1. Using hand-held cell phones may be dangerous during driving.

Which of the
following explanations was offered in lecture?
a. Drivers are safer when they can use both their hands
b. Cognitive capture – being blind to cognitive cues because one is engaged
in conversation
c. Drivers tend to not watch the road when they are using cell phones
d. Conversations on cell phones tend to be more upsetting
e. None of the above

2. Which of the following views says that we are able to perceive reality as it truly
exists?
a. Constructive realism
b. Sensible realism
c. Naïve realism
d. Realistic constructivism
e. None of the above

3. How was the monkey with a robotic arm, as shown in lecture, able to control its
robotic arm?
a. It used its real arm to maneuver the robot arm with a remote device.
b. The robotic arm was wired to the monkey’s arm muscles, responding in
sync with them.
c. The robotic arm was wired to a computer which was wired to the
monkey’s brain.
d. The monkey used facial movements to control the robotic arm.
e. None of the above

4. Which of the following is not a mental representation?

a. A “chunk”
b. Conversion of a 10-digit phone number to 3 chunks
c. The letter “B”
d. The word “Bee”
e. None of the above

5. The founder of the first laboratory of scientific psychology was

a. Franciscus Donders.
b. Hermann von Helmholtz.
c. Wilhelm Wundt.
d. Hermann Ebbinghaus.
6. The “Little Albert” experiment involving the rat and the loud noise is an example
of which of the following types of experiments?
a. Reaction time
b. Unconscious inference
c. Classical conditioning
d. Operant conditioning

7. The investigation of how behavior is strengthened by presentation of positive

reinforcers (e.g., food) or withdrawal of negative reinforcers (e.g., shock) is best
known as
a. classical conditioning.
b. the method of savings.
c. choice reaction time.
d. operant conditioning.

8. Who developed the concept of the cognitive map?

a. Watson
b. Ebbinghaus
c. Wundt
d. Tolman

9. Structuralism and Functionalism are:

a. Contradictory schools of thought
b. Complementary schools of thought
c. Diametrically opposed, dividing the history of psychology into “then” and
“now”
d. Two cognitive strategies
e. None of the above

10. Each time the professor said “behaviorism” he fired a gun (with blanks). At the
end of the class, the professor said, “that about wraps up our topic of
behaviorism,” to which the class flinched. Their flinching is an example of which
of the following:
a. UCR (unconditioned response)
b. CR (conditioned response)
c. UCS (unconditioned stimulus)
d. CS (conditioned stimulus)
e. All of the above

11. Mental processes refers to the process of changing a mental representation into …
a. Another mental representation
b. Bits and bytes of information
c. A code that only the brain can read
d. A mental process
e. None of the above
12. The ultimate goal of _______________ is to develop a list of rules that govern
how to predict observable output from observable input.
a. Structuralism
b. Mentalism
c. Behaviorism
d. Gestaltism
e. All of the above

13. Regarding children’s language development, Noam Chomsky noted that children
generate many sentences they have never heard before. From this, he concluded
that language development is driven largely by
a. inborn programming.
b. cultural influences.
c. classical conditioning.
d. operant conditioning.

14. Which of the following does NOT characterize the information processing (IP)
approach to the study of cognition?
a. IP depicts the mind as processing information in a sequence of stages.
b. IP supports the principle of behaviorism that behavior is a stimulus-
response relationship.
c. IP involves the use of computers as a metaphor to understand human
cognition.
d. IP has an interest in investigating unobservable mental events.

15. Humans need to have mental representations in order to do all of the following,
except:
a. Remember
b. Think
c. Knee jerk reaction
d. Throw a ball
e. All of the above

16. Which of the following groups that were interested in figuring out how the mind
works, went through the complete circle of theorizing, observing and testing
a. The early Greek philosophers
b. The German psychophysicists
c. William James and his students
d. The Behaviorists
e. All of the above
17. One of the main goals of Functionalism was to the search for …
a. Stimulus – Response connections
b. The “atoms” of cognition
c. The evolutionary cause of cognition
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

18. The study of the physiological basis of cognition is known as

a. cognitive psychology.
b. neuroscience.
c. cognitive neuroscience.
d. neuropsychology.

19. Early studies of brain tissue that used staining techniques and microscopes from
the 19th century described the "nerve net." These early understandings were in
error in the sense that the nerve net was believed to be
a. continuous.
b. composed of discrete individual units.
c. composed of cell bodies, axons, and dendrites.
d. composed of neurotransmitters rather than neurons.

20. The neuron doctrine is

a. in agreement with nerve net theory.
b. unrelated to nerve net theory.
c. synonymous with nerve net theory.
d. in disagreement with nerve net theory.

21. An oscilloscope can display "spikes" that correspond to nerve impulses in

response to a certain stimulus intensity. If the stimulus intensity is decreased, you
are likely to observe spikes that are
a. less frequent and smaller in size.
b. less frequent and of the same size.
c. as frequent and smaller in size.
d. the same signal as with the higher stimulus intensity.

22. Which of the following is a description of functions specific to the right

hemisphere?
a. Creativity, spatial awareness, patterns, face recognition
b. Speech, sequencing, temporal logic
c. Recognition of words, recognition of letters, recognition of numbers
d. Vision, hearing, sense of touch, sense of taste and smell
e. All of the above
23. A synapse is
a. a tube filled with fluid that conducts electrical signals.
b. the structure that contains mechanisms to keep a neuron alive.
c. the structure that receives electrical signals from other neurons.
d. the space between neurons

24. Why is introspection not widely used in modern psychological research?

a. The process of introspecting may change the very things we are trying to
find.
b. The process of introspecting fails to register mental processes that people
are not conscious of
c. The process of introspecting can only be used on adults but not infants and
animals because they do not have fully developed language skills.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

25. A 10-month-old baby is interested in discovering different textures, comparing

the touch sensations between a soft blanket and a hard wooden block. Tactile
signals such as these are received by the _____ lobe.
a. parietal
b. occipital
c. frontal
d. temporal

26. Brain imaging has made it possible to

a. determine which areas of the brain are involved in different cognitive
processes.
b. view individual neurons in the brain.
c. show how environmental energy is transformed into neural energy.
d. view propagation of action potentials.

27. You are a cognitive neuroscientist looking at a group of patients that have
suffered various types of brain damage. You use brain imaging to discover where
their damage is, and examine them behaviorally to determine loss of function.
Hoping to discover a double dissociation amongst these patients, what would you
need to find?
a. All of them must have the same sort of damage to verify the dissociation.
b. There must be no overlap between some of the patients in injury or
behavioral deficit.
c. There must be multiple functional impairments.
d. B & C
e. All of the above
28. You are a neurologist who encounters a patient who greets you with “Hello Doc,
what never going last yesterday always had a finer episode. Given talking
happened despite?” Where might you suspect their brain has suffered some
damage?
a. Upper occipital lobe
b. Wernicke’s area
c. Broca’s area
d. Frontal lobe

29. You want to examine someone’s brain in as close to real time as possible, but do
not want to harm them. What might your option(s) be?
a. fMRI
b. EEG
c. PET
d. Single-unit recording
e. A or B

30. Which of the following typically functions as the “input” for a neuron?
a. Axon
b. Cell body
c. Soma
d. Dendrites
e. Synapse

31. Ben can only recognize his family members by the color of their hair and sound
of their voice, what condition might Ben be suffering from?
a. Prosopagnosia
b. Balint’s symdrome
c. Unilateral neglect
d. Aphasia
e. Apraxias

32. You suspect a patient has some form of agnosia. What do you have him do to test
this?
a. Ask him to copy a picture of an object
b. Try to repeat a melody played to him
c. Ask him to move his attention from one object to another rapidly
d. Ask him to speak a few sentences on a specific topic
e. Test the word superiority effect
33. The parietal lobe is involved with each of the following functions except which
one?
a. Problem solving
b. Sensing of touch
c. Sensing of pressure
d. Somatosensory functions
e. All of the above functions are primarily controlled by the parietal lobe

34. The case of Phineas Gage: major _______-change when a _______ was projected
through his _______ lobe.
a. Perceptual, tamping rod, parietal
b. Visual, tamping rod, occipital
c. Analytical, bullet, temporal
d. Personality, tamping rod, frontal
e. None of the above

35. Which of the following techniques disrupts the functioning of a brain area
temporarily?
a. Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging
b. Single cell recording using electrodes
c. Positron Emission Tomography
d. Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation
e. None of the above

36. Paul Broca's and Carl Wernicke's research provided early evidence for
a. distributed processing.
b. localization of function.
c. prosopagnosia.
d. neural net theory.

37. The idea of a grandmother cell is consistent with

a. distributed coding.
b. specificity coding.
c. subtraction techniques.
d. primary receiving areas.

38. Which of the following best illustrates parallel processing?

a. A Subway worker preparing a sandwich
b. A hive of bumblebees collecting nectar
c. A relay race
d. A cognitive demon deciding, based on shouts, what letter was shown
e. None of the above
39. What is the primary shortcoming of the Pandemonium Model?
a. It implicates demons, which cannot be proved to exist.
b. It assumes parallel processing, but the mind is known to be a serial
processor.
c. It fails to explain top-down processing.
d. It fails to show how humans perform edge-detection.
e. None of the above

40. According to modern connectionist theory, the “C” curve in the letter G activates
a. G alone
b. C and G only
c. C alone
d. C, G, O, Q, (and to a lesser extent) S, U, and J
e. None of the above

41. In “BE HOME BY 5:B” the last B can be seen as a “13.” Which of the
following explains this?
a. The Pandemonium Model
b. Modern Connectionism
c. Strictly bottom up models
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C

42. Connectionism was developed because

a. Serial computing methods are inadequate to model most forms of
cognition due to slow processing speed
b. Parallel computing is much faster than serial processing and is better
suited to model ALL forms of cognitive functions
c. Neurons compute differently than digital computers
d. The brain is too complex
e. All of the above

43. Connectionist models learn through

a. Reward.
b. Repetition.
c. Weakening of connections that push output towards incorrect responses
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
44. What is the major difference between the Pandemonium model a presented in
class and the McClelland and Rumelhart model?
a. Top-down feedback
b. Inhibition
c. Nodes
d. a & b
e. all of the above

45. The branch of psychology concerned with the scientific study of the mind is
called
a. cognitive psychology.
b. introspection.
c. behaviorism.
d. memory consolidation.

46. Lecture note slides describe the occurrence of a “cognitive revolution” during
which dramatic changes took place in the way psychology was studied. This so-
called “revolution” occurred parallel to (and, in part, because of) the introduction
of
a. cognitive psychology textbooks.
b. analytic introspection.
c. Skinner boxes.
d. computers.

47. Action potentials occur in the

a. cell body.
b. synapse.
c. neurotransmitters.
d. axon.

48. Which of the following statements best describes how neurons communicate with
one another?
a. The end of one neuron makes direct contact with the receiving end of
another neuron.
b. A chemical process takes place at the synapse.
c. An electrical process takes place in the receptors.
d. Action potentials travel across the synapse.
49. Which of the following statements is most consistent with recognition-by-
components theory?
a. Humans can identify an object if sufficient information is available to
enable us to identify an object’s basic features.
b. Activation of letter units provides the information needed to determine
which letter is present.
c. Top-down processing influences perception.
d. The focusing of attention eliminates illusory conjunctions.

50. “Perceiving machines” are used by the U.S. Postal service to “read” the addresses
on letters and sort them quickly to their correct destinations. Sometimes, these
machines cannot read an address, because the writing on the envelope is not
sufficiently clear for the machine to match the writing to an example it has stored
in memory. Human postal workers are much more successful at reading unclear
addresses, most likely because of
a. bottom-up processing.
b. top-down processing.
c. their in-depth understanding of principles of perception.
d. repeated practice at the task.

51. Charlene sees her boyfriend across campus and waves. Even though the image he
projects on her retina from that distance is quite small, Charlene does not perceive
him to have shrunk at all. Instead, she perceives him as far away because of
a. the light-from-above heuristic.
b. algorithmic thinking.
c. experience-dependent plasticity.
d. size constancy.

52. When Carlos moved to the U.S., he did not understand any English. Phrases like
"Anna Mary Can Pi And I Scream Class Hick" didn't make any sense to him.
Now that Carlos has been learning English, he recognizes this phrase as "An
American Pie and Ice Cream Classic." This example illustrates that Carlos is not
capable of ____ in English.
a. speech segmentation
b. the likelihood principle
c. bottom-up processing
d. algorithms

53. Some perceptions result from assumptions we make about the environment that
we are not even aware of. This theory of unconscious inference was developed by
a. Wundt
b. Gestalt psychologists.
c. Helmholtz.
d. Gibson.
54. The process by which small objects become perceptually grouped to form larger
objects is
a. conjunction.
b. perceptual organization.
c. perceptual discriminability.
d. perceptual fusion.

55. A heuristic is a
a. “rule of thumb” that provides a best-guess solution to a problem.
b. procedure that is guaranteed to solve a problem.
c. series of rules that specify how we organize parts into wholes.
d. short algorithm.

56. A difference between a heuristic and an algorithm is

a. heuristics usually take longer to carry out than algorithms.
b. algorithms are usually less systematic than heuristics.
c. heuristics do not result in a correct solution every time as algorithms do.
d. algorithms provide “best-guess” solutions to problems more so than
heuristics.

57. The landmark discrimination problem is more difficult to do if you have damage
to your lobe.
a. frontal
b. temporal
c. parietal
d. occipital

58. What is the inverse projection problem that poses a major problem for object
recognition?
a. The eye inverts images of objects. How do we see them upright?
b. The retinal stimulation for a given object differs with the viewing
conditions. The visual system has to identify the object from ambiguous
retinal image.
c. The left portion of our visual field hits the right of our retinas and sends
signal to the opposite side of the brain, yet we still see the left half of the
world as located in the left hemisphere of our visual field. How is this
accomplished?
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
59. The in-class discussion of the “Gorillas in our midst” video demonstrated which
important issue of scientific analysis?
a. Experimental results tend not to be theoretically ambiguous
b. Attention demonstrations work better on large groups than individuals
c. Depending on how one analyzes the data, one study can support opposing
theories
d. Videos are unreliable for testing theories of attention

60. The experiment from Posner et al. presented in class demonstrated that for
“invalid” trials,
a. response time is faster compared to trials when the target appears at the
cued location
b. response time is faster when the target appears at an uncued location on
the same object as the cued location compared to an uncued spatial
location equally far from the cued location, but not on the same object.
c. response time is equal for the two kinds of “invalid” locations – the object
based and the spatial distance based ones
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

61. In the future, a poet reflects:

“Isaac suffered a knock to his head,
And when he awoke was filled with dread.
Memory of his childhood had escaped with the pain,
And now he would never recall them again.”
What is the most appropriate term that describes the condition that Isaac is
suffering from?
a. Agnosia
b. Aphasia
c. Amnesia
d. The word-superiority effect
e. All of the above

62. In a spatial cueing demonstration, an invalid trial is one in which

a. attention is focused in an incorrect location.
b. attention is focused in a correct location.
c. attention is focused in a few different locations.
d. attention is not focused.
63. If mental rotation didn’t have spatial representation, what would the process most
likely be in order to conform to the data of the experiment done by Shepard and
Cooper?
a. Our mental imagery is inherently probabilistic, and the further the angle,
the less the probability, thus it takes longer.
b. We see all representations simultaneously and we must sort through them,
with it taking longer to find ones that are further away from the original
orientation.
c. We perceive the elaborate structural description of the stimuli and have a
few set angles that we use to rotate, and it takes a constant amount of time
to switch between adjacent ones.
d. There is no real rotation process, it just jumps there, but takes longer to
jump proportional to the angle difference.
e. The verbal description of rotation interferes with the pictorial one making
reaction times longer for bigger angles.

64. What is true in Treisman’s experimental

results but is represented incorrectly in the
visual search functions shown in the adjacent
figure?
a. Reaction times to locate conjunction
targets should be unaffected as the
number of distracters in the display
increases.
b. The time to locate a feature target
should be faster than the time to locate
a conjunction target, except perhaps when there are very few distracters.
c. Reaction times to find both conjunction targets and feature targets should
increase as a function of the number of distracters in the display.
d. Nothing; the diagram is correct as it is shown.

65. The main difference between early and late selection models of attention is that in
late selection models, selection of stimuli for final processing doesn’t occur until
the information is analyzed for
a. modality.
b. meaning.
c. physical characteristics.
d. location.
66. Which of the following views is most widely accepted by cognitive
psychologists?
a. Knowledge is locally represented in the brain
b. Knowledge is globally distributed in the brain
c. Knowledge is viewpoint dependent
d. Knowledge is solely dependent on the firing of bigram detectors
e. Excitatory connections play a greater role in representing knowledge than
inhibitory connections.

67. Which of the following is an example of functional equivalence between visual

(mental) imagery and visual perception?
a. Visual acuity is greater in the center of the visual field than in the
periphery for both visual imagery and visual perception.
b. Structural description is the best way to describe both visual imagery and
visual perception.
c. There is a mismatch in the results experiments on scanning mental images
and real images.
d. Visual imagery depends solely on propositional mechanism, very much
like visual perception.
e. None of the above is a good example/statement supporting functional
equivalence.

68. A task in working memory that is heavily dependent on the phonological buffer
will interfere least with tasks involving the
a. Central executive
b. Subvocal speech
c. Articulatory rehearsal loop
d. Visuospatial buffer
e. All of the above

69. When Sam listens to his girlfriend Susan in the restaurant and ignores other
people's conversations, he is engaged in the process of ____ attention.
a. low load
b. divided
c. cocktail party
d. selective

70. In a dichotic listening experiment, ______ refers to the procedure that is used to
force participants to pay attention to a specific message among competing
messages.
a. rehearsing
b. shadowing
c. echoing
d. delayed repeating
71. The cocktail party effect is
a. the ability to pay attention to one message and ignore others, yet hear
distinctive features of the unattended messages.
b. the inability to pay attention to one message in the presence of competing
messages.
c. the diminished awareness of information in a crowd.
d. the equal division of attention between competing messages.

72. Suppose you are in your kitchen writing a grocery list, while your roommate is
watching TV in the next room. A commercial for spaghetti sauce comes on TV.
Although you are not paying attention to the TV, you “suddenly” remember that
you need to pick up spaghetti sauce and add it to the list. Your behavior is best
predicted by which of the following models of attention?
a. Object-based
b. Early selection
c. Spotlight
d. Late selection

73. Imagine that U.S. lawmakers are considering changing the driving laws and that
you have been consulted as an attention expert. Given the principles of consistent
vs. varied mapping, which of the following possible changes to driving laws
would most interfere with a skilled driver’s automatic performance when driving
a car?
a. Passing laws where headlights must be used during the day when the
weather is bad
b. Requiring all drivers learn to drive safely on wet roadways using anti-lock
brakes
c. Requiring successful curbside parking performance to obtain a license
d. Creating conditions where sometimes a green light meant “stop”

74. The Stroop effect demonstrates

a. how automatic processing can interfere with intended processing.
b. a failure of divided attention.
c. the ease of performing a low-load task.
d. support for object-based attention.

75. Research on the use of cell phones while driving indicates that
a. the negative effect can be decreased by using “hands-free” units.
b. the problem with cell phones is that attention is distracted from the task of
driving by the need to hold the phone and drive with one hand.
c. the main effect of cell phone use on driving safety can be attributed to the
fact that attention is used up by the cognitive task of talking on the phone.
d. both a and b are correct
76. The use of an eye tracker can help reveal the shifting of one's
attention.
a. overt
b. covert
c. divided
d. dichotic

77. When we search a scene, initial fixations are most likely to occur on ____ areas.
a. high-load
b. low-load
c. high-saliency
d. low-saliency

78. Scene schema is

a. rapid movements of the eyes from one place to another in a scene.
b. short pauses of the eyes on points of interest in a scene.
c. how attention is distributed throughout a static scene.
d. knowledge about what is contained in a typical scene.

79. Lan has no idea what she just read in her text because she was thinking about how
hungry she is and what she is going to have for dinner. This is a real-world
example of
a. the late-selection model of attention.
b. an object-based attentional failure.
c. inattentional blindness.
d. the cocktail party phenomenon.

80. According to Treisman’s feature integration theory, the first stage of perception
is called the _____ stage.
a. feature analysis
b. focused attention
c. preattentive
d. letter analysis

81. In explaining the paradox that imagery and perception exhibit a double
dissociation, Behrmann and coworkers suggested that perception necessarily
involves _____ processing and imagery starts as a _____ process.
a. bottom-up; bottom-up
b. top-down; top-down
c. bottom-up; top-down
d. top-down; bottom-up
82. Your text describes imagery performance of a patient with unilateral neglect. This
patient was asked to imagine himself walking in a familiar plaza and to report the
objects he saw. His behavior shows
a. neglect manifests itself in perception only, not in imagery.
b. neglect occurred in imagery such that some objects in the plaza were never
reported.
c. neglect occurred in imagery so that the patient, imagining the walk from
one direction and neglecting the left side of the plaza, was then unable to
imagine walking the plaza from the other direction.
d. neglect always occurred on the left side of the image, with “left side”
being determined by the direction in which the patient imagined he was
walking.

83. Clive Wearing, the ex-choral director, experienced what memory problem?
a. Poor implicit memory
b. Defective sensory memory
c. An inability to form new long-term memories
d. Both a and b are correct

84. The three structural components of the modal model of memory are
a. receptors, occipital lobe, temporal lobe.
b. receptors, temporal lobe, frontal lobe.
c. sensory memory, short-term memory, long-term memory.
d. sensory memory, iconic memory, rehearsal.

85. Information remains in sensory memory for

a. seconds or a fraction of a second.
b. 15-30 seconds.
c. 1-3 minutes.
d. as long as it is rehearsed.

86. When light from a flashlight is moved quickly back and forth on a wall in a
darkened room, it can appear to observers that there is a trail of light moving
across the wall, even though physically the light is only in one place at any given
time. This experience is an effect of memory that occurs because of
a. a visual delay effect.
b. echoic memory.
c. persistence of vision.
d. top-down processing.
87. Compared to the whole-report technique, the partial-report procedure involves
a. a smaller stimulus set.
b. a smaller response set.
c. a smaller stimulus set and a smaller response set.
d. a shorter rehearsal period.

88. Jill's friends tell her they think she has a really good memory. She finds this
interesting so she decides to purposefully test her memory. Jill receives a list of
to-do tasks each day at work. Usually, she checks off each item as the day
progresses, but this week, she is determined to memorize the to-do lists. On
Monday, Jill is proud to find that she remembers 95 percent of the tasks without
referring to the list. On Tuesday, her memory drops to 80 percent, and by Thurs-
day, she is dismayed to see her performance has declined to 20 percent. Jill does
not realize that she is demonstrating a natural mechanism of memory known as
a. short-term memory.
b. episodic buffering.
c. chunking.
d. proactive interference.

89. If basketball legend Shaquille O'Neal wanted to remember his 16-digit credit card
number, which of the following memory techniques would you recommend?
a. He should think of the numbers as a sequence of basketball statistics.
b. He should picture each of the numbers in his head printed in a bright
color.
c. He should first memorize a few other sequences of 16 digits to gain some
practice.
d. He should visualize the front of his credit card showing a picture of him
dribbling a basket-ball.

90. If a person has a digit span of two, this indicates that he has _____ memory.
a. poor sensory
b. poor short-term
c. normal sensory
d. normal short-term

91. The “magic number,” according to Miller, is

a. 7 and 11.
b. 5 plus 2.
c. 7 plus or minus 2.
d. lucky 13.
92. Lamar has just gotten a new job and is attending a company party where he will
meet his colleagues for the first time. His boss escorts him around to small groups
 to introduce him. At the first group, Lamar meets four people and is told only
their first names. The same thing happens with a second group and a third group.
At the fourth group, Lamar is told their names and that one of the women in the
group is the company accountant. A little while later, Lamar realizes that he only
remembers the names of the people in the first group, though he also remembers
the profession of the last woman he met (the accountant). Lamar’s experience
demonstrates
a. The phonological similarity effect
b. A build-up and release of proactive interference
c. The cocktail party phenomenon
d. A partial-report procedure

93. Suppose you have been studying your French vocabulary words for several hours
and are making many mistakes. You switch to reviewing the new terms for your
upcoming biology test, and your performance is noticeably better. You are
experiencing
a. the self-reference effect.
b. retroactive inhibition.
c. release from proactive interference.
d. disinhibition.

94. Observations that participants could do two tasks at once, such as focusing on a
digit-span task while comprehending a paragraph, challenged the
conceptualization of
a. the phonological similarity effect.
b. short-term memory.
c. the persistence of vision.
d. the physiological approach to coding.

95. Imagine yourself walking from your car, bus stop, or dorm to your first class.
Your ability to form such a picture in your mind depends on
a. the STM recency effect.
b. delayed response coding.
c. the phonological loop.
d. the visuospatial sketch pad.

96. Have you ever tried to think of the words and hum the melody of one song while
the radio is playing a different song? People have often noted that this is very
difficult to do. This difficulty can be understood as
a. articulatory suppression.
 b. an overload of sensory memory.
c. rehearsal interference.
d. an LTM recency effect.

97. The episodic buffer directly connects to which two components in Baddley's
model of memory?
a. The phonological loop and the visuospatial sketchpad
b. The central executive and long-term memory
c. The central executive and the phonological loop
d. The phonological loop and long-term memory

98. Physiological studies indicate that damage to the area of the brain known as the
_____ can disrupt behaviors that depend on working memory.
a. prefrontal cortex
b. amygdala
c. hippocampus
d. occipital lobe

99. The inability to assimilate or retain new knowledge is known as

a. anterograde amnesia.
b. retrograde amnesia.
c. the primacy effect.
d. the serial effect.

100. Loss of memory for things that have happened in the past is known as
a. anterograde amnesia.
b. retrograde amnesia.
c. the primacy effect.
d. the serial effect.

101. When investigating the serial position curve, presenting the word list at a
slower pace
a. has no effect on the curve.
b. increases the primacy effect.
c. decreases the recency effect.
d. increases both the primacy and the recency effects.

102. The recency effect occurs when participants are asked to recall a list of
words. One way to get rid of the recency effect is to
a. have participants say “la, la, la” while studying the list.
b. present the list more slowly.
 c. have participants count backwards for 30 seconds after hearing the last
word of the list.
d. have participants see the words on a screen, rather than hear them.

103. The dramatic case of patient H.M. clearly illustrates that ____ is crucial
for the formation of LTMs.
a. the hippocampus
b. synaptic consolidation
c. vitamin B1
d. deep processing

104. The predominant type of coding in LTM is

a. phonological.
b. concrete.
c. semantic.
d. visual.

105. We are conscious of _____ memories.

a. implicit
b. procedural
c. declarative
d. all of the above

106. Two types of declarative memory are _____ and _____ memory.
a. semantic; implicit
b. implicit; episodic
c. episodic; semantic
d. procedural; episodic

107. Which of the following is an example of a semantic memory?

a. I remember my earth science teacher telling me how volcanoes erupt.
b. I remember seeing a volcano erupt in Hawaii last summer.
c. I remember the big island of Hawaii has many active volcanoes.
d. I remember “volcano” was the first word on the list Juan read to me.

108. K.C., who was injured in a motorcycle accident, remembers facts like the
difference between a strike and a spare in bowling, but he is unaware of
experiencing things like hearing about the circumstances of his brother's death,
which occurred two years before the accident. His memory behavior suggests
a. intact semantic memory but defective episodic memory.
 b. intact procedural memory but defective semantic memory.
c. intact episodic memory but defective semantic memory.
d. intact episodic memory but defective procedural memory.

109. Knowing the capital of California, but not being able to remember when
you first learned it, is an example of how
a. semantic memory can bias episodic memory.
b. episodic memory can be a “gateway” to semantic memory.
c. semantic memories are easier to form than episodic memories.
d. episodic memories last longer than semantic memories.

110. In the movie Groundhog Day, Bill Murray's character grows frustrated as
he experiences the same day in his life over and over again. With each "passing"
day, he is able to respond to people's actions more and more quickly because of
a. repetition priming.
b. distributed practice.
c. reconsolidation.
d. mental time travel.

111. Jocelyn is in an experiment where she is presented words representing

categories. She is presented the word "furniture" in an earlier trial, which makes it
easier for her later to recall the word "chair" because of the similarity of meaning.
Jocelyn's memory enhancement for "chair" due to seeing the word "furniture"
illustrates
a. repetition priming.
b. conceptual priming.
c. reconsolidation.
d. mental time travel.

112. Acquiring information and transforming it into memory is

a. state-dependent learning.
b. encoding.
c. memory consolidation.
d. transfer-appropriate processing.

113. Elaborative rehearsal of a word will LEAST likely be accomplished by

a. repeating it over and over.
b. linking the new word to a previously learned concept.
c. using it in a sentence.
d. thinking of its synonyms and antonyms.
114. Elementary school students in the U.S. are often taught to use the very
familiar word “HOMES” as a cue for remembering the names of the Great Lakes
(each letter in “HOMES” provides a first-letter cue for one of the lakes: Huron,
Ontario, Michigan, Erie, Superior). This memory procedure usually works better
than repeating the names over and over, which provides an example of
a. a self-reference effect.
b. repetition priming.
c. implicit memory.
d. elaborative rehearsal.

115. Which of the following learning techniques is LEAST likely to lead to

deep processing of the information?
a. Trevor is trying to understand how to use statistics by drawing
associations between a set of data describing how adolescents respond to peer
pressure and the theories he learned last semester in developmental
psychology.
b. Maggie is trying to learn new vocabulary words because she is taking the
SAT next month. Each day, she selects one word. Throughout the day, she
repeats the definition over and over to herself and generates sentences using it
in her conversations that day.
c. Bree has just bought a new car and is trying to learn her new license plate
sequence. Every morning, for three weeks, she repeats the sequence out loud
when she wakes up.
d. For his history course, Bruce is trying to learn the order of the U.S.
presidents by creating a silly sentence where each consecutive word starts
with the same letter of the next president to be remembered.

116. In Slameka and Graf's (1978) study, some participants read word pairs,
while other participants had to fill in the blank letters of the second word in a pair
with a word related to the first word. The latter group performed better on a later
memory task, illustrating the
a. spacing effect.
b. generation effect.
c. cued recall effect.
d. multiple trace hypothesis.
117. Which example below best demonstrates state-dependent learning?
a. Last night, at the grocery store, Cole ran into a psychology professor he
took a class with three semesters ago. He recognized her right away.
b. Even though Walt hasn’t been to the beach cottage his parents owned
since he was a child, he still has many fond memories of time spent there
 as a family.
c. Although Emily doesn’t very often think about her first love, Steve, she
can’t help getting caught up in happy memories when “their song” (the
first song they danced to) plays on the radio.
d. Alexis always suffers test anxiety in her classes. To combat this, she tries
to relax when she studies. She thinks it’s best to study while lying in bed,
reading by candlelight with soft music playing.

118. Katie and Inez are roommates taking the same psychology class. They
have a test in four days during a 10:00 - 11:00 AM class period. Both women
intend to study for three hours, but because of different work schedules, Katie will
study one hour for each of the next three days, while Inez will study three hours
the day before the exam. What could you predict about their performances?
a. Katie and Inez should perform equally well, because each studied the
same time overall (supporting the equal-time hypothesis).
b. Inez will perform better because of a long-term memory recency effect.
c. Katie should perform better because of the spacing effect.
d. State-dependent learning predicts that Katie should perform better,
because the exam takes place during a one-hour class period.

119. Students, beware! Research shows that _____ does not improve reading
comprehension because it does not encourage elaborative processing of the
material.
a. organization
b. highlighting
c. making up questions about the material
d. feedback

120. The author of your text makes a suggestion that students should study in a
variety of places. This suggestion is based on research showing that people
remember material better if they learned it in a number of different locations,
compared to studying the same amount of time in one location. The suggestion
solves a problem raised by
a. the encoding specificity principle.
b. the spacing effect.
c. levels of processing.
d. the distributed practice effect.

121. The standard model of consolidation proposes that the hippocampus is

a. strongly active for both new memories as they are being consolidated and
memories for events that occurred long ago and are already consolidated.
b. strongly active for long-ago memories that are already consolidated but
becomes less active when memories are first formed and being consolidated.
 c. strongly active when memories are first formed and being consolidated but
becomes less active when retrieving older memories that are already
consolidated.
d. uninvolved in memory consolidation.

122. _______ cues help us remember information that has been stored in
memory.
a. Retrograde
b. Encoding
c. Retrieval
d. Processing

123. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates how effective or

ineffective maintenance rehearsal is in transferring information into LTM?
a. Lilia recalls her grandmother’s house where she grew up, even though she
hasn’t been there for 22 years.
b. Ben learned his martial arts moves by making up “short stories” and
mental images to describe each movement.
c. Renee starred in the lead role of her high school play a few years ago.
Although she helped write the play and based her character on her own life,
she cannot remember many of the actual lines of dialogue anymore.
d. Serena’s keys were stolen from her purse. She cannot give a detailed
description of her key-chain to the police, even though she used it every day
for three years.

124. Memory for a word will tend to be better if the word is used in a complex
sentence (like “the bicycle was blue, with high handlebars and a racing seat”)
rather than a simple sentence (like “he rode the bicycle”). This probably occurs
because the complex sentence
a. causes more rehearsal.
b. takes longer to process.
c. creates more connections.
d. is more interesting.

125. Jeannie loves to dance, having taken ballet for many years. She is now
learning salsa dancing. Although the movements are very different from the
dances she is familiar with, she has found a successful memory strategy of linking
the new dance information to her previous experiences as a dancer and to her own
affection for dance. This strategy suggests reliance on
a. the self-reference effect.
 b. a mass practice effect.
c. the integrative experience effect.
d. semantic memory.

126. Free recall of the stimulus list “apple, desk, shoe, sofa, plum, chair, cherry,
coat, lamp, pants” will most likely yield which of these response patterns?
a. “apple, desk, shoe, coat, lamp, pants”
b. “apple, desk, shoe, sofa, plum, chair, cherry, coat, lamp, pants”
c. “apple, cherry, plum, shoe, coat, lamp, chair, pants”
d. “apple, chair, cherry, coat, desk, lamp, plum, shoe, sofa”

127. Jenkins and Russell presented a list of words like “chair, apple, dish, shoe,
cherry, sofa” to participants. In a test, participants recalled the words in a different
order than the order in which they were originally presented. This result occurred
because of the
a. tendency of objects in the same category to become organized.
b. effect of proactive interference.
c. way objects like dishes and shoes are encoded visually.
d. way the phonological loop reorganizes information based on sound during
rehearsal.

128. Mantyla’s “banana / yellow, bunches, edible” experiment demonstrates

that, for best memory performance, retrieval cues should be created
a. by agreement among many people, thus providing proof they are effective.
b. by a memory expert who understands what makes cues effective.
c. using visual images.
d. by the person whose memory will be tested.

129. The principle that we learn information together with its context is known
as
a. memory consolidation.
b. repetition priming.
c. encoding specificity.
d. a self-reference effect.
130. Transfer-appropriate processing is likely to occur if
a. the person (remember-er) generates his/her own retrieval cues.
b. the type of encoding and type of retrieval match.
c. there is deep processing during acquisition of the new material.
d. imagery is used to create connections among items to be transferred into
LTM.
131. According to levels of processing theory, deep processing results in better
memory. However, studies have shown that shallow processing can result in
better memory when the individual encodes _____ and is tested _____.
a. semantically; auditorially
b. auditorially; auditorially
c. auditorially; semantically
d. semantically; visually

132. Graded amnesia occurs because

a. remote memories are more fragile than recent memories.
b. recent memories are more fragile than remote memories.
c. emotional memories are more fragile than nonemotional memories.
d. nonemotional memories are more fragile than emotional memories.

133. Wilma is a famous chef. Since she does not like to share her secret family
recipes, she does not write down her special creations, which makes it difficult to
remember their ingredients. To aid her memory, she has created a unique “mental
walk” that she takes to recall each recipe. For each one, she has a familiar “route”
she can imagine walking through (e.g., from the end of her driveway to her living
room) where she places each item in the recipe somewhere along the way (e.g.,
Tabasco sauce splattered on the front door). By doing so, Wilma is using _____ to
organize her memories.
a. mental synthesis
b. paired-associate learning
c. the pegword technique
d. method of loci

134. Asking people to recall the most influential events that happened during
their college careers show that ____ in people's lives appear to be particularly
memorable.
a. peer-group experiences
b. academic challenges
c. the sophomore year
d. transition points

135. Your text argues that the proper procedure for measuring the accuracy of
flashbulb memories is
a. source monitoring.
b. scripting.
c. repeated recall.
d. pre-cueing.
136. The observation that older adults often become nostalgic for the “good old
days” reflects the self-image hypothesis, which states that
a. life in a society gets more complicated and difficult as generations pass.
b. memory for life events is enhanced during the time we assume our life
identities.
c. people tend to remember more of the positive events in their lives than
negative ones.
d. our memories change as we live longer and have more “lifetime periods”
to draw events from.

137. Flashbulb memory is best represented by which of the following

statements?
a. It is vivid memory for emotional events.
b. It is vivid, highly accurate memory for the circumstances surrounding how
a person heard about an emotional event.
c. It is memory for the circumstances surrounding how a person heard about
an emotional event that remains especially vivid but not necessarily
accurate over time.
d. It is vivid, highly accurate memory for emotional events.

138. A lesson to be learned from the research on flashbulb memories is that

a. rehearsal cannot account for them.
b. people’s confidence in a memory predicts its accuracy (high confidence =
high accuracy).
c. extreme vividness of a memory does not mean it is accurate.
d. they are permanent and resist forgetting.

139. The “telephone game” is often played by children. One child creates a
story and whispers it to a second child, who does the same to a third child, and so
on. When the last child recites the story to the group, his or her reproduction of
the story is generally shorter than the original and contains many omissions and
inaccuracies. This game shows how memory is a ______ process.
a. life-narrative
b. narrative-rehearsal
c. consequentiality based
d. constructive

140. In the “War of the Ghosts” experiment, participants’ reproductions

contained inaccuracies based on
a. narrative rehearsal.
b. source misattributions.
c. cultural expectations.
d. shallow processing.

141. Unconscious plagiarism of the work of others is known as

 a. narrative rehearsal.
b. cryptomnesia.
c. repeated reproduction.
d. repeated recall.

142. Wei has allergy symptoms. He has gone to his regular doctor and an
allergy specialist, but he wasn’t given a prescription by either doctor. Instead, he
was advised to buy any over-the-counter medicine. While he was in the
specialist’s waiting area, he read a magazine where he saw three ads for an allergy
medicine called SneezeLess. A week later, in a drug store, Wei says to his
brother, “My doctor says SneezeLess works great. I’ll buy that one.” Wei and his
doctor never discussed SneezeLess. Wei has fallen victim to which of the
following errors?
a. MPI
b. Recovered memory
c. Schema confusion
d. Source monitoring

143. Jacoby’s experiment, in which participants made judgments about whether

they had previously seen the names of famous and non-famous people, found that
inaccurate memories based on source misattributions occurred after a delay of
a. one week.
b. 24 hours.
c. one hour.
d. one month.

144. The experiment for which people were asked to make fame judgments for
both famous and non-famous names (and for which Sebastian Weissdorf was one
of the names to be remembered) illustrated the effect of _____ on memory.
a. repeated rehearsal of distinctive names
b. source misattributions
c. encoding specificity
d. schemas

145. Arkes and Freedman’s “baseball game” experiment asked participants to

indicate whether the following sentence was present in a passage they had
previously read about events in a game: “The batter was safe at first.” Their
findings showed inaccurate memories involved
a. omissions of information that was presented.
b. participants who did not understand baseball and assumed more
information was presented than actually was.
c. creations from inferences based on baseball knowledge.
d. confusions about presented information when it was ambiguous.
146. ____ occurs when more recent learning impairs memory for something
that happened further back in the past.
a. Reminiscent memory
b. Pragmatic inference
c. Feature integration
d. Retroactive interference

147. The sleep list experiment, in which many people misremember the word
"sleep" as being part of a list of words, is an example of
a. a repeated recall error.
b. a disadvantage of memory's constructive nature.
c. misleading postevent information's influence on memory.
d. retroactive interference.

148. Loftus and Palmer’s “car-crash slides” experiment described in the text
shows how a seemingly minor word change can produce a change in a person’s
memory report. In this study, the MPI was (were) the word(s)
a. “fast.”
b. “smashed.”
c. “miles per hour.”
d. “car crash

149. The misinformation effect can be explained by

a. the memory-trace replacement hypothesis.
b. retroactive interference.
c. source monitoring.
d. all of these

150. Tim found that studying for his Spanish exam made it more difficult to
remember some of the vocabulary words he had just studied for his French exam
earlier in the day. This is an example of
a. retroactive interference.
b. a life-narrative confusion.
c. memory-trace replacement.
d. a simultaneous presentation effect.

151. Critics of eyewitness testimony could point to the ______ hypothesis to

highlight the dangers of repeated questioning of eyewitnesses.
a. narrative-rehearsal
b. cognitive
c. memory-trace replacement
d. confabulation

152. The “wedding reception” false memory experiment shows that false
memories can be explained as a product of familiarity and
 a. retroactive interference.
b. consequentiality.
c. source misattribution.
d. confabulation.

153. Research on eyewitness testimony has shown that the more confident the
person giving the testimony is of their memories,
a. the more accurate the memories are.
b. the more convincing the testimony is to a jury.
c. the more likely they are to be influenced by a weapons focus.
d. the more accurate the memories are and the more convincing the
testimony is to a jury.

154. Research on eyewitness testimony reveals that

a. highly confident eyewitnesses are usually accurate.
b. it is unnecessary to warn an eyewitness that a suspect may or may not be
in a lineup.
c. when viewing a lineup, an eyewitness’s confidence in her choice of the
suspect can be increased by an authority’s confirmation of her choice,
even when the choice is wrong.
d. all of the above

155. Which of the following statements is true of police lineups?

a. A sequential lineup increases the chance that the witness compares people
in the lineup to each other.
b. A simultaneous lineup decreases the chance of falsely identifying an
innocent person as the perpetrator.
c. A sequential lineup increases the chance that the witness will make a
relative judgment about all the suspects they saw.
d. A sequential lineup increases the chance that the witness compares each
person in the lineup to his or her memory of the event.

156. Which of the following statements is true of the cognitive interview

technique?
a. Police ask witnesses questions and have them rate their confidence level in
their recollections.
b. Police offer positive reinforcement to witnesses (e.g., "Good, that makes
sense.") when the witnesses give information consistent with what is in the
police file.
c. Police allow witnesses to talk with a minimum of interruption from the
officer.
 d. Police start their interview with simple filler questions to make the
witnesses feel comfortable.

157. A(n) ____ is a mental representation used for a variety of cognitive

functions, including memory, reasoning, and using and understanding language.
a. exemplar
b. concept
c. unit
d. prototype

158. Jackie went to the grocery store to pick up yogurt, bread, and apples. First,
she picked up a hand basket for carrying her groceries, and then she searched the
store. After finding what she needed, she stood in a check-out line. Then, the
cashier put her items in a plastic bag, and soon after, Jackie left the store. As
readers of this event, we understand that Jackie paid for the groceries, even
though it wasn’t mentioned, because we are relying on a grocery store _____ that
is stored in _______ long-term memory.
a. script; semantic
b. narrative; episodic
c. script; episodic
d. narrative; semantic

159. Not all of the members of everyday categories have the same features.
Most fish have gills, fins, and scales. Sharks lack the feature of scales, yet they
are still categorized as fish. This poses a problem for the _______ approach to
categorization.
a. prototype
b. exemplar
c. definitional
d. family resemblance

160. The definitional approach to categorization

a. is not well suited for geometrical objects but works for familiar everyday
objects.
b. sets definite criteria called family resemblances that all category members
must have.
c. doesn’t work well for most natural objects like birds, trees, and plants.
d. was proposed to replace the prototype approach.
161. The principle illustrated when most people are able to recognize a variety
of examples of chairs even though no one category member may have all of the
characteristic properties of “chairs” (e.g., most chairs have four legs but not all
do) is
a. family resemblance.
b. prototypicality.
c. graded membership.
d. instance theory.

162. The prototype approach to categorization states that a standard

representation of a category is based on
a. the definition of the category.
b. a universal set of category members.
c. a defined set of category members.
d. category members that have been encountered in the past.

163. Olin and Bob are neighbors. Olin loves birds and his father works for the
zoo. He has been to a dozen bird sanctuaries, and he and his dad go on bird
watching hikes once a month. In contrast, Bob doesn’t think much about birds.
His only contact with them is in his backyard. It would be correct to say that
Olin's standard probably involves
a. more prototypes than Bob’s.
b. more exemplars than Bob’s.
c. more prototypes and more exemplars than Bob’s.
d. the same prototypes and exemplars as Bob’s.

164. A task for determining how prototypical an object is would be

a. a fill-in-the-blank task where participants generate paired members within
a category.
b. a task where participants rate the extent to which each member represents
the category title.
c. a task where participants rate the extent to which category members
resemble one another.
d. a fill-in-the-blank task where participants generate the category
classification for a list of members.

165. Priming occurs when presentation of one stimulus

a. disrupts the processing of another stimulus.
b. acts as a cue that tells the participant when his or her response was correct.
c. facilitates the response to another stimulus.
d. relates to a prototype.

166. According to the typicality effect,

a. objects in a category have a family resemblance to one another.
b. objects that are not typical stand out and so are more easily remembered.
 c. items that are high in prototypicality are judged more rapidly as being in a
group.
d. we remember typical objects better than non-typical objects.

167. If you say that “a Labrador retriever is my idea of a typical dog,” you
would be using the _____ approach to categorization.
a. exemplar
b. definitional
c. family resemblance
d. prototype

168. According to Rosch, the ____ level of categories is the psychologically

"privileged" level of category that reflects people's everyday experience.
a. superordinate
b. prototypical
c. basic
d. subordinate

169. Imagine that a young child is just learning about the category “dog.” Thus
far, she has experienced only two dogs, one a small poodle and the other a large
German shepherd. On her third encounter with a dog, she will be LEAST likely to
correctly categorize the animal as a dog if that animal
a. matches the size of the poodle but is of a different breed.
b. is a dog that does not bark.
c. matches an exemplar of one of the dogs she has experienced.
d. is similar to an “average” for the dogs she has encountered.

170. Research suggests that the _____ approach to categorization works best
for small categories (e.g., U.S. presidents).
a. semantic network
b. definitional
c. prototype
d. exemplar

171. Rosch found that participants respond more rapidly in a same-different

task when presented with “good” examples of colors such as “red” and “green”
than when they are presented with “poor” examples such as “pink” or “light
green.” The result of this experiment was interpreted as supporting the _____
approach to categorization.
a. exemplar
b. prototype
c. network
d. parallel processing
172. People playing the parlor game “20 Questions” often use hierarchical
organization strategies. One player asks up to 20 yes/no questions to determine
the identity of an object another player has selected. The player’s questions
usually start as general and get more specific as the player approaches a likely
guess. Initial questions asked by a player are often one of three questions: “Is it
an animal?” “Is it a vegetable?” and “Is it a mineral?” Each of these three
questions describes which level of categorization?
a. Typical
b. Basic
c. Subordinate
d. Superordinate

173. According to the text, jumping from _______ categories results in the
largest gain in information.
a. superordinate level to basic level
b. basic level to subordinate level
c. subordinate level to basic level
d. basic level to superordinate level

174. Which of the following represents a basic level item?

a. Musical instrument
b. Guitar
c. Rock guitar
d. Paul McCartney’s bass guitar

175. Rosch and coworkers conducted an experiment in which participants were

shown a category label, like car or vehicle, and then, after a brief delay, saw a
picture. The participants’ task was to indicate as rapidly as possible whether the
picture was a member of the category. Their results showed
a. the priming effect was most robust for superordinate level categories.
b. the priming effect was most robust for basic level categories.
c. no measurable priming effect.
d. the priming effect was the same for superordinate and basic level
categories.

176. If we were conducting an experiment on the effect knowledge has on

categorization, we might compare the results of expert and non-expert groups.
Suppose we compare horticulturalists to people with little knowledge about
plants. If we asked the groups to name, as specifically as possible, five different
plants seen around campus, we would predict that the expert group would
primarily label plants on the _____ level, while the non-expert group would
primarily label plants on the _____ level.
a. superordinate; subordinate
b. superordinate; basic
c. subordinate; basic
 d. basic; subordinate

177. How is cognitive economy represented in the following example? The

property _____ is stored at the _____ node.
a. can fly; bird
b. can fly; canary
c. has feathers; ostrich
d. bird; penguin

178. The semantic network model predicts that the time it takes for a person to
retrieve information about a concept should be determined by
a. the amount of information contained in each concept.
b. the distance that must be traveled through the network.
c. the typicality of the information contained in each concept.
d. the representativeness of the information contained in each concept.

179. Which of the following is NOT associated with the semantic network
model?
a. Family resemblance
b. Hierarchical organization
c. Cognitive economy
d. Spreading activation

180. Learning takes place in a connectionist network through a process of

_____ in which an error signal is transmitted from output units towards the input
units.
a. graceful degradation
b. error verification
c. spreading activation
d. back propagation

181. One beneficial property of connectionist networks is graceful degradation,

which refers to the property that
a. these networks learn by a process that is analogous to the way a child
learns about the world by making mistakes and being corrected.
b. learning a new concept does not interfere with remembering a previously
learned concept.
c. damage to the system does not completely disrupt its operation.
d. learning can be generalized between similar concepts to facilitate future
learning.
 182. Which of the following reaction time data sets illustrate the typicality
effect for the bird cate-gory, given the following three trials?
(NOTE: Read data sets as RTs for Trial 1: Trial 2: Trial 3)

Trial 1: An owl is a bird.

Trial 2: A penguin is a bird.
Trial 3: A sparrow is a bird.

a. 583: 518: 653 msec

b. 518: 583: 653 msec
c. 583: 653: 518 msec
d. 653: 583: 518 msec

183. Ill-defined problems are so named because it is difficult to specify _____

for the problems.
a. analogies
b. initial states
c. a single correct answer
d. schemas

184. Gestalt psychologists consider problem solving as a process involving

a. restructuring.
b. multiple goal states.
c. sensory operators.
d. continuity and form.

185. Insight refers to

a. prior learning facilitating problem solving.
b. prior learning hindering problem solving.
c. the tendency to respond in a certain manner, based on past experience.
d. the sudden realization of a problem’s solution.

186. Metcalfe and Wiebe gave participants problems to solve and asked them
to make “warmth” judgments every 15 seconds to indicate how close they felt
they were to a solution. The purpose of this experiment was to
a. demonstrate a difference between how people solve insight and non-
insight problems.
b. show how people progress through the problem space as they solve a
problem.
c. show that some problems are easier to solve than others.
d. measure the time-course of solving well-defined versus ill-defined
problems.
187. Warmth judgments on nearness to a solution ____ prior to the solution of
an insight problem and ____ prior to the solution of a non-insight problem.
a. gradually rise; gradually rise
b. gradually rise; rise suddenly just
c. rise suddenly just; gradually rise
d. vary unpredictably; vary unpredictably

188. Holly was in her mother-in-law’s kitchen preparing lunch for the family.
When she was ready to dish up the soup, she searched all the cupboards and
drawers for a ladle but couldn’t find one. She decided to wait until her mother-in-
law returned to ask her where the ladle was, leaving the soup in the stove pot. Her
mother-in-law later explained that the ladle had been broken, so she told Holly to
use a coffee mug to “spoon” the soup into bowls. Holly’s ability to solve the “dish
up the soup” problem was hindered by which of the following obstacles?
a. Discriminability
b. Perseveration
c. Divergent thinking
d. Functional fixedness

189. The solution to the candle problem involves realizing that the
a. match box can be used as a container for tacks.
b. match box can be used as a shelf.
c. candle can be cut in half.
d. candle can be oriented horizontally or diagonally.

190. The water-jug problem demonstrates that one consequence of having a

procedure that does provide a solution to a problem is that, if well-learned, it may
prevent us from
a. seeing more efficient solutions to the problem.
b. being able to solve other problems at all.
c. understanding why the procedure works successfully.
d. discriminating between well- and ill-defined problems.

191. Amber lives in a housing development between two parallel streets that
both connect to a freeway. She usually takes the street to the south when heading
southbound on the freeway to work, but that street is closed for repairs for three
months. Amber takes the street to the north during that time. After the street to the
south is re-opened, she continues to take the street to the north, even though it is a
slightly longer route. Continuing to take the street to the north represents
a. a single dissociation.
b. a source problem.
c. a mental set.
d. convergent thinking.
192. The information processing approach describes problem solving as a
process involving
a. design fixation.
b. creative cognition.
c. insight.
d. search.

193. The Tower of Hanoi problem is an example of a(n) ____ problem that has
been analyzed using the ____ approach.
a. ill-defined; Gestalt
b. ill-defined; information processing
c. well-defined; Gestalt
d. well-defined; information processing

194. It is difficult to apply means-end analysis to an insight problem because it

is difficult to define ____ for an insight problem.
a. an initial state
b. operators
c. a goal state
d. intermediate states

195. The typical purpose of subgoals is to

a. solve insight problems.
b. move the solver directly from the initial state to the goal state.
c. bring the problem solver closer and closer to the goal state.
d. avoid the need to perform means-end analysis.

196. The analogy that makes the solution to the mutilated checkerboard
problem obvious is the ____ problem.
a. lightbulb
b. Tower of Hanoi
c. radiation
d. Russian marriage

197. Gick and Holyoak consider which of the following to be the most difficult
step to achieve in the process of analogical problem solving?
a. Noticing that there is an analogous relationship between problems because
most participants need prompting before they notice a connection
b. Mapping corresponding parts between the problems because the elements
are difficult to identify
c. Applying the mapping to generate a parallel solution because of the
difficulty in generalizing from one problem to another
d. Solving the problem through reorganization because past experience can
make it more difficult to reorganize a problem
 198. Considering the fortress and the radiation problems together, the fortress
problem represents the _____ problem.
a. source
b. target
c. exemplar
d. prototype

199. Dr. Curious is doing a follow-up study to the mutilated checkerboard

problem experiment. In this new study, participants solve the following shoe
problem before tackling the checkerboard problem. By doing this, Dr. Curious is
studying the effect of _____ on problem solving.
The shoe problem: A first-grade class is using a trampoline in gym class, so all the children
have removed their shoes, which are all jumbled in a large pile. One of the students, Miguel,
is leaving early, so the teacher tells him to grab his shoes and report to the lobby. In his
hurry, Miguel grabs two identical left-footed, size 6 red sneakers and runs to his mother still
sock-footed. Will the remaining students be able to shoe-up with the remaining shoes without
getting a foot-ache?
a. analogies
b. anaphoric interference
c. perceptual segregation
d. divergent thinking

200. The fortress problem involves a fortress and marching soldiers, while the
radiation problem involves a tumor and rays. Therefore, the two problems have
very different
a. surface features.
b. operators.
c. structural features.
d. mental sets.

201. In its discussion of expertise and problem solving, your text identifies the
kind of scientists who are most likely to make revolutionary discoveries in their
fields. This particular discussion suggests that _____ may be more important than
_____ in creative thinking.
a. experience; structure
b. structure; experience
c. flexibility; experience
d. experience; flexibility
202. If you are given the information that in order to vote in a presidential
election, you must be at least 18 years of age, and that Will voted in the last
presidential election, you can logically conclude that Will is at least 18 years old.
This is an example of using _____ reasoning.
a. inductive
b. deductive
c. conjunctive
d. descriptive

203. Making probable conclusions based on evidence involves _____

reasoning.
a. deductive
b. syllogistic
c. inductive
d. connective

204. A syllogism is valid if

a. the conclusion follows logically from the two premises.
b. the two premises and the conclusion are true.
c. there is evidence to support the two premises.
d. there is no more than one exception to the conclusion.

205. If it is raining, then I will take my umbrella. It is not raining. Therefore, I

didn’t take my umbrella.
This syllogism is an example of
a. denying the antecedent.
b. denying the consequent.
c. affirming the antecedent.
d. affirming the consequent.

206. Mr. Huff always passes back exams to his algebra class in descending
order (the highest grade is handed out first). Today, Maddelyn was the first to
receive her exam. Joy complained, re-marking, “Maddelyn, you always get the
highest grade in algebra. It was true all last year and so far this year.” Maddelyn
was not sure if this was correct. To figure out if this was true, Maddelyn should
a. search her memory for instances when she did get her exam back first and
for instances when she did not.
b. search her memory for instances when she did not get her exam back first.
c. search her memory for instances when she did get her exam back first.
d. wait until the next exam is passed back to see if she gets hers back first.
207. According to your text, the key to solving the Wason four-card problem is
a. a mental model.
b. a categorical syllogism.
c. the law of large numbers.
d. the falsification principle.

208. The rule of the Wason four-card problem is, "If there is a vowel on one
side, then there is an even number on the other side." Let's say you are presented
with A, 8, M, and 13, each showing on one of four cards. To see if the rule is
valid, you would have to turn over the cards showing
a. 8 and M.
b. A and M.
c. A and 13.
d. 8 and 13.

209. The application of a(n) ____ makes it easier to solve the "drinking beer"
version of the Wason problem.
a. conjunction rule
b. permission schema
c. atmosphere effect
d. availability heuristic

210. Which concept below is most closely associated with the evolutionary
perspective to solving the Wason four-card problem?
a. Permission schemas
b. Falsification principle
c. Social-exchange theory
d. Availability heuristic

211. The evolutionary approach proposes that the Wason problem can be
understood in terms of people's
a. innate language abilities.
b. ability to work well with a group of others.
c. innate reasoning abilities.
d. ability to detect cheaters.

212. Inductive reasoning involves

a. definite conclusions.
b. logical certainty.
c. factual premises.
d. observational premises.
213. Bonnie has ordered her monthly supply of medicines through the mail for
the past five years. Except for one order, all orders have arrived within two
business days. Bonnie placed an order yesterday, and she expects to receive her
order tomorrow. Bonnie is using
a. an omission bias.
b. inductive reasoning.
c. the conjunction rule.
d. the similarity-coverage model.

214. Stereotypes are reinforced by all of the following EXCEPT

a. the availability heuristic.
b. illusory correlations.
c. selective attention.
d. the falsification principle.

215. At a lunch meeting with a client, the CEO of Gossip Polls, Inc., was asked
to determine America’s favorite day of the week. Hundreds of Gossip employees
across the U.S. started collecting data immediately, calling people at their
residences. One hour later, the attitudes from 10,000 Americans, across all 50
states, were collected. A staff member called the CEO, still at her lunch meeting,
to tell her the results of the poll: America’s favorite day of the week is Monday.
Given your text’s discussion of inductive reasoning in science, we might suspect
that the observations in this poll are not representative because
a. the participants were only asked one question for this poll.
b. the participants were not sufficiently geographically diverse.
c. the people who are home to answer the phone in the early afternoon are
not an appropriate cross-section of the U.S. population.
d. everyone in America was not asked their opinion.

216. Derrick purchased a new car, a Ford Mustang, less than a month ago.
While sitting in traffic, Derrick says to his girlfriend, “Mustangs must be the best-
selling car now. I can’t remember seeing as many on the road as I have recently.”
Derrick’s judgment is most likely biased by a(n)
a. atmosphere effect.
b. availability heuristic.
c. focusing illusion.
d. permission schema.

217. Gabrielle is blonde, extremely attractive, and lives in an expensive condo.

If we judge the probability of Gabrielle's being a model quite high because she
resembles our stereotype of a model, we are using
 a. the representative heuristic.
b. the availability heuristic.
c. framing.
d. the law of small numbers.

218. Imagine that your friend James has just taken up the habit of smoking
cigars because he thinks it makes him look cool. You are concerned about the
detrimental effects of smoking on his health, and you raise that concern to him.
James gets a bit annoyed with your criticism and says “George Burns smoked
cigars, and he lived to be 100!” You might point out that a major problem with his
“George Burns” argument involves
a. framing.
b. the conjunction rule.
c. sample size.
d. none of these

219. Utility refers to

a. outcomes that achieve a person's goals.
b. how useful a reasoning process is.
c. the validity of a syllogism.
d. degree of risk aversion one has.

220. If a motorcycle cop believes that young female drivers speed more than
other drivers, he will likely notice young female drivers speeding in the fast lane
but fail to notice young male or older drivers doing the same. In this case, the
police officer’s judgments are biased by the operation of the
a. permission schema.
b. confirmation bias.
c. falsification principle.
d. typicality principle.

221. There are two gumball machines outside the local grocery store, one large
machine and one small machine. Both machines have only yellow and orange
gumballs, and each machine contains 50 percent of each color. For each coin, the
large gumball machine dispenses 15 gumballs, while the small machine dispenses
5. Tim is a young genius whose interests include probability and sound decision-
making. His “probability project of the day” is to get a greater percentage of
either of the colors, but not an equal amount of each color. Given this, and
presuming Tim has only one coin,
a. he should use his coin in the large machine.
b. he should use his coin in the small machine.
c. it doesn’t make a difference which machine he uses.
d. he should wait for other people to use the machines and see what they get.
 222. People tend to overestimate
a. what negative feelings will occur following a decision more so than positive
feelings.
b. what positive feelings will occur following a decision more so than negative
feelings.
c. what positive and negative feelings will occur following a decision to the
same degree.
d. subjective utility values following a decision.

223. By using a(n) , a country could increase the percentage of individuals

agreeing to be organ donors dramatically.
a. opt-out procedure
b. opt-in procedure
c. pragmatic reasoning schema
d. permission schema

224. Cecile has dreamed of owning her own home for years, and she can finally
afford a small cottage in an older neighborhood. She notices that she feels more
positive about her home when she drives home by the abandoned shacks, but she
hates her home when driving past the fancy mansions with their large lawns.
Cecile's emotions are influenced by
a. the principle of diversity.
b. confirmation bias.
c. framing.
d. the law of large numbers.

225. Consider the following syllogism:

If it's a robin then it is a bird.

It is a bird.
Therefore, it is a robin.
In the example above, "Therefore, it is a robin" is a ____ of a ____ syllogism.
a. premise; categorical
b. conclusion; categorical
c. premise; conditional
d. conclusion; conditional