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1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
8 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
1. Pick the Synonym for the word "SUSTAINED" 9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
(a) sporadic (b) confirmed statement in the question : That which cannot be read
(c) steady (d) supported (a) Negligible (b) Illegible
2. sentence is given in the Direct/Indirect form. Out of (c) Ineligible (d) Incorrigible
the four alternatives suggested, select the one which 10. Four parts of a sentence (P/Q/R/S) are given. Arrange
best expresses the same sentence in the Indirect/Direct them in the right order to produce a correct sentence :
form: even when/are well informed/people engaged in a
"Please open my bag and check if my Physics notebook conversation/their conversation may be dull
is there" Rakesh said to Rajesh. (a) QSPR (b) PRQS
(a) Rakesh requested Rajesh to open his bag and check (c) SRQP (d) SQRP
if his Physics notebook was there. 11. Excess of amino acids are broken down to form urea in
(b) Rakesh requested Rajesh to open his bag and see if (a) kidney (b) liver
his Physics notebook is there. (c) spleen (d) rectum
(c) Rakeshasked Rajesh to open his bag and check if
12. The science dealing with studuy of tumor
his Physics notebook is there.
(a) cosmology (b) oncology
(d) Rakeshordered Rajesh to open his bag and see if
(c) Ornithology (d) odontology
his Physics notebook was there.
13. Indian National Song is taken from ___________
3. Mark the most appropriate substitute to fill the blanks
(a) Geethanjali (b) Durgesh Nandini
in the given description : You have to leave your shoes
(c) Bharat Vidatha (d) Anand Math
______________the door when you enter the house.
(a) In (b) Over 14. Uber Cup is associated with-
(c) To (d) By (a) Tennis (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Badminton
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice :
They greet me cheerfully every morning. 15. BSNL free roaming launched w.e.f.15.6.2015 is
(a) I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning. applicable on
(b) I am being greeted cheerfully by them every (a) Outgoing calls
morning. (b) Incoming calls
(c) Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning (c) Broadband
to me. (d) Both incoming and outgoing calls
(d) Every morning I was greeted cheerfully. 16. Which space probe of NASA recently made the closest
5. The first two words are related in a particular manner. approach to Pluto?
Select the word from given choices, which is related to (a) New Horizon (b) Pioneer 9
third one in the same manner : (c) Helios (d) Cosmos
DISTANCE:MILE ::liquid 17. Indian-origin Sunita Williams was recently chosen by
(a) water (b) gram NASA for the following assignment
(c) scale (d) litre (a) To fly to the International Space Station
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the (b) To fly NASA's first commercial space vehicle
given words: AFFLUENT (c) For spacewalk at ISS
(a) affected (b) uneducated (d) For Mars human landing
(c) rural (d) poor 18. Which city has topped the Swachh Bharat rankings
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given among 476 cities in the country as per the survey
alternatives. On entering the home , he found all jewels conducted by Ministry of Urban Development?
___________. (a) Mysuru (b) Ahmedabad
(a) steal (b) steals (c) Chandigarh (d) Chennai
(c) stealing (d) stolen 19. Who was the first Indian to make a movie
8. Change the direct narration to indirect narration : (a) H. S. Bhatwadekar
"Please don't go away", she said. (b) Ardeshir Irani
(a) She told me to go away. (c) Dhundiraj Govind Phalke
(b) She requested me not to go away. (d) V. Shantaram
(c) She begged that I not go away. 20. The 'Armed Forces Flag Day' is observed every year
(d) She said to please her and not go away. on?
[Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 9
(d) Always passes through (0, 0) power factor is 0.5, then one of the wattmeter will read
37. The equation of the straight line which makes intercepts (a) W/2 (b) 0
( 7/3) and 2/5 on x and y axis respectively is (c) 0.577 (d) 1.414W
(a) 6x 35y + 14 = 0 46. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected
(b) 35x 6y + 14 = 0 on the supply side of the current coil when
(c) 6x 35y + 14 = 0 (a) supply voltage is low
(d) None of these (b) supply voltage is high
(c) load impedance is low
7 0 3 0 (d) load impedance is high
38. Find x and y if x + y = xy
2 5 0 3 47. One of physical quantities which is not a base quantity
is
5 0 2 0 (a) length (b) force
(a) x y
1 4 1 1 (c) mass (d) time
(a) copper (b) silicon iron 84. In LCR circuit which one of the following statement is
(c) soft iron (d) none correct
75. The ideal OPAMP has the following characteristic- (a) L and R oppose each other
(a) Ri = , A = , R0 = 0 (b) R value increases with frequency
(b) Ri = , A = , R0 = 0 (c) the inductive reactance increases with frequency
(c) Ri = , A = , R0 = (d) the capacitive reactance increases with frequency
(d) Ri = , A = , R0 = 85. Miller sweep has the following data R = 1K ohms,
76. The correct full wave rectifier circuit is- C = 1 PF, V = 10 Volts. Its sweep speed is
(a) 103 V/S (b) 106 V/S
4
(c) 10 V/S (d) 1010 V/S
Input
Input
86. In a p-n diode, hole diffuse from pregion to n-region
Output
Output
(a) (b) because
(a) there is high concentration of holes in the pregion
(b) holes are positively charged
(c) holes are urged to move by the barrier potential
(d) the free electrons in the n-region attract the holes.
Input
Input
Output
(c) (d) Output 87. Which of the following method of biasing provides the
best operating point stability
(a) Two battery bias
77. Negative feedback in an amplifer (b) Collector-to-base bias
(a) reduce gain (c) Fixed bias
(b) increases freqency and phase distrotions (d) Self bias
(c) reduces bandwidth 88. Feedback is said to be positive if
(d) increases noise (a) the feedback signal gets subtracted from the input
78. In case of class A amplifiers, the ratio of efficiency of signal
transformer coupled amplifier to efficiency of a (b) the feedback signal gets added to the input signal
transformer less amplifier is (c) any increase in the output signal results in a
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 feedback signal which on being mixed with the
(c) 1.36 (d) 2.0 input signal causes further increase in magnitude
of the output signal
79. When a PN Junction is formed, diffusion current causes (d) none of these
(a) mixing of current carriers
(b) forward bias 89. Astable multivibrator may be used as
(c) reverse bias (a) frequency to voltage converter
(d) barrier potential (b) voltage to frequency converter
(c) squaring circuit
80. Pure Semiconductor Silicon Dopped with Boron forms (d) comparator circuit
(a) pn-Type Semiconductor
(b) n-type Semiconductor 90. The most important consideration in power amplifier
(c) p-type Semiconductor is
(d) np-type semiconductor (a) Biasing the circuit
(b) Collector efficiency
81. Wider Band gap Semiconductors are called: (c) To keep the transformer cool
(a) Super conductor (b) Super Isolators (d) None of these
(c) Semi Semiconductors (d) Semi Isolators
91. A transformer coupled class A power amplifier has a
82. Which of the following is common feature of FET? load of 100 on the secondary. If the turn ratio is 10:1,
(a) They have high input imepdance what is the value of load appearing on the primary?
(b) These are voltage controlled devices (a) 50 k (b) 20 k
(c) They have isolated input & output (c) 100 k (d) 10 k
(d) All of these
92. For frequencies below the resonant frequency, a parallel
83. All of the following can propagate through vaccum LC circuit behaves as a ________ load
except (a) Inductive (b) Resistive
(a) X-rays (b) radio waves (c) Capacitive (d) None of these
(c) light waves (d) sound waves
[Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 13
93. The advantage of using a dual slope ADC in a digital 103. If A and B are two input in AND gates, the AND gate
voltmeter is that has output of 1, when the values of A and B are
(a) its conversion time is small (a) A = 0, B = 0 (b) A = 1, B = 1
(b) its accuracy is high (c) A = 1, B = 0 (d) A = 0, B = 1
(c) it gives output in BCD format 104. Which of the following can be used as an inverter
(d) None of these (a) AND (b) NOR
94. The Boolean experssion Y = AB + CD represents (c) OR (d) None of these
(a) Two ORs ANDed together 105. The 9's complement of a Decimal digit is the
(b) A 4-input AND gate (a) 1's Complement of the Excess-3 code for the Digit
(c) Two ANDs ORed together (b) 2's Complement of the Excess-3 code for the Digit
(d) An exclusive OR (c) 1's Complement of the Excess-4 code for the Digit
95. A 4 bit module-6 ripple counter uses JK flip flop. If the (d) 2's Complement of the Excess-4 code for the Digit
propogation by each flip flop is 50 ns . The maximum
106. Hexadecimal equivalent of binary number
clock frequency be used
10001101011001 is
(a) 5 MHz (b) 10 MHz
(a) 2359 (b) 9493
(c) 4 MHz (d) 20 MHz
(c) 8D62 (d) 8DF2
96. MOD-12 and MOD-6 counters and multipliers are most
107. Which of the following statement is true?
commonly used as
(a) Frequency counters (a) A AB A
(b) Multiplexed displays (b) A(A AB)
(c) Power consumption meters
(d) Digital Colcks (c) CA CAB CA CB
(d) None of these
97. Decimal counter using flipflops and feedback, are more
popular than a decimal counter of ring type because of 108. In Boolean algebra, the term sum-of-products means
(a) simple decade circuitary required (a) the AND function of several OR functions
(b) economy in the number of flipflops (b) the OR function of several AND functions
(c) high speed of operation (c) the OR function of several OR functions
(d) its availability in IC form (d) the AND function of several AND functions
98. The Characteristic Equation of JK Flip Flop is 109. The output of a sequential circuit depends on
(a) Q_next = JQ + QK (a) present inputs
(b) Q_next = JQ + KQ (b) past outputs
(c) Q_next = JQ + QK (c) both present and past inputs
(d) Q_next = JQ + QK (d) past inputs
99. Transparent Flip Flops are also called as 110. A multiplexer is also known as
(a) Latches (a) counter (b) decoder
(b) Asynchronous Flip Flops (c) data selector (d) none of these
(c) Multiplexers 111. Three equal impedances are first connected in star
(d) Both Latches & Asynchronous Flip Flops across a balanced 3 phase supply. If connected in delta
100. 63 in Decimal System can be written in Binary Systems across the same supply-
as (a) Phase current will be tripled
(a) 111100 (b) 111101 (b) Phase current will be doubled
(c) 111111 (d) 101010 (c) Line current will become one third
(d) Power consumed will increase three fold
101. In a class A amplifier with sinusoidal input signal, the
output current flows for : 112. The capacitive circuit are used to___________ pf
(a) half the cycle (b) full cycle (Power factor)
(c) less than half cycle (d) more than half cycle (a) increases (b) decreases
(c) satblizer (d) No effect on
102. A moving charge produces:
(a) an electric field only 113. The efficiency of transformer is maximum when
(b) a magnetic field only (a) copper loss = twice Iron loss
(c) Both an electric field only & a magnetic field only (b) copper loss = half times Iron loss
(d) None of these (c) copper loss = Iron Loss
(d) no condition for maximum efficiency
14 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
114. A series motor is best suited for driving 125. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to-
(a) latches (b) cranes and hoists (a) prevent mode jumping
(c) shears and punches (d) machine tools (b) prevent cathode back heating
115. Materials used for precision resistors should have (c) ensure bunching
(a) low resistivitiy (d) improve phase focussing effect
(b) high resistance temperature 126. Which of the following gives maximum probability of
(c) high themoelectric emf against copper error
(d) none of these (a) ASK (b) FSK
116. In a synchronous motor the magnitude of back emf Eb (c) PSK (d) DPSK
depends on ______________ 127. A telephone exchange has 9000 subscribers. If the
(a) speed of the motor number of calls originating at peak time is 10,000 in
(b) load on the motor one hour, the calling rate is
(c) both speed and stator flux (a) 0.9 (b) 10/9
(d) d.c. excitation only (c) 0.81 (d) 0.1
117. When a 3 phase induction motor is switched on the 128. A layer which is above the Presentation layer in OSI
rotor frequency is ______________ model is
(a) 50 Hz (a) DataLink Layer (b) Physical Layer
(b) same as supply frequency (c) Application Layer (d) Session Layer
(c) same as slip frequency
129. The synchronous modems are more costly than the
(d) zero
asynchronous modems because
118. The regulation of a synchronous motor is ___________ (a) They produce large volume of data
(a) 0.01 (b) 1 (b) They contain clock recovery circuit
(c) 0.5 (d) 0 (c) They transmit the data with stop and start bits
(d) They operate with a larger bandwidth
119. In a 3-Phase star connected system, the line current is
(a) equal to phase current 130. Foster seelay discriminator uses a
(a) Single tuned circuit
(b) 1/ 3 times phase current
(b) Double tuned circuit with primary and secondary
(c) 3 times phase current tuned to the different frequency
(d) 3 times phase current (c) Double tuned circuit with primary and secondary
tuned to the same frequency
120. Three equal resistances of 3 ohms each are connected
(d) None of these
in delta. The star equivalent value of resistance in ohms
is 131. A transmitter puts out a total power of 2.09 Watts of
(a) 2 (b) 6 30% AM signal. How much power is contained in each
(c) 2/3 (d) 2/6 of the sidebands?
121. The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is (a) 2.09 watts (b) 2 Watts
(a) positive (b) zero (c) 0.09 watts (d) 0.045 watts
(c) negative (d) any of the these 132. As compared to PPM, the disadvantage of PDM is that
122. The stator of a split phase type single phase induction it requires ______________
motor is provided with (a) more samples per second
(a) 3 windings (b) 2 windings (b) pulses of larger width
(c) 1 winding (d) 6 windings (c) powerful transmitter
(d) none of these
123. Among the following statements which one is true?
133. Over modulation of transmitter signal is corrected by
(a) a.c. transmission is more efficient
the adjustment of the __________
(b) d.c. transmission is more efficient
(a) speech amplifier
(c) both are equally efficient
(b) power amplifier
(d) low voltage d.c. transmission is more efficient
(c) RF oscillator
124. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to: (d) frequency doubler
(a) increase the gain of the system
(b) increase the bandwidth of the system 134. Speech amplifiers are usually operated as
(c) reduce the size of the main reflector (a) Class A (b) Class B
(d) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point (c) Class C (d) None of these
[Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 15
135. Cylindrical cavity resonators are not used with because 146. The attenuator where the series arm Ra is usually made
they have ___ equal to characteristic impedance, is a ________
(a) Q that is too low (a) symmetrical T attenuator
(b) A shape whose resonant frequency is too (b) symmetrical attenuator
(c) Harmonically related resonant frequency (c) bridged T attenuator
(d) None of these (d) lattice T attenuator
136. The maximum speed at which the data can be 147. A filter having two pass bands and seperated by a small
transmitted on standard PCM stream is frequency band has zero output, the filter is of the type
(a) 64 kbps (b) 128 kbps _________
(c) 2 Mbps (d) 4 Mbps (a) band stop (b) high pass
137. A purely resistance load ZL is connected to a 50 (c) m-derived band pass (d) band pass
lossless transmission line such that it has a voltage 148. If an m-derived filter section is built with m = 1, it will
standing wave ratio of 3. The possible value of ZL will _______
be- (a) not be physically realizable
(a) 50 (b) 450 (b) not act as filter
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these (c) become a prototype section
138. The VSWR can have any value between- (d) be used only where very high attenuation near cutoff
(a) 0 and 1 (b) 1 and +1 is desired
(c) 0 and (d) 1 and 149. Closed circuit technique are based on
(a) superposition theorem
139. For a 2-port symmetrical bilateral network, if
(b) Thevenins theorem
transmission parameters A = 3 and B = 1, the value of
(c) Kirchoff's current law
parameter C is
(d) Kirchoff's voltage law
(a) 3 (b) 8
(c) 7 (d) 9 150. The dimensions of force are-
(a) MLT2 (b) ML1T2
140. A line becomes distortion less if 1
(c) MLT (d) ML2T2
(a) It is properly matched
(b) It is terminated into Zo 151. For measuring a very high resistance we should use-
(c) LG = CR (a) Kelvin's double bridge
(d) LR = GC (b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Megger
141. Input impedance of a shortcircuited lossless line with
(d) None of these
length /4 is
(a) Z0 (b) Zero 152. The pressure coil of a dynamometer type wattmeter is
(c) One (d) Infinity (a) Highly inductive (b) Highly resistive
142. BRI in ISDN has which of the following channels? (c) Purely resistive (d) Purely inductive
(a) 30B+1D (b) 2B+1D 153. The Guage factor of a Resistance wire strain guage, is
(c) 30B+2D (d) Only 2 B Channels a measure of
143. Pollen count and Solar Protons affects the Microwave (a) Sensitivity of the Guage
Link by- (b) Dynamic range of displacement measure
(a) Increasing the gain of the receiver (c) Resolution
(b) Increase in the Interference (d) Resistevity
(c) Increased the Distance Covered 154. The performance of Servomotors is ______________
(d) None of these Than stepper motors
(a) Very Accurate
144. Input impedance of a shorted loss lessline of length /
(b) Highly controlled by feedback
4 is _________
(c) Both Very Accurate & Highly controlled by
(a) infinity (b) zero
feedback
(c) Z0 (d) none of these
(d) None of these
145. The phase angle corresponding to /4 in a standing
wave pattern is __________ 155. Microwaves have frequency range of
(a) 180 degree (b) 135 degree (a) 10 GHz to 30 Ghz
(c) 45 degree (d) 90 degree (b) 1 Mhz to 100 Mhz
(c) 1 GHz to 30 GHz
(d) 1 MHz to 300 GHz
16 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
(b) Working with zero reference signal' 182. Keeping in view the stability of the control circuit the
(c) Working with zero stored energy feedback factor (x) and gain without feedback (y) for a
(d) None of these stable circuit are related as
174. The most important technique used for stability and (a) xy = 1 (b) x/y < 1
the transient response of the system is (c) xy < 1 (d) x = y
(a) Nyquist plot (b) Root locus 183. Washing maching is example of
(c) Bode plot (d) Routh Hurwitz criteria (a) Closed Loop control System
175. Synchro transmitter also acts as an (b) Open Loop contro system
(a) error detector (b) compensator (c) Both Closed Loop control System & Open Loop
(c) comperator (d) input to a servomotor contro system
(d) None of these
176. The number of memory cycles required to execute the
184. Binary 11110 equals ____ in hexadecimal
following 8085 instructions
(a) 2A (b) 2E
(i) LDA 3000 H
(c) 1E (d) 2C
(ii) LXI D, F0F1 H
would be 185. Gate is a circuit with one or more input but out put is
(a) 2 for (i) and 2 for (ii) (a) two (b) one
(b) 4 for (i) and 3 for (ii) (c) three (d) more than 1
(c) 3 for (i) and 3 for (ii)
186. _____ data transmission is more useful when sending
(d) 3 for (i) and 4 for (ii)
information for long distances
177. In an 8085 microprocessor, the instruction CMP B has (a) serial (b) parallel
been executed while the content of the accumulator is (c) either (d) neither
less than that of register B. As a result-
187. 8085 MPU is
(a) Carry flag will be set but Zero flag will be reset
(a) 8 bit (b) 16 bit
(b) Carry flag will be reset but Zero flag will be set
(c) 32 bit (d) 64 bit
(c) Both Carry flag and Zero flag will be reset
(d) Both Carry flag and Zero flag will be set 188. Which of the following languages is suitable for
artificial intelligence?
178. The contents of accumulator after the execution of
(a) Fortran (b) Basic
following instructions will be
(c) Prolong (d) 'C'
MVI
A, B7H 189. Which one of the following task is not done by data
ORA A link layer?
RAL (a) Framing (b) Error control
(a) 6EH (b) 6FH (c) Flow control (d) Channel coding
(c) EEH (d) EFH 190. X.25 works on __________________ protocol
179. In 8085 microprocessor, stack works on- (a) LAP A (b) LAP B
(a) LILO (b) LIFO (c) LAP C (d) LAP D
(c) FIFO (d) None of these 191. The brain of any computer system is
180. The total size and the total number of Interrupts (a) ALU (b) CPU
procedures that can be defined in this memory of 8086 (c) ROM (d) RAM
is 192. MODEM can be classified as equipment of
(a) 256 Bytes, 256 Procedures (a) DCE (data MB_Communication equipment)
(b) 1K Bytes, 256 Procedures (b) DTE( DATA terminal equipment)
(c) 256 Bytes, 1K Procedures (c) both
(d) 1K Bytes, 1K Procedures (d) None of these
181. NMI input is 193. A MB_Computer program that converts an entire
(a) Edge Triggererd on Negative edge i.e. 1 to 0 program into machine language at one time is called-
transition (a) interpreter (b) simulator
(b) Edge Triggererd on Positive edge i.e. 0 to 1 (c) compiler (d) commander
transition
(c) Level triggered on 1 194. The Q of a radio coil
(d) Level triggered on 0 (a) is independent of frequency
(b) increases monotonically as frequency increases
18 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 25 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
(c) decreases monotonically as frequency increases 198. The following is not an operating system
(d) increases up to a certain frequency and decreases (a) MS-DOS (b) MS-Office
beyond that frequency (c) MS-Window (d) UNIX
195. A linear circuit is one whose parameters (e.g. 199. The following is a single user operating system
resistance)etc. (a) WINDOWS (b) WINDOWS-NT
(a) change with change in current (c) UNIX (d) none of these
(b) change with change in voltage 200. Active portion contains an operating system that will
(c) do not change with voltage and current be loaded
(d) none of these (a) when you start the system only
196. Programmable logic Array (PLA) uses ___________ (b) when you reset the system only
(a) PROM matrices (c) both when you start the system only and when you
(b) RAM matrices reset the system only
(c) Silo memory (d) neither when you start the system only nor when
(d) ROM matrices you reset the system only
197. Debug is synonymous to ____________
(a) erase (b) exponent
(c) trouble shoot (d) emulate
Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (c)
101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (c)
111. (d) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (d)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (b) 130. (c)
131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (c) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (c)
141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (c) 147. (d) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (c) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (d)
161. (b) 162. (d) 163. (d) 164. (d) 165. (a) 166. (a) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (b)
171. (b) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (d) 176. (b) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (a) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (a) 186. (d) 187. (d) 188. (b) 189. (d) 190. (b)
191. (b) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (d) 197. (c) 198. (d) 199. (b) 200. (b)
Examination held on 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)
1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
20 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
1. Pick the Synonym for the word "INDICTMENT" 11. Fastest express train in India
(a) accusation (b) acquaintance (a) Bhopal Shatabdi
(c) judgement (d) allegiance (b) Gatimaan
2. Which of the following is correct sentence (c) Sealdah duronto
(a) I have no taste in painting (d) Mumbai Rajdhani
(b) I have no taste to painting 12. Which gas gives pungent smell to LPG cylinders as a
(c) I have no taste for painting warning of leakage?
(d) All are correct (a) Methane (b) Odonil
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the (c) Ethyl Mercaptan (d) All of these
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make 13. The study of the origins and predecessors of the present
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. human species, using fossils and other remains
Seeing that there was an ongoing sale in one of her (a) Archaeology (b) Autobiography
favourite stores, Seeta made a beeline for it (c) Gemmology (d) Paleo Anthropology
immediately.
14. SEBI is a
(a) made a bee's line for
(a) constitutional body (b) advisory body
(b) make bees lined
(c) statutory body (d) non-statutory body
(c) made be-line to
(d) no correction required 15. Which country has recently defaulted on IMF loan
repayment due to an economic crisis
4. Choose the odd one from given four choices :
(a) USA (b) Italy
(a) Table (b) Chair
(c) Greece (d) Syria
(c) Bed (d) Rug
16. Fundamental rights in the Indian constitution have been
5. The first two words are related in a particular manner.
taken from the
Select the word from given choices, which is related to
(a) Russian constitution (b) U.S. constitution
third one in the same manner : ARMY : LOGISTICS
(c) British constitution (d) Act of 1935
: : business
(a) strategy (b) logic 17. Dove is a symbol of
(c) studies (d) team (a) Mourning (b) Peace
(c) War (d) Joy
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the
given words: PERTINENT 18. Which gland in human body is referred to as a master
(a) Irrational (b) Irregular gland?
(c) Inconsistent (d) Irrelevant (a) Thyroid (b) Adrenal gland
(c) Pituitary gland (d) Pancreas
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given
alternatives. I prefer Hindi songs ________ Telugu 19. Hindi novel 'Maila Anchal' is written by
songs (a) Phinshwar Nath Renu
(a) to (b) for (b) Prem Chand
(c) with (d) from (c) Surya Kant Tripathi Nirala
(d) Mohen Rakesh
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Ray
(a) Rayoes (b) Raies 20. Which atomic power station in India is built completely
(c) Rays (d) Rice indigenously?
(a) Kalpakkam (b) Narora
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
(c) Rawat Bhata (d) Tarapore
statement in the question : One who is all powerful
(a) Anarchist (b) Omnipotent dy
21. The solution for the differential equation 2x 2 y
(c) Omnisient (d) Strong dx
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the is
sentences: Rahul ______________ my tennis racket c c
without asking my permission. I got really angry with (a) y 2 (b) y 2
x x
him.
(a) needn't have taken (c) y 2 c x (d) y 2 c x
(b) must not have taken
(c) shouldn't have taken 22. The general solution of the differential equation
(d) didn't need to taken d 2 y dy
2y 10cos x is
dx 2 dx
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 21
(a) y = c1ex + c2e2x 3 cos x sin x 35. The area of the circle with centre at (1,2) and passing
(b) y = c1ex + c2e2x 3 cos x through (4,6) is
(c) y = c1ex + c2e2x 3 cos x sin x (a) 5n sq. units (b) 25 sq. units
(d) y = c1ex + c2e2x 3 x + sin x (c) 29n sq. units (d) None
23. The equation of the circle with radius 3 and centre 36. The vertex of the parabola y2 2y + 8x 23 = 0
(3, 2) is (a) (3, 1) (b) (1, 3)
(a) x2 + y2 6x + 4y + 4 = 0 (c) (1, 3) (d) (1, 3)
(b) x2 + y2 + 6x + 4y + 5 = 0 37. The trigonometric Fourier series of a periodic time
(c) x2 + y2 + 6x 4y 4 = 0 function can have only
(d) x2 + y2 + 6x + 4y + 10 = 0 (a) Cosine terms (b) Sine terms
24. Find dy/dx if y = ex sin x (c) Cosine & Sine terms (d) Cosine & DC terms
(a) ex sin x (b) ex cos x
38. The vectors having the same initial point are called
(c) sinx (d) ex cos x + sin x ex
(a) Position vector (b) Free vector
25. 20 % of 4 is equal to (c) Co-Initial Vector (d) Unit Vector
(a) 1 (b) 8 39. Isotopes of an element have-
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.08 (a) Same atomic number
26. 5n/4 radian = (b) Different mass number
(a) 225 (b) 270 (c) Same chemical properties
(c) 335 (d) 456 (d) All of these
27. Order of the partial differential equation is 40. Ideal value of VSWR is
(a) the order of the highest derivative appears in it (a) 0 (b) 1
(b) the order of the lowest derivative appears in it (c) Infinit (d) 10
(c) the order of any derivative appears in it
41. An instrument to check whether RF power in the
(d) none of these
transmission line is transferred to the antenna is:
28. Commutative means (a) an antenna tuner (b) a dummy load
(a) a + c = b + a (b) a + b = b + c (c) a keying monitor (d) wave ratio meter
(c) a + b = b + a (d) a+(b+c)=(a+b)+c 42. The total addressable memory size of 8085 is
29. Laplace Transform is used in (a) 16 kb (b) 32 kb
(a) Fourier Series (b) Probability Distribution (c) 64 kb (d) 128 kb
(c) Complex Numbers (d) None of these 43. Light year is unit of
30. A function (t) is said to be even if : (a) Light (b) Time
(a) f(t) = f(t) (b) f(t) = f( t) (c) Distance (d) Velocity
(c) ft = f(t) (d) None of these
44. IUPAC stands for
31. For any complex no. Z the minimum value of (a) International Union of Physics and Applied
IzI + Iz1I is: Chemistry
(a) 1 (b) 0 (b) International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry
(c) 1/2 (d) 3/2 (c) International Unit of Pure and Applied Chemistry
32. Area of the triangle formed by the lines 7x2y + 10 = 0, (d) International Unit of Pure and Application
7x + 2y10 = 0 and y + 2 = 0 is Chemistry
(a) 8 (b) 14 45. Quantities that are used to describe laws of physics are
(c) 16 (d) 18/7 called
(a) atomic quantities (b) nuclear quantities
d (c) mechanical quantities (d) physical quantities
33. (sin 3 x)
dx 46. Electron was discovered by
(a) 3 sin2x cos x (b) 2 sin2x cos x (a) Germer (b) Einstein
(c) 3 cos2x sin x (d) 2 cos x sin x (c) Davison (d) J.J Thomson
/2 47. Electromagnetic radiation with minimum wavelength
34. sin 2 xdx
0 is
(a) n/4 (b) n/5 (a) radiowaves (b) ultra violet
(c) n/2 (d) n/6 (c) X-rays (d) infrared
22 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
48. Which of the following pairs can form correct set of (a) 40 V (b) 20 V
isosters? (c) 10 V (d) 5 V
(a) MgS , CaF2 (b) CO2, N2O 59. One Joule per coulomb is called?
(c) CO2, N2O (d) All of these (a) volt (b) ampere
49. The discovery of atomic nuclues was done by (c) farad (d) gauss
(a) Faraday (b) J. J. Thomson 60. Calculate the current in I3 in the circuit
(c) Fermi (d) E. Rutherford
50. The number of neutrons present in the atom of 56Be137 I2 = 2A
(a) 56 (b) 137
(c) 193 (d) 81 I1 = 7A
51. The fundamental unit which is common in CGS and I3
SI system is
(a) Second (b) Kilogram
(c) Gram (d) Metre I4 = 3A
52. Sounds with frequency 2000 Hz are called as (a) 8A (b) 8A
(a) Ultrasonics (b) Infrasonic (c) 7A (d) 12A
(c) Audible sounds (d) None of these 61. When "n" resistor each of value "r" are connected in
53. The Dimensional Formula for Force is parallel, then resultant resistance is x. When these "n"
(a) MLT1 (b) ML2T2 resistors are connected in series, total resistance is
(c) MLT 2
(d) None of these (a) nx (b) mx
(c) x/n (d) n2x
54. Which of the following have same dimensional formula
(a) Work and Energy 62. When a Magnet is heated
(b) Impulse and Momentum (a) it gains magnetism
(c) Both Work and Energy & Impulse and Momentum (b) it loses magnetism
(d) None of these (c) it neither loses nor gains magnetism
(d) None of these
55. Laser is a
(a) Light Source 63. A charged particle of charge q is moving with a velocity
(b) Light Detector v along the axis of a current carrying solenoid. The
(c) Both Light Source & Light Detector magnetic force on the particle is
(d) None of these (a) qvB (b) 0
(c) qv+2B (d) None of these
56. Laser Light is different from others because
(a) It is Coherent (b) It is incoherent 64. Whenever a charged particle moves in a Electric
(c) High Intensity (d) High Speed Potential
(a) Particle gets potential energy
57. Find the Thevenin equivalent VTH and RTH between the (b) Particle gets kinetic energy
terminals A & B of the circuit (c) Particle gets electric energy
R1 (d) None of these
68
65. Permanent Magnets are made of
R2 (a) Diamagnetic Materials
100 (b) Paramagnetic Materials
VS A (c) Ferromagnetic Materials
100V (d) Piezoelectric Materials
R3 VTH
120 66. The Force between two permanent Magnets is
B determined by
(a) Distance among them
(b) Direction of Magnets
(a) 4.16 V, 120 (b) 41.6 V, 120 (c) Orientation of Magnets
(c) 4.16 V, 70 (d) 41.6 V, 70 (d) All of these
58. The current through a 4H inductor is given by IL(s) = 67. Eddy Currents are the currents generated in
10 (a) Moving conductor in stationary magnetic field
. The initial voltage across the inductor is- (b) Stationary conductor in changing Magnetic Field
s(s 2)
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 23
(c) Both Moving conductor in stationary magnetic field (a) Active Network (b) Passive Network
& Stationary conductor in changing Magnetic Field (c) Electric Network (d) None of these
(d) None of these 75. The cause of potential barrier in an pnjunction diode is
68. In High Power Lines the power is transmitted at (a) Deplention of positive charge near the junction
(a) High current level and low voltage (b) Concentration of positive charge near the junction
(b) High voltage level and low current (c) Depletion of negative charge near the junction
(c) Any combination (d) Concentratio of postive and negative charge near
(d) None of these the junction
69. When a single turn coil rotates in a uniform magnetic 76. An npn transistor (with C = 0.3 pF) has a unity gain
field, at uniform speed, the induced emf will be cutoff frequency fT of 4000 MHz at a dc current
(a) alternating (b) steady Ic = 1mA. The value of its C (in pF) is approx
(c) pulsating (d) none of these (VT = 26 mV)
(a) 15 (b) 30
70. In a series R-L-C circuit, magnitude of resonance
(c) 50 (d) 96
frequency can be changed by changing the value of
(a) R only (b) L only 77. A transistor in common emitter mode has
(c) C only (d) L or C (a) a high input resistance and a high output resistance
(b) a very low input resistance and a low output
71. A battery of 24 V is applied across terminals AB of the
resistance
circuit shown in figure. Current in 2 Ohm resister will
(c) a medium input resistance and high output
be-
resistance
5 Ohm 2 Ohm (d) a high input resistance and low output resistance
A 78. Thermal runaway in BJT will take place if the quicent
point is such that
(a) Vce > 1/2 Vcc (b) Vce
8 Ohm (c) Vce < 2Vcc (d) Vce < 1/2Vcc
6 Ohm 4 Ohm
79. N Type silicon is obtained by doping silicon with
(a) Germanium (b) Gallium
B (c) Phosphorous (d) Boron
D F
80. IC LM7815 is a
(a) 3A (b) 6A (a) Voltage Regulator with a +5 V output voltage
(c) 2.5A (d) 1.5A (b) Voltage Regulator with a 5 V output voltage
72. The current in 3K resistors in figure by converting (c) Voltage Regulator with a +15 V output voltage
the current source into voltage source is (d) Voltage Regulator with a 15 V output voltage
81. If the output of a CMOS inverter gets accidently shorted
to ground
(a) the nchannel driver MOSFET will be damaged
(b) the supply voltage source will be damaged
15 ma 6K 36K (c) the current drain for the supply will increase, which
may damage the pchannel load MOSFET
(d) none of the these will happen
82. The main drawback of JFET is its :
(a) 10 mA (b) 12 mA (a) high input impedance
(c) 6 mA (d) 5 mA (b) low input impedance
73. We have assigned a frequency of 50 Hz to power system (c) higher noise
because it (d) lower gain
(a) can be easily obtained 83. The electric current is due to the flow of
(b) gives best result when used for operating both lights (a) positive charge only
and machinery (b) negative charge only
(c) easy calculations (c) both the charges
(d) none (d) neutral particles only
74. A network which contain one or more than one source 84. A semi conductor when placed at 0 K, will act as
of emf is known as
24 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
(a) Insulator (b) Conductor 96. A 4-bit synchronous counter uses flip-flops with
(c) Semiconductor (d) Metal propogation delay time of 25ns each. The maximum
85. Which of the following multi vibrator is also called as possible time required for change of state will be
Eccles Jordan Circuit in early days (a) 20ns (b) 50ns
(a) Bistable Multivibrator (c) 75ns (d) 100ns
(b) Monostable Multi vibrator 97. In a UJT, intrinsic stand off ratio n is typically
(c) Astable Multivibrator (a) 0.2 (b) 0.4
(d) All of these (c) 0.7 (d) 0.99
86. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ideal 98. White noise is that signal whose frequency spectrum
Opearational Amplifier (a) extends over infinite range
(a) BW = (b) has flat spectral density
(b) Perfect balance V0 = 0 when V1 = V2 (c) has special density varying as 1/f
(c) Gain is (d) has limited number of frequency components
(d) Input resistance is Zero
99. The relation between the number of inputs (n) and
87. In a CE amplifier, thermal runaway is unconditionally output (o) of binary coded decoder is
avoided if (a) o = 2n (b) o = n + 2
(a) VCE = VCC/2 (b) VCE > VCC/2 (c) o = 2^n (d) o = n/2
(c) VCE < VCC/2 (d) VCE = VCC/ 2 100. Multiplexer converts
88. The input and output voltages of a CE amplifier are (a) Multiple inputs to single output
(a) equal (b) 180 out of phase (b) Single input to multiple outputs
(c) always negative (d) in phase (c) Both Multiple inputs to single output & Single
input to multiple outputs
89. Emitter follower is characterized by (d) None of these
(a) low output impedance and little distortion
(b) low output impedance and significant distortion 101. Decimal number 74 may be written in binary system as
(c) significant output impedance and significant (a) 1001010 (b) 1001001
distortion (c) 1001011 (d) 100011
(d) none of these 102. In which of the following gates the output is 0 if and
90. An astable multivibrator has only if atleast one input is 1?
(a) two stable states (b) one stable state (a) NOT (b) AND
(c) no stable state (d) none of these (c) NOR (d) NAND
125. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10 KW, the 136. Microwave energies propagate the length of the wave
power in the carrier for modulation index of 0.6 is nearly guide by ____ its side walls.
(a) 8.24 KW (b) 8.47 KW (a) Moving off (b) Refraction
(c) 9.26 KW (d) 9.6 KW (c) Reflection off (d) None of these
126. A carrier is modulated simultaneously by two sine waves 137. A transmission line whose characteristic impedance is
with modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4,the total 100 has 300 terminating load. What is the
modulation index percentage of reflected voltage
(a) is 1 (b) can not be calculated (a) 33.3% (b) 50%
(c) is 0.5 (d) is 0.7 (c) 66.6% (d) 55%
127. A carrier is modulated by two modulating waves A and 138. SAP Sybase, MySQL and Oracle are examples of
B having modulation indices of 0.6 and 0.8 respectively. (a) DBMS
The overall modulation index is (b) RDBMS
(a) 1 (b) 0.7 (c) Database
(c) 0.2 (d) 1.4 (d) High Level Programming Lanugage
128. During the heterodyne process in reciever, the 139. Email works of the ________ layer of OSI Model
modulation of the signal ______________ (a) Presentation (b) Application
(a) decreases (b) remains unaffected (c) Data Link Layer (d) Transport Layer
(c) increases (d) is eliminated
140. The active filters used in Networks are having
129. The disadvantage of FSK is that _____________ (a) Passive components (b) Low Q Factor
(a) It does not provide sufficient S/N ratio (c) High Q Factor (d) None of these
(b) It does not have low error probability
141. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission
(c) it is not efficient in is use of spectrum space
line is infinity, the line is terminated in _________
(d) none of these
(a) a short circuit (b) a complex impedance
130. If the synchronization between tranmitter and receiver (c) an open circuit (d) a pure reactance
fails which of the following pulse systems would be
142. Stub matching eliminates standing waves on
affected ?
_____________
(a) PAM (b) PDM
(a) transmitter side of stub
(c) PPM (d) none of these
(b) load side of the stub
131. The difference between phase and frequency modulation (c) both side of the stub
(a) Is purely theoretical because they are same in (d) none of these
practice 143. The propogation constantof a transmission line is
(b) Is too great to make the two systems compatible _____________
(c) Lies in the poorer audio response to phase (a) (R + j L)/(G + j C)
modulation
(d) Lies in the definitions of the modulation index (b) (1/ LC)
132. To connect the output of a data source to a telephone (c) (L / C)
line, it is necessary to have __________
(a) An FMVFT system (b) Modem (d) {(R j L)(G j C)}
(c) A leased line (d) Phase shift key
144. If reflection coefficient is 1/5 then corresponding VSWR
133. Cut off wavelength of rectangular waveguide for TE0,1, is given by ______
if 'a' is width and 'b' is height (a > b) (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 2a (b) 2b (c) 3 (d) 3/2
(c) a (d) b
145. To determine the value of the net resistance (R) for
134. A matched load is one in which three parallel resistors R1, R2 and R3, we can use the
(a) reflection is zero following equation
(b) reflection is unity (a) R=R1+R2+R3 (b) R=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3
(c) partial reflection and partial transmission (c) 1/R=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3 (d) 1/R=R1+R2+R3
(d) none of these
146. For an RL circuit, the power factor cannot be less
135. Wave guide can be considered as than_____ or greater than_____
(a) high pass filter (b) low pass filter (a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 0
(c) band pass filter (d) none of these (c) 1, 1 (d) 00, +00
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 27
156. Capacitive transducers are normally used for 167. Acceleration error constant is a measure of the steady
______________ state error of the system when the input is _______
28 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
(a) unit step function (b) ramp function 179. The stack in MUP operates as
(c) impulse function (d) parabolic function (a) FIFO (b) LIFO
168. For type 2 system with input as unit ramp, velocity (c) LILO (d) None of these
error constant and steady state error are respectively. 180. What are the commands to the assembler itself, called
(a) 0, (b) , 0 (a) Macros (b) Macro-instruction
(c) , (d) 0, 0 (c) Micro-Instruction (d) Pseudo-Instruction
169. The Laplace transform of eat is ___________ 181. A 16mA current source has an internal resistance of 10
(a) 1/as (b) 1/(s a) kohm. How much current will flow in a 2.5 K ohm
(c) 1/(s + a) (d) a/(s + a) load connected across its terminals
(a) 4.2 mA (b) 6 mA
170. G(s) = 1/(1 + sRC) in a RC network represents _______
(c) 11.5 mA (d) 12.8 mA
(a) low pass (b) high pass
(c) band pass (d) band stop 182. Cycle stealing mode of DMA operation involves
3 2
171. The characteristic equation s + 8s + 14s + 24 = 0 (a) DMA-controlled taking on the address, data and
represents ___________ control buses, while a block of data is transformed
(a) stable system between memory and I/O device.
(b) unstable system (b) While the microporcessor is executing a
programme, an interface circuit takes control of
(c) marginally stable system
the address, data and control buses, when not in
(d) none of these
use by the microprocessor.
172. The transfer function of a system is used to calculate (c) Data transfer takes place, between I/O device and
________ memory during every alternate clock cycle.
(a) output for given input (d) The DMA controller working for the
(b) input for a given output microprocessor to finish execution of the
(c) order of the system programme and then takes over the buses.
(d) time constant
183. The control signal ALE is sent by Intel-8085 in order
173. Which system has tendency to oscillate ? to
(a) open loop system (a) Inform I/O device that address is being sent over
(b) close loop system the AD Line
(c) both open loop system and close loop system (b) achieve seperation of address from data.
(d) none of these (c) inform the memory device that address is being
174. In root locus plot the angle of asymptote is given as sent over the AD line
___________ (d) inform I/O and memory that data is being sent over
(a) 360 degree/nimber of poles the AD line
(b) 360 degree/ number of zeroes 184. Evaluate 1101112/1012
(c) 360 degree/(number of poles-number of zeroes) (a) 11102 (b) 10112
(d) 360 degree/ (number of poles+ number of zeroes) (c) 11112 (d) 10012
175. When a unit step input is applied to a perfect integrator, 185. Specify the range of char type data
the output (a) 127 to 128 (b) 128 to 129
(a) is bounded (b) unbounded (c) 128 to 127 (d) 128 to 128
(c) remaining constant (d) is unity
186. The transfer function of a tachometer is of the form
176. The number of hardware interrupts (which require an (a) Ks (b) K/s
external signal to interrupt) present in an 8085 (c) K/(s+1) (d) K/s(s+1)
microprocessor are-
187. Which section of the CPU affects and sequences all
(a) 1 (b) 4
events within the CPU and the entire microcomputer?
(c) 5 (d) 13
(a) Registers
177. To address a memory location out of N memory (b) ALU
locations, the number of address lines required is (c) Instruction-decoding circuitry
(a) log N (to the base 2) (b) log N (to the base 10) (d) Control and timing section
(c) log N (to the base e) (d) log (2N) (to the base e)
188. The 8085 MPU can address
178. What are level Triggering interrupts? (a) 28 memory locations
(a) INTR &TRAP (b) RST6.5 & RST5 (b) 212 memory locations
(c) RST7.5 & RST6.5 (d) none of these
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 29
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (a)
101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (a) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (c) 130. (c)
131. (c) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (b) 139. (b) 140. (c)
141. (b) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (d) 146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (b) 155. (c) 156. (b) 157. (d) 158. (b) 159. (d) 160. (d)
161. (d) 162. (a) 163. (c) 164. (a) 165. (c) 166. (d) 167. (d) 168. (b) 169. (c) 170. (a)
171. (a) 172. (a) 173. (b) 174. (c) 175. (a) 176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (d) 182. (b) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (a) 187. (d) 188. (a) 189. (a) 190. (a)
191. (c) 192. (b) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (c) 197. (a) 198. (c) 199. (a) 200. (d)
Examination held on 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)
1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
32 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
1. Pick the Synonym for the word "ENCOMPASSING" (a) Wet (b) Dull
(a) surrounding (b) incorporating (c) Accidental (d) Privileged
(c) dealing (d) accepting 10. .Four parts of a sentence are given. Arrange them in
2. A sentence is given in the Direct/Indirect form. Out of the right order to produce a correct sentence residents
the four alternatives suggested, select the one which have been planting/the ornamental trees outside/their
best expresses the same sentence in the Indirect/Direct homes and in lawns to/add beauty and give their place
form: The boy was very happy and said to his mother, a grand look P/ Q/ R/ S
"Do you want me to come with you?" (a) QRSP (b) SRQP
(a) The boy had been very happy and asked his mother (c) PRQS (d) PQRS
if she wanted him to come with her. 11. The present Minister for Communication
(b) The boy was very happy and asked his mother if (a) Shri. Ravi Shankar Prasad
she wants him to come with her. (b) Shri. Arun Jaitley
(c) The boy was very happy and said to his mother if (c) Shri. Manoj Sinha
she wants him to come with her. (d) None of these
(d) The boy was very happy and asked his mother if
she wanted him to come with her. 12. What is the present Loks abha Constituency of Sushma
Swaraj?
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the (a) Ambala (b) Delhi
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make (c) Bellary (d) Vidisha
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct.
Varun was on cloud nine after having stood first in his 13. India is planning to launch a dedicated satellite for
class which organisation?
(a) in ninth cloud (b) on nine clouds (a) ASEAN (b) BRICS
(c) a cloudy nine (d) no correction required (c) SAARC (d) SCO
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice : 14. Before becoming President of India Mr. Pranab
After driving professor Kumar to the museum she Mukharjee was working as
dropped him at his hotel. (a) Deputy Chairman Planning Commission
(a) After she had driven Professor Kumar to the (b) Home Minister
museum she had dropped him at his hotel. (c) Finance Minister
(b) After she was driven Professor Kumar to the (d) External Affair Minister
museum she had dropped him at his hotel. 15. Decimal equivalent of Binary No. 100 is :
(c) After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar (a) 100 (b) 1
was dropped at his hotel. (c) 4 (d) 16
(d) Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his
hotel. 16. The pH of Human blood is normally around
(a) 4.5 5.5 (b) 5.5 6.5
5. The first two words are related in a particular manner. (c) 8.5 9 (d) 7.5 8
Select the word from given choices, which is related to
third one in the same manner : LIGHT:BLIND :: speech 17. Which state in India produces the largest quantity of
(a) tongue (b) dumb rubber?
(c) sound (d) chat (a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharastra
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the
given words: Execrable 18. Which one of the following is a missile system
(a) shocking (b) laudable developed by India that can hit a target at a distance of
(c) repulsive (d) unhappy more than 5000 kilometers?
(a) Arjun (b) Akash
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (c) Agni-V (d) Nag
alternatives. The firemen were able to ________ the
fire in church street. 19. An Agreement on Coastal and Maritime Shipping has
(a) put out (b) put away been signed by India with which of the following South
(c) put of (d) put in Asian countries for commencement of coastal shipping
between the two countries?
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Fish (a) Sri Lanka (b) Maldives
(a) Flies (b) Fishes (c) Bangladesh (d) Mauritius
(c) Fish (d) Many Fish
20. Which state is bound by Bangladesh on three sides?
9. Choose the word /group of words which is similar in (a) Mizorarn (b) Meghalaya
meaning to the word. Insipid
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 33
(c) Tripura (d) West Bengal 31. Cramer's rule is an explicit formula for the solution of
21. The relation |3 z| + |3 + z| = 5 represents- a system of
(a) A circle (b) A parabola (a) non-linear equation (b) quadratic equation
(c) An ellipse (d) A hyperbola (c) variable equation (d) linear equations
22. The Laplace transform of sin 2t is- 32. Which of the following function is a periodic function
(a) sin x (b) cos x
2 s (c) f(x) = constant (d) All of these
(a) (b)
s2 4 s2 4 33. Partial differential equation involves
2 2 (a) only one independent variable
(c) 2 (d) 2 (b) only two independent variable
s 4 s 4
(c) two or more one independent variable
23. The inverse Laplace transform of a function (d) no independent variable
1 34. The perimeter of the triangle whose vertices are
F(s) = is given by- (1, 0), (2, 3) and (4, 1) are ( )
s(s 1)
(a) f(t) = sin t (b) f(t) = et sin t (a) 5 2 26 (b) 26 5
(c) f(t) = et (d) f(t) = 1 et (c) 6 26 7 (d) 7 26
2 2
24. The equation x + y + 2gx + 2fy + c represents a circle uur uur uur uur uur uur
having radius- 35. The value of m when 2i mj 3k and 2i 3j 4k are
perpendicular ios
(a) g2 f 2 c (b) g2 f 2 c
(a) m = 8 / 3 (b) m = 8 / 3
(c) (g c) 2 (f c) 2 (d) (g c) 2 (f c) 2 (c) m = 3 / 8 (d) m = 3 / 8
r r 3 4 x 7
25. Find the angle between two vectors a and b and 36. Solve for x and y if
r r 4 3 y 1
magnitudes 1 and 2 respectively and a . b 1 (a) x = 1, y = 1 (b) x 1, y = 1
(a) 30 degrees (b) 60 degrees (c) x 1, y 1 (d) None of these
(c) 45 degrees (d) zero degrees
37. The angle between the pair of straight lines x2 2xy +
26. Find the distance between two points A(3, 4) and y2 = 0
B (3, 4) (a) 45 (b) 30
(a) 0 (b) 10 (c) 120 (d) 90
(c) 100 (d) 10 38. In complex numbers, the value of i37 =
(a) 37i (b) i
2 3 (c) i (d) 37i
27. Find the inverse of
4 5 39. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 140 days.
After 560 days, 1 g of element will reduce to..
2 3 5 3 (a) 1/2 g (b) 1/4 g
(a) 4 5 (b)
4 2 (c) 1/8 g (d) 1/16 g
44. The Theory that no two electrons in an atom can have (a) multiply by 1.8 and add 32
identical values of the four quantum numbers is known (b) subtract 32 and divide by 1.8
as (c) multiply by 32 and add 1.8
(a) Hund's Rule (b) Bohr's theory (d) subtract 1.8 and divide by 32
(c) Autbau's Principle (d) Pauli's principle 56. The unit used to measure the supersonic speed is
45. The bending nature if light around the corners of (a) knots (b) Mach
obstacles is called (c) Richter (d) Hertz
(a) Refraction (b) Reflection 57. The energy required to move 120 Coulomb through 5
(c) Diffraction (d) None of these V is
46. The phenomenon used in the optical fiber is (a) 60 J (b) 600 J
(a) Difraction (c) 4.8 J (d) 24 J
(b) Refraction
58. The current in an inductor changes from 0 to 200 mA
(c) Total internal Reflection
in 4 ms and induces a voltage of 100 mV . The value of
(d) Polarisation
inductor is
47. Commonly used Laser in MB_Computer printers is (a) 2 mH (b) 0.5 mH
________ (c) 8 mH (d) 4 mH
(a) He-Ne Gas (b) Ruby
59. Which of the following is statements is incorrect?
(c) Semiconductor (d) All of these
(a) The unit of Magnetic field is Ampere/m
48. Laser light is intense because (b) The unit for magnetomotive force is Ampere-turns
(a) it has very less number of Photons that in phase (c) The unit for magnetic flux density is Weber
(b) it has very less number of Photons that are not in (d) The unit of permeability is Henry/meter
phase
60. Twelve 6 W resistors are used as edge to form a cube.
(c) it has very large number of Photons that are in
The resistance between two diagonally opposite corners
phase
of the cube is-
(d) it has very large number of Photons that are not in
(a) 5/6 W (b) 6/5 W
phase
(c) 5 W (d) 6 W
49. An Isotope without any Neutron is
61. Resistance of a wire is r ohms.The wire is stretched to
(a) Trituim (b) Deuterium
double its length, and its radius is halfed then its
(c) Protium (d) None of these
resistance in ohms is
50. In a closed organ pipe ____ is formed end and _______ (a) r/2 (b) 4r
is formed at the open end (c) 8r (d) r/4
(a) node, antinode (b) antinode, node 62. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f in a conductor
(c) vibration, oscillation (d) oscillation, vibration depends on the
51. Intensify of light is due to (a) amount of flux cut
(a) super position of two waves (b) amount of flux linkages
(b) Doppler effect (c) rate of change of flux linkages
(c) diffraction (d) flux denity of the magnetic field
(d) none of these 63. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 hz. Its angular
52. The frequency of tunning fork can be determined by frequency is ..radian/second
(a) magnetic tape (b) modulator (a) 50/n (b) 50/2n
(c) sonometer (d) reed instrument (c) 50 n (d) 100 n
53. Mass and weight __________ 64. The energy required to charge a 10 F capacitor to 100
(a) are same quantities V is
(b) Are different quantities (a) 0.10 J (b) 0.05 J
(c) No relation between them (c) 5 109 J (d) 10 109 J
(d) All of these 65. The relative permeability of iron is of the order of
54. The phenomenon of bending of light at the surface of (a) 0 (b) 10+4
separation of two media having different R.I is called (c) 1 (d) 104
(a) Deflection of Light (b) Reflection of Light 66. A current flows in a conductor from east to west. The
(c) Refraction of Light (d) Absorption of Light direction of magnetic fiels at a point above the conductor
55. To convert Celsius (Centigrade) to Fahrenheit
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 35
88. Which of the following circuits is used as a comparator 99. Master-slave configuration is used in FF to
(a) Astable multivibrator (a) increase its clocking rate
(b) Bistable multivibrator (b) reduces power dissipation
(c) Monostable multivibrator (c) eliminates race around condition
(d) Schmitt trigger (d) improves its reliability
89. The sampling unit in an automatic voltage regulator is 100. The number of comparisions carried out in a 4 bit
generally in the form of flashtype A/D converter is
(a) a Zener diode (b) a potentiometer (a) 16 (b) 15
(c) a transistor (d) a silicon diode (c) 4 (d) None of these
90. If a transistor is operated in such a way that output 101. Depth of an Arithmetic Circuit is
current flow for 60 degree of the input signal, the it is (a) Number of Gates in it
(a) Class A operation (b) Class B operation (b) Length of the longest path in it
(c) Class C operation (d) None of these (c) Sum of Number of Gates and Length
(d) None of these
91. The maximum speed of electronic switch can be
(a) 104 operations per second 102. Resolution of Analog to Digital Converter ranging from
(b) 102 operations per second 5V to +5V with 8 Bits coding is
(c) 103 operations per second (a) 3.9V (b) 0.39V
(d) 109 operations per second (c) 3.9 mV (d) 39 mV
92. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most 103. Which logic gate is similar to the function of two
important consideration is parallel switches?
(a) forward characteristic (a) AND (b) NAND
(b) doping level (c) OR (d) NOR
(c) reverse characteristic
104. The base or radix of a hexadecimal system is :
(d) PIC rating
(a) 2 (b) 3
93. For a four-input OR gate the number of input condition, (c) 8 (d) 16
that will produce HIGH output are
105. The logic performed by the circuit shown below is
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 15 (d) 0
1
94. The minimum number of 2-to-1 multiplexers required
to realize a 4-to-1 multiplexers is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 2
95. TTL circuits with active pull-up are preferred because (a) NAND (b) AND
of their suitability for (c) Ex. OR (d) None of these
(a) wire-And Operation
(b) bus operated system 106. The number of 4:1 MUX required to make 64:1 MUX
(c) wired logic operation is
(d) resonable dissipation and speed of operation (a) 16 (b) 64
(c) 20 (d) 21
96. The resolution of an n-bit D/A converter with a
maximum input of 5V is 5mV. The value of n is 107. Hexadecimal number system is
(a) 8 (b) 9 (a) an obsolete system no longer in use
(c) 10 (d) 11 (b) widely used in analyzing and programming
microprocessors
97. (1111.11)2 equals (c) used in calculators only
(a) 1.1010 (b) 0.7510 (d) none of these
(c) 15.310 (d) 15.7510
108. A master slave JK flip-flop consists of
98. Triggering action can be obtained in a JK FF by joining (a) a cascade of two SR flip-flops
(a) J and K points to ground (b) a JK flip-flop connected in series with a D flip-
(b) J point to X and K to X flop
(c) J and K points to positive supply (c) two SR flip-flops connected in parallel
(d) J point to positive supply (d) an SR flip-flop and a T flip-flop
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 37
109. The logic which has the highest speed is 120. A wheatstone bridge has ratio of arms of 1000 ohm
(a) DTL (b) RTL and 100 ohm, the standard resistance arms consists 4
(c) ECL (d) TTL decade resistance boxes of 1000,100,10, 1 ohm steps.
110. A n-stage ripple counter will count up to The maximum and minimum values of unknown
(a) 2n (b) 2n 1 resistance which can be determined with this set up is
(c) n (d) 2n + 1 (a) 111100 ohm, 1 ohm
(b) 11110 ohm, 10 ohm
111. Watt meter is an instrument which measures (c) 111100 ohm, 10 ohm
(a) instantanoues power (b) average power (d) none of these
(c) apparent power (d) reactive power
121. Dummy coil in a d.c. generator is provided to reduce
112. A balanced 3-phase star connected load draws power ___________
from a 440 V supply. The two wattmeters connected (a) mechanichal unbalance
indicate W1 = 4.2 kW and W2=0.8 kW. Calculate the (b) hysteresis losses
current in the circuit in Ampers (c) armature reaction
(a) 10.731 (b) 10.137 (d) tendency of reversal
(c) 10.271 (d) 10.371
122. If the flux of a dc motor approached zero ___________
113. Induction motor rotor always rotate at a speed _____ (a) its speed will approach zero
than synchronous speed (b) the motor will tend to run at infinite speed
(a) same (b) greater (c) the motor will stop
(c) less (d) infinite (d) its speed will remain unchanged
114. An RLC series circuit is said to be inductive if 123. Aluminium is not used as winding wire for the armature
(a) L > 1/C (b) L = 1/C of d. c. machine because
(c) L < 1/C (d) L = C (a) Aluminium has low resistivity
115. The Battery Capacity is expressed in (b) Of large winding space required by Aluminium
(a) watts (b) amps conductor
(c) volts (d) Ampere-Hours (c) Of low thermal conductivity of Aluminium
(d) Of high cost of Aluminium
116. In a balanced 3-phase 400V circuit, the line current is
115.5 A. When the power is measured by two wattmeter 124. The data transfer rate of a modem is measured in-
method, one meter reads 40kW and the other zero.what (a) bytes per second (b) baud rate
is the power factor of the load (c) bits per second (d) hertz
(a) 1 (b) 0.5 125. Companding is used in PCM to
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.8 (a) Reduce Bandwidth
117. In a synchronous machine when the rotor speed (b) Reduce Power
becomes more than the synchronous speed during (c) Increase S/N ratio
hunting, the damping bars develop (d) Get almost uniform S/N ratio
(a) synchronous motor torque 126. If the value of a resistor creating thermal noise is
(b) d.c. motor torque doubled, the noise generated is
(c) induction motor torque (a) halved (b) doubled
(d) induction generator torque (c) unchanged (d) slightly unchanged
118. In the analysis of a vacuum tube circuit, we generally 127. In PCM system Encoder
use ______________ Theorem (a) assignes quantized values
(a) superposition (b) Norton's (b) changes quantized value to binary value
(c) Thevenin's (d) Reciprocity (c) changes quantized value to numerical value
119. A dc circuit can be represented by an internal voltage (d) Changes numerical values to binary values
source of 50 v with an output resistance of 100 kohm. 128. Intermediate frequency used in commercial Medium
In order to achieve 99 percent accuracy for voltage Wave Super Heterodyne receiver is
measurement across its terminals, the voltage (a) 455 KHz (b) 10.7 MHz
measuring device should have (c) 38.9 MHz (d) 1450 KHz
(a) a resistance of atleast 10M ohm
(b) a resistance of 100 K ohm 129. What part of 192.168.10.51 is the Network ID,
(c) a resistance of atleast 10 ohm assuming a default subnet mask?
(d) none of these (a) 192 (b) 192.168
(c) 192.168.10 (d) 192.168.10.51
38 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
130. In a radio receiver, which of the following stages does 140. The z-parameters of the shown T-network im Figure
not need alignment ___________ given by
(a) TRF stage (b) IF stage 5 12
(c) antenna input stage (d) audio stage
1 2
131. The standard value of sampling rate of audio frequency
signal is ______________
(a) 4000 samples per second
8
(b) 8000 samples per second
(c) 10000 samples per second 1 2
(d) 16000 samples per second (a) 13, 8, 8, 20 (b) 13, 20, 8, 8
(c) 20, 13, 8, 8 (d) 8, 8, 13, 20
132. In tropospheric scatter links, it is necessary to have
_______________ 141. An antenna is desired to operate on a frequency of 40
(a) high transmitting power MHz whose quality factor is 50. The bandwidth of
(b) parabolic antenna reflectors antenna is
(c) low noise receivers (a) 20 kHz (b) 80 kHz
(d) all of these (c) 800 kHz (d) 8 kHz
133. A scheme in which several channels are interleaved 142. LAN works on which of the following Layers?
and then transmitted together is known as (a) Physical
(a) Frequency division multiplexing (b) Datalink
(b) TDM (c) Datalink and Network
(c) a group (d) Physical and Datalink
(d) a super group 143. On a Power grid the Load is genrerally
134. Tunnel diode can also be used as ____ power (a) Capacitive (b) Resistive
microwave oscillators (c) Inductive (d) All of these
(a) High (b) Low 144. A two port network is reciprocal if _________
(c) Medium (d) irrespective of (a) Y11 = Y22 (b) Y12 = Y21
135. The parametric amplifier has ____ gain and ____ noise (c) Y12 = Y11 (d) Y22 = Y21
figure 145. In delta connected circuit, when one resistor is open,
(a) Low, high (b) low, low the power
(c) high, high (d) high, low (a) remains same (b) reduced by 1/3
136. The maximum speed at which the data can be (c) reduced by 1/2 (d) increased by 1/2
transmitted on each channel of a standard PCM stream 146. Form factor is defined as
is (a) rms value/peak value
(a) 64 kbps (b) 128 kbps (b) peak value/rms value
(c) 2 Mbps (d) 4 Mbps (c) rms value/average value
137. A lossless transmission line is terminated in a short (d) peak value/average value
circuit. The minimum possible length of the line for 147. Magnitude of the impedance 4+3j is given by
which it appears as a short circuit at its input terminals (a) 7 ohms (b) 1 ohms
is (c) 12 ohms (d) 5 ohms
(a) /2 (b) /4
148. Two resistances R1 and R2 when connected in series
(c) (d) 2
give an equivalent resistance of 9 ohms and 2 ohms
138. Inductance and capacitance per unit length of a lossless when connected in parallel. The value of R1 & R2 are
transmission line are 250 nH/m and 0.1 nF/m (a) 3 ohms & 9 ohms (b) 3 ohms & 6 ohms
respectively. The velocity of the wave propagation and (c) 6 ohms & 1.5 ohms (d) 9 ohms & 1 ohms
characteristic impedance of the transmission line are
149. In a series RC circuit, the current ____ the voltage by
respectively
an angle ____ degrees.
(a) 2 108 m/s, 100 (b) 3 108 m/s, 50
(a) lags, of 45
(c) 2 108 m/s, 50 (d) 3 108 m/s, 100
(b) lags, of 0
139. The Characteristic Impedance of a low pass filter in (c) leads, between 0 and 90
attenuation Band is (d) leads, of 90
(a) 0 (b) Real value
150. To increase Q factor of a coil, the wire should be-
(c) Complex quantity (d) Purely imaginary
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 39
(a) long (b) thin 162. Murray, Varley and Fisher loop tests are used for
(c) thick (d) long and thin (a) short circuit fault in cables
151. Two ammeters A and B both 0-10 A have internal (b) open circuit fault in the cables
resistance of 1 and 0.5 respectively. They are (c) short circuit and ground fault in cables
connected in parallel. If total current is 15 A, then (d) open circuit and ground fault in cables
(a) IA = IB = 7.5 A (b) IA = 5 A, IB = 10 A
1 0.5s
(c) IA = 10 A, IB = 5 A (d) IA = 9 A, IB = 6 A 163. The transfer function represent a
1 s
152. The input impedance of CRO is about- (a) Lag network
(a) 0 (b) 10 (b) Lead network
(c) 100 (d) 1 M (c) Laglead network
153. To measure dielectric loss you would use- (d) Proportional controller
(a) Anderson bridge (b) Kelvin Bridge 164. The gain margin (in dB) for the system with open-loop
(c) Schering bridge (d) Maxwell's bridge
2(1 s)
154. The accurate voltmeter must have a resistance of transfer function G(s)H(s) is
s2
(a) Very low value (b) low value
(c) Very high value (d) none of these (a) (b) 0
(c) 1 (d)
155. A voltmeter having sensitivity of 1000 ohm/v reads its
150V scale when connected across unknown resistance 165. For a unity feedback control system the openloop
in series with a milliamter neglect the resistance of transfer function G(s)=10 (s+2)/s 2 (s+1) find
miliammeter when milli ammter reads 5 mA the acceleration error constant
millimeter will be (a) 10 (b) 20
(a) 0.1333 (b) 0.1566 (c) (d) 0
(c) 0.0333 (d) 0.0111 166. The number of sign changes in the first coloumn of the
156. Photo conductive cell is used for Routh's array denotes
(a) high frequency application (a) the number of zeros of the system in Right half of
(b) medium frequency application s-plane
(c) low frequency application (b) the number of zeros of the system in left half of
(d) all of these splane
(c) the number of open loop poles in Right half of
157. A aquadag is used in a CRO to collect __________ s-plane
(a) secondary emission electrons (d) the number of roots of characteristic equation in
(b) primary electrons Right half of s-plane
(c) both primary and secondary emission electrons
(d) none of these 167. The noise figure of an amplifier is 3 dB. Its noise
temperature will be about
158. The effective resistance of a coils at high frequencies is (a) 145 K (b) 290 K
more than its d.c. resistance on account of __________ (c) 280 K (d) 870 K
(a) skin effects (b) proximitiy effects
(c) eddy current loses (d) All of these 168. The response of second order system is oscillatory when
damping ratio is ______________
159. A triangular wave shape is obtained ______________ (a) 1 (b) 0
(a) by differentiating a sine wave (c) > 1 (d) 0 < < 1
(b) by integrating a sine wave
(c) by integrating a square wave 169. In a system if the poles lie off the real axis then the
(d) by differencing a square wave system is ________
(a) over damped (b) under damped
160. A megger is a device used for measuring (c) critically damped (d) none of these
(a) Extremely high current
(b) Extremely high voltage 170. A system having G(s)=1/(s+2)(s+5) and H(s)=10/s is
(c) Extremely high resistance of type
(d) Extremely low resistance (a) N = 1 (b) N = 1
(c) N = 2 (d) N = 3
161. Q meter works on the principle of
(a) Series resonant circuit 171. In an open loop control system
(b) Parallel resonant circuit (a) output signal has no control on the input signal ect
(c) Resistive circuit (d) None of these on the input signal
40 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
(b) None of the variables have any eff (c) Reverse PN Diode
(c) System variables effect the output signal (d) None of these
(d) All of these 182. In a oscilloscole, the sensitivity can be increased by
172. Laplace transform of a unity function is _____________
(a) 1/s (b) 1/s2 (a) decreasing the value of accelerating voltage Ea
3
(c) 1/s (d) Zero (b) increasing the value of accelerating voltage Ea
173. The force of a mechanical body in motion is (c) increasing the separation between the deflecting
(a) Mass X displacement (b) Mass X velocity plates
(c) Mass X acceleration (d) Independent of mass (d) none of these
183. ASCII stands for _______
174. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of ___
(a) American standard computer for information
(a) RC parallel circuit (b) Motor generator set
interchange
(c) Amplidyne set (d) None of these
(b) American standard code for international
175. The disadvantage of the Routh's criteria are interchange
(a) It provides information about absolute stability only (c) American standard code for information
(b) It assumes that the system characteristic equation interchange
is available in the polynomial form (d) American standard computer for international
(c) All of these interchange
(d) None of these
184. Which of the following is a nonmaskable interrupt?
176. In an 8085 P system, the RST instruction will cause (a) RST 7.5 (b) RST 6.5
an interrupt- (c) TRAP (d) RST 5.5
(a) only if an interrupt service routine is not being
185. What will be the content of acculmulator after the
executed
execution of XRA A instruction?
(b) only if a bit in the interrupt mask is made 0
(a) 1
(c) only if interrupts have been enabled by an EI
(b) 0
instruction
(c) Depends upon the current content of the
(d) None of these
accumulator
177. Which one of the following is not a vectored intrerrupt (d) none of these
(a) TRAP (b) RST 7.5
186. The basic building block of sequential logic circuit is
(c) RST 3 (d) INTR
(a) gate (b) flip-flop
178. Pseudo instructions are basically (c) ALU (d) control unit
(a) False Instructions
(b) Instructions that are ignored by Micro processor 187. The 8085 MPU requires a power supply of
(c) Assembler Directives (a) +5V single (b) +5V dual
(d) Instructions that are traeted like comments (c) +12V single (d) +12V dual
179. Which of the following statement is true 188. Cache memory is inserted between
(a) The group of machine cycle is called state (a) the memory and CPU
(b) A machine cycle consists of one or more instruction (b) the secondary storage and main memory
cycles (c) the archival storage and secondary storage
(c) An instruction cycle is made up of machine cycles (d) the secondary storage and CPU
and a machine cycle is made up of number of states 189. URL stands for
(d) All of these (a) unique reference label
(b) uniform reference label
180. A compiler is
(c) uniform resource locator
(a) a combination of computer hardware
(d) unique resource locator
(b) a program which translates from one high level
language to another level 190. Modulator at transmitting side and detector at the
(c) a program which translates one high level language receving side
to machine language (a) which deals with analog signals and show digital
(d) none of these information,
181. Which of the following diodes can be uses as Voltage (b) which deals with analog signals and show digital
Regulator? information
(a) Normal PN Diode (b) Zener Diode (c) Modulator at receving side and detector at the
transmitting side
[Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 41
(d) a device which deals with digital signals only 196. A passive element in a circuit is one which
191. Personal Computer genrally should not be used for (a) supplies energy
(a) Online Shopping (b) Ticket Booking (b) receives energy
(c) Server (d) Internet (c) both supplies and receives energy
(d) none of these
192. LINUX is
(a) Open Source OS (b) Closed Source OS 197. Assembly language is
(c) It is not a OS (d) None of these (a) Low Level Language (b) Portable
(c) High Level Language (d) None of These
193. The permanent memeory is
198. The basic elements of a microprocessor are _______
(a) ROM (b) RAM
(a) ALU, control unit
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) None of these
(b) ALU, memory
194. What is full form of ALU? (c) ALU, memory, I/O device
(a) Allowed logic unit (d) ALU, control unit, memory
(b) Ascii logic unit
(c) Arithmetic logic unit 199. Which of the following are most difficult?
(d) Arithmetic least unit (a) Using of MSwindows
(b) Programming in UNIX
195. Data link layer in IEEE standard is divided into two (c) Programming in Assembly language
sub layers of (d) Programming in machine language
(a) LLC and MAC
200. The following is not correct in file names MS-DOS
(b) LLC and IP
(a) it can be alphanumeric
(c) MAC and IP
(b) the chcaracters can be more than eight
(d) no sublayers are in data link layer
(c) the limit of characters is eight
(d) can have special characters like ~, $, @
42 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 26 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (3) 95. (d) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (d) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (a)
111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (d) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (b)
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (c) 130. (d)
131. (b) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (b) 136. (d) 137. (a) 138. (b) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (b) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (c)
151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (c) 157. (a) 158. (d) 159. (c) 160. (d)
161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (b) 166. (d) 167. (d) 168. (d) 169. (b) 170. (b)
171. (c) 172. (d) 173. (d) 174. (d) 175. (c) 176. (c) 177. (d) 178. (c) 179. (c) 180. (c)
181. (b) 182. (a) 183. (c) 184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (a) 187. (d) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (b)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (a) 194. (c) 195. (a) 196. (b) 197. (a) 198. (a) 199. (d) 200. (b)
Examination held on 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)
1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
44 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
1. Pick the Synonym for the word "transparent" 13. Who became the first India born basketball player to
(a) verbose (b) involved be picked in National Basketball Association (NBA)?
(c) lucid (d) witty (a) Balbir Singh (b) Satnam Singh Bhamra
2. Pick the most suitable one word substitute for "A person (c) Balbir Chauhan (d) Ramesh Rathode
who does not believe in the existence of God" 14. Which company has been awarded the Leading Oil &
(a) Theist (b) Atheist Gas Corporate of the Year-2015 award?
(c) Ascetic (d) Agnostic (a) IOC (b) ONGC
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the (c) HPCL (d) BPCL
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make 15. Which of the following festivals is not a harvest festival
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. of India
(a) Onam (b) Pongal
The differences between two photographs will remove
(c) Bhogali Bihu (d) Lohri
with the help of Photoshop.
(a) should remove 16. M.F. Hussain is famous for
(b) could have been removed (a) Poet (b) Musician
(c) must have removed (c) Painter (d) Journalist
(d) had removed 17. Name the state whose boundaries touch maximum
4. Choose the odd one from given four choices : number of states
(a) Honey (b) Pearl (a) U.P. (b) M.P.
(c) Coral (d) Resin (c) Bihar (d) Jharkhand
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given: 18. Which day is celebrated as world BioFuel
(a) Excessive (b) Exccessive (a) 10-August (b) 15-September
(c) Exccesive (d) Excesive (c) 30-August (d) 10-September
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the 19. Oxygen in our blood is transported by a protein named
given words: BELITTLE (a) haemoglobin (b) keratin
(a) Criticize (b) Flatter (c) collagen (d) myoglobin
(c) Exaggerate (d) Adore 20. The oldest mountains in India are
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (a) Aravalis (b) Vindhyas
alternatives. India is planning _______ many atomic (c) Satpuras (d) Nilgiri Hills
plants to generate power.
(a) builds (b) to build x2
21. x 2 1
dx is equal to-
(c) building (d) be builds
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Church (a) x2 + log(x2 + 1) + c
(a) Churchs (b) Churches (b) log(x2 + 1) x2 + c
(c) Many Church (d) Churchies
(c) x2 log (x2 + 1) + c
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
(d) x2 + log (x2 + 1) + c
statement in the question: A person who talks too much
(a) Astute (b) Discerning 22. The angle between two lines whose direction cosines
(c) Garrulous (d) Perceptive are l1, m1, n1 and l2, m2, n2 is-
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the (a) sin1(l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2)
sentences: We tried hard, and in the end, we were able (b) cos1(l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2)
to_____________ Pradeep ______________us his car (c) tan1(l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2)
just for an hour
(a) make / lending (b) force / lend (d) cot1(l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2)
(c) get / to lend (d) have / lent 23. The Laplace transform of e2t sin 2 is _______.
11. In which year was the TRAI set up? 2s 2s
(a) 1997 (b) 1998 (a) (b)
(s 2) 2 22 (s 2) 2 42
(c) 1999 (d) 2000
12. The focal length of lens of the eye is under the control 2s 2s
(c) (d)
of (s 2) 2 42 (s 2) 2 22
(a) iris (b) pupil
(c) ciliary body (d) cornea
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 45
24. Find the area of the parallellogram whose adjacent sides 35. A system consisting of two particles moves on a plane.
are given by the vectors Then the degree of freedom is
(a) 42 (b) (a) 2 (b) 3
42
(c) 4 (d) 6
(c) 21 (d) 21
36. For a conservative holonomic dynamical system, the
25. For Multiplication of matrix which of the following is Lagrangian L, kinetic energy T and potential energy V
true are connected by
(a) All Square Matrices can be multiplied (a) L = T + V (b) L = TV
(b) M N matrix can be multiplied with M N matrix (c) L = 2T + V (d) L = 2TV
(c) M N matrix can be multiplied with N A matrix 37. The Fourier sin transform of xm1 is defined by
(d) None of these
26. The Complex number a + ib can be represented as (a) x m 1 sin sx (b) x m 1 sin sx
0
(z, ), where is
(a) Tan (b/a) (b) Inv (tan (b/a)) (c) x m 1 sin x (d) x m 1 sin x
0
(c) Sin (b/a) (d) Inv (Sin(b/a))
38. Lsin2 at equals
1 (a) 2a2 / s(s2 + 4a2) (b) 2a2 / s(s24 a2)
(c) 2s / (s2 + 4a2) (d) none of these
27. Fill up the blansk (3 4 7) 2 = 18
? 39. A spectrum line = 6000 of a star is found to be
shifted 0.1 A towards longer wavelengths from the
(a) 2 b) 4 position of the same line in terrestrial laboratory.
(c) 1 (d) 5 Assuming the shift to be due to Doppler effect, what is
the velocity of the star?
2
28. x 2 dx (a) 5 104 m/sec (b) 5 103 m/sec
t 4
(c) 2.5 10 m/sec (d) 2.5 103 m/sec
(a) 7/3 (b) 3/7
(c) 2/3 (d) 3/2 40. An induction wattmeter can be used for
(a) both D.C. and A.C. (b) D.C. only
29. Find the distance between the points (3, 2) and (6,4).
(c) A.C. only (d) any of the these
(a) 85 (b) 79 41. Intel 8085 is an _____ MUP
(c) 5 3 (d) 3 5 (a) 8 bit NMOS (b) 8 bit CMOS
(c) 8 bit PMOS (d) 8 bit HMOS
30. Find the radius of a circle whose diameter has endpoints
(3, 2) and (7, 8). 42. The transition elements are also known as the _____-
block elements.
(a) 5 (b) 5 2
(a) a (b) b
(c) (2, 3) (d) 52 (c) c (d) d
31. The partial differential equation 43. In MKS system, the unit of time is
5(2z / x2) + 6(2z / y2) = xy is classified as (a) hour (b) second
(a) elliptic (b) parabolic (c) minute (d) day
(c) hyperbolic (d) none of these 44. Light waves
32. The partial differential equation (a) can travel in perfect vaccum
(2z / x2) 5(2z / y2) = 0 is classified as (b) require air to travel through
(a) elliptic (b) parabolic (c) require an electric field to travel through
(c) hyperbolic (d) none of these (d) require a magnetic field to travel throug
33. The ring Z[x] is 45. When light passes from air to glass, it experiences
(a) a PID (b) a UFD change of
(c) a PID and a UFD (d) none of these (a) frequency/ wavelength
(b) frequency and speed
34. Given that y1(x) = x1 is one solution of 2x2y" + 3xy'
(c) wavelength and speed
y = 0, x > 0. Then the second linearly independent
(d) frequency, wavelength and speed
solution is
(a) x2 (b) x 46. ____________ is a dimensionless quantity.
(c) x1/2 (d) x2 (a) Gravity (b) Specific Gravity
46 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
67. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two 75. An n-type silicon bar 0.1 cm long and 100 m2 cros-
resistors is 12 ohms. One of the resistence wire breaks ssectional area has a majority carrier concentration of
and the effective resistance become 18 ohms. The 5 1020 /m3 and the carrier mobility is 0.13 m2/V-s at
resistence of the broken wire is 300 K. If charge of an electron is 1.6 1019 coulomb,
(a) 48 ohms (b) 18 ohms the resistance of the bar is-
(c) 36 ohms (d) 24 ohms (a) 106 Ohm (b) 107 Ohm
5
68. Voltage drop across 14.5 Ohm resester as in figure is (c) 10 Ohm (d) 104 Ohm
14.5 Ohm 26.5 Ohm 60 Ohm 76. Assume that the of transistor is extremely large and
VBE = 07. V, IC and VCE in the circuit shown in the
figure are-
5V
4 k 2.2 k
(+) 200V () +
(a) 29 V (b) 30.5 V VEC
(c) 14 V (d) 18 V
69. The total conductance of the circut below 1 k 300
10 Ohm
83. Leakage current in the Silicon semicondcutor is in the 93. A master-slave flip flop has the characteristic that-
order of (a) change in the input is immediately reflected in the
(a) Amps (b) milli Amps output
(c) micro Amps (d) nano Amps (b) change in the output occurs when the state of the
84. In a N-channel JFET, Drain current is maximum when master is affected
Gate Voltage VGS is ______ (c) change in the output occurs when the state of the
(a) equal to + VDD (b) more than to + VDD slave is affected
(c) equal to "0 volts" (d) All of these (d) both the master and the slave states are affected at
the same time
85. Which of the following is true with respect to DC
Amplifier ( Direct coupled amplifier) 94. The ripple counter shown in the given figure works as
(a) Capable of amplifying DC signals a-
(b) is designed without use of any coupling capacitors
at input
(c) Poor Thermal stabilty J PresetQ J PresetQ J PresetQ
(d) All of these A B C
1 K Q 1 K Q 1 K Q
86. In a BJT, the base spreading resistance is of the order
Clock
of (a) mod-3 up counter
(a) 1 (b) 10 (b) mod-5 up counter
(c) 100 (d) 1000 (c) mod-3 down counter
87. Typically Ge transistors are operated over temperature (d) mod-5 down counter
range extending from
95. The Boolean experssion Y=A'B'C'D + A'BCD' +
(a) 25 C to + 175C (b) 65 C to + 75C
AB'C'D + ABC'D' can be minimized
(c) 65 C to + 175C (d) 25 C to + 75C
(a) Y=A'B'C'D + A'BC' + AC'D
88. Effect of cascading several amplifier stages is to (b) Y= A'B'C'D + BCD' + AB'C'D
(a) reduce the overall gain (c) Y= A'BCD' + B'C'D + AB'C'D
(b) reduce the overall frequency response (d) Y=A'BCD' + B'C'D + ABC'D'
(c) increase the overall gain and reduce the frequency
96. In a 3.5 digital voltmeter, the largest number that can
response
be read is
(d) decrease the overall gain and increase the frequency
(a) 999 (b) 1999
response
(c) 4999 (d) 9999
89. Schmitt trigger is also known as 97. For a 4096 8 EPROM, the number of address lines is
(a) squaring circuit (a) 14 (b) 12
(b) blocking oscillator (c) 10 (d) 8
(c) sweep circuit
(d) astable multivibrator 98. The ___________ gate is generally used to check for
or to generate the proper parity in a code.
90. Which of the following circuits is used is used for (a) NAND (b) NOR
production of delays (c) EX-NOR (d) EX-OR
(a) Astable multivibrator
(b) Bistable multivibrator 99. A circuit has an output that is determined by the present
(c) Monostable multivibrator input as well as previous output states, the circuit is
(d) Schmitt trigger known as
(a) mealey machine (b) moore machine
91. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn
(c) sequential circuit (d) None of these
junction are
(a) +ve terminal to p and ve terminal to n 100. Shifting the contents of a shift register, left by one place,
(b) ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n is equivalent to
(c) ve terminal to p and ve terminal to n (a) Dividing the contents by 10
(d) None of these (b) Dividing the contents by 2
(c) Multiplying the contents by 2
92. The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance (d) None of these
of a germanium crystal diode is about
(a) 1:1 (b) 100:1 101. CMOS circuits are extensively used for IC-chips
(c) 1000:1 (d) 40000:1 fabrication, mainly because of their extremely
(a) low power dissipation
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 49
132. Which of the following microwave tube amplifiers uses 141. Phase Modulation is gernerally not used for
an axial magnetic field and radial electric field? transmission because
(a) CFA (a) It needs higher power
(b) Coaxial magnetron (b) it needs large Antennaa Sizes
(c) Travelling wave magnetron (c) It is complex for decoding
(d) Reflex klystron (d) It does not carry much information
142. Voltage Controlled Oscillator is used for
133. The Hartley law states that _______________
(a) Decoding FM signal
(a) the maximum rate of information transmission
(b) Generating FM Signal
depends on the channel bandwidth
(c) Decoding AM Signal
(b) the maximum rate of information depends on the
(d) Generating AM Signal
depth of modulation
(c) redudancy is essential 143. The Characteristic impedance of transmission line
(d) only binary code may be used (a) Increases with increase in length
134. VLF waves are used for some types of services because (b) Decreases with length of line
(a) of the low power required (c) Independent of Line Length
(d) None of these
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 51
(a) 600 40 (b) 600 140 161. A 100 micro Amp, 3000 ohm meter movement, the
(c) 600 140 (d) 150 40 shunt resistance for double the current range is ____
(a) 100 ohm (b) 1,500 ohm
151. The Y plates of a CRO are excited by a voltage 2 sin (c) 3,000 ohm (d) 60K ohm
100 t and the X plates are not connected. The display
would be 162. A voltmeter must have a very high internal resistance
(a) a vertical line (b) a horizontal line so that the
(c) A sine wave (d) A slant line (a) accuracy is high
(b) resolution is high
152. The operation of a Thermocouple is based on (c) meter draws minimum current
(a) Thomson effect (b) Seebeck effect (d) loading is maximum
(c) Peltier effect (d) Faraday's laws
163. For a second order system settling time is Ts = 7 s and
153. A tachometer encoder has peak time is Tp = 3 s. The location of poles are
(a) one output (b) two outputs (a) 0.97 j0.69 (b) 0.69 j0.97
(c) three outputs (d) none of these (c) 1.047 j0.571 (d) 0.571 j1.047
154. Pulse Shaping in line coding is used for 164. The Nyquist plot of a openloop transfer function
(a) Using Optimum Power Consumption G(jw)H(jw) of a system encloses the (1, j0) point. The
gain margin of the system is
52 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
(a) less than zero (b) greater than zero 175. The margin between actual gain and critical gain is a
(c) zero (d) infinity measure of
165. The constant M circle for M=1 is the (a) Relative stability (b) Absolute stability
(a) staright line x=1/2 (b) Critical point (1, j0) (c) Sensitivity (d) Gain margin
(c) circle with r=0.33 (d) circle with r=0.67 176. The Programmable interrupt controller is required to-
166. The unity feedback system is characterised by an open (a) handle one interrupt request
loop transfer function G(s)=K/s(s+10). Determine the (b) handle one or more interrupt requests at a time
gain K, so that the system will have (c) handle one or more interrupt requests with a delay
(a) 10 (b) 100 (d) handle no interrupt request
(c) 1000 (d) 0.1 177. The number of hardware interrupts present in 8085 are
(a) 5 (b) 8
167. The impulse response of an R-L circuit is
(c) 10 (d) 16
(a) rising exponential function
(b) decaying exponential function 178. The correct sequence of steps to perform "Fetch"
(c) step function opearation in microprocessor is
(d) parabolic function 1. Opcode is decoded
168. A communication channel with additive whit Gaussian 2. Places the address of first byte of instruction on
the address bus
noise, has a bandwidth of 4 KHz and SNR of 15. Its
3. Gets opcode on the databus
channel capacity is
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 1
(a) 1.6 Kbps (b) 16 Kbps
(c) 2, 1 (d) 2, 3, 1
(c) 32 Kbps (d) 256 Kbps
179. SD RAM refers to
169. Feed back in an amplifier always helps to ___________
(a) Static DRAM (b) Synchronous DRAM
(a) increase its gain
(c) Semi DRAM (d) All of these
(b) decrease its input impedance
(c) stabilize its gain 180. A stack is normally used in digital computers to store
(d) control its output the return address at the time of a subroutine call
because
170. Gain cross over fequency is that frequency at which
(a) Stacks are nonvolatile memories
_______
(b) Stacks have large capacity
(a) |GH (j )| = 0 (b) |GH (j )| = 1
(c) Information in a stack cannot be altered by other
(c) |GH (j )| = (d) |GH(j )| = 1/ 2 instructions
(d) Stacks permit easy nesting of subroutine
171. Magnetic amplifiers are used for
(a) Voltage amplification 181. Multiplexing of address and data lines is used in
(b) Current amplification (a) Intel 8086 (b) Z-80
(c) Power amplification (c) 6502 (d) MC-68000
(d) All of these 182. In relational model, the data structures are
172. The loading effect on the potentiometer can be avoided (a) simple
by the use of (b) compiled
(a) Alternator (c) both simple & compiled
(b) Battery (d) All of these
(c) Constant current source 183. For fibre optical sencsors ___________
(d) Trimmer (a) multimode transmission is used
173. The frequency domain and time domain analysis are (b) single mode transmission is used
related through (c) both single and multimode transmission is
(a) Fourier transformation commonly used
(b) Laplace transformation (d) none of these
(c) All of these 184. MPU connections to the data bus are considered
(d) Z-transformation ______________
174. Transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of (a) input
output to input in (b) output
(a) Laplace transform (b) Z-transform (c) both inputs and outputs
(c) Fourier transform (d) Single algebraic form (d) none of these
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 53
185. In 8085 MPU, the flag flip flops have ______________ 193. The contents of information are stored in
status indicators. (a) memory data register
(a) 5 (b) 2 (b) memory address registerr
(c) 4 (d) 1 (c) memory access register
186. The 8085 is an enhancement of the popular INTEL (d) memory arithmetic register
____________ microprocessor. 194. DMA channel facilitates data to move into and out of
(a) 8080 (b) 8155 the system ____________
(c) 8355 (d) 8086 (a) on first come first serve basis
187. Which of the following is a DMA controller? (b) without program intervention
(a) Intel 8257 (b) Intel 8259 (c) without subroutine
(c) Intel 8255 (d) Intel 8253 (d) with equal time delay
195. In a compiler, the module that checks every character
188. The address bus of 8085 MPU is a group of
of the source text is called ______
(a) 8 lines (b) 12 lines
(a) the code generator (b) the code optimizer
(c) 16 lines (d) 32 lines
(c) the lexical analyzer (d) syntax analyzer
189. An I/O processor control the flow of information
between- 196. Dynamic memory cells are constructed using
___________
(a) cache memory and I/O devices
(a) transistors (b) MOSFETs
(b) main memory and I/O devices
(c) flip-flops (d) FETs
(c) two I/O devices
(d) cache and main memories 197. A program that can be used repeatedly throughout a
major program is called _
190. Which of the following services use TCP?
(a) subroutine (b) loop
1. DHCP
(c) program module (d) tempelate
2. SMTP
3. HTTP 198. A type of memory in which the stored data is not lost
4. TFTP when the power is turned off is called
5. FTP (a) megnetic memory (b) non volatail memory
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 5 (c) volatile memory (d) semiconductor memory
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
199. ADA is
191. The resultant binary of the decimal problem 49 + 1 = (a) machine code (b) assembly language
is __ (c) high level lanuguage (d) None of these
(a) 00110101 (b) 01010101 200. Extension in DOS files can have a maximum of
(c) 00110010 (d) 00110001 _______ characters
192. In high level programming language Pascal, each (a) 4 (b) 8
program statement ends with the (c) 2 (d) 3
(a) comma
(b) semicolon
(c) double quotation marks
(d) single quotation marks
54 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (h) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (d) 96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (b) 106. (b) 107. (b) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (d)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (c)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (d) 124. (d) 125. (c) 126. (d) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (a)
131. (a) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (a) 137. (d) 138. (b) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (b) 155. (d) 156. (c) 157. (d) 158. (a) 159. (d) 160. (b)
161. (d) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (a) 165. (a) 166. (b) 167. (b) 168. (c) 169. (d) 170. (b)
171. (b) 172. (b) 173. (b) 174. (b) 175. (c) 176. (b) 177. (a) 178. (d) 179. (b) 180. (d)
181. (a) 182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (c) 185. (a) 186. (a) 187. (a) 188. (d) 189. (b) 190. (b)
191. (c) 192. (b) 193. (a) 194. (b) 195. (c) 196. (b) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b) 200. (a)
Examination held on 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)
1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
56 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
1. Pick the Synonym for the word "SLUGGISH" (a) Jargon (b) Idiom
(a) active (c) Vernacular (d) Vocabulary
(b) energetic 10. Four parts of a sentence (P/Q/R/S) are given.
(c) inactive Arrange them in the right order to produce a correct
(d) suspicious sentence : providence had helped me/to retain my true
2. Which of the phrases (a), (b) and (c) given below should identity and/changed the course of my life/in the process
replace the phrase given in bold in the following (a) PSQR (b) PQSR
sentence to make the sentence grammatically (c) RSQP (d) PRQS
meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it 11. What is the name of the job portal brought under the
is and no correction is required, mark (d) as the answer. Common Services Centres initiative?
But in the hectic rush of events, both the military and (a) CSC Rozgarsahayata
civilian authorities will fail to make effective use of (b) CSC Rozgarduniya
the information they had collected. (c) CSC Rozgarmitra
(a) was failed in making effective use of (d) CSC Rozgarkaryalaya
(b) failed to make effective use of
(c) fails to make effective use of 12. Moti Masjid in the Red Fort, Delhi was Constructed by
(d) no correction required (a) Shershah
(b) Shahjahan
3. Mark the most appropriate substitute to fill the blanks (c) Aurangzeb
in the given description: (d) Bhahadurshah Zafar
His habits are very similar ______ mine
(a) Of (b) To 13. Which "Mobile App" has been launched by TRAI to
(c) On (d) With measure Mobile Internet speed
(a) SpeedAxis b) WhatSpeed
4. Choose the odd one from given four choices:
c) MySpeed d) MobileSpeed
(a) Radio (b) Stereo
(c) Gramophone (d) Televison 14. The present ISRO Chairman
(a) G Madhavan Nair
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given:
(b) K Radhakrishnan
(a) Obedeint (b) Obedient
(c) AS Kiran Kumar
(c) Obadeint (d) Obedeant
(d) None of these
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the
15. Who has been appointed as President of International
given words:
Cricket Council (ICC)?
(a) Influx (b) Homecoming
(a) Zaheer Abbas (b) Mustafa Kamal
(c) Return (d) Restoration
(c) Austin Garden (d) John Sheriff
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given 16. What are you doing? The most suitable answer to the
alternatives. question is
They ___________________ no notice of what people (a) I am in dark sleep
say about them (b) I am waiting for someone
(a) Make (b) Mind
(c) I was in dark sleep
(c) Take (d) Keep
(d) None of these
8. Change the direct narration to indirect narration : 17. Mahabharta was written by :
"If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you", he said to (a) Ved Vyas (b) Valmiki
her in a calm voice. (c) Tulsidas (d) None of these
(a) He said calmly that I shall shoot you if you don't
be quiet. 18. Which of the following is cold blooded animal?
b) He warned her calmly that he would shoot her if she (a) man (b) crow
didn't keep quiet. (c) lizard (d) tiger
(c) Calmly he warned her that be quiet or else he will 19. The longest National Highway in India runs from
have to shoot her. (a) Kolkata to Jammu
(d) He warned her to shoot if she didn't keep quiet (b) Bhopal to Kanyakumari
calmly. (c) Ambala to Nagarcoil
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the (d) Varanasi to Kanyakumari
statement in the question : 20. Which one of the following is described a the Fourth
Language which is confused and unintelligible Estate
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 57
(a) Executive (b) Legislature (a) the slopes of all four sides
(c) Press (d) Judiciary (b) the slopes of two opposite sides
21. Find the Inverse Laplace transform of f(p) = 1 / (p1) (c) the lengths of all four sides
(a) 1 (b) eat (d) both the lengths and slopes of all four sides
(c) cos at (d) cosh at 31. When proving that a triangle is a right triangle using
22. The maximum value of (1/x)x coordinate geometry methods, you must:
(a) e (b) e1/e (a) show that the slopes of two of the sides are negative
(c) (1/e)e (d) None of these reciprocals creating perpendicular lines and right
angles.
(b) show that the lengths of the sides satisfy the
23. In fourier series f(x) = a0 + n 1
{a n cos(nx) bn sin
Pythagorean Theorem, thus creating a right angle.
(nx)}, Euler formula is (c) both
1 (d) None
(a) a 0
2n
f (x)dx
32. If f(x) = 3x2, then F(x) =
(a) 6x (b) x3
(b) a 0 f (x)dx (c) x3 + C (d) 6x + C
27. If is the angle between two lines whose slopes are m1 37. Mathematical Expectation of the product of two random
and m2, then tan = _________ variables is equal to the product of their expectations"
(a) m1 m2 (b) m1 + m2 is true for
(c) (m1 m2)/(1 + m1m2) (d) (m1 m2)/(1 m1m2) (a) any two random variables.
(b) if the random variables are independent.
28. Find the midpoint of the segment joining the points (c) if the covariance between the random variables is
(4, 2) and ( 8, 6). non zero.
(a) (6, 4) (b) ( 6, 4) (d) if the variance of the random variables are equal.
(c) (2, 2) (d) (2, 2)
38. Consider the group Z495 under addition modulo 495.
29. When proving that a quadrilateral is a trapezoid, it is (i) {0,99,198,307,406} is the unique subgroup of Z495
necessary to show of order 5.
(a) only one set of parallel sides (ii) {0,55,110,165,220,275,330,385,440} is the unique
(b) one set of parallel sides and one set of nonparallel subgroup of Z495 of order 9.
sides Then,
(c) one set of parallel sides and one set of congruent (a) (i) is true, but (ii) is false
sides (b) (ii) is true, but (i) is false
(d) two sets of parallel sides (c) both (i) and (ii) are true
30. When proving that a quadrilateral is a parallelogram (d) both (i) and (ii) are false
by using slopes, you must find:
58 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
39. A hydrogen atom is excited from n=1 to n=3. What is 51. Echo of sound is more prominent if surface is
the value of energy absorbed by the atom? (a) soft (b) rigid
(a) 9.06 eV (b) 12.09 eV (c) porous (d) smooth
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 10.2 eV 52. Ratio of sin(x) of angle of incidence to sin(x) of angle
40. The element with maximum number of its electrons in of refraction is
the valence shell has atomic number (a) Gravitational law (b) Reflection law
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) Refraction law (d) Snell's law
(c) 9 (d) 15 53. Bending of light as it passes from one medium to
41. Candela unit according to system international is a another is called
(a) derived unit (b) supplementary unit (a) reflection (b) diffraction
(c) international unit (d) base unit (c) refraction (d) deflection
42. The electronic configuration of "Cr" with atomic 54. Refractive index of a medium is
number 24 is (a) Speed of light in air to speed of light in vacuum
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2 (b) Speed of light in vacuum to speed of light in air
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 (c) focal length to object distance
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1 (d) speed of light in the medium x speed of light in the
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s1 4p1 air
43. Which one of the following is not correctly match 55. Color TV has approximate power of
(a) kilo-watt-hour-energy (a) 100 (b) 110
(b) Celsiusname-of a king (c) 120 (d) 130
(c) Balance wheel in watchinvar
56. If a vector gets multiplied by a positive number, then
(d) newton-forces
its direction
44. These are used for bloodless surgery
(a) remain same (b) reversed
(a) Anesthetic (b) Fiber-optics
(c) gets half (d) gets double
(c) Lasers (d) None of these
57. Parameters for a RLC circuit are R= 2, L= 1H,
45. Which one of the following is not a unit of time C = 1F. If these are connected in series first and then in
(a) Micro second (b) Second parallel, the system response for both the circuits will
(c) Year (d) Light year be
46. Boltzman's constant and planck's constant differ in the (a) underdamped, undamped
dimensions of (b) critically damped, overdamped
(a) Time and temperature (c) critically damped, underdamped
(b) Mass and temperature (d) under damped, critically damped
(c) Length and mass 58. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for
(d) Length and time (a) DC only (b) AC only
47. Visible light's wavelength range ______________. (c) Both (d) None
(a) 0.39 0.77 mm (b) 0.39 0.77 m
59. Find the radius of an isolated sphere capable of being
(c) 0.39 0.77 nm (d) 0.39 0.77 cm
charged to 1 million volt potential before sparking into
48. Metals are __________. the air, given that breakdown voltage of air is
(a) Transparent (b) Opaque 3 104V/cm
(c) Translucent (d) None of these (a) 0.33 metre (b) 0.43 metre
49. Sky looks blue because the sun light is subjected to (c) 0.53 metre (d) 0.63 metre
__________. 60. In an a.c circuit,the ratio of kW/kVA represents
(a) Rayleigh scattering (a) power factor (b) load factor
(b) Compton scattering (c) form factor (d) diversity factor
(c) Rayleigh scattering and Compton scattering 61. Gausss law due to different charge distribution is used
(d) None to calculate
50. Soft materials absorb large amount of (a) electric field (b) electric charge
(a) heat energy (c) electric intensity (d) electric field lines
(b) light energy
62. Relative permeability of vacum is
(c) electromagnetic waves
(a) 4 10 7 H/m (b) 1 H/m
(d) sound energy
(c) 1 (d) 4
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 59
63. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is not (b) negative plates
influenced by (c) both positive and negative plates
(a) Thickness of conducting plates (d) electrolyte
(b) Area of the conducting plates 73. Electrons in atoms and molecules can change energy
(c) Distance separating the plates levels by emitting or absorbing
(d) Nature of the dielectric between the plates (a) Protons (b) Photons
64. The direction of induced e.m.f. in a conductor (or coil) (c) electrons (d) All of the above
can be determined by 74. When a lead acid cell is recharged
(a) work law (a) The anode becomes dark chocolate brown colour
(b) ampere's law (b) Voltage rises
(c) fleming's right hand rule (c) Energy is absorbed by the cell
(d) fleming's left hand rule (d) All of these
65. Electric Field is defined as 75. A bipolar junction transistor with forward current
(a) Potential per unit Distance transfer ratio a=0.98, when working in CE mode,
(b) Force Per Unit Charge provides current transfer ration as
(c) Voltage per unit Current (a) 98 (b) 0.02
(d) None of These (c) 49 (d) 0.49
66. Electric Field is a 76. A Series Series feedback amplifier is
(a) Scalar Quantity (a) Voltage amplifier (b) Current amplifier
(b) Vector Quantity (c) Transresistance (d) Transconductance
(c) Both Scalar Quantity & Vector Quantity
77. When a BJT is employed as an amplifier it operates
(d) None of these
(a) in cut-off (b) in saturation
67. Tesla is the unit of (c) well into saturation (d) over the active region
(a) Magnetic Field (b) Magnetic Flux
78. Electronic distribution of an Si atom
(c) Electric Field (d) Electric Flux
(a) 2,10,2 (b) 2,8,4
68. Power Factor of an A C circuit lies between (c) 2,7,5 (d) 2,4,8
(a) 0 and 1 (b) 1 and 1
79. Diamagnetic materials are
(c) 1 and 0 (d) None of these (a) Attracted by Both poles
69. A solar cell is an example of (b) Attracted by North Pole
(a) photo voltaic cell (b) photo conductive cell (c) Repelled by North Pole
(c) photo emissive cell (d) photo radiation cell (d) Repelled by Both Poles
70. Fidn the voltage across RL in figure when RL = 1 K 80. Ferromagnet can be demagnatised by
and 2 K (a) Heating to Curie Temperature
(b) Keeping Magnet in Alternating fields
1.5K
(c) Exposure to Cyclic Fields
(d) All of these
81. Botzmann Constant represents the variation of voltage
45V 12 ma 3K RL with
(a) Current (b) Resistance
(c) Pressure (d) Temperature
(a) 9V, 12V (b) 4V, 8V 82. The depletion layer in p-n junction is caused by
(c) 16V, 24V (d) 18V, 36V (a) drift of holes
71. Two lamps of 100W and 200W rated for 220 V are (b) diffusion of charge carriers
placed in series and a 440V applied across them, then (c) migration of impurity ions
(a) only 100W lamp will fuse (d) drift of electrons
(b) only 200W lamp will fuse 83. Which of the following configuration is used for Emitter
(c) both lamps will fuse follower Amplifier
(d) no lamp will fuse (a) Common Base (b) Common Emitter
72. The internal resistance of a lead acid cell is mainly due (c) Common Collector (d) None of these
to.. 84. Semiconductors (e.g. germanium, silicon etc.) are those
(a) positive plates substances whose electrical conductivity lies in between
60 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
112. Maximum speed of a synchronous machine for 50 Hz 121. In a synchoronous motor with field underexcited, the
is power factor will be ____________
(a) 1500 rmp (b) 3000 rpm (a) lagging (b) leading
(c) 20000 rpm (d) 30000 rpm (c) unity (d) none of these
113. A balanced star connected load of (8+j6) per phase is 122. Which relay is used for protection of feeders?
connected to a balanced 3-phase 400V Supply. Find (a) MHO relay (b) Translaty relay
the power factor (c) Merz Price protection (d) Buchholz relay
(a) 0.8 lead (b) 0.8 lag 123. The induced e.m.f. in the armature of a lap wound 4-
(c) 1 (d) 0.6 lag pole d.c. machine having 1000 armature conductors
114. The efficiency of d.c machine is maximum when rotating at 600 rpm and with 0.1 wb flux per pole is
variable losses are equal to (a) 1000 V (b) 100 V
(a) Constant losses (c) 10000 V (d) 10 V
62 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
124. A rectangular waveguide of internal dimensions a=4 (c) a, b are true for TEM mode
cm and b=3 cm is to be operated in TE11 mode. The (d) None of these
minimum operating frequency is 137. The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on
(a) 6.25 GHz (b) 12 GHz (a) Temperature
(c) 3.12 GHz (d) 5 GHz (b) skin effect
125. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is (c) Relative permittivity of dielectric
suppressed, the percentage power saving will be (d) None of these
(a) 50 (b) 150 138. A piece of coaxial cable has a 75 characteristic
(c) 100 (d) 66.66 impedance and a nominal capacitance of 69 pF/m. What
126. The basic Data rate of bearer channel in ISDN is is the inductance per meter ?
(a) 8 Kbps (b) 16 Kbps (a) 0.388 H/m (b) 3.88 H/m
(c) 64 Kbps (d) 384 Kbps (c) 38.8 H/m (d) 0.388 H/m
127. Which of the following will carry the same information 139. A parallel plate lossless transmission line consists of
as the AM wave itself ? brass strips of width w and separated by a distance d. If
(a) SSB (b) VSB both w and d are doubled then its characteristic
(c) DSB (d) All of these impedance will be
(a) halved (b) doubled
128. The disadvantage of FM over AM is that ____________
(c) not change (d) none of these
(a) the noise is very high for high frequency signal
(b) high modulating power is required 140. For transmission line load matching over a range of
(c) larger bandwidth is required frequencies, it is best to use a
(d) high output power is required (a) Balun
(b) Double stub
129. The input impedance of a line of infinite length is equal
(c) Broadband directional coupler
to ______________
(d) Single stub
(a) zero (b) Zo/2
(c) Zo (d) Infinity 141. Altrenately the characteristic impedance is called
(a) Match Impedance (b) Iterative Impedance
130. Microwave ovens operate at a frequency of __________
(c) Surge Impedance (d) Reflected Impedance
(a) 1.37 GHz (b) 2.45 GHz
(c) 3.37 GHz (d) 5.52 GHz 142. Johnson noise is
131. Quadrature amplitude modulation is a combination of (a) caused by thermal agitation of free electrons
______________ carrying current therefore modulating the current
(a) PSK & FSK (b) ASK & FSK (b) noise carried into a circuit through conductors
(c) ASK & ICW (d) ASK & PSK (c) noise of an electromagnetic origin that is radiated
into a ciruit
132. In an amplitude modulated wave, the value of Emax is (d) shot noise which results from emission of electrons
10V and Emin is 5V, then percentage of modulation across a pn junction
will be
(a) 2% (b) 33.3% 143. PSK and FSK are which type of modulation?
(c) 50% (d) 75% (a) Analog Modulation
(b) Digital Modulation
133. Typical gain of an amplifier for the UHF channels is (c) Both Analog Modulation & Digital Modulation
(a) 0 db (b) 2 db (d) None of these
(c) 5 db (d) 40 db
144. U interface in ISDN is the interface between
134. Which of the following stages has AGC bias (a) PSTN and Desktop
(a) Local oscillator (b) mixer (b) TA and ISDN Phone
(c) RF ampliffer (d) AFT discriminator (c) TA and non ISDN Device
135. If the modulation index of an AM wave is 0.6, the power (d) TA and PSTN
saved for transmission is ____ 145. Microwaves propagates through waveguide in
(a) 0.94 (b) 0.9 (a) Straight Path
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.5 (b) Circular Path
136. TEM mode in coaxial line has on. (c) Zigzag path due to reflection of guide
(a) no cut off wave length (d) Analog the outer surface of the waveguide
(b) direct current can't pass 146. Antennas used in Microwave Communication are
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 63
165. If the characteristic equation of a closed loop system is (a) Less than 9 db (b) More than 20 db
s2 + 2s + 2 = 0, then the system is (c) More than 3 db (d) Less than 10 db
(a) overdamped (b) critically damped 176. An 8085 microprocessor based system uses a 4K 8
(c) underdamped (d) undamped bit RAM whose starting address is AA00H. The address
166. In the standard form of closed loop transfer function of of the last byte in this RAM is-
second order system is given by C(s)/R(s)= 2n /s2 + (a) OFFFH (b) 1000H
2ns + 2n. The damping ratio = 0, then the system (c) B9FFH (d) BA00H
is 177. In the instruction MOV A, M
(a) undamped system (a) the content of memory addressed by HL pair is
(b) under damped system moved to A register
(c) critically damped system (b) The content of A register is moved to memory
(d) over damped system location addressed by HL pair
167. In the transient response of a second order system, delay (c) the 8 bit data is moved to A register
time td is the time required for the response to reach (d) none of these
the ____________ of the final value
178. The DBMS is divided into
(a) half (b) 1/ 2 (a) hierarchical mode (b) networking model
(c) 25% (d) 10% (c) relational model (d) All of these
168. The effect of addition of poles and zeros on phase 179. Find the invalid FOR loop structure
margin and gain margin can be most conveniently seen (a) FOR I=1 to N DO
in __________ (b) FOR J=1 TO 10 DO
(a) Bode plot (b) Nyquist plot (c) FOR K=1 TO (2*N) DO
(c) Root locus (d) Routh hurwitz (d) All of these
169. Which of the following is used for Nyquist plot? 180. For long distnce communication which of the following
(a) Characteristic equation data transfer technique is used?
(b) close loop function (a) Serial Transfer
(c) either 'a' or 'b' (b) Parallel Transfer
(d) open loop function (c) Serial Parallel-transfer
(d) Parallel Serial-Transfer
170. The best method for determining the stability and
transient response is __________ 181. System input of the Close loop circuit is output of
(a) Root locus (b) Nyquist plot ______________
(c) Bode plot (d) none of these (a) Controller after measuring the error
(b) Feedback after measuring the output
171. The electrical capacitance is analog of ___
(c) Direct input for desired output
(a) Fluid flow (b) Thermal resistance
(d) All of these
(c) Inertia (d) Spring
182. Which of the following instruction can alter the normal
172. The operational amplifier used in analog computers
incrementing of the program counter?
should have
(a) interrrupt (b) call
(a) very high gain
(c) branch (d) all of these
(b) very low gain
(c) Gain is not important 183. Which device converts, a decimal input number to
(d) Low input resistance binary
(a) accumulator (b) encoder
173. Usually the control system used should have
(c) ALU (d) memory
(a) No damping action
(b) Under damping action 184. In which logic gate, the output is HIGH when all the
(c) Critical damping action inputs are LOW?
(d) Over damping action (a) AND (b) OR
(c) NOR (d) NAND
174. The unity circle of Nyquist plot corresponds to 0 & B
line of Bode plot for 185. The word length for computers ranges from
(a) Low frequencies (b) High frequencies (a) 4 bits to 16 bits (b) 4 bits to 32 bits
(c) All of these (d) None of these (c) 4 bits to 12 bits (d) 4 bytes to 32 bytes
175. Band width is the range of frequencies for which system 186. There are _____ types of flags in 8086
gain is (a) 8 (b) 9
[Online 2016, 27 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 65
Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (b) 109. (d) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (a) 115. (a) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (d) 120. (b)
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (a) 125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (d) 128. (c) 129. (c) 130. (b)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (d) 139. (c) 140. (b)
141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (c) 146. (a) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (d) 150. (a)
151. (c) 152. (a) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (c) 156. (b) 157. (a) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (d)
161. (a) 162. (d) 163. (b) 164. (d) 165. (c) 166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (d) 170. (a)
171. (c) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (b) 175. (b) 176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (d) 179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (a) 182. (d) 183. (c) 184. (c) 185. (c) 186. (c) 187. (c) 188. (c) 189. (c) 190. (b)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (d) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (c) 199. (b) 200. (c)
Examination held on 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)
1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
68 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)
1. Pick the Antonym for the word " Urge" (b) should have happened / has been
(a) persue (b) deter (c) may happen / will have been
(c) request (d) instruct (d) can have happened / would be
2. Pick the most suitable one word substitute for "Doctor 11. The half girl friend book is written by
for skin disease" (a) A P J Abdul Kalam (b) Salman Rushidi
(a) Dermatologist (b) Cardiologist (c) Durjoy Datta (d) Chetan Bhagat
(c) Psychiatrist (d) Paediatrician 12. Who is the first Indian to become CEO of Google
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the (a) Indra Nooyi (b) Sundar Pichai
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make (c) Satya Nadella (d) Mark Zuckerberg
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct.
13. "Wings of Fire" is an autobiography by which political
(a) nick of time
leader
(b) nicked time
(a) Fidel Castro (b) A P J Abdul Kalam
(c) nick and time
(c) Mahatma Gandh (d) Winston Churchill
(d) no correction required
14. Which Indian movie has won International Federation
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice: The of Film Critics award at 68th Cannes festival?
invigilator was reading out the instructions. (a) Lunch Box (b) Masaan
(a) The instructions were being read out by the
(c) Piku (d) Messenger of God
invigilator.
(b) The instructions had been read out by the 15. The Planet which is most near to Sun is:
invigilator. (a) Earth (b) Mars
(c) The instructions had been read by the invigilator. (c) Mercury (d) Jupitor
(d) The instructions were read by the invigilator. 16. The Ist woman President of United Nations General
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given: Assembly was
(a) Embaras (b) Embarras (a) Margaret Thatcher (b) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(c) Embarrass (d) Embarrass (c) Eleanor Roosvelt (d) Srimaro Bandaranaike
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the 17. The longest dam of India
given words: (a) Bhakra Dam (b) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
(a) barbaric (b) famished (c) Hirakuda dam (d) Kosi Dam
(c) counterfeit (d) moderate 18. What is the name of the mobile application launched
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given by Telecom Ministry to aid digital literacy?
alternatives. The box was _____ heavy for that little (a) Arihant (b) Rashta
child to carry. (c) Disha (d) Manzil
(a) very (b) too 19. In National Film Awards, the Nargis Dutt Award is
(c) enough (d) much given to:
8. Change the direct narration to indirect narration: He (a) A film for wholesome entertainment
said to his father, "Please increase my pocketmoney." (b) Best film on Natonal Integraton
(a) He pleaded his father to please increase my pocket (c) Best Child Film
money. (d) Best film on social issues
(b) He requested his father to increase his 20. Which of the following is the name of currency of a
pocketmoney. country
(c) He asked his father to increase his pocketmoney. (a) Peru (b) Syria
(d) He told his father, "Please increase the (c) Lira (d) Zambia
pocketmoney"
21. The transfer function of the block diagram of Fig.
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
statement in the question: One who is indifferent to all G3
pleasure and pain R(s) C(s)
(a) Stern (b) Stoic G1 G2
(c) Egoistic (d) Eccentric
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the H
sentences: What ____________ to Varun? He said he
_______________ here at eight o'clock. G1 (G 2 G 3 )
(a) might have happened / will be (a)
1 G1H G 2 H
28 September, 2016 (First Sitting) Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 69
(a) x2 + y2 = 20 (b) x2 + y2 = 40
2 2
1 (c) x + y = 400 (d) x2 + y2 = 4000
(d)
(s 4a 4 )
4
34. Mathematically, what is a differential?
(a) A gear box on the back end of your car.
24. The Second Order Derivative of a function at Maximum (b) A word used a lot on a popular medical television
Level is series.
(a) Constant Value (c) A method of directly relating how changes in an
(b) Not related to function independent variable affect changes in a dependent
(c) None of the Above variable.
(d) Both Constant Value & Not related to function (d) A method of directly relating how changes in a
dependent variable affect changes in an
1 e x dx independent variable.
25. 0 1 e2x 2 35. At what value of q is the concavity of w(q) = 2,
(a) tan1 en/4 (b) tan en/4 if w(q) = q4 16?
(c) tan en/2 (d) none (a) At q = fourth root of 14.
26. Find the value of k, if the equation 3x2 + 8xy + ky2 = 0 (b) At q = 0.
represents perpendicular lines (c) Never; w(q) is always concave down.
(a) 3 (b) 3 (d) Never; w(q) is always concave up.
(c) 0 (d) 8 36. What is needed to fully determine an anti-differentiated
27. The equation of the hyperbola of eccentricity 3 and the function?
distance between whose foci 24 is (a) A lot of luck.
(a) x2 8y2 = 128 (b) 8x2 y2 = 128 (b) A boundary condition.
2 2
(c) 16x y = 128 (d) None (c) What its value is at (0, 0).
(d) Its real world application.
28. The point ( 4, 2) lies on a circle. What is the length of
the radius of this circle if the center is located at 37. Let f : X Y be an one-to-one map. Then which of the
( 8, 10)? following is not correct?
70 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)
(a) X may be a subset of Y 48. Metals can ________ the light beams.
(b) Y may be a subset of X (a) Reflect (b) Refract
(c) X should be equal to Y (c) Transmit (d) Any
(d) cardinality of X should be equal to cardinality of Y 49. Metals can transmit these ____.
38. ion of the partial differential equation yzp+zxq=xy is (a) Radio ways (b) Visible light
given by (c) Microwaves (d) x-rays
(a) x2 + y2 = c1 and x2 + z2 = c2 50. Snell's law relates ____________.
(b) x2 y2 = c1 and x2 z2 = c2 (a) Light relfection (b) Light refraction
(c) x2 + y2 = c1 and x2 z2 = c2 (c) Light transmission (d) Light Absorption
(d) x2 y2 = c1 and x2 + z2 = c2
51. Multiple reflections are called
39. The dimension for Torque are-
(a) reverberations (b) refraction
(a) M2L2T2 (b) ML2T2
(c) echo (d) compressions
(c) ML2T1 (d) M2L2T1
52. Sum of protons and neutrons in an atom gives off
40. Sound wave is a good example of- (a) nucleon number
(a) transverse waves (b) mass number
(b) longitudinal waves (c) atomic number
(c) both transverse and longitudinal waves
(d) both nucleon number and mass number
(d) none of these
53. Hydrogen atom has an approximate diameter of
41. Which of the following are the characteristics of LASER
(a) 10-9 m (b) 10-10 m
beam
(c) 9-10 m (d) 10-11 m
a. Directionality
b. Coherence 54. Elements which have same number of protons but
c. Monochromaticity different number of neutrons are called as
(a) a & b only (b) a & c only (a) isotopes (b) isomers
(c) b & c only (d) a, b & c (c) allotropes (d) allomers
42. A Q-meter uses the principle of 55. Proton number is denoted by symbol
(a) variation of self inductance (a) A (b) Z
(b) variation of mutual inductance (c) P (d) N
(c) series resonance 56. An electron can never be found inside nucleus', this
(d) None of these statement is according to
43. Two sources are said to be coherent if their emitted (a) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
waves have (b) Bernoulli's equation
(a) same amplitude (c) bohrs model
(b) same wavelength (d) both Heisenberg uncertainty principle and
(c) constant phase difference Bernoulli's equation
(d) All of these 57. For an RLC circuit, R = 20 , L = 0.6 H, the value of C
44. There are eight images of a candle which is kept in (in mF) for Critically damped, overdamped, under
between two plane mirrors. The angle of inclination of damped condition respectively will be
the plane mirror is (a) 6, > 6, < 6 (b) 6, < 6, > 6
(a) 60 (b) 90 (c) > 6, 6, < 6 (d) < 6, 6, > 6
(c) 40 (d) 45
s 2 7s 6
45. Unit of Intensity of magnetic induction field is 58. The network function is a-
(a) N/Am (b) Tesla s2
(c) Wb/m2 (d) All of these (a) RL impedance function
5
(b) RL admittance function
46. 10 Fermi is equal to (c) LC impedane function
(a) 1 meter (b) 100 micron (d) LC admittane function
(c) 1 angstrom unit (d) 1 mm
59. A 12 mA current source has an internal resistance, RS
47. Which of the following is Unit of length? of 1.2 k. The equivalent voltage source is-
(a) Lunar Month (b) Kelvin (a) 1.44 V (b) 14.4 V
(c) Candela (d) Light year (c) 7.2 V (d) 72 mV
28 September, 2016 (First Sitting) Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 71
(a) armature winding (b) field winding 133. The height of the transmitting antenna is 225 m above
(c) commutator (d) slip ring ground level, its radio horizon will be ______________
122. The brushes in d.c. machines are made of carbon (a) 120 Km (b) 76 Km
(a) to reduce the size of brushes (c) 60 Km (d) 225 Km
(b) to reduce the wear and tear of commutator 134. In radio receivers tube EM 84 is used as ____________
(c) to increase the efficiency of the commutator (a) magic eye (b) full wave rectifier
(d) None of these (c) audio amplifier (d) none of these
123. Transmission lines are generally operated at 135. A transmission line has a VSWR of 2, the reflection
(a) 132 KV to 220 KV (b) 30 KV to 66 KV coefficient is __________
(c) upto 11 KV only (d) 0.415 KV to 11 KV (a) 0 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.333333333333333 (d) 0.5
124. When Microwave signals follow the curvature of the
earth, this is known as 136. Sound loudness is represented by
(a) the Faraday effect (b) ducting (a) Frequency of sound signal
(c) tropospheric scatter (d) ionospheric reflection (b) Magnitude of sound signal
125. In an FM system, if modulating voltage is constant and (c) Both frequency and magnitude of sound signal
modulation frequency is lowered (d) Phase difference of the signal
(a) Relative amplitude of distant sidebands increases 137. Which of the following is incorrect?
(b) Relative amplitude of distant sidebands decreases (a) SWR is a measure of mismatch between the load
(c) frequency deviation increases and the line
(d) frequency deviation decreases (b) When a complex load is connected to a
transmission line, standing waves result even if
126. In a circular waveguide the dominant mode is-
magnitude of load impedance is equal to
(a) TE01 (b) TE11
characteristic impedance of line.
(c) TE20 (d) TE21
(c) A short circuited line less than /4 long behaves as
127. The modulation index of an FM signal, having a carrier a pure inductance
swing of 100 KHZ with modulation signal frequency (d) None of these
is 8 KHZ is
138. The voltage wave in a lossless transmission line has
(a) 6.25 (b) 12.5
the maximum magnitude of 6 volt and minimum
(c) 16.8 (d) 2.85
magnitude of 2.4 volt. The reflection coefficient of the
128. Data rate supported by Standard Ethernet is transmission line is
(a) 10 Mbps (b) 100 Mbps (a) 0.43 (b) 2.33
(c) 1000 Mbps (d) 10 Gbps (c) 1.4 (d) 0.71
129. The number of channels available in MF band (300 139. A transmission line is distortionless if
kHz 3-MHz) for AM modulating signal of 20 kHz is (a) RL = 1/GC (b) RL = GC
(a) 135 (b) 67 (c) LG = RC (d) RG = LC
(c) 150 (d) 15
140. A transmission line has the characteristic impedance
130. In PCM, if the number of quantization levels is Z0 and the voltage standing wave ratio is S . The line
increased from 4 to 64, then the bandwidth requirement impedance on the transmission line at voltage
will approximately be increased __________ times maximum and minimum are respectively
(a) 8 (b) 16 (a) Z0S, Z0/S (b) Z0/S, Z0S
(c) 32 (d) 3 (c) Z0S, Z0S (d) Z0/S, Z0/S
131. The intermediate frequency of a superhet receiver in 141. If a transmission line of length less than / 4 is short
450 KHz. If it is tuned to 1200 KHz, the image circuited, it behaves as
frequency will be- (a) Pure capacitive reactance
(a) 750 KHz (b) 900 KHz (b) Pure inductive reactance
(c) 1650 KHz (d) 2100 KHz (c) Parallel resonant circuit
132. The thermal noise is due to random ______________ (d) Series resonant circuit
(a) motion of atoms and molecules 142. A two port network is symmetrical if
(b) vibration of atoms about their mean position inside (a) A'=B' (b) B'=C'
the conducting medium (c) A'C'=B'D' (d) A'=D'
(c) motion of free electrons
(d) none of these 143. A transducer converts
28 September, 2016 (First Sitting) Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 75
(a) mechanical energy into electrical energy 154. A volt meter has a resistance of 2000, When it is
(b) mechanichal displacement into electrical signal connected across a d.c. circuit its power consumption
(c) one form of energy into another form of energy is 2 MW. Suppose this voltmeter is replaced by a
(d) electrical energy into mechanical form voltmeter of 4000 resistance, the power consumption
144. For higher Voltage three phase transmission will be
(a) Thick Neutral Wire is used (a) 4 mw (b) 1 mw
(b) Thin Neutral Wire is used (c) 2 mw (d) none of these
(c) No Neutral wire is used 155. Which one of the following is an active transdeucer?
(d) None of these (a) Strain guage
145. The Length of IP Address in IPV6 is (b) Selsyn
(a) 128 Bits (b) 256 Biits (c) Photovotaic cell
(c) 64 Bits (d) 32 Bits (d) Photo emissive cell
156. Pirani gauge is useful for measurement of pressure
146. High pass T Filter has
between __________
(a) Low input impedance at low frequencies
(a) 101 to 103 mm of Hg
(b) High input impedance at high frequencies
(b) 101 to 106 mm of Hg
(c) High output impedance at low frequencies
(d) Low input impedance at high frequencies (c) 101 to 109 mm of Hg
(d) 101 to 1012 mm of Hg
147. Which of the following expression shows correct
157. When an amplifier is overdriven and clips the input
function for 'Y' parameter in a two port network?
signal, the type of distortion occurs is ______________
(a) (V1, V2) = f(I1, I2) (b) (I1, I2) = f(V1,V2) (a) frequency distrotion
(c) (V1, I1) = f(V2 I2) (d) (V1, I1) = f(V2, I2) (b) amplitude distrotion
(c) phase distortion
148. For a two port reciprocal network , the three
(d) cross-over distrotion
transmission parameters are given by, A=3/5, B=7/5,
C=4/5, what is the value of D? 158. A voltage using a 20 micro Amp meter movement has
(a) 1 (b) 3/5 a sensitivity of
(c) 53/15 (d) 1/2 (a) 20 micro ohm/volt
(b) 1000 ohm/volt
149. Effective impedance in parallel resonance is given by
(c) 20,000 ohm/volt
(a) R (b) L/RC
(d) 50,000 ohm/volt
(c) C/LR (d) LC/R
159. Lissajons pattern can be used for determining
150. Kelvin's double bridge is used to measure low
(a) Voltage amplitude (b) Amplitude distortion
resistances because-
(c) Frequency distortion (d) Phase shift
(a) it has high sensitivity
(b) there is no thermoelectric emf 160. The connecting probe in CRO causes
(c) resistance variation due to temperature (a) loading
(d) effect of contact and lead resistances is eliminated (b) distortion in the wave
(c) loading and distortion in the wave both
151. A substance that changes its MB_Electrical resistance
(d) None of these
when light falls on it, is known as
(a) Photo Voltaic substance 161. Energy meter is a
(b) Photo conductive substance (a) recording instrument
(c) Both (b) integrating instrument
(d) None of these (c) indicating instrument
(d) none of these
152. Which of the following is true?
(a) Accuracy can be achieved without precision 162. The pressure coil of an energy meter has
(b) Precision can be without accuracy (a) few turns of thin wire
(c) Both Accuracy can be achieved without precision (b) few turns of thick wire
& Precision can be without accuracy (c) many turns of thin wire
(d) None of these (d) many turns of thick wire
153. A set of readings has a wide range and therefore it has 163. The root locus plot for a system is given below. The
______ open loop transfer function G(s)H(s) corresponding to
(a) high precision (b) high accuracy this plot is given by
(c) low accuracy (d) low precision
76 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)
167. In an open loop control system 176. An interrupt breaks the execution of instructions and
(a) control action is independent of the output diverts its execution to
(b) control action depends on human judgement (a) Interrupt service routine
(c) internal system changes are automatically taken (b) Counter word register
care of (c) Execution unit
(d) both control action is independent of the output (d) Control unit
and control action depends on human judgement 177. ALU of an 8085 MPU consists of
168. In a closed loop control system (a) Accumulator, tempory register, arthimitic and
(a) control action depends on the output and also on logical ckt
the input command (b) Accumulator, arthimitic, logical ckt, and five flags
(b) output signal is feedback to be compared with the (c) Accumulator, tempory register, arthimitic,logical,
reference signal arithmetic, ckt, five flages
(c) the accuracy is better than in open loop system (d) None of these
(d) All of these 178. Which interrupt has the highest priority
169. The unity circle of Nyquist plot corresponds to the 0db (a) RST 7.5 (b) RST 7
line for the Bode plot for ___________ (c) RST 6.5 (d) RST 3
28 September, 2016 (First Sitting) Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 77
179. The clock frequency of 8085 MUP is ______ MHz 191. Which are network layer devices and are particularly
(a) 6 (b) 4 identified as Layer-3 devices of the OSI Model.
(c) 3 (d) 2 (a) HUB (b) SWITCH
180. Which of the following does not constitute the minimum (c) MODEM (d) ROUTER
architectural unit of a microprocessor? 192. A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude 1 KV is amplitude
(a) ALU modulated by another sinusoidal voltage to produce
(b) Program Counter 30% modulation. The amplitude of each sideband term
(c) Programable Timers is
(d) BUS Buffer and Latches (a) 300 Volts (b) 150 Volts
181. Which type of RAM is easier to interface with a (c) 500 Volts (d) 100 Volts
microprocessor? 193. In a PCM system the number of quantization levels are
(a) static 16 and the maximum signal frequency is 4 KHz, the
(b) dynamic bit transmission rate is
(c) both static and dynamic (a) 64 kbits/sec (b) 32 kbits/sec
(d) none of these (c) 16 kbits/sec (d) 32 bits/sec
182. A complex device used to send and receive serial data 194. The number of first practical microprocessor was
over telephone lines is _________
(a) USART (b) SDLC (a) Intel 4004 (b) M 6800
(c) Modem (d) ASCII (c) Intel 8080 (d) Intel 4001
183. The speed at which serial data is transmitted is referred 195. In pushup list the item retrieved is the ___________
to (a) first item stored in last stack
(a) bps (b) baud rate (b) oldest stored item
(c) either (d) neither (c) most recently stored item
(d) None of these
184. Program is a
(a) combination of letters 196. A microprocessor with a 12 bit address bus will be able
(b) set of instructions to access ________
(c) a command in binary (a) 0.4 Kbytes memory (b) 8 Kbytes memory
(d) group of bits (c) 4 Kbytes memory (d) 1 Kbytes memory
185. The 8085 MPU has 197. Normally a microprocessor cycles between ________
(a) Three flags (b) Four flags (a) fetch and halt state
(c) Five flags (d) Six flags (b) fetch and interupt state
186. In 8085 MPU, sequencing the execution of instructions (c) fetch and execute state
is done by the (d) halt and execute state
(a) accumulator (b) flag 198. The processing of causing an unplanned branching
(c) stack pointer (d) program counter operation to occur usually initiated by external system
187. The order of priority for interrupts in 8085 MPU is is called __________
(a) RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, TRAP (a) debugging (b) interupt
(b) TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 (c) masking (d) iteration
(c) RST 5.5, RST 6.5, RST 7.5, TRAP 199. Compiler converts
(d) TRAP, RST 5.5, RST 6.5, RST 7.5 (a) Source code to Assembly language
(b) Object code to source code
188. The 8086 MPU permits a clock frequency of upto
(c) Source-codewnlachine code
(a) 1 MHz (b) 5 MHz
(d) One source code to another source, code
(c) 8 MHz (d) 10 MHz
189. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP 200. To store other operating systems (other than DOS), the
address 200.10.5.68/28? partition that can be made is
(a) 200.10.5.56 (b) 200.10.5.32 (a) Primary DOS partition
(c) 200.10.5.64 (d) 200.10.5.0 (b) Extended DOS partition
(c) NON-DOS partition
190. OSI has ______ layers (d) None of these
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
78 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 28 September, 2016 (First Sitting)
Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (b)
81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (d)
101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (b) 106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (d)
111. (b) 112. (d) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (d) 120. (d)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (b) 125. (a) 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (b) 130. (d)
131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (a) 135. (c) 136. (c) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (c)
141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (c) 145. (a) 146. (d) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (d)
151. (b) 152. (b) 153. (d) 154. (b) 155. (c) 156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (c) 160. (b)
161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (b) 164. (c) 165. (b) 166. (a) 167. (d) 168. (d) 169. (d) 170. (a)
171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (d) 175. (d) 176. (a) 177. (c) 178. (a) 179. (c) 180. (c)
181. (b) 182. (a) 183. (c) 184. (b) 185. (b) 186. (b) 187. (b) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (c)
191. (d) 192. (b) 193. (d) 194. (d) 195. (b) 196. (d) 197. (c) 198. (d) 199. (a) 200. (a)
Examination held on 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)
1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
70 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
1. Pick the Antonym for the word "NASTY" 13. Union Telecom Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad
(a) sad (b) clean announced that a postal stamp would be released in
(c) filthy (d) challenging honour of erstwhile Indian emperor
2. A person who is an Incharge of a Museum or an Art (a) Akbar (b) Ashoka
Gallery (c) Bahadur Shah II (d) Shah Jahan
(a) Invigilator (b) Anarchist 14. Which of the following is a primary colour?
(c) Curator (d) Superintendent (a) pink (b) black
3. Mark the most appropriate substitute to fill the blanks (c) red (d) white
in the given description : He was caught by the teacher 15. Galvanized iron is iron coated with_______
for cheating ________________the exam. (a) zinc (b) gold
(a) During (b) After (c) silver (d) copper
(c) Near (d) Outside
16. Whose signature is found on the one rupee currency
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice : notes?
Darjeeling grows tea. (a) The President
(a) Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling. (b) The Finance Minister
(b) Tea is grown in Darjeeling. (c) The Governor of Reserve Bank
(c) Tea grows in Darjeeling. (d) The Finance Secretary
(d) Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
17. On which of the following plants did Gregor Mendal
5. The first two words are related in a particular manner. perform his classical experiment?
Select the word from given choices, which is related to (a) Maize (b) Pea
third one in the same manner : PAIN:SEDATIVE ::grief (c) Wheat (d) Gram
(a) consolation (b) ache
18. Which organ of the body is affected by Leucoderma?
(c) trance (d) stimulant
(a) Heart (b) Kidney
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the (c) Lungs (d) Skin
given words: PRECARIOUS
19. What is the present Loksabha Constituency of Sushma
(a) menacing (b) threatening
Swaraj?
(c) secured (d) unsafe
(a) Ambala (b) Delhi
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (c) Bellry (d) Vidisha
alternatives. " One should not be in different 20. The European Union adopted which of the following
__________ the suffering of others as common currency
(a) about (b) to (a) Dollar (b) Peso
(c) of (d) at (c) Euro (d) Yen
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Negro 21. The real part of sin (x + iy) is-
(a) Negries (b) Nigger (a) sin x cos y (b) sin x cosh x
(c) Negros (d) Negroes (c) cos x sinh y (d) cos x sin y
9. Choose the word /group of words which is similar in
22. Two or more vectors are said to be if -------------they
meaning to the word. Eulogize
are parallel to the same line, irrespective of their
(a) Harm (b) Praise
magnitudes and directions.
(c) Extract (d) Penalise
(a) EQUAL VECTORS
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the (b) COINITIAL VECTORS
sentences: ____________ drawings is different. (c) COLLINEAR VECTORS
(a) Each one of the (b) Very few (d) None of these
(c) Every (d) All of these 23. Then product of A and B matrix
11. Which Bank launched India's first MUDRA card under
Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana 1 2
1 2 3 3 4 then
(a) Corporation Bank (b) State Bank of India If A and B
3 0 2
(c) Central Bank (d) Reserve Bank of India 4 3
12. On which date, Telangana state Foundation Day is
observed? 3 2 3 8
(a) (b)
(a) 30-May (b) 31-May 3 4 4 1
(c) 2-Jun (d) 4-Jun
[Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 71
81. The smallest of the four h-parameter of transistor is 93. The noise margin of a TTL gate is about-
(a) hi (b) hr (a) 0.2 V (b) 0.4 V
(c) ho (d) hf (c) 0.6 V (d) 0.8 V
94. Bistable multivibrator is also known as-
(a) Binary
82. Symbol represents (b) Flip-flop
(c) Eceless Jordan Circuit
(d) All of these
(a) Voltage Source (b) Capacitor
(c) Current Source (d) Resistance 95. The minimum number of two input NAND Gates
required to implement two input NOR Gate is
83. Base of Bipolar Junction Transistor is (a) 2 (b) 3
(a) Larger than Emitter (c) 4 (d) 5
(b) Larger than Collector
(c) Smaller than Emitter and Collector 96. How is a J-K flip-flop made to toggle?
(d) Larger than emitter but smaller than Collector (a) J = 1, K = 1 (b) J = 0, K = 1
(c) J = 1, K = 0 (d) J = 0, K = 0
84. LED gives off visible light from :
(a) region off depletion layer 97. The minimum number of two input NOR & NAND
(b) p region alone gates required to implement a "Buffer function is _____
(c) n region alone (a) 2 NOR Gates
(d) both p and n regions (b) 2 NAND Gates
(c) 1 NAND & 1 NOR Gate
85. In a common base transistor circuit IC = 0.97 A, IB = (d) All of these
30A the circuit gain a is
(a) 0.97 (b) 0.097 98. A Shift register is operating/connected with 100 KHz
(c) 95 (d) 500 clock. The time taken to feed the 2 Bytes of data serially
in to it is ____
86. The loop gain of a Schmitt Trigger is always (a) 2 sec (b) 80 sec
(a) 0 (b) Less than 1 (c) 160 sec (d) 16 sec
(c) Greater than 1 (d) None
99. A 12 MHz clock frequency is applied to a cascaded
87. The capacitive effects of a reverse biased PN Junction counter containing a modulus-5 counter, a modulus-8
are described by counter, and two modulus-10 counters. The lowest
(a) Storage capacitance (b) Diffusion capacitance output frequency possible is ________
(c) Junction capacitance (d) All of these (a) 30 kHz (b) 3 kHz
88. In Insulators, the energy gap between valence and (c) 363.6 KHz (d) None of these
conduction bands is overlapped 100. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a
(a) very small (b) very large reference of 5 volts. What is the analog output for the
(c) overlapped (d) 1 eV input code 1010.
89. A field-effect transistor (FET) (a) 0.3125 V (b) 3.125 V
(a) has three pn junction (c) 1.5625 V (d) 3.75 V
(b) uses a forward biased junction 101. Signals from 4 channel sources are to be transmitted
(c) depends on the variation of a reverse voltage for through a single transmission channel. The circuit that
its operation can be used is
(d) depends on the variation of magnetic field for its (a) code converter (b) decoder
operation (c) multiplexer (d) all of these
90. In a feedback amplifier, d-esensitivity D equals 102. In differential amplifier, CMRR can be improved by
(a) A (b) 1 A using an increased
(c) 1 + A (d) 1/1 + A (a) emitter resistance
91. The costliest coupling is (b) collector resistance
(a) RC coupling (b) Direct coupling (c) power supply voltages
(c) Impedance coupling (d) Transformer coupling (d) source resistance
92. A Zener diode is used as 103. Quantization error occurs in __________ Systems
(a) an amplifier (b) a voltage regulator (a) Analog to Digital Conversion
(c) a rectifier (d) a multivibrator (b) Digital to Analog Conversion
[Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 75
(c) Both Analog to Digital Conversion & Digital to 115. An electron having mass 'm' kg and charge 'e' coulomb
Analog Conversion travels from rest through a potential difference of 'V'
(d) None of these volts. It has a kinetic energy of ?
104. A flip-flop can store (a) mV joules (b) m eV joules
(a) 1 bit of data (b) 2 bits of data (c) eV joules (d) m/e joules
(c) 3 bits of data (d) 4 bits of data 116. The maximum flux density in the core of a 250/3000
105. Which of the following memories requires refreshing volts, 50-Hz single phase transformer is 1.2Wb/m2. If
cycle? the e.m.f per turn is 8 volt. Then what is the value of
(a) RAM (b) ROM primary and secondary turns
(c) dynamic MOS (d) All of these (a) 208 & 32 (b) 375 & 32
(c) 208 & 375 (d) 32 & 375
106. Unit distance codes are also called as
117. In synchronous motor, damper winding is provided in
(a) Cyclic Codes (b) Non Cyclic codes
order to
(c) Error codes (d) All of these
(a) stabilize rotor motion
107. The number of NAND Gates required to implement (b) suppress rotor oscillation
Ex-OR and Ex-NOR gates are______respectively (c) develop necessary starting torque
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 2 (d) both stabilize rotor motion and develop necessary
(c) 4 and 5 (d) 4 and 3 starting torque
108. The device which selects one of the several inputs and 118. Circuit turn- off time of an SCR is defined as the time
transmits it to a single output is (a) taken by the SCR turn to be off
(a) decoder (b) multiplexer (b) required for the SCR current to become zero
(c) de-multiplexer (d) counter (c) for which the SCR is reverse biased by the
109. Which out of the following logic families is most commutation circuit
expensive? (d) for which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce its
(a) RTL (b) TTL current below the holding current
(c) DTL (d) ECL 119. Capacitors with solid dielectric materials are used
110. Switching speed of ECL logic is very high because because
(a) it uses positive logic (a) they give a reduced dielectric loss
(b) it uses negative logic (b) they are smaller in size as compared with air
(c) it uses high speed transistors capacitors
(d) its transistors remain unsaturated (c) they have a lower capacitance value as compared
with air capacitors
111. As the load is increased, the speed of a dc shunt motor (d) none of these
(a) Increases proportionately
(b) Remains constant 120. The output of three Phase simple half wave rectifier is
(c) Increases slightly also called as
(d) Reduces slightly (a) Pulse number six (b) Pulse number three
(c) Pulse number four (d) Pulse number two
112. At relatively light loads, transformer efficiency is low
because 121. One TR (Unit of Refrigeration) is equal to
(a) Secondary output is low (a) 3.157 KW (b) 5.317 KW
(b) Transformer losses are high (c) 3.715 KW (d) 3.517 KW
(c) Fixed loss is high in proportion to the output 122. For extra high voltage lines which circuit breaker is
(d) Cu loss is small preferred?
113. The function of a cycloconverter is to convert (a) SF6 gas circuit breaker
(a) AC power into DC power (b) Bulk oil circuit breaker
(b) Direct current to alternating current (c) Vacuum circuit breaker
(c) High ac frequency directly to low ac frequency (d) Minimum oil circuit breaker
(d) A sine wave into a rectangular wave 123. In single phase full converter, for load current I ripple
114. In pulse width modulation of chopper free, average thyristor current is
(a) T is kept constant and Ton is varied (a) 1/4 I (b) 1/2 I
(b) Ton is kept constant T is varied (c) 3/4 I (d) I
(c) both T and Ton are varied 124. A carrier is simultaneously amplitude modulated by two
(d) either T or Ton is varied sine waves with modulation indices of 0.4 and 0.3. The
resultant modulation index will be:
76 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
(a) above fc (b) below fc (c) Use of Parity bits for error check
(c) at zero (d) at infinity (d) Simultaneous Transmission of Signals
146. Condition for minimum distortion at all frequencies 157. The minimum standing waves occur where reflection
for a transmission line is coefficient is _________
(a) LR = CG (b) LC = GR (a) zero (b) 1
(c) LG = CR (d) None (c) 1 (d) none of these
147. If four 80 micro farad capacitors are connected in series, 158. Attenuator have _____
the net capacitance is (a) attenuation constant
(a) 20 micro farads (b) 40 micro farads (b) phase constant
(c) 160 micro farads (d) 320 microfarads (c) gain and phase constant
(d) attenuation and phase constant
148. The Kirchoffs laws fail in
(a) lumped parameters circuit 159. The quality factor 'Q' of aninductance coil is improved
(b) distributed parameter circuit (a) by reducing coil resistance to minimum
(c) non linear circuits (b) by increasing coil inductance
(d) linear circuits (c) by increasing coil resistance to the maximum
149. A coil has an inductance of 1 henry if a current changing (d) by reducing coil inductance
at the rate of 1 amp/sec 160. Moving coil meter is used to measure only ___
(a) induces 1 volt in another coil (a) D.C. (b) A.C.
(b) causes a back emf of 1 volt (c) D.C. and A.C. (d) None of these
(c) causes an aiding emf of 1 volt
161. Energy is given by the product of
(d) causes transformer action.
(a) force and time (b) time and power
150. The current through the coil of an electromagnet is (c) power and distance (d) force and distance
doubled. The magnetic field around the coil-
162. The frequency range of vibrating reed frequency meter
(a) is halved (b) is doubled
is ____
(c) becomes four times (d) remains the same
(a) 67 Hz to 83 Hz (b) 50 Hz to 100 Hz
151. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be (c) 47 Hz to 53 Hz (d) 60 Hz to 100 Hz
used as _____ by using a low resistance shunt 163. A feedback control system is shown in fig. The transfer
(a) voltmeters function for this system is
(b) ammeters
(c) ohmmeters and resistance bridges R 1 C
G2 G3
(d) All of these G1
152. Standard resistor is made from
(a) platinum (b) manganin H2
(c) silver (d) nichrome
153. Which of the following voltmeters would you use for G1G 2 G 2G3
measuring voltage across 20 k resistance (a) (1 H G G G ) (b) G (1 H G G )
1 1 2 3 1 1 2 3
(a) Voltmeter having a resistance of 5 k
(b) Voltmeter having a sensitivity of 1 kW/V G 2G3 G1G 3
(c) Voltmeter having sensitivity of 10 kW/V (c) (1 H G G G ) (d) (1 H G G G )
1 1 2 3 1 1 2 3
(d) None of these
164. If the gain of the loop system is doubled the gain margin
154. In a measurement systems, which of the following static
of the system is
characteristic are desirable.
(a) Not Affected
(a) accuracy (b) sensitivity
(b) Doubled
(c) reproducibility (d) All of these
(c) Halved
155. PSK is ______________ type of modulation (d) One fourth of original value
(a) Analog (b) Digital
165. G(s) = 1/s(1 + 6s) the system is
(c) Amplitude (d) Angle
(a) Stable (b) Unstable
156. The Speed of the Modems could be increased from 9.6 (c) Marginally Stable (d) Conditionally Stable
Kbps to Higher by
166. Sinusoidal oscillator are
(a) Increasing the Compression rate
(a) stable (b) Unstable
(b) Using High Class decoding
(c) marginally Stable (d) Conditionally Stable
78 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
167. With respect to root locus technique for construction of 176. The contents of register (B) and accumulator (A) of
root locus, identify the false statement 8085 microprocessor are 49H and 3AH respectively. The
(a) The root locus is symmetrical about the real axis contents of A and status of carry (CY) and sign (S)
(b) The root locus technique is powerful tool for after execution SUB B instructions are
adjusting the location of closed loop poles to (a) A = F1, CY = 1, S = 1
achieve the desired system performance by varying (b) A = 0F, CY = 1, S = 1
one or more system parametres. (c) A = F0, CY = 0, S = 0
(c) segments of the real axis having an odd number of (d) A = 1F, CY = 1, S = 1
real axis open-loop poles plus zeros to their right 177. If CS = A15A14A13 is used as the chip select logic of a
are parts of the root locus. 4 K RAM in an 8085 system, then its memory range
(d) None of these will be-
168. In the standard form of closed loop transfer function of (a) 3000 H 3 FFF H
second order system is given by C(s)/R(s)= 2n/ (b) 7000 H 7 FFF H
s2 + 2ns + 2n The damping ratio =1 then the roots (c) 5000 H 5 FFF H and 6000 H 6 FFF H
are (d) 6000 H 6 FFF H and 7000 H 7 FFF H
(a) purely imaginary (b) real and equal 178. Which interrupt has the highest priority?
(c) real and unequal (d) None of these
(a) INTR (b) TRAP
169. The statements that holds good for relative stability (c) RST6.5 (d) none of these
analysis is 179. For which of the following devices, is DMA the most
(a) Routh array method can not be used suitable
(b) graphical methods can not be used (a) Hard disk (b) Key board
(c) graphical method can be used but Routh array can (c) Mouse (d) Joy Stick
not be used
(d) both graphical as well as Routh array can be used 180. The 8085 MUP is available in _______ pin DIP
(a) 60 (b) 40
170. A servo system must have
(c) 24 (d) 14
(a) feedback system
(b) power amplifier to amplify error 181. HOLD & HLDA pair provides the handshaking signals
(c) capacity to control position or its derivative required for ____________operation
(d) all of these (a) UART (b) USART
(c) DMA (d) All
171. For the characteristic equation 2s3 + 4s2 + 4s + 12 = 0
the number of roots with positive real parts is 182. "Cycle steal" operation is with
__________ (a) DMA controller
(a) none (b) one (b) Interrupt Controller
(c) two (d) three (c) Keyboard Display Controller
(d) Microcontroller
172. The transfer function is applicable to ___________
(a) linear system only 183. Thyristor chopper circuits are emplyed for
(b) non linear system only (a) lowering the level of a d.c. voltage
(c) linear and time invariant system (b) rectifying the a.c. voltage
(d) linear and time variant system (c) frequency conversion
(d) providing commutating circuitry
173. For a system having transfer function P(s) = 2/(s + 2),
the phase shift will be 184. Find the incorrect pascal reserved word
(a) tan1 (1/3) (b) 1/tan1 (2/3) (a) AND (b) END
1
(c) tan (3/4) (d) tan1 (1/2) (c) VAR (d) ELSEIF
174. The temperature of a thermal system is analog of ___ 185. Microprocessor is
(a) Voltage (b) Current (a) ALU and memory on a single chip
(c) Capacitance (d) Inductance (b) ALU and I/O devices on a single chip
(c) ALU and control unit on a single chip
175. Choose the non-linear systems from the following
(d) ALU, register unit and control unit on a single chip
(a) Servo motors under saturation range operation
(b) Temperature controlled furnace 186. Stack pointer ________ bit register.
(c) Automatic voltage stabilizers (a) 4 (b) 8
(d) All of these (c) 16 (d) 32
187. 8085 operates with
[Online 2016, 28 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 79
Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (b) 100. (b)
101. (c) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (d) 105. (c) 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (d)
111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (c) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (d) 122. (a) 123. (b) 124. (b) 125. (c) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (a) 130. (d)
131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139. (a) 140. (c)
141. (d) 142. (a) 143. (a) 144. (c) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (b)
151. (b) 152. (b) 153. (c) 154. (d) 155. (b) 156. (c) 157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (c)
161. (c) 162. (d) 163. (b) 164. (c) 165. (c) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (b) 169. (d) 170. (d)
171. (c) 172. (c) 173. (d) 174. (a) 175. (d) 176. (b) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (b)
181. (c) 182. (a) 183. (a) 184. (d) 185. (d) 186. (b) 187. (c) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (c)
191. (c) 192. (b) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (b) 197. (b) 198. (c) 199. (c) 200. (d)
Examination held on 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)
1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
82 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
1. Pick the Synonym for the word MAWKISH (c) being given/to expand
(a) silly (b) foolish (d) having given/having expanded
(c) disgusting (d) crooked 11. The Global Navigation Satellite System GLONASS is
2. Pick the most suitable one word substitute for A person a space-based satellite navigation system operated by
who loves mankind and works for their well-being. (a) USA (b) India
(a) Trustee (b) Philanthropist (c) Russian Federation (d) France
(c) Devotee (d) Anthropologist 12. Which country is hosting the 16th World Sanskrit
3. Which of the choices given below should replace the Conference?
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make (a) Thailand (b) Bangladesh
the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. A (c) China (d) Sri Lanka
more developed model of this car may be showing in
13. Who became the first fielder in Test Cricket history to
the showroom soon.
take eight catches in a match?
(a) had shown (b) will be shown
(a) Ajinkya Rahane (b) Wasim Akram
(c) was shown (d) is going to show
(c) Anil Kumble (d) Javagal Srinath
4. Change the following sentences into passive voice: 14. Who wrote the famous book Malgudi Days?
A child could not have done this mischief. (a) V.S. Naipaul (b) Deepak Chopra
(a) This mischief could not been done by a child. (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) R.K.Narayan
(b) This mischief could not have been done by a child.
15. If there is 10:30 in India what will be the time in
(c) This mischief a child could not have been done.
Pakistan?
(d) This mischief could not be done by a child.
(a) 11:00 (b) 10:30
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given: (c) 10:00 (d) 10:00
(a) Occassionally (b) Occasionaly
16. How many numbers are there from 5 to 100, which are
(c) Occasionally (d) Occassionali
divisible by 3 and either unit or tenth digit or both
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the include 3?
given words: Gainsay (a) 10 (b) 8
(a) agree (b) oppose (c) 6 (d) Less than 6
(c) disapprove (d) minimize 17. Kaziranga is known for
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (a) Rhinoceros (b) Tiger
alternatives. Mother Teresa was_____honest women. (c) Birds (d) Lion
(a) a (b) an 18. Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by:
(c) the (d) no article required (a) Dry hot summers and cool wet winters
8. Change the direct narration to indirect narration: He (b) Wet hot summers and cool dry winters
said to his father, Please increase my pocket-money. (c) Dry hot winters and dry cool winters
(a) He pleaded his father to please increase my pocket (d) Wet hot summers and wet cool winters
money.
19. The commercial silk is obtained from cocoons secreted
(b) He requested his father to increase his pocket-
by salivary glands of:
money.
(a) Spider (b) Bombyx Mori
(c) he asked his father to increase his pocket-money.
(c) Corcyra Cephalonica (d) Hypera
(d) he told his father,Please increase the pocket-
money 20. Radiocarbon dating technique is used to estimate the
age of
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the (a) rocks (b) monuments
statement in the question: A general pardon of political (c) soil (d) fossils
offenders
(a) Mercy (b) Charity 3 4i
(c) Forbearance (d) Amnesty 21. The modulus of the complex number is-
1 2i
10. Choose the appropriate options to complete the
(a) 5 (b) 5
sentences: After introducing himself briefly, mr. Singh
went on______information on how______our market 1 1
through effective advertising strategy. (c) (d)
5 5
(a) to give/to expand
(b) giving/to expand
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 83
22. i37 = ? 33. What are the values of C0 and C1 in d(t) = C1 + C0t
(a) i (b) 1 16t2, if d(1) = 4 and v(2) = 65?
(c) I2 (d) None of these (a) C0 = 1, C1 = 21 (b) C0 = 1, C1
23. Find the Laplace transform of the function F(t) = sin at (c) C0 = 1, C1 (d) C0 = 0, C1 = 1
(a) a / (p2 a2), p > |a| (b) a / (p2 + a2), p > 0 34. G (d) was determined to be 3d + C; here C is called:
2 2
(c) p / (p + a ), p > 0 (d) p / (p2 a2), p > |a| (a) the constant of differentiation
24. If 5x + 3y 2 = 0 and 4x + ky 2 = 0 are parallel then (b) the constant of anti-differentiation.
k=? (c) the constant of integration.
(a) k = 5/12 (b) k = 12/5 (d) the constant of death and taxes.
(c) k = 5 (d) k = 12 35. Does f(c) = (c + 2)3 2 have an inflection point? If so,
where is it located?
25. Sin(x2 + 1) differentiate the above with respect to x
(a) Yes, at (2, 2) (b) Yes, at (2, 2)
(a) 2xcos(x2 + 1) (b) 3sin2x.cosx
(c) yes, at (8, 2) (d) No
(c) 5cot 5x (d) ex sinx
26. If x = r cosq, y = r sinq then the value of d2q/dx2 + d2q/ 36. The following is true for the following partial
dx2 is differential equation used in nonlinear mechanics
(a) 0 (b) 1 known as the Korteweg-de Vries equation.
(c) dr/dx (d) dr/dy (w / t) ( 3 w / x 3 ) 6w(w / x) 0
(a) linear; 3rd order
1 at bt (b) nonlinear; 3rd order
27. The laplace transform of (a b) (ae be ) is
(c) linear; 1st order
(d) nonlinear; 1st order
1 s
(a) (s a)(s b) (a b) (b) (s a)(s b) (a b) 37. The system of linear equations 2x + 2y 3z = 1, 4x +
4y + z = 2, 6x + 6y z = 3 has
s (a) a unique solution
(c) (s a)(s b) (a b) (d) None of these (b) infinite solutions
(c) no solution
(d) two solutions
s
28. The function, whose laplace transform is (s 2 w 2 ) is 38. x vector space is isomorphic to Cn.
(iii) Any n-dimensional vector space over the field F is
1 isomorphic to Fn. Then
(a) Cos(wt) (b) cos(wt)
w (a) Only i and ii are true
(c) sin(wt) (d) wsin(wt) (b) i is true, but ii and iii are not true
(c) None of them is true
d x (d) All of them are true.
29. (e )
dx 39. The increasing order for the value of e/m for electron
(a) ex (b) xex (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and a particle is
(c) xex (d) xex (a) e, p, n, a (b) n, p, e, a
(c) n, p, e, a (d) n, a, p, e
1 3 4 40. 1 neper is equal to
30. Evaluate 2 6 2 (a) 0.08686 db (b) 0.8686 db
4 12 1 (c) 8.686 db (d) 86.86 db
43. One Watt hour contains______Joules 55. A vector having magnitude only is called
(a) 3.6 108 (b) 3.6 105 (a) scalar (b) resultant
3
(c) 3.6 10 (d) 3.6 101 (c) unit vector (d) temperature
44. The three fundamental particles of the atom are 56. Physical quantities having magnitude only are called
(a) Nucleus, Proton and Electrons (a) vector quantities (b) scalar quantities
(b) Proton, Neutron and Electron (c) mental quantities
(c) Positron, NeutriPhyno and Gamma Rays (d) both vector quantities and scalar quantities
(d) Positron, Neutrino and Gamma Rays 57. If 120 C of charge passes through a conductor in 60
45. One Angstron unit is equal to sec, the current in the conductor is
(a) 1010 m (b) 1008 cm (a) 3.33 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1007 mm (d) All of these (c) 2 A (d) 0.3 A
46. Which of the following is an application of Echo 58. In a charging RC circuit with supply voltage = Vs, the
(a) Height of an Aeroplane value voltage at time t = RC will be-
(b) Stethoscope (a) 0.5 V (b) 0.63 Vs
(c) in SONAR system to detect the presence of (c) 0.86 Vs (d) 0.95 Vs
submarine 59. The induced voltage across a coil with 250 turns that is
(d) All of these
located in a magnetic field that is changing at a rate of
47. Which among the following quantity have neither units 8 Wb/s is-
nor the dimensions (a) 1000 V (b) 2000 V
(a) Relative permeabiolity (c) 31.25 V (d) 63 V
(b) Plane angle
60. Two positive charges q1 = 16 and q2 = 4 are seperated
(c) Solid Angle
by a diameter of 3m will produce force of
(d) Radian
(a) 40N (b) 41.1N
48. The natural element whose atomic no. is greater (c) 43.2N (d) 42.7N
than........are radioactive
61. Kirchoffs second law is based on law of conservation of
(a) 52 (b) 62
(a) charge (b) energy
(c) 72 (d) 82
(c) momentum (d) mass
49. Which of the following is a common unit of a physical 62. In the circuit shown, maximum power will be
quantity in M.K.S & S.I systems. transferred when
(a) ampere (b) kelvin
(c) mole (d) joule/sec 4.5 + j6.5
50. Bougguers law relates____________.
(a) Light reflection (b) Light refraction
(c) Light transmission (d) Light Absorption
ZL
51. Luminescence is because of
(a) Photons emitted while excited electrons drops down E = (10 + j15) V
(b) Knocking out of electrons by photons
(c) Photons stimulated by photons
(d) All
(a) ZL = (6.5 + j4.5)W (b) ZL = (4.5 + j6.5)W
52. Atomic number is number of (c) ZL = (4.5 j6.5)W (d) ZL = (6.5 j4.5)W
(a) protons (p+) (b) electrons (e)
(c) neutrons (n0) (d) nucleons (p+ and n0) 63. Magnetic flux intensity is a
(a) scalar quantity (b) vector quantity
53. Series that lies in infrared region of electromagnetic (c) phasor (d) None of these
spectrum is
(a) Lyman series 64. At low frequencies, the material used for transformer
(b) ballmer series cores is
(c) Bracket series (a) copper (b) silicon iron
(d) both Lyman series and Ballmer series (c) soft iron (d) None of these
54. Gravitational potential energy is product of 65. The relative permeability of air is
(a) gh (b) mgh (a) zero (b) 1
(c) mg (d) mgf (c) infinity (d) None of these
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 85
66. The force of attraction between two charge particles is (a) Zero (b) Infinite
(a) Directly proportional to the amount of Charge Vin1 Vin 2
(b) Inversely proportional to amount of charge (c) Indeterminate (d) 2VT
(c) Directly proportional to size of the charged particles
(d) None of these 76. A 741type op-amp has a gainbandwidth product of 1
MHz. A noninverting amplifier using this opamp and
67. Ratio of the voltage and electric current in a closed circuit:
having a voltage gain of 20 dB will exhibit a-3 dB
(a) remains constant (b) varies
bandwidth of
(c) increases (d) decreases
(a) 50 kHz (b) 100 kHz
68. A 220V, 100W Bulb is connected to a 110V source. (c) 1000/17 kHz (d) 1000/7.07 kHz
Calculate the power consumed by the bulb?
77. When two amplifer each of bandwidth fH = 10 kHz are
(a) 20 W (b) 15 W
cascaded, the overall bandwidth becomes (in kHz)
(c) 10 W (d) 25 W
(a) 10 (b) 6.4
69. Cells are connected in seris in order to increase the (c) 5 (d) 20
(a) current capacity (b) life of the cells
78. When SCR starts conducting, then________loses all
(c) voltage rating (d) terminal voltage
control
70. An electric circuit contains (a) Gate (b) Cathode
(a) active elements only (c) Anode (d) None of these
(b) passive elements only
79. If a circuit has to switch between two power sources
(c) both active and passive elements
then which type of switch is required
(d) None of these
(a) SPST (b) DPST
71. A kilowatt hour is the unit of (c) DPDT (d) All of these
(a) energy (b) power
80. Consider the following two statements:
(c) electrolyte (d) electric current
Statement 1: Astable Multivibrator can be used for
72. A constant voltage is applied across the ends of a generating square wave.
conductor, the heat produced is Statement 2: Bistable Multivibrator can be used for
(a) directly proportional to length storing binary information.
(b) inversly proportional to length (a) Only statement 1 is correct
(c) directly proportional to square of length (b) Only statement 2 is correct
(d) None (c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct
73. Two long parallel conductors carrying currents in (d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are Incorrect.
opposite directions___________each other 81. The Ebers - Moll model is applicable to
(a) Attract (b) Repel (a) Bipolar junction transistors
(c) Noeffect on (d) No of these (b) NMOS transistors
74. The power consumed by a pure capacitor is (c) Unipolar Junction transistors
(a) 1W (b) 0.5W (d) Junction field effect transistors
(c) W (d) 0 W 82. As compared to voltage regulators made up of discrete
75. In the differential amplifier of the figure, if the source components, IC regulators have the inherent advantages
resistance of the current source IEE is infinite, then of
the commonmode gain is (a) self protection against over temperature
(b) remote control
VCC (c) current limiting
(d) All of these
83. Technology used for manufacturing of RAM for
R R computing devices is
(a) NMOS (b) PMOS
Vm2 Vm1 (c) CMOS (d) FET
84. While transisting from one level to another level an
electron
IEE (a) Emits or absorbs Proton
(b) Emits or Absorbs Photon
VEE (c) Emits or Absorb Neutron
(d) None of these
86 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
85. Crystal oscillator uses 94. The output Y in the circuit below is always 1 when
(a) silicon crystal
(b) germanium crystal P
(c) crystal diode
(d) piezo-electric quartz crystal
Q
86. The reason for expressing the output of audio amplifier Y
in decible is that
R
(a) it is more convenient to express
(b) human ear hears sound on a linear scale
(c) human ear hears on logarithmic scale (a) two or more of the inputs P, Q, R are 0
(d) None of these (b) two or more of the inputs P, Q, R are 1
87. When the relative permiability of a material is slightly (c) any odd number of the inputs P, Q, R is 0
less than 1, it is called a (d) any odd number of the inputs P, Q, R is 1
(a) diamagnetic material 95. A Darlington emitter follower circuit is sometimes used
(b) para magnetic material in the output stage of a TTL gate in order to
(c) ferro magnetic material (a) increase its IOL
(d) None (b) reduce its IOH
88. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure (c) increase its speed of operation
semiconductor, it becomes (d) reduce power dissipation
(a) Intrinsic semiconductor 96. The parity bit is added for_____purpose
(b) An insulator (a) Coding (b) Indexing
(c) N type semiconductor (c) Error Correction (d) Controlling
(d) P type semiconductor
97. A mod -(n-1/2) counter is to be built. It will need
89. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is (a) mod-n counter
about__________ (b) mod-n counter plus flip-flop
(a) 7.0V (b) 1.4V (c) mod-n counter, FF and an EX-OR gate
(c) 0.7V (d) 3.3V (d) None of these
90. In a silicon diode, the reverse saturation current is of 98. A demultiplexer can be used to realize a
the order of (a) counter (b) shift register
(a) 1 mA (b) 1 nA (c) combinational circuit (d) display system
(c) 1 pA (d) 1 A
99. Which of the 74 series of TTL-IC has the best figure of
91. A monostable multivibrator has merit
(a) two stable states (b) one stable state (a) 74H (b) 74L
(c) no stable state (d) two quasi-stable states (c) 74LS (d) 74ALS
92. The output transformer used in a power amplifier is a 100. Which of the following is a temporary memory?
(a) 1:1 ratio transformer (a) RAM (b) ROM
(b) Step-up transformer (c) Both RAM & ROM (d) None of these
(c) Step-down transformer 101. How many flip-flop are needed for a 4 bit counter?
(d) None of these (a) two (b) three
93. For the logic circuit shown in the figure, the required (c) four (d) six
input condition (A,B,C) to make the output (X) = 1 is
102. Insulators have:
(a) a large energy gap
A (b) an empty conduction band
(c) a full valence band
B (d) None of these
X 103. In a capacitor, the electric charges is stored in
C (a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) Both metal plates & dielectric
(a) 1, 0, 1 (b) 0, 0, 1 (d) None of these
(c) 1, 1, 1 (d) 0, 1, 1
104. Main advantage of hexadecimal number system is
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 87
(a) ease of conversion from hexadecimal to decimal (c) energy is transferred both inductively and
and vice-versa conductively
(b) ease of conversion from hexadecimal to binary and (d) energy is transferred inductively
vice-versa 115. Consider the star network shown in Figure. The
(c) ease of conversion from hexadecimal to gray code resistance between terminals A and B with C open is
and vice-versa 6, between terminals B and C with A open is 11,
(d) use of number and alphabets and between terminals C and A with B open is 9.
105. Binary coded decimal BC number are useful whenever Then
(a) binary to BCD conversion is desired
A
(b) binary to hexadecimal conversion is desired
(c) decimal information is transferred into or out of RA
digital system
(d) None of these
RB RC
106. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of
(a) OR gates (b) NOT gates B
(c) NAND gates (d) None of these
C
107. Popular applications of flip-flop are
(a) counters (b) shift registers (a) RA = 4, RB = 2, RC = 5
(c) transfer register (d) all of these (b) RA = 2, RB = 4, RC = 7
(c) RA = 3, RB = 3, RC = 4
108. A de-multiplexer is used to (d) RA = 5, RB = 1, RC = 15
(a) route the data from single input to one of many
outputs 116. Figure shows a chopper operating from a 100V dc input.
(b) select data from several inputs and route it to single The duty ratio of the main switch S is 0.8. The load is
output sufficiently inductive so that the load current is ripple
(c) perform serial to parallel conversion free. The average current through the diode D under
(d) All of these steady ripple free. The average current through the
diode D under steady state is
109. Number of flip-flop needed to divide the input frequency
by 32 is S L
(a) 2 (b) 4 +
(c) 5 (d) 8
110. Which of the following logic gates dissipates minimum 100 V D 10
power?
(a) RTL (b) TTL
(c) MOS (d) ECL
(a) 8A
111. The______generator has poorest voltage regulation. (b) 1.6A
(a) Series (b) Shunt (c) 10A
(c) Compound (d) Over-compound (d) 6.4A
112. The effect of increasing the length of air gap in an 117. In a series R-L-C circuit the power factor under
induction motor will be to increase the resonance condition will be___________
(a) Power factor (b) Speed (a) 1 (b) 0
(c) Magnetising current (d) Air-gap flux
1
113. The most efficient form of damping employed in (c) 2 (d)
2
electrical instruments is
(a) Air friction (b) Fluid friction 118. Transformers are rated in KVA instead of KW
(c) Eddy currents (d) None of these because___________
114. The Kva Rating of an ordinary 2-winding transformer (a) load power factor is often not known
is increased when connected as an autotransformer is (b) KVA is fixed whereas KW depends on load of
due to (c) total transformer loss depends on volt-ampere
(a) transformation ratio is increased (d) it has become customary
(b) secondary voltage is increased
88 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
137. Indicate the false option. If SWR on a transmission 147. Cut off frequencies of constant K filters of all types are
line is infinity~ the line is terminated in given by_______
1. a short circuit (a) Z1/4Z2 = 0 (b) Z1/4Z2 = 1
2. a complex impedance (c) Z1/4Z2 = 1 (d) None of these
3. an open circuit 148. The pass band of HPF is________
4. a pure reactance (a) above DC (b) above 5 KHz
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) below 5 KHz (d) between 5-10 KHz
(c) 3 (d) 4
149. If the average value of a sine wave is 6 Volts, its effective
138. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, it is best value is
to use a (a) 3.53 volts (b) 3.18 volts
(a) slotted line (c) 66.6 volts (d) 6.66 volts
(b) Balun
(c) directional coupler 150. In a CRO which of the following is not a part of electron
(d) quarter wave transformer gun?
(a) cathode (b) grid
139. The reflection coefficient of a line is - 1. The line is
(c) accelerating anode (d) XY plates
(a) Open circuited. (b) Short circuited
(c) Terminated in Z0 (d) None of these 151. Which of the following is not true about a voltmeter?
(a) loading causes the meter to indicate less than the
140. What is the expected VSWR for a transmission line
true voltage with no meter connected.
with reflection coefficient of 0.5
(b) the higher the voltmeter resistance, the more
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.5
loading of the circuit under test
(c) 2 (d) 3
(c) ideal voltmeter has infinite internal resistance
141. For an mderived high pass filter, the cut off frequency (d) Voltmeters with electromechanical movements are
is 4KHz and the filter has an infinite attenuation at 4 typically given ratings in ohms per volt
KHz, the value of m is 152. Which bridge can be used to measure frequency?
(a) 1 (b) zero (a) Maxwell (b) Kelvin
(c) 2 (d) 0.5 (c) Schering (d) Wein
142. Impedance matching is used to 153. Which of the following effects is used in measurement
(a) Maximize power transfer to the load of magnetic flux?
(b) Minimize the reflection loss (a) Hall effect (b) Seeback effect
(c) Both Maximize power transfer to the load & (c) Piezo electric effect (d) Photoelectric effect
Minimize the reflection loss
154. The Y plates of a CRO are excited by a voltage 2 sin
(d) None of these
100 t and the X plates are not connected. The display
143. The reflection coefficient on loss less transmission would be
line__________ (a) a vertical line (b) a horizontal line
(a) is always purely imaginary (c) sline wave (d) a big dot
(b) is always purely real 155. One neper is equal to_______
(c) is always complex
(a) 0.8686 db (b) 8.686 db
(d) can be any way
(c) 0.1151 db (d) 1.151 db
144. VSWR is defined as___________ 156. The input resistance of a cathode ray oscilloscope is of
(a) VSWR = Vmin/Vmax the order of_________
(b) VSWR = Vmax/Vmin (a) mega ohm (b) tens of ohm
(c) VSWR = Vmax+Vmin/2 (c) kilo ohm (d) fraction of an ohm
(d) VSWR = Vmin.Vmax
157. A CRO can display________
145. The predominant primary constituents of a telephone
(a) A.C. signal
cable are________
(b) D.C. signal
(a) L and G (b) L and C
(c) time invariant
(c) G and C (d) R and C
(d) both A.C. and D.C. signal
146. VSWR in a transmission line lies between________ 158. Which meter has the highest accuracy in the prescribed
(a) 0 and limit of frequency range
(b) 0 and 1 (a) rectifier (b) electrodynamic meter
(c) 1 and (c) PMMC (d) Moving iron
(d) 0 and Z0
90 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
(c) ROM (d) All of these 189. FTP runs exclusively over
178. A memory system of size 26 K bytes is required to be (a) HTTP (b) TCP
designed using memory chips which have 12 address (c) SMTP (d) HTML
lines and 4 data lines each. The number of such chips 190. SMTP refers to
required to design the memory system is- (a) Simple mail transfer protocol
(a) 2 (b) 4 (b) Small mail transfer protocol
(c) 8 (d) 13 (c) Simple mass transfer protocol
179. A microprocessor is capable of addressing 64 K bytes (d) Small mass transfer protocol
of memory. Its address bus width is 191. What is the name of the technique in which the
(a) 8 (b) 12 operating system of a computer executes several
(c) 16 (d) 20 programs concurrently by switching back and forth
between them?
180. Which one of the following instructions ia 3-byte
(a) Partitioning (b) Multitasking
instruction
(c) Windowing (d) Paging
(a) MVI A (b) LDA XB
(c) JMP 2050 (d) MOV A,M 192. Python is
181. The execution time of a computer program requiring (a) OS
(b) Programming Language
negligible I/O operations depends primarily on the
(c) Software pakage
speed of
(d) Networking Software
(a) memory (b) CPU
(c) I/O device (d) All of these 193. Second generation of MB_Computers consist of
_________
182. When the output of a particular system depends on
(a) Vaccum Tubes (b) Diodes
current as well as previous input the property is called:
(c) VLSI Microprocessor (d) Transistors
(a) Magnetism (b) Eccentricity
(c) Hysteresis (d) Elasticity 194. In an Entity-Relation ship diagram "Diamonds"
represents
183. Nyquist Criterion is used to study the ______________
(a) attributes (b) multi-valued attributes
Of Control System
(c) weak entity set (d) relationship sets
(a) Responsiveness (b) Stability
(c) Scalability (d) All of these 195. In C language, the comments can be included using
184. Which of the following data transfer technique is (a) * (b) _
slower? (c) /* and */ (d) { }
(a) Serial Transfer 196. A mircorprocessor, on arrival of RESET signal returns
(b) Parallel Transfer from HALT state to _____________
(c) Serial-Parallel transfer (a) fetch state (b) execute state
(d) Parallel-Serial Transfer (c) interupt state (d) none of these
185. Normal timer Circuit has 197. ROM is a
(a) Resistor, Inductor and Capacitor (a) Volatile memory (b) Non-volatile memory
(b) Inductor and Capacitor (c) Either of these (d) None of these
(c) Resistor and Inductor
198. Which of the following memories normally has highest
(d) Resistor and Capacitor
storage capacity?
186. Adder circuits are widely used in the ____ section of a (a) magnetic disk
microprocessor. (b) magnetic tape
(a) input device (b) memory (c) semiconductor memory
(c) control unit (d) ALU (d) core memory
187. Electronic devices are most reliable when designed for 199. Loader in a computer
____ operation. (a) software (b) firmware
(a) decimal (b) hexadecimal (c) hardware (d) None of these
(c) binary (d) ASCII 200. Compact disc (CD) is ____ type of memory
188. Intel 8086 is a ________ bit microprocessor (a) RAM (b) ROM
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) volatile (d) non volatile
(c) 16 (d) 32
92 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (First Sitting)]
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (a)
101. (c) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (c) 124. (c) 125. (c) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (b)
131. (b) 132. (d) 133. (b) 134. (a) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (b) 139. (b) 140. (d)
141. (b) 142. (c) 143. (d) 144. (b) 145. (d) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (d)
151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (d) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (c)
161. (c) 162. (d) 163. (b) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (b) 167. (c) 168. (c) 169. (d) 170. (b)
171. (a) 172. (c) 173. (b) 174. (b) 175. (b) 176. (b) 177. (b) 178. (d) 179. (c) 180. (c)
181. (b) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (d) 186. (d) 187. (b) 188. (c) 189. (b) 190. (a)
191. (b) 192. (b) 193. (d) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (a) 197. (d) 198. (c) 199. (a) 200. (c)
Examination held on 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)
1. Each correct answer will be awarded 1 mark, which are attempt. Question will be
fetch 0 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
2. No external information (like data sheets or log tables) will be provided to the
candidates during the Examination. Candidates are also NOT allowed to carry any
paper (other than the Admit Card issued by BSNL), Cell phones, Pagers, Laptop,
Palmtop, Ipod/MP3 player, Electronic diary, Rulers, Slide rules, drawing
instruments, sophisticated wrist watches, Watch with built in calculators/memory
alarm clocks, Stop watches or any other gadget/device to the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised NOT to bring any such item with them. However, scientific
non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3. The Candidates found violating the instructions of Invigilator, giving
assistance/seeking help/receiving help in answering questions or copying in any
manner in the Examination will be disqualified.
4. All rough works should be done only on blank pages provided at the end of the
question booklet.
94 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
1. Pick the Synonym for the word "Commence" (a) only Group "A" (b) Any Group
(a) To End (b) To Begin (c) Group "A" & AB (d) Group "A", Group "O"
(c) Nearing Finish (d) To Run 13. Which of the following is the longest river in the world?
2. A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out (a) Indus (b) Amazon
of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which (c) Nile (d) Missouri-Mississippi
best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active 14. Which scheme was recently launched by Union Ministry
Voice. Everyone loves him. of Urban Development for 12 cities to preserve the rich
(a) He is loved by everyone. heritage of the country
(b) He was loved by everyone. (a) JYOTI (b) HRIDAY
(c) Love for him is by everyone. (c) SWABHIMAN (d) HERITAGE
(d) His love is for everyone.
15. Which panel has suspended the IPL franchises Chennai
3. Mark the most appropriate substitute to fill the blanks
Super Kings and Rajasthan Royals for a period of two
in the given description: Do you think it is a good idea
years?
to ban smoking ____ public places?
(a) Justice Mukesh Moudgil Panel
(a) At (b) In
(b) Justice Lodha Panel
(c) On (d) For
(c) Justice Dattu Panel
4. Choose the odd one from given four choices : (d) Justice Krishna Panel
(a) College (b) Office
16. Who is the Champion of IPL (Indian Premier League)
(c) University (d) School
season-6
5. Find out the correct spelt word from the choices given: (a) Chennai Super Kings (b) Mumbai Indians
(a) Sponteneous (b) Spontanious (c) Delhi Daredevils (d) Rajasthan Royals
(c) Spontaneous (d) Spontaneuse
17. Which number system we use in our daily life :
6. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the (a) Binary (b) Octal
given words: (c) Decimal (d) None of these
(a) conformity (b) disagreement
18. Bonsai'is Japanese art of :
(c) combat (d) manifest
(a) Painting (b) Growing small trees
7. Choose the appropriate word in the blank from the given (c) Making Dolls (d) Arranging flowers
alternatives. He had a ______________ shave when 19. The creator of 'Sherlock Holmes' was
his car narrowly missed hitting the truck. (a) Arthur Conan Doyle (b) Ian Fleming
(a) Clean (b) Close (c) Dr.Watson (d) Shakespeare
(c) Bad (d) Near
20. Pulses are a good source of
8. Choose the correct plural of the following word: Ox (a) carbohydrates (b) fats
(a) Oxes (b) Oxen (c) proteins (d) vitamins
(c) Oxs (d) Many Ox
21. The locus of a point that is at equal distance from a
9. Select one word which is closest in meaning to the
fixed point and a fixed straight line is-
statement in the question : Words inscribed on tomb
(a) Parabola (b) Ellipse
(a) Epitome (b) Epistle
(c) Circle (d) Hyperbola
(c) Epilogue (d) Epitaph
10. Four parts of a sentence (P/Q/R/S) are given. Arrange d 2 y dy
22. The solution of 2y 0 is
them in the right order to produce a correct sentence : dx 2 dx
there is only one way/the world can be/ in which/made (a) c1e2x + c2ex (b) c1e2x + c2ex
safe from war P/ Q/ R/ S (c) c1e2x + c2xex (d) c1e2x + c2ex
(a) RQSP (b) PRQS
(c) PQSR (d) SPRQ 23. (XP) .dS where P is a vector is equal to-
11. Which aircraft carrier of Indian Navy was preserved as (a) P.dL (b) P.dL
a museum ship till 2012 after being decommissioned (c) P.dL (d) .Pdv
in 1997?
(a) INS Viraat (b) INS Vikrant 24. Every digonal element of a Hermitian matrix is
(c) INS Vikramaditya (d) INS Veer (a) purely real (b) 0
(c) Purely imaginary (d) 1
12. A man with blood Group "A" can receive blood from
persons having blood groups 25. The product of even and odd function is
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 95
70. The e.m.f. of a cell depends upon 78. Metal used in metaliztion of CMOS circuit is
(a) the internal resistance (a) Gold (b) Silver
(b) external resistance (c) Iron (d) Aluminium
(c) electrolyte and electrodes of the cell 79. A semiconductor has a band gap of 2 eV. The wave-
(d) none of the factors length of radiation emitted from the semiconductor
71. Two individual heater coils are connected to parallel when electron and hole recombine is
across the mains. If one of the coil break, the other coil (a) 625 nm (b) 625 m
(a) develops lower temperature (c) 625 mm (d) 625 cm
(b) develops same temperature as before 80. Which one of the following is a trivalent material
(c) develops higher temperature (a) Antimony (b) Phosphourus
(d) will also not be heated (c) Arsenic (d) Boron
72. As frequency increases, the magnetic flux inside a
81. The total energy of a revolving electron in an atom can
conductor
(a) have any value above zero
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(b) never be positive
(c) Remains constant (d) None of these
(c) never be negative
73. The induction coil works on the principle of (d) not be calculated
(a) Self-Induction
82. Capacitor is
(b) Mutual Induction
(a) Active Component
(c) Ampere's Rule
(b) Passive Component
(d) Flemings Right Hand rule
(c) Both Active Component & Passive Component
74. "The direction of an induced emf is such that it will (d) None of these
always opposes the change that is causing" This law is
83. Current always flow in direction
called as
(a) Opposite to that of Electron
(a) Kirchoffs Laws (b) Lenzs Law
(b) Direction same as of Electron
(c) Faradays Law (d) None
(c) Independent of Electron flow
75. Assume that the op-amp of the figure is ideal. If Vi is a (d) None of these
triangular wave, then Vo will be
84. In FET, the current flow is mainly due to
(a) Majority carriers
R (b) Minority Carriers
(c) Both Majority carriers & Minority Carriers
(d) None of these
85. The most common semiconductor used for
Vi manufacturing of FET is
Vo (a) Gallium arsenide
(b) Indium Arsenide
+ (c) Indium Gallium Arsenide
(d) Silicon
86. IC-555 Timer is
(a) square wave (b) triangular wave (a) Dual timer (b) Single timer
(c) parabolic wave (d) sine wave (c) Quad Timer (d) All of these
76. A zener-diode regulator is a- 87. An oscillator is an electronic device which counts
(a) Shunt regulator (b) Series regulator (a) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) Switching regulator (d) Zener follower (b) electrical power into mechanical power
(c) dc power into ac power
77. An amplifier will generate stable sinusoidal oscillation
(d) ac power into dc power and vice versa
if we provide feedback such that
(a) its pole lie close to j-axis in the right half of 88. Whether conductivity of a semiconductor is only due
s-plan to breaking of covalent bonds, the semi conductor is
(b) its pole lie close to j-axis in the left half of s-plan called
(c) its pole lie on +ive real axis in s-plan (a) intrinsic (b) extrinsic
(d) its pole lie anywhere in s-plan (c) p type (d) n type
98 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
89. Three amplifier stages each with a gain of 10 are (a) 16 (b) 15
cascaded, the net gain will be (c) 4 (d) 8
(a) 30 (b) 130 101. Oscillators have
(c) 200 (d) 1000 (a) no feedback
90. UJT may be better used as (b) negative feedback
(a) Amplifier (c) positive feedback
(b) Clamper (d) either positive or negative feedback
(c) Rectifier 102. The central processing unit of a digital computer
(d) Saw-Tooth wave Generator consists of
91. For active region operation of npn transistor (a) main memory
(a) Emitter is positive with respect to base (b) arithmetic and logic unit
(b) Emitter is negative with respect to base (c) count unit
(c) Emitter is at the same voltage as base (d) all
(d) base is at the same voltage as collector
103. Which of the following device does not have negative
92. The bandwidth of a doubled tuned transformer coupled characteristic
amplifier can be adjusted by varying (a) UJT (b) Tunnel Diode
(a) value of the inductance (c) SCR (d) FET
(b) the coefficient of coupling
104. The Odd Parity is generated by
(c) value of emitter circuit biasing resistor
(a) Ex-OR Gate (b) Ex-NOR Gate
(d) none of these
(c) NOT Gate (d) All of these
93. X = 01110 and Y = 11001 are two 5-bit binary numbers
105. An equivalent decimal number of (234.55)8 is
represented in two's complement format. The sum of X
(a) (106.703)10 (b) (156.703)10
and Y represented in two's complement format using 6
(c) (146.703)10 (d) (308.703)10
bits is
(a) 100111 (b) 10000 106. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together.
(c) 111 (d) 101001 The resulting circuit is
(a) OR gate (b) AND gate
94. A transistor is operated as a saturated switch to eliminate
(c) NOT gate (d) None of these
(a) storage time (b) turn-off time
(c) turn-on time (d) delay time 107. What is the minimum number of two-input NAND gates
used to perform the function of two-input OR gate
95. As far as speed is concerned, the fastest type of logic is (a) one (b) two
(a) TTL (b) RTC (c) three (d) four
(c) Schottky TTL (d) ECL
108. The dynamic hazard problem occurs in
96. The resolution a D/A converter is approximately 0.4% (a) combinational circuits alone
of its full scale range. It is (b) sequential circuit alone
(a) a 8-bit converter (b) a 10-bit converter (c) both sequential and combinational circuits
(c) a 12-bit converter (d) a 16-bit converter (d) none of these
97. Most common error in analog to digital converter is
109. A simple flip-flop is
(a) Linear Error
(a) a 2-bit memory
(b) Qunatization Error
(b) a 1-bit memory
(c) Random Noise Error
(c) a four state device
(d) Linear and Qunatization Error
(d) obtained by cross coupling of two NAND gates
98. NAND Gate is equal to 110. The race hazard problem occurs due to
(a) NOR gate with negated output (a) faulty design of logic circuits
(b) NOR gate with negated input (b) non-redundant form of the circuit
(c) AND gate with negated input (c) time-delay in circuits due to high speed logic
(d) None of these (d) All of these
99. Half-adder is also known as 111. In a 3 phase induction motor, the relative speed of stator
(a) AND circuit (b) NAND circuit flux with respect to ______ is zero.
(c) NOR circuit (d) EX-OR circuit (a) Stator winding (b) Rotor
100. The number of comparison carried out in 4-bit flash (c) Rotor flux (d) Space
type A/D converter is
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 99
112. Transformers are rated in kVA instead of kW because- 122. The efficiency of a transformer is
(a) Load power factor is often not known (a) independent of load
(b) kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load pf (b) maximum at no load
(c) Total transformer loss depends on load pf (c) maximum at a given load such that variable losses
(d) It has become customary equals constant losses
113. At higher frequencies , the value of capacitive reactance (d) maximum when copper losses are zero
(a) increases (b) decreases 123. Almost 90% of the induction motors are squirrel cage
(c) remain constant (d) None of these type because
114. The ideal value of power factor is (a) they have better starting torque
(a) 0 (b) 1 (b) their speed can be controlled very smoothly over a
(c) infinity (d) 10 wide range
(c) they can run both at lagging and leading power
115. A good refrigerant should have factors
(a) High latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing (d) they have the simplest and most rugged
point construction
(b) High operating pressures and low freezing point
124. The baud rate-
(c) High specific volume and high latent heat of
vaporisation (a) is always equal to the bit transfer rate
(d) Low C.O.P. and low freezing point (b) is equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel
(c) is not equal to the signaling rate
116. Current chopping mainly occurs in ___________ (d) is equal to one-half the bandwidth of an ideal
Circuit Breakers channel
(a) Oil Circuit Breakers
125. A 3,000 Hz bandwidth channel has a capacity of 30
(b) Vacuum Circuit Breakers
kbps. The signal to noise ratio is
(c) SF6 Circuit Breakers
(a) 20 DB (b) 25 dB
(d) Air Blast Circuit Breakers
(c) 30 dB (d) 40 dB
117. Which class of induction motor will be well suited for
126. A multicavity Klystron
large refrigerates?
(a) is not a microwave device
(a) class E (b) class B
(b) is not a good low level amplifier because of noise
(c) class F (d) class C
(c) is not suited for pulse operation
118. If a neutral Wire of 3 Phase supply is broken then (d) has a high repeller voltage to ensure small transit
(a) The voltage of less loaded Phase will increase time
(b) The voltage of more loaded phase will reduce
127. Antennas commonly used for microwave links are
(c) Nothing will happen
(a) loop antenna (b) log periodic antennas
(d) Both The voltage of less loaded Phase will increase
(c) paraboloidal antennas (d) rhombic antennas
& The voltage of more loaded phase will reduce
119. Capacitors used for improvement of power factor of a 128. For a standard telephone circuit with a signal tonoise
system ____________ power ratio of 1000 (30 dB) and a bandwidth of 2.7
kHz, the Shannon limit for information capacity is
(a) draws lagging power and supply leading power
(a) 27 Mbps (b) 27 Kbps
(b) draws lagging power and supply lagging power
(c) 2.7 Kbps (d) 2.7 Mbps
(c) draws leading power and supply lagging power
(d) draws leading power and supply leading power 129. From bandwidth point of view, narrow band FM is
120. A d.c. shunt motor is running at light load. What will equivalent to ______________
happen if the field winding gets opened ? (a) AM (b) PM
(a) Motor will pick up high speed (c) SSB (d) DSB suppressed carrier
(b) Motor will stop 130. In case a station is tuned to 1455 KHz, the local
(c) Motor will make noise oscillator frequency will be _______________
(d) Motor will burn (a) 1000 KHz (b) 1910 KHz
(c) 1455 KHz (d) 2100 KHz
121. In dc choppers, the waveforms for input and output
voltage are respectively ______________ 131. Quantization noise occurs in
(a) both discontinuous (a) Time division-multiplex
(b) both continuous (b) Frequency division multiplex
(c) continuous, discontinuous (c) Pulse position modulation
(d) discontinuous, continuous (d) Pulse code modulation
100 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
132. Fosters relay discriminator uses a (c) Protect from High Frequency Noise
(a) Double tuned circuit in which primary and (d) Provide Physical Support to Line
secondary are tuned to same frequency 143. The Data Rate for PRI in ISDN is
(b) Double tuned circuit in which primary and (a) Same as that of E1 (b) 64 Kbps
secondary are tuned to different frequencies (c) 10 Mbps (d) 100 Mbps
(c) Single tuned circuit
(d) Three diodes in series 144. Waveguides for Microwaves are made of
(a) Semiconductor Material
133. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from (b) Conductor Material
0 to 1. The transmitted power is (c) Insulator material
(a) Unchanged (b) Halved (d) Ferromagnetic Material
(c) Doubled (d) increased by 50%
145. h21 in terms of Z parameters can be expressed as
134. (i) PCM is imperently most noise resistant (ii) PCM
____________
requires small BW. Indicate the right answer:
(a) Z/Z22 (b) Z/Z12
(a) True, False (b) False, False
(c) Z12/Z (d) Z21/Z22
(c) True, False (d) True, True
146. A quartz crystal in the filter has_______________
135. An online, real time data transmission system is most (a) the property of series resonance
likely to require a connection that is____
(b) the property of parallel resonance
(a) Duplex (b) Semi/duplex
(c) the property of series as well as parallel resonance
(c) Time shared (d) None of these
(d) lower frequency of parallel resonance than the
136. Wave guide are generally made of frequency of series resonance
(a) copper (b) bronze or aluminum
147. A battery is connected across the series combination of
(c) PVC (d) HDPE
the resistors of value 5 Ohms and 30 Ohms. The
137. One end of a loss-less transmission line having the voltage-across 5 ohms resistor is 20V The battery
characteristic impedance of 75 and length of 1 cm is voltage will be
short-circuited. At 3 GHz, the input impedance at the (a) 105 V (b) 140 V
other end of transmission line is (c) 175 V (d) 200 V
(a) 0 (b) Resistive
148. Inverter us a circuit which transforms
(c) Capacitive (d) Inductive
(a) AC to DC (b) DC to AC
138. In a transmission line terminated by characteristic (c) AC to AC (d) DC to DC
impedance, Zo 149. At resonance in a series RCL circuit, the applied voltage
(a) There is no reflection of the incident wave equals the ____ voltage drop
(b) The reflection is maximum due to termination (a) resistance (b) inductive
(c) There are a large number of maximum and (c) capacitive (d) reactive
minimum on the line
(d) The incident current is zero for any applied signal. 150. Two resistance R1 and R2 are connected in series R1 =
528 5 and R2 = 325 3. The total resistance will
139. If the open and short circuit Impedence of a be
transmission line are 144 and 100 respectively what is (a) 853 2 (b) 853 5
the charactersistic impedance (c) 853 3 (d) 853 8
(a) 12 (b) 1200
(c) 144 (d) 120 151. Which of the following is not a transducer
(a) Strain Guage (b) Microphone
140. A 2-port resistive network satisfy the condition
(c) Potentiometer (d) Thermocouple
A = D=(3/2)B=(4/3)C. The z11 of the network is
(a) 4/3 (b) 3/4 152. In _____________ Instruments the deflecting Torque
(c) 2/3 (d) 2/3 depends on the frequency
(a) Induction Type Instruments
141. SQL is a language which supports (b) Hot wire instruments
(a) Data Definition (b) Data Manipulation (c) Moving Iron Instruments
(c) Data Query (d) All of these (d) Moving Coil Instruments
142. The Ground Conductor in case of High Power 153. A voltmeter with a broad bandwidth has
Transmission Lines is used to (a) low noise level and high sensitivity
(a) Provide Neutral connection (b) high noise level and high sensitivity
(b) Protect the lines from Lightning
[Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)] Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 101
(c) high noise level and low sensitivity (c) The cost of controller becomes low
(d) low noise level and low sensitivity (d) Systems error reduced to optimum levels
154. The resistance of a voltmeter and ameter is respectively 165. The transfer function of a system is 1/(1+sT), the input
(a) Low and High (b) High and High to the system is u(t), the output will track the system
(c) High and Low (d) Low and Low but the error would be
155. The distance between consecutive maxima and minima (a) 0 (b) 2T
is given by ___________ (c) T (d) T/2
(a) (b) /4 166. The network has a pole at s = 1 and zero at s = 2 if this
(c) /2 (d) 2 network is existed by sinusoidal input , the output
(a) leads the input
156. Attenuator have applications _____
(b) legs the input
(a) in d.c. circuits only
(c) is in phase with input
(b) in a.c. circuits only
(d) decays exponentially to zero
(c) in d.c. and a.c. circuits
(d) in 10 W frequency circuits only 167. The radius of constant M circle for M = 1 is
157. A null type of instrument as compared to a deflection (a) 1 (b) 2
type instrument has __________ (c) 3 (d) Infinite
(a) a faster response (b) a lower sensitivity 168. The Laplace transform of i(t) is given by I(s) = 3/ [s(1
(c) a higher accuracy (d) all of these + s)]. As t , the value of i(t) tends to
(a) 0 (b) 1
158. Simon is a unit for measuring ___________
(c) 3 (d)
(a) conductance (b) resistance
(c) flux density (d) electric field 169. In a control system with respect to "BLOCK
DIAGRAM" identify the false statement
159. Piezoelectric transducers are ______________
(a) A block diagram of a system is pictorial
(a) passive transducers
representation of the functions performed by each
(b) active transducers
component and flow of signals
(c) inverse transducers
(b) the elements of a block diagram are block ,branch
(d) both active transducers and inverse transducers
point and summing point
160. Hall effect transducers can be used for measurement of (c) The block diagram can not be reduced to find the
_____________ over all transfer function of a system
(a) power (b) current (d) None of these
(c) displacement (d) all of these
170. The root loci
161. For a rectifier type instrument, with sinusoidal input (a) starts from zeros and end at ploes
and with full wave rectifier, the a.c. sensitivity (Sac) is (b) start from poles and end at zeros to infinity
(a) Sac = 0.45 Sdc (b) Sac = Sdc (c) start from zeros and end at poles and infinity
(c) Sac = 0.9 Sdc (d) Sac = 2 Sdc (d) None of these
162. Creeping is the phenomenon which occurs in 171. For a bounded input signal, if the output has constant
(a) Voltmeter (b) Energy meter amplitude oscillations then the system may be stable or
(c) Wattmeter (d) Ammeter unstable under some limited constraints such system is
163. A ufb control system has a forward path transfer called
(a) absolutely stable system
10(1 4a) (b) conditionally stable system
function G(s) = s 2 (1 a) . if the system is subjected
(c) limitedly stable system
(d) un stable system
1
to an input r(t) = 1 + t + the steady state error of 172. Which of the following can be magnified by magnetic
2t 2
amplifiers?
the system will be- (a) voltage (b) current
(a) 0 (b) 0.1 (c) power (d) any of these
(c) 10 (d)
173. A servomechanism consists of
164. While designing controller, the advantage of polezero (a) An error actuated signal
cancellation is- (b) Power amplifier
(a) The system order is increased (c) Generally a mechanical output
(b) The system order is reduced (d) All of these
102 Solved Question Bank in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [Online 2016, 29 September, 2016 (Second Sitting)]
Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (b)
101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (c) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (d) 119. (c) 120. (a)
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (c) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (b)
131. (a) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (b) 136. (b) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (a) 144. (b) 145. (d) 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (d)
151. (c) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (b) 156. (c) 157. (c) 158. (a) 159. (d) 160. (d)
161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (b) 165. (a) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (c) 169. (c) 170. (b)
171. (c) 172. (c) 173. (c) 174. (c) 175. (d) 176. (a) 177. (d) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (c) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (b) 185. (b) 186. (c) 187. (b) 188. (d) 189. (a) 190. (c)
191. (b) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (c) 195. (a) 196. (d) 197. (a) 198. (b) 199. (b) 200. (d)