF6) is

I. as a catalyst.

II. to make the fused mixture very conducting.

III. to lower the temperature of melting.

IV. to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode.

(a)   I, II

(b)   II, III

(c)   I, II, III

(d)   III, IV

Ans: (b)

46. The variation of concentration of the product P with

time in the reaction, A → P is shown in following graph.

The graph between   and time will be of the type

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 
(d) 

Ans: (a)

47. Point out the correct statement.

(a)   Below 710℃, C is better reducing agent than CO

(b)   Below 710℃, CO is better reducing agent than C

(c)   Below 710℃, CO is an oxidizing agent

(d)   Below 710℃, CO2 is a reducing agent

Ans: (b)

48. Which of the following represents physical adsorption?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (d)

49. KMnO4 reacts with ferrous sulphate according to the

following equation,

MnO4− + 5Fe2+ + 8H− → Mn2+ + 2Fe3+ + 4H2O

Here, 10 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to

( )
(a)   50 mL of 0.1 M

(b)   20 mL of 0.1 M

(c)   40 mL of 0.1 M

(d)   30 mL of 0.1 M

Ans: (a)

50. In an experiment, addition of 4.0 mL of 0.005 M BaCl2

to 16.0 mL of arsenious sulphide sol just causes complete
coagulation in 2 h. The flocculating value of the effective
ion is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (a)

51. Which of the following atomic and physical properties

of hydrogen is false?

(a)   Hydrogen > Deuterium > Tritium; (melting point/K)

(b)   Hydrogen < Deuterium < Tritium; (boiling point/K)

(c)   Hydrogen < Deuterium < Tritium;  (density/gL−1)

(d)   Hydrogen > Deuterium > Tritium; (% relative

abundance)

Ans: (a)

52. Eutrophication of a lake means, it

(a)   is low is nutrients

(b)   is high in nutrients

(c)   has a high temperature

(d)   has excess amount of organic matter

Ans: (b)

53. When H2O2 is added to ice cold solution of acidified

potassium dichromate in ether and the contents are
shaken and allowed to stand

( )
(a)   a blue colour is obtained in ether because of formation
of CrO5

(b)   a blue colour is obtained in ether because of formation

of CrO3

(c)   a blue colour is obtained in ether because of formation

of Cr2(SO4)3

(d)   chromyl chloride is formed

Ans: (a)

54. 500 mL of a sample of water required 19.6 mg of

K2Cr2O7 for the oxidation of dissolved organic matter in it
in the presence of H2SO4. The COD of water sample is

(a)   3.2 ppm

(b)   7.2 ppm

(c)   6.4 ppm

(d)   4.6 ppm

Ans: (c)

55. 

The chemical formulae of X, Y and Z are

Ans: (d)

56. For carbanion
Stability order will be

(a)   P > Q > S > R

(b)   P > R > Q > S

(c)   Q > R > S > R

(d)   S > R > Q > P

Ans: (b)

57. The aqueous solution of an unknown sodium salt gives

the following reactions.

I. It decolourises a solution of iodine in potassium iodide.

II. It gives white turbidity with dil. HCl solution.

III. It gives a white precipitate with AgNO3 solution which

changes colours and finally becomes black on standing.

The unknown sodium salt is

(a)   sodium thiosulphate

(b)   sodium bisulphite

(c)   sodium sulphite

(d)   sodium sulphide

Ans: (a)

58. The catenation tendency of C, Si and Ge is in the order

Ge < Si < C. The bond energies (in kJ mol−1) of C―C, Si―Si
and Ge―Ge bonds, respectively are

(a)   348, 167, 180

(b)   348, 180, 167

(c)   167, 180, 348

(d)   180, 167, 348

Ans: (b)
59. What is correct about the following structure?

(a)   Total stereoisomers = 4

(b)   Number of chiral carbons = 1

(c)   Number of optical isomers = 2

(d)   Number of meso compounds = 2

Ans: (c)

60. Number of oxygen atoms shared per SiO44−

tetrahedron in

I. two dimensional sheet structured silicates

II. cyclic silicates and

III. single strand chain silicates respectively are

(a)   3, 3, 2

(b)   3, 2, 2

(c)   4, 3, 1

(d)   4, 3, 2

Ans: (b)

Biology

1. Which of the following is the most primitive ancestor of

man?

(a)   Ramapithecus

(b)   Homo habilis

(c)   Australopithecus

(d)   Homo sapiens neanderthalensis

Ans: (a)
2. Vitamin-B12 is absorbed primarily in the

(a)   stomach

(b)   duodenum

(c)   jejunum

(d)   ileum

Ans: (d)

3. The faster breathing in high fever is due to the

(a)   additional requirement of O2 for the invader germs

(b)   high temperature of the body

(c)   mental worry of a patient

(d)   loss of appetiate

Ans: (b)

4. Which of the following animals possess non-elastic

lungs with elastic air sacs connected to them?

(a)   Reptiles

(b)   Birds

(c)   Amphibians

(d)   Mammals

Ans: (b)

5. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a)   Trichomonas vaginalis – Leishmaniasis

(b)   Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness

(c)   Aedes agypti – Yellow fever

(d)   Culex pipceins – Filariasis

Ans: (a)

6. Carotid labyrinth contains

(a)   olfactory receptors

(b)   baroreceptors

(c)   chemorreceptors

(d)   phonoreceptors

Ans: (b)
7. Occupational lung disease that occurs in humans,
among those given below is

(a)   dyspnea

(b)   anthracosis

(c)   atelectasis

(d)   cyanosis

Ans: (b)

8. Epiphyseal plates at the extremities of long bones help

in

(a)   bone moulding

(b)   elongation of bone

(c)   bone formation

(d)   formation of Haversian canal

Ans: (b)

9. The strongest muscle in the human is

(a)   biceps

(b)   gluteus maximus

(c)   stapedius

(d)   masseter

Ans: (d)

10. Parkinsonism is related with

(a)   brain

(b)   spinal nerve

(c)   cranial nerves

(d)   All of these

Ans: (a)

11. Meniere’s disease is associated with

(a)   ear

(b)   eye

(c)   nose

(d)   throat
Ans: (a)

12. If the threshold for hearing increasing 1000 times, the

hearing loss is

(a)   40 decibels

(b)   50 decibels

(c)   60 decibels

(d)   None of these

Ans: (d)

13. Gonads are derived from

(a)   ectoderm

(b)   mesoderm

(c)   endoderm

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (b)

14. The number of chromosomes in a primary

spermatocyte is

(a)   same as in spermatid

(b)   same as in spermatogonium

(c)   help of that in spermatogonium

(d)   same as in secondary spermatocyte

Ans: (b)

15. The portion of the endometrium that covers the embryo

and is located between the embryo and the uterine cavity is
the

(a)   decidua basalis

(b)   desidua umbilicus

(c)   desidua capsularis

(d)   deciduas functionalis

Ans: (c)

16. Depo-provera refers to

(a)   injectible contraceptive

(b)   intra uterine device

( )
(c)   implant

(d)   oral contraceptive

Ans: (a)

17. What base is responsible for hot spots for spontaneous

pint mutations?

(a)   Adenine

(b)   Guanine

(c)   5-bromouracil

(d)   5-methyl cytosine

Ans: (c)

18. During which geological period of evolution did the

greatest diversification of life occurred on the earth?

(a)   Permian

(b)   Jurassic

(c)   Cambrian

(d)   Ordovician

Ans: (c)

19. Specific radioactive identification of ribosomal RNA

can be achieved by using C14 labelled

(a)   guanine

(b)   uracil

(c)   thymine

(d)   cytocine

Ans: (b)

20. Which of the following is the Pribnow box?

(a)   5′-TATAAT-3′

(b)   5′-TAATAT-3′

(c)   5′-AATAAT-3′

(d)   5′-ATATTA-3′

Ans: (a)

21. The genome of Caenorhabditis elegans consists of

( )
(a)   3 billion base pairs and 30,000 genes

(b)   12 million base pairs and 6000 genes

(c)   4.7 million base pairs and 4000 genes

(d)   97 million base pairs and 18,000 genes

Ans: (b)

22. About how long ago was the earth formed?

(a)   3 billion years ago

(b)   10 billion years ago

(c)   4.6 billion years ago

(d)   20 billion years ago

Ans: (c)

23. Gas gangrene is caused by

(a)   Clostridium botulinum

(b)   Xanthomonas campestris

(c)   Pseudomonas

(d)   Clostridium perfringens

Ans: (d)

24. Who received Nobel Prize in 1951 for the development

of vaccine for yellow fever?

(a)   Max Theiler

(b)   Ronald Ross

(c)   Max Delbruck

(d)   Francis Peyton Rous

Ans: (a)

25. Continuous exposer to vinyl chloride may cause cancer

of the

(a)   liver

(b)   spleen

(c)   vagina

(d)   prostate gland

Ans: (a)
26. Which of the following T-cells and destroyed by HIV?

(a)   Cytotoxic T-cells

(b)   Killer T-cells

(c)   Suppressor T-cells

(d)   Helper T-cells

Ans: (d)

27. An autoimmune disease is

(a)   AIDS

(b)   haemophilia

(c)   allergy

(d)   myasthenia gravis

Ans: (d)

28. Which hormone produces calorigenic effect?

(a)   Thyroxine

(b)   FSH

(c)   Insulin

(d)   All of these

Ans: (a)

29. Which of the following act as an antigen, but do not

induce antibody production?

(a)   Haustra

(b)   Histones

(c)   Haptens

(d)   None of these

Ans: (c)

30. Haldane effect refers to

(a)   more acidity in the blood

(b)   less acidity in the blood

(c)   more basicity in the blood

(d)   less basicity in the blood

Ans: (a)
31. The plant whose seeds are known to leave the longest
viability period is

(a)   Carica papaya

(b)   Triticum aestivum

(c)   Zizypus mauritiana

(d)   Nelumbo nucifera

Ans: (d)

32. Jut is a

(a)   bast fibre from secondary xylem

(b)   bast fibre from primary xylem

(c)   bast fibre from secondary pholem

(d)   bast firbe from primary pholem

Ans: (c)

33. Chlorosis is produced in the leaves due to the

deficiency of Fe, Mg, Mn, S or N of these essential
elements, those that are exclusive constituents of
chlorophyll molecule are

(a)   Fe, S

(b)   N, S

(c)   Mg, S

(d)   Mg, N

Ans: (d)

34. Read the following statements and choose the correct

option.

I. Leptosporangiate development of sporangium is found in

all members Pteropsida.

II. Seed habit is shown by sellaginella.

III. Gnetum leaves are monomorphic and pinnately

compound.

IV. Sporic meiosis is found in Volvolx, Chalmydomonas and

Ulothrix.

Choose the correct option.

(a)   I and IV

( )
(b)   I and II

(c)   I, II and IV

(d)   All of these

Ans: (c)

35. Which of the following characteristics out of I, II and III

are exhibited by C4 plants?

I. Kranz anatomy.

II. The product of photosynthesis is oxalo acetic acid.

III. Both PEP carboxylase and ribulose-bis phosphate

carboxylase act as carboxylating enzyme.

Choose the correct option.

(a)   I and II, but not III

(b)   II and III, but not I

(c)   I and III, but not II

(d)   All of these

Ans: (d)

36. Match the following column I and II for organismic

respiration.

(a)   A-2, B-3, C-1

(b)   A-3, B-2, C-1

(c)   A-1, B-3, C-2

(d)   A-3, B-1, C-2

Ans: (b)

37. Compare the statements I and II and choose correct

option.

Statement (I) Auxin promote apical dominance by

suppressing the activity of lateral  buds.
Statement (II) In moriculture, periodic pruning of shoot tips
is done to make mulberry plants bushy.

Choose the correct options

(a)   I is false, but II is true

(b)   II is false, but I is true

(c)   Both I and II are true

(d)   Both I and II are false

Ans: (c)

38. The one advantage of cleistogamy is

(a)   it leads to greater genetic diversity

(b)   seed dispersal is more efficient and wide spread

(c)   seed set is not dependent on pollinators

(d)   each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds

of pollen grains

Ans: (c)

39. In coconut, the liquid endosperm is formed because

(a)   karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

(b)   karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis

(c)   formation of liquid endosperm is not dependent upon

karyokinesis and cytokinesis

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (c)

40. Keeping is view the structure of cell membrane, which

one of the following statements is correct with respect to
the movements of liquid and proteins from one liquid
monolayer to the other (flip flop movement).

(a)   While proteins can flip flop, liquids can not

(b)   Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip flop

(c)   Both lipids and proteins can flip flop

(d)   While lipids can rarely flip flop, proteins can not

Ans: (d)

41. Ribosomes are particles about 200 Å units in diameter

consisting of protein and RNA. The percentage of protein
and RNA is respectively

(a)   80% and 20%

(b)   60% and 40%

(c)   50% and 50%

(d)   40% and 60%

Ans: (b)

42. Match the biological molecule listed under column I

with their biological function listed under column II.
Choose the answer which gives correct combination of
alphabet of the two columns.

(a)   A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

(b)   A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(c)   A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

(d)   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Ans: (d)

43. In peal plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a

heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green
seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants
could you expect in F1-generation.

(a)   9 : 1

(b)   1 : 3

(c)   3 : 1

(d)   50 : 50

Ans: (d)

44. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by

guanine, it is a case of

(a)   frame shift mutation

( )
(b)   transcription

(c)   transition

(d)   transversion

Ans: (c)

45. Independent assortment of gene occurs due to the

orientation of chromosomes at

(a)   metaphase-I of mitosis

(b)   metaphase-I of meiosis

(c)   metaphase-II of meiosis

(d)   any phase of the cell division

Ans: (b)

46. The non-disjunction, in meiosis may result is extra copy

of a chromosome in a sperm cell. During which phase the
above phenomenon may occur?

(a)   Prophase-I, prophase-II

(b)   Metaphase-I, anaphase-II

(c)   Anaphase-I, anaphase-II

(d)   Anaphase-I, telophase-II

Ans: (c)

47. Which of the following is true regarding the phase

lambda, a virus which infects bacteria?

(a)   In the lytic cycle, the bacterial host replicates viral

DNA, passing it on to daughter cells during binary fission

(b)   In the lysogenic cycle, the bacteria host replicates viral

DNA, passing it onto daughter cells during binary fission

(c)   In the lytic cycle, viral DNA is integrated into the host
genome

(d)   In the lysogenic cycle, the host bacterial cell burst,

releasing phases

Ans: (b)

48. The part of the bacterial chromosomes sharing

homology with genome fragment transferred from the
recipients to cell during emrozygote formation is known as

(a)   eugenic
( )
(b)   exogenate

(c)   endogenate

(d)   dysgenic

Ans: (c)

49. In 1944, Avery, McCarty and MacLeod isolated

substance from heat killed virulent form of bacteria and
added to non-virulent form of bacteria which changed the
non-virulent to virulent from this substance can be
destroyed by

(a)   DNAse

(b)   protease

(c)   lipase

(d)   amylase

Ans: (a)

50. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium

are groups of

(a)   bacteria containing a cytoskeleton and all membrane

bound organelles

(b)   archaebacteria with peptidoglycan in their cell wall

(c)   archaebacteria that consists of protein homologous to

eukaryotic core histones

(d)   most advanced type of bacteria

Ans: (c)

51. Match the following Column I with Column II.

(a)   A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

(b)   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(c)   A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

( )
(d)   A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Ans: (b)

52. Which of the following sequences represent a possible

pathway in the production of a secretory protein?

(a)   Rough ER → Secretory vesicle → Ribosome → Golgi

apparatus

(b)   Ribosome → Rough ER → Golgi apparatus →

Secretory vesicle

(c)   Secretory vesicle → Golgi apparatus → Ribosomes →

Rough ER

(d)   Rough ER → Ribosomes → Secretory vesicles → Golgi

appratus

Ans: (d)

53. A connecting link between plant and animal kingdom is

(a)   Paramecium

(b)   Chlamydomonas

(c)   Chlorella

(d)   Euglena

Ans: (d)

54. Which of the following statements is false regarding

SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis?

(a)   Proteins are separated by molecular weight

(b)   SDS is a detergent which gives charge to protein

(c)   Large protein move more slowly through gel

(d)   SDS is used to maintain the 3-dimentional structure of

protein

Ans: (d)

55. If the free energy change of a reaction is greater than

zero, then the reaction is

(a)   spontaneous

(b)   non-spontaneous

(c)   at equilibrium

(d)   endothermic
Ans: (b)

56. Organisms who are able to freely interbreed producing

fertile off-springs and having similar blue print for making
these organisms are referred to as

(a)   species

(b)   tribe

(c)   genus

(d)   sub-genus

Ans: (a)

57. The enzyme hexokinase which catalysis glucose to a

glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis is inhibited by glucose-6-
phophate. This is an example of

I. Competitive inhibition

II. non-competitive inhibition

III. feedback allosteric inhibition

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)   I and II

(b)   I and III

(c)   Only III

(d)   All of these

Ans: (c)

58. The protein products of tumour suppressor gene may

(a)   be present in non-cancerous cells

(b)   cause signal cell death

(c)   regulate the cell cycle

(d)   All of the above

Ans: (a)

59. The mitotic cell cycle is divided typically into four

phases; G1, S, G2 and M. Considering a mitotic cycle time
of 18 hrs; the distribution of period of time (in hrs) for each
of these phases will be

(a) 

( )
(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Ans: (c)

60. Match the following column I with column II.

(a)   A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

(b)   A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(c)   A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

(d)   A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Ans: (a)

Quantitative Aptitude & English

1. When the bus reaches Shivani’s house, it faces South.

After starting from Shivani’s house to the school, it turns
twice to its left and once to its right. In which direction it is
running now?

(a)   North

(b)   West

(c)   East

(d)   South

Ans: (c)

2. A men travels 12 km West, then 3 km towards South and

then 8 km towards East. How far is he form the start?

(a)   23 km

(b)   20 km

(c)   15 km

(d)   5 km
Ans: (d)

3. From the given alternative words, select the one which

can be formed using the letters of the given word
EXAMINATION.

(a)   ANIMAL

(b)   EXAMINER

(c)   NATIONAL

(d)   ANIMATION

Ans: (d)

4. If ANCE can b e coded as 3, 7, 29, 11, then BOIL will be

code as

(a)   5, 29, 19, 27

(b)   5, 29, 19, 25

(c)   5, 31, 21, 25

(d)   5, 31, 19, 25

Ans: (d)

5. QPRS : TUVW : JIKL : ?

(a)   NMOP

(b)   NMPO

(c)   MNPO

(d)   MNOP

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. No. 6-7) Find the odd letter pair from

6. (a) Wool   (b) Feather

    (c) Hair     (d) Grass

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (d)

7. (a) Sport : Ground  (b) Cinema : Screen

( ) ( )
    (b) Drama : Stage  (d) Rubber : Erase

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (d)

8. If + means, −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then

48 × 4 ÷ 7 + 8 – 2 = ?

(a)   3

(b)   −5

(c)   35

(d)   16

Ans: (a)

9. If February 1, 2004 is Wednesday, what day is March 3,

2004?

(a)   Monday

(b)   Sunday

(c)   Saturday

(d)   Friday

Ans: (c)

10. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(a)   5

(b)   4

(c)   3

(d)   8

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-12) Out of the four alternatives

choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.

11. Instigate

(a)   Initiate

(b)   Incite

( )
(c)   Force

(d)   Cause

Ans: (b)

12. Voracious

(a)   Quick

(b)   Angry

(c)   Hungry

(d)   Wild

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. No. 13-14) Choose the word opposite in

meaning to the given word.

13. Epilogue

(a)   Dialogue

(b)   Prelude

(c)   Post script

(d)   Epigram

Ans: (b)

14. Indiscreet

(a)   Reliable

(b)   Honest

(c)   Prudent

(d)   Stupid

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. No. 15) Out of the alternatives choose the

one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence.

15. The absence of law and order

(a)   Rebellion

(b)   Anarchy

(c)   Mutiny

(d)   Revolt
Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos 16-18) In the following question, a

sentence has divided into four parts. Arrange these parts
to make the sentence meaningful.

16. In favour of English,

P : has chances of securing employment

Q : we may say that

R : in all p arts of India and in foreign countries

S : an English knowing Indian

(a)   QSPR

(b)   SPQR

(c)   SRQP

(d)   QRPS

Ans: (a)

17. The hungry man

P : and said

Q : replied in the negative

R : that he only wanted a meal

S : to his question

(a)   SQPR

(b)   QSPR

(c)   SPRQ

(d)   QPRS

Ans: (b)

18. It is

P : that people read fewer books today

Q : then they did

R : even about a decade ago

S : a matter of grave concern

(a)   PSRQ

(b)   SPRQ

( )
(c)   PSQR

(d)   SPQR

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 19-20) Groups of four words are given.

In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the
correctly spelt word.

19. (a) Parapharnelia (b) Parsimonious

      (c) Peccadilo        (d) Peadialriis

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (b)

20. (a) Tussel (b) Tunnle

(c) Tumble     (d) Trable

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (c)

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