BE 2008 Pattern

Total No. of Questions : 12] SEAT No.
P1104 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[4264] - 401
B.E. (Civil)
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING - II
(2008 Pattern) (Sem. - I)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks :100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What factors should be considered while selecting a material for sewer
construction? [6]
b) Design a circular sewer to carry a maximum sewage flow of 102m3/s
running at half full condition. Minimum velocity in the sewer should be
more than 0.6m/s. Take n = 0.013. [6]
c) Write short note on oil and grease trap. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Define BOD and COD. Explain how the COD/BOD ratio influence the
method of waste water treatment. [2 + 2 + 4 = 8]
b) Enlist various appertenances required for efficient operation and
maintenance of sewerage system. Explain with a neat sketch, the principle
and working of automatic flushing tank. What is the necessity of
providing flushing tank in the sewer line. [2 + 4 + 2 = 8]
Q3) a) What is self purification of a polluted river? Explain the factors responsible
for self purification of the river. [2 + 6 = 8]
b) Explain with neat sketch, the principle and working of grit chamber.
Describe the method of disposal of grit. [2 + 4 + 2 = 8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) Explain the different zones of degradation of a polluted stream
undergoing self purification. [8]
b) Explain with a neat sketch the principle, construction and working of
primary sedimentation tank. Also show different zones in the
sedimentation tank. [2 + 4 + 2 = 8]
Q5) a) Draw a typical flow chart for sewage treatment plant consisting primary
and secondary treatment, with activated sludge process as the method
for secondary treatment. State the type of impurities removed by each
treatment unit in the flow chart. [3 + 3 + 3 = 9]
b) State various modifications in activated sludge process and hence
differentiate between completely mixed activated sludge process and
extended aeration process. [3 + 6 = 9]
OR
Q6) a) Draw a typical flow chart for sewage treatment plant consisting primary
and secondary treatment. Use trickling filter as method for secondary
treatment. Explain the impurities removed by each treatment unit.
[3 + 3 + 3 = 9]
b) Explain the principle, construction and working of High rate trickling
filter. State the NRC formula for determination of efficiency of trickling
filter. Comment on the effect of recirculation ratio on efficiency of trickling
filter. [4 + 3 + 2 = 9]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the root zone technology for wastewater treatment. [4]
b) Explain the working, advantages and disadvantages of oxidation
ponds. [8]
c) Discuss the various aeration methods used in aerated lagoons. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of aerated lagoons. [4]
b) Write a short note on phyto remediation technology for waste water

treatment. [6]
c) Explain the design aspects and parameters of oxidation ponds. [6]
[4264]-401 2
Q9) a) Design a septic tank for a small colony of 100 people with sewage flow
rate of 135 lit/cap/d. Also, design a suitable soil absorption system if
the percolation rate is 3 min/cm and the depth of ground water table
below GL is 1.5 m. [8]
b) Explain the various methods of sludge disposal along with their merits
and demerits. [5]
c) Write a short note on Upflow Anaerobic sludge Blanket Reactor
(USABR) [5]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the anaerobic sludge digestion process and discuss the various
design parameters of anaerobic digesters. [8]
b) Explain the different methods of disposal of septic tank effluent. [5]
c) What do you mean by sludge thickening? Explain the various methods
of sludge thickening. [5]
Q11) a) Discuss the characteristics of wastewater from following industries.[4]

i) Automobile
ii) Distillery
b) Explain with a flow diagram the manufacturing process and sources of
wastewater in a paper and pulp industry. [8]
c) Write short notes on : [4]
i) Equalization
ii) Neutralization
OR
Q12) Explain with a flow diagram the treatment of wastewater from following
industries. [16]
a) Sugar
b) Dairy
c) Textile
d) Distillery
zzz
[4264]-401 3
Total No. of Questions : 12] SEAT No. :

[4264] - 410
B.E. (Civil)
HYDROINFORMATICS
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - II) (Sem. - I)
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answer three questions from Section - I and three questions from Section - II.
3) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer booklet.
6) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
8) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Enumerate the basic scientific disciplines giving important aspects of

each on which hydro informatics is based. [6]
b) What are components of hydroinformatics systems? Explain in detail
hardware and software components. [6]
c) Discuss about design of hydro informatics system for information
regarding availability of ground water in a particular area. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Discuss the role of internet in rainfall forecasting system. [6]
b) A commercial hydroinformatics system is to be formed for managing
reservoir operation with respect to release of water for an hydro electric
power plant, what components you suggest, explain with justification.[6]
c) Explain role of numerical modeling in Hydroinformatics. [6]
Q3) a) A multi-criterion decision support systems is to be designed to collect

information regarding availability of water resources viz. surface water,
ground water, etc. in a tahsil, frame various alternative schemes. [8]
b) You have to design a graphical user interface for flood watch system,
explain the front end and back end parameters. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What is a decision support system in water resources engineering? What
are its components? What is the role of private sector in decision support
system? [8]
b) Name different softwares used in hydroinformatics. Explain any one of
them in detail. [8]
Q5) a) Differentiate between physics based modeling and data driven modeling.
Give examples of each. [8]
b) Discuss design of simulation model for household sewage collection
system giving details of objective, scope, basic formulae used, underlying
solution procedure, simulation technique used. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss any commercial simulation model for two dimensional flow
modeling. [8]
b) Discuss design of simulation model for water release from a dam with
respect to objective, scope, basic formulae used, underlying solution
procedure, simulation technique used. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Define a transfer function. Discuss various types of transfer functions.[6]

b) What is normalization? What is its need? What are typical ranges of
normalization? [6]
c) Define epoch, epoch size, error function. [6]
OR
Q8) a) What is back propagation? Why it is slow compared to conjugate
gradient algorithm? [6]
b) How artificial neural networks compare with statistics? What is the
terminology used in statistics for the following terms used in ANN?
Input, output, training, generalization. [6]
c) Define cross validation. State step by step procedure for carrying out
the same. [6]
Q9) a) What are different types of evolutionary computing? Discuss the Genetic
Algorithm approach in detail. [8]
b) What are Genetic operators? Explain any two of them in details. [8]
OR
[4264]-410 2
Q10) a) Why Genetic Algorithm is used as an optimizing function? Can it be
used to train a neural network? How? [8]
b) What is real coded Genetic Algorithm? How it differs from standard
Genetic Algorithm? [8]
Q11) a) Discuss a study about application of Artificial Neural Networks in Water

Resources Engineering giving details about problem definition, objective,
data, inputs, outputs, algorithm used and results. [8]
b) State advantages of Genetic Algorithm over traditional methods. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Discuss limitations of ANN with respect to data requirement, magnitude
of data, selection of architecture and lack of physical concept. [8]
b) Discuss a study about application of Genetic Algorithm in Water
Resources Engineering giving details about problem definition, objective,
data, inputs, outputs and results. [8]
zzz
[4264]-410 3

[4264] - 411
B.E. (Civil)
TQM AND MIS IN CIVIL ENGINEERING
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - II) (Semester - I)
1) Answer Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6 from section - I and Q. 7 or
Q. 8, Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12 from section - II.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss the various steps to be considered for improving the overall
quality of construction, in a contractors organisation. [9]
b) Provide quality or perish - Justify the above statement in the context
of the construction sector in India, w.r.t. the global challenges. [9]
OR
Q2) a) Name any 3 quality gurus and explain their interpretation of quality with
the help of examples from a building project. [9]
b) Discuss the factors which are detrimental for the existence of quality.
Suggest preventive measures for their non-occurrence. [9]
Q3) a) Prepare a checklist for avoiding honeycombing in concrete and for

getting a very good finish for the de-shuttered concrete. [8]
b) Differentiate with examples between [8]
i) QA and QC
ii) TQM and TQC
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain with examples : [8]
i) Customer satisfaction
ii) Systems approach
iii) Decision making based on facts
iv) Involvement of people
b) Define the following and explain with examples : [8]
i) Quality Control
ii) Quality Assurance
iii) Total Quality Control
iv) Total Quality Management
Q5) a) What is SCM? How does it support in the process of TQM? Explain
with examples from construction. [8]
b) Following defects are noticed in construction work : [8]
i) Toilet Slab is leaking significantly.
ii) Rebars in beams are corroded.
Explain how you would determine the cost of poor quality for each of
the above defects, in detail.
OR
Q6) a) Classify construction defects and explain them with examples. [8]
b) What is benchmarking? What are its advantages? Explain benchmarking
for concreting of m 30 grade. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain input, processing and output as a system organisation with

examples from the construction organisation developing an MIS for
cost control. [10]
b) Discuss advantages and limitation of an MIS developed for a
construction organisation representing a public sector clients
organisation. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain with examples the following generic system concepts : [8]
i) Technology
ii) Management
iii) Development
iv) Applications
[4264]-411 2
b) What are decision support systems? How are they developed? What
are their advantages - Explain for a construction organisation executing
road projects in India. [10]
Q9) a) Explain use of an MIS in the management control of a contractors

organisation executing township projects. [8]
b) Explain the 5 main heads of the PRRT software which are very effective
in operational control and explain how to interact with the software for
generating the various benefits from it. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the MIS structure necessary for a construction organisation for
communication within the company and for collaboration with its
customers suppliers and other business stake holders with the help of
flow charts. [10]
b) Explain relationship between strategic planning and an MIS with help of
practical examples. [6]
Q11) a) Explain ERP as an MIS and elaborate on various modules which are
commercially available for use in building construction. Discuss
limitations of ERP softwares. [10]
b) Explain integration of Hardware, software data communication and
processing, information gathering and processing with examples from
construction field. [6]
OR
Q12) a) Explain with a flow diagram the acquisition, segregation, storing,
processing and validation of the information necessary to develop an
MIS for a construction organisation executing a building project in order
to improve the existing quality system. [7]
b) Draw a diagram showing the 3 major roles played by an information
based support system and explain each role in brief. [9]
zzz
[4264]-411 3

[4264] - 412
B.E. (Civil)
EARTHQUAKE ENGINEERING
1) From Section - I answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6 and from
Section - II answer Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10, Q.11 or Q.12.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
4) IS 456, IS 1893, IS 13920 are allowed in the examination.
6) If necessary, assume suitable data and indicate clearly.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain elastic rebound theory. [8]

b) Explain the various types of earthquakes. [8]
OR
Q2) a) How are earthquake measured. Explain in brief. [10]
b) How are Tsunamis produced, explain in brief. [6]
Q3) a) Obtain the response for a SDOF system subjected to forced

vibration. [10]
b) Explain dynamic magnification factor. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Determine the natural frequency for the system shown in Fig. 1 [8]
P.T.O.
b) Derive the expression for an under damped system. [8]
Q5) a) Explain the various terms used in seismic coefficient method. [9]
b) What is modal analysis, explain in brief. [9]
OR
Q6) Perform modal analysis for the G + 3 building modeled as shown in Fig. 2 is
located in seismic zone IV. The floor-to-floor height is 3.5 m. The building is
supported on medium stiff soil. The R. C. frames are in-filled with masonry
walls. The lumped weight due to dead loads is 12 kN / m2 on floors and 8 kN
/ m2 on the roof. The floor slabs are designed for a live load of 3 kN / m2 and
the roof is designed 2 kN / m2. [18]
SECTION - II
Q7) A (230 500) mm column is reinforced with 8 -16#. It is supported on an

isolated footing. The load coming on the footing is 1500 kN and a moment
of 21 kNm. The SBC of the soil is 174 kN / m2. Use M 20 grade of concrete
and steel of grade Fe 415 and design the footing. [16]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the phenomenon of liquefaction of soil. [8]
b) Briefly explain the codal provisions for static and dynamic analysis of
structures. [8]
[4264]-412 2
Q9) How are lateral loads resisted by structures. Explain with neat sketches.[16]
OR
Q10) State the merits and demerits of base isolation. [16]
Q11) Why structures need to be retrofitted? Explain the various methods available
for retrofitting? [18]
OR
Q12) How are masonry structures retrofitted. Explain with neat sketches. [18]
zzz
[4264]-412 3

[4264] - 413
B.E. (Civil)
ADVANCED CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - II) (Theory) (Semester - I)
1) From Section - I answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6 and from
Section - II answer Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10, Q.11 or Q.12.
5) Electronic pocket calculator is permitted.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Enlist any five factors affecting workability of concrete. Explain how
shape and size of aggregates affect the workability. [8]
b) Write a note on bulking of sand. [5]
c) Write a note on Fly ash. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Write short notes on the following operations to be carried out on
concrete for finishing floors and slabs. [2 4 = 8]
i) Floating. ii) Trowelling.
b) What is flexural strength of concrete and how it is obtained by beam
model and by split tensile test in laboratory. [2 + 4 + 4 = 10]
Q3) a) Write a note on light weight aggregates. Name any six naturally occurring
and any six artificial light weight aggregates. [4 + 3 + 3 = 10]
b) What are the various methods of manufacture of light weight
concrete. [6]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) Write notes on : [4 4 = 16]
a) Vacuum concrete. b) Mass concrete.
c) Underwater concreting. d) Gap graded concrete.
Q5) a) What is the difference between non-destructive and semi-destructive

methods. [7]
b) Enlist various non-destructive methods with their utility in brief. [9]
OR
Q6) Write notes on : [5 + 5 + 6 = 16]
a) Probe penetration.
b) Pulse echo method.
c) Pull off test.
SECTION - II
Q7) Write notes on : [18]

a) Classification of artificial fibres.
b) Relative fibre matrix stiffness.
c) Fibre matrix interfacial bond.
d) Factors affecting properties of FRC.
OR
Q8) a) List the properties that are improved by addition of polymers to
concrete? [6]
b) List the areas where polymer concrete finds its applications. [6]
c) Write a note on proportioning of polymer concrete. [6]
Q9) a) Explain the various properties of hardened SCC. [8]

b) Write a note on current developments in FRC. [8]
OR
Q10) Write notes on :
a) Polymer impregnated concrete. [5]
b) Slurry infiltrated fibre concrete. [5]
c) Stress strain property and compressive strength Properties of FRC.[6]
[4264]-413 2
Q11) a) Write notes on following casting techniques of ferrocement : [8]
i) Centrifuging ii) Guniting
b) Enlist the various components Where ferrocement can be used. [4]
c) Write the advantages and disadvantages of open mould Method. [4]
OR
Q12) a) Explain Skeletal armature method of ferrocement along with merits and
demerits. [8]
b) Write a note on fibre reinforced polymeric meshes (FRP) along with
merits and demerits. [8]
zzz
[4264]-413 3

[4264] - 415
B.E. (Civil)
TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING - II
(2008 Pattern) (Semester - II)
1) Answer Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6 from Section - I and Q. 7 or
Q. 8, Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12 from Section - II.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronics pocket
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write a short note on saturation system. [6]

b) Outline the main features of various road patterns commonly in use
with their diagrams only. [6]
c) What are the different causes of traffic accidents. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain how the road length of NH and SH are determined by using the
third road plan formule. [6]
b) What are the various vehicular characteristics affects the road design
enlist their name with significance. [6]
c) Write a short note on preparation of Master plan. [5]
Q3) a) Write a short note on surface drainage system of highway. [6]

b) Enlist and explain the types of gradient also state cleanly the
recommended values of them as per IRC. [7]
c) Design the rate of super elevation for a horizontal highway curve of
400m and speed of 90 kmph. [4]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Discuss the special care to be taken while aligning hill roads. [6]
b) What the objects are of providing transition curves on the horizontal
alignment highway? Enlist the various types of transition curves used in
highway. [6]
c) Calculate the extra widening required for a pavement within 7 m on a
horizontal curve of radius 250 m if the longest wheel base of vehicle
expected on be road is 7.0 m. Design speed is 60 kmph. [5]
Q5) a) Write a explanatory note on : [6]

i) Temperature stresses in case of Cement concrete Pavement.
ii) Joints in Cement concrete Pavement.
b) Explain the construction procedure for WBM Roads. [4]
c) Draw an illustrative sketches of the following : [6]
i) Aggregate crushing value test apparatus with accessories.
ii) Softening point test apparatus with accessory used to carry out
this test on bitumen sample.
OR
Q6) a) Explain CBR method of design of flexible pavement. [6]
b) Enlist all the test that are to be performed on bituminous material and
explain flash and fire point test. [6]
c) Discuss the various design factors to be considered in the design of
pavement. [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Write short notes on any two of the following : [2 3 = 6]

i) Effective gradient
ii) Three controls of an aircraft
iii) Aircraft characteristic
b) Enumerate the various factors which influence the location of an
airport. [5]
c) The length of Runway under standard conditions is 600 m. The Airport
site has an elevation of 100 m above mean sea level. Its reference
temperature is 28C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective
gradient of 0.5%, determine the corrected runway length. Also, carryout
the usual checks as per ICAO. [6]
OR
[4264]-415 2
Q8) a) Enlist the characteristics of a good airport layout. Draw a neat sketch
of typical airport layout of single runway. [5]
b) Differentiate between : [2 3 = 6]
i) Apron and Hanger.
ii) Minimum Turning Radius and Minimum Circling radius.
iii) Clam period and cross wind component.
c) What is the use of wind rose diagram in the orientation of a runway ?

Enumerate the differences between the Wind Rose type I and Wind
Rose type II diagram. [6]
Q9) a) What do you mean by Economical span of a bridge? Derive the formula
for the same. [4]
b) Draw a neat labeled sketch showing all the components of a bridge.[4]
c) Draw sketches of any two types of abutment and state he conditions

under which they are recommended. [4]
d) How do you determine the flood discharge by direct method? [5]
OR
Q10) a) Explain any five types of stresses acting on a bridge. [5]
b) The normal velocity of flow in a river is 1.5 m/sec. The normal, artificial
waterway and the enlarged area upstream of the bridge respectively are
8000 m2, 7000 m2 and 10000 m2. Determine the height of afflux using
Merrimans formula. Also find the increase in velocity due to afflux.
Assume g = 9.81 m/sec/sec and Coefficient of discharge, C = 0.98. [4]
c) Write short notes on any two of the following : [8]
i) Laceys silt factor
ii) Remedial measures to reduce the effect of scour
iii) Linear and natural waterway of a bridge.
iv) Column bents pier.
[4264]-415 3
Q11) a) Explain any two types of erection methods employed during
construction of bridges. [4]
b) Differentiate between : [4]
i) Permanent and Temporary bridges
ii) Expansion and Rocker bearings
c) Draw the illustrative sketches of [4]
i) Suspension bridge
ii) Cantilever bridge
d) What do you mean by Fixed span and Movable span bridges? Give
one example each of fixed span and movable span bridge. [4]
OR
Q12) a) Explain the importance of bearings in bridges. [4]
b) Write a note of Maintenance of bridges. [4]
c) Draw the illustrative sketches of [4]
i) Swing bridge.
ii) Bascule bridge.
d) What do you mean by Floating bridge? What are the advantages of
floating bridge over fixed bridge? [4]
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[4264]-415 4

[4264] - 417
B.E. (Civil)
ADVANCED FOUNDATION ENGG.
(2008 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Elective - III)
1) Answer 3 questions from Section - I and 3 questions from Section - II.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, electronic pocket calculator is allowed & IS codes
are not allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) How will you decide the depth of exploration & number of borings?
Discuss in the light of IS code. [9]
b) Discuss the IRC provisions for exploration of roads. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the following :
i) Significant depth. [3]
ii) IS code provisions for exploration. [3]
iii) IRC provisions for road exploration. [3]
b) Discuss case studies for failures of foundations. [8]
Q3) a) A building is planned to be constructed on R.C. Raft foundation of

dimensions 14 m 21m. The qu of clay is 15 kN/m2. The pressume
intensity at the base of raft is 140 kN/m2. Design the depth of raft to
provide a FOS = 3, against shear failure. Assume =19 kN/m3. [9]
b) Discuss, IS- 2950 - 1965, provisions for design & construction of raft
foundations. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the following :
i) Skemptions equation.
ii) Jerzaglis equation. [8]
b) Discuss the following :
i) Conventional method for Raft design. [5]
ii) Elastic method for Raft design. [4]
Q5) a) For a cyclic pile load test on a 300 mm dia. pile, following results are
obtained. Determine the design load.
Load 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200
(kN)
Settlement 03 05 10 13 17 22 27 34 44 62
(mm) [9]
b) Explain with sketch,
cyclic pile load test. [7]
OR
Q6) a) Explain stepwise Reese & Matlock method, for laterally loaded
piles. [9]
b) Discuss, IS - 2911 - pt 3 1973, provisions for underreamed pile
design. [7]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss stepwise the design of under-reamed pile. [8]

b) A clay layer 5m thick is consolidated with the help of sand drains of
dia. 30 cm & spaced at 2.7 m c/c. Determine the influence of chain
wells on the Av. degree of consolidation, at the time when the degree of
consolidation in the clay without wells would be 20%.
The drainwells may be arranged in square pattern, with following
data,
i) Kr = Kz ii)for Uz = 20%, Tv = 0.031 [9]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the steps for design of sand drains. [8]
b) Discuss the following tests for under-reamed piles, as per
IS - 2911 - pt -3 - 1973.
i) Initial test. [5]
ii) Routine test. [4]
[4264]-417 2
Q9) a) Explain Banerjee & Gangopadhyay analysis, for well foundation
design. [9]
b) Discuss, upto which depth the Grip length is designed? As per the
IRC code for well foundation. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss stepwise the design of well foundation. [9]
b) Discuss the case studies for failures of well foundations. [8]
Q11) a) Compute the embedment depth & pull in anchor rod for a sheet pile
cofferdam, retaining 6 m. high backfill, with anchor rod 1 m. below the
top. The soil of backfill & below Date is same, having the following
properties, = 1 = 30, c = 0, sat = 20 kN/m3 r = 18 kN/m3,
GWT = 3 m above Date
Use Free earth support method. [9]
b) Explain the steps for design of Diaphragm wall Cofferdam. [7]
OR
Q12) a) Differentiate between free earth support method & fixed earth support
method of sheet pile cofferdam design. [9]
b) Discuss the important stages for the design of,
i) Cellular cofferdam. [4]
ii) Rockfill cofferdam. [3]
zzz
[4264]-417 3

[4264] - 420
B.E. (Civil)
CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - III) (Semester - II)
1) Solve Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6 from section - I and Q. 7 or Q. 8,
Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12 from section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe the role of construction industry in infrastructure development
of 21st century. [9]
b) Discuss various reasons for project time and cost over runs and suggest
a few remedies to overcome. [9]
OR
Q2) a) Write various components of infrastructure sectors. Explain how
infrastructure projects contribute to national development. [5+5]
b) Explain the role of Project Management Consultants on any major project
with an example. [8]
Q3) a) State the importance of Work Breakdown structure in construction

scheduling with an example. [8]
b) Define Work Study and Work Measurement. Explain their objectives
with examples. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) Write various factors affecting scheduling of construction project in
detail. [8]
b) How activity charts and string diagrams are useful for work study and
work measurement? [8]
Q5) a) Write a note on Building and other construction workers Act 1996.[8]
b) An infrastructure project of Rs. 1000/- crore estimated cost is to be
executed. Discuss the various ways in which the funds required for the
same may be raised. Make suitable relevant assumptions. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What is capital investment ? Explain the importance of working and
fixed capital in any project. [2+6]
b) Write short notes on :
i) Workmans Compensation Act 1923
ii) Child Labour Act [4+4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) State importance of mathematical modeling in Risk Management. [9]

b) Define value. Explain importance of value analysis. Discuss any 3
methods used in value engineering in detail. [1 + 2 + 6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain Break Even Analysis. How it can be applied to a multistoried
construction project involving 500 flats? [10]
b) Explain importance of value analysis in value Engineering. [8]
Q9) a) Explain role of Material Management in construction Management.[8]

b) ABC company gets an order for the supply of 24000 units of its product
for a year. The supply should be instantaneous. The customer does not
maintain any buffer stock, so he will not tolerate any shortage in supply.
The inventory holding cost is 10% and the set of cost of machine,
fixture etc. is Rs. 350 per order. [8]
[4264]-420 2
Find out :
i) Optimum size of production lot for minimum cost.
ii) How many orders will be required for this?
iii) Duration of each order.
iv) What is cycle time?
OR
Q10) a) What is the role of ERP in the material Management. [8]
b) A company has an order of supplying 50,000 units of its product per
year, the cost of the setup is Rs. 1000/-.There are ten workers engaged
with the wage rate of Rs. 15/- per day. The daily production capacity is
200 units. The material cost of each unit is Rs. 10/-. The annual rate of
depreciation, insurance taxes and storage cost etc. is 20% of unit cost.
The supply should be instantaneous and no shortage are permitted.
Find out :
i) The economic lot size
ii) The number of runs
iii) Duration of each run. [8]
Q11) a) Explain application of the Artificial Neural Network in civil Engineering.[8]

b) How genetic algorithm can be applied to construction scheduling with
or without resources constraints? [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain with an example fuzzi logic applications in civil Engineering[8]
b) How Artificial Neural Network helpsin material management in civil
Engineering. [8]
zzz
[4264]-420 3

[4264] - 439
B.E. (Mechanical Engineering)
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
SECTION - I
Q1) a) State and explain the advantages of geometric progression. [8]

b) State and explain laws of speed range distribution. [8]
OR
Q2) Draw the structural diagrams of a machine tool speed box for nmin = 16 rpm.
nmax = 770 rpm and = 1.26. Which layout is best and why? [16]
Q3) A 2 m long, 1 m high and 0.5 m wide lathe bed consists of two vertical walls
strengthened by perpendicular or diagonal stiffeners. The thickness of the
walls is 50 mm while that of the stiffeners is 25 mm. Calculate the reduced
bending rigidity of the beds having perpendicular and diagonal stiffeners.[16]
OR
Q4) A hollow rectangular table is 2 m long, 60 cm wide and 9 cm high. The 15
mm thick horizontal walls of the table are joined by 10 mm thick vertical
stiffeners spaced at 400 mm. Calculate reduced stiffness of the table. [16]
Q5) From amongst the slideway combinations flat - flat, flat - V and V - V of a
lathe, which one would provide for the least radial deflection? Substantiate
your conclusion with mathematical proof. [18]
OR
Q6) Derive the load - capacity expressions for a rectangular, hydrostatic pad
bearing fed through capillary, orifice, constant - flow and constant - gap
restrictors. [18]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) Describe the functions and requirements of spindle unit. [16]

OR
Q8) While turning a 750 mm long workpiece of 100 mm diameter between centres,
the radial cutting force was found to be 1.5 kN when the tool was 200 mm
from the tailstock. Calculate the machine tool and system compliances if the
stiffness of the saddle, head stock and tailstock is 30, 40 and 25 kN/mm
respectively. [16]
Q9) Derive the expression for the natural frequency of the system show in fig. 1.
State the effect of placing viscous damper under mass m. [16]
OR
Q10) Write the equations of motion and determine the natural frequencies of two -
degree of freedom vibration system shown in Fig. 2. [16]
Q11) Explain ergonomic considerations applied to the design of control members.

(any three) [18]
OR
Q12) Explain process optimization adaptive control system with neat block
diagram. [18]
zzz
[4264]-439 2

[4264] - 444
B.E. (Mechanical)
FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - III) (Semester - II) (Theory)
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Explain general FEM procedure for one dimensional linear Element.[8]
b) Describe the terms discretization & degrees of freedom with the suitable
example of each. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are types of Boundary Conditions & how they are treated in
FEM. [8]
b) What are advantages & disadvantages of FEM method. [8]
Unit - II
Q3) a) Analyse the truss shown in fig. for axial forces using FE method. Also
find out unknown displacements. [10]
P.T.O.
b) Analyze the bar for axial displacements. Take three elements. Assume
E = 2 105 MPa [8]
OR
Q4) a) Derive Element stiffness matrix & force vector for two noded bar element
using principle of minimum potential Energy (PMPE) method. [10]
b) A system of spring is shown in the figure. Find [8]
i) Nodal displacement
ii) Reaction forces
iii) Force in each spring
K1 = 10N/mm K2 = 15N/mm K3 = 25N/mm K4 = 20N/mm

F2 = 20N F3 = 30N F4 = 50N
Unit - III
Q5) a) Explain iso-parametric, sub parametric & super parametric Elements.[8]
b) Explain the difference between p&h refinement in FEM. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What is the significance of Numerical Integration in FEM. Explain
Newton cotes method. [12]
b) What are higher order elements? Explain with suitable example. [4]
[4264]-444 2
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) A composite wall consists of 3 materials as shown in figure below. The

outer temperature is To = 20C. The convection heat transfer takes place on
the inner surface of the wall with = 800C and h = 25W/m2C.
Determine temperature distribution in the wall. The element matrix equation
is [16]
k e 1 1 T1 Q1
e e
=
he 1 1 T e Qe
2 2
OR
Q8) A steel rod of 1cm diameter & length 6cm. With thermal conductivity
K = 50 W/mC has temperature at left end equal to 400C. The surrounding
temperature is 30C. The convection heat transfer coefficient is h = 20 W/mC.
The right end is insulated. Find temperature at x = 3cm & x = 6cm. Use
stiffness matrix as [16]
KA 1 1 h pL 2 1 1 0
Ke = + + hA & {Ke }{Te }= {Qe }
L 1 1 6 1 2 0 1
Where A = Cross sectional area
K = Thermal conductivity
L = Length of an element
h = Convection heat transfer coefficient
p = Perimeter
[4264]-444 3
Unit - V
Q9) a) Differentiate between consistent mass matrix j& lumped mass matrix.[6]
b) Derive the consistent mass matrix for bar element & truss element.[12]
OR
Q10) a) Explain eigen value problem for undamped free vibration system. [6]
b) Derive the consistent mass matrix for CST element. [12]
Unit - VI
Q11) a) What are various meshing techniques. [8]

b) What is the difference between preprocessing, processing & post
processing in commercial FEM softwares in general. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain aspect ratio & warp angle. [4]
b) Write down nodal coordinates, element connectivity, type of analysis,
degrees of freedom, loading & Boundary conditions for the problem
shown in fig. below. (Do not solve the problem) [12]
zzz
[4264]-444 4

[4264] - 445
B.E. (Mechanical)
ROBOTICS
1) Answer any 3 questions from each Section.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the robot anatomy with figure. [8]

b) Compare the cylindrical co-ordinate and articulated configuration robot
on the basis of
i) Work Volume
ii) Accuracy and Repeatability
iii) Mechanical Flexibility
iv) Dexterity
v) Applications [10]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the degree of freedom associated with robot arm and wrist.[6]
b) A Cartesian robot has a slide range of 1.5 m and it is desired that it will
have a control resolution of 2.8 mm on this axis. Determine the bit
storage capacity which control memory must possess to accommodate
this level of precision. [6]
c) Explain the different joints used in robots. [6]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) What are the different considerations in the design of the gripper? [8]
b) A rectangular block weighing 12 kg is gripped at the middle and lifted
vertically. If it accelerates at 25 m/s2 and the coefficient of friction
between the gripping pad and the block is 0.42. Draw gripper force
analysis and calculate gripping force. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain important characteristics of robot sensors. [8]
b) State various types of sensors in robot. Explain capacitive and Ultrasonic
sensors. [8]
Q5) a) Classify robot drives. [6]

b) Write short notes on Gear motor and Piston Motor. [10]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the Modeling and control of a single joint in robot. [8]
b) One of the joint of articulated robot has to traverse from initial angle of
20 to final angle of 84 in 4 seconds. Using a third degree polynomial
calculate the joint angle at 1, 2 and 3 seconds. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain steps to implement Denavit Hertenberg convention for robot

Manipulator. [10]
b) A point P is attached to a frame (XYZ) is subjected to the following
transformations, but all transformations relative to the current moving
frame are as follows. [8]
i) A rotation of angle about the OX - axis.
ii) Then a translation of a units along OX axis.
iii) Followed by a rotation of angle about the OZ-axis.
Write homogenous transformation matrix to find new coordinate point
of a frame.
OR
Q8) a) Sketch and explain the procedure to obtain robot joint Jacobian matrix.[8]
b) Derive an equation to calculate static force in two link arm manipulator.[10]
Q9) a) Explain three major functions of machine vision system. [8]

b) Enlist different ways to segment an image and explain any one in
detail. [8]
OR
[4264]-445 2
Q10) a) Enlist the capabilities and Limitations of lead through programming
methods. [8]
b) Discuss the general features of robot programming language. [8]
Q11) a) Explain various techniques used for representing knowledge in artificial

Intelligence. [8]
b) Explain possible schemes to represent the problem in artificial
intelligence. [8]
OR
Q12) Write short notes on :
a) Economical aspects to design Robot. [6]
b) Robot simulation Tools. [5]
c) Singularities in robot. [5]
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[4264]-445 3

[4264] - 474
B.E. (Production Engineering)
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - III) (Sem. - II)
1) Answer 1 question from each Unit.
SECTION - I
UNIT - I
Q1) a) Describe the working of two stroke petrol engine with neat diagrams.[8]
b) List various types of frame and describe in brief the conventional
frame. [8]
c) Define automobile engineering. [2]
OR
Q2) a) What is the principle of working of a mechanical governor? [9]
b) What are the various components of automobile? [9]
UNIT - II
Q3) a) What are the problems encountered with liquid cooling? [8]
b) What are antifreeze solutions? [8]
OR
Q4) a) What is the effect of inadequate cooling and overheating of engine
parts? [8]
b) What is thermosyphon cooling? Explain. [8]
P.T.O.
UNIT - III
Q5) a) Explain in brief dry sump lubrication. [8]
b) List out the various tests performed on lubricants. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain pressure lubrication system with the help of diagram. [10]
b) What are the different types of lubricant? [6]
SECTION - II
UNIT - IV
Q7) a) With the help of neat sketch, explain the construction and operation of
sliding mesh gear box. [12]
b) Where are dog clutches used? [6]
OR
Q8) a) How a multi-plate clutch is able to transmit more power in comparison
to a single plate clutch. [7]
b) Explain the operation of an epicyclic gear box. [8]
c) Why is clutch pedal free play important? [3]
UNIT - V
Q9) a) Sketch and explain Ackermann steering mechanism. [10]
b) What are the objectives of suspension system? [6]
OR
Q10) a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of rubber spring? [8]
b) What are the components of the steering system? [8]
UNIT - VI
Q11) a) Describe in brief construction and working of hydraulic brakes. [10]
b) What are the functions of parking or emergency brakes? [6]
OR
Q12) a) Write short note on air brakes. [8]
b) Give the troubleshooting chart for cooling system with its complaint,
cause and remedy. [8]
zzz
[4264]-474 2

[4264] - 475
B.E. (Production)
MECHATRONICS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the Ladder programming Components. [8]

b) Write DeMorgans Laws. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Write four applications of PLC in Manufacturing/ Production. [8]
b) Simplify (A + B) . (A + B ) [8]
Q3) a) Enlist six discrete PLC inputs with two application examples. [9]
b) Explain Examine ON and Examine OFF instructions to handle discrete
inputs of PLC. [9]
OR
Q4) a) Enlist discrete PLC outputs with two application examples each. [9]
b) Explain ladder rung for latching output, setting and resetting output
applied to PLC programming. [9]
Q5) a) Write a short note on Analog Input Data Representation. [8]

b) Explain the Analog Input Block in PLC ladder programming with details
of each parameter. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Write a short note on Analog output data representation. [8]
b) Explain why analog output Bypass is required and how it is done? [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain Direct action I/O Interfaces and Intelligent I/O interfaces. [8]
b) Explain Position, encoders, Counters interfaces. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Describe Thermocouple Input Interface. [8]
b) Explain Network Interface Modules. [8]
Q9) a) List three important specifications of PLC. [6]

b) Given four push buttons (S1, S2 and S3) of Normally Open (NO) type,
two lamps namely RED (L1) and GREEN (L2). Write the PLC ladder
diagram for following objectives. [12]
i) When S1 is pushed and S2 is not pushed L2 (GREEN) lamp is
On indicating the process has started. The GREEN light shall
continue to be on till the process is stopped.
ii) When S1 is not pushed and S2 is pushed L1 (RED) lamp is On
indicating the process has stopped.
iii) When S3 is pushed and process in on, a timer shall be activated
for 30 seconds. When output of the timer is High, the process
shall be Stopped. (Process stopped).
Write the names of input terminals to which switches are connected as
well as output names to which lamps are connected
Write the Boolean (Digital) equations with truth table of each rung you
draw.
Draw the ladder diagram using only Examine ON, Examine OFF and
out put coil symbols
OR
Q10) a) Discuss Examine ON and Examine OFF conditions used in ladder
program. [6]
b) Given three push to On buttons (P1, P2 and S), with two lamps
(L1-Run and L2-Stop) write a PLC program to satisfy following
objectives. [12]
i) When P1 (Start Button) is pushed the L1 (Run Lamp) shall go On
and cycle shall start. The cycle shall continue to remain On until
P2 (Stop Button) is pushed.
[4264]-475 2
ii) When L1 is On then L2 is Off and vice a versa.
iii) When S button is pushed for first time, a counter is invoked as
well as the output dependent on S shall be latched for 30 seconds.
iv) After each 30 seconds after S is pushed, counter is advanced by 1.
v) When the counter is done for 5 events the program STOPs.
vi) When P2 (Stop Button) is pushed the program shall stop.
vii) When program stops the L2 (Stop Lamp) shall be On.
Write the names of input terminals to which switches are connected as
well as output names to which lamps are connected
Write the Boolean (Digital) equations with truth table of each rung you
draw.
Draw the ladder diagram using only Examine ON, Examine OFF and
output coil symbols.
Q11) a) Write a short note on Accelerometers. [8]

b) Explain any flow transducer to measure water flow w.r.t. PLC
programing. [8]
OR
Q12) a) With respect to Principle, schematic construction, working and
applications, explain LVDT. [8]
b) Write a short note on Pressure Transmitters w.r.t. PLC Programing.[8]
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[4264]-475 3

[4264] - 512
B.E. (Electrical)
SWITCHGEAR & PROTECTION
(2008 Pattern) (Sem. - II)
calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain are interruption theories in case of circuit breakers. [8]

b) A 3 phase 50 Hz alternator has inductance of 3 mH per phase &
capacitance of 0.025 F per phase. The circuit breaker opens when
rms current is 8000 A. Determine - [8]
i) Frequency of oscillations
ii) Peak restriking voltage
iii) Av. rate of restriking voltage
iv) Max. value of RRRV
OR
Q2) Describe in detail the concept of [16]
a) Current chopping
b) Resistance switching
associated with high voltage circuit breakers.
Q3) a) Explain the construction & working of puffer Type SF6 circuit breaker.[8]
b) Explain various ratings of high voltage CBs. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the construction & working of vacuum circuit breaker. [8]
b) Write short note on Auto reclosing. [8]
Q5) a) What do you mean by zones of protection? Explain primary & back-up
protection. [10]
b) Explain following terms w. r. t. relay [8]
i) Plug setting
ii) Plug setting multiplier
iii) Time setting
iv) Operating time of relay.
OR
Q6) a) What do you mean by Protective Relaying? Explain the concept with
basic block diagram. Why it is essential. What are different types of
faults & its effects. [10]
b) Explain the basic requirements of good protective relaying. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the least square method for estimation of phasor. [8]
b) With neat block diagram explain numerical relay. State its advantages
over static relays. [10]
OR
Q8) a) With neat block diagram explain static relay state its advantages &
disadvantages over electromagnetic relays. [10]
b) Write short notes on -
i) Sampling theorem
ii) Anti -aliasing filter [8]
Q9) a) Explain the difficulties faced by Merz price current differential protection
used for protection of power transformer. [8]
b) A 11 kv, 70 MVA, alternator is provided with differential protection.
The percentage of winding protected against phase to ground fault is
75%. The relay is set to operate when there is 20% out of balance
current. Determine the value of the resistance to be placed in the neutral
to ground connection. [8]
OR
[4264]-512 2
Q10) a) With respect to alternator explain following protection schemes- [12]
i) Unbalanced loading
ii) Loss of excitation.
iii) Loss of prime - mover
b) Explain high impedance bus bar differential protection scheme. [4]
Q11) a) Explain the effect of are resistance and power swing on the performance
of distance relay. [10]
b) Write a short note on Wide Area Measurement (WAM) system. [6]
OR
Q12) a) Explain time graded system & current graded system protection of
three phase fuder using over current relays. [6]
b) Explain concept of distance relaying applied to protection of transmisson
lies. Compare impedance relay, reactance relay & Mho relay with
reference to applications & characteristics. [10]
zzz
[4264]-512 3

[4264] - 528
B.E. (Electronics Engineering)
ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain parallel processing mechanisms used in a typical Uniprocessor.

architecture. [12]
b) What are the various metrics used to measure the performance of parallel
computers. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Discuss in detail the application of parallel processing in [12]
i) Predictive modeling and simulation.
ii) Engineering design and automation.
b) Explain Amdahls and Gustafsons speedup Performance Laws. [6]
Q3) a) A nonpipelined processor X has a clock rate of 25 MHz and an average

CPI (cycles per instruction) of 4. Processor Y, an improved successor
of X, is designed with a five-stage linear instruction pipeline. However,
due to latch delay and clock skew effects, the clock rate of Y is only 20
MHz. [6]
i) If a program containing 100 instructions is executed on both
processors, what is the speedup of processor Y with X.
ii) Calculate MIPS rate of each processor during the execution of
this particular program.
b) What are the different types of Hazards caused in the pipeline? How
can these hazards be detected and resolved? [10]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) Consider the following pipelined processor with four stages. This pipeline
has a total evaluation time of six clock cycles. All successor stages must be
used after each clock cycle. [16]
i) Specify the reservation table for this pipeline with six columns and
four rows.
ii) List the set of forbidden latencies between task initiations and the
initial collision vector.
iii) Draw the state diagram which shows all possible latency cycles.
iv) List all greedy cycles from the state diagram.
v) Calculate MAL
vi) What is the maximal throughput of this pipeline?
Q5) a) Explain the four types of vector instructions in Cray - 1 in detail. [8]
b) Give the complete detail of SIMD matrix multiplication. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain parallel sorting on Array processors. Assume mesh
interconnection of 16 PEs. [10]
b) Give the details of vector chaining with respect to Cray - 1 architecture.[6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Write the notes on : [8]

i) Crossbar Switch ii) Multiport Memories
b) Write and explain a parallel algorithm to compute FFT. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain implementation details to multiply two 3 3 matrixes using
parallel algorithm on Array processors. [12]
b) Give the details of any one static SIMD interconnection network. [4]
[4264]-528 2
Q9) a) Discuss the typical implementation issues of a program on multiprocessor
system. [10]
b) What is memory contention? Explain the Arbitration techniques to resolve
the issue of contention. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Compare Loosely coupled and Tightly coupled multiprocessors. [6]
b) Explain cache coherence implementation in multiprocessor platform.[12]
Q11) a) What is latency hiding technique? Elaborate any two techniques. [10]
b) Compare Synchronous and Asynchronous message passing. [6]
OR
Q12) a) What are the typical Multithreading issues? Discuss the possible
solutions. [8]
b) What is Data Parallel Programming? Explain in detail. [8]
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[4264]-528 3

[4264] - 529
B.E. (Electronics)
ENTREPRENEURSHIP AND BUSINESS PLANNING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Why are small businesses so important to our economy? [8]

b) How do the concept of marginal benefit and the marginal cost help
entrepreneurs make decisions? [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are the four types of sales transactions? Describe how you balance
the cash drawer? [8]
b) Enumerate the various business etiquates to be maintained for business
conversations. [8]
i) Across the table meeting.
ii) Telephone Conversation.
Q3) a) How is price determined in a market economy? [8]

b) Enumerate the different Questionnaires which should be raised while
evaluating a Franchise opportunity? [8]
OR
Q4) a) Describe in detail the purpose of Business plan and Importance of
Business plan? [8]
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of a partnership firm? [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain in brief the type of insurance you can purchase for your
business? [10]
b) What is direct and indirect competition? What are the purpose of
analysing competitors? [8]
OR
Q6) a) What is market Research? Explain secondary and primary data
research? [10]
b) Enumerate some of the factors you should consider while selecting a
specific site for your Business? [4]
c) How can you protect your business against the employee theft? [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) How do you determine the staffing needs of your business? [8]
b) Enumerate the different kinds of bank, payroll and tax records you
have to keep? [8]
OR
Q8) a) Describe the two different inventory tracking methods? [8]
b) Enumerate the different Leadership characteristics a manager should
posses? [8]
Q9) a) Explain the Break - Even point along with suitable graph? [8]
b) Explain the services provided by the financial experts? [8]
OR
Q10) a) State and explain the ways by which you can improve your cash flow?[8]
b) Enumerate what information should be uploaded on the website of a
newly formed Engineering college. [8]
Q11) a) What are the laws that protect the businesses and the public? [8]
b) Name and explain two reasons entrepreneurs need to appreciate different
cultures? [10]
OR
Q12) a) What are some sources of information that can help you find out about
doing the business abroad? [8]
b) Write short notes on :
i) Code of ethics. [3]
ii) Business ethics. [3]
iii) Social Responsibility [4]
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[4264]-529 2

[4264] - 531
B.E. (Electronics)
ROBOTICS AND AUTOMATION
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write and explain the four generations of the Robots in brief. [4]
b) Define the term Robot. [4]
c) What are the major components of the Robots. Explain any three. [6]
d) Write and explain any two Industrial applications of the robots. [4]
OR
Q2) a) What are the Three Rules (or Laws) of the Robotics? [4]
b) What do you mean by Work Envelop? Explain in brief. [6]
c) Explain (Any Two) : [8]
i) Cylindrical Coordinate system.
ii) Spherical Coordinate system.
iii) Cartesian Coordinate system.
Q3) a) What do you mean by Degree of Freedom. Explain. [4]
P.T.O.
b) Obtain the direct Kinematic equation of the 4 - DOF Selective
Compliance Assembly Robot Arm (SCARA) robots. [8]
Axis 2 Axis 3 and 4
L2
Axis 1
Link 1 Link 2
J3
J1 Link 3
J2 d3
L 11
J4
L 12
L4 Link 4
Link 0
(end-effector)
Tool point
c) What is Work Space? Explain Reachable workspace. [4]

OR
Q4) a) State and explain the Newton-Euler Equation. Explain its significance.[6]
b) What are the steps to get DH parameters. [6]
c) What are the steps of the Kanes algorithm? What are the benefits of
this algorithm. [4]
Q5) a) What are the three different types of the Grippers. Explain in brief. [4]
b) Differentiate Serial and Parallel Robots. [4]
c) Explain in Brief : (Any Four) [8]
i) DC Motor ii) Servo Motor
iii) Stepper Motor iv) Ultrasonic Sensor
v) Laser Range Finder vi) Tactile Sensor
OR
Q6) a) Write short note on (Any four) : [8]
i) Gears. ii) Belt and Pulley.
iii) Rack and Pinion. iv) Slider Crack Mechanisms.
v) Four-Bar Linkage.
b) What do you mean by Actuators. Classify the different actuators. [4]
c) What is Optical Encoders, explain in brief. [4]
[4264]-531 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What do you mean by the following features or the ability of the Robots?
(any four) : [8]
i) Ability to define points in space.
ii) Ability to move between points.
iii) Program control.
iv) Control of end effectors.
v) Serviceability.
b) What do mean by Error Budgeting. What are the parameters related to
it? [6]
c) Explain (Any Two) : [4]
i) Continuous Path.
ii) Via Points.
iii) Programmed Points.
OR
Q8) a) What do you mean by Denavit-Hartenberg Matrix, explain in brief. [4]
b) What is Jacobian Matrix? Write Jacobian form of DH matrix. [8]
c) What is PATH planning? What is Trajectory? Differentiate Path and
Trajectory. [6]
Q9) a) State and explain any two important applications of the Robotic Vision
system. [4]
b) What do you mean by Imaging Components? Explain Point, Line and
Planer sensor. [4]
c) Explain the following image segmentation techniques with example. [8]
i) Edge Detection. ii) Contour Following.
OR
Q10) a) State and explain (with example) the following sensors : [8]
i) Status sensor.
ii) Environmental sensor.
iii) Noncontact sensors.
b) What do you mean by Video Analytics. Give its benefits. [8]
[4264]-531 3
Q11) a) The Quality of the product depends majorly on the Robotics
Intelligence. Justify. [8]
b) Draw and explain the standard components in a Inspection system.[8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain in brief : [8]
i) PLC ii) DCS system
iii) SCADA iv) HMI
b) State and explain any one Home Automation system. [8]
zzz
[4264]-531 4

[4264] - 532
COMPUTER NETWORKS & SECURITY
4) Use of logarithmic tables,slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the working of ATM. [8]

b) Explain the structure and working of OSI model. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Write a short note on Frame Relay. [6]
b) Discuss various issues which occur during design of a network. [6]
c) What are the uses of computer networks ? [4]
Q3) Explain in detail the working and application of following protocols :

a) FTP [6]
b) SNMP [5]
c) BOOTP [5]
OR
Q4) a) What is the significance of DNS and how does it work ? [8]
b) Create a page for a company using HTML. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What are different types of addressing? Explain with the application.[6]
b) What is congestion? Explain one algorithm to control congestion. [6]
c) What is ARP and RARP ? [6]
OR
Q6) a) Compare UDP and TCP. [4]
b) How is Quality of Service defined in Computer Networks? Explain with
the help of various parameters. [8]
c) What is a socket? What are the types of socket? How is a socket
associated? Give the process of calling or associating a socket. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) List the elementary protocols at Datalink Layer. Explain any one in
detail. [8]
b) Write down the problems that are encountered in building the bridge
between :
i) 802.3, 802.4
ii) 802.4, 802.5 [6]
c) What is a Virtual network? Where is it used? [4]
OR
Q8) a) What are various IEEE LAN standards? Elaborate the working of IEEE
802.6. [8]
b) How does Collision free protocols work? [6]
c) What is meant by flow control and error control ? [4]
Q9) a) It is required to transmit a data at a rate of 64kbps over a 3kHz telephone

channel. What is the minimum SNR required to accomplish this ? [4]
b) Explain in detail the structure, working, connector required and
application of twisted pair cable. [8]
c) How does internet work over cable ? [4]
[4264]-532 2
OR
Q10) a) Discuss Microwave communication and Infrared communication. [6]
b) Compare Circuit switching, Message switching and packet switching.[9]
c) Is modem needed for DSL connection ? [1]
Q11) a) Explain AES in detail. [8]

b) How is internet accessed through Dial up, leased line and mobile
handset ? [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain in detail a model for network security. [6]
b) Write the steps of RSA algorithm. [6]
c) Write a note on Protocol Analyzer. [4]
zzz
[4264]-532 3

[4264] - 544
B.E. (E & TC)
DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING
(2008 Pattern) (Semester - I) (Elective - I)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With respect to the elements of visual perception, explain the

following : [10]
i) Brightness adaptation and discrimination.
ii) Mach Bands and simultaneous contrast.
b) Explain the necessity and concept of Image digitization. Also state an
application of non uniform sampling and non uniform quantization. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the significance of statistical properties of an image. Also explain
the following statistical properties. [10]
i) Mean ii) Variance
iii) SNR iv) PSNR
b) Explain the following terms related to image processing or visual
system. [8]
i) MTF
ii) Gray level resolution
iii) Spatial resolution
iv) Connectivity of pixels
P.T.O.
Q3) a) What is a colour space?
Discuss in brief about RGB, YIQ and HSI models for colour image.
Also explain the applications of these colour models. [8]
b) Explain the terms false colouring and pseudocolouring. What are the
various pseudocolouring techniques used for image enhancement. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Answer the following related to histogram of an image. [8]
i) If all the pixels in an image are shuffled, will there be any change in
the histogram. Justify your answer.
ii) Why does histogram equalisation (discrete histogram equalisation)
not produce a perfectly flat histogram.
iii) Can two different images have same histogram? Justify your
answers.
iv) Two images have same histogram. Which of the following
properties must they have in common?
1) Same total power. 2) Same interpixel covariance function.
b) Explain the following concepts in image enhancements, with appropriate
applications : [8]
i) Gray level slicing ii) High Boost filtering
28 13
Q5) a) A 2 2 block of image is given as .
10 28
Determine the DCT coefficients. [10]
b) With reference to a 2D transform, explain : [6]
i) Symmetry.
ii) Separability.
iii) Basis image.
OR
Q6) a) Explain the necessity of image transformation. Write a short note
on : [10]
i) Walsh transform. ii) Haar transform.
b) Explain the following properties of 2D Fourier transform. [6]
i) Translation.
ii) Rotation.
iii) Periodicy.
[4264]-544 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the following with respect to image compression. [8]

i) Entropy and entropy coding methods.
ii) Redundancy and fidelity criteria.
b) Compare lossy and lossless compression. Explain the methods used in
these compressions. [8]
OR
Q8) a) In transform based image compression, image is subdivided into smaller
subimages. Discuss the effect of subimage size on : [8]
i) Compression performance.
ii) Computational complexity.
b) Explain arithmetic coding with example. Compare with Huffman
coding. [8]
Q9) a) Considering a binary image I and structuring element J as given below.[8]

000000
011100
011100
001110 010
001110 111
000000 010
I J
Perform image dilation and erosion.
b) Explain local and global thresholding in segmentation. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Give the eight directional chain code for the arbitary shape shown in
figure. [8]
[4264]-544 3
b) Explain image segmentation based on Thresholding. Explain the various
types of thresholding techniques used in image segmentation. [8]
Q11) a) How is image restoration different from image enhancement? Explain

the various methods used for restoration of an image. [8]
b) Write a short note on : [10]
i) Acoustic imaging.
ii) Remote sensing using image processing.
OR
Q12) a) Explain the image degradation model in detail. [8]
i) Character recognition using image processing.
ii) Medical Imaging (any one application).
zzz
[4264]-544 4

[4264] - 551
B.E. (E & TC)
MOBILE COMMUNICATION
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Compare & contrast the various 2.5G technology paths that each of
the major 2G standards provide. Which path has the highest Internet
access speed? [9]
b) Why would an entrenched US wireless carrier announce that its long
term plan is to abandon its IS - 136 North American digital cellular
standard in favour of a W - CDMA 3rd generation standard with
foundations in GSM? [9]
OR
Q2) a) How would heavy HSCSD usage impact a cellular carriers strategy in
allocating channels in the base stations of a cellular network? How would
the rapid adoption of Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP) impact
cellular congestion? Explain. [9]
b) What is the concept of handoff strategy? Explain in detail the practical
handoff considerations. [9]
Q3) a) Explain what is Brewster angle & why it occurs for parallel polarization.
Calculate the Brewster angle, B for a ware impinging on poor ground,
having a permittivity of Er = 4 at the frequency of 100 MHz. Also
calculate the same for typical ground with permittivity of Er = 15. [8]
P.T.O.
b) Explain the advantages & disadvantages of the two-ray ground reflection
model in the analysis of path loss. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Derive the relationship between Bandwidth & Received power in case
of multipath channel. [8]
b) Explain in detail the spread spectrum channel impulse response
measurement system. [8]
Q5) a) Draw the Block - diagram of DPSK receiver & transmitter. Explain the
function each block in detail. [8]
b) Give the comparison between GMSK & MFSK. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Draw the Block - diagram of a DS - SS system with binary phase
modulation for transmitter & receiver. [8]
b) Draw the block - diagram of a simplified communication system using
an adaptive equalizer at receiver. Explain the function of each block in
detail. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Draw the block - diagram of GSM speech encoder & decoder. Explain
the function of each blocks in detail. [9]
b) Explain the different criteria for selection of speech coders for Mobile
communication. Also explain the linear predictive coders excitation
methods. [9]
OR
Q8) a) What are the disadvantages of FDMA & TDMA? How these are
overcome in CDMA technique? Explain in detail with diagram. [9]
b) Give the comparison between SDMA & OFDM. Explain the concept
of Packet Radio. [9]
Q9) a) Draw the block-diagram for GSM system architecture. Explain the
function of each block. [8]
b) Draw the GSM frame structure. Comment on each frame of the
structure. [8]
OR
[4264]-551 2
Q10) a) Give the different GSM channel types. Give the example of a GSM
call. [8]
b) Explain in detail, with block - diagram the forward CDMA channel
modulation process. [8]
Q11) a) Give the comparison between IS - 95 CDMA & CDMA 2000. [8]
b) Give the significance of air interface, in mobile communication system.[8]
OR
Q12) a) Draw the logical & physical channels for CDMA 2000 system. [8]
b) Explain how in the handover is done in the IS - 95 CDMA system. [8]
zzz
[4264]-551 3

[4264] - 557
B.E. (E & TC)
TEST AND MEASUREMENT SYSTEMS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define the terms instrument, accuracy, error, precision, resolution,

expected value, linearity, repeatability and sensitivity with proper
example. [12]
b) Compare analog and digital signal processing as applied to measuring
instrument. [6]
OR
Q2) a) With the help of neat diagrams, explain : [9]
i) Direct comparison calibration setup
ii) Indirect comparison calibration setup
iii) Echelon of traceability
b) List different statistical characteristics encountered to measure the central
tendency of distribution. Calculate at least two characteristics for
following readings : [9]
Resistance (ohm) 558 559 560 561 562
Frequency of 03 12 30 13 02
readings
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain with the help of a neat diagram, the working of a dual slope
DVM. [8]
b) A square wave with frequency 1 kHz, 50% duty cycle and peak value
2.5 volts is applied to ordinary multimeter for rms voltage measurement.
Find true rms voltage of the waveform and reading of the ordinary
meter. Also find absolute and % error in the reading. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What errors are associated with the measurement of Q using LCR-Q
meter explain in detail. [10]
b) What are the problems of impedance measurement at RF and how
these are taken care of? [6]
Q5) a) Draw block diagram of HF oscilloscope and give features of typical

stages. [8]
b) Explain various sampling and interpolation methods used in DSO. [8]
OR
Q6) a) With respect to DSO explain following : [10]
i) Math function
ii) FFT
iii) Roll mode
iv) Zoom mode
v) Glitch mode
b) What are needs of active and 10:1 probes? [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain functional block diagram of double conversion heterodyning

wave analyzer. [8]
b) Explain following terms with respect to spectrum analyzer. [10]
i) Dynamic range
ii) Scan width
iii) Resolution Bandwidth
iv) Sensitivity
OR
[4264]-557 2
Q8) a) Give typical specifications of Logic Analyzer. Explain how it can be
used in fault finding in micro controller circuits. [10]
b) Draw block diagram and explain fundamental suppression harmonic
distortion analyzer. [8]
Q9) a) Compare microwave solid state sources : YIG resonator, Gunn diode,
Impatt diode and Avalanche oscillators for parameters stability, power
output and tunability. [10]
b) Explain test setup for EMI measurement. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Give the measurement of parameters using combined reflection and
transmission test set. [10]
b) What is frequency synthesizer? Explain typical applications of frequency
synthesizer. [6]
Q11) a) With the help of block diagram explain automatic test system for
measurement of various parameters of radio receiver. [8]
b) What are advantages and disadvantages of virtual instruments. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Give complete set of automatic test equipment used for measurements
on microwave Network. [10]
b) Explain features of software used for virtual instruments. [6]
zzz
[4264]-557 3

[4264] - 565
B.E. (Instrumentation & Control)
LASER BASED INSTRUMENTATION
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - I) (Semester - I)
1) Answer 3 questions from Section - I and Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Calculate the ratio of rates of spontaneous and stimulated emissions for
a tungsten filament lamp operating at temperature of 2030 K with average
frequency to be 5.5 1014 Hz. [5]
b) Estimate the relative populations of two energy levels such that a transition
from the higher to the lower will give visible radiations of 570 nm at
room temperature (T = 300 K). [5]
c) What are the properties of Laser? [6]
OR
Q2) a) Write a short note on the process of absorption, spontaneous and
stimulated emissions of radiation. [8]
b) Discuss the significance of Einstein relations in emissions of radiation.[8]
Q3) a) Explain the construction and working of any gas laser. [8]
b) Classify the laser products for safety standards? [4]
c) Calculate the threshold pumping power of a laser for critical population
inversion of 9 1021/m3 and spontaneous life time of 300 s. The
upper level is at energy of 1.5 eV. [6]
OR
Q4) a) What are different laser system components? Explain each in short.[12]
b) Estimate the efficiency of a GaAs laser operating well above threshold.
The refractive index of material is 3.5 and laser cavity length is 0.1 mm.
The loss coefficient is 600 per meter length and the internal quantum
efficiency is 0.8. [6]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Classify the basic optical interferometers? [8]
b) Describe subjective and objective speckles in detail. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Describe the electronic speckle pattern interferometer (ESPI) for
displacement measurement. [8]
b) Describe the speckle in single point interferometers. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the performance parameters of Laser Velocimeter. [8]

b) Differentiate between time domain and frequency domain processing
of the Doppler signal? [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the time domain processing of Doppler signal in detail. [8]
b) Discuss the performance parameters of operation of laser velocimeter?[8]
Q9) a) Write short note on Sagnac effect. [8]

b) Describe the all fiber FOG configuration. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Write short note on Ring Laser Gyroscope. [8]
b) Explain in detail the Fiber Optic Gyroscope. [8]
Q11) a) A thin strip of the hologram undergoing stress parallel to the x-axis is
illuminated by a He-Ne laser. The fringes are localized in a plane having
slope of 1.5 per unit length in x-direction and the fringe spacing is
found to be 1 mm. Hence find the strain. [8]
b) Explain the any one applications of holographic interferometer that you
know. [10]
OR
Q12) Write a short notes on :
a) Holographic Interferometer. [9]
b) Applications of holographic interferometer. [9]
zzz
[4264]-565 2

[4264] - 572
PROCESS DYNAMICS AND CONTROL
5) Use of logarithmic tables,slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe the factors considered in development of a process control

strategy for the application of a Surge Tank. [8]
b) Explain the role of modeling in Process Control. [8]
OR
Q2) a) With the help of necessary equations explain the dynamic behavior of a
first order system considering any suitable process. [8]
b) List various types of mathematical models. Describe any two types in
detail. [8]
Q3) a) For a typical Heat Exchanger sensors are installed to measure inlet,
outlet, water, steam temperature, inlet water flow and steam flow. Sketch
selecting proper sensors, Feedback and Feed forward control loop.[8]
b) Derive the transfer function / s to describe the dynamic behavior of
a steam heated exchanger. [10]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the effect of Measurement lag on temperature control system
of a heat exchanger. [9]
b) Explain with neat sketch how Cascade concept is implemented in a
Heat Exchanger. [9]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain air / fuel ratio control in a boiler. [8]
b) With the help of necessary diagram, explain FF-FB boiler drum level
control. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Describe Burner Management System in a boiler. [12]
b) Explain Inverse Response in a Boiler. [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) List various dynamic elements existing in a jacketed temperature controlled

reactor. Analyze the effect of each element on control performance. Suggest
methods to marginalize the effect. Assume suitable data. [16]
OR
Q8) a) Sketch a detailed control activity model for a batch process. Explain
the first level i.e. safety Interlock level of this model. [8]
b) Elaborate reactor safety and interlocks with respect to CSTR. [8]
Q9) a) With the help of necessary equations explain mass and energy balance
in distillation process. [10]
b) Elaborate Reflux Control in a typical distillation column. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain with neat sketch the composition, level and pressure control in
a distillation column. [10]
b) Explain the effect of lag in vapor flow on distillation process. [8]
Q11) a) What is surge phenomenon in compressors? Explain the used of bypass

valve to prevent it. [8]
b) Describe the Instrumentation system required for a centrifugal pump.[8]
OR
Q12) Describe the automation strategy used in water treatment plant considering
the steps involved in it. [16]
zzz
[4264]-572 2

[4264] - 575
FIBER OPTIC INSTRUMENTATION
1) Answer three questions from Section - I and Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain graded index optical fiber. Using simple ray theory concepts,
discuss the transmission of light through the fiber. Indicate the major
advantage of this type of fiber with regard to multimode propagation.[10]
b) Briefly indicate with the aid of suitable diagrams the difference between
graded index and in step index fibers. [6]
OR
Q2) a) An optical fiber has a numerical aperture of 0.20 and a cladding refractive
index of 1.59. Determine : [8]
i) The acceptance angle for the fiber in water which has a refractive
index of 1.33;
ii) The critical angle at the core-cladding interface.
b) Describe with the help of simple ray diagram : [8]
i) Multimode step index fiber
ii) Single-mode step index fiber
Q3) a) What are the various losses in optical fibers? Compare the intrinsic and
extrinsic absorption mechanisms. [8]
b) Describe the following scattering losses in optical fibers : [8]
i) Rayleigh scattering ii) Mie scattering
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Compare Brillouin and Raman scattering in optical fibers. [8]
b) Explain Micro bending and Macro bending in optical fiber in detail.[8]
Q5) a) Briefly describe the processes by which light can be emitted from an
atom with an energy level diagram of a common nonsemiconductor
laser. [9]
b) Compare P-I-N diode with avalanche photodiode. [9]
OR
Q6) Write short note on any three : [18]
a) Splicing techniques
b) Optical fiber connectors
c) P-I-N diode
d) Avalanche photodiode
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What do you understand by intrinsic and extrinsic Optical Fiber Sensors?
With the aid of suitable diagrams describe one Extrinsic Optical Fiber
Sensor. [8]
b) What are the advantages and drawbacks of Optical Fiber Sensors? [8]
OR
Q8) What are the advantages of Intensity Modulated Optical Sensors (IMOS)?
Describe following techniques of sensing which is based on intensity
modulation. Also enlist different parameters, which can be sensed by using
these techniques. [16]
a) Evanescent field
b) Coupling
c) Encoding based position sensors
Q9) a) Discuss the working of Fiber Bragg Grating. Also explain the
manufacturing technique of Fiber Bragg Grating. [8]
b) Explain the working of Optical Fiber displacement sensor. [8]
OR
[4264]-575 2
Q10) a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of Distributed Optical Fiber
Sensing? Explain role of Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)
in Distributed Optical Fiber Sensing. [8]
b) Discuss the working of Fiber Bragg Grating. Also explain the
manufacturing technique of Fiber Bragg Grating. [8]
Q11) a) Give major reasons which have led to the development of optical
amplifiers, outlining the attributes and application areas. [9]
b) Explain with the aid of suitable diagrams, following integrated optical
devices : [9]
i) Directional coupler
ii) Beam splitter
OR
Q12) Write short note on any three : [18]
a) Integrated Optics
b) Beam splitter
c) Directional coupler
d) Optical amplifier
zzz
[4264]-575 3

[4264] - 582
B.E. (Printing)
DIGITAL IMAGING & PRINTING
(2008 Pattern) (Semester - I)
1) Answer three questions from Section - I and Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) Define image quality based on resolution. Also discuss resolution concept.[18]
OR
State and explain any 6 file formats used for digital printing. [18]
Q2) Pros and Cons of compressible and non compressible file formats. [16]
OR
Explain color temperature concept. Also discuss importance of white
point. [16]
Q3) Describe Structure and working of DSLR camera. [16]

OR
Discuss Raw image processing and compare RAW file format with TIFF &
JPG. [16]
SECTION - II
Q4) Describe in detail Structure and working of Electrostatic printing process.[18]
OR
Explain 6 (six) advantages of digital printing. [18]
P.T.O.
Q5) Explain detailed process and advantage of variable data printing. [16]
OR
Explain any 2 of the following : [16]
i) Magnetography ii) Dye sublimation
iii) Liquid toner technology iv) Large format inkjet
Q6) Discuss limitations of current digital presses in various aspects. [16]

OR
Discuss why digital printing is a shorter run process than long run? [16]
zzz
[4264]-582 2

[4264] - 584
B.E. (Printing)
QUALITY CONTROL TECHNIQUES IN PRINTING
1) All questions are compulsory.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define the term Quality & write down the need of Quality Inspection.
b) Explain the Quality control requirements in flexo platemaking. [16]
OR
a) Define the term Quality cost & explain each type of cost with suitable
example. [16]
b) List out the Quality specification.
Q2) a) A line inspector in an engineering company recorded dimensions of

each of the five jobs selected at the end of every half an hour off the
five hours in the morning. [14]
Sample No 1 2 3 4 5
1 25.00 25.01 25.00 25.03 25.01
2 25.00 25.03 25.00 25.04 25.03
3 25.01 25.02 25.02 25.03 25.02
4 25.01 25.02 25.02 25.01 25.04
5 25.02 25.02 25.03 25.03 25.00
6 25.06 25.03 25.02 25.00 24.99
7 24.99 24.98 25.02 25.02 24.99
8 25.02 25.01 25.01 24.99 25.02
9 25.03 25.01 24.97 25.01 25.03
10 25.02 24.99 24.99 24.98 24.97
P.T.O.
Plot an X & R Chart & find out which of the given observation are out
of control.
A2 = 0.5768, D3 = 0, D4 = 2.114.
b) Define the O.C. Curve in detail. [4]
OR
a) Six consecutive lots of labels received from a vendor were inspected
by sampling process. The sample size was varied. The number of
defectives in each sample recorded as under. [14]
Sample No. 1 2 3 4 5 6
Sample size 125 125 50 80 200 125
No of Defectives 1 3 0 2 4 1
Construct a control chart for
i) Fraction defectives. ii) Number of defectives.
b) What are different types of sampling plans? [4]
Q3) a) Define CIM systems. How can it be used in production (machines)

department of printing press? [8]
b) Write a note on Flexible manufacturing & Lean manufacturing. [8]
OR
a) Explain in short Mass Production & Batch production. [8]
b) Define in detail World class manufacturing. [8]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) State all surface properties affecting the print quality. Explain any 2
optical properties of paper which may affect color reproduction on
paper. [8]
b) Which factors affect the viscosity of ink? How does the ink viscosity
affect print quality and how is print quality if changed measured? [8]
OR
a) How do physical properties of paper affect runnability of paper on
press? Explain any 2. [8]
b) Explain following properties color, opacity, and adhesion (surface
energy) of an ink. [8]
[4264]-584 2
Q5) a) Explain the process of linearization and characterization of a digital
press in making a profile. Also explain need to make the profiles. [8]
b) Explain Raster image processing in detail. [8]
OR
a) What is a preflight check in printing? Where is it used and state its
advantages. [8]
b) Explain any four file formats. Also explain the need to embed profile
while sending for ripping. [8]
Q6) a) Explain the need to print a test forms and describe any 4 test elements
in detail. [9]
b) Why are standards required for paper? How are TAPPI standards useful
for paper? Describe the role of CIE. [9]
OR
Explain the sequence of steps in press standardization & characterization for
newspaper printing press having 2 tower units, infeed and folder. [18]
zzz
[4264]-584 3

[4264] - 592
B.E. (Printing)
ELECTRONIC PUBLISHING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain JPEG, PNG and GIF file formats in detail. Compare and explain
which image file format is best in web page. [12]
b) Explain any two HTML tags with example. [6]
OR
Q2) Write HTML program to generate the table as shown in picture below. [18]
Title
Some text should Please insert
Some text be written here picture here
should be
written in this
column. Some text should
be written here
Some Some
text text
should should
be be
writte writte
n n
here. here.
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain why textual content formatting is necessary. Explain different
factors considered for textual content formatting. [10]
b) Explain what plagiarism is. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Explain different features of e-pub, Mobi and AZW file format. [12]
b) Explain face book text editing features. [4]
Q5) a) Explain different types of SELECT SQL statement with example.[10]

b) Explain difference between XML and HTML with example. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Explain JOIN and UNION SQL statements with examples. [10]
b) Write XML file to store data for 5 students. Data for a student should
contain Student name, Marks and Roll no. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain concept of typography with example. Explain readability and

legibility. [12]
b) Explain use of CSS in web page designing with example. [6]
OR
Q8) Explain concept of indexing. Write HTML program to design two pages
shown below such that.
a) Next and Previous shown in are hyperlinks
b) For Page 1: When click on Next button, page 2 should be loaded.
c) For Page 2 when click on Previous button, Page 1 should be loaded [18]
Page 1 Page 2
Some text
Insert Insert
picture text
here here
Next Previous
[4264]-592 2
Q9) a) Explain difference between e-book reader and mobile book reader. [8]
b) Explain different features of Adobe. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain e-commerce banking application. [8]
b) Explain use of E-publishing in the field of printing. [8]
Q11) a) Explain content management system (CMS). [8]

b) Explain enterprise content management system (ECMS). [8]
OR
Q12) Write short notes on (any two)
a) Common language runtime (CLR) and Cross language portability in
dot net .
b) Web content management system (WCMS).
c) Core implementation of dot net. [16]
zzz
[4264]-592 3

[4264] - 604
B.E. (Chemical)
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - I) (Semester -I)
1) Answer three questions from each Section.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss The Biosphere in detail. [4]

b) Elaborate on The Hydrologic Cycle. (Diagram is necessary). [6]
c) Describe The Carbon Cycle in detail. (Diagram is not necessary). [6]
OR
Q2) a) Enlist at least three basic mechanisms of removing particulate matter
from gas streams. [6]
b) With the help of neat sketch, describe ESP for air pollution control.[10]
Q3) During a dispersion study the lapse rate was constant at 1.1 C per 100 m. If
the atmosphere is assumes to behave as a perfect gas, at what altitude was
the pressure one-third the sea level. The sea level temperature and pressure
were 14 C and 1 atm. respectively. [16]
OR
Q4) The rate of emission of SO2 from the stack of a power plant is 150 gm/sec.
The stack height is 50 m. Calculate the effective stack height on a sunny
September day when the wind velocity is 5 m/sec. Use Class B stability. The
effluents are being released at 10 m/s and at a temperature of 310 K. The
atmospheric temperature is 293 K. (Assume stack diameter = 1m) [16]
P.T.O.
Q5) Write a short notes on each of the following with figure. [18]
a) Control of NOx in a complex fertilizer plant.
b) Removal of hydrogen sulphide from sour gas in a petroleum industry.
OR
Q6) Write a short notes on each of the following with figure. [18]
a) Fabric filter systems.
b) Fixed bed adsorber
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Elaborate on Origin of Wastewater. [6]

b) Write a note on Dissolved Oxygen in the water. [6]
c) Describe Plant Nutrients as water pollutants in detail. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Differentiate clearly between BOD and COD. How do you determine
the BOD and what are the limitations of BOD tests? [9]
b) Write Streeter - Phelps equation and explain the terms used in the
equation. [9]
Q9) Design an activated sludge process to yield an effluent BOD of 20 mg/1 and
suspended solids of 25 mg/1. The influent BOD following primary clarification
is 160 mg/1. Assume Y = 0.65, kd = 0.05 and sludge retention time 10 days.
The waste flow is 10 m3/min. [16]
OR
Q10) Design one stage high rate trickling filter to produce a BOD effluent of 50
mg/1. given the following data.
Q = 10,000 m3/d
Influent BOD = 400 mg/1.
Temperature T = 20C
Primary sedimentation tank will be used before the trickling filter. [16]
Q11) a) Discuss in brief various treatment processes adopted for treating

industrial wastewater. [6]
[4264]-604 2
b) Explain the following points related to sugar industry. [10]
i) Manufacturing process and waste water generation.
ii) Characteristics of waste water and
iii) Methods of treatments.
OR
Q12) a) Give the typical classification of solid waste. Also, explain each class in
brief. [6]
b) Describe sanitary land filling operation for disposal of solid waste in
detail. (Diagram is necessary). [10]
zzz
[4264]-604 3

[4264] - 613
B.E. (Chemical)
PETROLEUM REFINING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain specifications of Kersosene and engine oil. [8]

b) Explain types of Refining. [8]
OR
Q2) Explain with neat sketch : Vaccum Distillation. [16]
Q3) Describe in details the atmospheric distillation. [16]

OR
Q4) a) What is straight run gasoline. [4]
b) Write a note on chemical Composition of Petroleum. [12]
Q5) Describe the desalting of Crude oil? Describe in details single and two stage
desalting. [18]
OR
Q6) Write in details about various products Obtained from VDU along with
process. [18]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Describe desalting of crude oil and Explain Chemical Composition

Petroleum. [4]
b) What are various applications of cube oils? [12]
OR
Q8) Petroleum Refinary is a good source of Power generation. Express your
views on methodology of integration of refinery and a power plant. [16]
Q9) a) Discuss in details : HDA. [8]

b) Discuss in details : HDM. [8]
OR
Q10) What is Acid Refining? Explain its necessity along with detailed process.[16]
Q11) What is FCC? Discuss about FCC with regenerator with neat sketches.[18]
OR
Q12) a) Note different catalysts used in refining. [10]
b) Discuss recent trends in world wide refineries. [8]
zzz
[4264]-613 2

[4264] - 557
B.E. (E & TC)
TESTAND MEASUREMENT SYSTEMS
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - III)
1) Answer 3 questions from Section - I and 3 questions from section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define the terms instrument, accuracy, error, precision, resolution,

expected value, linearity, repeatability and sensitivity with proper
example. [12]
b) Compare analog and digital signal processing as applied to measuring
instrument. [6]
OR
Q2) a) With the help of neat diagrams, explain : [9]
i) Direct comparison calibration setup
ii) Indirect comparison calibration setup
iii) Echelon of traceability
b) List different statistical characteristics encountered to measure the central
tendency of distribution. Calculate at least two characteristics for
following readings : [9]
Resistance (ohm) 558 559 560 562
Frequency of 03 12 13 02
readings
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain with the help of a neat diagram, the working of a dual slope
DVM. [8]
b) A square wave with frequency 1 kHz, 50% duty cycle and peak value
2.5 volts is applied to ordinary multimeter for rms voltage measurement.
Find true rms voltage of the waveform and reading of the ordinary
meter. Also find absolute and % error in the reading. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What errors are associated with the measurement of Q using LCR-Q
meter explain in detail. [10]
b) What are the problems of impedance measurement at RF and how
these are taken care of? [6]
Q5) a) Draw block diagram of HF oscilloscope and give features of typical

stages. [8]
b) Explain various sampling and interpolation methods used in DSO. [8]
OR
Q6) a) With respect to DSO explain following : [10]
i) Math function
ii) FFT
iii) Roll mode
iv) Zoom mode
v) Glitch mode
b) What are needs of active and 10:1 probes? [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain functional block diagram of double conversion heterodyning

wave analyzer. [8]
b) Explain following terms with respect to spectrum analyzer. [10]
i) Dynamic range
ii) Scan width
iii) Resolution Bandwidth
iv) Sensitivity
OR
[4264]-557 2
Q8) a) Give typical specifications of Logic Analyzer. Explain how it can be
used in fault finding in micro controller circuits. [10]
b) Draw block diagram and explain fundamental suppression harmonic
distortion analyzer. [8]
Q9) a) Compare microwave solid state sources : YIG resonator, Gunn diode,
Impatt diode and Avalanche oscillators for parameters stability, power
output and tunability. [10]
b) Explain test setup for EMI measurement. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Give the measurement of s parameters using combined reflection and
transmission test set. [10]
b) What is frequency synthesizer? Explain typical applications of frequency
synthesizer. [6]
Q11) a) With the help of block diagram explain automatic est system for
measurement of various parameters of radio receiver. [8]
b) What are advantages and disadvantages of virtual instruments. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Give complete set of automatic test equipment used for measurements
on microwave Network. [10]
b) Explain features of software used for virtual instruments. [6]
zzz
[4264]-557 3

[4264] - 632
B.E. (Petroleum Engineering)
FORMATION EVALUATION
3) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
4) Assume additional data, if required.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe borehole environment with a suitable diagram. Explain empirical
relationship between different zones and fluids. [10]
b) Explain various steps involved in the evaluation of formation. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Based on information given in the following log, explain different tracks,
records available in them and also your impression on shape of curves
obtained in tracks. [10]
b) Why it is necessary to use different combinations of logs for evaluation? [5]
P.T.O.
Q3) Explain important electrical logging methods with the help of neat
sketches. [15]
OR
Q4) Describe important porosity determination logs. [15]
Q5) Answer any two of the following with neat diagrams, wherever possible :[20]
a) Detection of abnormal formation pressure
b) Data sources in mud logging
c) Use of core analysis in formation evaluation
d) Methods to estimate borehole geometry
e) Temperature logging
f) Logs used for the evaluation of cement
SECTION - II
Q6) a) What is a clean formation? How is it recognized? What problems occur
in shaly reservoir while determination of lithology and porosity. [10]
b) How is bed boundary recognized? [5]
OR
Q7) a) A record of logs is given below in three different tracks along with their
depth [10]
Write and interpret the log signatures and their relationships with respect
to depth.
[4264]-632 2
b) How are movable hydrocarbons recognized? [5]
Q8) a) What are quick - look methods of log interpretation? [10]

b) Write in brief about Litho - porosity cross plot. [5]
OR
Q9) a) Draw and describe the patterns showing coarsening and fining in grain
size in upward direction under various depositional conditions. [10]
b) A clean sand formation/ horizon penetrated by a well contain water, oil
and gas. Above and below the sand horizon occurs low resistivity shale.
Resistivity of the formation below oil - water contact is 0.63 Ohm.m
and that of above oil - water contact is 6.8 Ohm.m. If the Formation
Water Resistivity is 0.02 Ohm.m with default values of A = 0.81, m = 2
and n = 2, calculate the porosity of the horizon. [5]
Q10) Answer any four from the following : [20]

a) Physical properties of clay
b) How are fractured reservoir detected?
c) Importance and methods to determine net to gross thickness
d) Recognition of oil and gas show during mud logging
e) What is MWD?
f) Logging in deviated horizontal wells
g) Image logs
zzz
[4264]-632 3

[4264] - 652
B.E. (Petrochemical Engg.)
PROCESS DYNAMICS AND CONTROL
1) Attempt Q1 or 2, Q3 or 4, Q5 or 6, Q7 or 8, Q9 or 10, Q11 or 12.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss the objectives of process control. [4]
b) Explain with the help of a block diagram the working of a closed loop
feedback system with all its elements. [8]
c) What do you mean by control valve characteristics? Explain its
significance with respect to process control. [4]
OR
Q2) a) A thermometer having first order dynamics is placed in a temperature
bath of 45C. After the thermometer reaches the equilibrium with the
bath. The bath temperature is subjected to sinusoidal forcing function
about its average temperature of 45C with amplitude of 15C. If the
period of oscillation is 30 sec/cycle and the time constant of the
thermometer is 10 second. Determine the following : [8]
i) Maximum and minimum temperature indicated by the thermometer.
ii) Amplitude ratio
iii) Phase lag
b) Explain the hierarchy of process control activities and discuss in detail
the time scales involved in each activity. [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) The transfer function of a process, measuring element and the control
3 1 1
valve are given by G p ( s ) = 3s + 1 , H( s ) = 6 s + 1 G v ( s ) = s + 1

respectively. A Proportional controller with a sensitivity Kc = 3 is used.
Obtain the closed loop transfer function for a servo problem. Draw the
block diagram showing all the transfer functions. [8]
b) With the help of a neat sketch obtain the transfer function for N-identical
non-interacting system in series. Compare the dynamic response of a
non-interacting and interacting system. [8]
OR
Q4) a) The overall transfer function of the control system is given as
16
G ( s ) = A step change of magnitude 6 is introduced
1 . 5 s 2
+ 2 . 4 s + 6
into the system. Determine. [10]
i) Overshoot
ii) Period of oscillation
iii) Natural period of oscillation
iv) Rise time
v) Ultimate value of response and
vi) Maximum values of response
b) Derive the transfer function of a transportation lag parameter. Give the
effects of transportation lag on process control. [6]
Q5) a) Derive the transfer function of a PID controller. A unit step change is
given in the error signal to a PI controller. If the controller gain is 4, the
integral time is 2 min. Obtain the response of the PI controller. [8]
b) Explain with neat sketch the effect of Proportional control action on a
closed loop system response. Derive that the offset is the characteristics
of proportional controller for a servo mechanism control problem
following a step change. [10]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the following : [8]
i) Proportional band ii) Limit cycle
iii) Controller tuning iv) Integral wind up
b) Discuss the factors affecting the selection of the Air-to-Close or Air-to-
open pneumatic control valve. [4]
[4264]-652 2
c) A pneumatic controller is used to control temperature range of 0-100C
for the output change from 30 to 90 KN/m2 as the temperature changes
from 90 to 105C. Calculate the proportional band sensitivity of the
controller [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) Write a short note on the following : [18]
a) Routh Test for stability
b) Root Locus diagram
c) Bode Diagram
d) Gain margin and Phase margin
OR
Q8) a) Explain the role of frequency response analysis in the design of the
control system. Derive the expression for Amplitude ratio and phase
lag as a frequency response of a first order system. [9]
b) Derive the amplitude ratio and phase angle for the proportional derivative
control. Draw the Bode diagram for the PD controller. [9]
Q9) a) Write a Short note with the help of block diagram on any two of the
following : [12]
i) Cascade Control of a Shell and tube heat exchanger
ii) Inferential control strategy
iii) Ratio Control
iv) Adaptive control
b) Discuss advantages and disadvantages of feedback and feed forward
control systems. [4]
OR
Q10) a) Explain significance of degrees of freedom analysis in design of a control
system. [5]
b) Discuss the need of Advanced process control strategies for process
industry. [5]
c) Write a short note on Model Predictive Control. [6]
[4264]-652 3
Q11) What do you mean by SCADA? With respect SCADA discuss the
following : [16]
a) Control components of SCADA
b) Network communication Components of SCADA
c) Configuration of SCADA
OR
Q12) a) What is DCS control system? Discuss in detail the comparison between
SCADA and DCS. [8]
b) What is PLC? Explain its various components. What do you mean by
Ladder diagram? Illustrate. [8]
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[4264]-652 4

[4264] - 664
PROCESS MODELING AND SIMULATION
(2008 Course)
1) Answer Three questions from Section - I and Three questions from Section -
4) Black figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain synthesis, Analysis and Design of development of chemical process

models. [16]
OR
Q2) Discuss in details on steps involved in simulation of a chemical process.[16]
OR
Q3) Develope a mathematical model for design of a CSTR undergoing first order
reaction. [16]
OR
Q4) Write in details on principles and equations considered in design of a binary
distillation column. [16]
Q5) a) Using crammers rule, obtain the solution of :

2x + 3y + 4z = 5
x + 2y + z = 4
3x y + z = 6 [8]
b) Explain the algorithm for finding of root of an equation by using
Bisection method. [10]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) Using Gauss-Seided iteration method, solve following simultaneous equations
upto five iterations :
4x1 + 2x3 = 4
5x2 + 2x3 = 3
5x1 + 4x2 +10 x3 = 2 [18]
SECTION - II
Q7) Enlist and discuss the various steps involved in formation of a problem in
petrochemical industry. [16]
OR
Q8) What is decomposition of networks? Explain with flowchart and
algorithm. [16]
Q9) Note important variations along with examples between lumped and distributed
parameter models. [16]
OR
Q10) Describe in brief on each of different criteria involved in state-space
representations. [16]
Q11) With algorithm, express design and development of Artificial Neural Network
for a Petrochemical process. [18]
OR
Q12) Write in details on membership functions involved in Fuzzy Logic system
development. [18]
zzz
[4264]-664 2

[4264] - 667
RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES
1) Answer 3 questions from each section.
calculator and steam table is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Name eight different renewable energy sources and discuss its present
status in Indian subcontinent. [8]
b) Discuss the principle of Solar Drying with help of neat sketches and
explain its advantages. [8]
OR
Q2) a) With help of suitable case studies discuss the challenges faced by the
non-conventional energy sources. [8]
b) Comment on energy consumption in various sectors and explain how
to optimize the usage. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the principle of solar water heating with help of neat sketches.
[6]
b) Write in details limitations in application of solar energy. Discuss the
possible solutions to get rid of it. [10]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) With help of neat diagram explain working of Solar Collector. In this
context discuss its efficiency. Comment on the solar panel utilized. [8]
b) Discuss Solar Space Heating and Cooling with help of neat sketches. [8]
Q5) a) Comment on Land for Food ar Fuel. [6]

b) Discuss the second generation Biofuel Strategy and differentiate it from
1 First generation technology. [6]
c) Write a short note on Biorefinery and its products. [6]
OR
Q6) a) What are Lignin ? How those can be removed from cellulosic matter.
Discuss the process of conversion of cellulose to biofuel. [8]
b) Obtain mass balance of the following biodiesel synthesis process:
500 ml of Cannola oil is transesterified with 99.5% pure methanol (in
1:6 mole ratio) in presence of 2.18 gm NaOH catalyst to produce 532
ml FAME and 487 ml of glycerol (density = 1.2 gm/cm3).
Density of vegetable oil = 0.91 gm/cm3 and it can be considered as
pure triglyceride of oleic acid. [10]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) With help of neat sketches explain Opn Cycle OTEC Technology. [6]
b) What are the cost aspects of OTEC technology ? Discuss the steps to
be considered in order to make it a sustainable energy source. [6]
c) What are causes of tide in the ocean? Discuss how energy can be
extracted form the tides. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Discuss the design aspect of Wind Turbine. [8]
b) Discuss the seasonal variations of wind energy and how those can be
reduced. [4]
c) Write a short note on design of Helical Turbine-Draw neat diagram.[6]
[4264]-667 2
Q9) a) With help of neat diagram explain the Geothermal Reservoir and
comment on the flow within the Reservoir. [8]
b) Explain the process of liquid dominated (wet steam) system of
geothermal energy extraction with help of neat sketch. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Describe various energy extraction technologies used with hydrothermal
(geothermal) resources. [8]
b) What do you understand by Geothermal energy ? What are geothermal
fields ? [8]
Q11) a) With help of neat diagram explain Solid Oxide Fuel Cell. Discuss its
applicability. [8]
b) Comment on Hybrid Vehicle and its energy source. How energy are
stored in Hybrid Cars -discuss the challenges involved. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Discuss the importance of storage of electrical energy. Name different
types of cells can be utilized. Discuss operation of any one of the
cell. [8]
b) With help of schematic diagram explain the principle of operation of
Fuel Cells. Comment on Cathode, Anode and the type of Electrolytes.
[8]
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[4264]-667 3

[4264] - 672
B.E. (Polymer)
MOLD AND DIE DESIGN - I
1) Answer question number 1 or 2, 3 or 4, 5 or 6 from Section - I. Answer question
number 7 or 8, 9 or 10 and 11 or 12 from Section - II.
2) Answers to the two sections must be written on separate answer books.
4) Draw neat sketches wherever required.
5) Use of calculator, graph paper is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) Design a 2 cavity 2 plate mold for the component shown in figure 1. Draw at
least 2 views with one sectional view to bring out the details of the feed,
cooling and ejection system. Illustrate the relevant design calculations. [35]
P.T.O.
OR
Q2) Design a 2 cavity 3 plate mold for the component shown in figure 2. Draw at
least 2 views with one sectional view to bring out the details of the feed,
cooling and ejection system. Illustrate the relevant design calculations. [35]
[4264]-672 2
Q3) Explain the baffle cooling for cores. [6]
OR
Q4) What are the various factors which determine the force required for ejection
force of a injection molded component? [6]
Q5) Determine the pressure drop through land section and adapter section for a
rod die. Diameter of the rod die is 20mm, land length 40mm, critical strain
rate c = 20 sec 1, melt density = 0.7 g/cc, extruder size = 50mm, output
40 kg/hour, power law index n = 0.3, extensional viscosity = 0.9 104
N - sec/m2, k = 3500N sec1/m2. [9]
OR
Q6) Draw a neat labeled sketch of an in-line pipe die. Explain its constructional
features. [9]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss the characteristic features of surface hardening. [6]

b) Describe in detail the process of up milling and down milling with a neat
sketch. [6]
c) Explain with a neat sketch cutting tool geometry of a plain milling cutter.[4]
OR
Q8) a) Derive an expression for machining time in terms of speed, feed and
length of block for a face milling operation. [6]
b) Discuss the variables affecting the hardening of steel. [5]
c) Select and justify the material for the following mold components
i) Core and cavity inserts
ii) Guide pillars and guide bush
Write down the chemical composition of the same. [5]
Q9) a) Explain in details the method used for determination of straightness and
flatness using autocollimator. [8]
b) Draw different fringe patterns that are observed during flatness testing
using optical flat. Give explanation for each of them. [5]
c) Explain with neat sketches, different types of gauges that are used for
checking holes. [5]
OR
[4264]-672 3
Q10) a) Explain the principle of interferometry as applied to flatness testing.[5]
b) Determine the actual dimensions to be provided for a shaft and hole of
90mm size for H7/g6 type of fit. Size 90mm falls in diameter steps of 80
to 100mm. Value of tolerance for IT7 and IT6 are 16i and 10i respectively.
Value of fundamental deviation of g type shaft is (2.5D0.34). Take the
value of tolerance unit i = 0.45 ( D ) + 0.001D. Sketch and identify the
3
fit type. [8]

c) Derive an expression for the best wire size for measuring effective or
pitch diameter of a screw thread. [5]
Q11) a) Explain with neat figures, constructional features of overlap gate and
film gate. [6]
b) Justify the type of gate which is most suitable for molding of a compact
disc, cylindrical sleeve and rectangular box. Illustrate with neat figures.[6]
c) Explain the process of calculating the cavity pressure for an injection
mold. [4]
OR
Q12) a) Explain factors taken into consideration while deciding runner size and
type. [6]
b) Explain factors taken into consideration while deciding gate location.[6]
c) Explain the various methods of clamping injection molds on the machine
platen with neat figures. [4]
zzz
[4264]-672 4

[4264] - 677
B.E. (Polymer Engineering)
PRODUCTION PLANNING & CONTROL
1) Answer Q. No. 1 or 2, Q. No. 3 or 4 and Q. No. 5 or 6 from Section - I.
Answer Q. No. 7 or 8, Q. No. 9 or 10 and Q. No. 11 or 12 from Section - II.
2) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
4) Assume suitable data, if required.
5) Use of scientific calculator, graph paper is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) The following are the details of estimated time of activities of a certain
project. [8]
Activity Duration (days)
12 6
13 5
24 10
34 3
35 4
45 6
46 2
56 9
Draw the PERT network and determine the critical path. Also, find the
total, free and in dependent float for each activity.
b) Explain Johnsons algorithm for processing n jobs on two machines.
Apply the algorithm to solve the following sequencing problem. [8]
Jobs. A B C D E F G H I
Machine I 2 5 4 9 6 8 7 5 4
Machine II 6 8 7 4 3 9 3 8 11
OR
P.T.O.
Q2) a) A project has the following characteristics : [8]
Activity Most optimistic Most pessimistic Most Likely
Time Time Time
1-2 1 5 1.5
2-3 1 3 2
2-4 1 5 3
3-5 3 5 4
4-5 2 4 3
4-6 3 7 5
5-7 4 6 5
6-7 6 8 7
7-8 2 6 4
7-9 5 8 6
8 - 10 1 3 2
9 - 10 3 7 5
Construct a PERT network. Find the critical path and variance for each
event. Find the project duration at 95% probability.
b) There are six jobs, each of which must go through machines A, B and
C, in the order ABC. Processing times (in hours) are given in the
following table:
Job : 1 2 3 4 5 6
Machine A : 8 3 7 2 5 1
Machine B : 3 4 5 2 1 6
Machine C : 8 7 6 9 10 9
Find the optimal sequence to minimise the total elapsed time. Find also
the idle time for each machine, for the optimal sequence. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the terms : - [5]

i) Lead time. ii) Order Cycle.
iii) Re-order level. iv) Economic Order quantity.
b) A textile mill buys its raw material from a vendor. The annual demand of
the raw material is 9000 units. The ordering cost is Rs. 100 per order
and the carrying cost is 20 % of the purchase price per unit per month,
where the purchase price per unit is Re. 1. [7]
[4264]-677 2
Find the following :
i) Economic order quantity.
ii) Number of orders per year.
iii) Time between two consecutive orders.
iv) Total cost w.r.t EOQ.
c) Find the optimum order quantity for a Product for which the price
breaks are as follows : - [6]
Quantity unit cost (Rs.)
O < Q1 < 600 100
Q2 > 600 98
The monthly demand is 300 units. Ordering cost is Rs. 2500 and storage
cost is 4 % of the unit cost.
OR
Q4) a) Derive an expression for Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) for a EOQ
model with the following assumptions : - [9]
i) Production is at a finite rate (k), per unit time.
ii) Demand rate is constant (r), per unit time.
iii) Shortages are not allowed.
iv) Each production run of length t consists of two parts t1 and t2,
such that there is no replenishment or production during time t2.
v) Lead time is zero.
vi) Holding cost and set up cost to be considered.
b) The annual demand for an automobile component is 36,000 units. The
carrying cost is Rs. 0.50 / unit/ year and the ordering cost is Rs. 25.00
per order and shortage cost is Rs. 15.00 / unit / year. Find the EOQ,
maximum inventory and maximum shortage quantity, number of orders
per year. [9]
Q5) a) For an sampling plan N = 1500, n = 100 and c = 1, determine the

probability of acceptance of following lots. [7]
i) 0.5 % defective
ii) 1 % defective
iii) 1.5 % defective
iv) 2 % defective
v) 2.5 % defective
[4264]-677 3
vi) 3 % defective
vii) 3.5 % defective
viii) 4 % defective
ix) 5 % defective
x) 10 % defective
Draw an OC curve. Comment on the sampling plan and OC curve.
b) Following is the observation about number of defects found in a wind
mill blade made up of FRP. Draw C-chart and plot the same. [5]
Sr. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
No. of Defects 3 4 2 1 6 4 2 5 1 3
c) Define : [4]
i) Lot Tolerance Percentage Defective (LTPD).
ii) Acceptable Quality Level (AQL).
OR
Q6) a) Explain one sided process capability ratios and process capability
ratios for an off-center process. [6]
b) Process performance indices Pp and Ppk do not give meaningful
information about process capability. Discuss the statement. [4]
c) Discuss advantages and limitations of statistical quality control. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation

problem, by Vogels method. [7]
Stores.
I II III IV Availability
A 7 3 5 5 34
B 5 5 7 6 15
Warehouses C 8 6 6 5 12
D 6 1 6 4 19
Demand 21 25 17 17 80
[4264]-677 4
b) Solve the following Assignment Problem. [9]
a b c d e f
A 9 22 58 11 19 27
B 43 78 72 50 63 48
C 41 28 91 37 45 33
D 74 42 27 49 39 32
E 36 11 57 22 25 18
F 3 56 53 31 17 28
OR
Q8) a) Find the optimum solution to the following transportation problem, by
Vogels Approximation Method. [7]
D1 D2 D3 D4 Availability
O1 5 3 6 2 19
O2 4 7 9 1 37
O3 3 4 7 5 34
Demand 16 18 31 25
b) A car hire company has one car at each of the five depots a, b, c, d and
e. A customer requires a car in each town, namely A, B, C, D and E.
Distance (in kms) between depots (origins ) and towns (destinations)
are given in the following matrix. [9]
a b c d e
A 160 130 175 190 200
B 135 120 130 160 175
C 140 110 155 170 185
D 50 50 80 80 110
E 55 35 70 80 105
How should the cars be assigned to customers, so as to minimize the
distance travelled?
Q9) a) The Oil India Corporation (OIC) is considering whether to go for an

offshore oil drilling construct, to be awarded in Bombay High. If OIC
bid, value would be Rs. 600 million with a 65% chance of gaining the
contract. The OIC may set up a new drilling operation or move already
existing operation; which has proved successful, to a new site. The
[4264]-677 5
probability of success and expected returns are as follows : - [8]
Out come New Drilling operation Existing operation
Probability Existing operation Probability Expected
Revenue
(Rs million)
Success 0.75 800 0.85 700
Failure 0.25 200 0.15 350
If the corporation do not bid or lose the contract, they can use Rs. 600
million to modernize their operation. This would result in a return of
either 5 percent or 8 percent on the sum invested with probabilities 0.45
and 0.55 respectively.
i) Construct a decision tree for the problem showing clearly the
courses of action.
ii) By applying an appropriate decision criterion, recommend whether
or not Oil India Corporation should bid the contract.
b) Write short note on characteristics of Game theory. The pay off matrix
of a game is given. Find the solution of the game to the player
A and B. [10]
B
I II III IV V
I 2 0 0 5 3

II 3 2 1 2 2
A
III 4 3 0 2 6

IV 5 3 4 2 6
OR
Q10) a) An investor is given the following investment alternatives and percentage
rates of return [8]
Low Medium High
Regular shares 7% 10% 15%
Risky shares 10% 12% 25%
Property 12% 18% 30%
Over the past 300 days, 150 days have been medium market conditions
and 60 days have had high market increases.
On the basis of these data, state the optimum investment strategy
for the investment.
[4264]-677 6
b) For the following payoff table, transform the zero - sum game into an
equivalent linear programming problem and solve it by simplex
method. [10]
Player Q
Q1 Q2 Q3
P1 9 1 4
Player P P 2 0 6 3
P3 5 2 8
Q11) a) Explain the kend all notation, used in Queueing Theory, and give the
classification of Queueing models, based on this notation. [6]
b) A 24 - hour open highway petrol station has one service channel, and
the arrival rate of vehicles throughout the day and night is according to
Poissons distribution, with an average of one vehicle every 12 minutes.
The service rate at the petrol station also follows Poisson distribution,
with an average of 9 minutes per vehicle. Find [10]
i) Utilisation factor of the service channel.
ii) The probability that the service channel is busy.
iii) The probability of having 3 vehicles in the system.
iv) The average number of vehicles in the queue at any time.
v) The average waiting time of the vehicles in the queue.
OR
Q12) a) A supermarket has four salesmen at the sale counters. Customers arrive
at the rate of 15 per hour and the arrival rate follows Poisson distribution.
The service time also follows Poisson distribution and is at the rate of
10 per hour. Find [9]
i) Expected percentage of idle time for each counter.
ii) p0 and p1.
iii) Lq and Wq .
b) A car servicing station has two service men. Due to space limitation,
only 4 cars are accepted for servicing. The arrival pattern is Poisson
with 12 cars per day. The service time of both men is also Poisson, at
the rate of 8 cars per day, per person. Find the average number of cars
in the service station, the average number of cars waiting to be serviced
and the average time a car spends in the system. [7]
zzz
[4264]-677 7

[4264] - 684
SPECIALITY POLYMERS AND APPLICATIONS
1) Answer 3 questions from each section.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is liquid crystallinity? Explain the structural requirements for

polymers to exhibit liquid crystalline character. [8]
b) With suitable diagram explain various types of LCPs and phases. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Give the synthesis of any three LCPs. [8]
b) With suitable examples write a note on applications of any four category
of LCPs. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the theory of conduction. Discuss the band theory in detail.[8]
b) Give the synthesis of any three Conducting Polymers. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Write a note on requirements for polymer to show conductivity. [8]
b) Discuss in detail doping in conducting polymers. [8]
Q5) a) Give the synthesis of polyimides and polyquinoxalines. [9]

b) Discuss the factors on which thermal stability of a polymer depends.[9]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Explain any two methods in detail to determine heat resistance of a
polymer. [9]
b) Write in short the synthesis, properties and applications of PBO and
PBI. [9]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) With suitable examples give the applications of photosensitive polymers

in various fields. Explain the need of photosensitivity for that particular
application. [8]
b) What are the requirements of a polymer to work as coating additive?[8]
OR
Q8) a) Define membrane. Give their types and explain any two methods to
prepare them. [8]
b) Give the synthesis of any two polymers used as coating additives. [8]
Q9) Write a note on :

a) Control release theory [8]
b) Orthopedic applications of biomaterials. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Define biopolymers. Explain natural and synthetic biopolymers. [8]
b) Write a note on any one ASTM testing method of biopolymers. [8]
Q11) With reference to any two specific polymers each write a note on -
a) Polymer composites in aerospace. [9]
b) Polymers in construction and building applications. [9]
OR
Q12) Write a note on :
a) Polymers in cosmetics and food applications. [9]
b) Polymers in agricultural applications. [9]
zzz
[4264]-684 2

[4264] - 692
B.E. (Computer Engineering)
PRINCIPLES OF COMPILER DESIGN
1) Answer three questions from Section - I and three questions from section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is role of Lexical Analyzer in compiler design? Why Lexical
Analyzer and Parser are two separate phases? Why they are combined
in a single pass? [6]
b) Show that following grammar is LR(1) but not LALR. [8]
S Aa | bAc | Bc | bBa
Ad
Bd
c) Compare and contrast Recursive Descent parser and Predictive
parser. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the working of Operator Precedence parser with an example.[6]
b) Explain : Error detection and recovery in YACC. [4]
c) Explain role of Regular Expression and DFA in Lexical Analyzer. [8]
Write LEX specification for following :
To count positive and negative numbers from a text file, and display
them.
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Suppose declarations are generated by following grammar : [8]
D idL
L ,idL | :T
T int | real
Construct a translation scheme to enter the type of each identifier into
the symbol table.
b) Write short note : semantic Analysis [4]
c) What is type expression? Write type expression for following :
An array of pointers to reals, where array index ranges from 1 to 100[4]
OR
Q4) a) Write LEX and YACC specification for construction of syntax tree
from arithmetic expression. [8]
b) What is L attributed definition? Give example. [4]
c) Generate annotated parse tree for following expression : [4]
a+b*cd
Q5) a) Write Syntax Directed Translation scheme for boolean expression.

Explain use of backpatching. [8]
b) Generate quadruples for following : [6]
a = b * c / e ^ f + g * h
c) Compare triple and indirect triple representation. [2]
OR
Q6) a) Write Syntax Directed Translation scheme for array. Generate
intermediate code in 3 addr form for following statement : [8]
a = b[i]
b) Generate three addr statements for following pieces of code : [6]
While (a < b)
{
if (p < q and m > n)
x = x + 1;
else
x = x 1;
}
c) What is need for intermediate code? [2]
[4264]-692 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the difference in storage organization and allocation strategies

for block structured and non block structured languages. [6]
b) Explain procedure call with an example. [6]
c) Write short note : Symbol Table. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in detail run time storage management. [8]
b) What are contents of activation record? [4]
c) Explain how various phases of compiler interact with symbol table.[4]
Q9) a) What is DAG? What are its uses? Generate DAG for following : [6]
X1 = a + b * 12
X2 = a / 2 + b * 12
b) Explain Dynamic programming algorithm for code generation. [8]
c) Explain following terms with respect to simple code generation
algorithm : [4]
Register descriptor
Address descriptor
OR
Q10) a) What are different issues in code generation? [4]
b) Explain labeling algorithm for tree. [8]
c) Generate code for following statement using simple code generation
algorithm : [6]
d = (ab) + (ac) + (ac)
Explain the assumptions and steps of algorithm clearly.
Q11) a) Explain following code optimization techniques with example : [10]

Common subexpression elimination
Variable propagation
Code movement
Strength reduction
Dead code elimination
[4264]-692 3
b) By taking suitable flow graph as an example, explain computation of
GEN set and KILL set. [6]
OR
Q12) a) Explain following fundamental data flow properties : [9]
i) Available expression
ii) Reaching definitions
iii) Live variables
Support your answer with proper example flow graphs wherever
necessary.
b) What is control flow analysis? [3]
c) Explain principle sources of code optimization. [4]
zzz
[4264]-692 4

[4264] - 698
MULTIMEDIA SYSTEMS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain importance of digital representation of multimedia? Explain
process of digital to analog conversion? [9]
b) Explain role of API in multimedia applications with example. [9]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the architecture of Distributed Multimedia Systems and their
applications. [8]
b) Explain following in detail :
i) Multimedia authoring tools [5]
ii) Multimedia operating systems [5]
Q3) a) Explain Shannon-Fano algorithm with example? [8]

b) What is histogram? Explain histogram equalization with mathematical
model. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain following file formats with example [8]
i) BMP ii) TIFF
b) Explain various basic gray level enhancement transformations. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is MIDI? What are the different MIDI components? What is the
application of MIDI in Multimedia projects? [8]
b) Explain WAVE file format in detail. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Enlist different compression types in Audio. Explain any one in detail?[8]
b) Explain MPEG file format in detail. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is text compression? Compress the string

ABABBABCABABBA using LZW compression technique. Also
calculate compression ratio. [9]
b) Enlist and compare different video transmission standard. [9]
OR
Q8) a) Explain MPEG1 standard mentioning the role of I, P, B frames. [6]
b) Explain Huffman coding with example. [6]
c) Write and explain any three text file formats. [6]
Q9) a) Explain any four principles of animation. [8]

b) Write short note on : [8]
i) Open GL ii) SDK
OR
Q10) a) Explain various techniques of animation with example. [8]
b) Explain how atmospheric effects can be introduced in 3D animation.[8]
Q11) a) Explain role of Multimedia in web based applications and e-learning.[8]

b) Explain different factors effecting quality of data transmission. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain in detail media on demand. [8]
b) Explain any four applications of multimedia in brief. [8]
zzz
[4264]-698 2

[4264] - 701
SOFTWARE TESTING & QUALITY ASSURANCE
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe in brief Defect Life Cycle. [8]
b) What should be done after a BUG if found? [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain how you prepare a defect report. [8]
b) Explain Test Plan in IEEE Format. [8]
Q3) a) Describe black box testing? When to do black box testing? How can it
be known when to stop testing? [10]
b) Describe boundary value analysis with an example. [6]
OR
Q4) Write Short Notes on (any two) : [16]
a) Test Case Design Criteria.
b) Documentation & Domain Testing.
c) User Documentation Testing.
d) Need of Black box Testing.
Q5) a) Explain the challenges in white box testing. [9]

b) Write short note on Mutation Testing. [9]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Describe test case designs for white box testing. [6]
b) Write a short note on testing of Object Oriented Systems. [6]
c) Explain in short data flow testing. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is GUI Testing and how it is done? [8]

b) Describe in detail Specification based testing and Ad-hoc testing. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is structure of testing? Which measurement tools are used for
this. [8]
b) Describe in detail Ad-hoc & Scenario Testing with suitable examples.[8]
Q9) a) How would you begin to measure the quality of software? [9]
b) Describe ISO and why we need to go for the ISO? [9]
OR
Q10) a) Describe in short what quality is & project management. [8]
b) Describe in brief Quality Assurance & Quality Control. [5]
c) What is the role of documentation in QA? [5]
Q11) a) Differentiate between manual and automated testing. [8]

b) How can world wide web be tested? [8]
OR
Q12) a) Suppose a Product / Application has to deliver to the client at 5.00PM,
at that time you or your team member caught a high severity defect at
3PM. But the client cannot wait for long time. You should deliver the
product at 5.00PM exactly. Then what is the procedure you follow?[8]
b) What will be the Test case for ATM machine & Coffee machine? [8]
zzz
[4264]-701 2

[4264] - 702
B.E. (Computer Engg.)
ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
1) Attempt Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6 from section - I and Q. 7 or
Q. 8, Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12 from section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is VLIW architecture? Compare EPIC architecture with super

scalar architecture. [8]
b) What is scalability? Define speedup and efficiency w.r.t. Parallel computer
systems in terms of scalability. State any four parameters affecting the
scalability. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What is parallel Processing? How flynn has classified parallel computers?
Why MISD architecture does not exist? [8]
b) State the following terms in brief : [8]
i) Instruction level parallelism.
ii) Thread level parallelism.
iii) Software parallelism.
iv) Hardware parallelism.
Q3) a) State the following terms w.r.t. Pipeline processing : [8]

i) Hazards ii) Efficiency
iii) Dynamic pipeline iv) Internal forwarding.
b) What is the use of reservation Table? How it is presented? Explain how
a control strategy can be implemented for job sequencing problem.[10]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) With suitable example explain loop unrolling and trace scheduling
techniques implemented in optimizing compiler. [10]
b) Design a 5 bit multiplier unit using CSA tree. Specify the number of
pipelines stages with its function. [8]
Q5) a) State the concept of pipeline chaining. What is vector looping? With
example explain it w.r.t. Cray 1 architecture. [8]
b) How array processing is different than vector Processing? Discuss the
basic architecture of ILLIAC - IV model I array processor. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What is the necessity of routing functions? State routing functions for
Mesh Interconnection Network. Define & obtain permutation Cycles
for all the routing functions. [8]
b) Discuss with algorithm the problem of parallel sorting w.r.t. Mesh
interconnection network with suitable example & specify its
complexity. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss the necessity of cache coherency in multiprocessor system.

Discuss pentium MESI protocol with its state diagram. [8]
b) Discuss following terms. [10]
i) Cross bar switch
ii) Multiport memory model
iii) Shared memory system Architecture
iv) Distributed systems.
OR
Q8) a) Compare loosely & tightly coupled multiprocessor system with
example. [8]
b) What is cow & Now architecture? Explain any one with diagram. [10]
Q9) a) Compare between synchronous and Asynchronous message passing.

What standard primitives are used in message passing parallel
programming. [8]
b) Discuss different techniques used for latency hiding in multithreaded
architecture. [8]
OR
[4264]-702 2
Q10) a) With suitable example discuss important features and constructs of
Data parallel programming. [8]
b) How multithreaded architecture are classified? Define the various
performance measuring parameter w.r.t. Multithreaded architecture. [8]
Q11) a) How parallel Algorithms are classified for multiprocessor system?

Discuss one such algorithm with suitable example. [8]
b) With standard constructs discuss the important features of CCC parallel
programming language. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Compare between PVM and MPI. Discuss in brief different
communication functions implemented in MPI. [8]
b) Explain the terms cluster and grid with suitable diagram. Discuss in
brief the architecture of cluster computing with suitable diagram. [8]
zzz
[4264]-702 3

[4264] - 414
B.E. (Civil)
QUANTITY SURVEYING, CONTRACTS AND TENDERS
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
1) Solve Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6 from Section - I and Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or
Q.10, Q.11 or Q.12. from Section - II.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule. mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is an approximate estimate? State the purposes of preparing

approximate estimate. [2 + 4 = 6]
b) Differentiate between supplementary and revised estimate. [4]
c) What factors are considered while deciding the plinth area rate for
preparing approximate estimate? [6]
OR
Q2) a) Enlist the different types of estimate used in civil engineering projects.
Hence explain the method of preparing detailed estimate of a building.
[2 + 4 = 6]
b) Prepare an approximate estimate for a two storried R.C.C. building using
following data. [6]
i) Floor area on each floor = 200 sq.m.
ii) Built up area = 1.2 time the floor area.
iii) Plinth area rate = Rs. 1800/- per sq.m.
iv) Work charge establishment and contingencies = 8% of construction
cost.
v) Cost of water supply, drainage and electrification = 16% of the sum
total.
P.T.O.
c) Explain the rule for measurement of plastering work as per IS 1200.[4]
Q3) a) Figure 1 shows the plan and section of an office building. Determine the
quantities of following items and prepare the measurement sheet with
appropriate description of each item.
i) Earth work in excavation in hard murrum for foundation. [3]
ii) UCR masonry in C.M. (1:6) in plinth and foundation. [3]
iii) Brick masonry in C. M. (1:6) in superstructure. [3]
iv) RCC M20 in slab and lintels assuming 15cm projection on either
side of openings. [4]
Fig. 1 (a) : Plan

b) A R.C.C. beam 4 m long, 0.23 m 0.45 m in cross-section is provided
with reinforcement as given below. Reinforcement at bottom = 2 No / 12
mm dia. straight and 2 No/12 mm dia. bent up bars.
Reinforcement at top = 2 No / 8 mm dia. anchor bars stirrups = 6 mm
dia. at 150 mm C/C.
Prepare bar bending schedule and determine the quantity of 6 mm, 8 mm
and 12 mm dia, steel reinforcement. [5]
[4264]-414 2
Fig. 1 (b): Section
D1 = 1.5 m 2.1 m
D2 = 1.0 m 2.1 m
W1 = 1.5 m 1.2 m
W2 = 1.2 m 1.2 m
OR
Q4) a) Figure 2 shows the section of 10 m long masonry wier. Determine the
quantities of following items, entering them in a measurement sheet
with appropriate description of each item.
i) Earthwork in excavation. [2]
ii) P.C.C. M 15 in foundation. [2]
iii) C. R. Masonry in C. M. (1:6) in the wier. [4]
iv) Pointing in C. M. (1:4) for the masonry work. [4]
[4264]-414 3
Fig. 2 : Section
b) State the methods used for calculation of earthwork in roads and hence
explain any one method. [2 + 4 = 6]
Q5) a) Draft a detailed specification for item of brick masonry work in

superstructure with reference to.
i) the materials and proportion,
ii) method of execution, workmanship and
iii) mode of measurement and payment. [8]
b) A compound wall 40 m long, 0.3m wide and 1.5 m in height is constructed
in UCR masonry in C. M. (1:6). Determine,
i) The quantity of basic materials like rubble, Cement and sand
required for the work.
ii) If two masons and 08 mazdoors are employed for the work, find
the time in days required to complete the work. [8]
OR
[4264]-414 4
Q6) a) Determine the rate per unit for construction of BM (1:4) in superstructure.
[8]
b) Draft a detailed specification for construction of C. R. masonry in

superstructure with reference to
i) the materials and proportions
ii) method of execution , workmanship and
iii) mode of measurement and payment. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) An old bungalow is purchased today for Rs. 80000/- Determine the
amount of sinking fund and annual installment of sinking fund for a
future life of 20 years for this bungalow. Given: The scrap value is 10%
of the cost of purchase and rate of interest is 5%. [5]
b) Discuss five types of values of a property in brief. [5]
c) Briefly explain land and building basis of valuation. [4]
d) Explain briefly the essential characteristics of Value of a property. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Owner of a building earns a net annual income of Rs. 50000/- Calculate years
Purchase and value of the building for an expected life of 50 years if :
i) The property is perpetual and simple rate of interest is 6%.
ii) The property is receivable with a dual rate of interest 6% and sinking
fund is 3%. [5]
b) What is meant by Value of a property? Briefly discuss the factors on

which the value or valuation of a property depends. [5]
c) Clearly explain four objectives of valuation. [4]
d) State various methods used for valuation of buildings. Explain in short

any one method. [4]
[4264]-414 5
Q9) a) Discuss the amounts of Earnest Money and Security Deposit and their
necessity (purpose). [5]
b) What is meant by a tender notice ? State eight essential factors which

must be a part of tender notice. [5]
c) Write a note on registration as a contractor with respect to following

points:
i) Different classes of contractors and corresponding limits for amount

of works
ii) Application form (information to be filled)
iii) Documents to be submitted along with the form. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss the balanced and unbalanced types of tenders with

examples. [5]
b) Explain essential elements of a typical tender form. [5]
c) Write a detailed note on various categories (classes) of works executed

by PWD. [6]
Q11) a) What is meant by a contract in civil engineering? Elaborate on three

essential requirements (characteristics) of a valid (lawful) contract. [4]
b) What is meant by arbitration? Explain its necessity with examples. State

four matters which can not be lawfully referred to an arbitrator. [4]
c) Explain general and special conditions of contract with examples.[4]
d) List out the advantages and disadvantages of a labour contract. [4]
OR
[4264]-414 6
Q12) a) Write a note on breach of contract. [4]
b) Discuss the meaning and necessity of :
i) Interim payment
ii) Liquidated damages [4]
c) Clearly explain legally competent parties for a lawful (valid) contract.[4]
d) Enlist various types of civil engineering contracts. Explain any one type
of contract in detail. [4]
nnn
[4264]-414 7

[4264] - 418
B.E. (Civil Engineering)
ADVANCED ENGINEERING GEOLOGY WITH ROCK
MECHANICS
2) Answer to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
4) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) State engineering significance of older metamorphic rocks of Maharashtra

state. [8]
b) Field characters of fractures. [6]
c) Lateral & vertical extensions of flows in Deccan Trap Area. [4]
OR
a) Regional distribution of Deccan Trap Basalt. [6]
b) Civil Engineering significance of Precambrian secondary rocks in
Maharashtra State. [8]
c) Field Characters of dykes. [4]
Q2) a) What are the defects in rock masses? How to treat them? Explain with
suitable examples from dam foundation point of view. [10]
b) Dams located on limestones & quartzites. [6]
OR
a) Significance of fractures from dam foundation point of view. [4]
b) Engineering significance of tachylytic basalt. [6]
c) Reasons of tail channel erosion in Deccan Trap Area. [6]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) What are different methods of conservation of water? Explain in detail.[12]
b) Residual soils of Maharashtra State. [4]
OR
a) Influence of climate on soil formation. [6]
b) Deep seated wells in Deccan Trap Area. [4]
c) Possibility of getting sand in Deccan Trap Area. [6]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain in details various mechanical properties of rocks masses in detail.

[9]
b) Bieniawskis Geo mechanical Classification of rock masses. [9]
OR
a) List only various physical properties in detail & explain any 3 properties
in brief. [8]
b) Q System of Classification of rock masses. [6]
c) Rock Quality Designation. [4]
Q5) Discuss the influence divisional planes during tunneling. Give suitable case
histories. [16]
OR
Write notes on :
a) Tunneling through Compact Basalts. [6]
b) Safe Bearing Capacity of bridge foundation. [6]
c) Tunnel through fractures. [4]
Q6) a) Treatment to be given to fault zone crossing dam alignment. Give

examples. [8]
b) Scarcities of Sand in Deccan trap area. [4]
c) Filled Grounds. [4]
OR
a) Compact Basalt as a construction material. [4]
b) R.I.S. and dams. [8]
c) Role of Geology in Urban Planning. [4]
nnn
[4264]-418 2

[4264] - 488
B.E. (Production Sandwich)
ERGONOMICS AND HUMAN FACTORS IN ENGINEERING
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule Mollier charts, electronic pocket
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Explain various types of movements of human body members. [6]

b) Explain performance criteria for physical activity. [6]
c) What are Human Machine systems? Explain its types. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain objectives of Human Factors Engineering. [6]
b) Explain Design of MMH Task. [6]
c) Explain features of human body & explain measures of physiological
functions. [6]
Unit - II
Q3) a) Explain the considerations in designing a STANDING workplace. [8]

b) Explain Physical space & principles of arrangement of components.[8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What is Anthropometry and explain principles used in application of
anthropometric data. [8]
b) Explain use of anthropometric data in designing of interior of Passenger
car. [8]
Unit - III
Q5) Explain arrangement of following components at work place (any four). [16]
a) Visual displays.
b) Control on panels.
c) Hand controls.
d) Two hand controls.
e) Foot controls.
f) Controls that require force.
OR
Q6) Write short note on (any two) [16]
a) Hand tool design.
b) Functions of controls.
c) Concept of visibility.
d) Location of controls in work place.
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) Explain Discomfort glare & Disability glare. [9]

b) Explain the physiological effects of heat & cold . Explain its remedies. [9]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the system of measurement of light. Also explain effect of light
intensity on work performance. [9]
b) What is Wet Bulb Globe temperature? How do you calculate it? Explain
its utility in hot humid conditions. [9]
[4264]-488 2
Unit -V
Q9) a) What are the characteristics of system design? Explain its any two
phases. [12]
b) Explain the significance of warnings in brief. [4]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the term Accident. Explain its relationship with human errors.[8]
b) Explain perception of risk & describe risk evaluation process. [8]
Unit - VI
Q11) a) Explain MOST and its types in brief. [8]

b) Explain the various considerations used in MTM 1. [8]
OR
Q12) Explain the following PMTS (Predetermined Motion Time Analysis).
Determine the variants & stability of each. [16]
a) Work factor system.
b) Method Time measurement.
nnn
[4264]-488 3

[4264] - 489
MATERIALS MANAGEMENT & LOGISTICS
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and stem tables is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain objectives of materials management in manufacturing

industry. [9]
b) Define value Analysis & Explain FAST diagram in detail. [9]
OR
Q2) a) Explain MRP-I in detail. [9]

b) Explain Break even Analysis. [9]
Q3) a) Explain import procedure when purchasing from foreign supplier. [8]
b) Explain vendor development & vendor Rating. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain 5 R-S in purchasing. [8]

b) Explain :
i) Bill of lading.
ii) Letter of credit. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain in detail various steps involved in waste management. [10]
b) Explain Two Bin system. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Explain & differentiate centralised and Decentralised stores. [8]

b) Explain various alternatives of disposed off the solvable waste. [4]
c) Explain KODAK system of coding. [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the following terms in relation to logistic Management. [8]

i) Procurement cycle.
ii) Manufacturing support cycle.
iii) Physical distribution cycle.
b) Explain briefly various factors to be considered in warehouse
design. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Describe any four modes of transportation identifying the most significant
characteristic of each. [8]
b) Explain transportation Management. Explain the factors affecting
transportation cost. [8]

i) F-S-N Analysis
ii) V-E-D Analysis.
b) EOQ formula
2 Annual consumption Procurement Cost Per Order
Price perunit Inventory carrying cost.
is based on set of assumptions. State the assumptions and derive the
formula. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What are inventories? Why are they required in any organisation?
Describe the various types of inventories. [8]
b) Explain A-B-C analysis technique used in materials function. [8]
[4264]-489 2
Q11) a) Derive the formula for Economic Manufacturing Quantity. State the
assumptions. [9]
b) Explain fixed order Quantity & Fixed period. System. [9]
OR
Q12) a) An item is produced at the rate of 50 nos per day and is consumed at the
rate of 25 nos per day. If the set up cost is Rs. 100 per production run &
holding cost in stock is Rs. 0.01 per unit per day. Find economic lot size
for one run assuming shortages are not permitted. Also find the time of
cycle and minimum total cost of one run. [9]
b) Finished goods invention in mass and flow production units can be
regulated by determining the frequency of production cycle. Discuss.
[9]
nnn
[4264]-489 3

[4264] - 508
B.E. (Electrical)
RESTRUCTURING & DEREGULATION
1) Answer any three questions from each Section.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in detail the functions of [12]

i) CEA ii) PFC
b) Why the reformation has taken place in electrical power system? [6]
OR
Q2) a) What are various challenges before Indian Power Sector? [9]
b) Describe the operation of Indian Energy Exchange. [5]
c) Describe the concept of power Exchange. [4]
Q3) Explain in brief (any five) [16]

a) Capital Cost b) Debt and Equity
c) Depreciation d) Average cost
e) Marginal cost f) Avoided cost
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) Explain the tariff setting principle. [8]

b) What do you mean by
i) Subsidy and cross-subsidy
ii) O and M expenses [8]
Q5) a) What is a role of regulation? [8]

b) What are the regulation externalities. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Write short note on [10]

i) CERC
ii) Regulatory process in India
b) Give the structure of regulatory process in India. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain in detail The California Crisis. [8]

b) Explain electricity reforms of Orissa and Maharashtra. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the electricity reforms of : [8]

i) Nordic pool
ii) United Kingdom
b) Write a short note on the following electricity trading models based on
industrial structure: [8]
i) Pool and bilateral trades
ii) Multilateral trades.
[4264]-508 2
Q9) a) What is trading of electricity market? What are the rules that govern the
electricity markets? [8]
b) Explain in detail decentralized trading model. [8]
OR
Q10) Write short note the following electricity trading models: [16]
a) Integrated
b) Wheeling
c) Decentralised
Q11) a) What are transmission congestion issues, explain in detail. [8]

b) Explain the various transmission pricing methods. [10]
OR
Q12) a) What are the functions of TRANSCO, Independent System Operators
(ISO) and Load Dispatch Center (LDC)? [10]
b) Explain the concept of open access and transmission rights. [8]
nnn
[4264]-508 3

[4264] - 509
B.E. (Electrical)
EMBEDDED SYSTEM
(2008 Pattern) (Semester - I) (Elective - II) (Theory)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is an Embedded System & explain challenges while designing

Embedded System. [6]
b) Explain in detail categories of embedded systems. [6]
c) Explain Design Process in Embedded Systems with waterfall model.[6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain characteristics and features, overview any one of the 8 - bit
Atmel Microcontroller. [6]
b) Differentiate between RISC and CISC processor and explain the
characteristics and features of PIC 18F4520 Microcontroller. [6]
c) Explain architecture of any DSP processor family with block diagram?[6]
Q3) a) Explain types of ADC, its microprocessor interfacing with diagram.[8]

b) Explain optical sensors with diagram. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain interfacing of 44 matrix keypad to microcontroller with
diagram. [6]
b) Explain solid - state motion sensor. [4]
c) Explain Temperature sensors and their interfacing with microcontroller
through ADC. [6]
Q5) a) Define solenoids and relays. Explain microprocessor interfacing to

Solenoids - Relay with diagram. [6]
b) What are types of stepper motors? Explain bipolar versus unipolar
operation of stepper motors. [6]
c) Explain in detail actuators? [4]
OR
Q6) a) What are types of stepper motors? [4]
b) Explain DC motor controller ICs (LM628 & LM629). [6]
c) Explain BLDC motor & its driving. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain Inter-process communication and synchronization of process,

tasks and threads. [6]
b) What is semaphores & explain in detail different types of semaphores. [6]
c) What is interrupt latency? ISR? Interrupt recovery time ? [6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in detail following scheduling algorithms
i) First in first out
ii) Round robin
iii) Round robin with priority
iv) Shortest job first
v) Non-preemptive multitasking
vi) Preemptive multitasking [10]
b) Explain mailbox and message queues in detail? What is application of
each? [8]
[4264]-509 2
Q9) a) Explain architecture of kernel in detail. [6]
b) Define RTOS. What is real time system? Name RTOS available? [6]
c) What is pipe and event register ? [4]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the features of Vxworks RTOS. What are its application areas? [8]
b) What are differences between General purpose operating systems and
RTOS ? [4]
c) List the memory management functions of RTOS. [4]
Q11) Explain Digital camera with functional block diagram. [16]

OR
Q12) a) Explain case study of an embedded system for a smart card. [8]
b) Design a control system for a flight simulation and control. [8]
nnn
[4264]-509 3

[4264] - 511
B.E. (Electrical)
SMART GRID
(2008 Pattern) (Semester - I) (Elective - II)
2) Solve Q. No. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6, from Section - I and Solve
Q. 7 or Q. 8, Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12 from Section - II.
5) Assume suitable additional data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is the need of Smart Grid. Explain the functions of Smart Grid.[10]
b) Explain the concept of Resilient and Self healing grid. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain difference between Conventional Grid and Smart Grid. [8]
b) Explain national and international policies of Smart Grid. [10]
Q3) a) Compare outage Management System (OMS) in conventional Grid and

Smart Grid. [8]
b) Explain home and building automation. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Why real time prizing should be implemented. [8]
b) What is mean by smart sensors? Explain smart sensors required for
measurement of power. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain any two smart storage equipments. [8]
b) Explain the importance of making substation smart. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What are the applications of Intelligent Electronic Devices explain in
detail. [8]
b) Explain the role of Phaser Measurement Unit in Smart Grid. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Describe the concept of Micro Grid, and also its need and applications.
[10]
b) Write a note on, variable speed wind generator. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Discuss different issues of micro grid when interconnected. [10]
b) Write a note on, Fuel cells. [8]
Q9) a) Why power quality is considered to be an important issue especially in

smart grid. [8]
b) Highlight on the power quality issues of grid connected renewable energy
sources. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Describe the EMC and how it is role in smart grid. [8]
b) Explain how power quality can be improved in smart grid by monitoring
with the help of Web based technology. [8]
Q11) a) Explain the concept AMI related to smart grid. [8]

b) Focus on, Wireless Mesh Network in smart grid. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Write short note on NAN. [8]
b) Why cyber security is most important in smart grid. [8]
nnn
[4264]-511 2

[4264] - 530
SYSTEM ON CHIP
2) Attempt from Section -I : Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6 and from
Section - II : Q7 or Q8, Q9 or Q10, Q11 or Q12.
3) Draw neat diagrams.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the performance parameters of Gyroscope? [8]

b) What are scaling laws of miniaturization? Explain with example scaling
law in geometry of a MEMS device. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain basic working principal of micro accelerometers and micro
inertial sensor. [8]
b) Explain various technological aspects of sensors. [8]
Q3) a) Justify, Why silicon is ideal substrate for Micro-MEMS? [8]

b) What is polymer? Explain their characteristics and give principal
applications of polymers. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain working principal of silicon piezoresistors? [8]
b) Explain principal planes of a silicon crystal. What characteristics do silicon
principal planes offers? [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain working principal of RF transducers. At what frequency they
are operated? [9]
b) Explain working principal of chemical sensor. What problems crop up

in designing of these sensors? [9]
OR
Q6) a) Explain working principal of biosensor for measurement of blood glucose

concentration in a patient. [9]
b) Explain working principal of magnetic transducers. In which applications

it is used? [9]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain SoC architecture in detail. What are advantages of SoC design
over VLSI design? [8]
b) Explain in detail schematic of an MPEG2 encoder for terrestrial

transmission. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in detail operation and working of dataflow execution. [8]
b) Justify how processor can be seen as interpreters. [8]
Q9) a) Which features of MEMS SoC designer should look in layout synthesis
tool ? [8]
b) Explain cycle dependency and generation of problem with suitable

example in context to cell placement. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What do you mean by user constraints? What role they play in
implementation of design? [8]
b) Which different strategies are used in power supply distribution and

body-tie placement? [8]
[4264]-530 2
Q11) a) Which reliability issues are crop up in packaging? Which factors leads
failures in packaging? [9]
b) What do you mean by fault simulation? Explain generic fault simulation

procedure? [9]
OR
Q12) a) Which features are inculcated in co-design tool? Explain design steps
for co-design. [9]
b) Explain generic test generation procedure with flowchart. Explain

embedded core based system on chip test strategies. [9]
nnn
[4264]-530 3

[4264] - 537
SOFT COMPUTING TOOLS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is soft computing? Describe the different soft computing

characteristics. [8]
b) Compare the following terms : [8]
i) Conventional AI and Machine Intelligence.
ii) Hard computing and soft computing.
OR
Q2) a) Consider two fuzzy sets A & B find complement union, intersection,
Difference & Demorgans law. [8]
1 075 03 015 0

#
01 15 20 25 30
1 06 02 01 0

$
10 15 20 25 30
b) Define a fuzzy set & explain the concept of fuzzy member. What is the
significance of fuzziness. [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain the extension principle for fuzzy set with suitable example. [8]
b) Describe the concept of composition of fuzzy relation with suitable
example explain max-min composition & max-product composition.[8]
OR
Q4) a) Define and Explain following terms. [8]
i) Support
ii) Normality
iii) Fuzzy singleton
iv) a - cut & strong a - cut.
b) Suppose x, y & z are three different sets such as x = [x1, x2, x3],
y = [y1, y2, y3], z = [z1, z2, z3]. Let R represents the fuzzy relation of close
ness of y & z. These fuzzy relation are given by fuzzy matrices such as.
1 06 03 1 01 05

4 04 09 01 5 07 09 02

05 02 07 01 08 08
Obtain the max-min composition & max-product composition which

represents the closeness between x to z. [8]
Q5) a) What are the principle design parameters of a fuzzy logic controller?
Explain with suitable example? Draw a block diagram of fuzzy logic
controller. [10]
b) What are the advantages of fuzzy logic controller over that of a
conventional controller. [8]
OR
Q6) Write a short notes on following (Any three) [18]
a) Tsukomoto fuzzy models.
b) Mamdani type fuzzy logic controller.
c) Sugeno fuzzy inference model.
d) Synthesis & validation of fuzzy logic controller.
[4264]-537 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Describe in detail the back propagation learning rule for multilayer
perceptron (MLP) what are different methods used for speeding up of
MLP training. [8]
b) List & explain activations functions used in Neural Networks. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is meant by topology of artificial Neural Networks? Give basic
topological structures of artificial Neural Networks? [8]
b) List & explain basic learning laws in detail. [8]
Q9) a) Explain how neural networks use in visual image recognition. [8]
b) Explain learning algorithm for kohonens topology preserving Network. [8]
OR
Q10) Write the application of Neural Networks and Explain any two applications in
detail. [16]
Q11) a) Explain unsupervised learning mechanism in contrast with a supervised

learning mechanism. [8]
b) Describe adaptive Neuro fuzzy inference system. Discuss the ANFIS
architecture with the fuzzy sugeno model. [10]
OR
Q12) Write a short notes on following (Any three) [18]
a) Radial basis function Network.
b) Use of ANN in process control.
c) Hybrid learning Algorithm.
d) Neuro fuzzy control.
nnn
[4264]-537 3

[4264] - 548
B.E. (E & TC)
ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the steps in problem solving process? In a company, general

Manager observed that the items in the store department are missing and
the data register is not maintained property. How can you solve this
problem by using problem solving model so that the theft or missing of
items will be controlled. [10]
b) What are mark ups and mark down prices? Explain with example. [6]
OR
Q2) a) What are the different sources to investigate the opportunities for
business? During your project work, if you have developed a product,
how can you find the opportunities to market your product by establishing
a company? How can you set your goals? [10]
b) Explain the types of communication skills in detail, required for the
entrepreneur. [6]
Q3) a) Explain the concept of cost and write the difference between fixed cost
& variable cost? [8]
b) Explain the legal form of ownerships? Also evaluate the advantages &
disadvantages of each. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Write down the advantages & disadvantages of starting your own
business. How can you overcome the disadvantages? [8]
b) Subodh Roy want to start a Franchise business of Natural Icecream,
having its headoffice at Mumbai. What are the steps he has to follow to
get the Franchise? What are the costs he has to consider? What will be
the advantages & disadvantages to purchase the Franchise of Natural
Ice cream. [8]
Q5) a) Create a business plan in detail for the following example-Establishing

a Veg Restaurant in urban area. [12]
b) What is target market? How to identify target market? [6]
OR
Q6) a) Develope a business plan for establishing a Super Market Multiproduct
Mall. [12]
b) Explain the purpose & importance of a Business plan. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) State merit and demerit of computerised record keeping. [6]

b) Write a short note on Tracking the inventory. [6]
c) Explain the different locations for retail business and give merits &
demerits of each. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Write down the different ways to motivate the employees? [6]
b) Write a short note on Marketing Mix. [6]
c) Write down the different ways to recruit the employees? [6]
Q9) a) Write a short note on Hire the experts. [8]

b) Explain break-even analysis by a suitable graph. [8]
OR
Q10) a) How do you improve your cash flow in the business? [8]
b) How the technology helps to improve the business? [8]
[4264]-548 2
Q11) a) What is ethics ? Why you want to establish an ethical workplace? [8]
b) Which are the laws that protect business & consumers. [8]
OR
Q12) a) What are the different social responsibilities about customes supplies &
community. [8]
b) What are the benefits and risks involved when competing globally?[8]
nnn
[4264]-548 3

[4264] - 550
B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication)
MICROELECTROMECHANICAL SYSTEM AND SYSTEMS ON CHIP
1) Attempt three questions from each Section.
2) Attempt from Section -I : Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6 and from
Section - II : Q7 or Q8, Q9 or Q10, Q11 or Q12.
3) Draw neat diagrams.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain basic working principal of micro pressure sensor. What are major
problems in these sensors? [8]
b) What do you mean by scaling in electromagnetic force? Justify:
electromagnetic force is F a l4 for cross section area of conductor. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain with example working principle of accelerometers? [8]
b) What are scaling laws of miniaturization? Explain with example scaling
law in geometry of a MEMS device. [8]
Q3) a) Compare GaAs Vs Silicon. [8]

b) Explain principal planes of a silicon crystal. What characteristics do silicon
principal planes offers? [8]
OR
Q4) a) What is polymer? Explain their characteristics and give principal
applications of polymers. [8]
b) Explain the concept of [8]
i) Mobility ii) Resistivity in context to Piezo crystal.
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain optical silicon properties and working principal of optical sensors. [9]
b) Explain various technological aspects of sensors. [9]
OR
Q6) a) Explain working principal of biosensor for measurement of blood glucose

concentration in a patient. [9]
b) Explain working principal of chemical sensors with example? [9]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain SoC architecture in detail. What are advantages of SoC design
over VLSI design? [8]
b) Explain in detail schematic of an MPEG2 encoder for terrestrial

transmission. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What are the important parameters which define wafer level bonding?
Also give its significance. [8]
b) Explain in detail new ways for speeding up execution of

instructions. [8]
Q9) a) Which different strategies are used in power supply distribution and
body-tie placement? [8]
b) Explain working of PVD? Which new CVD process are used to overcome
drawbacks of CVD process. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What is LEGAL? Explain LEGAL algorithm steps. What kind of

improvement inculcated in LEGAL in context to earlier routing
algorithms? [8]
b) What reliability issues are crop up in packaging? Which factors leads

failures in packaging? [8]
[4264]-550 2
Q11) a) Explain generic test generation procedure with flowchart. Explain
embedded core based system on chip test strategies. [9]
b) What are the issues in testing of core based systems on chip? Explain
features of co-design tool. [9]
OR
Q12) a) Which features are inculcated in co-design tool? Explain design steps
for co-design. [9]
b) Explain GDC algorithm with reference to behavioral VHDL and Hybrid

Behavioral RTL VHDL. [9]
nnn
[4264]-550 3

[4264] - 568
B.E. (Instrumentation and Control)
ENVIRONMENTAL INSTRUMENTATION
(2008 Pattern) (Sem. - I) (Elective - II)
1) Answer 3 questions from each Section.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss on sensor requirements for environment. [10]

b) Explain the Ultraviolet analyzer method in environmental analysis. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain total hydrocarbon analyzer using flame ionization detector. [8]
b) What are the different portable and stationary analytical instruments.
Discuss their advantages and disadvantages. [10]
Q3) a) Discuss on water quality parameters. [8]

b) What are the requirements of water treatment facilities. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain thermal conductivity detectors used in water treatments. Discuss
their advantages and disadvantages. [8]
b) Explain opacity monitors and their applications in water quality treatment
plants. [8]
Q5) a) What are different types of settling methods? Explain hindered settling.[8]
b) Discuss on the laboratory analysis of ground water sample. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss on design criteria of settling tank. [8]
b) Discuss on sludge removal and storage. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What are the objectives of sampling programs? Explain the selection
criteria for water sampling locations. [8]
b) What are different sample collection methods? List the advantages and
disadvantages of different sampling methods. [10]
OR
Q8) a) List the different flow measurement techniques in wastewater treatment.
Explain any two in details. [10]
b) Discuss the latest methods of wastewater treatment plants? [8]
Q9) a) Which are the different air sampling methods? Explain anyone in detail.[8]
b) Discuss on air pollution from thermal power plant and their
OR
Q10) a) Explain any two analytical methods for air pollution studies. [8]
b) Discuss on control of air pollution by process changes. [8]
Q11) a) What are the different methods of measurement of ambient air

quality. [8]
b) Write a short note on gas flow measurements. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain open channel wastewater flow measurements. [8]
b) Write a short note on Rain water harvesting. [8]
nnn
[4264]-568 2

[4264] - 569
NANO INSTRUMENTATION
1) Answer 3 questions from each secetion.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the electron tunneling through potential barrier and give the
parameters on which electron Transport depends at the nano scale. [6]
b) Explain the Self Assembly Techniques viz. [6]
i) L-B
ii) Electrostatic
c) Explain the nano materials viz. [6]
i) nano particles
ii) nano wires
iii) nano magnetic
OR
Q2) a) Give the two approaches of making nano materials and explain the nano
lithography. [6]
b) Explain the physical vapour deposition for the synthesis of nano materials.[6]
c) Explain the various properties of nano materials. [6]
Q3) a) Explain the principle, working of an atomic force microscope with various
modes of operation. [8]
b) Explain the scanning tunneling microscope in detail. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) Explain the principle, working of Scanning Near Field Optical microscope
in detail. [8]
b) Explain magnetically and optically actuated cantilevers. [8]
Q5) a) What are carbon nano tubes? Give the structure and explain the
parameters-Chiral Vector, Chiral Angle. How it leads to metallic or
semiconducting behavior with band structure. [8]
b) Explain the CNT Transistor (CNT Based FET) in detail. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the CNT Based Quantum Dot Structure and R.F. filter based on
CNT Array. [8]
b) Explain SWCNT Based Resonant tunneling diode in detail. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the terms in Spintronics: Spin Transport, Spin & Magnetic
Quantum Numbers, Spin Polarization, Spin Orbit Coupling, Spin
Relaxation. [8]
b) Write Short notes on spin diode & spin Transistor. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the term Magneto Resistance with the help of ferromagnetic
materials and spin Valve Device. [8]
b) Explain the Tunneling Magneto resistance effect and spin filtering device. [8]
Q9) a) Write short notes on single electron transistor & coulomb Blockade effect. [8]
b) Explain the concept of resonant tunneling and resonant tunneling diode. [8]
OR
[4264]-569 2
Q10) a) What is mesoscopic scale and explain the Ballistic Rectifier as one of the
mesoscopic device at Room temperature. [8]
b) Explain the effect of scaling down of MOSFET dimension up to few nm
and Ballistic transport. [8]
Q11) a) What are nano transducers and sensors? Explain nano mechanical sensor
with basic design. [6]
b) Write a short note on nano laser and light emitting diode based on
semiconducting nano wires. [6]
c) Explain in short electrically controlled nano actuators. [6]
OR
Q12) Write short notes on the following :
a) Nano switches or molecular switches [6]
b) Magnetic nano transducers [6]
c) Nano scale chemical sensor. [6]
nnn
[4264]-569 3

[4264] - 570
ADVANCED DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) State whether following systems are linear/nonlinear and time-variant/

time invariant: [8]
i) Decimator
ii) Interpolator
b) Write a note on polyphase filter structures [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain sampling rate conversion by a rational factor I/D in detail. [8]
b) Determine the z-transform of the signal x(n) when it is [8]
i) down sampled by factor D and
ii) up sampled by factor I
Q3) a) Determine the Yule Walker equations or normal equations for AR Process.[9]
b) Explain Levinson-Durbin algorithm in detail. [9]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Determine the lattice coefficients corresponding to the FIR filter with
1 1 1 2 1 3
system function *
z # 3
z 1 z z z [9]
4 8 2
1 1 1
b) Determine the FIR filter coefficients for K1 -2 -3 [9]
2 2 4
Q5) a) Sketch the energy density spectrum for x(n) = 0.5nu(n) [8]
b) Write a short note on (any one) [8]
i) Bartlett method
ii) Welch method
OR
Q6) For a sequence x(n) = {2, 3, 1, 5, 2}, determine following:
a) Autocorrelation [6]
b) Energy density spectrum (EDS) [6]
c) Plot the EDS for p < w < p [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is principle of adaptive filtering? Explain the statistical approach

of adaptive filters? [8]
b) Explain any one application of adaptive filtering from following: [8]
i) System Identification
ii) Adaptive equalization
iii) Adaptive line enhancer
OR
Q8) a) Explain the filtering problem with fixed filters. What are the main
advantages of adaptive filters over fixed filters? [8]
b) Write short note on (any one) [8]
i) LMS algorithm
ii) RLS algorithm
[4264]-570 2
Q9) a) List out the important features of the DSP. [9]
b) Draw and explain in detail the architecture of DSP processor. [9]
OR
Q10) a) Compare the general purpose processor and DSP processor. [9]
b) Write the assembly language program for implementation of FIR filter.[9]
Q11) a) Define following :

i) Stationary signal
ii) Non-Stationary signal
What are the short comings of Fourier Transform ? [8]
b) State the equations and properties of FT, STFT and CWT. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Compare FT, STFT and CWT. [8]
b) Describe the steps in computation of STFT. [8]
nnn
[4264]-570 3

[4264] - 605
B.E. (Chemical)
MEMBRANE TECHNOLOGY
4) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define membrane and membrane process in general. Also state

phenomenological equation used for describing membrane process.[6]
b) Define and explain the following terms flux, retention, separation
factor. [6]
c) Classify the solid synthetic membranes based on morphology
(structure). [6]
OR
Q2) a) State advantages and limitations of membrane separation processes over
conventional separation processes. [6]
b) Classify membranes used for separation based on thickness, transport
mechanism, material electric charge and nature of material used. [6]
c) State membrane separation processes based on pressure difference
driving force. [6]
Q3) a) Explain the linear / branched chain, crass-linked polymers, and

copolymers structures used for membranes. [8]
b) Explain three different isomeric structures in care of vinyl polymers and
state their properties. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) Explain how polymer chain flexibility depend on the characteristics of
main chain elements and side-group elements. [8]
b) Explain the importance of glass transition temperature in determining
state of the polymer. [8]
Q5) Explain the following methods of preparation of membranes:

a) Sintering
b) Stretching
c) Track etching
d) Template leaching [16]
OR
Q6) Explain the following phase inversion techniques used for preparation of
membranes:
a) Precipitation by solvent evaporation
b) Precipitation by controlled evaporation
c) Thermal Precipitation
d) Immersion precipitation [16]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the effect of pore geometry (structure) and surface porosity on
properties of membranes. [8]
b) Explain the following methods of characterization of MF membranes.
i) Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM)
ii) Bubble point method [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the following methods of characterisation of MF membranes:
i) Mercury intrusion method
ii) Permeability method [8]
b) Explain the following methods of characterization of uF membranes:
i) Thermoporometry
ii) Permporometry [8]
[4264]-605 2
Q9) Explain the construction and working of the following membrane modules
used in membrane separation processes :
a) Spiral - wound module
b) Plate - and - frame module
c) Tubular module
d) Hollow fiber module [16]
OR
Q10) a) Distinguish between surface or screen filters and depth filters used as
uF /MF membranes. Explain mechanical exclusion model for surface
filters and state the expression for solute rejection. [8]
b) Distinguish between solution - diffusion model for transport through
non-porous membranes and pore -flow model for porous membranes.
State the assumptions used and necessary equations. [8]
Q11) a) Explain concentration polarization and fouling in case of membranes.

Explain boundary layer film model for concentration polarization. Derive
the expression for polarization modulus (m) in the form
M=
Where the symbols have their usual meaning. [8]

b) Distinguish between osmosis and R.O. Explain use of R.O. process for
desalination of water. Derive the expression for salt rejection factor in
the form.
U Y$
4 1 #
' 2 '3 u 100 [10]

(symbols have their usual meaning)
OR
Q12) Explain the following applications of uF process
a) Recovery of electrocoat paint in automobile plants.
b) Clarification of fruit juice
c) Oil - water emulsions [18]
nnn
[4264]-605 3

[4264] - 635
B.E. (Petroleum)
ADVANCED INSTRUMENTATION AND PROCESS
CONTROL IN PETROLEUM INDUSTRY
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - I) (Semester -I)
1) Answer three questions from each Section.
and steam table is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With help of suitable examples explain the importance of Instrumentation

and Control for Petroleum Engineers. [8]
b) Write a short note on Hazardous Area Classification for Oil and Gas
facilities. Provide a suitable diagram of hazardous area for conventional
Drilling Rig. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Name various types of Adjustable Speed Drives in Oil and Gas Industries.
Highlight their field applications as well. [6]
b) What is digital signal? With help of neat diagram explain Analog to Digital
Signal conversion and vice-versa. [10]
Q3) a) Name four different means of temperature measurements. [4]

b) With help of neat sketch explain operational procedure of Turbine Flow
Meter. [6]
c) Name various types of Switches often employed in Upstream Industry.
Explain operations of them in brief. [6]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Discuss the principle of operation of Orifice Meter. [6]
b) Name four different strategies to measure level of a tank-Explain any
one of them in depth. [6]
c) Write a short note on Solenoid Valve. [4]
Q5) a) Obtain the unsteady state mathematical expression of a Tank, getting

filled with constant density liquid having flow-rate of qin.The tank has
an outlet operating at rate of qout. Initial height of the tank can be considered
to be h. Assume that output flow-rate varies linearly with level of the
liquid inside the tank. Resistance to flow through outlet pipe can be
considered to be constant R. Draw a neat diagram of the process.
Comment on the order of the system. [10]
b) With help of neat diagram explain why it is not possible for a proportional
controller to remove Offset completely. [4]
c) What are gain and time constant for a first order system? [4]
OR
Q6) a) Define with help of diagrams: Damping Factor, Rise Time, Overshoot,
Response Time. [8]
b) What is meant by Controller Tunning? Discuss its necessity. Explain any
Tuning Method in details. [6]
c) What will be your preferred choice of Controller for proper monitoring
and control of Gas Pressure in a Cross Country pipeline. [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Differentiate between PLC and SCADA based Controllers Provide

suitable field example. [6]
b) Why accuracy and reliability of real life processes are inferior compared
to systems analyzed in Laboratory. [6]
c) Write the important characteristics of Upstream Process Sensors. [6]
OR
[4264]-635 2
Q8) a) Discuss the merits and usefulness of Feed-forward and Feed-back Control
loops. [6]
b) Crude and water need to be separated based on their differences in density
inside a 2-phase separator. Develop a programmable logic control (PLC)
algorithm for this important process. Provide suitable diagram. [6]
c) With help of neat diagram explain Ratio Control Strategy. [6]
Q9) a) Explain the Control Scheme of a production well along with the suitable
sensors and control logic. [8]
b) How kick can be detected? Discuss Well Control Strategy with help of
suitable field example. [8]
OR
Q10) a) With help of neat diagram explain the operation of Radioactive
Tomography applied in Upstrem Industry. [8]
b) Discuss the dynamic positioning of Floating Vessels in deep sea
operations. Provide the cascade control diagram. [8]
Q11) a) Discuss the basic components of modern control system as applied in

Production Automation. Explain function of each of them in brief. [8]
b) Write short notes on
i) Sub-sea Valves and Actuators
ii) Emergency Shutdown System. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Discuss the working principle of Multiphase flow meter. Highlight
important characteristics of ideal Multiphase flow meter. Name any four
commercial variants. [10]
b) With help of neat diagram explain Automated Control of Steam Injection
Process. [6]
nnn
[4264]-635 3

[4264] - 645
B.E. (Petroleum Engg.)
DEEP WATER TECHNOLOGY
2) Question Nos. 1 and 5 are Compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt 2
questions from Section - I and 2 questions from Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw subsea BOP stack and discuss pressure test in detail. [12]
b) Discuss importance of center of gravity and Metacenter in designing
offshore rig. [6]
Q2) a) What is off set? Discuss dynamic positioning system on a floater rig.[10]
b) Discuss the effect of equivalent circulating density on bottom hole
pressure. [6]
Q3) a) Discuss Mohrs criteria of rock failure. [4]

b) What is hydraulics? Discuss mud weight design using mud window
concept for vertical and horizontal deepwater well. [10]
c) Discuss Biots Constant (a) [2]
Q4) Write short notes on : [16]

a) ROV
b) Environmental forces on floating rig
c) Motion compensator
d) Formation integrity test (FIT)
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Discuss drill stem test in detail. [8]
b) Discuss horizontal tree with suitable sketch. [8]
c) What are different stimulation techniques. [2]
Q6) a) Discuss water flooding technique with five spot pattern. [10]
b) Discuss different types of storage tanks. [6]
Q7) a) Describe in detail the general design considerations for production

platform. [8]
b) Discuss offshore field development and planning. [8]

a) Offshore pipeline design.
b) Production riser
nnn
[4264]-645 2

[4264] - 646
B.E. (Petroleum)
TRANSPORT OF OIL AND GAS
(2008 Pattern) ( Elective - III) (Semester - II)
1) Answer Q. No. 1 or Q. No. 2, Q. No. 3 or Q. No. 4, Q. No. 5 or Q. No. 6, from
Section - I and Q. No. 7 or Q. No. 8, Q. No. 9 or Q. No. 10, Q. No. 11 or Q. No. 12,
from Section - II.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, Slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
SECTION - I
Q1) a) State and explain any two correlations of multiphase flow in a horizontal
pipeline? [8]
b) Discuss the working of Central Processing facility in brief. [8]
OR
Q2) Write short note on : [16]
a) Steady state flow in a pipe line
b) Gas properties
c) Sp. gravity and viscosity of oil
d) Process flow diagram of GGS
Q3) Discuss in detail pipe line design considerations for transportation of oil and
gas. [16]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) Given : flow rate of gas is 24 MMSCFD [16]
Viscosity = 4 cp, Gas gravity = 0.85, Length = 7100 ft, Inlet pressure
= 900 psi
Temperature = 80F, Gas viscosity = 0.014, Roughness factor =
0.005
(assume old steel), Z = 0.77, E = 0.95.
Calculate pressure drop in a 4 - in. and 6 - in. ID line using the :
a) General equation
b) Assumption of ' P <13% P1
c) Panhandle B Equation
d) Weymouth Equation
Q5) a) Discuss in brief pipeline flow monitoring system. [8]

b) Explain in detail any two types of valves with neat sketch? [10]
OR
Q6) a) Explain in detail oil and gas metering. [8]
b) What do you mean by testing of oil and gas pipelines? Explain. [5]
c) List the pipe line maintenance considerations arrangements that are
necessary. [5]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Which pumps are used in pipe line transportation of oil? Explain their
working. [8]
b) Classify different pumps and describe their specifications. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Classify different compressors and describe their specifications. [8]
b) Given following data of a centrifugal compressor. Answer the
following. [8]
Operating conditions : Ps = 780 psia, Pd = 1050 psia, Ts = 549 Deg R,
Td = 587 Deg R, Q g,sc = 341 MMSCFD
Gas properties : SG = 0.63, k = 1.3, Zavg. = 0.90
Calculate:
i) Isentropic efficiency?
ii) Actual volumetric flow rate?
iii) Isentropic head?
iv) Power requirement (assume 95% mechanical efficiency)?
[4264]-646 2
Q9) a) Explain in brief any two methods of gas monetization? [8]
b) Explain marginal gas fields and their development. [8]
OR
Q10) Explain in brief : [16]
a) CNG
b) LNG
c) Methanol production using gas
d) Gas processing
Q11) Discuss in detail any one case study of subsea installation, operation and
troubleshooting of oil and gas pipeline. Explain the challenges, design
considerations, advantages with reference to the objectives of field
development. [18]
OR
Q12) a) Explain in detail about flow assurance problems? [8]
b) Write short notes on : [10]
i) Pipe line testing
ii) Use of PPD and drag reducers
nnn
[4264]-646 3

[4264] - 675
B.E. (Polymer)
MECHANICS OF COMPOSITES
1) Q. No. 1 or 2, Q. No. 3 or 4 and Q. No. 5 or 6 from Section - I and Q. No. 7
or 8, Q. No. 9 or 10 and Q. No. 11 or 12, from Section - II.
4) Use of scientific calculator and graph paper is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Obtain mathematical expression for finding reduced transform

compliance matrix from reduced compliance matrix. [6]
b) For a angle ply lamina with q = 75 , the strains in local co-ordinate
o
system are : e1 = 0.005 e2 = 0.001 g12 = 0.0001

Find strains in the global co-ordinate system [3]
c) Prove that the restriction on different Poissons ratio for orthotropic
material with plane stress condition can be given by, [7]
1 1 1 1
E1 2 E2 2 E2 2 E3 2
X12 X 21 X 23 X32
E2 E1 E3 E2
1 1
E3 2 E1 2
X31 X13
E1 E3
OR
Q2) a) For a orthotropic lamina under plane stress with fibers at 45o, the stresses
applied are as follows : [8]
Vx 50
20 /2C
V y
W xy 0
Find
P.T.O.
1) Compliance and stiffness matrices
2) Local stresses
3) Local strains
4) Global strains
Use following engineering properties
E1 = 40 GPa = Modulus in direction 1,
E2 = 10 GPa = Modulus in direction 2
G12 = 3 GPa = Shear Modulus
u12 = 0.285 = Poissions ratio 1 2 plane
b) For unidirectional orthotropic angle lamina with plane stress condition,
prove that [8]
X X
Kxy x ' x =] _UKP
EQU3
] _
' ' ) ' ' )
UKP3
EQU
?
Where
E2 = Modulus in direction 2
E1 = Modulus in direction 1
Ex = off axis modulus at an angle q
G12 = Shear Modulus in 1 2 plane
u12 = Poissions ratio in 1 2 plane
hxy,x = Coefficient of mutual influence of the second kind
Q3) a) Reduce Maximum strain theory applicable to biaxial stress condition for
uniaxial fiber reinforced lamina and uniaxial load(sx = s and all other
stresses zero) to following condition,
:
Vx
EQU
X12 UKP 2

2
;
Vx
UKP
X21 EQU 2

2
5
Vx
EQU
UKP

Wheres x= Uniaxial Load at an angle q in direction x
X,Y refer to tensile failure strength in direction 1 and 2 respectively. S
refers to shear strength in 1-2 plane. [6]
[4264]-675 2
b) Prove that Hoffmans criterion reduces to Tasi-Hill failure criterion for
orthotropic material with plane stress condition for equal strength in
tension and compression i.e
Xc = Xt = X and Yc = Yt = Y Where "X" refers to strength in
direction 1 and "Y" refers to strength in direction 2. The subscripts "c"
stands for compression and "t" stands for tension. [7]
c) Following data is known about unidirectional lamina. [5]
Tensile failure strength direction 1 = 1500MPa
Tensile failure strength direction 2 = 50MPa
Compression failure strength direction 1 = 500MPa
Compression failure strength direction 2 = 300MPa
Shear strength 1-2 plane = 100MPa
E11 = 50 GPa = Modulus in direction 1,
u12 = 0.2 =Poission's ratio 1-2 plane
A tensile stress in direction X of 5MPa is applied at 60 to fibre direction,
check failure as per Tsai - Hill theory.
OR
Q4) a) Analyze the failure of the following lamina with loading condition in
global co-ordinate system as shown in fig number 1 and using Tsai-Wu
Failure theory.
Take engineering constant values as-

Tensile failure strength in direction 1 = 1000 MPa
Compressive failure strength in direction 1 = 600 MPa
Tensile failure strength in direction 2 = 30 MPa
Compressive failure strength in direction 2 = 150 MPa
Shear strength in 1-2 plane = 70 MPa
[4264]-675 3
u12 = 0.285 = Poission's ratio 1 - 2 plane [9]
b) Explain the effect of sign of shear stress on strength of an orthotropic
lamina with suitable examples. [6]
c) Explain the experimental set up or the test required to find out fourth
order strength tensor F12 as considered in Tsai-Wu failure theory. [3]
Q5) a) Prove that the shear modulus in 1-2 plane for an orthotropic unidirectional
1
lamina is given by- )12 4 1 1 2X12

'
x ' 1 ' 2 ' 1
Where Ex = 45o off axis modulus

Explain also the experimental procedure and set up. [6]
b) Find out thermal strains in local as well as global co-ordinate system for
a unidirectional lamina with fibers at 60o using following data for the
lamina
'6 o %
a1 = thermal expansion coefficient direction 1 = 0.8810 6/oC
a2 = thermal expansion coefficient direction 2 = 3110 6/oC [4]
c) "Up to 50% of volumetric fiber loading, the engineering constants
E1 and G12 are dominated by matrix modulus for glass-epoxy, boron-
epoxy composites", explain. [3]
d) Write upper and lower limitation on young's modulus as derived by
elasticity approach. [3]
OR
Q6) a) Fibre volume fraction for a lamina is 0.6. Using the matrix and fiber
properties given below, estimate the transverse Young's modulus
E2, Shear modulus G12 using mechanics of materials approach.
Ef = 400 GPa Em = 4GPa Gf = 30 GPa Gm = 2 GPa [6]
[4264]-675 4
b) Show that stress-strain relationship for an angle ply lamina can be written
in terms of engineering constants as :
1 Xxy mx

Hx Ex Ex E1 V
x
Xxy 1 my
Hy E Ey
Vy
E1
J xy x W
mx m 1 xy
E y
1 E1 Gxy
Vx
Where mx 5 ' my 5 '1
J xy '1
X-Y-Z stand for global co-ordinate system and 5 stands for elements of
reduced transformed compliance matrix. [5]
c) For a randomly oriented discontinuous fiber lamina, the engineering
constants are Em= 3GPa EF = 80GPa. Fiber length is 5 mm and fiber
diameter is 15 mm. Fiber volume fraction is 50%. Assuming fiber shape
reinforcement factor to be x = 2, calculate transverse Young's modulus
using Halpi- Tsai equations. [5]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain X-ray radiography non-destructive testing method. [4]

b) Explain losopescu shear test procedure for measurement of in -plane
shear properties. [6]
c) Why is weibull distribution preferred over Normal distribution for
statistical analysis of composite properties? Explain the two parameter
Weibull distribution used for statistical analysis of composite
properties. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the method for obtaining the true tensile modulus from
experimentally determined tensile modulus for an off-axis specimen.[6]
b) Explain thermography non-destructive testing method. [4]
c) Explain in details the ASTM D790 method used to determine flexural
properties of the composites. State the limitations of this test method for
composites as compared to isotropic material. [6]
[4264]-675 5
Q9) a) Write down the [A], [B] and [D] matrices for a single layer specially
orthotropic laminate in terms of engineering constants. [4]
b) For a [0/60/]s laminate with the following lamina properties, calculate
the moduli for the laminate in the global X-Y directions and the strains
in the laminate if stress of sX = 10 MPa and sY = 12 MPa is applied.
Assume the thickness of each lamina to be 1mm.
E1 = 140GPa, E2 = 10GPa, G12 = 6GPa, U12= 0.3. [14]
OR
Q10) a) For the following laminates, mention their type and state which elements
of [A], [B] and [D] of the following laminates will be zero:
i) [20 /45 /20 / 45]
ii) [a / a / a / a / a ]
iii) [a / a / a / a ]
iv) [a / a / a / a ] [4]
b) For a symmetric laminate [0/35]s, calculate the midplane strains and
curvatures in the global and local directions if an in-plan stress of
sx = 100MPa is applied. All plies are 1mm thick. Lamina properties are
E1 = 150GPa, E2 = 15GPa, G12 = 4GPa, U12 = 0.3. [14]
Q11) a) Derive equilibrium equations in terms of displacements for a transversely

loaded specially orthotropic laminated plate. [9]
b) For a simply supported specially orthotropic beam with length 100 mm,
width 25 mm and depth 8 mm, carrying a uniformly distributed load of
10N/m, obtain the deflection if the lay up is symmetric. The D matrix for
the beam [7]
1370 33 0
& 33 290 0

0 0 60
OR
Q12) a) With neat figures, explain the different types of bonded joints. [5]
b) For a [0/ + 45/90]s, determine the of number of 0,+ 45,90 plies if the
minimum strength in x - direction is 391MPa and modulus is 61GPa.
The laminate thickness is 4 mm. Refer to fig. 1 and fig. 2. [6]
c) List the governing equations for laminated beams. If the beam is clamped
at both end, obtain the deflections of the beam for a uniformly distributed
load. [5]
[4264]-675 6
Figure . 1 Strength
[4264]-675 7
Figure . 2 Modulus
nnn
[4264]-675 8

[4264] - 723
B.E. (Information Technology)
REAL TIME SYSTEM
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe the classification of real time system with suitable example.
What are the issue in real time computing. [8]
b) Consider a traffic light control system. A traffic light will be normally
green for G second, yellow for Y second and red for R second. During
night for certain period of time the intersection will automatically suspend
normal service and its will flash yellow. Consider intersection two - two
way street. [8]
i) Find accomplishment level.
ii) Find hierarchical view performance.
OR
Q2) a) What are the various factor, that are to be consider while estimating the
program ran time in real time system. Describe analysis of source code,
drive lower bounds and upper bounds for suitable example. [10]
b) What is performability ? Explain with suitable example. In what way it
is different then traditional measure of performance. [6]
Q3) a) Explain the classification of uniprocessor scheduling algorithm. With

the help of suitable example explain the RM scheduling algorithm.[10]
b) Describe the priority inheritance protocol. What is the advantage of this
protocol over the priority inheritance protocol? [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) State the assumptions made for implementation of Deadline Monotonic
Algorithm (DMA). [6]
b) Is the following task set schedulable by DMA? Also check whether it is
schedulable wing RMA. [6]
T1 = (e1 = 10 m sec, P1 = 50 m sec, d1 = 35 m sec),
c) How does the ceiling priority protocol overcome the problem of deadlock
that occurs due to priority inheritance. [6]
Q5) a) Describe the Adaptive Earliest Deadline (AED) algorithm used in

transaction priorities. [6]
b) Explain use of POSIX programming API in Real Time system. With any
eight API. [10]
OR
Q6) a) State the major disadvantage of the two phase locking approach used in
pessimistic concurrency control. How can this approach be modified to
resolve this problem. [8]
b) Describe the skeleton and optimistic algorithm under the two phase
approach to improve predictability of a real time transaction. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the VTCSMA protocol using a suitable example. Draw the VCRC
trajectory for this example for n = 2 and n = 4. Discuss the performance
of this algorithm. [10]
b) Describe the timed token protocol. Why this protocol is attractive for
RTS. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the window protocol used in broadcast network with a suitable
example. Does it give deadline guarantees? Why/ why not? [8]
b) What is the palled Bus protocol? How it is implemented? [6]
c) Describe the stop and Go Multihop Protocol. [4]
[4264]-723 2
Q9) a) Write short notes on the following mechanisms present in a real time
operating system. [10]
i) Time services.
ii) Scheduling mechanisms.
b) State the commonly found features of commercial real time operating
system. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss with block diagram the real time extension of Linux Operating
System. [8]
i) QNX/Neutrino
ii) VRTX
Q11) Draw UML diagram for alarm clock interface. Expected Design level
requirement like this. [16]
a) Purpose - 24 hour digital with one alarm.
b) Input - Set time, Set alarm, hour, minute, alarm on/off.
c) Output - Four digit display, PM indicator, alarm ready, buzzer.
d) Function - Keep time, Set time, Set alarm, turn alarm on/off, activate
buzzer by alarm.
OR
Q12) a) Explain the procedure used to implementation of Time Redundancy for
Backward Error Recovery. Why check pointing is expensive in memory
and time. How it be modified to over come the problem. [8]
b) Describe the 3 types of voters in cases where an approximate agreement
is required to achieve hardware redundancy through voting and
consensus. [8]
nnn
[4264]-723 3

[4264] - 742
B.E. (Biotechnology)
FOOD BIOTECHNOLOGY
3) Neat diagrams should be drawn whenever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the different mechanisms which lead to the spoilage of
food? [8]
b) Explain in detail the various extrinsic parameters which lead to the
spoilage of food. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Discuss the different types of growth of micro organisms which occurs
during microbial spoilage of food. [8]
b) Discuss the biochemical changes brought about in food due to microbial
spoilage. [8]
Q3) Describe in detail the different preliminary processing methods used in the
food industry. [18]
OR
Q4) Write notes on the following : [18]
a) Sterilization
b) Microwave cooking
c) Extrusion
P.T.O.
Q5) a) The decimal reduction time D at 121C (D121) and the value z for a
thermophilic spore in whole milk were determined experimentally to be
equal to 30 s and 10.5C respectively. Calculate the D value at 150C
(D150). [6]
b) Calculate the time necessary to dry a vegetable from 90% to 25% moisture
(wet basis) in an industrial dryer where 2kg dry solid/m2 surface area
exposed to the air is loaded. It is given that the critical moisture content
is 5kg water/kg dry solid, the equilibrium moisture content is 0.033kg
water/kg dry solid, and the drying rate at the critical moisture content is
3kg water/m2h under the specified drying conditions. [10]
OR
Q6) a) Steam is used for peeling potatoes in a semi-continuous operation. Steam
is supplied at the rate of 4kg per 100 kg of unpeeled potatoes. The
unpeeled potatoes enter the system with a temperature of 17C, and the
peeled potatoes leave at 35C. A waste stream from the system leaves at
60C. The specific heats of unpeeled potatoes, waste stream, and peeled
potatoes are 3.7, 4.2 and 3.5kJ/(kg K), respectively. If the heat content
(assuming 0C reference temperature) of the steam is 2750kJ/kg, determine
the quantities of the waste stream and the peeled potatoes from the
process. [10]
b) 1000 kg of meat will be cooled from 25C to 58C in 2 h. Calculate the
rate of heat removal if the heat capacity of the meat is 3.35 kJ/kgC.
Assume that the effect of water evaporated from the surface of the meat
is negligible. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) Discuss the biotechnology of microbial polysaccharides in food. [16]

OR
a) Microbial production of oils and fats.
b) Food applications of algae
Q9) a) Discuss the various classes of industrially important enzymes. [9]

b) Discuss the application of enzymes in the bakery industry. [9]
OR
[4264]-742 2
Q10) Elaborate on the methods of production of proteases and describe their various
applications pertaining to the food industry. [18]
Q11) Classify the different types of food wastes and enlist the treatments applicable
to them. [16]
OR
a) Anaerobic processes for treatment of food wastes.
b) Other biological methods of food waste treatment.
nnn
[4264]-742 3

[4264] - 744
INTRODUCTION TO SYSTEMS BIOLOGY
SECTION - I
Q1) What is Human Genome Project ? Enlist the different phases involved in it. In
what ways did the Human Genome project impact biology? [18]
OR
Q2) What is the Central dogma of Molecular biology ? Mention the different
components of systems biology and describe the four distinct phases which
lead to system level understanding. [18]
Q3) How and in which fields has genomics transformed the outlook. [16]
OR
Q4) Describe in detail pyrosequencing technique? What is the approach taken by
the Roche 454 sequencer, give a detailed summary. Write a note on Genome
annotation. [16]
Q5) What is a microarray? Give the various types of microarrays available in the
market. What are the applications of microarrays ? [16]
OR
Q6) Write a short note on RNAi technology and its real world applications. [16]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) Write a short note on epigenetics. What are the different types of modifications
observed which lead to epigenetic inheritance of various traits? [18]
OR
Q8) Comment on Epigenetics and disease with respect to prions causing disease
in mammals. [18]
Q9) Describe pharmacogenomics as an upcoming field. What are the different

benefits and the barriers to drugs developed using the pharmacogenomic
approach. [16]
OR
Q10) Write a note on methods for drug delivery, drug metabolism and excretion,
what are slow metabolizers and extensive metabolisers. [16]
Q11) Describe in detail any two of the techniques (8 marks each) : [16]
a) 2-D Gel electrophoresis
b) MALDI-TOF analyzers
c) Mass spectrometry
OR
Q12) What is a metabolome. What are the different techniques used in metabolomics
study, comment on the use and applications of metabolomics. [16]
nnn
[4264]-744 2
*4264752* [4264] 752
Seat
No.
B.E. Automobile Examination, 2012

AUTOMOTIVE NVH
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
SECTION I
1. Solve any three : (63=18)

a) Define the terms sound, noise and harshness.
b) Discuss basics of reciprocating unbalance.
c) Physiological effects of noise and vibration.
d) The decibel scale.
e) Define sound intensity and sound power.
f) Discuss main causes of vibration in detail.
2. a) Explain coordinate coupling. 8
b) For the system shown in figure find the natural frequencies of vibration and
the principal modes of vibration. 8
OR
a) Explain generalized coordinates. 8
b) An aircraft radio weighing 118 N is to be isolated from engine vibrations,

ranging in frequencies from 1600 to 2200 cpm. What static deflection must
the isolator have for 80% isolation ? 8
P.T.O.
[4264] 752 -2- *4264752*
3. a) Explain mechanism of slip damping and effect of pressure and amplitude. 4

b) Derive the equation of transmissibility ratio for isolation using springs as
shown in the figure. 8
c) Discuss vibration isolation. 4

OR
3. a) Discuss dry friction damping. 6

b) A damped torsional pendulum with a mass moment of inertia I = 2.35 kg-m2
and torsional stiffness of Kt = 103 kN-m/rad is subjected to forced vibrations.
The resonance amplitude r was measured to be 1.07 and for a frequency of
f = 50 cps, the amplitude was found to be 0.3 find the coefficient of viscous
damping and the amplitude of harmonic torque. 10
SECTION II
4. a) Discuss noise as a cause of stress. 4

b) Explain octave band analysis. 6
c) Spherical wave propagation. 6
OR
4. a) Derive the relation for sound pressure intensity and power level. 10
b) Plane wave propagation. 6
5. a) List various types of microphones and discuss carbon granule microphone in

detail. 8
b) The pulsating surface of radius 0.1 m has a radial surface displacement
which varies harmonically at 50 Hz with a surface velocity magnitude of 0.1 m/s.
Calculate the magnitude of pressure fluctuations generated at a distance of
10 m from the centre of sphere. 8
c) List sound intensity measurement techniques. 2
OR
*4264752* -3- [4264] 752
5. a) Discuss response of a SDOF system to transient and random excitations. 8

b) A spherical source of diameter 20 mm is driven with rms surface velocity of
0.5 m/s. Calculate the acoustic power and sound power level radiated into the
surrounding air for excitation at 100 Hz and 800 Hz. 8
c) Explain mode shape. 2
6. a) The combustion starts in a gasoline engine and the pressure rises to 200
times the atmospheric pressure and temperature to 1000 C. Determine the
speed of sound in the engine consider, ratio of specific heats of the gas
mixture is 1.35 and the gas density is 1.4 kg/m3 at 0 C and atmospheric
pressure. 10
b) Explain :
i) Equivalent viscous damping.
ii) Critical damping. (23 each)
OR
6. a) For the muffler system shown in figure draw an equivalent acoustical circuit.
Assume that the termination pipe has an infinite length, the sound source is a
reciprocating compressor. 10
*RC Reciprocating compressor.

b) Explain :
i) Balancing
ii) Undamped natural frequency
iii) Response. (32 each)
B/II/12/

[4264] - 436
B.E. (Mech.)
DESIGN OF PUMPS, BLOWERS AND COMPRESSORS
(Elective - I) (2008 Pattern) (Sem. - I)
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks :100
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the performance characteristics of pumps, compressors, fans

and blowers. [8]
b) A centrifugal pump delivers 2.5 m3/s under a head of 14m and running at
a speed of 2010 rpm. The impeller diameter of the pump is 125 mm. If a
104 mm diameter impeller is fitted and the pump runs at a speed of
2210 rpm, what is the volume rate? Determine also the new pump head.
[8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the different applications of compressors, fans and blowers.[6]
b) Write equations of energy transfer between fluid and rotor. [6]
c) Define specific speed. What is its significance? [4]
Q3) a) The impeller of a centrifugal pump has 1.4 m outside diameter. It is used
to lift 1800 liters of water per second against a head of 10 m. Its Vanes
make an angle of 45o with the direction of motion at outlet and runs at
400 rpm. If the radial velocity of flow at outlet is 3.5 m/s, find the
manometric efficiency. Also find the power required if the overall efficiency
is 82%. [8]
P.T.O.
b) Explain various efficiencies of centrifugal pump. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain various types of characteristic curves usually prepared for
centrifugal pumps. [8]
i) Different types of Losses in pumps.
ii) Cavitations in centrifugal pump.
Q5) a) A centrifugal pump running at 1450 rpm has the characteristic as given
below :
Discharge 11.3 16.9 22.6 28.3 34.0 39.6 45.2
(Lit/sec)
Head (m) 25.8 25.0 24.1 23.2 21.4 18.9 15.8
Efficiency 65 70 73 74 72 69 62
(%)
Draw the operating characteristic of the pump and determine its specific
speed. The pump lifts water against a static head of 12 m through a long
pipeline in which the loss of head in meters, due to friction is given by
the expression, hf = 0.012 Q2, where Q is the discharge in liters/sec. the
minor losses in the pipe may be neglected. Determine the power required
to drive the pump. [10]
b) Explain the design procedure of centrifugal pump. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Write a short note on pump selection. [8]
b) Explain various forms of corrosion occurred in hydraulic machines.[10]
[4264]-436 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss various applications of fan. [6]

b) An axial fan stage consisting of rotor and UGVs for ve inlet swirl and
to eliminate outlet swirl, has the following data;
Rotor blade air angle at inlet 86o
Tip diameter 60 cm
Hub diameter 30 cm
Rotational speed 960 rpm
Power required 2 kW
Flow coefficient 0.245
(Inlet flow conditions p1 = 1.02 bar, T1 = 316 K)
Determine the rotor blade angle at exit, the flow rate, stage pressure rise,
overall efficiency, degree of reaction and specific speed. [10]
OR
Q8) a) How does dust erosion of centrifugal impellers occurs? What is its effect
on the performance? [8]
b) Prove the following relations for an axial fan stage with UGVs and DGVs :
(p )st = 2u 2 ( tan 2 1) , = 4( tan 2 1) and R = 1. [8]
Q9) a) Explain functions of an airfoil and discuss the characteristic curves of

airfoils. [8]
b) A centrifugal blower takes in 180 m3/min of air at p1 = 1.013 bar and
T1 = 43oC, and delivers it at 750 mm of W.C. Taking the efficiencies of
the blower and drive as 80% and 82% respectively, determine the power
required to drive the blower and the state of air at exit. [8]
OR
Q10) a) State design considerations and empirical relations used to determine
various fan design parameters. [8]
b) What is surging? What are its effects? What is stalling? How it is
developed? [8]
[4264]-436 3
Q11) a) What is the work done factor for an axial compressor stage? How does
it vary with the number of stages? [6]
b) Derive the following relations for an axial compressor stage with constant
axial velocity. [12]
i)
ii) = (tan 1 tan 2 )
iii)
(p )st
st =
uVx (tan 2 tan 1 )
iv)
OR
Q12) a) The impeller tip speed of a centrifugal compressor is 370 m/s, slip factor
is 0.90, and the radial velocity component at the exit is 35 m/s. If the
flow area at the exit is 0.18m2 and compressor efficiency is 0.88, determine
the mass flow rate of air and the absolute Mach number at the impeller
tip. Assume air density = 1.57 kg/m3 and inlet stagnation temperature is
(p ) Also, find
290K. Neglect the work input factor. the overall pressure
u ratio
of the compressor.
tan st1 +=tan
(tan
1 =
2
tan
tan2 +
1 )
tan 2 =
[10]
u 2 Vx
b) Explain briefly what is the purpose of inlet guide vanes and inducer
blades. Why is the radialtipped impeller most widely used in centrifugal
compressor stages? [8]
OOOO
[4264]-436 4

[4264] - 483
B.E. (Production S/W)
ADVANCED PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY
Instructions to the candidates:-
1) Answer 3 questions from Section I and 3 questions from Section II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe the overall influence of high cutting speed on the performance
of machining. [6]
b) Explain & draw the graph of Theoretical behaviour of the resultant cutting
force and its component at ultra high cutting speed. [6]
c) Describe the criteria of high speed / high velocity machining. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Describe Machining of monolithing parts. [6]
b) Describe the comparison of three different cooling strategies Flood, MQL
and Dry machining. [6]
c) Explain Dry machining operations. [6]
Q3) a) Define & explain

i) Nano scale ii) Nano technology
iii) Nano manufacturing [9]
b) Describe the characteristics of ULTRA precision machines. [7]
OR
Q4) a) Describe important Nano manufacturing Technique. [6]
b) Explain with neat sketch following fine finishing processes. (any two)
i) AFM ii) MAF
iii) MFP [10]
P.T.O
Q5) Explain the following with reference to group technology. [16]
a) Part classification and coading.
b) Cell formation technique.
c) Product flow analysis.
OR
Q6) a) Explain with example Rapid Prototyping technique. [6]
b) Describe computer aided quality control and inspection technique. [5]
c) Describe enterprise resource planning. [5]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain various transfer mechanisms used in automated systems. [6]

b) Explain with neat sketch various types of feeders. [6]
c) Explain the types of AGVS. [4]
OR
Q8) Write a short note on [16]
a) Rotory transfer systems.
b) Design for automated assembly.
c) Toyota production systems.
Q9) a) Double acting cylinder is hooked in the regenerative circuit. The relief
valve setting is 100 bars and the pump flow is 0.0016 cm3/s. If the
regenerative and retracting speed are equal to 0.25 m/s find the piston
and rod dia. area and also load carring capacity for the [8]
i) Extending stroke.
ii) Retracting stroke.
b) What size of accumulator is necessary to supply 4197 cm3 of fluid in a
hydraulic system of maximum operating pressure of 207 bar, which drops
to minimum 103.5 bar? Assume Nitrogen gas precharge of accumulator
as 67 bar obtain both isothermal and adiabatic solution. [6]
c) Explain the design aspect of hydraulic reservoir. [4]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss with drawing the performance characteristics of gear pump.[6]
b) Classify the hydraulic fluid. What are desirable properties of a hydraulic
fluid. [6]
c) Draw the sectional view of following pneumatic component
i) Time delay valve. ii) Quick exhaut valve. [6]
[4264]-483 2
Q11) a) For a swash plate type pump following data operates :
Number of pistons = 4
Piston diameter = 20 mm
Pitch circle dia. of cylinder = 150 mm
Input power = 6 kW
Volumetric efficiency = 90%
Mechanical efficiency = 89%
Calculate theoretical pump displacement and angle of swash plate if
maximum pressure and speed of which pump operates is 150 bar &
1400 rpm respectively. [10]
b) Draw only following pneumatic circuit by using
i) AND Valve ii) OR Valve [6]
OR
Q12) A 100 kN hydraulic press has a stroke of 1.2 m. The initial approach is
1 m. The speed during the next 0.2 m stroke is required to be between
1 m/min to 3 m/min. The load during return stroke is 40 kN and the speed is
to be limited to 5 m/min. Provision is required to obtain uniform speed
during working stroke and for holding the ram of the top most position.
Draw a circuit which will fulfill these requirements. Select different component
you have used in the circuit from the data given. Mention the rating of the
component in case it is not available in the given data. [16]
[4264]-483 3
OOOO
[4264]-483 4

[4264] - 719
B.E. (IT)
MOBILE COMPUTING
(Semester - I) (2008 Pattern) (Elective - II)
Instructions to the candidates:-
1) Attempt any three questions from each section.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw and Explain basic PCs Architecture. [8]

b) Explain concept of Hard Handoff and Soft Handoff. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What is frequency reuse channels? [8]
b) Explain step by step Inter system Handoff. [8]
Q3) a) Explain GSM call procedure. [8]

b) How mobility database is maintained in GSM. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain GSM burst structure and logical channel classification. [8]
b) Explain Protocol hierarchy of MAP. [8]
Q5) a) Explain SMS Architecture of GSM. [6]

b) Explain International GSM call setup. [8]
c) What is Mobile number portability. [4]
OR
a) HLR and VLR databases. [6]
b) Mobile number portability mechanism. [6]
c) VLR Overflow. [6]
P.T.O
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss any four functional groups of GPRS. [8]
b) Explain WAP caching model. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain different interfaces used in GPRS. [8]
b) Discuss Improvements on Core Networks in 3G. [8]
Q9) a) What is requirement of Mobile IP layer? [8]

b) Explain Dynamic source routing in MANET. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain how tunneling is done at Mobile Network layer. [8]
b) Explain destination sequence distance vector routing in MANET. [8]

a) Bluetooth. [6]
b) Wireless local loop. [6]
c) UMTS. [6]
OR
a) WiMAX [6]
b) RFiD [6]
c) W - LAN [6]
OOOO
[4264]-719 2

[4264] - 603
B.E. (Chemical)
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING DESIGN - II

1) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6 from Section I, Q7 or Q8, Q9 or Q10,
Q11 or Q12 from Section II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) A Jacketed reactor with agitator has a diameter of 1.5 m and has a
hemispherical bottom and flat top. Jacket is fitted to the cylindrical section
and extends to a height of 1.2 m. The spacing between the jacket and the
wall is 75 mm. The jacket is fitted with a spiral baffle with a pitch of
200 mm. Cold water at 10C is used as a coolant @ 32000 kg/h with an
exit temperature of 20C. Estimate the heat transfer coefficient at the
outside wall of the reactor and the pressure drop in the jacket.
water = 998 kg / m3, water = 1.136 m Ns/m2, Pr = 7.9 Kf = 0.59 w/mk,
jf = 0.0032. [10]
b) Give the function of baffles in an agitated reactor and its effect on power
consumption. [6]
OR
P.T.O.
Q2) A 500 mm agitator, turbine type, with 6 flat blades of 75 mm width and 8 mm
thickness is agitating liquid in a 1500 mm diameter tank, at a speed of
200 rpm. Sp. gr. of the liquid is 1.1 and viscosity 550 cp. Overhang of the
agitator is 1300 mm. The tank has 4 baffles. Shaft material is cold rolled steel
which has a permissible shear stress of 52 N/mm2 and elastic limit in tension
240 N/mm2 and modulus of elasticity 18.5 104 N/mm2. Permissible stress
for CS is 95 N/mm2. Which is the MOC for stuffing box. Permissible shear
stress for MOC for key is 65 N/mm2 and permissible crushing stress is
130 N/mm2. Studs and bolts are made of hot rolled carbon steel with a
permissible stress of 58 N/mm2. If the vessel has standard geometry and the
power number is 4.2, design the agitator. [16]
Q3) a) Give the procedure for designing a plate. [8]

b) Give the Van Winkles correlation for predicting plate efficiency. [6]
c) Using O' connells correlation find the overall column efficiency for the
following system. [4]
Component mol-fr. (mNm/s ) 2
Propane 0.05 0.03

i - butane 0.15 0.12
n - butane 0.25 0.12
i - pentane 0.20 0.14
n - pentane 0.35 0.14
LK = 2.0
OR
Q4) a) Find the diameter of the plate column used for separating a feed containing
10% MVC in water by wt. @ 12500 kg/h (maximum). The minimum
flow rate handled is 65% of the maximum. No. of ideal stages required is
15 for achieving a top mole fraction of 0.92 and a residual concentration
of 50 ppm. The reflux ratio used is 1.35. The slopes of top and bottom
operating lines are 5 and 0.57 respectively. Column efficiency is 0.6.
Properties of liquid and vapour are : v bottom = 0.72 kg/m 3
L bottom = 960 kg/m3, L bottom = 0.055 N/m, v top = 2 kg/m3
L top = 760 kg/m3, L top = 0.023 N/m. M. W. of MVC = 55 K1top = 0.075
K1bottom = 0.09. [10]
b) Answer the following: [8]
i) Effect of hw and how on column performance.
ii) Effect of plate spacing on column performance.
iii) Effect of downcorner backup on column performance.
iv) Constituents of total plate pressure drop.
[4264]-603 2
Q5) a) Compare plate and packed columns. [6]
b) Find the diameter of the column for absorption of SO2 from an air - SO2
mixture using water. The feed contains 8% SO2 and 95% SO2 is to be
recovered. The feed rate is 4500 kg /hr. The equilibrium data: [10]
% W/W solution 0.05 0.2 0.3 0.5 0.7 1.0
P.P. mm Hg 1.2 8.5 14.1 26 39 59
Design data:
m Gm
0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 1.0
Lm
NoG 4.8 5.3 6.5 8 10.8 19
K4 at operating conditions = 0.35

K4 at flooding conditions = 0.8
Packing factor = 170 m1
Assume a pressure drop of 20 mm of H2O / m. Give a clear explanation
for choice of value of mGm / Lm.
OR
Q6) a) Estimate HOG using the following data: [8]
m2
DL = 1.7 109 m2/s, DV = 1.45 105
s
V = 0.018 103 Ns/m2

LW* = 16.67 kg / m2 - s; K3 = 0.85
h = 80, n = 0.1, Z=8m
Diam. of column = 1.03 m
L = 0.001 Ns/m2, L = 1000 kg/m3.
Liquid phase is essentially water.
b) Explain briefly: [4]
i) Effect of packing size on column performance.
ii) Function of packing support.
c) Give the procedure for designing packed columns. [4]
[4264]-603 3
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What are safety values, relief values safety relief values and rupture
discs? [8]
b) Design a horizontal separator for separating 9500 kg/h of liquid of density
960 kg/m3 from 12000 kg/h of vapour of density 22 kg/m3 at an operating
pressure of 21 bar. [10]
OR
Q8) a) What are material hazards and process hazards? [6]
b) What are the two design criteria in cyclone design? [6]
c) What are knockout drums? [6]
Q9) a) Describe the three cases in design of pipelines based on fluid dynamic
parameters. [10]
b) Explain water hammer-causes and prevention measures. [6]
OR
Q10) a) What are the reasons for resistance to fluid flow in fittings and values?
How is the head loss across fittings considered? [6]
b) From a drinking water pumping station a straight pipeline of NB 300 mm
is to be laid for 1 km water is required at the rate of 500 m3/h at 4 kg /cm2 at
the end. Find the pumping pressure. Take friction factor = 0.027. [4]
c) Give the importance of purging and venting in pipelines. [6]
Q11) a) What are the material selection considerations for pipes? [6]
b) Why are standards required? Name a few standards followed in piping
design. [6]
c) What are the functions of gasket? [4]
OR
Q12) a) Describe different types of gaskets. [8]
b) What are the desirable properties of piping materials. [8]
TTT
[4264]-603 4

[4264] - 435
B.E. (Mechanical)
PRODUCT DESIGN AND DEVELOPMENT

SECTION - I
UNIT - I
Q1) a) Explain the concept of Design by Evolution & Design by Innovation

with example. [8]
b) Explain Product Design versus Product Development. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain different types of designs with appropriate examples. [8]
b) Discuss Modern Product Development Process with detailed steps. [8]
UNIT - II
Q3) What are different types of customers? Explain the various customer need
gathering methods in detail. [17]
OR
Q4) a) What do you mean by House of Quality? Explain with neat sketch. [9]
b) Explain the concept of Economic Analysis with reference to product
development. [8]
P.T.O.
UNIT - III
Q5) a) What is Numerical Concept Scoring? Explain. [9]

b) Explain generalized concept selection process. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain Subtract & Operate procedure with suitable example. [9]
b) Explain Function Analysis System Technique. [8]
SECTION - II
UNIT - IV
Q7) Explain the process of Product Teardown in detail. Explain Force Flow
diagram with suitable example. [16]
OR
Q8) a) What are objectives of Benchmarking? Explain with Procedure. [8]
b) Explain different Product Portfolio Architectures. [8]
UNIT - V
Q9) a) Explain the guidelines of Design for Assembly. [9]

b) Explain the guidelines for Design for Manufacturing. [8]
OR
Q10) What is need of Design for Environment? Explain guidelines. Discuss various
local & Global issues related to environment. [17]
UNIT - VI
Q11) Explain the concept of Product Lifecycle Management in detail. What is

need of PLM? Discuss components of PLM. [17]
OR
Q12) a) Explain Product life cycle with suitable example. [9]
b) Explain the concept of Product data & product workflow. [8]
TTT
[4264]-435 2

[4264] - 455
B.E. (Mechanical S/W)
FINITE ELEMENT METHOD

4) Use of electronic calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write short note on (Any 3): [9]

i) General applications of FEM.
ii) The Rayleigh-Ritz Method.
iii) The Galerkin Method.
iv) Plane stress and plane strain problem.
v) Sources of errors in FEM.
b) Determine the displacements of nodes of the spring system as shown in
Fig.Q.No.1(b). Use Principle of minimum potential energy. [7]
OR
Q2) a) Explain in brief Finite Element Method. [5]
b) Explain the principle of minimum potential energy used in deriving element
stiffness matrix and equations. [5]
P.T.O.
c) Derive and plot shape functions. [6]
x x
N1 = 1 and N 2 = for a linear spring element of length L. Use
L L
direct equilibrium approach.
Q3) a) Explain the following terms in brief (Any 2): [6]

i) Penalty Approach.
ii) Characteristics of Global stiffness matrix.
iii) Elimination Approach.
iv) Quadratic shape functions.
b) A bar consists of two steps as shown in Fig. Q.No.3(b) below. An axial
load F = 200 kN is applied as shown. Model the bar with two finite
elements. Determine. [10]
i) Element stiffness matrix
ii) Global stiffness matrix
iii) Global load vector
iv) Nodal displacements
v) Stresses in each bar
Elements
Sr.No. Items
1 2
1 Length (mm) 200 100
2 Area (mm2) 1000 2000
3 Modulus of Elasticity (GPa) 200 83
(Use Elimination Approach)
OR
[4264]-455 2
Q4) a) For the truss element. Write an equation for element stiffness matrix in
global coordinate system and element stress equation. Find the element
stiffness matrix for the two bar truss as shown in Fig. Q.No. 4(a) below.
[10]
b) For a one - dimensional bar element with two nodes i and j along
x-direction, assuming linear behavior of bar element, derive bar element
stiffness equation based on Potential Energy approach. Use the shape
functions Ni and Nj as, [6]
xi - x x - xi
Ni = at node i and Nj = at node j.
L L
L be the length of the bar element.
Q5) a) What is CST element? Explain natural coordinates and shape functions
for CST element. [6]
b) Draw four noded quadrilateral element both in Cartesian coordinates and
in natural coordinates for a quadrilateral plate with following data, [12]
Vertices Cartesian coordinates (mm) Displacements (mm)
1 10, 10 0.1
2 50, 20 0.6
3 60, 50 0.8
4 30, 70 0.5
The Point M within the element has Cartesian coordinates (30, 40). For
this point M, determine
i) The nodal coordinates
ii) The shape functions
iii) The displacements
OR
Q6) a) Draw and write shape functions for four noded quadrilateral elements. [4]
[4264]-455 3
b) Model the triangular plate of thickness 8 mm as a CST element. The
coordinates of three vertices of the plate are as shown in table below. Take
E = 2.05 105 N/mm2, and Poissons ratio = 0.25 for the plate material. [14]
Vertices Cartesian Deflections (mm)
coordinates (mm) u(mm) v(mm)
1 10, 10 u1 = 0.01 v1 = 0.04
2 70, 35 u2 = 0.03 v2 = 0.02
3 25, 75 u3 = 0.02 v3 = 0.05
Determine:
i) The deflections at the point N (40, 30) within the element.
ii) Element stress-strain matrix.
iii) Element strain nodal displacement matrix.
iv) Element strains
v) Element stresses
SECTION - II
Q7) a) State and explain stiffness matrix for frame element. [8]
b) Write a note on beam on elastic support. [8]
OR
Q8) a) The beam of 5.5 m length is fixed at each end. A downward force of
10kN and moment of 12kNm (ccw) act at the center of the beam. Let
E = 200 GPa and I = 5 104 m4 throughout the beam. Determine the
displacement and rotation under applied loads. [10]
b) With neat diagram explain the frame element. [6]
Q9) a) Explain in detail the Galerkins approach for heat conduction. [8]
b) Write a short note on Point Sources in heat transfer problems. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Write a short note on boundary conditions in heat transfer problem. [8]
b) Formulate the one-dimensional heat transfer equations. [8]
Q11) a) Write a short note on NVH analysis. [6]
b) What are the advantages of modal analysis? [6]
c) Explain the effect of mashing on results of analysis. [6]
OR
Q12) a) Write a short note on time domain and frequency domain? [6]
b) What are different FEA software available in market? Also explain their
application areas. [6]
c) What are the inputs and outputs of dynamic and fatigue analysis. [6]
TTT
[4264]-455 4

[4264] - 680
B.E. (Polymer)
PRODUCT DESIGN AND POLYMER TESTING

1) Answer three questions from Section-I and three questions from Section-II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain why permeation or barrier properties are necessary for polymers.
For which all products will one require to check this property. Also
explain method used to test this property. [10]
b) Explain what is the significance of specific gravity and bulk density.
Give the experimental method used to find specific gravity of granules
as well as powder. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Why particle size analysis is necessary and how is it done. [3]
b) Give list of non-destructive testing methods and explain any one in detail.
[10]
c) Why acoustic properties are to be tested. Give list of all those properties
and explain any one in detail. [5]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain what is meant by following terms: [6]
i) Refractive Index ii) Luminous transmittance
iii) Haze iv) Photo elastic properties
b) Why optical properties are necessary to be found. Give any 2 applications
where the optical property is necessary. [5]
c) What is meant by surface resistivity and how can it be found? [5]
OR
Q4) a) Explain following terms: [6]
i) Dielectric strength ii) Volume Resistivity
iii) EMI shielding iv) Arc resistance
b) What draw backs can arise due to static charge accumulation in polymers.
[4]
c) How to measure Luminous transmittance and haze in a polymer. [6]
Q5) a) Explain the necessity to measure chemal wheathering and flammable

properties of any polymer. Give any one test method to explain any one
property. [10]
b) Explain any one test carried on product form and its relevance according
to ASTM. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Give the significance of stain resistance of plastics and how can it be
found. [6]
b) Give justification as to why testing of polymers is required and if not
done, what are the disadvantages. Also explain the testing required at all
three stages ie. monomer, polymer & product. [10]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Write a note on designing of hinges in injection molded products. [6]

b) Explain end use requirement analysis carried out during plastic product
design. [6]
c) Explain isometric curves. State how they are used in plastic product
design. [6]
OR
[4264]-680 2
Q8) a) Write a note on pseudoelastic design method for designing of plastic
products. [9]
b) Write a note on parallel engineering approach for product design. [9]
Q9) a) Describe friction welding and hot plate welding. [8]

b) Write a note on press fit technique used for plastic assembly. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss spin welding and laser welding . [8]
b) Write a note on mechanical fastners used for plastic product assembly. [8]
Q11) a) Explain in details the test method used to determine flexural strength and
modulus for plastics. [8]
b) Explain th test method for determining hardness and abrass ion resistance.
[8]
OR
Q12) a) Discuss the method for determining compressive properties of
plastics. [8]
b) Explain in short the significance of rate of straining in tensile testing. [4]
c) Write a note on - sample preparation prior to clamping out for tensile
test. Illustrate the geometry of a tensile test specimen. [4]
TTT
[4264]-680 3

[4264] - 618
B.E. (Chemical)
CHEMICAL PROCESS SAFETY
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain safety, hazard, risk in chemical plants. State types of hazards
with examples. [8]
b) Explain how toxicants enter Biological Organisms. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain three statistical methods to characterize accident and loss
performance. [8]
b) State definitions for relative toxicity and for threshold limit values
(TLVs). [8]
Q3) a) Explain Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) with the format during an
industrial hygiene study. [8]
b) How will you evaluating exposures to volatile toxicants by Monitoring.[8]
OR
Q4) a) Determine the eight hour TWA worker exposure if the worker is exposed
to toluene vapours as follows :-
Duration of exposure Measured Concentration
(hours) (PPM)
2 110
2 330
4 90 [6]
P.T.O.
b) State typical projects involving industrial hygiene. Describe identification
in industrial hygiene project. [10]
Q5) a) Explain Fire Triangle. Distinction between fires and explosions. [10]
b) Define flammability Limits (LFL and UFL). Explain types of
Explosions. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain in detail Unconfined Vapour Cloud Explosion (UVCE). [10]
b) Explain flammability characteristics of liquids and vapours. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What bonding and grounding procedures must be followed, to transfer

a drum of flammable solvent into a storage tank? [8]
b) Describe in brief storage and handling of flammable and toxic
chemicals. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain working of Ventilation and Sprinkler systems for preventing fires
and Explosions. [8]
b) Describe in brief Explosion proof equipment and instruments. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the concept of HAZOP study and state guide words used for
the HAZOP procedure. [8]
b) Describe an informal safety review process for using a cylinder of
phosgene to charge gaseous phosgene to a reactor. Review up to the
reactor only. [10]
OR
Q10) a) Explain Event Tree analysis for reactor with high temperature alarm and
temperature controller. [10]
b) Explain Review of probability theory for Risk Assessment. [8]
Q11) a) Explain objectives of Risk Management. How will Risk in case of leakage
of chlorine carried out? [8]
b) Explain Emergency shutdown systems. [8]
OR
Q12) a) State and describe protective devices for operators while working in
chemical process plant. [8]
b) Write a short note on :-
Prevention of hazard human element. [8]
kbkb
[4264]-618 2

[4264] - 447
B.E. (Mechanical)
INDUSTRIAL HEAT TRANSFER EQUIPMENTS
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - IV) (Semester - II)
1) Answer both sections on separate answer books.
2) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8, Q9 or Q10, Q11 or Q12.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) How heat exchangers are classified according to its arrangement. [5]
b) Explain construction and working of hairpin heat exchanger. [5]
c) State general steps for thermal design of heat exchanger by NTU
method. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain series arrangement of hairpin heat exchangers with figure and
state advantages of arrangement. [5]
b) State applications of plate heat exchangers. [5]
c) What will be the hydraulic diameter of an annulus with longitudinal finned
tube with following specifications? [6]
Inner diameter of shell 0.0525m
Outer diameter of tube 0.0266m
Number of tubes 1
Thickness of fin 0.9 mm
Axial height of fin from outer periphery of tube is 0.0127m
Number of fins per tube 30
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Determine the tube side heat transfer coefficient at 30 cm from the inlet
of a heat exchanger where engine oil flows through tubes with a diameter
of 12.5mm. Oil flows with a velocity of 0.5 m/s and at a local bulk
temperature of 30C, with local tube wall temperature of 60C. (Use
correlations attached) [8]
Properties of oil :
= 882 kg/m3
Cp = 1922 J/kg.K
= 0.41 Ns/m2
k = 0.14 W/mK
Pr = 5550
w = 0.074 Ns/m2 at 60C
b) What are baffles? State its use and type. [4]
c) Define Tube layout angle. Draw tube layout pattern with tube layout
angle of 90 and 45. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Explain in short : Contents in TEMA standard. [5]
b) Write note on : Selection of tube thickness in heat exchanger. [5]
c) Explain stepwise process of heat exchanger analysis by Kerns method.[6]
Q5) a) State factors by which choice of compact heat exchanger is made. [5]
b) State limitations of compact fin Heat Exchangers. [5]
c) A cross flow heat exchanger with both fluids unmixed is used to heat
water flowing at a rate of 20 kg/s from 25C to 75C using gases available
at 300C to be cooled to 180C. The overall heat transfer coefficient has
a value of 95 W/m2K. Determine the area required using LMTD method.
For gas Cp = 1005 J/kgK, For water Cp = 4180 J/kgK. (Graphs attached
can be used) [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain any four geometries of PFHE (Plate Fin Heat Exchangers). [6]
b) What are Tube-Fin Heat Exchangers? Describe with figure. [6]
c) Explain how multi-pass exchangers are to be designed? [6]
[4264]-447 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Which typical parameters are to be considered during selection and design
of condenser compared to S&T HEX? [5]
b) How condensers are classified? [5]
c) Draw sketch and explain in brief spiral condenser. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain air cooled evaporator with its disadvantages. [5]
b) State main features of cross flow condensers with figure. [5]
c) Extra tube support plate is provided near nozzle, justify. [6]
Q9) a) Describe Psychometric Analysis of Air Passing Through Cooling

Tower. [5]
b) How cooling tower is to be maintained in good working condition? [5]
c) Explain Indirect-Contact or Closed-Circuit Evaporative Cooling
Tower. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Compare wood and metal as cooling tower material. [5]
b) Explain induced draft cross flow cooling tower. [5]
c) Enlist factors to be considered for locating cooling tower. [6]
Q11) a) State use of different materials for better cooling in cabinets. [6]
b) State need of cooling in electrical applications. [6]
c) State advantages of forced electronics cooling. [6]
OR
Q12) a) Write note on : Wick structure of heat pipe. [6]
b) Explain liquid cooled PCB. State its advantages and disadvantages. [6]
c) State advantages of natural electronics cooling. [6]
[4264]-447 3
[4264]-447 4
Effectiveness , % Effectiveness , % Effectiveness , %
[4264]-447
5
Effectiveness , % Effectiveness , % Effectiveness , %
[4264]-447
Correction factor F Correction factor F Correction factor F Correction factor F
6
[4264]-447 7
kbkb
[4264]-447 8

[4264] - 576
PROCESS MODELLING AND OPTIMIZATION
1) Answer 3 questions from Section-I and 3 questions from Section-II.
5) You answers will be valued as a whole.
SECTION - I
Q1) For the system below write equcations for above system, pipe ID = 0.9144
m Ap = 0.6559 m2, L = 914.4m and for [18]
Tank - ID = 3.6576 m
AT = 10.4977 m
h = 2.1336 m
steady state values are,
Fo = 35.1 ft3/sec = 3.2608 m
ho = 4.72 ft = 1.4387 m
Vo = 4.97 ft/s = 1.5149 m/s
KF = 2.81 102 = 0.1371 N/(ft /sec)2m find v and h at t = 1 sec take step of
0.2 where
Fo - Inlet flow
AT - Area of tank
Ap = Area of pipe
L - length of existpipe
KF - Frictional coefficient
P.T.O.
OR
Q2) a) Three CSTRs are connected in series of rn A K

B is taking place
in each reactor. Each reactor is maintained at different temperature and
rate const in each reactor is K1, K2, K3 volume of reactor is V1, V2, V3
respectively. A reactant A is Fed to first reactor at aflow rate of fo at
concentration of CAo Derive the mathematical model of the system.[10]
b) Using least square method fit the model y = B0 + B1x to the following
data (x = independent variable & y = measured response) [8]
Q3) Develop the state model that describes the dynamic behavior of system for
two stirred tank heaters shown below. Flow rates of the streams are assumed
to be porportional to the liquid static pressure that causes the flow of the
liquid. The cross sectional areas of Tanks are A1 & A2 (m2) and flow rates are
volumetric. No vapour is produced either in the first and second tank.
At1 and At2 are heat exchange areas for the two stream coils. Use suitable
assumptions. [16]
OR
Q4) Develop the model equations of double pipe heat Exchanger where in the
resistance to heat transfer from a condensing fluid to inner fluid can be
represented by convective heat transfer coefficient on both sides of the heat
transfer wall. Assume that.
a) Resistance of wall is negligible but the wall has finite heat capacity.
b) Assume that velocity remain constant throughout the pipe. State the
assumptions made. [16]
[4264]-576 2
Q5) a) What are the advantages OR disadvantages of ONline and OFFline
identification method? Justify. [8]
b) Explain Auto Tune variation identification method for process
identification. Comment on dead time estimation from the waveforms.[8]
OR
a) Time domain fitting of step data.
b) Pulse testing.
SECTION - II
Q7) A distilation column is described by the following linear ODEs. [18]

d xD
= 4.74xD + 5.99xB + 0.708R 0.472V
dt
dxB
= 10.84xD 18.24xB + 1.28R1.92V+4Z
dt
a) Use state variable matrix method to derive the open loop transfer function
matrix.
b) What are the open loop eigen values of the system.
0.958 0.936
c) If the open loop steady state gain matrix is Kp =
0.639 0.661
Calculate RGA, niederlinski index and morari resiliency index.
OR
a) Bristol arrary as an index loop interaction.
b) Skogestad-morari method.
Q9) Determine the convexity or concavity of the following objective functions.[16]

a) F (x1, x2) = ex + e x
2
b) F (x) = 2x12 + 2x1x2 + 1.5x22 + 7x1 + 8x2 + 24

c) F (x1, x2) = (x1 x2)2 + x22
d) 2x12 3x1x2 + 2x22
OR
[4264]-576 3
Q10) a) Determine whether following function is concave or convex [8]
x12 2
f ( x) = + + 4 x2
4 x1 x2
b) Determine optimum values of y for [8]
x1 1 1 x
y= + + x22 + 3
x2 x1 x3 2 16
x
Q11) a) Minimize f ( x ) = using Quasi newton method with x1 = 2 and
log e x
n = 0.01, = 0.01. [8]
b) Using Eulers method, find an approximate value of y corresponding to
x = 1 given that
dy
= x + y and y = 1 when x = 0. [8]
dx
OR
Q12) a) Write short note on linear programming. [8]
b) Fit the model y = a0 + a1x for the data. By using lagrange interpolation
method. [8]
x 2 5
y 4 7
kbkb
[4264]-576 4
P1026 [4264]-577
[Total No. of Pages : 2

BUILDING AUTOMATION - II
3) Use of electronic calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is Human comfort? Explain Human comfort zone, List different
factors affecting to Human comfort, and explain any four factors in
details. [12]
b) Explain the terms Relative Humidity and Absolute Humidity. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Psychometric chart with neat sketch show all the specification. [10]
b) Explain different process of Air Conditioning. [8]
Q3) a) Explain steam heating system with steam pressure and system piping. [10]
b) What do you mean steam traps? List and explain steam traps. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Explain Vapor Compression Cycle with respect to each device involved
in it. [12]
b) Sketch commonly used symbols that represent air conditioning systems
components. [4]
Q5) a) Draw a block diagram of Direct Digital Controller. Explain each block in
detail. Enlist various advantages and disadvantages of DDC. [10]
b) Explain the features of primary controller and secondary controller. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Explain different analog and digital output devices used in HVAC control
systems. [12]
b) Explain the terms optimum start and Night cycle. [4]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss the term Motor Control Centre, Draw neat sketch of Momentary
Push - button Start - Stop Circuit. [10]
b) Explain the LON Bus protocol. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the BACnet protocol in detail. [10]
b) Explain the Modbus protocol with ASCII and RTU transmission mode.[8]
Q9) a) Draw various Regulatory Control Symbols, Analog and Digital Input -
Output Symbols used in HVAC. [8]
b) Define the term Energy Management. Explain various energy measurement
devices in HVAC. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What do you mean Green Building; explain the goals of Green Building.[8]
b) Explain the different features of Central Graphic Operators Workstation. [8]
Q11) a) What is Energy optimization? Explain features and benefits of IBMS. [8]
b) What are subsystems to be included if integrated Home Automation
system is to be design, justify your answer with example. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain BMS verticals for Healthcare, Industry, Hotels, Airport and
Datacenters. [10]
b) What different components are required if Integrated Building
Management System is to be provide for commercial building. [6]
tttt
[4264]-577 2
P1035 [4264]-513
B.E. (Electrical)
INDUSTRIAL DRIVES & CONTROL
4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw basic block diagram of electric drive and explain function of each
block. [8]
b) Explain four quadrant operation of drive with example of hoist. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What is steady state stability of drive? Explain with suitable example.[8]
b) A motor develops a torque by the relationship Tm = a + b, where a and
b are positive constants. This motor is used to drive a load whose torque
is expressed as TL = c2 + d, where c and d are positive constants. The
total inertia of the rotating masses is J. Calculate the equilibrium operating
speed? Will the drive be stable at this operating point? [8]
Q3) a) What are advantages of electric braking over mechanical braking? [4]
b) Explain Regenerative braking of dc shunt motor. Draw speed torque
characteristic and explain its advantages. [8]
c) A 230V 870 rpm 100 A separately excited dc motor has an armature
resistance of 0.05 ohm. It is coupled to an overhauling load with load
torque of 400 N-m. Determine the speed at which motor can hold the
load by regenerative braking. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Explain DC dynamic braking of 3 phase induction motor with circuit and
characteristic. [8]
P.T.O.
b) A 3 phase, 440 V, 50 Hz, 6 pole, star connected induction motor has
following parameters referred to stator. R s : 0.5 , R r = 0.6 ;
Xs=Xr = 1
Stator to rotor turns ratio is 2. If the motor is used for the regenerative
braking,
Determine
i) Maximum overhauling torque it can hold and the range of the speed
in which it can safely operate.
ii) The speed at which it will hold a load with a load torque of 160 N-m.
[10]
Q5) a) Explain with neat circuit diagram 3 phase fully controlled converter fed
separately excited dc motor drive. Draw output voltage and current
waveform. Explain switching sequence of devices. [8]
b) A 220 V, 1500 rpm, 10 A separately excited dc motor is fed from single
phase fully controlled rectifier with an ac source voltage of 230 V, 50 Hz,
Ra = 2 , Assume continuous conduction. Calculate firing angle for
i) half the rated motor torque and 500 rpm
ii) rated motor torque and (1000) rpm.
[8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain chopper fed dc series motor drive. [8]
b) Explain with block diagram the operation of a closed loop speed control
scheme with inner current control loop. Also explain function of each
block. How control below and above speed is obtained. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Compare stator voltage control of three phase induction motor with V/f
control. [8]
b) A star connected squirrel cage induction motor has following ratings and
parameters; 400 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole, 1370 rpm, Rs = 2 , Rr = 3 ,
Xs =Xr = 3,5 , Xm = 55 It is controlled by a current source inverter
at a constant flux. Calculate motor torque and stator current when
operating at 30 Hz and rated slip speed. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain operation of variable frequency control of three phase induction
motor. What happens when it is operated from PWM fed inverter instead
of six step inverter to its performance? [8]
[4264]- 513 2
b) Explain static Kramer drive. [8]
Q9) a) What are different ways of energy savings in electric motor drives? How
energy can be saved during starting and braking operation. [8]
b) Explain effect of harmonic current on operation of motor, size of motor
and power of motor. [8]
OR
Q10) a) How variable speed drives can be useful in energy saving of pumps.[8]
b) What are different criterions for selection of motor. [8]
Q11) Write short notes on any three [18]

a) Vector control of Induction motor.
b) Application of drive in Sugar mill
c) Application of drive in Textile mill
d) Application of drive in machine tool application
e) BLDC Motor
tttt
[4264]- 513 3
P1105 [4264]-402
B.E. (Civil)
DAMS & HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts and steam tables is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the different types of arch dams? Explain with the help of a
neat sketch variable radius arch dam. [4]
b) Write briefly on : [8]
i) Inspection of dams
ii) Dam instrumentation
c) What are the factors that govern the selection of site for a dam
construction? [4]
OR
Q2) a) Explain - classification of the dams according to the hydraulic conditions,
use and materials used for dam construction. [8]
b) What is economic height of dam and how it is determined? [4]
c) Explain method of strengthening of dams. [4]
Q3) a) Check the stability of a gravity dam 35m high. Water stands on the
upstream side of dam of triangular section upto its full height. The base
width of the dam is 20m. Assume
i) Specific weight of dam material = 24 kN/m3
ii) Coefficient of friction between base and foundation = 0.8.
iii) Sheat strength, q = 1200 kN/m2 [12]
b) Write a note on galleries in a gravity dam with respect to location, size,
shape and function. [6]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Differentiate between low and high gravity dam and derive an equation
for limiting height of gravity dam. [6]
b) Enumerate the forces acting on a gravity dam. Explain the load
combinations as specified by Bureau of Indian Standards. [6]
c) Explain curtain grouting and consolidation grouting. [6]
Q5) a) Enumerate the two different methods which are adopted for constructing
earthen dams. [4]
b) Briefly discuss the checks that are required to be made to investigate the
stability of an earthen dam [8]
c) What are the causes of failure of earth dam. [4]
OR
Q6) a) Explain swedish slip circle method of stability analysis of earth dam.[8]
b) Write short notes on any three of the following : [8]
i) Rock toe,
ii) Chimney drain,
iii) Relief well
iv) Cut - off ,
v) Horizontal drainage blanket.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain any one type of spillway gate with the help of neat sketch. [6]
b) Write two differences between each of the following : [4]
i) Weirs - Barrages
ii) Piping - Uplift (or Undermining; both are reasons for failure of a
floor due to subsurface water flow)
c) Explain creep theories by Bligh and lane for the hydraulic design of weir
on a permeable foundation. State advantages of Khoslas theory over
these theories. Draw relevant sketches. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Draw three simple profiles considered by Khosla for determining the
uplift pressures at the key points for floor of a weir. Briefly explain the
corrections to be applied for obtaining these pressures accurately for a
complex (actual) weir profile. [6]
b) Explain Blighs creep theory with the help of neat sketch. State
two limitations of Blighs theory for design of impervious floor. [4]
c) What is meant by diversion head - work? State four purposes of such
works. Explain any three essential components of a typical diversion
head- work with sketch/sketches. [8]
[4264]- 402 2
Q9) a) Write notes on : [8]
i) Types (classification) of canals
ii) Types of canal falls
b) Check whether following canal parameters conform to Kennedys Theory
of canal design : [8]
Full supply discharge = 45 m3/s
Full slope depth = 1.8 m
Bed slope of channel = 1 in 4500
Side slopes = 1 H : 2 V
Bed width = 30 m
Critical Velocity Ratio = 1.17
Mannings constant N (or n) = 0.0225
OR
Q10) a) Write notes on : [8]
i) Laceys theory for design of alluvial canals.
ii) Losses in irrigation canals
b) What is meant by Cross Drainage (CD) Works? State the types of CD
works and explain any one with the help of neat sketch/sketches. [8]
Q11) a) Give the classification of hydropower plants based on different criteria.

Explain any one type with neat sketches. [8]
b) Write notes on : [8]
i) Necessity of river bank protection and types of work for such
protection.
ii) Spurs or Groynes as types of river training works.
OR
Q12) a) Explain clearly the term assessment of power potential of a hydropower
plant. Why is it necessary? [8]
b) Draw neat sketches and explain the types of guide banks for river
training works. [8]
tttt
[4264]- 402 3
P1107 [4264]-404
B.E. (Civil)
STRUCTURAL DESIGN OF BRIDGES
1) Answer Que. 1 or Que. 2, Que. 3 or Que. 4, Que. 5 or Que. 6 from Section - I and
Answer Que. 7 or Que. 8, Que. 9 or Que. 10 and Que. 11 or Que. 12 from Section - II.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary & mention it.
6) Use of cell phones is prohibited in examination hall.
7) Use of Non - programmable Electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
8) Use of I.S. 456, I.S. 800, I.S. 875, I.S. 1343 & Steel table is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Give the Classification of bridges according to material used for
Construction and forms of Super structure. [8]
b) Explain the various loads considered in the Design of highway bridges.[8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Pigeauds Method for the analysis of deck slab. [8]
b) Explain Role of Impact factor in the design of Highway Bridge & how it
is Calculated. [8]
Q3) Design an interior panel of a R.C.C T - beam deck slab bridge for a two lane
highway with following data. [18]
a) Span of bridge = 27 m
b) Foot path on either side = 1.2 m
c) Width of carriage way = 7.5 m
d) Three longitudinal girders are provided at 3.3 m c/c
e) Cross girder spacing = 3.0 m c/c
f) Thickness of wearing coat = 75 mm
g) Loading IRC class AA tracked vehicles.
h) Use m1 = 0.038 and m2 = 0.031 for D.L and
m1 = 0.08 and m2 = 0.059 for L.L
Use M30 and Fe 415, Sketch the Details of Reinforcement.
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) The following Data is referred for Proposed Highway Bridge. [18]
a) Span of bridge 30 m
b) Width of carriage way 7.5 m
c) Width of foot path on either side 1.2 m
d) Spacing of Main girder = 3 m c/c.
e) Spacing of cross - girders = 5 m c/c
f) Material M40 & High tensile steel strands with loss ratio 0.85. Design the
intermediate Post tensioned pre - stressed main girder.
Q5) a) Design the cantilever of R.C.C T beam Deck Bridge for Que 3
above & Draw the details of Reinforcement. [10]
b) Explain economic span of highway bridge. [6]
OR
Q6) Design an electrometric pad bearing for following data. [16]
a) Span of main girder = 20 m
b) Live load on bearing = 900 kN
c) Dead load on bearing = 350 kN
d) Longitudinal frictional force on bearing = 45 kN
e) Rotation on bearing = 0.0025 rad
f) Concrete grade M 30
g) Shear Strain = 5 104
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain in brief the various forces acting on Railway Bridge. [8]
b) Classify railway steel bridges according to cross section, span and type
of connection. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in brief arrangement of deck & through type truss girder bridges
with sketches. [8]
b) Explain in brief dynamic effect & impact effect for the design of railway
truss steel bridges. [4]
c) Describe Hudsons formula. [4]
[4264]- 404 2
Q9) A truss girder through type railway steel bridge consist of two pratt trusses
as shown in fig (1) the span of truss in 32 m c/c of bearings, the bridge
supports EUDL of 100 kN/m the D.L transmitted to each truss including self
wt is 20 kN/m. Considering impact factor as 0.35 Design member U3U4 and
U3L4. Spacing of truss is 6.00 m and height of truss is 5.00 m [18]
OR
Q10) Using channel section, design the members U2 U3, U2 L3, U3 L3 for the
railway truss bridge if height of truss is 6.00 m shown in fig (2) also draw the
neat sketch of connection details of joint U3. [18]
a) weight of stock rail 0.68 kN/m.
b) Weight of check rail 0.48 kN/m
c) Timber Sleeper of size 0.25 0.25 2.5 m @ 0.45 m c/c
d) Unit weight of timber 7.6 kN/m3
e) Spacing of truss - 6.00 m c/c.
f) The bridge supports a EUDL of 2950 kN.
Q11) Design the rocker bearing for 30 m span truss girder Railway Bridge with
following data.
The reaction due to D.L, L.L & Impact load is 1500 kN, Vertical reaction
due to overturning effect of wind at each end of girder is 120 kN. The lateral
load due to wind effect of each bearing is 60 kN. The tractive force and
braking force are 981 kN and 686 kN respectively. [16]
OR
[4264]- 404 3
Q12) Design the top & bottom lateral bracing for the through type truss girder
railway steel bridge for single B.G track as shown in fig (1) the height of
girder between C.G to C.G of chord member is 6.0 m the spacing between
main girder is 7.0 m the rail is 800 mm above the C.G of bottom chord. The
chord members are 600 mm deep and 650 mm wide. The end post is 600
mm deep and 660 mm wide. The Inner web members are 600 mm deep &
600 mm wide. [16]
tttt
[4264]- 404 4
P1108 [4264]-405
B.E. (Civil)
SYSTEMS APPROACH IN CIVIL ENGG.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Maximize Z = 2x1 + 3x2 + 4x3 [12]
S.t. 3x1 + x2 + 4x3 < 600
2x1 + 4x2 + 2x3 > 480
2x1 + 3x2 + 3x3 = 540
x1, x2, x3 > 0 Use Big - M method
b) Explain the significance of sensitivity analysis in L.P.P. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Solve the problem in Q.1 above by Two - Phase Method. [12]
b) Explain the following terms : [4]
i) Artificial variables,
ii) Slack variables,
iii) Surplus variables
Q3) The following table gives the unit cost of transporting coarse aggregates
from three crushing plants to four sites. The quantity of aggregates available
at the plants and that required at the work sites are indicated below. [18 ]
Plants Sites Quantity

1 2 3 4 Available
A 13 7 19 0 200
B 17 18 15 7 500
C 11 22 14 5 300
Demand 180 320 100 500
a) Find initial feasible solution by VAM

b) Find the optimal solution which will minimize the distribution policy.
OR P.T.O.
Q4) a) Five contractors have submitted their bids for 5 projects. Contractor A
and C has not bid for project 3 and 4 resp. Find the optimal assignment
for minimum cost, if the cost bid by each contractor for the projects is
given below in crore rupees. [12]
Projects
Contractors
1 2 3 4 5
A 7 7 - 4 6
B 9 6 4 5 6
C 11 5 11 - 5
D 9 4 8 9 4
E 8 7 9 11 3
b) What is degeneracy in transportation problem? How is it resolved? [6]
Q5) In an irrigation project, 6 million m3 of water is to be allotted to 3 irrigation

districts. The net returns depending upon the quantity of water supplied are
given below. Using dynamic programming; [16]
a) Determine the allotment of water to each district so that the returns are
maximum. Write the recursive equation at each stage.
b) If Quantity available is only 4 million m3, then suggest the distribution
policy.
Quantity of water Returns from Districts

in million m3 1 2 3
0 0 0 0
1 5 6 4
2 9 11 9
3 14 15 13
4 17 19 18
5 21 22 20
6 25 26 23
OR
[4264]- 405 2
Q6) a) Explain a the Bellmans principle of optimality. [4]
b) A pipe line is to be laid from point 1 to point 8. The unit cost of laying the
pipeline considering various routes from place i to place j are given below.
Use dynamic programming to find the route which will be cheapest. [12]
From i to j 1-2 1-3 1-4 2-5 2-6 3-6 3-7 4-7 5-8 6-8 7-8
Unit Cost in
Thousand 6 5 6 8 4 9 10 7 6 3 5
of Rupees
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Maximize f(X) = 6X1 - 2X12 + 4X 2 - 2X 22 - 2X1X 2 with initial value (1, 1) using
gradient method. [8]
b) Use Lagrange Multiplier Technique to Minimize Z = 5X1 + X2 - (X1 - X2)2
Subject to X1 + X2 = 4,
And X1, X2 > 0 [8]
OR
Q8) a) Maximize f(X) = 6X1 2X12 + 4X 2 2X 22 2X1X 2 with initial value (1, 1) using
gradient method. [8]
b) Use Fibonacci method to maximize Z = X3(12 - X) in the range of
(0, 12) with 10% accuracy. Carry out five stages. [8]
Q9) a) A workshop has six machines A,B,C,D,E, and F. Two jobs have to be
processes through each of these machines. The processing time on each
machine and technological sequence of jobs is given below : [12]
Job 1 : A o C o D o B o E o F
Job 2 : A o C o B o D o F o E
jobs A B C D E F
job 1 20 30 10 10 25 15
job 2 10 15 30 10 20 15
In which order should the jobs be done on each of the machines to
minimize the total time required to process the jobs? Solve graphically,
Also find the idle times.
b) What is sequencing? What are the assumptions in sequencing problem?[4]
[4264]- 405 3
OR
Q10) a) A sample of 200 arrivals of customers in a super - market is according to
the following distribution; [12]
Time between
0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5
arrivals in Min
Frequency 4 12 22 48 38 28 22 12 8 4 2
The time taken for service, follows the distribution;
Time in Min. 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
Frequency 12 18 38 60 32 16 14 10
Estimate the average % waiting time and idle time of a customer by
simulation for next 10 arrivals. Use the following random numbers.
Arrivals : 9, 73, 25, 33, 76, 53, 01, 35, 86, 34
Service : 54, 20, 48, 05, 64, 89, 47, 42, 96, 24
b) What are practical applications of simulation for civil engineering. [4]
Q11) a) Explain theory of replacement and list the applications of replacement

model. [6]
b) The purchase price of a machine is Rs. 52,000. The installation charges
amount to Rs. 15000 and its scrap value is only Rs. 6500. The
maintenance cost in various years is given below; [12]
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Maintenance cost 1000 3000 4000 6000 8400 11600 16000 19200
After how many years should the machine is replaced? Assume that the
machine replacement can be done only at the year ends.
OR
Q12) a) What do you understand by strategy, dominance and saddle point? [6]
b) Solve the following game by using the principle of dominance : [12]
Player B
Strategies I II III IV V VI
1 4 2 0 2 1 1
2 4 3 1 3 2 2
Player A
3 4 3 7 -5 1 2
4 4 3 4 -1 2 2
5 4 3 3 -2 2 2
tttt
[4264]- 405 4
P1109 [4264]-406
B.E. (Civil)
AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL
1) Solve Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6 from section I and Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10,
Q.11 or Q.12 from section II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the concept of plume rise. What are the factors considered in
calculating plume rise? Write any two formulae for calculating plume
rise. [8]
b) Explain the following atmospheric conditions : [8]
i) Sub - adiabatic
ii) Neutral
iii) Isothermal
iv) Superadiabatic
OR
Q2) a) A thermal power plant burns 100 tonnes of coal with 5.5% sulphur
content. Calculate minimum stack height required. The particulate
concentration in flue gases is 8000 mg/m3 and the gas flow rate is 20
m3/sec. [8]
b) What is inversion? Explain in brief radiation and subsidence inversion.[8]
Q3) a) Explain any one method of sampling ambient SOx in detail. [8]
b) Discuss in brief basic considerations in air sampling and air pollution
survey. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain a procedure of an ambient air quality monitoring in detail. [8]
b) What is iso kinetic sampling? Explain with a neat sketch. Why it is
required? [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain following methods of control of odour pollution : [9]
i) Modification of the process
ii) Adsorption and
iii) Chemical oxidation
b) What are the causes of indoor air pollution? Explain. [9]
OR
Q6) a) Explain chemical and physical changes in indoor air quality. [9]
b) Explain about determination of the type and intensity of odours. [9]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain working principle of a cyclone with a neat sketch. Also state
advantages and disadvantages of a cyclone. [8]
b) Design a tubular ESP to treat 10,000 m3/hr of a gaseous stream from a
paper mill for an efficiency of a) 90% b) 99% and c) 99.9%. Assume an
effective migration velocity of 0.075 m/sec. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Enlist pollutants emitted due to automobiles. Explain any two methods
of control of automobile emission. [8]
b) Explain the principle of scrubber with a neat sketch. What are the
advantages and disadvantages of scrubber? [8]
Q9) a) Write emission standards for stationary and mobile sources of air
pollution. [8]
b) Explain the important provisions made in The Air(Prevention and Control
of pollution) Act 1981. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Consider breeze from west and explain land use planning to control air
pollution with a neat sketch. [8]
b) Explain economics of air pollution control with an example. [8]
Q11) a) Explain the methodology for preparing Environmental Impact Assessment

of Thermal Power Plant. [9]
b) Discuss the role of regulatory agencies and control boards in obtaining
environmental clearance for project. [9]
OR
Q12) a) Explain method of Environmental Impact Assessment. [9]
b) Discuss the Environmental Rules 1999 for sitting of industries. [9]
tttt
[4264]- 406 2
P1110 [4264]-407
B.E. (Civil)
ARCHITECTURE AND TOWN PLANNING
1) Attempt Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6 from section I. and Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or
Q.10, Q.11 or Q.12 from section - II.
2) Use separate answersheets for section - I and section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain how the principles of architecture and composition support for
Quality of architecture. [8]
b) Elaborate the importance of creating and conserving the water bodies
in todays context. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Integration is an important aspect of any activity. Explain the thought
in the view of planner. [8]
b) What are the objectives of Landscaping? Explain in detail any one type
of garden style. [8]
Q3) a) What is the need of Built Environment? Elaborate the concept giving
suitable example. [8]
b) Effectivity of urban areas is based on the design of urban areas.
Explain. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Byelaws enrich the spaces How? Give a suitable example from your
area. [8]
b) The Quality of life is one way dependant on livebility created because of
renewal of the areas. Elaborate & explain. [8]
Q5) a) What are the advantages of sustainable materials? [6]

b) Explain in detail any one sustainable technology. [6]
c) Elaborate the green building concept. [6]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Sustainable materials use benefit the construction. Support the
statement, you being a builder. [6]
b) State different rating systems and explain the details of any one of the
same. [6]
c) Give the details of any case study of a commercial building which is
rated. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Write a short note on Growth of towns. [6]
b) Explain the concept of new towns by giving a suitable example. [6]
c) Write a short note on Sir Ebenzar Howard s contribution in planning.[6]
OR
Q8) a) Write notes on [6]
i) Ribbon development
ii) Concentric development
b) Write a note on TP schemes. [6]
c) Write a note on Role of Neighborhood in urban development. [6]
Q9) a) Write a note on [8]

i) Surveys for D.P.
ii) Traffic Management
b) Explain the legislative support through MRTP Act. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Write a note on special planning agencies & the work carried out. [8]
b) Write a note on Levels in planning and common threads for them. [8]
Q11) a) Write a note on UDPFI Guidelines. [8]

b) Write a note on Remote sensing technique and its application in Town
planning. [8]
OR
Q12) a) What is SEZ? Explain various aspects for SEZ promotion in specific
areas. [8]
b) Elaborate GIS & GPS utility for development of any area. [8]
tttt
[4264]- 407 2
P1111 [4264]-408
B.E. (Civil)
ADVANCED GEOTECHNICAL ENGG.
(Semester - I) (Elective - I) (2008 Pattern)
5) Use of logarithmic tables electronic pocket calculator is allowed & IS codes are not
allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain the following:
a) Textural classification. [4]
b) HRB classification. [4]
c) USCS classification. [4]
d) Clay minerals. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Compare the following two sites, for foundation construction, [9]
Site A Site B
i) PL 18% 21%
ii) LL 35% 57%
iii) IF 15 09
iv) %W 35% 43%
and state which sites soil is
1) More plastic
2) Better foundation material
3) Better shear strength
4) Toughness Index.
b) Enlist different Clay minerals & explain the role of Montmorillonite.[7]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) A vertical retaining wall 5 m. high, supported a backfill with horizontal
ground surface. The soil has = 18 kN/m3, = 35, = 20. A footing
running parallel to the retaining wall & carrying a load intensity of 18 kN/
m, is to be constructed. Find the safe distance of the footing from the
face of the wall, so that there is no increase in lateral pressure on the wall
due to the load of footing. [10]
b) While digging for foundation, A vertical excavation in clay deposit caved
in after reaching 4 m depth. Assuming = 20 kN/m3, = 0, determine
the value of cohesion. If the same clay is used as back fill for the retaining
wall upto a height of 8.5m. Calculate [7]
i) TEP (active)
ii) TEP (passive)
OR
Q4) a) Design a gravity retaining wall, 6 m. high with vertical back to retain a dry
sand with = 18 kN/m3 & = 30. Find also the FOS against sliding
assuming = 30. The wall is made up of bricks with = 20 kN/m3 &
top width 1 m, Use Rankines theory. [9]
b) Compute the embedment depth & pull in the anchor rod for the sheet
pile, retaining 6 m. high backfill, with anchor rod 1 m. below the top. The
back fill soil & the soil below D.L. is same, having following properties,
= 1 = 30, C = 0 , sat = 22 kN/m3, = 18 kN/m3, GWT = 3 m above
D.L. Use Free earth support method. [8]
Q5) a) Explain the different types of Geosynthetics, along with functions. [6]
b) Discuss the properties & functional requirements of geogrid. [6]
c) Discuss the applications of Geosynthetics in geoenvironment. [5]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss Binquet & Lee theory for reinforced soil foundations. [6]
b) Draw a sketch of Reinforced earth wall & explain its components. [6]
c) What is soil nailing? Under which situations its applicable? [5]
SECTION - II
Q7) Explain the following :
a) Forced vibrations. [4]
b) Brakens method. [4]
c) Pauws Analysis. [4]
d) Elastic half space method. [4]
OR
[4264]- 408 2
Q8) a) Resonance occurred at a frequency of 22 cycles/second, in a vertical
block vibration test of block 1 m 1 m 1m. Determine Cu if the weight
of oscillator is 620 N & the force produced by it at 12 cycles / sec is
1000 N. [8]
b) Discuss the design criteria for impact type machines as per IS - 2974
(pt - II) - 1966. [8]
Q9) Explain the following:

a) Bored compaction piles. [4]
b) Sand drains. [4]
c) Grouting. [4]
d) Vibroflotation. [5]
OR
Q10) a) A clay layer 5 m thick is consolidated with the help of sand drains of dia
30 cm & spaced at 2.7 M C/C. Determine the influence of the drain wells
on the Av. degree of consolidation at the time when the degree of
consolidation in the clay without wells would be 20%.
The drain wells may be arranged in a square pattern, with following data,
[9]
i) Kr = Kz
ii) for Uz = 20%, Tv = 0.031
b) Explain the stages of inserting reinforcement in vibro - expanded pile.[8]
Q11) Discuss the following,

a) Saint - Venants model. [4]
b) Reisseners model. [4]
c) Binghams model. [4]
d) Rheological models & its utility. [5]
OR
Q12) a) Discuss the basic & composite Rheological models. [7]
b) Explain secondary consolidation with the help of Rheological model.[5]
c) Explain creep with the help of Rheological model. [5]
tttt
[4264]- 408 3
P1115 [4264]-432
B.E. (Mechanical) (Common to Mechanical Sandwich)

DYNAMICS OF MACHINERY
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What do you mean by primary & secondary unbalance in reciprocating
engines? [6]
b) Four masses A,B,C & D are completely balanced masses C & D makes
angles of 90 & 210 respectively with B in the same sense. The planes
containing B & C are 300 mm apart. masses A, B, C & D can be assumed
to be concentrated at radil of 360, 480, 240 & 300 mm respectively. The
masses B,C & D are 15 kg, 25 kg & 20 kg respectively. [12]
Determine the
i) Mass A & its angular position.
ii) Positions of planes A & D.
OR
Q2) a) The six - cylinder of a single acting two stroke diesel engine are pitched
1 m apart and the cranks are spaced at 60 intervals. The crank length is
300 mm and the ratio of C.R. length to crank radius is 4.5. The reciprocating
mass per line is 1350 kg & the rotating mass is 1000 kg. The speed is 200
rpm. Show with regard to primary & secondary balance that the firing
order 1 - 5 - 3 - 6 - 2 - 4 gives balance in primary moment only & the order
1 - 4 - 5 - 2 - 3 - 6 gives secondary moment unbalance only. [14]
b) Explain partialy primary balancing in reciprocating engine. [4]
Q3) a) Explain what are free, damped & forced vibrations? [4]
b) What is logarithmic decrement? Derive the relations. [6]
P.T.O.
c) A spring mass system has spring constant of K kg/cm of the weight of mass
W kg. It has natural frequency of vibration as 12 cps. An extra 2 kg weight is
coupled to W & natural frequency reducer by 2 cps. Find K & W. [6]
OR
Q4) a) In a spring mass - damped system, m = 10 kg, k = 16 kN/m & c = 1600
N - s/m. The mass is displaced 0.1 m & released with a velocity of 2 m/
sec. in the direction of return motion. Find : [12]
i) The circular frequency
ii) Damping factor
iii) Displacement after 1/ 100 sec.
b) Define the following terms [4]
i) Critically damping coefficient
ii) Damping coefficient
iii) Damping factor
iv) Coloumb damping
Q5) A machine weighing 100 kg is supported on 4 - springs. It has 80 mm stroke

& it runs at 1000 rpm. If the springs are symmetrically placed with respect to
C.G. of the machine, neglecting damping. Determine the combined stiffness
of the spring such that the force transmitted to the foundation is 1/25 times
the impressed force. [16]
If it is found that the damping, however small, reduces the amplitude of
successive vibrations by 25%, determine.
a) The force transmitted to foundation at 1000 rpm.
b) The force transmitted to foundation at resonance.
c) The amplitude of vibration at resonance, if weight of the reciprocating

parts is 2 kg.
OR
Q6) a) Explain frequency response curve & phase frequency curve. [6]
b) Explain the following terms. [6]
i) Vibration Isolation
ii) Force transmissibility
c) Explain the term magnification factor & obtain expression for it. [4]
[4264]- 432 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Determine the natural frequencies of the system shown in figure [10]
Given : K1 = K2 = 40 N/m
K = 60 N/m
m1 = m2 = 10 kg
b) Explain the torsional vibrations of a geared system by [8]

i) neglecting inertia of gears &
ii) Considering inertia of gears.
OR
Q8) a) Explain Dunkerleys method to determine the natural frequency of shaft
carrying number of point loads. [4]
b) Explain the concept of torsionally equivalent shaft. [4]
c) A rotor of 10 kg mass is mounted midway on a 2 cm diameter, horizontal
shaft supported at the ends by two bearings. The bearing span is 80 cm,
because of certain manufacturing defect, the centre of gravity of the rotor
is 0.01 mm away from its geometric centre. If the system rotates at 3000
rpm, determine the amplitude of the steady. state vibration and dynamic
force transmitted to the bearing. Take E = 2 9.81 1010 N/m2 [10]
Q9) a) Derive an equation which gives the relation between sound intensity level
and sound pressure level. [6]
b) Explain in brief the following terms : [6]
i) Sound power level
ii) Sound intensity level
iii) Sound pressure level
iv) Sound reflection coefficient
v) Sound absorption coefficient
vi) Sound transmission coefficient
c) Determine the maximum pressure of a sound with a sound pressure level
of 112 dB. [4]
[4264]- 432 3
OR
Q10) a) Show that as the distance from a point source doubles, the sound intensity
level decreases by 6 dB. Assume that sound propagates in the form of
spherical waves. [6]
b) What are the various types of sound fields in the vicinity of a sound
source? Explain. [4]
c) When operating independently in the presence of back ground noise,
measurement at a given location of the sound pressure level for machines
1, 2 & 3 are respectively 88 dB, 90 dB, & 87 dB. When the machines are
turned off, the sound pressure level at the same point is 86 dB. Determine
the overall sound pressure level (SPL) of the three machines independent
of the background noise. [6]
Q11) a) A vibrometer, having the amplitude of vibration of the machine part as

4 mm and damping factor ( ) = 0.2, performs harmonic motion. If the
difference between the maximum and minimum recorded values is
10 mm, determine the natural frequency of vibrometer if the frequency
of vibration part is 12 rad/sec. [6]
b) Explain with neat sketch the working principle of a centrifugal pendulum
absorber. [6]
c) Describe the various sources of noise. [4]
OR
Q12) Write a short note on any four, [16]
a) Sound level meter.
b) Frequency measuring instruments.
c) Condenser microphone.
d) FFT spectrum analyzer.
e) Noise control at the source.
f) Vibration isolators.
tttt
[4264]- 432 4
P1117 [4264]-434
B.E. (Mechanical)
ENERGY AUDIT AND MANAGEMENT
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - I) (Sem. - I)
2) Solve questions 1 or 2, 3 or 4, 5 or 6 from Section-I and 7 or 8, 9 or 10, 11 or 12 from
Section-II.
and steam tables and time value of money factor table is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the principles of energy management and need of managerial
skills in energy management? [8]
b) Discuss different aspects of Energy Policy and strategy in Energy
conservation systems. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the need of Renewable energy sources and how do an Industry,
nation and globe would benefit from energy efficiency? [8]
b) List all the requirements of energy action planning? [8]
Q3) a) Give a typical energy audit reporting format? [8]

b) Write in brief the ten steps to be carried out in Detailed Energy Audit?[8]
OR
Q4) a) With the help of different examples elaborate the importance of Analysis
and Recommendations of Energy Audit? [8]
b) Write various energy conservation opportunities in Furnace and DG sets. [8]
Q5) a) Illustrate the need of Financial analysis and explain the method of Simple
Payback Period, its advantages and disadvantages? [8]
b) Differentiate between Returns on Investment (ROI) and Internal rate of
return (IRR)? [4]
P.T.O.
c) What is the NPV of a project, (life 2 years) which requires an investment
of Rs. 50000 and yield Rs. 30000 in the 1st year and Rs. 40000/- in the
next year, if the Interest rate is 10%. [6]
OR
Q6) a) What is Time value of money and Net present value? [8]
b) Referring to different types of cash flows explain Sensitivity and Risk
analysis? [4]
c) Explain Internal Rate of Return (IRR). What are advantages and
disadvantages of IRR? [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) List different types of Steam traps and explain any one of them with neat
sketch? [8]
b) Explain the opportunities for improving an energy efficiency in the boiler.
[8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain merit and demerits for Direct and Indirect methods used for
calculating Boiler Efficiency? [8]
b) Find the furnace efficiency required to melt one ton of steel from ambient
temperature of 30C. Following data is given : Specific heat of steel =
0.682 kJ/kg/C, Latent heat for melting of steel = 272 kJ/kg, Melting
point of steel = 1650C. The melting furnace consumed 625 kWh to
melt one ton of steel. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the energy saving opportunities in Electrical systems? [8]

b) Explain the selection and location of transformer for improving power
factor. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss various factors which constitutes the billing amount for a medium
scale industry. [8]
b) Highlight various ways of how the light can be controlled efficiently in a
facility? [8]
Q11) a) Describe suitable factors influencing selection of cogeneration plant?[8]

b) What are the direct and indirect benefits of waste heat recovery? [6]
c) How does a shell and tube heat exchanger work? Give typical examples.
[4]
OR
[4264]- 434 2
Q12) a) Define Waste Heat Recovery? Describe its benefits and potentials of
savings in Industry? [8]
b) Write short notes on [6]
i) CDM projects and
ii) Carbon credit calculations
c) How does a plate heat exchanger work? Give typical examples. [4]
tttt
[4264]- 434 3
P1118 [4264]-437
B.E. (Mechanical)
TRIBOLOGY
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Explain any three modes of lubrication. [6]
b) Explain different types of additives used to improve the properties of
lubricating oils. [6]
c) State the desirable properties of lubricating oils. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Write a note on Effect of Temperature on Viscosity. [6]
b) State the importance of recycling of used oils. Explain various method
of disposal of used oils. [6]
c) Explain the following terms in short. [4]
i) Kinematic Viscosity
ii) Absolute viscosity
iii) Viscosity Index
iv) SUS
Unit - II
Q3) a) Explain the method of friction measurement by pin - on - disk apparatus. [4]
b) Write short notes on - [12]
i) Stick - slip phenomenon
ii) Modified Adhesion theory of friction
iii) Tomlinson theory of molecular attraction
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What are the factors affecting wear rate [4]
b) Write short notes on - [12]
i) Fretting
ii) Erosive wear
iii) Archards wear theory
Unit - III
Q5) a) Derive the two dimensional Reynolds equation for hydrodynamic
lubrication. Also state the assumptions in derivation. [12]
b) State and explain any three parameters to be considered in hydrodynamic
journal bearing design. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Derive the equation for pressure distribution and load carrying capacity
of infinite width tapered pad bearing. [12]
b) List different types of Hydrodynamic thrust bearing. Explain in short
tilting pad thrust bearing. [6]
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) Derive the equation for flow rate and pressure distribution in hydrostatic
step bearing. What are the assumptions made? [8]
b) The following data is given for the hydrostatic step bearing : [10]
Thrust load = 450 kN
Shaft Speed = 750 RPM
Shaft Diameter = 400 mm
Recess Diameter = 250 mm
Viscosity of the lubricant = 30 cP
Specific gravity of lubricant = 0.86
Specific heat of lubricant = 2 kJ/kgC
Calculate :
i) The optimum oil film thickness for minimum power loss;
ii) The frictional power loss
iii) The pumping power loss
iv) Total power loss
v) The temperature rise; assuming the total power loss in the bearing
is converted into the frictional heat.
OR
[4264]- 437 2
Q8) a) Derive an equation for load - carrying capacity for given instantaneous
velocity of approach and film thickness in case of rectangular plate
approaching a plane. [8]
b) A plate of 25 mm length and infinite width is separated from the plane by an oil
film of 25 m thickness and having viscosity of 0.05 N-s/m2. If the normal
load per unit width of 20 kN/m is applied on the plate, determine : [6]
i) The time required to reduce the film thickness to 2.5 m
ii) The maximum pressure.
c) Give the examples of squeeze film action. [4]
Unit - V
Q9) a) What are applications of Elastohydradynamic lubrication? [6]
b) What is the purpose of providing oil grooves in bearings? Explain different
types of grooves in bearings. [6]
c) Give advantages and limitations of gas lubricated bearings. [4]
OR
Q10) a) Write short notes on any two of the following : [8]
i) Lubricants used in cold metal working
ii) Lubricants used in hot metal working
iii) Gaskets
b) What are the desirable properties of bearing materials? [4]
c) Explain Hertz theory of elasto - hydrodynamic lubrication. [4]
Unit - VI
Q11) a) Explain in detail the techniques used for surface measurement. [6]
b) Give the classification of surface engineering processes. [4]
c) Explain in detail concept and structure of Superficial layers. [6]
OR
Q12) a) Explain general characteristics of superficial layers. [6]
b) Explain in detail Cladded Coating technique. [6]
c) What is plasma arc spraying? How it differs from the flame spraying?[4]
tttt
[4264]- 437 3

[4264] - 440
B.E. (Mechanical)
QUANTITATIVE AND DECISION MAKING TECHNIQUES
(Semester - I) (2008 Pattern) (Elective - II) (Theory)
1) All the questions are compulsory.
2) Two separate answer books are used for Section I and Section II.
4) Use of calculator is permitted.
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Explain : [6]
i) Pure and Mixed Strategies
ii) Dominance Rules
b) Solve the following 2 x 5 game by graphical method and find the optimum
strategies and value of game. [10]
Player B
1 2 3 4 5
1 5 5 0 1 8
Player A 2 8 4 1 6 5
OR
Q2) a) Define Operations Research. Describe briefly its functions. [6]
b) Solve the following 4 x 4 game using dominance property. [10]
Player B
1 2 3 4
1 6 4 8 0
Player A 2 6 8 4 8
3 8 4 8 0
4 0 8 0 16
P.T.O.
Unit - II
Q3) a) Define following terms of Linear Programming [6]
i) Degenerate solution
ii) Optimum basic feasible solution
b) Solve LPP by Suitable Method [10]
Maximize:
Z=2X1 +5X2
Subject to:
X1 + 4X2 < 24
3X1+ X2 < 21
X1+X2 < 9
X1, X2 > 0
OR
Q4) a) Define Linear Programming. Give applications of Linear Programming.[4]
b) A factory has decided to diversify its activities. The data collected for
the sales and production departments are summarized below: [12]
Potential demand exists for two products A and B. Market can absorb
any quantity of A, whereas the share of B for this organization is expected
to be not more than 400 units per month. Contribution per unit of products
A and B is expected to be Rs. 6 and Rs. 8 respectively. These products
require three different processes and the time required per unit of product
is given in the table below :
Process Product A Product B Available
Hours
1 2 3 900
2 1 2 600
3 2 2 1200
Find the product mix to optimize the contribution.
[4264]-440 2
Unit - III
Q5) a) Discuss the traveling salesman problem as an assignment problem with

sub-optimal solution. [6]
b) A company has three production shops supplying a product to five
warehouses. The cost of production varies from shop to shop and so
does the unit transportation cost from shop to warehouse. Each shop
has a specific production capacity and each warehouse has certain amount
of requirement. The unit transportation costs are given below: [12]
Warehouse Capacity
1 2 3 4 5
Shop A 6 4 4 7 5 100
B 5 6 7 4 8 125
C 3 4 6 3 4 175
Demand 60 80 85 105 70
The cost of manufacturing the product at different production shops is
Variable cost (Rs.) Fixed Cost (Rs.)
A 14 7000
Shop B 16 4000
C 15 5000
Find the optimum quantity to be supplied from each shop to different
warehouses at minimum total cost.
OR
Q6) a) Discuss the similarities and differences between the transportation and
assignment problem. [6]
b) A Municipal Corporation has decided to out road repairs on four main
arteries of the city. Municipal Corporation has granted Rs. 50 Lakh for
this work with a condition that the repair must be done at the lowest cost
and quickest time. The Municipal Corporation has floated tenders and
five contractors have sent in their bids. In order to expedite work, one
road will be awarded to only one contractor. [12]
i) Find the best way of assigning the repairs to the contractors and
associated cost.
ii) If it is necessary to seek supplementary grant, what should be the
amount sought.
iii) Which of the five contractors will be unsuccessful in his bid?
[4264]-440 3
Cost of repairs on road (Rs. Lakhs)
1 2 3 4
C1 9 14 19 15
C2 7 17 20 19
Contractors C3 9 18 21 18
C4 10 12 18 19
C5 10 15 21 16
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) Classify Inventory Models. & Define Deterministic Model. [6]

b) Derive the Economic Order Quantity Relation with instantaneous Stock
Replenishment. [10]
OR
Q8) Attempt Any Two : [8]
a) A Manufacturer has to supply his customer 3600 units of his product
per year. Shortages are not permitted. Inventory carrying cost amounts
Rs. 1.2 per unit per annum. The set-up cost per run is Rs. 80.
Find : -
i) Economic order quantity.
ii) Optimum number of orders per annum.
iii) Average annual inventory cost (minimum).
iv) Optimum period of supply per optimum order.
b) A dealer supplies you the following information with regard to a product
dealt - in by him : [8]
Annual demand : 10,000 units
Ordering cost : Rs 10 per order
Inventory carrying cost : 20% of value of inventory per year.
Price : Rs 20 per unit.
The dealer is considering the possibility of allowing some back-order
(stock out) to occur. The dealer has estimated that the annual cost of
back-ordering will be 25% of value of inventory.
[4264]-440 4
i) What should be the optimum number of units of products he should
buy in one lot?
ii) What quantity of product should be allowed to be back ordered, if
any?
iii) What would be the maximum quantity of inventory at any time of
the year?
iv) Would you recommend to allow back-ordering? If so, what would
be the annual cost of saving by adopting the policy of back ordering?
c) Workers come to tool store room to receive special tools for
accomplishing a project. The average time between two arrivals is 60
seconds and the arrivals are in Poisson distribution. The average service
time is 40 seconds. Determine. [8]
i) average queue length.
ii) average length of non-empty queues.
iii) average number of workers in system including the worker being
attended.
iv) mean waiting time of an arrival.
v) average waiting time of an arrival (worker) who waits and.
vi) the type of policy to be established. Determine whether to go in for
an additional tool store room attendant which will minimize the
combined cost of attendants idle time and the cost of workers
waiting time. Charge of worker is Rs. 4 per hour and that of tool
store room attendant is Rs. 0.75 per hour.
Unit - V
Q9) a) ABC company plans to sell an article at a local market. The articles are
purchased at Rs. 5. On the condition that all unsold articles shall be
returned. The rent for the space is Rs 2000. The article will be sold at
Rs 9. Determine the number of articles which must be sold. [8]
i) To break even
ii) To earn Rs. 400 as profit.
iii) If the company sells 750 articles. Calculate margin of safety and
profit.
[4264]-440 5
b) Explain the Payback Period Method. [4]
c) Differentiate between Payback Period Method and IRR Method. [4]
OR
Q10) A manufacturer is offered 2 machines A & B. A has cost of Rs. 2500, its
running cost is Rs. 400 for each of the first 5 years and increases by Rs. 100
every subsequent year. Machine B having the same capacity as A, costs Rs.
1250, has running cost of Rs. 600 for 6 years increasing by Rs. 100 per year
there after. If money is worth 10% per year. Which machine should be
purchased? Scrap value of both machines is negligibly small. [16]
Unit - VI
Q11) The time estimates (in weeks) for activities of a PERT network are given
below. [18]
Activity to tm tp Given that for.
1-2 1 1 7 Z = 1.33; P = 0.9082
1-3 1 4 7 Z = 0.67, P = 0.7486
1-4 2 2 8 Z = 1, P = 0.8413.
2-5 1 1 1
3-5 2 5 14
4-6 2 5 8
5-6 3 6 15
a) Draw the project network and identify all paths through it.
b) Determine the expected project length.
c) Calculate the standard deviation and variance of project length.
d) What is the probability that the project will be completed
i) at least 4 weeks earlier than expected time.
ii) no more than 4 weeks later than expected time.
e) If the project due date is 19 weeks. What is the probability of not meeting
the due date? Completion time is 20 weeks.
f) What should be the scheduled completion time for the probability of
completion to be 90%.
OR
[4264]-440 6
Q12) Write short note on (Any three) : [18]
a) Differentiate PERT and CPM.
b) Types of Floats.
c) Dynamic Programming.
d) Goal Programming.
kbkb
[4264]-440 7
P1121 [4264]-453
B.E. (Mechanical - Sandwich)

REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write a note on Vortex Tube Refrigeration. [6]
b) What is the necessity of air - craft refrigeration? Explain Boot Strap
system with the help of T-S diagram. Mention the function of each
component with the help of a neat sketch. [10]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the concept of DART. [4]
b) With the help of T-S diagram for simple air refrigeration system explain
the following terms. [12]
i) Ram efficiency
ii) Compressor efficiency
iii) Heat exchanger effectiveness
iv) Turbine efficiency
Q3) a) Write a note on desirable properties of refrigerants. [6]

i) Ozone Depletion Potential
ii) Global Warming Potential
iii) TEWI
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Write note on refrigerant recovery, recycling and reclaiming. [6]
b) Discuss the classification of refrigerants used in refrigeration plants. [6]
c) Write a note on Refrigerant Piping and Design [6]
Q5) a) What is the necessity of multi - staging? Explain Cascade system with
the help of a sketch and P-h diagram. [8]
b) Explain two stage compressions with flash gas removal with the help of
a sketch and P-h diagram. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss the desirable properties of absorbent and refrigerant - absorbent
mixture of a vapour absorption system. [8]
b) Explain Electrolux system with a neat sketch. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the role of in - filtration and ventilation load during air - conditioning
of air. [4]
b) Compare : Unitary air conditioning and central air conditioning. [4]
c) Explain the following with hand drawn psychrometric chart [8]
i) ADP
ii) RSHF
iii) ERSHF
iv) GSHF
OR
Q8) a) Write short notes on [10]
i) Automobile air conditioning system
ii) All water system
b) Explain the various industrial applications of air - conditioning. [6]
Q9) a) Write short notes on : [8]

i) Low and high pressure cutoff
ii) Humidi stat
b) Describe any two expansion devices used in refrigeration systems. [8]
OR
[4264]- 453 2
Q10) a) What are the methods for determination of duct size? Explain Static Regain
Method in detail. Also state its advantages over other methods. [8]
b) Prove that the equivalent circular diameter of a rectangular duct is given
by
De = 1.265 {(ab)3/a + b}0.2
Where a and b are longer and shorter sides of a rectangular duct. [8]
Q11) a) Explain the factors which are responsible for the spoiling food and
vegetables? What are the methods for preservation of food and
vegetables? [12]
b) Write a note on Cold Storage. [6]
OR
Q12) a) What is cryogenics? Explain different methods for liquefaction of air.[10]
b) What are the different applications of cryogenics? Discuss in detail. [8]
tttt
[4264]- 453 3
P1123 [4264]-462
B.E. (Production)
MANUFACTURING AUTOMATION
(Semester - I) (2008 Pattern)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain primary functions and quality properties of a hydraulic fluid.[4]
b) Which parameters need to be consider for the analysis of pump
performance. [4]
c) Explain with neat sketch the unbalance variable displacement vane pump
also derive an expression for its flow. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Define filter and strainer and state the guidelines for selection of filters
used in hydraulic circuit. [8]
b) A pump has displacement of 14 cm3/rev. Runs at 2000 rpm. It operates
against a maximum system pressure of 150 bar. The volumetric efficiency
of the pump are 0.90 and 0.80 respectively. Determine [8]
i) Actual flow rate delivered in litre/min
ii) Input power required driving the pump
iii) The drive torque at the pump shaft.
Q3) a) Draw with neat sketch of Fail - safe circuit and explain its features. [8]
b) Explain hydraulic circuit for punching operation using intensifier. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Draw a neat sketch and explain the working of sequencing circuit. [8]
b) With the help of sketches explain different types of actuators with
industrial applications. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) Draw a neat sketch and explain working of (any three) [18]
a) Bridge network
b) Characteristics of meter in and meter out circuit.
c) Regenerative circuit.
d) FRL unit in pneumatic systems.
OR
Q6) a) Draw a pneumatic circuit to actuate the two cylinder in following sequence
[10]
i) Cylinder 1 extend
ii) Cylinder 2 extend
iii) Cylinder 1 retract
iv) Cylinder 2 retract
b) Explain the concept of fluidic logic gates also explain the reciprocating
air compressors with neat sketch. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain pin diagram of 8085 microprocessor. [8]
b) Explain briefly internal architecture of 8085 microprocessor. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Write an assembly program for addition, subtraction of two numbers.[8]
b) State the programming languages used for PLC programming and explain
ladder logic diagram. Also Construct a ladder diagram for following
boolean equations. [8]
i) y = (x1 + x2).(x3 + x4)
ii) y = (x1.x2)
Q9) a) Find the digital word that results from a 3.127 V input to 5 bit ADC with
5 V reference. [8]
b) Draw a ladder diagram to actuate a motor control relay. When the motor
is ON a red lamp glows and when the motor is OFF green lamp
glows. Explain various logic gates used in ladder diagram. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What is meant by PI control? Explain with the help of a diagram the
working of PI control used in machine tools. [8]
[4264]- 462 2
i) Linear feedback control system
ii) Optimal control system
Q11) a) Explain concept of automated transfer lines, also explain the different
system configurations used in automated system. [6]
b) Derive an expression for transfer lines with no internal storage,
performance measure and workstation breakdown analysis. [6]
c) Describe the factors in deciding types of transfer devices to be used in
automated system. [6]
OR
Q12) Short notes on any three : [18]
a) Indexing mechanism.
b) Continuous transfer system.
c) Feeders used in factory automations.
d) Synchronous and non-synchronous material transfer.
tttt
[4264]- 462 3
P1125 [4264]-465
B.E. (Production)
INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Define Robot and with neat sketch explain the robot anatomy. [8]
b) Explain six degrees of freedom associated with the robot manipulator.[8]
OR
Q2) a) The population of robots worldwide is increasing. What are the factors
contributing to this growth? [8]
b) Explain the following terms associated with robot : [8]
i) Accuracy
ii) Robot Work Envelope
iii) Repeatability
iv) Payload.
Unit - II
Q3) a) For the pick and place type of robot, the gripper is initially at location
(60, 50, 80) and the following movements are in sequence. [8]
i) Rotation about x axis by 90
ii) Translation along z by 30 units. Find the position of gripper with
respect to the original system by using transformation matrix method.
b) List the steps involved in DH convention. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the forward kinematics associated with planar 3R manipulator.[8]
P.T.O.
b) For a pick and place type of robot, the link parameters table is given
below :
i i-1 ai-1 di i
1 0 2 0 10
2 60 0 3 0
3 0 0 0 90
Determine the location of the end point of the link 3 with respect to the
base. [8]
Unit - III
Q5) a) Discuss the various considerations in gripper design and selection. [8]
b) With neat sketch explain in detail any two types of gripper mechanisms. [10]
OR
Q6) a) Suppose a stiff cardboard carton weighing 10 kg is held in a gripper
using friction against two opposing fingers as shown in fig. No.1. The
coefficient of friction between the finger contacting surfaces and the
carton surface is 0.25. Assuming a g - factor of 3.0 calculate the required
gripper force. The gripper is to be actuated by a piston device to apply
an actuating force Fa. The corresponding lever arms for the two forces
are shown in fig. Also calculate the actuating force. [8]
b) Describe [10]
i) Vacuum gripper.
ii) Ultrasonic gripper.
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) Explain the concept of low vision and high vision associated with the
robot vision system. [8]
b) With neat sketch explain any two sensors used in robot. [8]
[4264]- 465 2
OR
Q8) a) Explain the major uses of sensors in industrial robotics. [8]
b) The given data represents 8 8 arrays of pixels. Each element in the
array indicates the grey level value of the pixels. [8]
i) Construct histogram for the array and obtain appropriate threshold
value.
ii) Convert the picture into a black and white image. The data is as :
10 11 10 11 12 12 12 12
13 15 17 17 17 17 15 13
14 17 19 19 19 19 18 14
13 17 19 20 20 19 18 13
12 17 19 20 21 19 18 12
12 17 19 19 19 19 18 12
11 15 18 18 18 18 15 11
12 11 10 11 12 12 12 12
Unit - V
i) Manual mode of programming.
ii) Lead through mode of programming.
iii) Textual robot language.
iv) Off - line programming mode.
b) Explain generations of Robot programming Language. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain WAIT, DELAY, SIGNAL, DEPART commands with
b) Explain the hydraulic system used for robot system with advantages &
Limitations. [8]
Unit - VI
Q11) a) How is software and hardware of robot, handshaking with PC done?[9]
b) Explain the working of RS232C interface used in Robotics system. [9]
OR
Q12) a) Describe the following applications of robot stating their configurations.[9]
i) Spray painting.
ii) Machine loading and unloading.
b) Write a note on : [9]
i) Walking Robot.
ii) Under water Robot.
tttt
[4264]- 465 3
P1126 [4264]-466
B.E. (Production Engg.)

POWDER METALLURGY
1) Answer Q 1 or Q2, Q 3 or Q 4, Q 5 or Q 6 from Section I and Q 7 or Q 8, Q 9 or
Q 10, Q 11 or Q 12 from Section II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe the commercial process for the electrodeposition of Copper
along with a neat diagram and explain any 2 factors affecting the
characteristics of electrodeposit. [6]
b) Explain Hoganas process with a neat diagram. [6]
c) Write short notes on : [6]
i) Hydrogen loss test
ii) Acid insoluble test
OR
Q2) a) Describe the configurations of a rotating ball mill which is loaded. [6]
b) Explain the influence of Specific surface area, flow rate and compression
ratio on the behaviour of powders. [6]
c) With the help of a neat sketch, explain the working of the vertical gas
atomizer. [6]
Q3) a) Describe in details the phenomena of compaction. [6]

b) How can we avoid the large variation of green density of compact? [6]
c) State the purpose of adding binders and lubricants giving examples of
each. [4]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What are the means to avoid rejection due to fracturing of green compacts. [6]
b) Compare hydraulic press with mechanical press. What are the essential
compacting tools and state the steel from which they are made. [6]
c) Explain the slip casting of metal powders. [4]
Q5) a) State the different types of sintering furnaces and explain any one furnace
with the help of a sketch. [6]
b) Explain the several mechanisms of material transport in Sintering with
the help of a diagram. [6]
c) Write short note on Infiltration. [4]
OR
Q6) a) What are the advantages and limitations of Liquid phase sintering. [6]
b) How does particle size, particle shape, particle structure and green density
affect solid state sintering. [6]
c) State and explain the purpose of different atmospheres in sintering
furnaces. [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) State the advantages and disadvantages of isostatic compacting over die
compacting. [8]
b) Write shortnotes on : [8]
i) Explosive compaction
ii) Powder forging
OR
Q8) a) Explain in details Hot Isostatic Pressing (HIP) with a neat diagram. [8]
i) Injection moulding
ii) Roll Compaction
Q9) a) What are the different heat treatments done on P/M parts? Explain steam
treatment. [8]
b) State the advantages and limitations of powder metallurgy. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What are nanosize particles? What are the problems associated with
handling such particles? [8]
b) Explain sizing, coining and impregnation. Where is impregnation used? [8]
[4264]- 466 2
Q11) With the help of a neat flow chart explain production details of the
following : [18]
a) Electrical Contact Materials
b) Cemented Carbide tools
c) Brakes and clutch lining material
OR
Q12) With the help of a neat flow chart explain production details of the following:
[18]
a) Diamond Impregnated tools.
b) Porous bearings
c) Refractory metal components
tttt
[4264]- 466 3
P1131 [4264]-482

MECHATRONICS AND ROBOTICS
1) Answer any three questions from Section I and any three questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer - books.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What do you mean by Control System Compare Open Loop and Close
Loop System in detail. Along with example. [10]
b) Define Mechatronics explain importance and scope of it. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Define System Response explain along with Example first order system
in. In detail and mathematical expression for same. [10]
b) Explain the following [8]
i) Operation Amplifier.
ii) ADC-DAC Converter.
Q3) Draw the architecture of 8085 Explain all the pins used in Microprocessor In
detail. [16]
OR
Q4) Explain the following. [16]
a) TTL and CMOS.
b) Application of Microprocessor.
c) Basic Structure of Microcomputer.
d) Register used in 8085 Microprocessor.
Q5) a) Explain along with example Various Commands used in Assembly

Language (Any four). [8]
b) Write an assembly language programme to measure the minimum pressure
for pressure measuring device. [4]
c) Write an assembly language programme to addition of 1 to 10 Numbers.[4]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) What do you mean by interfacing explain importance of it also explain
Serial and parallel interfacing. [10]
b) Write a short note on Hand Shaking. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the basic structure of PLC with neat figure. [6]
b) A motor is put on by START Switch which is NO.A pump is started
after delay of 25 second after starting the motor. The motor is switched
off by a STOP Button the pump is switched off after a delay of 10
second . An emergency STOP switched provided which stops the motor
and Pump simultaneously. [10]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in detail application of PLC in filling of mineral Water bottle. [10]
b) Write a short note on various types of Sensors. [6]
Q9) a) Explain the mechanical aspect of Motor Selection. [4]

b) Write a short note on application of Steeper Motor. [4]
c) Explain the different Mechanical Actuator system. (Type. Fig,
Application) [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain different types Grippers used in Robotics along with neat sketch. [8]
b) Define Control Action Explain the following. [8]
i) On - Off Control.
ii) Proportional Control
iii) Integral Control
Q11) a) Define the Robot. Explain the following with reference to Robot. [6]
i) Accuracy.
ii) Repeatability.
iii) Resolution
iv) Spatial Resolution
b) Write a short note on Generation of Robot. [6]
c) Explain role of Robot in Manufacturing Industry. [6]
OR
[4264]- 482 2
Q12) a) List out different application of Robot and explain the in detail application
Robot in spot welding and Spray Painting. [8]
b) Explain the following in detail [10]
i) Factors affecting the selection of Robot.
ii) Modular Design (Building block) concept in robotics
tttt
[4264]- 482 3
P1136 [4264]-502
B.E. (Electrical)
POWER SYSTEM OPERATION & CONTROL
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the equal area criterion for determination of transient stability. [8]
b) What do you mean by a swing curve? What is its significance in stability
studies? [4]
c) Derive the swing equation. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Compare steady state, transient state and dynamic state stability in respect
of loading of the power system, time duration of study, stability limit,
definition. [9]
b) A 60 Hz. synchronous generator having inertia constant H = 5 MJ/MVA
and a direct axis transient reactance Xcd 0.3 p.u is connected to an infinite
bus through a purely reactive circuit as shown in fig. (2b). The induced
emf of generator is 1.17 26.38 p.u. and is delivering real power pe = 0.8
p.u. to infinite bus at V 10 p.u. A temporary three phase fault occurs at
the sending end of the line at point F. When the fault is cleared both the
lines are intact. Determine the critical clearing angle and fault clearing
time. [9]
Q3) a) What is the necessity of reactive power control. [8]

b) Explain the loading capability curve of synchronous generator. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the concept of subsynchronous resonance in detail. [7]
b) What are different types of compensations used in power system. [9]
Q5) a) What are problems of A.C. transmission system causes the thought of
FACTS controllers. [6]
b) Write the short note on : [10]
i) SVC
ii) STATCOM
OR
Q6) Explain in detail principle of operation, draw circuit diagram, and give the
applications of [16]
a) TCSC
b) UPFC
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the concept of Area Control Error (ACE). With the help of neat
block diagram, explain the proportional plus integral load frequency
control of two area control case. [10]
b) Explain the concept of Generator rate constraint and Speed governor
dead - band with reference to automatic generation control. [8]
OR
Q8) a) With mathematical formulation and complete block diagram representation
explain load frequency control of an isolated power system. [12]
b) With schematic diagram, explain the working of turbine speed governing
system. [6]
Q9) a) Define unit commitment. Explain the necessity of unit commitment task.[4]
b) Explain following terms related to unit commitment. [12]
i) Minimum up time & minimum down time.
ii) Spinning reserve.
iii) Must run constraint.
iv) Fuel constraint.
v) Hydro constraint.
vi) Constraints associated with renewable energy sources.
OR
[4264]- 502 2
Q10) a) With proper example, explain priority list method. Also state other
methods for unit commitment. [8]
b) Derive the objective of minimization of operating cost of thermal units
for economic load dispatch without including transmission loss and
considering constraint of meeting the load demand. [8]
Q11) Explain following concepts regarding exchange of power [16]

a) Energy banking.
b) Capacity interchange.
c) Diversity interchange.
d) Emergency power interchange.
OR
Q12) Write short notes on following [16]
a) Multi - utility interchange transactions.
b) Inter utility economy energy evaluation.
c) Power pools.
d) Inadvertent power exchange.
tttt
[4264]- 502 3
P1140 [4264]-507
B.E. (Electrical)
PROJECT MANAGEMENT
1) Answer three questions from each section.
4) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain various characteristics of project management. How is project
appraisal carried out? [16]
OR
Q2) What is the need for project management? Explain various phases of project
life cycle. [16]
Q3) What costs are associated with a project and how are they estimated? How
will you carry out the financial evaluation of a project? [16]
OR
Q4) What is the importance of project selection? Explain the probable causes of
project failure. [16]
Q5) Explain the importance of Gantt charts with special reference to scheduling.
How is a PERT network developed? Explain its applications in practice.[18]
OR
a) GERT
b) Resource allocation
c) Project crashing.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What are the different components of capital cost of a project? Describe
in detail the Margin money for working capital and its importance.[10]
b) What are the probable factors for cost escalation? How to take care of
them in planning stage? [6]
P.T.O.
OR
Q8) a) What are the different cost factors? Define direct cost & Indirect cost
and prime cost. [6]
b) What is the importance of a budget? What are the elements to be
considered for making a budget? Describe the advantages of budgetary
control. [10]
Q9) a) Define Quality. What are the importance of quality planning, assurance
and control. [6]
b) What are the different methods for maintaining the quality of procured
items? Describe in detail. [10]
OR
Q10) a) Name the factors which are important for international project management
and how to control them? [8]
b) Describe the different techniques for quality assurance & control. [8]
Q11) a) Define Risk from the investment point of view. Why certainty equivalent
coefficient is better than Risk - adjusted discount rate method? [6]
b) Define correlation coefficient what are the different types of correlation -
describe. [6]
c) Explain in detail the diversifiable & Non - diversifiable risk. [6]
OR
Q12) a) What is Beta coefficient? What does it measure? [4]
b) Datas are given for two companies as below :
For Company A : Manufacturing Electric Motors
State of Economy Probability of Return on Investment
Occurrence
Strong Boom (SB) 0.20 45%
Mild Boom (MB) 0.15 20%
Average Economy (AE) 0.30 15%
Mild Recession (MR) 0.15 10%
Strong Recession (SR) 0.20 5%
[4264]- 507 2
For Company B : Manufacturing Transformer
Strong Boom (SB) 0.20 50%
Mild Boom (MB) 0.15 25%
Average Economy (AE) 0.30 15%
Mild Recession (MR) 0.15 10%
Strong Recession (SR) 0.20 ()3.75%
Now ascertain which one of these two companies is better from return on
investment point of view, if the expected return from both the companies
(project) is same. [14]
tttt
[4264]- 507 3
P1147 [4264]-526
B.E. (Electronics)
BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the basic components of medical instrumentation system with
the help of block diagram. [8]
b) With help of two electrode equivalent circuit explain measurement of
biopotential and half cell potential. [8]
c) Give the full expanded form of the following : [2]
i) EKG
ii) EMG
iii) EOG
iv) ERG
OR
Q2) a) Discuss 10 most important factors to be considered in the design of
medical instrumentation. [8]
b) Explain the meaning of action potential, resting potential, depolarization
and repolarization of cell with necessary diagrams. [8]
c) Give classification of transducer with proper examples. [2]
Q3) a) What are the different components of central nervous system? Explain
in detail. [8]
b) Name different types of EMG. Explain procedure to perform EMG with
help of neat block diagram. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What is EEG? Explain 10 - 20 electrode placement. [10]
b) Explain various types of EEG electrodes. [6]
Q5) a) Lead I amplitude is 4 mm, lead III amplitude is 7 mm what is lead II

amplitude. If intensity is 100 mm/mv calculate aVR, aVL, aVF [8]
b) Explain concept of phonocardiography with help of basic heart sounds
and primary signal characteristics. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Draw ECG waveforms. Label critical parts of waveform. Show amplitude
and time duration for normal ECG. Briefly explain the waveform. [8]
b) Explain the different chambers of heart. Explain an electrical conduction
system of heart and the process of ECG genesis. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain two important techniques used in sphygmometric blood pressure
measurement. Distinguish between direct and indirect B.P. measurement.
[8]
b) Explain any two types of cardiac pacemakers in detail with necessary
waveforms. [8]
c) What is Systolic and Diastolic blood pressure. [2]
OR
Q8) a) Explain block diagram of bedside patient monitoring system. [8]
b) Write short note on (any two) [8]
i) Plethysmography
ii) Echocardiography
iii) Defibrillators
c) Enlist various preamplifiers used in bio - signal conditioning. [2]
Q9) a) What are the components of pulse oximeter probe? Explain analog signal
processing by pulse oximetry. [8]
b) What is pH of blood? Explain electrodes used in blood pH measurement.
[8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain vitro oximetry and vivo oximetry in detail. [8]
b) Name different methods of cell counting. Explain any one in detail. [8]
[4264]- 526 2
Q11) a) Explain operation of X - Ray machine with the help of neat block diagram.
[8]
b) Name the detectors used in CT scanners. Explain each of them with their
features. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain working principle of MRI machine with the help of block diagram.
[8]
b) State the three processes to form laser beam. Explain any one in detail
with help of diagram. [8]
tttt
[4264]- 526 3
P1152 [4264]-542
B.E. (E & TC)

VLSI DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY
SECTION - I
Q1) Draw Schematic and Explain various types of CMOS Differential Amplifiers.
[16]
OR
Q2) a) With Schematic Diagram and I-V Characteristics Explain Current Sink
and Current Source. [10]
b) Write short note on Cascode Amplifier. [6]
Q3) a) Explain CMOS Inverter with Transfer Characteristics. [10]

b) Write Short note on Hot Electron Effect. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Explain Different Power Dissipation in CMOS circuit designs. [10]
b) List Different Design Rule Checks. [6]
Q5) a) With VHDL Code Explain Synthesizable and Non Synthesizable Test
Bench. [12]
b) Write short note on Configuration. [6]
OR
Q6) a) With VHDL Code Explain Function and Procedure. [12]
b) Write short note on Metastability. [6]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the limitation of CPLD and FPGA Devices. [6]
b) Explain different types of Memories. [10]
OR
Q8) Draw the Block Diagram and explain the Architecture of CPLD. [16]
Q9) a) Why there is Need of Design for Testability? Explain Controllability and
Predictability. [10]
b) Explain Partial and Full Scan check. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Explain Different types of Faults. [6]
b) Draw state diagram and explain Test Access Port. [10]
Q11) a) List different Signal Integrity issues. [6]

b) What is Clock Skew and Clock Jitter? Explain different Techniques of
Clock Distribution. [12]
OR
Q12) a) Explain Interconnect Routing Techniques. [6]
b) Explain Power Distribution and Power Optimization Techniques. [12]
tttt
[4264]- 542 2
P1156 [4264]-546
B.E. (E & TC)

INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL
1) Answer Q 1 or Q 2, Q 3 or Q 4, Q 5 or Q 6 from Section I and Q 7 or Q 8 Q 9 or
Q 10, Q 11 or Q 12 from Section II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw the circuit diagram of a three - phase semi - converter feeding a
highly inductive (level) load and the following waveforms for firing angle
= 60. [12]
i) Supply phase voltages
ii) Supply line voltages.
iii) Output voltage
iv) Phase A line current
Also derive an expression for the average output voltage.
b) A three - phase semi - converter operates from the 415V, 50Hz mains
and feeds a highly inductive (level) active load having R = 20 . If the
firing angle is 45, calculate : [6]
i) Average (DC) load voltage
ii) Average (DC) load current.
OR
Q2) a) With the help of a neat circuit diagram, waveforms and relevant equations,
explain the operation of a step - down chopper feeding : [12]
i) a resistive load
ii) a highly inductive (level) load
P.T.O.
b) A step - down chopper operating from a 100 V DC supply feeds a
resistive load with a duty cycle of 50% Calculate : [6]
i) The average load voltage
ii) The value of the load resistance if the input power is 1 kW (assume
a lossless chopper).
Q3) a) With the help of a neat circuit diagram, relevant waveforms and mode
equivalent circuits, explain the operation of a three-phase ASCSI feeding
an induction motor load. [10]
b) A single - phase full bridge inverter operating from a 100V DC supply
uses single pulse width modulation for output voltage control. If the rms
output voltage is 50 V, calculate the rms values of the fundamental and
third harmonic output voltages. [6]
OR
Q4) a) With the help of a neat circuit diagram and relevant waveforms, explain
the operation of a 3 - phase voltage source bridge inverter operating with
120 conduction mode. Assume 3 - phase star connected balanced
resistive load. Derive the expression for the output power in terms of the
supply voltage and load resistance. [12]
b) Compare resonant converters with switched - mode converters. [4]
Q5) a) A 400 V, 1500 rpm, 10 A separately excited DC motor with Ra = 0.25 ,

Rf = 200 , Kv = 1.2653 V/A - rad/sec is fed from a three - phase full
converter operating from the 415 V, 50 Hz mains. The field circuit is fed
from a three - phase semi - converter. Speed variation below base speed
is obtained by armature voltage control with the field converter set at
Vf = 400 V, whereas speed variation above base speed is obtained by
field voltage control with the armature converter set at Va = 400 V.
Calculate: [8]
i) the armature converter firing angle for a motor speed of 1200 rpm if
the motor torque is 12.653 N/m.
ii) the field converter firing angle for a motor speed of 1800 rpm if the
motor current is 5 A.
b) Compare dynamic and regenerative braking for DC machines. Can
regenerative braking be used in all cases? Justify your answer. [8]
OR
[4264]- 546 2
Q6) a) With the help of a neat circuit diagram and quadrantal operating diagram,
explain the operation of a 4 quadrant DC chopper drive. [10]
b) Draw a neat block diagram of under and over voltage protection circuit
for a DC motor drive and explain its operation. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) With the help a neat circuit diagram and torque speed characteristics
explain stator voltage control for three - phase induction motors. What
are the types of loads for which this type of control is suitable? [12]
b) Explain, with the help of a neat block diagram, the operation of a phase
failure protection circuit for AC motor drives. [6]
OR
Q8) a) A three phase, 6 pole, 1160 rpm, 60 Hz induction motor is operating
under constant V/f control. Assuming the speed-torque curves for various
frequencies for low slips to be parallel straight lines, calculate : [12]
i) speed for a frequency of 20 Hz and 75% full load motoring torque.
ii) frequency for a speed of 1000 rpm and 60% full load braking torque.
iii) motor torque as a percentage of full load torque if the speed is 575
rpm at a frequency of 30 Hz.
b) Briefly explain vector control of induction motors. [6]
Q9) a) With the help of a phasor diagram briefly explain the operation of a
salient pole synchronous motor. Derive expressions for the torque angle
and the developed torque and also plot the torque versus torque angle
b) A three - phase 415 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole salient pole synchronous motor has
Xd = 3 and Xq = 0.5 . Assuming the armature resistance to be
negligible, calculate the torque angle if the motor power is 15 kW at 0.8
lagging power factor. [6]
OR
Q10) Write short notes on (Any Two) : [16]
a) Constant volts/hertz closed loop control of synchronous motors.
b) Load - Commutated Inverter (LCI) control of synchronous motors.
c) Brushless AC motor drives.
[4264]- 546 3
Q11) a) What are the different methods used in AC traction employing polyphase
AC motors? Explain any one such method. [8]
b) State the sources of various types of power line disturbances. What
measures are to be taken to prevent or nullify these disturbances? [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain the operation of a fuzzy logic based wind generation system.[10]
b) Briefly explain Energy Audit. [6]
tttt
[4264]- 546 4

[4264] - 549
B.E. (E&TC)
JOINT TIME FREQUENCY ANALYSIS
SECTION - I
Q1) What is Uncertainty Principle? Calculate time-bandwidth product (TB1) of

Haar 2band analysis low pass filter? Calculate time-bandwidth product (TB2)
of two sequentially cascaded stages of Haar 2-band analysis low pass filters?
Compare TB1 and TB2 and clearly state which is better from the perspective
of time-frequency isolation? [16]
OR
Q2) Given Haar wavelet (t) function as follows : [16]
a) Find its Fourier Transform ()
b) Sketch spectrum of (2t -1)
c) Sketch spectrum of (t / 2)
d) Prove that this function is orthogonal with its corresponding scaling
function by finding out < (t). (t) >
Q3) a) Verify graphically: Mexican hat wavelet function using wavelet dilation
equation. Assume compact support of [0,2) for the roof scaling function.
State clearly if this pair of scaling and wavelet functions can produce
MRA? [12]
b) Write and explain difference between X(Z) and X(-Z)? Elaborate the
difference using X(z) = 1+ z1. [6]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) For given signal y(t) do following :
a) State which V subspace y(t) belongs to and why? [4]

b) Calculate yV and yW ?
0 0
[4]
c) Using Haar (t) plot projections and span of y(t) on V0 and using Haar
(t) plot projections and span of y(t) on W0 ? [5]
d) Reconstruct the original signal using yV and yW and prove
0 0
V1 = V0 W0 [5]
Q5) a) State Axioms of Multiresolution Analysis? [5]

b) State Multiresolution Theorem? [3]
c) Find the projections of given signal x(t) on the spaces V0, V1 and V2
using approximations? Use Haar scaling function as kernel for deriving
the projections? [8]
OR
Q6) a) Mathematically prove that analysis low-pass and high-pass filters of

two-band Haar filter bank are magnitude and power complements of one
another? State how this will be useful for perfect reconstruction of signal
to be analyzed? [10]
b) Write the effect of downsampling by factor of 2 using z-domain
relationship between input and output? [6]
[4264]-549 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the relationship between analysis HPF and analysis LPF with
following mathematical formula.
H1(Z) = Z D H0(Z1)
Explain why this is called as conjugate quadrature relationship? [8]
b) Using perfect reconstruction condition of conjugate quadrature filter
banks, determine analysis low pass filter coefficients of Daub-4? Using
the alias cancellation condition also find out the analysis HP and synthesis
LP and HP coefficients of Daub-4? [8]
OR
Q8) Draw and explain complete structure of Haar 2-band filter bank? Write and
explain scaling dilation equation? Write and explain wavelet dilation equation?
Derive scaling dilation equation in frequency domain and wavelet dilation
equation in frequency domain? [16]
Q9) Using modified perfect reconstruction condition of conjugate quadrature

filter banks determine the analysis filter coefficients for JPEG 2000 popular
5/3 bi-orthogonal tap? [18]
OR
Q10) Given x[n] = {1, 0, 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2} V3
Develop complete Wavelet Packet tree till V 0 and Calculate the coefficients
along with bases {Wo[,0k] ,Wo[,1k] ,...,Wo[,7k]}
Prove perfect reconstruction using the leaves from 0th subspace? [18]
Q11) Given x[n] = {9, 7, 4, 6} V2

Develop wavelet lifting scheme, using MRA framework decompose the signal
to the 0th subspace. Show perfect reconstruction. Clearly show split,
update and predict stages and their outputs. Show how the computations
happen in place? Explain how lifting operations help achieve
compression? [16]
OR
[4264]-549 3
Q12) a) Explain any two of the following : [8]
i) Need for joint time frequency analysis
ii) Application of wavelets in signal denoising
iii) Scalograms
b) Sketch and explain time-frequency tilings of any two of the following:[8]
i) Discrete Short term Fourier Transform
ii) Discrete Wavelet Transform
iii) Discrete Wavelet Packet Transform
kbkb
[4264]-549 4
P1164 [4264]-564

BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION
2) Answer to the two sections should be written in separate books.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Enlist electrodes used for ECG., EMG, and EEG signals with their material
and suitable diagrams. [10]
b) Explain Ergonomic consideration in medical equipment design for Dental
chair. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What is mean by Biosensor? Explain any one with selection criteria &
specifications. [10]
b) Define Half Cell potential, Evoked Potential, electrode offset potential,
Action Potential [8]
Q3) a) Why analog signal processing of bio-signal are required? Explain averaging
& integrator circuits used in analog signal processing. [8]
b) Why transient protection is necessary in designing biomedical
equipments? Explain transient protection circuits. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What is mean by vector cardiograph? Explain Einthoven triangle. [8]
b) Explain various types of ECG recorders. [8]
Q5) a) Explain ultra sonic blood flow meter which actually measure the velocity
of the blood stream. [8]
b) What is mean by cardiac output? Explain principle of dilution method
with suitable graphs. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) Discuss is phonocardiography. [8]
b) Explain the principle of Electromagnetic blood flow meters? [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain Electromyography in detail. [10]
b) Explain the various parts of CNS [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain electroencephalogram with 10 - 20 electrode placement system
as well as electrode configurations. [10]
b) Explain types of electrodes used in EEG [8]
Q9) a) Define hearing threshold. Explain pure tone Audiometer. [8]

b) Explain block diagram of hearing aid. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Enlist errors in vision and explain way of correcting the same. [8]
b) Explain working of slit lamp [8]
Q11) a) Explain different methods of accidents prevention. [8]

b) Draw and Explain lung volume capacities graph [8]
OR
Q12) a) When Ventilator should be used? Explain various parts of Ventilator. [10]
b) What are the physiological Methods of electric current on body? [6]
tttt
[4264]- 564 2

[4264] - 634
B.E. (Petroleum)
PETROLEUM EXPLORATION
3) Attempt any three questions each from Section - I and Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the concept of half anomaly width for a sphere and a horizontal
slab with vertical fault in the interpretation of gravity data. [5]
b) Explain with suitable diagram VES using Schlumberger technique. What
are the limitations of this technique over VES using Wenner
arrangement? [10]
OR
Q2) a) What are the different corrections applied to magnetic survey. Explain in
brief any two of them. [5]
b) Explain the construction of Scintillation Counter. How it is used in
radioactivity survey? [10]
Q3) a) What are different field parameters used to design a seismic reflection
survey? What are the various constrains to decide these parameters.[10]
b) What is a static correction applied to seismic data? [5]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Plot X2 - T2 for offsets and reflection times given below in a table. Fit a
straight line to the plotted points and estimate velocity, V, and
zero-offset time, T0. Give plausible interpretation for the plot [10]
Offset X(m) Time, T(S) Offset X(m) Time, T(S)
100 2.251 3300 2.460
500 2.255 3700 2.500
900 2.265 4100 2.575
1300 2.287 4500 2.620
1700 2.300 4900 2.700
2100 2.338 5300 2.760
2500 2.380 5700 2.830
2900 2.410
b) What is cross well seismic? [5]
Q5) Answer the following in brief (any five) [20]

a) Seismic impedance
b) Time lapse Seismic
c) Direct Hydrocarbon Indicators
d) Amplitude Versus Offset
e) 3 D seismic imaging
f) Gravity anomaly
g) VRMS, VStack,
h) Isochronopach maps
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Describe with the help of a flow diagram steps involved in the modeling
of sedimentary basins during the search of hydrocarbons. [10]
b) What are surface geochemical expressions of petroleum seepage? [5]
OR
Q7) a) What is a frontier basin? Explain systematic way of analysis of a frontier
basin. [10]
b) Explain the difference between proven and probable reserves. [5]
[4264]-634 2
Q8) a) Calculate the risk involved from the given data. [8]
EVENT PROBABILITY
Existence of source rock 0.90
Effective trapping mechanism 0.80
Migration path to reservoir 0.85
Reservoir rock with porosity and permeability 0.80
Existence and persistence of seal 0.80
Explain whether the risk is low or high? What may be the reasons for
increasing / decreasing risk?
b) Calculate the amount of oil present in a reservoir covering an area of 10
km2 with an average thickness of 10m. The average porosity is 20 % and
the water saturation is 30 %. Calculate in m3. [7]
How much oil may be recovered from this reservoir if we assume an
average recovery factor of 30 %? How is uncertainty addressed in the
calculation of each parameter?
OR
Q9) a) Explain the volumetric method of reserves estimation for oil and gas.
How is uncertainty reduced in the calculation of area and thickness?[10]
b) What are the advantages of using GIS in Petroleum exploration? [5]
Q10) Answer any five from the following with the help of suitable diagrams if
necessary. [20]
a) Petroleum System and definition of critical moment
b) How is quality of a reservoir seal rock decided?
c) What is a pinch out of formation?
d) What are hydrocarbon plays and prospect?
e) NELP in India
f) Pattern recognition in seismic interpretation
g) Reserves auditing
h) Data structure in GIS
i) Development of multivariate maps from vector GIS
kbkb
[4264]-634 3
P1199 [4264]-696

ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
1) Attempt three questions from Section - I and three questions from Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the four approaches to Artificial Intelligence. [8]
b) What is Task Environment? Explain the properties of task environment
with examples. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the Artificial Intelligence Applications. [8]
b) Explain a general model of Learning Agents. [8]
Q3) a) What is Toy Problem? Formulate and solve the vacuum world problem
assume it as a sensorless problem. [8]
b) Explain A - star search algorithm by minimizing the total estimated solution
cost. [8]
OR
Q4) a) How to measure the problem solving performance. Explain the depth -
limited search performance. [8]
b) Explain Greedy local Search algorithm and write the reasons for stoping
the algorithms. [8]
Q5) a) Define game? Explain Optimal strategies for soling Tic - tac - Toe game. [8]
b) Explain the approaches for solving tree structured Constraint satisfaction
problem with a suitable example. [10]
OR
Q6) a) What is horizon effect? How to design good Evaluation Functions in a
game of chance explain with suitable example. [8]
b) Write the rule for generating propagating constraints for solving the given
Cryptarithmetic problem : [10]
SEND + MORE = MONEY
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Find the resolution proof that Curiosity killed the cat by using the following
sentences. Convert all sentences into first - order logic and then convert
to Conjunctive Normal Form. [12]
i) Everyone who loves all animals is loved by someone.
ii) Anyone who kills an animal is loved by no one.
iii) Jack loves all animals.
iv) Either Jack or Curiosity killed the cat, who is named Tuna.
v) Did Curiosity kill the Cat?
b) What is an action Schema? Write an action for flying a plane from one
location to another. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the following in the first order logic with a suitable example and
convert into Conjunctive normal Form [10]
i) Terms
ii) Atomic sentences
iii) Complete Sentences
iv) Universal Quantifiers
v) Existential Quantifiers
vi) Nested Quantifiers
vii) Connection between Universal and Existential Quantifiers
viii) Equality
b) Solve the Blocks world problem using forward state-space search and
Back ward state - space search. [8]
Q9) a) What are the axioms of Probability? Explain how to derive the useful
facts from the basic axioms with a suitable example? Why the probability
axioms are reasonable. [8]
b) A writer of romance novels. A movie company and a TV network both
want exclusive rights to one of her more popular works. If she signs with
the network, she will receive a single lump sum, but if she signs with the
movie company, the amount she will receive depends on the market
response to her movie. What should she do show using decision trees?
The Movie company Payouts are follows :
Small box office - Rs. 2,00,000,
Medium box office - Rs. 10,00,000,
Large box office - Rs. 30,00,000
TV Network Payout : Flat rate - Rs. 9,00,000
Probabilities : P(Small Box Office) = 0.3, P(Medium Box Office) = 0.6,
P (Large Box Office) = 0.1 [8]
[4264]- 696 2
OR
Q10) a) Explain Bayes rule and solve given problem using Bayes rule : [8]
The alarm system at a nuclear power plant is not completely reliable. If
there is something wrong with the reactor, the probability that the alarm
goes off is 0.99. On the other hand, the alarm goes off on 0.01 of the
days when nothing is actually wrong. Suppose that something is wrong
with the reactor only one day out of 100. What is the probability that
something is actually wrong if the alarm goes off?
b) A householder is currently considering insuring the contents of his house
against theft for one year. He estimates that the contents of his house
would cost him Rs. 20,000 to replace. Local crime statistics indicate that
there is a probability of 0.03 that his house will be broken into in the
coming year. In that event his losses would be 10%, 20%, or 40% of the
contents with probabilities 0.5, 0.35 and 0.15 respectively. An insurance
policy from company A costs Rs. 150 a year but guarantees to replace
any losses due to theft. An insurance policy from company B is cheaper
at Rs. 100 a year but the householder has to pay the first Rs. x of any
loss himself. An insurance policy from company C is even cheaper at
Rs. 75 a year but only replaces a fraction (y%) of any loss suffered.
Assume that there can be at most one theft a year. Draw the decision
tree. [8]
Q11) a) Explain the four ways of interpreting the sentences with a suitable example.
[8]
b) Write the role of Explanation in Expert System with suitable example.[8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain Lexical Processing and Sentence level processing with a suitable
example. [8]
b) How Knowledge Acquisition is useful for building the expert system?
Explain the steps involved in Knowledge Acquisition with a suitable
example. [8]
tttt
[4264]- 696 3
P1200 [4264]-697

SOFTWARE ARCHITECTURE
4) All questions carry equal marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw and explain the software architecture business cycle. [6]
b) What are common module - based structures? Briefly explain each of
them. [6]
c) What are architectural patterns? How are they different from design
patterns? [6]
OR
Q2) a) How software architectures are influenced by the following : [6]
i) Stakeholders
ii) Developing organization.
iii) Technical Environment.
iv) Architects experience
b) Explain 4 +1 views with the help of suitable diagram. [6]
c) The software architecture is compared with building architecture. What
is correspondence of building architecture to software architecture
structures and patterns? [6]
Q3) a) Compare faults and failures. [4]

b) State various reasons for modifying a software system. [4]
c) Define the following terms : [8]
i) Confidentiality
ii) Testability
iii) Time-to-market
iv) Response time
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Draw a neat labeled diagram to show summary of various runtime
usability tactics. [6]
b) Explain the following tactics with suitable example : [10]
i) Ping/echo
ii) Maintaining existing interface
iii) Introduce concurrency
iv) Limit access
Q5) a) What do you understand by the term design pattern? What is the
necessity of design patterns? [6]
b) What is intent and motivation for observer pattern? Give non-software
examples of observer pattern. [6]
c) Write C++ declaration for singleton class. How this declaration ensures
creation of single instance only? [4]
OR
Q6) a) Draw a relevant UML diagrams for mediator pattern and explain its
working. [6]
b) Compare factory method and abstract factory. [6]
c) Explain the use of any two types of proxy pattern. [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Compare application server and web server. [6]
b) State and explain the typical socket APIs you have studied. [6]
c) What is Message oriented Middleware (MoM). Explain JMS as an example
of MoM. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Draw a neat labeled diagram of J2EE architecture showing various
technologies like JDBC, JMS etc. Explain any two technologies. [6]
b) Compare and contrast entity and session beans with suitable examples.[6]
c) Explain the working of JDBC. [6]
Q9) a) Design a UI screen for personal information of a student applying for

first year engineering admission. design a HTML form for this admission
system and list necessary validations. [6]
b) What is AJAX technology? What constitutes AJAX? Explain each
constituent of AJAX in brief. [6]
c) Explain n-tier architecture with suitable example. [4]
[4264]- 697 2
OR
Q10) a) Write short note on mobile client - server technology. [6]
b) Compare use of HTML, DHTML and XML at client - side. [6]
c) Draw a diagram to show life-cycle of a JAVA applet. [4]
Q11) a) Compare applet and servlet. What are advantages of servlet for developing
web-applications? [8]
b) Draw a neat diagram to show MVC pattern. [4]
c) Enlist the advantages of JSP over servlet. [4]
OR
Q12) a) Write short note on Web-services. [6]
b) How server - side technology can be used to make website dynamic,
customizable for user and capable of data handling? [6]
c) What is JSF technology? [4]
tttt
[4264]- 697 3
P1207 [4264]-714
B.E. (IT)
ADVANCED DATABASE MANAGEMENT
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write a static embedded SQL code (Pro*C) to insert a record into
PRODUCT table having following structure : (do not create table)
Product_id integer, product_type_code varchar2, supplier_id integer,
product _name varchar2, product_price number, other_product_details
varchar2.
You need to do the following : [9]
i) Connect to database,
ii) Insert the record and
iii) Trap exception if any
b) Explain any four cursor attributes. Explain the usage of %TYPE and
%ROWTYPE. You may explain it with the help of code fragments. [9]
OR
Q2) a) What do you mean by SQLCA? How do you declare SQLCA and use
different sqlca. sqlcode values in embedded SQL programs? [9]
b) Write a function to get lab marks from student marks for a given roll no
and subject name. Trap exceptions, if any. [9]
Q3) a) With diagram explain the detailed structure of TP monitors. [8]

b) Explain main - memory databases. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain long duration transaction systems. [8]
b) Explain shared locks and exclusive locks. [8]
Q5) a) Which limitations of RDBMSes are removed by OO databases? [8]

b) Explain the structure of XML with one example. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) Write a note on persistent programming languages. [8]
b) Explain the query transformation techniques in XML. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) Draw a neat diagram of typical architecture of data warehouse. State four
clauses in Data Warehouse definition. Explain how architecture supports
them. Explain metadata and the need for detailed data, lightly summarized
data and highly summarized data. [18]
OR
Q8) Suppose that XYZ Engineering University wants to build data warehouse
that consists of four dimensions time, college, year and branch and the two
measures appeared count and highest total marks in each year where year
is FE, SE, TE and BE. [18]
a) Enumerate three classes of schemas that are popularly used for modeling
data warehouse. Explain them. Do they store normalized data?
b) Draw a schema diagram for the above data warehouse using one of the
schemas listed above. Show facts clearly.
Q9) a) Define support and confidence. Apply apriori association rule mining
algorithm for the following data and find out frequent itemsets. Consider
support = 2 i.e. 50%. [8]
TID Items
10 a,c,d
20 b,c,e
30 a,b,c,e
40 b,e
b) Differentiate between OLTP and OLAP. [8]

OR
Q10) a) What is roll - up, drill down, slicing and dicing? What is ROLAP and
MOLAP? [8]
b) Explain classification and clustering. Explain how they are different. [8]
[4264]- 714 2
Q11) a) Explain the meaning of cascading authorizations. Suppose a person Y
grants access to person A (with grant option) to resource A at t = 20.
Person Z grants access (with grant option) to person A again to the same
resource at t = 50, Person A grants access to person B at t = 30 and to
person C at t = 60. If later Y revokes As access to resource R, comment
about the status of Bs and Cs access. State reasons. Draw required
diagram. [8]
b) Write a note on statistical databases. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain GRANT and REVOKE. What is GRANT with GRANT
OPTION? [8]
b) Write a note on tracker attacks. [8]
tttt
[4264]- 714 3
P1208 [4264]-715

1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
2) Separate answer books must be used for the sections.
3) Draw proper diagrams wherever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define Artificial Intelligence? Give any five applications of AI. [8]
b) What is an Intelligent Agent? Give a typical structure of an Intelligent
Agent. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Define Swarm Intelligence? Where can we apply it? Elaborate with
example. [8]
b) Describe the Turing test. If the Turing test is passed, does this show that
computers exhibit intelligence? State your reasons. [8]
Q3) a) Give a state space approach to solve the following problem,

Three cannibals and three missionaries are standing on west bank of
the river. A boat is available that will hold either one or two people. If the
missionaries are ever outnumbered - on either bank of the river the
cannibals will eat them. Design a sequence to get everyone to the east
bank of the river. [10]
b) Explain Minimax search procedure with example. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What is Hill Climbing? Explain in detail the phenomenon of Local Maxima,
Plateau and Ridge. [10]
b) What is Constraint satisfaction? Explain with example. [8]
Q5) a) Give the complete procedure to convert wff into clause form. [9]
b) Explain Syntax Analysis phase of Natural Language Processing. [7]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Explain Unification algorithm in detail with example. [8]
b) Write a detailed note on Conceptual Dependency? [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is Goal Stack planning? Explain with example. [10]
b) Write and explain Waltzs algorithm. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is the significance of Planning? Which are the various components
of typical Planning system? [10]
b) Write a note on Hierarchical planning. [8]
Q9) a) Write notes on , [8]

i) Explanation based learning
ii) Induction learning
iii) Learning by taking advice
iv) Rote learning
b) Discuss any case study of an expert system. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Draw and explain the typical architecture of Expert System. [8]
b) What is Artificial Neural Network? Explain with example. [8]
Q11) a) Write a PROLOG program to print 7th Fibonacci number using recursion.
[8]
b) Write a note on Genetic Algorithm. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain with example how does PROLOG implement backtracking?[8]
b) Write short notes on Parallel and Distributed AI. [8]
tttt
[4264]- 715 2
P1209 [4264]-716

COMPILER DESIGN
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Compare Compiler and Interpreter. [4]
b) Define Cross compiler and Incremental compiler. [4]
c) Explain various compiler construction Tools. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are the following system programs and what is their relation with
compiler. [6]
Preprocessor, Assembler, Linker and loader.
b) What are various phases of compiler? Explain the functions of each
phase with input and output for the code.
Main ()
{
int x, y;
float z;
x = x*y + z;
}
list out the possible errors that encountered in each phase of compilation. [10]
Q3) a) Describe the role of lexical analysis phase of compiler in compilation

process of the program. How the finite automata use in lexical analysis
phase. [6]
P.T.O.
b) Write regular definitions for the following languages. [10]
i) All string of letters that contain the five vowels in order.
ii) All strings of letters in which the letters are in ascending lexicographic
order.
iii) Comments consisting of a string surrounded by /* and */ without
an intervening */unless it appears inside the quotes and.
iv) All string of digits with no repeated digits.
OR
Q4) a) What lexeme, token and pattern? What is their role in lexical analysis
phase of compiler? [6]
b) Give Thompsons construction algorithm. Explain the process of
constructing an NFA from regular expression. [10]
Ex : (0)*11(0|1)(00)*
Q5) a) Construct LALR parser table for the following CFG [12]
So A = B
So B
Bo A
A o *B
Ao I
Where I is identifier, * and = are terminal symbols, S is start Symbol and
A & B are non - terminal.
b) What is left recursion? How can it be eliminated? Give suitable example.[6]
OR
Q6) a) Construct LALR parser table for the following CFG [12]
Do L : T
L o L, id | id
T o int | real
Symbols D,L,T are non - terminals and symbol :, id int real are
terminal.
b) What is left factoring? Explain with suitable example. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is activation record? Describe the significance of various fields of
activation record with suitable illustration. [10]
b) What do meant by a procedure parameter? Explain the run time mechanism
needed to provide such a facility. [8]
OR
[4264]- 716 2
Q8) a) Discuss the importance of symbol table in compiler design. How is the
symbol table manipulated at various phases of compilation? [6]
b) Give the output of the following program using the following parameter
passing methods. [12]
i) pass by value
ii) pass by reference
iii) pass by name
iv) pass by value result
#include <stdio.h>
int i = 0;
int j = 0;
Void p(int x, int y)
{
x + = 1;
i + = 1;
y + = 1;
}
Void swap(int x, int y)
{
x = x + y;
y = x-y;
x = x-y;
}
Main()
{
int a[2] = {1, 1}
int b[3] = {1,2,0};
p(a[i],a[i]);
printf(%d%d\n, a[0],a[1]);
swap(j, a[j]
printf(%d %d %d\n, b[0],b[1],b[2]);
Return 0;
}
Q9) Consider the following three address code statements [16]

a) PROD = 0;
b) I = 1;
c) T2 = addr(A)-4
d) T4 = addr(B)-4
e) T1 = 4*I
[4264]- 716 3
f) T3 = T2[T1]
g) T5 = 4[T1]
h) T6 = T3*T5
i) PROD = PROD + T6
j) I = I + 1
k) If I <= 20 GOTO(5)
Compute the basic blocks and draw the flow graph. Eliminate induction
variable and draw the modified flow graph.
OR
Q10) a) Generate triple, indirect triple and quadruple for following C program
fragment [12]
i) Switch (a + b)
{
Case 1 : x = x + 1;
Case 2 : y = y + 2;
Case 3 : z = z + 3;
Default : c = c - 1;
}
ii) If (a < b)
While (c > d)
x = x + y;
else
do
p = p + q;
while (e <= f)
b) What is type systems and type checking? What are the type checking
functions? [4]
Q11) a) How are the object layout is maintain in Multiple inheritance? Why do we
say c + + supports multiple programming language features? How
compiler handle this inheritance. [10]
b) What is multiple and multilevel inheritance? Explain with example. [6]
OR
Q12) a) What is inheritance in object oriented programming languages? What are
their different types? What are the changes do you suggest in traditional
two phase compiler to handle these inheritance? [10]
b) What is constructor and destructor of the class? What is the purpose of
constructor and destructor in object oriented programming languages? [6]
tttt
[4264]- 716 4
P1213 [4264]-734
ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY
1) Answer three questions from Section I and three questions from Section II.
SECTION - I
Q1) Answer the following : [18]
a) What is BOD? Derive the equation for BOD? What are the limitations of
BOD?
b) Sample was prepared by 5% dilution of waste water and following
observations were made : (K = 0.2)
i) D.O of original sample is = 0.6 mg/lit.
ii) D.O of aerated water used for dilution = 6.0 mg/lit
iii) D.O of diluted sample after 5 days incubation = 1 mg/lit
Calculate B.O.D. of 5 days and ultimate B.O.D. of the sample.
OR
a) Discuss the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of waste
water?
b) Explain briefly the treatment sequence in wastewater treatment plant?
Q3) A trickling filter plant has the following : [16]

a) A primary clarifier with 17 m diameter, 2.5 m side water depth, and a
single peripheral weir.
b) A trickling filter 25 m diameter, 2.5 m deep stone filled bed.
c) Final settling tank with 15 m diameter, 2.5 m side water depth and single
peripheral weir.
d) Normal operating recirculation ratio = 0.5
e) The daily W/W flow = 6.2 m/d
f) Average BOD of W/W = 180 mg/lit
Calculate the loading on Weir loading of clarifier, Hydraulic loading, BOD/
Organic loading, final settling tank weir loading?
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) Write a short note on : [16]
a) Photo catalytic reactor.
b) Packed bed reactor.
Q5) Discuss the characteristics and treatment of the following industrial wastes :
[16]
a) Dairy industry
b) Paper and pulp industry
OR
Q6) Write the note on characteristics of industrial waste water. Discuss in brief
various treatment processes adopted for treating industrial waste water like
proportioning, neutralization, biological, chemical? [16]
SECTION - II
Q7) Write a short note on : [16]
a) Basic design and operating principle of settling chamber.
b) CO2 Sequestration by algae
OR
Q8) Discuss the different types of air pollutants and their effect on human health?
Explain different types of air quality control techniques? [16]

a) Solid waste Management
b) Biological detoxification of phenols
c) Waste minimization.
d) Hospital waste management.
OR
Q10) What is hazardous waste management? Enlist various methods of hazardous
waste management and describe various waste disposal methods? [16]
Q11) Define Biodegradation? Explain the Biodegradation of the following wastes : [18]
a) Herbicides and pesticides.
b) Hydrocarbons.
OR
Q12) What is Bioremediation? Explain Ex - situ and Insitu bioremediation? Enlist
its advantages and disadvantages? [18]
tttt
[4264]- 734 2
P1214 [4264]-736
BIO - THERAPEUTICS TECHNOLOGY
(Elective - I) (2008 Pattern) (Semester - I)
1) Answer Q.No. 1 or Q.No. 2. Answer Q 3 or Q. No. 4. Answer Q.No. 5 or Q.No. 6
from Section I and Answer Q.No. 7 or Q.No. 8 Answer Q.No. 9 or Q.No. 10 Answer
Q.No. 11 or Q.No. 12.
SECTION - I
Q1) What is Recombinant protein production? Elaborate the technique, giving
examples. [18]
OR
Q2) Describe the Principles and Mechanisms of Mammalian Cell Transfection.[18]
Q3) Answer the following - [16]

a) What are Biopharmaceuticals? Explain the Science of Biopharmaceuticals.
b) What are the different types of cloning vectors? Why filamentous phages
are ideal in many ways for use as cloning vehicles and for display.
OR
Q4) Explain : [16]
a) Transgenic Plants as biofactories for the production of
Biopharmaceuticals.
b) Transgenic animals are poised to become Biopharmaceutical factories.

a) Why are reliable analytical characterisation data required throughout all
stages of the biotech drug development pipeline?
b) Give an overview of Protein - based drugs developed through
biotechnology.
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) Write notes on : [16]
a) Baculovirus expression system
b) The biopanning procedure
c) Posttranslational Modifications
d) The production of antisera for therapeutic use to induce passive
immunization.
SECTION - II
Q7) Delivering a biologic to the market can be a challenging process. Explain.[18]
OR
Q8) Intellectual property law : a primer for scientists. Elaborate. [18]
Q9) Answer the following [16]

a) Enlist the Water purification methods and give the general requirements
for biopharmaceutical water systems.
b) Documentation is the key to operating a biopharmaceutical company.
Explain.
OR
a) What are the different methods for delivery of a drug, explain one briefly?
b) A clinical trial is a investigational research study. Justify.
c) Define the term validation in biopharmaceuticals. Enlist the types and
phases.
d) What is the guiding principle of GMP? Describe.
Q11) Diagrammatically/Schematically explain : [16]

a) Parental Drug Administration
b) Building a cell bank
OR
Q12) Write notes on [16]
a) Facilities and design of a General Cleanroom
b) Drug absorption and degradation
c) Sustained release preparations
d) Hierarchal structure in Indian biotechnology.
tttt
[4264]- 736 2
P1325 [4264]-481
B.E. (Production Engg.) (Production S/W)

OPERATIONS RESEARCH AND MANAGEMENT
and steam table is allowed.
6) You are advised to attempt not more than 3 questions.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Solve the following LP problem using by two phase method. [10]
ZMin = 3X1 + X2 + X3
Subject to X1 2X2 + X3 < 11
4X1 + X2 + 2X3 > 3
2X1 + X3 = 1, X1, X2, X3 > 0
b) Explain the scope of operation research in modern management. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Solve the following LP problem by Big - M method. [12]
ZMax = X1 + 2X2 + 3X3
Subject to X1 + 2X2 + 3X3 = 15
2X1 + X2 + 5X3 = 20,
X1 + 2X2 + X3 = 10 X1, X2, X3 > 0
P.T.O.
b) Write the dual for following problem [6]
i) ZMax = 6X1 + 4X2 + 6X3 + X4
Subject to 4X1 + 4X2 + 4 X3 + 8X4 = 21,
3X1 + 17X2 + 80X3 +2 X4 < 48
X1 , X2 > 0, X3, X4 are unrestricted
ii) ZMin = 20X1 + 40X2
Subject to 2X1 + 20X2 > 40, 20X1 + 3X2 > 20,
4X1 + 15X2 > 30, X1, X2 > 0
Q3) a) Explain Hungarian method for solving the assignment problem. [6]
b) The following table gives the cost of transportation material from supply
points P,Q,R,S to demand points E,F,G,H,J the present allocation is as
follows A to E 90, A to F 10, B to F150, C to F10,C to G 50, C to J 120,
D to H 210, D to J 70. [10]
i) Check if this allocation is optimum. If not, find an optimum schedule.
ii) If in the above problem the transportation cost from A to G is

reduced to 10, what will be the new optimum schedule?
To
From E F G H J
A 8 10 12 17 15
B 15 13 18 11 9
C 14 20 6 10 13
D 13 19 7 6 12
OR
[4264]- 481 2
Q4) a) Consider the problem of assigning five persons to five different machines.
The assignment cost are given in following table. Person A can not be assign
to machine M3 and person C can not be assigned to machine M4. Find the
optimum assignment schedule and also find alternative solution if there. [8]
Machine
Person I II III IV V
A 7 7 - 4 8
B 9 6 4 5 6
C 11 5 7 - 5
D 9 4 8 9 4
E 8 7 9 11 3
b) Solve the following transportation problem [8]
Destinations available
S1 S2 D1 D2
S1 0 2 3 4 5
S2 2 0 2 4 25
Source D1 3 2 0 1
D2 4 4 1 0
requirement 20 10
Q5) a) There are seven jobs, each of which has to go through the machine A
and B in the order AB. Processing times in hours are given as
Job 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Machine A 3 12 15 6 10 11 9
Machine B 8 10 10 6 12 1 3
Determine a sequence of these jobs that will minimize the total elapsed
time T. [8]
[4264]- 481 3
b) Compare Demand rate uniform & production rate infinite with Demand
rate non uniform & production rate infinite of inventory models with
deterministic demand. [8]
OR
Q6) a) A manufacturing company processes 6 different jobs on two machines

A and B. Number of units of each job and its processing times on A and
B are given in table below. Find the optimal sequence, the total minimum
elapsed time and idle time for each machine. [8]
Job No. No. of units of each jobs Processing time
Machine A Machine B
1 3 5 8
2 4 16 7
3 2 6 11
4 5 3 5
5 2 9 7.5
6 3 6 14
b) i) Compute the E.O.Q. and the total variable cost for the following :
Annual demand : 25 units
Unit price : Rs. 2.50
Order cost : Rs. 4.00
Storage rate : 1% per year
Interest rate : 12% per year
Obsolescence rate : 7% per year
ii) Compute the order quantity and the total variable cost that would
result if an incorrect price of Rs. 1.60 were used for the item. [8]
[4264]- 481 4
SECTION - II
Q7) a) On average 96 patients per 24 hours day require the service of an

emergency clinic. Also on average, a patient requires 10 minutes of active
attention. Assume that the facility can handle only one emergency at a
time. Suppose that it costs the clinic Rs. 100 per patient treated to obtain
an average servicing time of 10 minutes, and that each minute of decrease
in this average time would cost Rs. 10 per patient treated. How much
would have to be budgeted by the clinic to decrease the average size of
the queue from 1.333 patients to patients? [8]
b) Differentiate pure strategy and mixed strategy in game theory with suitable
example. [8]
OR
Q8) a) The milk plant at a city distributes its product by trucks, loaded at the
loading dock. It has its own fleet of trucks plus trucks of a private
transport company. This transport company has complained that some
times its trucks have to wait in line and thus the company loses money
paid for a truck and driver that is only waiting. The company has asked
the milk plant management either to go for a second loading dock or
discount prices equivalent to the waiting time. The following data are
available :
Average arrival rate (all trucks) = 3 per hours
Average service rate = 4 per hour.
The transport company has provided 40% of the total number of trucks.
Assuming that these rates are random according to Poisson distribution,
Determine : [8]
i) The probability that a truck has to wait.
ii) The waiting time of a truck that waits.
iii) The expected waiting time of company truck per day.
b) Determine the optimum strategies and value of the game given below[8]
10 4 2 9 1
A 7 6 5 7 8
3 5 4 4 9
6 7 3 3 2
[4264]- 481 5
Q9) a) Explain with flow chart fixed time increment simulation model of a single
server queuing system. [8]
b) An auto rickshaw driver finds from his previous records that the cost
per year of running an auto rickshaw whose purchase price is Rs. 7,000
is as given below [8]
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Running Cost (Rs.) 1100 1300 1500 1900 2400 2900 3500 4100
Resale Price (Rs.) 3100 1600 850 475 300 300 300 300
At what age is the replacement due?
OR
Q10) a) Discuss with appropriate flow chart next event increment simulation model
of a single server queuing system. [8]
b) The typing pool of a large organization employs 100 copy typists. The
distribution of the length of service is given in the following table : [8]
Duration of employee in years 1 2 3 4 5 or more
Proportion of staff employment 30% 40% 20% 10% 0%
Assuming that an employee leaving is replaced by another at the end of

the year, Determine
i) The number of staff who leave in each of the first 8 years of the
departments existence, assuming it started with 100 employees and
this total number does not change.
ii) The number leaving each year when the steady state situation is
reached.
[4264]- 481 6
Q11) a) Discuss Heuristic program for resource allocation with suitable example.[9]
b) The utility data for a network is given below. The activity durations are in
days and the cost in rupees. The indirect cost per day is Rs. 250.
Determine the optimum project schedule. [9]
Activity Normal Crash
Time Direct Cost Time Direct Cost
(days) (Rs.) (days) (Rs.)
1-2 4 600 2 800
1-3 2 500 1 900
2-4 6 1000 3 1750
2-5 4 1200 4 1200
3-5 5 1000 3 1200
3-7 10 2500 5 3500
4-5 5 1300 5 1300
5-6 8 2000 6 2100
5-7 0 0 0 0
6-8 7 2000 7 2000
7-8 8 1600 5 1780
OR
Q12) a) The utility data for a network is given below. The activity durations are in
weeks and the cost in rupees. The indirect cost per day is Rs. 1000 per
week. Determine the optimum project schedule. [9]
Activity Normal Crash
Time Direct Cost Time Direct Cost
(days) (Rs.) (days) (Rs.)
1-2 8 7000 3 10000
1-3 4 6000 2 8000
2-3 0 0 0 0
2-5 6 9000 1 11500
3-4 7 2500 5 3000
4-6 12 10000 8 16000
5-6 15 12000 10 16000
5-7 7 12000 6 14000
6-8 5 10000 5 10000
7-8 14 6000 7 7400
7-9 8 6000 5 12000
8-9 6 6000 4 7800
b) Explain the complexities of project scheduling with limited resources. [9]
tttt
[4264]- 481 7
P1333 [4264]-601
B.E. (Chemical)
PROCESS DYNAMICS & CONTROL
(Sem. - I) (2008 Pattern)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss the history and incentives for Chemical process control. [8]
b) Derive the Input - output model for CSTR. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Derive the time domain equation for a first order system subjected to
unit step input. Sketch the dynamic response of the same. [8]
b) A thermometer showing steady state temperature of 40 C is suddenly
immersed into a hot bath at 140 C. If the time constant of thermometer
is 5 sec, determine the following; [8]
i) Thermometer reading after 5 sec.
ii) Time required reading 90C on Thermometer.
iii) Time required for 90% response.
Q3) a) Derive the transfer function for U-tube manometer system. Comment on
type of dynamic response of the system. [8]
b) Discuss the characteristics of underdamped response. Sketch the
overshoot and decay ratio versus damping factor if damping factor
is varied from 0 to 1. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Reduce the following block diagram and obtain the transfer function
C(s)/R(s); [8]
R(s) C(s)
+_ G1(s) +_ G2(s)
H(s)
b) A first order process with following transfer function is controlled by P

controller. Assuming servo problem and neglecting the dynamics of final
control element and measuring instrument i.e. Gf(s) = Gm(s) = 1;
1
The open loop process is Gp ( s) [8]
s 1
Determine the following;
i) Closed loop transfer function.
ii) Order of response.
iii) Closed loop gain, time constant.
iv) Offset.
Q5) a) Define stability of the process and discuss Characteristic equation and
Routh - Hurwitz criteria for stability. [8]
b) Draw the root locus diagram for the system with following transfer
function; [10]
Kp
Gp( s )
s ( s 1)( s 2)
OR
Q6) Write short notes on; [18]
a) Selection of feed - back controller.
b) Controller tuning.
c) ISE, IAE, ITAE.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Sketch the Bode diagram for the given first order system [9]
1
Gp( s )
(2 s 1)
b) Sketch the Nyquist diagram for PD controller. [9]

OR
[4264]- 601 2
Q8) a) Derive the response of general first order system to sinusoidal input.
Define amplitude and phage lag. [9]
b) Discuss the following; [9]
i) Ziegler Nicholes Tuning technique.
ii) Gain margin & phase margin.
iii) Bode stability criteria.
Q9) Discuss in detail with a neat sketch of following; [16]
a) Cascade Control system for CSTR.
b) Inverse - response systems.
OR
Q10) Draw a neat sketch of following and explain with suitable examples; [16]
a) Adaptive control.
b) Auctioneering control system.
Q11) Draw the instrumentation diagram for Plant wide control for plants involving
compressor and discuss in detail about its functioning. [16]
OR
Q12) Write short notes on [16]
a) DCS.
b) Model Predictive control.
c) Data Bus concept.
d) Role of digital computers in control.
tttt
[4264]- 601 3
P1335 [4264]-651
B.E. (Petrochemical)
REACTION ENGINEERING - II
1) Attempt any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in two separate answer books.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
5) Use of steam tables and electronic calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss Langmuir - Hinshelwood mechanism. [6]
b) Write reaction statement for steam reformation of methane. Suggest an
appropriate kinetic equation assuming surface reaction on catalyst to be
rate controlling. [10]
Q2) a) Derive the expression giving generalized Thiele Modulus which can work
for any arbitrary kinetics. Also, comment on how arbitrary shape of
catalyst particle can be taken into account. [10]
b) We want to design a fluidized bed reactor filled with 2.0 - cm porous
catalyst particles (catalyst density is 2800 kg/m3 and effective diffusivity
is 2.7 106 m3/m cat.s) to treat 5 m3/s of feed gas (1/3 A, 1/3 B, 1/3 inert)
at 450 C and 8 bar to 90% conversion of A. Experiments with fine
catalyst particles, which are free from diffusional resistance, show that
the gas phase reaction A o R + S is first order with rate constant based
on weight of catalyst given as 0.05 SI units. Calculate the mass of catalyst
needed. [8]
Q3) a) Derive time conversion relationship for the case of first order reaction
on a deactivating catalyst if deactivation kinetics is also first order in
catalyst activity. Assume mixing patterns for solids and fluid as batch
and CSTR respectively. [8]
b) Discuss difference between poisoning and deactivation. Also discuss
the mechanisms responsible for both. [8]
P.T.O.
Q4) Second order decomposition reaction A o B + C is carried out in a fixed
bed reactor packed with catalyst pellets that are 0.5 cm in diameter. The
reaction is known to operate in the strong pore diffusion regime. Feed to the
reactor is pure A entering with superficial velocity of 4 cm/s at 200 C and 5
bar. Reaction rate constant when pore diffusion is absent is given as 60 m3/
g.s.mol. Calculate length of the bed required to attain 90% conversion of
feed. [16]
DATA ON CATALYST PELLET :
Effective diffusivity : 3 108m2/s
Bed porosity : 30%
Pellet density : 2.5 106 g/m3
Internal surface Area : 500 m2/g

SECTION - II
Q5) With reference to process design of an absorption column, derive the
following : [16]
a) Design equation
b) Expression for global rate when gas undergoes
i) instantaneous reaction in liquid film and
ii) very slow reaction in bulk liquid
Q6) An acidic impurity A in a gaseous stream is to be removed so as to reduce its

partial pressure from 350 Pa to 50 Pa (total pressure is 100 kPa) by reacting it
with a base B dissolved in water in a packed tower operated in a counter -
current manner. Overall gas side mass transfer coefficient is 0.008 mol/hr.m3.Pa.
Gas side resistance to mass transport in absence of the reaction is 10% whereas
the liquid film contributes the remaining 90% resistance. Henrys constant is
15 Pa.m3/mol. L/G ratio is 5 times the minimum required for plain absorption.
Calculate minimum concentration of B needed at the top of the tower to ensure
minimum height of the tower. Also calculate this minimum height. [18]
Q7) a) Derive time - conversion relationship for a spherical particle reacting

with a gas in a uniform atmosphere when diffusion to gas transport through
the ash layer is controlling the overall rate. State the limitations of the
model clearly. [10]
[4264]- 651 2
b) Spherical particle of ZnS with initial diameter of 3 cm is subjected to
roasting in presence of air. Roasting reaction yields SO2 as also the layer
of ZnO. Molar density of solid may be assumed to be 0.05 mol/cm3.
Diffusivity of gas through the product layer is 0.07 cm2/s. Calculate the
time required to convert the particle by 85%. [6]
Q8) Give a brief account of pertinent reactions, catalysts used, operating conditions
and reactors employed in platforming, fluid catalytic cracking and hydrogen
production. [16]
tttt
[4264]- 651 3
P1383 [4264]-720
B.E. (IT)
MULTIMEDIA SYSTEMS
(Semester - I) (2008 Pattern) (Elective - II)
2) From section I answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6 and From Section - II
answer Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10, Q.11 or Q.12.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the characteristics of multimedia presentation? Explain in brief.[8]

b) What is multimedia document architecture? What is its relevance in this
era of internet? Explain in brief. [10]
OR
Q2) a) What is hypertext? What is the architecture of hypertext document? [6]
b) What are doc, rtf and pdf text formats. [6]
c) With the help of an example, explain Huffman Coding as text compression
technique. [6]
Q3) a) In the context of digital images, what is pixel dimension, image resolution,
file size, color depth, image representation? [10]
b) What is the need of image compression? Elaborate vector quantization
compression technique of image compression. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Elaborate JPEG image file format. [8]
b) What is fractal compression technique for image compression? [8]
Q5) a) Write a short note on characteristics of sound. [8]

b) Write a short note on delta modulation of AUDIO. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Draw a block diagram of sound card and explain how it works. [8]
b) Write a short note on WAV and AIFF file format. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Write short note on EDTV and HDTV [6]
b) Write short note on VHS [6]
c) Write short note on AVI video file format [6]
OR
Q8) a) Write a short note on digital video, MiniDV and DVCAM [8]
b) Write a short note on H261, H263. [10]
Q9) a) Elaborate on usage of virtual reality in an application of your choice.[8]

b) What is virtual reality? Write a short note on forms of Virtual Reality.[8]
OR
Q10) a) Write a short note on Hand gloves as a Virtual Reality device. [8]
b) Write a short note on 3d sound system. [8]
Q11) a) Elaborate on any four principles of animation. [8]

b) Elaborate on onion skinning and motion cycling. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Elaborate on atmospheric effects and particle systems in animation. [8]
b) Elaborate on morphing, masking in the context of animation. [8]
tttt
[4264]- 720 2
P941 [4264]-614
B.E. (Chemical)
PROCESS MODELING & SIMULATION
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
SECTION - I
Q1) Write the classification of models in details with proper examples. [16]
OR
Q2) a) What is the difference between continuous Vs discrete model? Discuss
with proper example.
b) Draw a neat flowchart of model building.
[16]
Q3) a) Why differential equations are used in model building?

b) Write energy equation for CSTR in which consecutive first order reaction
occurs with exothermic heats of reaction 1 & 2. [18]
K1 K2
A B C
1 2
OR
Q4) What are the fundamental laws involved in process modeling? Discuss each
with suitable example. [18]
Q5) Develop a model for Agitated vessel. Assume suitable notations. [16]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) Develop a model for shell & Tube Heat Exchanger. [16]
SECTION - II
Q7) Derive a model for direct heated counter current rotary dryer. [18]
OR
Q8) Develop a governing balance equation of continuous extraction process in a
perfectly mixed stage for the following. [18]
Q9) Develop a model for the batch mixing of two solutions. Initially the tank is
empty. The volume of the tank is 1 m3. The flow rates are volumetric and the
concentrations are in moles per volume.
a) How long does it take to fill up the tank?
b) Show how would you find the concentration or the composition and the
temperature of the mixture in the tank during the time that the tank is
being filled up. Assume that the heat of solution depends on the
concentration. [16]
OR
Q10) Develop a model for two CSTR. A simple reaction A B with the first
order kinetics takes place. Assume isothermal conditions. Flow rates f1 & f2
are determined by variable speed pumps and thus independes of liquid levels.
[16]
[4264]-614 2
Q11) a) Classify and explain the methods of treatment of non linear models.
b) List out the softwares available for simulation of process plant. Explain
any one in detail.
[16]
OR
Q12) a) Derive Newton Raphson method.
b) Derive 4th order Runge Kutta method.
[16]
tttt
[4264]-614 3
P942 [4264]-590
B.E. (Printing)
PACKAGE DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY
SECTION - I
Q1) Answer any Two : [18]
a) Explain the role and importance of Flexible packaging today.
b) Differentiate between Flexible and Rigid Packaging.
c) State types of substrates used for paper packaging in detail with
properties.

a) Explain the manufacturing process of Duplex board in brief.
b) Explain conventional offset method for printing in brief.
c) What is fluting? Write in detail types and properties of corrugation fluting.

a) Explain various types of machines used in the manufacturing of Universal
carton in brief.
b) Explain the advantages, disadvantages and applications of Universal
carton in detail.
c) Describe in detail corrugation process.
SECTION - II
a) Explain the Laser die making process in detail.
b) Explain the punching process in detail along with diagram.
c) Explain the process of preparing the Jigged die in detail.
P.T.O.
a) Draw Universal type carton and label the same.
b) For Universal type carton, calculate the paper requirement, when-
The size of the carton : 14 10 14
Quantity of the carton : 2000 Nos.
Size of paper to be used : 23 36
c) Draw the neat diagram of STE type of carton and label the parts.
Q6) Answer any Two [16]

a) Explain the method of measuring the Cobb value of paper in brief.
b) Explain the method of checking the Bursting strength of paper in brief.
c) Write notes :
i) Drop test
ii) Vibration test
iii) Bursting factor
iv) Grain direction
tttt
[4264]-590 2
P943 [4264]-552
B.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication)

TELECOMMUNICATION & SWITCHING SYSTEMS
2) Answer 3 questions from section I and 3 questions from section II.
4) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw the general Trunking Diagram for a Switching system. Explain
various functional entities. [8]
b) Write a brief note on two dimensional switching. Draw the block diagram
for TS Switch and explain various functional entities. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain operation of Input controlled time division space switching with
a neat block diagram. [8]
b) Define and explain [4]
- Busy Hour Call Attempts/Rate
- Average Holding Time
- Call Completion Rate
c) Define Grade of Service and Blocking Probability. [4]
Q3) a) Explain the Principle of Grading to improve Trunking efficiency. Draw a

neat diagram. [6]
b) Explain the design procedure for N by N switch with two stages and
no. of links = N. What is the total no. of cross-points required? [8]
c) Explain the concept of call packing. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Define and explain the terms Availability and Unavailability of a dual
processor system with necessary equations. [4]
b) Calculate availability of a dual processor system for a period of 20 years
if its MTBF = 3300 Hrs. and MTTR = 6 Hrs. [4]
c) Write a brief note on Signaling Systems in a Telecommunication Network.[6]
d) Explain the principle of Grading to improve trucking efficiency. [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) With the help of neat diagrams
- In-band signaling
- Out -band signaling [8]
b) Explain the Principle of Grading to improve trunking efficiency. [4]
c) With respect to Grading what is [2 2 = 4]
- Limited Availability
- Full Availability
OR
Q6) a) Define Graded Groups. Explain the procedure for designing a grading to
provide access to N trunks from switches with availability k. Which
is the best grading? [8]
b) State and explain in detail sequence of operations for a telephone call.[8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is Pulse stuffing? Give an example. [4]
b) Explain the Mutual synchronization approach for Network
Synchronization. [6]
c) Explain the flow control in Network management. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the need of synchronization in a network containing analog/digital
transmission/switching systems. [8]
b) What is jitter? What are the different types of Jitter? With help of a neat
diagram discuss use of Elastic Store to remove accumulated Jitter.
[2+4+4=10]
Q9) a) Explain different services supported by ISDN. Draw neat diagrams. [8]
b) Explain the terms
- Basic Rate Access
- Primary Rate Access
- Functional Grouping
- R,S,T,U Reference Points with the help of a diagram. [8]
OR
[4264]-552 2
Q10) a) Explain and Compare Pure ALOHA with Slotted ALOHA scheme. [8]
b) Discuss various LAN topologies. [8]
Q11) a) Write a note on Co-channel Interference Reduction Factor. [8]

b) Explain CDMA is having better security than GSM. [8]
OR
Q12) a) What is Handoff? Explain the terms [4 2 = 8]
- Hard Handoff
- Soft Handoff
- Mobile Assisted Handoff
b) Draw block diagram for the GSM system architecture. Explain various
functional entities. [8]
tttt
[4264]-552 3
P948 [4264]-721

DISTRIBUTED SYSTEMS
1) Answer Question 1 or 2, 3 or 4, and 5 or 6 from Section - I and Question 7 or 8, 9 or
10, and 11 or 12 from Section - II.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary..
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Show an example of transparency that may not be desirable in distributed
systems. [8]
b) Why is a process pool an attractive model from the view point of
distributed computation and transparency? [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using diskless work stations
in a distributed system? [8]
b) What is distributed system? Explain different examples of distributed
system. [8]
Q3) a) What is RPC? Explain role of client and server stub procedures in RPC
in the context of a procedural language. [8]
b) What is socket? Explain the difference between connection oriented socket
and connectionless socket? [8]
OR
Q4) a) What is pipe? How pipe is used for inter-process communication? [8]
b) Explain CORBA callback and polling model for asynchronous method
invocation. [8]
Q5) a) What is Election algorithm? Suppose that two processes detect the demise
of the coordinator simultaneously and both decide to hold an election
using Bully algorithm. What happens? [10]
b) Explain global state? What are the different types of global states? [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) What do you understand by logical time and logical clocks? What is
Lamports contribution for it? Discuss. [10]
b) What are advantages and drawbacks of multi-version timestamp ordering
in comparison with the ordering timestamp ordering? [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What file sharing semantics is used in your network or distributed file
system? [8]
b) Compare : Coda and xFS distributed file systems. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is naming service X.500? [8]
b) How does mounting of a remote file system take place in NFS? Describe
the functionality of an auto-mounter in NFS. [8]
Q9) a) Why is it difficult to implement the casual memory consistency model

for DSM system? [8]
b) What is difference between the unit of replication and the granularity of
coherence? What are the advantages of small granularity? [8]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss the relative merits and demerits of write - update and write -
invalidate protocols. [8]
b) Discuss design and implementation issues of distributed shared memory. [8]
Q11) a) Define the following : [10]

i) Arbitrary Failures.
ii) Timing Failures.
iii) Backward Recovery
iv) Forward Recovery
v) Check pointing
b) What is use of stable storage? How stable storage technique is used in
recovery. [8]
OR
Q12) a) What is process resilience? Explain different design issues of process
resilience. [10]
b) What is recovery line? Draw and explain domino effect in detail. [8]
tttt
[4264]-721 2

[4264] - 581
B.E. (Printing)
TECHNOLOGY OF GRAVURE

2) Answers to two sections should be written separately.
3) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in detail the gravure cylinder making process. [10]

b) Compare Etching and Engraving process of gravure cylinder. [8]
OR
Explain in detail making of indirect laser engraving of a Gravure cylinder.
Q2) Write Notes on: [16]

a) Base Copper Technique.
b) Corrections in Copper and Chrome in cylinder making.
OR
Explain the factors that affect the plating of copper in cylinder making.
Q3) Explain in detail unit configuration of a Gravure press. [16]

OR
Explain the solvent and water based inks used in gravure printing.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) Explain in detail the factors that influence the viscosity of an ink. [18]
OR
Explain with diagram the doctor blade system of gravure press.
Q5) Write Notes on: [16]

a) Moving Cylinder Impression System.
b) Moving Roller Impression System.
OR
Explain the impact of pressure on gravure print quality.
Q6) Explain in detail register control system for a Gravure press. [16]
OR
Write notes on (Any Four):
a) Idle Rollers.
b) Surface Treatment.
c) Roller Balancing.
d) Dancer roller.
e) ELS.
ZZZ
[4264] -581 2

[4264] - 595
B.E. (Printing)
FLEXIBLE PACKAGING

1) Answer three questions from Section - I and three questions from Section - II
2) Answers to the two sections should be written separately.
3) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain in detail the norms to be followed for a package. [18]

OR
Write notes on:
a) Polyethylene.
b) PVC.
c) PET.
Q2) Explain the Flexography process for Flexible Packaging. [16]

OR
Explain the Rotary Letterpress process for Lami-tubes.
Q3) Explain in detail Extrusion lamination process. [16]

OR
Explain the process of making LDPE film.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) Explain in detail Bag-in-Box technique for a product. [16]

OR
Explain in detail Retort packaging for a liquid product.
Q5) Closures play a vital role in a Package. Explain. [16]

OR
Describe the converting operations for a flexible pouch.
Q6) Explain the packaging methods for meat and dairy products. [18]
OR
Mention deterioration factors and packaging techniques for the following:
a) Horticulture.
b) Carbonated soft drinks.
c) Coffee.
ZZZ
[4264]- 595 2
Total No. of Questions : 12]
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 683
B.E. (Polymer Engg.)
PROCESSING OF COMPOSITES
(Sem. - II) (2008 Pattern) (Elective - III)
1) Answer Q.No. 1 or 2, Q.No. 3 or 4, Q.No.5 or 6 from Section - I and
Q.No. 7 or 8, Q.No. 9 or 10 and Q.No. 11 or 12 from Section - II.
4) Use of scientific calculator and graph paper is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write in short about treatment given to glass fibers using coupling
agents prior to its use in composites. [7]
b) Write expression to find out density of the composite knowing the
densities of the individual components in the composites. [4]
c) Write in short about applications of polyolefin based thermoplastic
composites from material, process and application point of view. [7]
OR
Q2) a) Write in short about applications of Polyphenelyne Sulphide based

thermoplastic composites from material, process and application point
of view. [8]
b) Discuss how Youngs and shear modulus of discontinuous randomly
oriented short fiber reinforced composite is calculated. [4]
c) Obtain an expression for maximum fiber volume fraction possible with
hexagonal array of fiber packing assuming that the fibers have circular
cross section. [6]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain the process of hydro-thermoforming from processing, materials,
and application point of view. [6]
b) Mention typical applications of roll wrapping process. [4]
c) Draw a neat sketch of die/mould for compression moulding of DMC
and discuss design features of the die/mould. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Write in short about metal matrix composites. [6]

b) Write in short about diaphragm forming process. [5]
c) Explain the process of matched die forming with schematic sketch of
the process and explain the applications of the same. [5]
Q5) a) Explain in short the process of resin transfer molding. [8]

b) Give design considerations for mould design in case of autoclave
process. [4]
c) Analyze various reasons for voids in autoclave processing. [4]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss in detail various resin viscosity and kinetic models for autoclave
processing. [8]
b) Write about the process, material and applications of structural reaction
injection molding. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss matrix flow modeling using a linearly tapered die in case of
pultrusion. [10]
b) Draw a schematic sketch of pultrusion process and explain the process
in general. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Discuss pulling resistance mathematical models proposed with reference

to pultrusion and explain the usefulness of the same. [12]
b) Discuss pultrusion of thermoplastic - matrix composites and its
application. [4]
[4264]-683 2
Q9) a) Discuss various failure modes in the adhesive joints. [6]
b) Write a note on water jet cutting in case of composites. [6]
c) Discuss various type of bonded joints in composites. [6]
OR
Q10)a) Discuss various winding techniques used in filament winding and also
discuss sequential compaction model. [10]
b) Discuss requirements of resin for good wetting of the fiber in case of
filament winding. [8]
Q11)a) Write applications of carbon nano-tube composite. [5]

b) List types of carbon nano-tubes. Explain their structure. [6]
c) State advantages and disadvantages of nano- composites. [5]
OR
Q12)a) List different types of nano-clays used in polymer clay nano-composites.

State the difference in their structure. [8]
b) Compare polymer nano-composites and ordinary composites with
respect to morphology, processing techniques and process parameters.
[8]
vvvv
[4264]-683 3
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 704
PATTERN RECOGNITION
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Explain features and feature vectors with suitable example? How feature
vector is useful for pattern recognition? [8]
b) What are the learning and adaption methods in pattern recognition
system? Explain. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What do you mean by patterns? How segmentation and grouping is

important components of pattern recognition system? [8]
b) Explain Regression, Interpolation and Density estimation and
Associative memory in brief. [8]
Unit - II
Q3) a) Explain Bayesian decision theory with example in detail. [10]

b) Explain the problem of Minimum-Error-rate classification. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain Feature space, Loss function, Risk, Bayes risk and Decision
rule in brief? [10]
b) Explain decision hyperplanes and perceptron with suitable examples.
[8]
Unit - III
Q5) a) What are sample covariance, and absolutely unbiased estimator? Explain
in detail. [8]
b) Explain Bayes Error, Model error and Estimation error in detail. [8]
OR
Q6) a) When does Maximum-Likelihood and Bayes methods differ? Explain

in detail. [8]
b) Explain recursive Bayes incremental learning method with example.[8]
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) What is problem of finding the best direction? Explain how scatter
matrix is useful to solve this problem. [8]
b) What is Overfitting problem? Explain in detail with suitable example.
[8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain how Hidden Markov Model (HMM) is effective to solve the
problem of multiple decision? [8]
b) Explain any one classical approach to fine effective linear transformation
in detail. [8]
Unit - V
Q9) a) Explain non parametric technique for directly estimating the posteriori
probabilities in brief. [10]
b) Explain batch perceptron algorithm for finding a solution vector in
brief. [8]
OR
[4264]-704 2
Q10)a) Explain Quadratic and Polynomial discriminant function in detail. [10]
b) Explain the steps involved in SVM training, in brief. [8]
Unit - VI
Q11)a) Explain the difference in Pruning and Joining with proper example.[8]
b) Justify the significance of Nominal data and String in a classification
problem with suitable example. [8]
OR
Q12)a) Show that the computational complexity of k-Means clustering

algorithm is O(ndcT), where n is the number of d-dimensional patterns,
c is the assumed number of clusters, and T is the number of iterations.[8]
b) Justify the significance of Nominal data and String in a classification
problem with suitable example. [8]
vvvv
[4264]-704 3
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 706
NEURAL NETWORKS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is a Neural Network? Explain the need of Neural Networks. [8]
b) Draw and Explain the structure of biological neuron. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are the different types of Basic Learning Laws? Explain any one
in detail. [8]
b) Explain Mc-Culloch pitts model of Neuron. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the benefits of Modular Neural Networks. [8]

b) What are the classes of Learning algorithms? Explain Supervised
learning neural networks in detail. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain Radial Basis function networks. [8]

b) Explain multilayer perceptrons in detail. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Draw and Explain the architecture of Hopfield model. [9]
b) Write a detail note on Stimulated Annealing. [9]
OR
Q6) a) Write and Explain bidirectional associative memory. [9]

b) Explain analysis of linear auto associative feed forward networks. [9]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Draw and explain the architecture of Feedback Neural networks. [8]
b) Draw and explain Boltzmans machine in detail. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is stochastic process? Why is it necessary? Explain in detail. [8]

b) Explain the analysis of pattern storage networks. [8]
Q9) a) Explain Unsupervised Learning Neural Networks. [8]

b) What are the different steps in ART Algorithm. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Describe principal component analysis in detail. [8]

b) Write a note on Learning Vector Quantization (LVQ). [8]
Q11)a) Explain Pattern classification using neural networks. [9]

b) Explain in detail Associative Memories. [9]
OR
Q12)a) Describe how Optimization is achieved in Neural Networks. [9]

b) Explain Applications of neural networks in Decision Making. [9]
vvvv
[4264]-706 2

[4264] - 711
B.E. (IT)
INFORMATION ASSURANCE AND SECURITY

2) Assume suitable data if necessary and justify.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write the Extended Euclidian algorithm to compute the inverse. [10]
[Illustrate with proper variables and comments]
b) What are the security goals? Explain various types of Authentication. [8]
OR
Q2) a) In a Chinese remainder theorem, Let N = 210 and let n1 = 5, n2 = 6,
n3 = 7.
Compute f-1 (3,5,2), i.e. given x1 = 3, x2 = 5, x3 = 3, compute x. [12]
b) How AES encryption does not solve an integrity problem? If not, what
is the solution? [6]
Q3) a) Compare ECB and Counter mode of operation. [8]

b) Draw block diagram of AES and state the general step in the process.
[8]
OR
Q4) a) Cryptography is not enough for end to end security solution. Justify.
[8]
b) We say that, it is computationally infeasible to derive plain text from
cipher text without proper key. Justify the term computationally
infeasible, with examples. [8]
Q5) a) Explain with diagram PKI working. [8]

b) Illustrate Diffie-Hellman key exchange with diagram. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) What improvements are given by Needham Schroeder Protocol? [8]
b) Explain evolution of authentication systems in theory and in products.
[8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Illustrate Network level security solution for Peer to Peer chat application
which should support authentication, integrity and secrecy. [12]
b) State three threats in Data link layer and Network Layer, each. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain SSL four protocols. [12]
b) State various categories of Intrusion Detection System. [6]
Q9) a) Explain any four domains of ISO 27001 standard. [8]

b) Explain any four benefits of ISO 27001 standard deployment. [8]
OR
Q10) a) List the Electronic payment systems. Explain any one method of online
payment, Functionally, technically [Diagrams must]. [8]
b) Illustrate idea of Electronic Cash. [8]
Q11) a) Explain Man in the Middle Attack. [8]

b) Explain any four forensic features extraction leading to evidence retrieval.
[8]
OR
Q12) a) Describe the term Industrial Espionage in detail with example. [8]
b) Write short note on Indian IT law2000, 2008 amendments. [8]
ZZZ
[4264] -711 2
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 724
B.E. (IT)
SOFTWARE ARCHITECTURE
1) From Section - I, Answer (Q1 or Q2) and (Q3 or Q4) and (Q5 or Q6).
2) From Section - II, Answer (Q7 or Q8) and (Q9 or Q10) and Q11.
5) Make suitable assumptions wherever relevant and appropriate.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What documentation would you need to do performance analysis of

an architecture? [4]
b) Explain with suitable example : [8]
i) Architecture is high-level design.
ii) Architecture is the overall structure of the system.
iii) Behavior of each software element is part of the architecture.
iv) Architecture has components & connectors.
c) Explain : Architecture is the vehicle for stakeholder communication.[6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Architecture Business Cycle. [8]

b) What is software architecture? Explain with example. How do the
architectures affect the nature of the organization? [10]
Q3) Explain and illustrate the following concepts (in context of quality attribute)
with examples, in brief. [16]
a) Maintaining data confidentially.
b) Quality attribute scenario.
c) Performance bottlenecks.
d) Non functional requirements.
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) Explain and illustrate the following concepts (in context of quality attributes)
with examples. [16]
a) Following concern in context of modifiablity : When is a change
made and who makes it.
b) Any one quality attribute scenario for performance.
c) Measuring and specifying performance for a web site.
d) Usability aspects observed by you in a typical MS WINDOWS desktop
software. (Hint : MS WORD/IE7).
Q5) a) List and explain important principles behind design patterns. [8]
b) Explain the following : [8]
i) Programming the interface.
ii) Concept of delegation.
OR
Q6) Write a short note on any four : [16]

a) Singleton b) Adapter
c) Factory d) Facade
e) Observer f) Iterator
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Compare different architecture styles. [10]

b) Write short note on : [8]
i) Coupling in XML.
ii) Structure of XML.
OR
Q8) a) Explain three tier architecture with reference to presentation, business

and persistence layers. [10]
b) Explain the concept of : [8]
i) Loose coupling.
ii) Addressing quality attributes through multi tier architecture.
[4264]-724 2
Q9) a) Write a short note on Web servers and application Servers. [8]
b) Explain in detail the concept of addressing Quality attributes through
multi tier architecture. [8]
OR
Q10)a) What kind of responsibilities does a web client have? How can one
make web client more dynamic. [4]
b) Explain with example : [12]
i) CGI . ii) Legacy Application.
iii) Web services. iv) EJB.
Q11)Write short note (Any four) : [16]

a) Components and Interfaces b) DLL.
c) .NET assemblies. d) .NET remoting.
e) .NET web services. f) IUNKNOWN.
vvvv
[4264]-724 3
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 725
B.E. (IT)
ADVANCED GRAPHICS
1) Answer question 1 or 2, 3 or 4, 5 or 6 from Section - I and question 7 or 8,
9 or 10, 11 or 12 from Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Compare and contrast parallel projection and perspective projection

3D display methods. [6]
b) Explain following quadratic surfaces. [6]
i) Ellipsoid.
ii) Torus.
c) What is Spline? What are the major differences between Bezier curve
and B-Spline. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain polygon table and geometric data representation with suitable
example. [6]
b) Explain with mathematical model Bezier surface and B-Spline surface.
[6]
c) What are the different Spline specification methods? Explain with
suitable diagram and examples. [6]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain various animation techniques. [8]
b) What is meant by key-framing, tweening and morphing with suitable
example? [8]
OR
Q4) a) Which are the different animation softwares? Explain any one
animation software in detail. [8]
b) Explain briefly various real time animation techniques used in computer
assisted animation. [8]
Q5) a) What are sweep surfaces? Discuss different methods of generating sweep
surfaces. [8]
b) Explain in detail Spatial-partitioning representation along with its
decomposition. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Compare and contrast primitive instancing and boundary representation.

[8]
b) Differentiate various solid modeling methods on following points.[8]
i) Uniqueness.
ii) Compactness and efficiency.
iii) Accuracy.
iv) Domain.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is the necessity of a color model? Explain the following color
models with necessary equations and applications. [8]
i) CMY ii) HSV
b) Explain CIE chromaticity diagram. How is RGB to CMY conversion
done? Explain. [6]
c) Explain any one color selection system with its application. [4]
OR
[4264]-725 2
Q8) a) Explain HLV & HLS color cones. [8]
b) Explain YIQ color model. How is YIQ to RGB conversion done?
Explain. [6]
c) Write a short note on illumination model. [4]
Q9) a) Illustrate Basic Ray tracing Algorithm. [8]

b) Define shading. What are the different methods used for shading?
Explain Gouraud shading model. [8]
OR
Q10)a) What is rendering? Explain Monte-Carlo method for rendering. [8]

b) Compare Gauraud & Phongs method of shading. [8]
Q11)a) List and explain the factors affecting the design of a virtual reality
system. [8]
b) What are the different popular virtual reality languages? Explain any
one in detail. [8]
OR
Q12)a) What is meant by virtual reality system? Explain the applications of

virtual reality system. [8]
b) Explain driving simulation application and different virtual reality
devices used in it. [8]
vvvv
[4264]-725 3
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 726
B.E. (IT)
ADVANCED COMPUTER NETWORKS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the logical layers of ISO/OSI model in detail. [8]

b) Discuss in detail various principles of network design. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Bluetooth with respect to features, frequency band, techniques

used and protocol stack. [8]
b) Draw a neat diagram and explain network architecture. [8]
Q3) a) Explain ATM reference model. [8]

b) Explain what is Network Address Translator? How it is used? [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the ATM header with appropriate diagram. Explain the
structure of the header. [8]
b) Explain mobility management issue in wireless networks. [8]
Q5) a) Discuss in detail Quality of Service parameters to measure performance

of Networks. [9]
b) Explain in details various parameters specified in the Quality of Service.
[9]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) Explain the following terms: [9]

i) Propagation delay.
ii) Queuing delay.
iii) Processing delay.
b) What is meant by Availability of network? Explain the terms MTBF,
MTTR and how these are useful for calculating Availability. [9]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the architecture of MPLS. [8]

b) What are VPNs? Explain the significance of tunneling in VPNs. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in detail CIDR. [8]

b) Explain how MPLS is better than traditional Routing. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the general characteristics of Mobile IP. [8]

b) Explain the types of IPv6 addresses? Also draw and explain IPv6 base
header format. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Explain various features of IPv6. [8]

b) Explain in brief a protocol suit H.323 for IP telephony. [8]
Q11)a) Explain cluster based network architecture for ad-hoc networks. [9]
b) Explain DSR protocol for ad hoc networks. [9]
OR
Q12)a) What is ad hoc network? Explain its limitations and application areas.
[9]
b) Explain the features of reactive and proactive routing protocols for
MANETs. [9]
vvvv
[4264]-726 2
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 441
B.E. (Mechanical Engineering)
POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Write a note on present status of power generation of India. [6]

b) Write a detailed note on carbon credits and its implications on clean
technology. [5]
c) Two steam power plants each of 30MW capacity take a load of 45MW.
The steam consumption rates in kg/hr for both plants are given by the
equations : S1 = 2400 + 12L1 0.00012L21
S2 = 1200 + 8.4L2 0.00006L22
Where L represents the load in kW and s the steam consumption per
hour. Find the most economical loading of the plants. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Discuss in details the various factors which must be considered in

selecting a site for steam power plant. [6]
b) Discuss the role and participation of private sector in development of
power sector in India. [6]
P.T.O.
c) The monthly electricity consumption of a residence can be approximated
as under : [4]
Light load : 6 tube lights 40 watts each working for 4 hours daily.
Fan load : 6 fans 100 watts each working for 6 hours daily.
Refrigerator load : 2kWh daily.
Miscellaneous load : 2kWh for 2 hours daily.
Find the monthly bill at the following tariff:
First 20 units - Rs. 0.50/kWh
Next 30 units - Rs. 0.40/kWh
Remaining units - Rs. 0.30/kWh
Constant charge - Rs. 2.50 per month
Discount for prompt payment = 10 percent.
Unit - II
Q3) a) What do you understand by coal benefication. [5]

b) Discuss the principle of operation of overfeed and underfeed stokers
with the help of simple diagrams. [5]
c) The following observations were recorded during a trial on a steam

condenser, [6]
Condenser vacuum - 680 mm Hg
Barometer reading - 764mm Hg
mean condenser temperature - 36.2C
Hot well temperature - 30C
Determine :
i) Condenser vacuum corrected to standard barometer.
ii) Vacuum efficiency
iii) Condenser efficiency if cooling water inlet and outlet temperature
is 20C and 32C respectively.
OR
Q4) a) Explain the principle of working of electro static dust collector with
the help of a neat diagram. [5]
b) Explain construction and working of fluidized bed combustion system
for power plant. [5]
c) In a single feed water heater, regenerative cycle, the steam enters the
turbine at a pressure of 30 bar and 400C. The exhaust pressure of
steam is 0.1 bar. The feed water heater is direct contact type, which
operates at a pressure of 5 bar. Find the thermal efficiency of the cycle
and the specific steam consumption. Show the flow diagram, the
regenerative cycle on h-s or T-s diagram. [6]
[4264]-441 2
Unit - III
Q5) a) Draw a schematic layout of hydro-electric power plant and explain.[6]

b) Show that optimum pressure ratio for maximum work output between
fixed temperature limits of the Braytomcycle is given as [6]
Tmax
rp =
Tmin 2( 1)
rp - pressure ratio
= specific heat ratio
c) Compare the steam, hydro and gas power plant on the basis of site,
initial cost, fuel cost, maintenance cost, cooling water requirement.[6]
OR
Q6) a) What are pumped storage peak load plants. Explain with the help of
neat diagram. [6]
b) The heat energy absorbed by 20 kg/s of air passing through a gas
turbine regenerator is 4200 kJ/s. If the air and products of combustion
enters the regenerator at 123C and 373C respectively, determine the
effectiveness of regenerator and exit temperatures of air and products
of combustion. Take Cp for air and gas as 1.05 kJ/kgk. [6]
c) Write a note on Free piston engine plant. [6]
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) Describe in brief giving neat sketch, the working of a pressurised water
reactor plant. [8]
b) List the essential components of a diesel power plant and explain them
briefly. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is a CANDU - type reactor? Explain with a sketch its main
features. What is a calandria? [8]
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of diesel power plant?
Which factors should be considered while selecting a site for a diesel
power plant? [8]
[4264]-441 3
Unit - V
Q9) a) What is a transformer? How are transformers classified? What are the
advantages and disadvantages of the following 3 phase transformer :
i) The Y-y connection
ii) The Y- connection [8]
b) Explain with the help of a neat diagram a solar pond electric power
plant. [6]
c) State the advantages and disadvantages of fuel cell. [4]
OR
Q10)Write short notes on any three : [18]

a) A.C. exiters.
b) earthing of power system.
c) Circuit breakers.
d) geothermal power plant.
e) Magneto hydro dynamic system.
Unit - VI
Q11)a) Name important gaseous pollutants discharged by thermal power plants.

How are they classified? [8]
b) What do you mean by Thermal pollution? What is Thermal
Discharge Index (TDI). [8]
OR
Q12)a) What is Particulate emission? How it is controlled? [8]

b) Write a short note on Pollution from nuclear power plant. [8]
vvvv
[4264]-441 4

[4264] - 623
B.E. (Chemical Engg.)
PETROCHEMICAL ENGINEERING
(Elective - IV) (2008 Pattern) (Semester - II)

1) Answer three questions from Section - I and three questions from
Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the petrochemicals? Discuss the pathway from refinery to the
petrochemical plants. [8]
b) What are the main basic building blocks of petrochemical industry explain
with suitable examples? Give the details of petrochemical products that
are produced from xylene? [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are the key issues and challenges for petrochemical industry in
India? [8]
b) Discuss about the basic raw material for petrochemical synthesis along
with their sources. [8]
Q3) Draw neat sketch and write in details about the manufacture of ethylene oxide
from ethylene and oxygen along with major engineering problems? [16]
OR
Q4) a) Write in details along with neat diagram on oxidation dehydrogenation
process for conversion of methanol to formaldehyde. [10]
b) Write a note on furnaces used in petrochemical plants. [6]
Q5) a) What is the purpose of solvent dewaxing? Describe with schematic

diagram solvent dewaxing. [8]
b) Enlist various physical and chemical processes of separation of petroleum
fraction and discuss briefly each process with suitable diagram. [10]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) Write a note on following: [18]
a) Modern crude distillation.
b) Catalytic cracking process.
c) Coking operations in petrochemical plants.
SECTION - II
Q7) Explain how glycol is produced by combining olefins and aromatics. Write all
the details and draw neat schematic diagram. [16]
OR
Q8) Explain about the production of amines with suitable diagram and also discuss
the major engineering problems. [16]
Q9) a) What is condensation polymerization? Describe steps and mechanism

of condensation polymerization. [10]
b) Describe the various types of polymerization processes. [6]
OR
Q10) a) With neat sketches explain in detail about production of phenol
formaldehyde along with its engineering problems. [10]
b) What are various polymeric products? Differentiate between different
polymersation processes. [6]
Q11) a) Explain Pollution control aspects in the petrochemical plants. [8]

b) Describe the methodology for integration of refinery and petrochemical
plants for power generation. [10]
OR
Q12) Write a note on following: [18]
a) Safety consideration in petrochemical plants.
b) Recent advances in petrochemical plants & refineries in India.
c) Origin of petrochemical industry.
ZZZ
[4264] -623 2

[4264] - 615
B.E. (Chemical)
PROCESS ENGINEERING COSTING AND PLANT DESIGN
Instructions to the candidates :
SECTION - I
Q1) Assuming the suitable basis illustrate the concept of material balance with
reaction. Based on the material balance, prepare the energy balance for the
same. Draw a neat flow diagram for the reference. [18]
OR
Q2) a) Draw a model specification sheet for sieve-tray distillation column. [9]
b) Estimate the design procedure if a lab scale batch reactor has to be
scale-up for pilot plant level. [9]
Q3) a) A heat exchanger has been designed for use in a chemical process. A
standard type of heat exchanger with a negligible scrap value costs
Rs.4000 and will have a useful life of 6 years. Another proposed heat
exchanger of equivalent design capacity costs Rs.6800 but will have a
useful life of 10 years and a scrap value of Rs.800. Assuming an effective
compound interest rate of 8% per year, determine which heat exchanger
is cheaper by comparing the capitalized costs. [8]
b) Write a note on types of taxes and insurances and explain them in detail.[8]
OR
Q4) a) The original value of piece of equipment is Rs.22,000, completely installed
and ready for use. Its salvage value is estimated to be Rs.2000 at the end
of service life estimated to be 10 years. Determine the asset (book) value
of the equipment at the end of 5 years using : [8]
i) Straight-line method.
ii) Textbook declining balance method.
iii) Sinking fund method if rate of interest is 6% annually.
P.T.O.
b ) Explain the methods for determining the depreciation and compare
them. [8]
Q5) a) Write a method for calculating Total Product Cost (TPC) for unit price
of a chemical. [8]
b) Write a note on cost indexes and explain their importance while estimating
equipment costs such as six-tenths-factor rule. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the mathematical methods for profitability evaluation with neat
diagrams. [8]
b) A company must purchase on reactor to be used in an overall operation.
Four reactors have been designed, all of each are equally capable of
giving the required service. The following data apply to the four
designs :
Design 1 Design 2 Design 3 Design 4
Fixed-capital investment
(Rs.) 10000 12000 14000 16000
Sum of operating and 3000 2800 2350 2100
fixed costs per year (all
other costs are constant)
If the company demands a 15% return on any unnecessary investment,
which of the four designs should be accepted? [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) A project can produce 12000 units per year at 100% capacity. The
variable cost per unit is Rs.3.00 at 100% capacity. Fixed costs are 10,000
per year. Find the break-even point if the selling price is Rs.5.00 per unit.
Now the manufacturer finds that he can sell only 80% at Rs.5.00 per
unit. How much he should charge for additional unit if he brings the
production upto 100% capacity and increase profits after taxes by an
additional amount of Rs.1000? Use tax rate for the above problem 52%.[9]
b) Write a note on - Optimum conditions in cyclic operations. [9]
OR
Q8) a) Find the values of x, y and z that minimize the function x + 2y2 + z2
subject to the constraint that x + y + z = 1, making use of the Lagrangian
multiplier. [9]
b) Write a general procedure for one and more variables to determine the
optimum conditions. [9]
Q9) a) Discuss the points in brief required while preparation of techno-economic

feasibility report. [8]
[4264]-615 2
b) Derive the following equation for the optimum outside diameter of
insulation on a wire for maximum heat loss :
2km
D opt =
( h c + h r )c
where km is the mean thermal conductivity of the insulation and (hc + hr)c
is the combined and constant surface heat-transfer coefficient. The values
of km and (hc + hr)c can be considered as constants independent of
temperature level and insulation thickness. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Derive the equation for optimum cooling water flow rate in condenser.[8]
b) Explain the concept of pinch technology analysis by the illustration of
hot side and cold side composite curves. Take the hot side temperatures
are T1, T2 for heat exchanger - 1, T3, T4 for heat exchanger - 2, T5, T6 for
heat exchanger - 3 and the cold side temperatures are - t1, t2 for heat
exchanger - 1, t3, t4 for heat exchanger - 2, t5, t6 for heat exchanger - 3
respectively. [8]
Q11) a) What are the points that should be considered while deciding the plant
location? Based on these points draw a suitable diagram for plant
lay-out. Show direction arrows. [8]
b) Explain the steps needed for preparing entire PERT techniques. Based
on the steps how will you evaluate expected total project duration? [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain the essential preliminary data needed to construct the chemical
project considering the constraint of budget. [8]
b) Construct the PERT network and estimate the expected time and variance
for the following data table - [8]
Pre-event Suc-event Optimistic time Most likely Pessimistic
(a) time (m) time (b)
1 2 7 8 9
1 4 8 10 13
1 7 3 5 7
2 3 4 5 6
3 5 6 7 8
5 9 6 10 14
4 6 9 10 12
6 9 9 13 19
7 8 7 9 12
8 9 5 8 11
xxxx
[4264]-615 3
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 573
INDUSTRIAL AUTOMATION
SECTION - I
Q1) a) User requirement specifications for any automation project. [10]

b) Define a term Control System Audit and explain the benefits of the
same. [6]
OR
Q2) Explain various functional levels that are used in : [16]

a) Power plant
b) Process Industries
c) Manufacturing Industry
Q3) a) Explain the role of foundation field bus H1? Explain its advantages
and limitations? [8]
b) Explain HART protocol? What are its advantages and limitations? [8]
OR
Q4) a) Compare between HART and Foundation Field bus. [8]

b) Explain MODBUS protocol? [8]
Q5) a) Explain basic principal of working of CNC machine? [10]

b) Explain development stages involved in PLC based automation system.
[8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) Explain PLC programming methods using IEC 61131. [10]

b) Explain the use of action qualifiers in the SFC programming. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain in detail specifications of DCS system to any automation

project. [10]
b) Explain the components of the DCS system. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Write a short note on Process Hazard Analysis? [8]

b) Explain DCS support for Enterprise resource planning? [8]
Q9) a) Explain in brief alarm management system in DCS. [8]

b) Write a short note on third party interfaces in automation. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Explain the role of DCS in data management system. [8]

b) Explain security and user access management in DCS? [8]
Q11)a) Explain the importance of process Hazard Analysis (PHA), Hazard

and operability study (HaZOp)? [10]
b) Write a short note on safety integrity level. [8]
OR
Q12)a) What are IEC61511 standards for functional safety. [10]

b) Explain safety life cycle system. [8]
vvvv
[4264]-573 2

[4264] - 533
B.E. (Electronics)
PROCESS AUTOMATION
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain importance of control system in process industry? With the help
block diagram, explain process control system. [8]
b) What are the different categories of signals? Write standard ranges of
signals. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are the types of control system. Explain with the help of block
diagram significance of each type in detail. [8]
b) Explain discontinuous mode and composite mode of controller? Write
importance of each mode. [8]
Q3) a) Why need of tuning in controllers? Explain the Zeigler-Nichols method

used for tuning a controller. [8]
b) List different types of control valve. Draw and explain different parts of
butter fly valve. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Draw and explain schematic diagram of a Proportional, Integral, and
differentiator controller using OPAMPs. Write mathematical equations
for P, I and D controller. [8]
b ) Write down comparisons of electronic, pneumatic and hydraulic control
systems. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is control valve noise? How it affects performance of control valve?
Write sources of valve noise. [9]
b) Explain in detail Valve positioner, cavitation and flashing with respect to
control valve. [9]
OR
Q6) a) Draw and explain proportional and integral hydraulic controller. [8]
b) Explain with schematic diagram pneumatic PI controller. [5]
c) Explain inherent characteristic of a valve. [5]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is cascade control systems? With the help of block diagram explain
cascade control of heat exchanger. [8]
b) What is self tuning controller? Explain explicit and implicit self tuning
controller. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain with the help of block diagram Feedback Control System. Write
advantages and disadvantages of feedback control system. [8]
b) What is ratio control system? Explain with block diagram direct approach
to ratio control. [8]
Q9) a) Explain cascade and ratio control schemes for boiler in detail. [8]
b) What is evaporator? Explain control scheme for evaporator. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What is model predictive control? Discuss model predictive control on
the basis of Forward Prediction. [8]
b) Discuss with examples application of robotics in automobile industry.
Explain different applications. [8]
Q11) a) Why needs supervisory control system in process industry. Draw the
block diagram of a SCADA and explain the function of each block.[10]
b) Explain different recorders used in process instrumentation. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Why need of digital controls in process industry? With the help of block
diagram explain direct digital control system used in industry. [10]
b) Write a note on Industrial Robots. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-533 2

[4264] - 485
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Explain the working of four stroke petrol engine with the help of
diagram. [10]
b) Classify the vehicles on the basic of different aspects. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What is the principle of working of a mechanical governor? [9]
b) Explain working of simple carburettor with the help of diagram. [9]
Unit - II
Q3) a) Explain in detail the components used in water cooling system with neat
diagram. [9]
b) Write short note on antifreeze solutions. [7]
OR
Q4) a) What are the problems encountered with liquid cooling? [8]
b ) Explain the working of centrifugal type pump with the help of diagram.[8]
Unit - III
Q5) a) What are the functions of the lubrication system in an automobile. [8]
b) Explain Battery ignition system. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Explain pressure lubrication system with the help of diagram. [10]
b) Discuss the various properties of lubricants. [6]
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) What can go wrong in clutch? [6]
b) What is the function of gear box in an automobile? [8]
c) Why the clutch pedal free play important? [4]
OR
Q8) a) With the help of neat sketch, explain the construction and operation of
constant mesh gear box. [12]
b) Explain the working of differential. [6]
Unit - V
Q9) a) What are the objectives of suspension system? [8]
b) Explain with the help of diagram Toe in and Toe out. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Indicate the different types of steering linkages. [8]
b) Write short note on self levelling suspension. [8]
Unit - VI
i) Electric brakes.
ii) Air brakes.
b) What is mean by servicing? And explain different types of servicing.[6]
OR
Q12) a) Describe in brief the construction and working of drum brake. [8]
b) State the advantages and disadvantages of hydraulic brakes. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-485 2

[4264] - 486
COMPUTER INTEGRATED MANUFACTURING AND INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain ESPRIT - CIM OSA model with sketch. Compare it with IBM
model. [12]
b) Discuss rapid product development and manufacture. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Explain steriolithography method of rapid prototyping. Also state its
advantages and limitations. [8]
b) Explain the basic steps of rapid prototyping in deatil. [8]
Q3) a) Explain Dennavit - Hartenbergs convention for dynamic analysis

of joints. [8]
b) Sketch and explain different configurations of robots. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Discuss advanced synthesis of planar mechanisms for ISP, MSP and
FSP. [12]
b ) Explain kinematics of open and closed loop mechanisms. [4]
Q5) a) Explain different types of sensors used in robots. [10]

b) Discuss the transmission systems required for functioning of a robot.[8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the concept of power transfer. [4]
b) State different types of drives used in robots. Also list their advantages
and limitations. [8]
c) Explain robot activation and feedback components. [6]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss various considerations for gripper design. [8]
b) Explain hydraulic and pneumatic grippers. Also distinguish
between them. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain finite element analysis in designing for gripper pressure for visco-
elastic material. [8]
b) Write note on mechanical grippers. [8]

i) Piezo-electric contact sensors.
ii) Electro-optical sensors.
b) Explain the functioning of sensor. Also discuss the fields of applications
of the sensor. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss the factors to be considered for the selection of the sensor in
Robot system. [8]
b) Explain the following related to robot vision system : [8]
i) Median filtering.
ii) Discretization.
iii) Smoothening.
Q11) a) Explain different programming languages used in robots. [8]

b) State and explain different techniques of obstacle avoidance in robotics.
[10]
OR
Q12) Explain the following applications of robots (any three) : [18]
a) Walking robots.
b) Arc-Welding robots.
c) Machine-Mounted robots.
d) Telechirs.
xxxx
[4264]-486 2

[4264] - 505
B.E. (Electrical)
POWER QUALITY
1) In section-I, attempt Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6. In section-II,
attempt Q. 7 or Q. 8, Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12
5) Use of non-programmable electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain various definitions of power quality with reference to each stake
holders. Why power quality is called voltage quality? [10]
b) State and explain the relationship between immunity, emission and
compatibility. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Define and explain the following terms as per IEEE Std. 1159. [10]
b) Explain various grounding practices as per IEEE standard for better
operation of electronic equipments. [8]
Q3) a) Explain impact of reactive power management on voltage profile. [8]

b) Explain the following terms related with voltage flicker : [8]
i) Short term (Pst) and
ii) Long term (Plt) voltage flicker.
OR
Q4) a) State and explain the causes and mitigation of over-voltage and under-
voltages. [8]
b ) Define flicker and explain various means to reduce voltage flicker. [8]
Q5) a) Define sag and interruptions and explain in detail following voltage sag
mitigation measures : DVR, SMES and CVT. [8]
b) Explain voltage sag characteristics such as magnitude, phase angle jump,
point on wave initiation and point on wave recovery. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) Explain the concept of an area of vulnerability. How fault location and
fault level influences on voltage sags. [8]
b) Explain economic impact of voltage sag and its consequences. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Define harmonics, inter-harmonics and sub-harmonics. What are the
effects of harmonics on all equipments? [8]
b) Explain stepwise procedure and various computer tools for harmonic
analysis. [10]
OR
Q8) a) What is harmonic filtering? Explain active and passive filters. [8]
b) Explain series and parallel harmonic resonances. What are the
consequences of harmonic resonances? [10]
Q9) a) Explain basic principles of over voltage protection. Which are the devices
used for over voltage protection? [8]
b) Explain capacitor switching transients and its mitigation methods. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain load switching related transients problems and its mitigation
measures. [10]
b) Define transients velocity and surge impedance. Explain the effects of
line termination on it. [6]
Q11) a) Explain procedure for selection of monitoring equipments and use of

various equipments required for power quality monitoring. [8]
b) Explain reactive and proactive approaches in power quality monitoring.[8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain selection procedure of transducers for power quality
monitoring. [8]
b) What are the objectives and requirements of power quality monitoring
equipments to monitor various power quality parameters? [8]
xxxx
[4264]-505 2

[4264] - 506
B.E. (Electrical)
ILLUMINATION ENGINEERING
5) Use of logarithmic tables, electronic pocket calculator and steam tables is
allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) State and explain the laws of illumination. [6]
b) Explain plain angle and solid angle. Derive the relation between them.[4]
c) Define : [8]
i) Luminous flux.
ii) Luminous intensity.
iii) M.H.C.P.
iv) Illumination.
v) Lamp efficiency.
vi) Depreciation factor.
vii) Reflection factor.
viii) Absorption factor.
OR
Q2) a) Explain the structure of eye. [10]
b) A small light with uniform intensity in all directions is mounted at a height
of 10m above a horizontal surface. Two points A and B both lie on the
surface with A directly beneath the source. How far is B from A if
th
1
illumination at B is only as that of A? [8]
10
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain the working of fluorescent tube with neat diagram. [6]
b) Explain stroboscopic effect of fluorescent tube. [6]
c) Write short note on LEDS. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the principle and working of Induction Lamp. [8]
b ) Explain the principle and working of High Pressure Mercury vapour
lamp. [8]
Q5) a) Explain the requirements for design of control gear. Explain different
accessories for Gaseous Discharge Lamps. [8]
b) Explain Dimming. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain various optical control schemes. [8]
b) Classify the light fittings according to the way light reaches the object.[8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain zonal cavity method for general lighting design. [10]
b) State selection criteria for selection of lamps and luminaries for indoor
lighting. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the various factors that are to be considered while designing
lighting. [10]
b) Write a short note on office lighting. [8]
Q9) a) State and explain road lighting code in India. [8]

b) Write a short note on Isolux diagram. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the arrangement of luminaries with respect to the type of road.[10]
b) Discuss different problems in energy efficient lighting. [6]
Q11) a) Write a note on lighting with optical fibre. Explain the components of
fibre optics system. [8]
b) Explain Emergency lighting. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain photovoltaic lighting. [8]
b) Write a note on Day Lighting. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-506 2

[4264] - 521
B.E. (Electronics)
ELECTRONICS SYSTEM DESIGN
(2008 Pattern)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the Bath tub Curve. [6]

b) Write a notes on Enclosure. [4]
c) What are different Electronics product. Explain their classification. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Differentiate Quality and Reliability. [6]
b) Write a notes on documentation. [4]
c) Find out MTBF, MTTF [6]
Stage Components Type Quantity FR x 106 hr
Transformer Winding Step-down 01 4.4
Rectifier Diodes Si type 04 0.2
Filter Capacitor Electrolytic 02 0.3
Regulator Capacitor Ceramic 02 0.3
Diode Semiconductor 02 0.2
Linear IC ICLM317 02 0.6
Display Linear IC7107 02 0.6
Resistors Carbon comp 04 0.2
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain Design Guidelines for High-performance, Multi channel,
Simultaneous-sampling ADC in Data-Acquisition-System (DAS). [8]
b) What are the factor affecting the choice of OPAMP in signal conditioning?
Explain with the help of example. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain Main Sources of Noise and Interference Affecting Industrial
Data-Acquisition Systems (DAS). [8]
b ) Draw circuit of instrumentation amplifier and carry out error budget
analysis for its parameters CMRR, Bandwidth, Offset. [8]
Q5) a) Explain the criteria/issue used for the identification of the preferred
component technology for the development of Application Systems.[8]
b) Explain the different requirement of interfacing a touch screen. What are
the different touch screen available? Explain typical interfacing technique
with example. [10]
OR
Q6) a) Draw the typical wiring diagrams for each interface RS-485, RS-422,
RS-232, 12C. Also state how many maximum device can interface with
these buses. [8]
b) Interface four 7 - segment display in static mode and multiplex mode
with micro controller. Draw its interfacing diagram. Calculate current
consumption required for each mode (static and dynamic). Compare the
performance. Justify the suitable mode. [10]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the water fall model for software development. [8]
b) What are the factors relevant to a language (Assembly vs. C) selection
for the development of electronics product. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the Assembly Language Coding Standards. [8]
b) Write a notes on Debugging tools and techniques for software. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the decupling of the negative power supply why it is necessary
in case of amplifier. [8]
b) Write a notes on SHIELDING and GUARDING. [10]
[4264]-521 2
OR
Q10) a) State and explain the causes of Losses Along Transmission Lines. Explain
Circuitry required to Overcome Attenuation Problems. [8]
b) Name and explain the different parasitic present on the PCB. How to
reduce the same give detail explain with the help of equations. [10]
Q11) a) Write a notes on EMI and EMC standards. [8]
b) What are the different hardware and software tools involves for the
Electronics Product testing. Explain in detail. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Write a notes on electromagnetic compatibility of the product. [8]
b) Explain different environmental testing in detail. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-521 3

[4264] - 527
B.E. (Electronics)
MECHATRONICS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define Mechatronics. What are the key elements of Mechatronics? Explain
in detail. [8]
b) Explain the stepwise design procedure of any one Mechatronics
system. [8]
OR
Q2) a) State the principle on which solenoid works? What are the different types
of switches and springs? [8]
b) What are the common structures in Mechatronics? Explain any two. [8]
Q3) a) Explain variable frequency drives with neat block diagram. [8]
b) Explain the selection criteria for control valve. Draw and explain : 3/2
valve, 4/2 valve, 5/2 valve. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Compare hydraulic system and pneumatic system. [6]
b ) Explain variable frequency drives with neat block diagram. [10]
Q5) a) Explain the principle of operation, specifications and selection criteria

for temperature measurements. [10]
b) Explain brushed and brushless DC motors. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
a) Servo motors and DC motors.
b) Chains and Sprockets.
c) Pulleys and Belts.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is the role of control in Mechatronics? Give the key elements of
controlled mechatronics system. [8]
b) What is design optimization? What are the types of optimization methods?
And how to achieve design optimization? [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain Hill climbing algorithms, Tabu search algorithms, Simulated
annealing algorithms, and Genetic algorithms. [8]
b) Explain architecture of PLC with neat block diagram. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the block diagram of CNC Machines. [8]

b) What are the different communication protocols? Explain at least one in
detail. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Describe IEEE 488 bus standard and its need. [8]
b) Write a note on UART. [8]
Q11) a) Explain multichannel Data logger with block diagram. [8]

b) Design a mechatronics system using strain gauge that will perform the
task of weighing. [10]
OR
Q12) a) Discuss pick and place robot, with actuators and sensors. Give reasons
for selection of these components. [10]
b) What are the basic elements of data logging system? [8]
xxxx
[4264]-527 2

[4264] - 545
B.E. (E & TC)
EMBEDDED SYSTEMS AND RTOS
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - I) (Semester - I) (Theory)
1) Solve Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6, Q. 7 or Q. 8, Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11
or Q . 12.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) List and define the main characteristics of embedded system that
distinguishes from other system. [8]
b) With the help of design metrics explain the design challenges and
optimization of embedded systems. [10]
OR
Q2) a) List the different processors available for embedded system
applications. [8]
b) Explain the transceiver section of IrDA. [4]
c) Explain the concept of bit encoding in CAN. [6]
Q3) a) Draw the interfacing diagram between LPC 2148 and seven segment
display. Write down the code in C language for displaying number 0 to 9
on seven segment displays. [8]
i) Banked Registers in ARM.
ii) CPSR Register and Processor modes.
OR
Q4) a) Explain the architecture of LPC 2148 with a neat block diagram. [8]
b ) How the ARM instruction set differs from the pure RISC definition. [8]
Q5) a) Explain various message passing techniques of Inter Process/Task

Communication. [8]
b) What do you mean by mutual exclusion and explain mutual exclusion
through busy waiting/spin lock. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) Compare the following software architectures : [8]
i) Round - Robin.
ii) Round - Robin with interrupts.
iii) Function queue scheduling.
iv) Real - Time operating system.
b) Explain the term Task, process and Thread. List and explain various
state of a task with diagram. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is embedded LINUX? Explain Embedded Linux development set
up. [10]
b) Explain the device driver with a simple application. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What are the file system supported by LINUX. [8]
b) Explain the following tool utilities in Embedded Linux system. [10]
i) Busy Box.
ii) Redboot.
iii) LIBC.
Q9) a) Explain various functional requirements that needs to be analyzed in the

selection of an RTOS for an embedded design. [8]
b) Explain different stages of the embedded development process in waterfall
model. [8]
OR
Q10) a) State important features of Vx works essential in a sophisticated
embedded system design. [8]
b) State salient features of Win CE OS. [8]
Q11) a) State hardware requirement of digital camera. Suggest suitable processor,

memories and I/Os for it. [8]
b) Explain the task scheduling model of adabtive cruise control system.[8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain the different software requirement (No. of tasks, RTOS services)
for the smart card. [8]
b) Explain the features of processor, memory and I/O device required for
implementation of ATM. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-545 2

[4264] - 547
B.E. (E & TC)
MICROWAVE COMMUNICATION AND RADAR
1) In Section-I : Attempt Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6.
In Section-II : Attempt Q. 7 or Q. 8, Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What do you understand by waveguide modes? What are dominant
modes? [8]
b) Differentiate between group velocity and phase velocity as applied to
waveguides. [4]
c) Determine the cut off wavelength for the dominant mode in a rectangular
waveguide of breadth 10cm. For a 2.5 GHz signal propagated in this
waveguide in the dominant mode; calculate the guide wavelength, the
group velocity and phase velocity. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Compare rectangular waveguides with circular waveguides. [6]
b) Explain the need of coupling probes and loops alongwith diagrams. [6]
c) Explain the different power losses taking place in a rectangular
waveguide. [ 6]
Q3) a) Explain directional coupler. Define : [6]

i) Coupling coefficient.
ii) Directivity.
iii) Isolation loss.
b) Explain the functioning of flap and vane attenuator. [6]
c) Define scattering matrix and state its properties. [4]
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) Explain operating principle of four port microwave circulator and how
the same can be constructed using magic tees. [8]
b ) Write short notes on the following : [8]
i) Microwave isolator.
ii) Matched terminations.
Q5) a) What do you mean by crossfield device? Explain the phase focussing
effect in magnetron. [8]
b) Draw the construction of TWT and explain its operation. Also list the
applications of TWT. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain bunching process in klystron tube. [8]
b) What is a slow wave structures? What are their types? Which one is
most practical? How does it aid the performance of Travelling Wave
Tube? [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What do you mean by solid state microwave devices? Explain in short.[6]
b) Explain LSA mode of Gunn diode. [4]
c) Write short notes on the following microwave devices including
applications. [8]
i) PIN diode.
ii) Microwave transistor.
OR
Q8) a) Discuss the amplification mechanism of parametric amplifier with the
help of its equivalent circuit. [6]
b) Explain the principle of working of tunnel diode in brief. [6]
c) Explain in brief any one of the transit time devices. [6]
Q9) a) Explain in brief network analyser. [6]

b) Describe how can the power of a microwave generator be measured
using. [10]
i) Bolometer.
ii) Calorimeter technique.
OR
[4264]-547 2
Q10) a) Describe the set up for the measurement of Q of a cavity resonator. [6]
i) Measurement of noise factor.
ii) Measurement of frequency and wavelength.
Q11) a) Explain the factors that affect the maximum range of a radar. [8]
b) Name the CW radar type capable of measuring both target range as well
as target velocity. Briefly describe its principle of operation. [8]
OR
Q12) a) How do you distinguish stationary targets and moving targets. Explain
the principle and working of an MTI radar. [8]
i) Blind speeds.
ii) Monopulse tracking.
iii) PRF.
iv) Duplexer.
xxxx
[4264]-547 3

[4264] - 561
PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION

5) Use of logarithmic tables, electronic pocket calculator, steam table and
Thermocouple table is allowed.
6) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain non self regulating process along with effect of P, I & D actions
on it. [8]
b) List different process characteristics and explain any one in detail. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain flow process in detail. [8]
b) Explain effect of Period of oscillation and damping on process with
example. [8]
Q3) Write short note on:

a) Variable time constant. [8]
b) Analysis of flow control. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain different features of MLPC. [8]
b) Explain process gain. [8]
Q5) a) Explain the different control performance measures. [10]

b) Explain Integral windup and corrective measures for same. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) Who do you select variables for control. [8]
b) What are the different control performance goals explain any one in
details. [10]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain Split Range control and its design criteria. [8]
b) What are different ways to improve the performance of nonlinear process.
Explain any one in detail. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Justify feedback feedforward and feedback controls are
complementary. [8]
b) Explain in brief velocity limiting and Backlash. [8]
Q9) a) What is effect of interaction on stability and tuning of multiloop control

system. [8]
b) Explain Decoupling in detail. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain important multiloop issues in brief. [8]
b) Explain Relative Gain Array in detail. [8]
Q11) a) Explain with proper block diagram model predictive control. [10]
b) Explain Internal model control. [8]
OR
Q12) Write short note on: [18]
a) Dynamic matrix control.
b) Smith predictor.
ZZZ
[4264] -561 2

[4264] - 567
BUILDING AUTOMATION - I
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss the necessity of Building Automation for residential buildings.[8]
b) Explain Building Life safety system with suitable diagram? [10]
OR
Q2) a) What is mean by fire? Explain following terms : [10]
i) Fire triangle.
ii) Fire signature.
iii) Fire stages.
b) Describe advanced building automation system. [8]
Q3) a) Explain FAS Design Procedure in brief with NFPA 72 standards. [8]
b) Discuss linear heat detectors with suitable applications. [8]
OR
Q4) a) List fire suppressions systems. Explain any one. [8]
b) Discuss cause effect matrix for FAS. [8]
Q5) a) Compare ADA and NFPA for FAS. [8]

b) Compare Style-4 and Style-7 loop wiring FAS. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Differentiate between addressable and conventional FAS. [8]
b) Discuss variable sensitivity and fixed sensitivity fire detectors. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain communication between RFID card reader and TEMA server.[8]
b) Discuss the access control system components selection factors. [10]
OR
Q8) a) Draw and explain block diagram of security system. [10]
b) Explain working of magnetic lock with suitable diagram. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the working of digital camera with suitable block diagram. [8]
b) Compare lens mountings in Camera. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the working of digital video streamer with block diagram. [8]
b) Discuss the video compression in CCTV system. [8]
Q11) a) What is perimeter intrusion? Explain importance of PIDS. [8]

b) Explain architecture of PIDS. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Compare various perimeter intrusion detection systems. [8]
b) Explain PIDS for educational buildings. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-567 2

[4264] - 655
NOVEL SEPARATION PROCESSES
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Classify separation processes by giving suitable example(s). Discuss the
selection criteria for the same with suitable examples. [10]
b) Discuss the process principles involved in froth flotation. Give its industrial
applications. [8]
OR
Q2) Classify the models for gas separation by membranes. Develop complete
mixing model for membrane separation processes, mentioning important
assumption. Discuss different design cases with solution strategies in this
model. [18]
Q3) a) Discuss the various membrane modules used for membrane separation
processes with neat sketches. [8]
b) Reverse osmosis of salt solution at 25C is tested with a 4.5 10 m2 3
cellulose acetate membrane. On one side of the membrane is 1.25 mol

NaCl/kg H2O solution at 50 atmospheres (abs.) pressure, on the other is
0.025 mol NaCl/kg H2O at atmospheric pressure. The permeation rate is
90 ml/hour.
Determine the following : [8]
i) The solvent permeability and
ii) The rejection rate.
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) A 9-micron tubular membrane is used to recover salt A from a dilute solution.
The solutions to either side are at 0.028 and 0.004 kmol/m3, with mass transfer
coefficients of 3.5 105 and 2.25 105 m/s respectively. The distribution
coefficient is 0.85 and the diffusivity of A in the membrane is 2.8 1010
m2/s.
a) Calculate the percentage of total resistance to mass transfer contributed
by the membrane.
b) Calculate the membrane area needed to allow recovery at 0.015 kmol/hr.
c) Flow inside the tube is turbulent and mass transfer follows the Gilliland,
Sherwood and Linton correlation. If the velocities of both solutions are
doubled, estimate the membrane resistance in this case. [16]
Q5) a) Draw concentration profiles for membrane processes for following
cases : [8]
i) Two liquid films and a solid and,
ii) Two gas films and a solid.
Write down the final flux equations for above cases.
b) Compare and contrast on Macroemulsions and Microemulsions with
suitable examples. [8]
OR
Q6) a) A membrane is to be used to separate a gaseous mixture of P and Q in
one of the petrochemical complex near one of MIDC area near Mumbai.
The following data is known : [10]
Feed flow rate = 3.50 10 cm (STP)/s
5 3
Feed composition of A = 0.59 mole fraction

Desired composition of reject = 0.28 mole fraction
Thickness of membrane = 2.35 103 cm
Pressure on feed side = 100 cm Hg
Pressure on permeate side = 50 cm Hg
Permeability of A, PA = 20 1010 cm3 (STP) cm/(s.cm2.cm.
Hg)
Permeability of B, PB = 10 1010 cm3 (STP). cm/(s.cm2 .cm.
Hg)
Assuming complete mixing model, calculate the following :
i) The permeate composition.
ii) The fraction permeated.
iii) Membrane area.
b) Write a note on : Diffusion type model for Reverse osmosis. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) Answer the following (any three) : [18]
a) Give classification of Chromatographic separations. State principles of
HPLC.
b) Discuss in brief the adsorption isotherm models with equations.
[4264]-655 2
c) Name five of the most important commercial adsorbents? What is the
distinguishing feature of the molecular-sieve zeolites?
d) Write down Purnell equation for chromatographic separation. Explain
different terms involved in it.
OR
Q8) a) A wastewater solution having a volume of 1.0m3 contains 0.2 kg phenol/
m3 of solution. A total of 1.5 kg of fresh granular activated carbon is
added to the solution, which is then mixed thoroughly to reach equilibrium.
Using the isotherm data given below, determine the following : [8]
i) Final equilibrium values, and
ii) Percent of phenol extracted.
Equilibrium data
kg phenol kg phenol
c, 3 q,
m solution kg carbon
0.322 0.150
0.117 0.122
0.039 0.094
0.0061 0.059
0.0011 0.045
b) Discuss in brief the process principles involved in Pressure Swing
Adsorption (PSA) and Temperature Swing Adsorption (TSA) with
industrial applications. [10]
Q9) A waste stream of alcohol vapour in air from a process was adsorbed by
activated carbon particles in a packed bed having a diameter of 5 cm and
length of 17 cm containing 79.2 g of carbon. The inlet gas stream having a
concentration of co of 600 ppm and a density of 0.00115 g/cm3 entered the
bed at a flow rate of 750 cm3/s. Data gives the concentration of the
breakthrough curve. The break-point concentration is set at c/co = 0.02. [16]
Data : Breakthrough concentration
Time, h c/c o
0.0 0.0
3.0 0.0
3.5 0.002
4.0 0.030
4.5 0.155
5.0 0.395
5.5 0.600
6.0 0.900
6.2 0.935
6.5 0.975
6.8 0.990
[4264]-655 3
a) Determine the break-point time, the fraction of total capacity used up to
the break point, and
b) Determine the length of the unused bed. Also determine the saturation
loading capacity of the carbon.
c) If the break-point time required for a new column is 6.5 hr, what is the
new total length of the column required?
OR
Q10) a) Two solutes have a relative retention of = 1.07 and capacity factor,
k1 = 5 and k2 = 5.5. The number of theoretical plates is nearly the same
for both the compounds. How many plates are required to give a resolution
of 1.5? and of 3? If the plate height is 0.25 mm, how long must the
column be for a resolution of 1.5? [8]
b) Write down Van Deemter equation for Chromatography. Explain the
meaning of each parameters involved in this equation. Derive an expression
for optimum value of the mobile phase velocity and the plate height in
terms of these parameters. [8]
Q11) a) Define the following terms in connection with chromatographic separations
and give appropriate equations : [8]
i) Distribution coefficient (K)
ii) Retention Ratio (R)
iii) Capacity factor (k)
iv) Resolution (RS)
b) Two amino acids, A and B were separated by liquid chromatography.
The following data is available : [8]
Amino Acid TR, (minutes) W (minutes)
A 4.25 0.55
B 5.15 0.65
i) Calculate the resolution of amino acids.
ii) Calculate the plate number for amino acid, A.
iii) Determine minimum numbers of plates needed to get a resolution
of 1.5.
iv) How do you get this high plate number?
OR
Q12) Write short notes on (any three) : [16]
a) Reactive Distillation : Principles and applications.
b) Bioseparation.
c) Ion Exchange separations : Principles and applications.
d) Isoelectric Focusing.
e) Super Critical Fluid Extraction.
xxxx
[4264]-655 4

[4264] - 656
ELEMENTS OF FLUIDIZATION ENGINEERING
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier Charts, electronic pocket
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With help of neat diagram explain various regimes possible for a fluidized
bed. Highlight the values of flow velocity for each of these regimes. [6]
b) Discuss various scenarios for which fluidized bed should be used-provide
c) What is Quality of Fluidization? [4]
OR
Q2) a) Define superficial velocity. Discuss the effect of variation of superficial
velocity through packed bed with help of proper graph. [6]
b) With help of diagrams explain - The Fluidized bed behaves like fluid
only. [6]
c) Write down various disadvantages of Fluidized Bed Systems. [4]
Q3) a) An industrial scale FCC unit with height 3.8m having H/D ratio of 0.8 is
to be operated at superficial velocity of 0.85m/s. Average density of the
bed can be considered to be 512kg/m3. If the gas entering to reactor has
density 0.7kg/m3, at operating condition, design a suitable grid. Assume
grid thickness to be 0.03m. [12]
b) Prove that the void fraction at minimum fluidization velocity can be
represented by : [4]
M
mf =1
A V L mf p
where all the symbols have their usual significances.

P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) Discuss various advantages and disadvantages of perforated plates used
as distributor for industrial scale fluidized bed system. Explain how these
disadvantages can be tackled. [8]
b) Write a short note on Geldarts classification of particles and their
important characteristics. Provides suitable examples as well. [8]
Q5) a) Briefly explain all important characteristics of intrusive multiphase flow

meters. [6]
b) Write a short note on disengaging section of fluidized bed and its
construction. [6]
c) With help of neat diagram explain Davidson Model for bubble movement.
[6]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss three phase flow phenomena through fluidized bed with help of
neat diagram. Explain all the interphase transport involved therein. [8]
b) With help of sketches explain radioactive tomography method for
measurements of various parameters of fluidized bed. [6]
c) Write a short note on Coalescence and Splitting of bubbles inside fluidized
bed system. [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss principle of operation of Fluidized Bed Boilers. Provide neat
sketches. Highlight its advantages. [8]
b) How fluidization quality of difficult to fluidize particles can be enhanced-
discuss in details with help of suitable diagrams. [8]
OR
Q8) a) How can fluidized bed be used as Heat Exchangers - Explain with help
of suitable example. [6]
b) Briefly explain the principle of removal of moisture from food items in
fluidized bed system. Highlight its advantages and disadvantages. [6]
c) Write down Ranz - Marshall correlation, discuss its usefulness. [4]
Q9) a) With help of all the important assumptions obtain Kuni-Levenspiel Model
of flow through a Fluidized Bed Reactor. [8]
[4264]-656 2
b) Obtain the overall rate constant for fluidized bed with all its mass transfer
resistances for the following 1st order reaction : [10]
A Product
Prove that final rate expression can be represented by :
C A, outlet C A0 Lf
1 X A = = = exp k f
C A, inlet C Ai ub
In the above expression, overall rate constant kf for the fluidized bed
with all its mass transfer resistance can be represented by
f b
bc
c
where Kbc and Kce are interchange coefficients and b, c and e are solid
distribution parameters in bubble, cloud and emulsion phase of the bed
respectively, and kr denotes homogeneous phase rate constant for the 1st
order reaction.
OR
Q10) a) Distinguish between dynamics of flow for two Fluidized Beds one
comprising of slow moving bubbles and the other with fast moving
bubbles - provide neat diagrams. [6]
b) With help of neat figure explain the mechanism of Circulating Fluidized
Bed. Provide its usage and applicability. [8]
c) What is sintering in fluidized bed? In this context discuss agglomeration
also. [4]
Q11) a) What are the advantages of fluidized bed reactor over conventional types
of reactor? [5]
b) Discuss Fluidized bed operation for synthesis of Acrylonitrile. [6]
c) Highlight the scale-up issues of Fluidized bed reactors. Briefly explain
how these issues can be sorted out. [5]
OR
[4264]-656 3
Q12) a) Highlight the new modifications of modern fluidized bed catalytic cracker
with help of neat sketches. [6]
b) With neat diagram explain the operation of low pressure High Density
Polyethylene (HDPE) Reactor. [6]
c) Fluidized Bed Reactor is a must for Pulverized Coal Technology -
Elaborate and explain. [4]
xxxx
[4264]-656 4

[4264] - 676
POLYMER REACTION ENGINEERING
3) Numbers to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic table, electronic pocket calculators is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss the importance of molecular weight and Molecular weight
distribution of polymer. [8]
b) Find the polydispersity Index of the mixture composed of 20 molecules
of 1000 monomer lengths and 380 molecules of 1 monomer lengths.[4]
c) Discuss the Number and Weight Fraction, Number Average Degree of
Polymerization, Molecular Weight Distribution terms used for the
characterization of mixtures of polymer molecules. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the characteristics of Chain Growth Polymerization and explain
the distinctive features of Polymer Reaction Engineering. [12]
b) Discuss the Number Average Molecular Weight, First moment of Pjs
Weight Average Molecular Weight terms used for the characterization of
mixtures of polymer molecules. [6]
Q3) a) Discuss in detail all technical conclusions from Free Radical Kinetics
Studies. [6]
b) Derive the necessary relationship obtained in giving Molecular Weight
distribution in CSTR for free radical type polymerization. [10]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) MMA is to be polymerized at 80C with Free Radical Polymerization in a
batch reactor. The initial concentration of monomer is 8.135 gmole/lit,
and the concentration of initiator is kept constant at 0.06 gmole/lit. Assume
termination takes place only by combination. The rate constant are as
K0 = 3* 106 sec1, kp = 176 lit/gmole.sec, kc = 3.6*107 lit/gmole.sec,
f = 0.6. Find the number average molecular weight, weight average
molecular weight and MWD for a reaction time of 200 min. [10]
b) Derive the necessary equation of the rate of Initiation (ri) in terms of
Initiator concentration [I]. [6]
Q5) a) Discuss the necessary equation for the steady state population balance
equation for the particles having n radicals in the Emulsion
polymerization. [12]
b) Write a note on Suspension Polymerization. [4]
OR
Q6) Derive the necessary equation of Overall rate of polymerization in emulsion
Polymerization if
Case 1) Number of the free radicals per polymer particles small
compared with unity.
Case 2) No transfer of polymer radicals out of the particle through
diffusion and high rate of termination. [16]
SECTION - II
Q7) Give technology overview for the following polymer. [18]
a) SBR rubber.
b) Nylon 6.
c) Polystyrene.
OR
Q8) Write a short note on reactor systems used for PET, PVC, High Density
Polyethylene polymers. [18]
Q9) a) Discuss the role of mass transfer in step growth polymerization. [8]
b) Discuss the necessary equation of the total rate of the disappearance of
the monomer M via Initiation, Propagation, and the termination reaction
by monomer transfer. [8]
OR
[4264]-676 2
Q10) Derive the suitable model to understand the step growth kinetics at higher
conversion. [16]
Q11) Write a short note on Reactor Selection for carrying out polymerization
reaction and role of control engineering in polymerization reactor. [16]
OR
Q12) a) Discuss the choice between batch and continuous reactor for
polymerization process. [8]
b) Explain the reactor design in terms of following factors Polymerization
Mechanism, Stoichiometry Factors, Thermodynamics Factors, and
Transport Limitations. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-676 3

[4264] - 694
B.E. (Computer)
IMAGE PROCESSING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is Digital Image Processing? State applications and component of
Image Processing. [8]
b) State and explain fundamental steps for digital image processing. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Write a note on digital imaging hardware and software. [8]
b) Explain Human Visual System in detail. [8]
Q3) a) What is mean by image digitization? Explain aliasing in the context of

image sampling. How it can be avoided? [8]
b) Explain handamard and walsh transform. Determine the Hadamard matrix
for order N = 8. [8]
OR
Q4) a) State and explain Image enhancement in spatial and frequency domain.[8]
b) Justify the statement Median filter is an effective tool to minimize salt
and pepper noise through simple illustration. [8]
Q5) a) What is the difficulty of implementing Hough transform using slope-

intercept representation of straight line? How this problem is solved using
normal representation of line? [10]
b) Explain the principle of the following region-based segmentation
procedures : [8]
i) Region growing.
ii) Region splitting.
iii) Split and merge.
State the difference between these methods.
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Explain first derivative and second derivative method of detecting edges
in the image. [10]
b) Explain use of motion in segmentation. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain Image degradation and restoration model. State application of
Image restoration. [10]
b) The basis image of a 2D unitary transform of size 2 2 are : [6]
1 1 1 1 1 1
H1 =1 / 2 H 2 =1 / 2 1 1 H 3 =1 / 2 1 1
1 1
1 1
H 4 =1/ 2
1 1
6 4
Determine the transform coeff. If the input image is f (m, n) =
2 1
Also, reconstruct the image using the first two largest coeff.
OR
Q8) a) Write a note on Blind Deconvolution. [8]
b) What is the difference between image restoration and image enhancement?
Give the mathematical expression for a wiener filter. Also, give advantage
and drawback of wiener filter over an inverse filter. [8]
Q9) a) Define texture. What is co-occurrence matrix? How do you measure

entropy from co-occurrence matrices? [10]
b) What is chain code? Explain with example, how can you make chain
code based descriptor rotation invariant? [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain Scalar and vector quantization. [8]
b) Consider the image strip of size 50 100 shown in fig.2 The image
consists of five vertical stripes. The gray levels of the stripes from left to
right are 128, 64, 32, 16 and 8 respectively. The corresponding widths of
the stripes are 35, 30, 2, 10 and 5 pixels respectively. If the stripe image
coded is by Huffman coding, determine its efficiency. [10]
[4264]-694 2
Q11) a) What is sub-band coding? Explain image pyramids. [8]
b) What is the need and applications of image processing in multimedia?[8]
OR
Q12) a) Define WAVELET with their properties. Explain the need of wavelet
transform in image processing. Explain the different image processing
application using wavelet transform. [8]
b) Writes a note on Local Component Analysis for dimension reduction.[8]
xxxx
[4264]-694 3

[4264] - 695
DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF COMPUTER NETWORKS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Comment on Erlang distribution function and its significance. [6]
b) Specify the interpretation of Kendall Notation (including 6 parameters).
Also explain in short the meaning of M/M/1 and G/G/3/20/1500/SPF
Specifications. [6]
c) Customers arrive at a watch repair shop according to a Poisson process
at a rate of one per every 10 minutes, and the service time is an exponential
r.v. with mean 8 minutes. Find the average number of customers L, the
average time a customer spends in the shop W, and the average time a
customer spends in waiting for service Wq,. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Describe , , L, Lq, W and Wq associated with M/M/1 Queue. [6]
b) Describe in short the Birth Death process and its significance in queuing
theory. [6]
c) People arrive at a telephone booth according to a Poisson process at an
average rate of 12 per hour, and the average time for each call is an
exponential r.v. with mean 2 minutes. [6]
i) What is the probability that an arriving customer will find the
telephone booth occupied?
ii) It is the policy of the telephone company to install additional booths
if customers wait an average of 3 or more minutes for the phone.
Find the average arrival rate needed to justify a second booth.
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Comment in short about the third generation switch architecture. How
are they different compare to 2nd generation switches? Where they are
used typically? [8]
b) Describe the term Degree of Parallelism. Write a mathematical expression
to denote the same. If in a system on an average, 20 tasks complete in 10
seconds, and each task takes 3 seconds, what is the degree of parallelism?
[8]
OR
Q4) a) What is switch fabric? Explain Crossbar and broadcast switch. [8]
b ) Describe in short the various parameters that needs to be consider while
designing a Backbone network. Also comment on the current available
backbone technologies. [8]
Q5) a) Describe the working of Deficit Round Robin (DRR) scheduling. In

which situation it is more likely be used compare with other techniques?[8]
b) Describe the significance of Traffic Descriptors in flow control technique
with suitable example. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Describe the working of TCP Vegas. What are its advantages over TCP
Tahoe. [8]
b) Differentiate between Open loop and Close loop flow control. What are
the various Closed loop flow control schemes available? Classify them
suitably. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Describe the terms Traffic class and QOS. Comment on various ATM
Forum specified traffic subclasses. [10]
b) What is capacity planning? What are the general steps involved in capacity
planning? Comment on Erlang B formula used in telephone networks.[8]
OR
Q8) a) What is signaling mechanism? Explain IETF Signaling (RSVP). [10]
b) What is admission control? Describe in brief CBR and VBR admission
Control Policies. [8]
Q9) a) Explain random early detection scheme (RED) for packet scheduling.[8]
b) If fixed-length prefixes are easier to implement, what is the advantage of
variable-length prefixes? Justify the answer. [8]
OR
[4264]-695 2
Q10) a) Describe the various functions supported by Router. Also classify the
routers based on these functionalities. [8]
b) Draw and explain a typical Router architecture. [8]
Q11) a) Discuss the various security principles. What are the security issues at
network layer and comment on the possible solutions. [8]
b) Describe the process of subnetting with suitable example. Also comment
on variable length subnet masking (VLSM). What are its advantages?[8]
OR
Q12) a) Describe the importance of bandwidth management. How it is achieved
in a typical corporate network? [8]
b) Describe in short the significance of Firewall in a corporate network.
What is UTM? [8]
xxxx
[4264]-695 3
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 510
B.E. (Electrical)
EXTRA HIGH VOLTAGE TRANSMISSION
1) Answer any one question from each unit.
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) A power of 2000 MW is to be transmitted over 800 km. distance. Use

400 kV three phase ac line. Suggest the number of circuits required.
With 50 percent series capacitor compensation, calculate power loss in
a circuit and % power loss. Phase difference between sending end and
receiving end voltage is 30. The resistance and reactance of conductor
are 0.031 ohm/km and 0.327 ohm/km respectively. [8]
b) Explain different types of winds causing vibrations and oscillations of
transmission conductors and compare them on the basis of wind
velocity, amplitude, frequency of oscillations and type of conductors
affected. Also state the electrical causes which creat forces on the
transmission conductors. [8]
OR
Q2) a) State the expressions for travelling wave equations and their solution
and explain that travelling wave consists of incident and reflected
components travelling in opposite directions. [10]
b) A transmission line is 300 km long and open at far end. The attenuation
of surge is 0.9 over one length of travel at a velocity of light. The line
is energized by step input of 1000kV. Find the reflected voltage and
the resultant voltage at the receiving end. [6]
P.T.O.
Unit - II
Q3) a) Explain various steps of Clarke Transformation method for the

diagonalization of inductance matrix [L] of transmission conductors
of 3 phase ehv ac line. [8]
b) The spacing between the two bundled conductors of 400 kV line is
9 meter. Each conductor consists of two subconductors each of radius
r = 1.75cm and bundle radius R = 0.225 meter. The height of all
subconductors above ground is 12 meter. Find Maxwells potential
coefficient matrix. [4]
c) For the three phase ehv ac line with horizontal configuration. Write
down following expressions. The conductors used are bundled
conductors. [4]
i) Matrix for flux linkages of three conductors.
ii) Inductance matrix for untransposed line.
Draw the labelled sketch.
OR
Q4) a) The inductance matrix [L] of three phase ac line has diagonal elements
denoted as Ls and off diagonal elements denoted as Lm. Derive
the expression for inductance offered by any conductor to zero and
positive sequence components of currents. [8]
6
b) Self inductance Ls of 3 phase ehv ac line is 1.173 10 H/meter,
Average value of mutual inductance Lm is 0.177 106 H/meter.
Average value of ground inductance Lg is 0.39 106 H/meter. Find
velocity of propagation of wave in line to ground mode (first mode) as
percentage of velocity of light. [4]
c) State the advantages of bundled conductors. [4]
Unit - III
Q5) a) The two bundled conductors of 400 kV line are 12 meter above the
ground. Each conductor consists of two subconductors each of radius
r = 1.75 cm and bundle radius R = 0.225 meter. The charges of two
conductors are 4.88 1012 coulomb/meter. Neglecting the charges
of other conductors and of image conductors but considering the charge
[4264]-510 2
of other subconductor find expression for maximum and minimum
potential gradient. Show the location of maximum and minimum
potential gradient. Also find values of maximum and minimum
potential gradient. [8]
b) For horizontal configuration of phases of 3 phase ehv ac line, derive
expressions for maximum surface voltage gradient on the outer phases
and on central phase according to Mangolt formula. [8]
c) A line charge of conductor of radius r meter and length 1 meter is +q
coulomb/meter. What is electric field strength on its surface. If the two
points 1 and 2 are r1 meter & r2 meter away from line charge and are
on the same side of the line. Write expression for potential V12 between
these two points. [2]
OR
Q6) a) A sphere gap with spheres of radii R = 0.5 meter and center-to-center
distance 1.5 meter are to be maintained with surface potentials 90 V
and 0 volts. Calculate the charges required and their locations. Do
calculations upto two charges in each sphere draw the labelled sketch.
[8]
6
b) A point charge Q = 10 coulomb is kept at the center of sphere of
radius 1 cm. Calculate field strength and potential on surface of sphere
and also at distance 0.5cm from the surface of sphere. Also find
capacitance of sphere. [5]
c) Compare line charge with point charge. [5]
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) Draw the labelled sketch of vehicle parked parallel to ehv line under it.
If a = length of truck, v = height of truck body, b = width of truck,
t = distance of truck body above ground, H = height of line conductor,
d = diameter of conductor, L = distance of parking from line. Write
expressions for capacitance of truck. [6]
b) Explain the terms primary shock current, secondary shock current and
let-go current. [6]
c) Explain the various purposes served by insulated ground wire which
type of conductor is used for insulated ground wire? [4]
[4264]-510 3
OR
Q8) a) Derive the expression for voltages induced in the conductors of
unenergized circuit of double circuit three phase line. [8]
b) Discuss the effects of electrostatic field on humans, animals, plants,
vehicles etc. [8]
Unit - V
Q9) a) With neat diagram with negligible source inductance, no ignition delay
explain operation of three phase six pulse bridge rectifier circuit. Derive
expression for dc output voltage in terms of ac voltage. [8]
b) State and explain various components of HVDC system. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Discuss the operation of converter as inverter in HVDC system. What
is transition value of ignition delay angle beyond which inversion
takes place. Explain ignition advance angle and extinction advance
angle. [8]
b) Derive the expression for converter transformer rating in terms of no
load dc voltage and rated dc current. [6]
c) What is effect of commutation overlap on dc voltage of three phase,
six pulse bridge rectifier circuit. [2]
Unit - VI
Q11)a) Write note on converter firing control system. State and compare the
firing control systems. [9]
b) Discuss the problems associated with dc system when connected to
weak ac system. [9]
OR
Q12)a) Explain the requirements for satisfactory operation of HVDC system.

[9]
b) Explain the significant aspects of basic control system for the converter.
[9]
vvvv
[4264]-510 4
SEAT No. :
[4264] - 566
ADVANCED CONTROL SYSTEMS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Compare linear and non-linear control systems. [6]

b) Define singular points. Find out the nature of second order system for
singular point. [12]
x + 0.3 x + 4x + x2 = 0
OR
Q2) a) Explain in brief phase plane method. [6]

b) Determine the describing function of the combined deadzone and
saturation non-linearity. [12]
Q3) a) Explain in brief Jump resonance. [6]

b) Obtain the stability of a system shown in figure by describing function
method. [10]
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) Explain in brief frequency domain stability criteria. [6]

1 2
b) A second order system represented by x = Ax where A = by
1 4
using Liapunovs direct method. Determine the stability of the system.
Write the Liapunov function v(x). [10]
Q5) a) Explain with neat diagram basic configuration of adaptive control

system. [8]
b) Explain in detail MIT Rule approaches for designing of model reference
adaptive controller. [8]
OR
Q6) a) State the classification of model reference adaptive control system.

Explain in detail direct model reference adaptive control system. [8]
b) Explain in detail stability and convergence studies of model reference
adaptive control system. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the different approaches to self tuning regulators. [8]

b) Explain in detail Recursive parameter estimation. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain implicit and explicit self tuning Regulators. [8]

b) Explain in detail LQG self tuning Regulators. [8]
Q9) a) Explain in detail general purpose adaptive regulator. [8]

b) Explain in detail adaptive control technique for temperature control in
CSTR system. [8]
OR
[4264]-566 2
Q10)a) Explain any one in detail different industrial products incorporating
adaptive control system. [8]
b) Explain in detail robustness studies multivarible system. [8]
Q11)a) Explain the necessary conditions of optimality. [9]

b) Explain performance measures for optimal control problems. [9]
OR

Q12)Obtain the control law which minimizes the performance Index J = ( x 2 + u 2 )dt
[18]
0
for the system.
x1 0 1 x1 0
x = 1 1 x + 1u
2 2
Explain in brief state Regulator problems.
vvvv
[4264]-566 3

[4264]-438
B.E. (Mechanical)
SECTION - I
UNIT - I
Q1) a) What are vehicle specifications? Describe specification of any one light
motor vehicle of your choice. [8]
b) What is chassis? Compare conventional chassis frame with frameless
type chassis frame. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain with the help of neat sketch any one typical layout of an
automobile. Also describe advantages and drawback over other layouts.
[8]
b) Explain with neat sketches different types of vehicle bodies. [8]
UNIT - II
Q3) a) Describe working of synchromesh gear box with neat diagram. Also
state its advantages and disadvantages. [8]
b) Explain fluid flywheel with neat sketch. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain continuous variable transmission with neat sketch. [8]
b) Draw a neat sketch of a non slip differential unit in the back axle of a
vehicle and explain its working. [8]
P.T.O.
UNIT - III
Q5) a) Define front end geometry for steering including caster, camber, toe,
steering axis inclination and turning radius. [10]
b) How the tyres are classified and rated? [8]
OR
Q6) a) Classify different types of steering gear boxes. Discuss salient features
for each of them. Explain the construction and working of a recirculating
type steering gear box. [10]
b) Explain with neat sketch construction and working of collapsible steering.
[8]
SECTION - II
UNIT - IV
Q7) a) What is interconnected suspension? Sketch and describe briefly. [10]
b) Explain a hydraulic braking system with neat sketch. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Draw a neat sketch and explain of double-tube telescopic shock absorber.
[8]
b) Explain ABS brake system in detail. Also state its advantages over other
braking system. [10]
UNIT - V
Q9) a) Explain charging system used in automobile vehicle. [5]
b) Explain lighting system of any car. [6]
c) Explain in brief hybrid drives. [5]
OR
Q10) Write short notes on any four : [16]
a) Electronic stability control
b) Battery construction
c) Engine sensors
d) Wipers
e) Electric Horn
[4264]-438 2
UNIT - VI
Q11) Write short notes on any four : [16]
a) Traction and tractive effort
b) Stability of vehicle
c) Vehicle road resistances
d) Seat belt
e) Vehicle safety
OR
Q12) a) Explain different vehicle body moments. [6]
b) A Leyland truck has a gross vehicle weight of 89026 N. Engine
displacement is 10m3, power 77.3 kW at governed speed of 2400 rpm
and maximum torque 345.8 Nm at 1400 rpm. Rear axle ratio is 6.166:1.
Fourth speed reduction ratio in transmission is 1.605:1, drive line losses
amount to 10.7 kW at 2400 rpm and 6.3 kW at 1400 rpm. Tyre size is
0.4572m 1.016m (effective wheel diameter is 0.950m), frontal area of
truck 6.95m2. Calculate the grades which the vehicle can climb in fourth
gear in still air conditions. [10]
i) at governed engine speed,
ii) at speed of maximum torque in the equation
R = kW + ka AV2
k = 0.044, ka = 0.0462 & V in km/h.
Over all gear ratio G = 6.166 1.605:1 = 9.9:1
[4264]-438 3

[4264]-452
B.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Sandwich)
INDUSTRIAL HYDRAULICS AND PNEUMATICS
5) Use of logarithmic table, slide rule, Mollier chart, electronic pocket
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Compare Hydraulic Pneumatic and Mechanical Systems. [6]
b) Explain with neat sketch Quick action coupling used in hydraulics. [4]
c) What are the types of filters and filtering methods? [6]
OR
Q2) a) What are the advantages and applications of fluid power system? [4]
b) State and explain different properties of hydraulic fluid. [6]
c) Write a note on sources of oil contamination and contamination control.[6]
Q3) a) Explain with the help of neat sketch, working of pressure compensated
vane pump. How it differs from variable displacement vane pump? [10]
b) Find out the size of accumulator necessary to supply 8000 cm3 of fluid
in a hydraulic system of maximum pressure 180 bar to 80 bar minimum.
Assuming the gas is precharged at 60 bar. [6]
Find :
i) Adiabatic solution &
ii) Isothermal solution.
OR
Q4) a) Draw and explain operating characteristics curves of Gear/Vane Pump.[6]
b) Explain types of reservoirs used in hydraulics with applications. [6]
c) Explain constructional details of Hydraulic Power Unit with neat sketch.[4]
P.T.O.
Q5) Write a note (any three) : [18]
a) Cartridge valve
b) Pressure compensated flow control valve
c) Sequence valve
d) Counter balance valve
OR
Q6) a) Explain with neat sketch different center positions of direction control
valves. Also state advantages and disadvantages of each. [6]
b) Explain test procedure of Pressure relief valve or Double acting cylinder.
[6]
c) Explain applications of accumulator with circuit diagrams. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Analyze the circuit given below : [10]
b) Explain with neat sketch different actuation methods used in Direction

control valves. [4]
[4264]-452 2
c) Identify the components as shown below : [2]
OR
Q8) a) Explain Regenerative circuit and comment on velocity at the time of
extension and retraction when Area of piston is equal to twice the area of
rod. [10]
b) Draw and explain sequencing circuit for two actuators as per the following
sequence : [6]
i) Actuator 1 Extends
ii) Actuator 2 Retracts
iii) Both actuators return to their original position.
Q9) a) Explain with neat sketch Compressed air generation and Distribution
system. [6]
b) Describe with neat sketch [4]
i) Shuttle valve
ii) Quick exhaust valve
c) Explain FRL Unit used in pneumatics with neat sketch. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Draw a neat sketch and explain working of Time delay valve used in
pneumatics. [6]
b) Why pneumatic system is termed as low cost automation? [6]
c) Draw a neat sketch of 5 way 2 position manual operated direction control
valve. [4]
Q11) a) Draw and explain any pneumatic circuit used in manufacturing industry.[8]
b) Draw and explain two hand safety unit used in pneumatic circuit. [10]
OR
Q12) A machine is operated by a hydraulic system. The total stroke is 500 mm.
first 400 mm is to be completed about 5 seconds against a load of 18 kN.
The load during remaining 100 mm stroke is 38 kN, the speed during this
part of stroke is about 2.4 m/min. After stroke is completed the actuator has
to return at against a load of 18 kN in 6 seconds. A meter in circuit is used.
Draw hydraulic circuit and select components from given data. [18]
[4264]-452 3

[4264]-452 4

[4264]-525
B.E. (Electronics)
ADVANCED POWER ELECTRONICS
(2008 Pattern) (Elective -I) (Semester - I)
5) All questions carry equal marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are converters? Explain with diagram & waveforms working of 12
pulse converter & comment on p.f. [8]
b) What is power conditioning of diode rectifier? Explain. [6]
c) Explain in brief, EMI & power quality problems of Thyrister converter.[4]
OR
Q2) a) What are dual converters? Explain with circuit diagram & waveforms,
working of 3 - phase dual converter working in circulating current mode
operation with highly inductive load. [10]
b) 1 - phase dual converter is operated from a 120V 60 Hz Supply & Load
resistance R = 10, the circulating inductance is Lc = 40 mH. Delay
angles are 1 = 60, 2 = 120. Calculate the peak circulating current. [8]
Q3) a) What is PLL? Explain with block diagram, speed control of DC Motor
using PLL for varying load conditions. State its advantages &
disadvantages. [8]
b) What is Soft start? Explain. [4]
c) What is the effect of source inductance on the performance of FCC?
Explain. [4]
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) What is Cycloconverter? Explain with circuit diagram & waveforms
working of 1 Cycloconverter with suitable load. [8]
b) What are AC drives? Explain 3 I.M speed control technique by using
v
method. [8]
f
Q5) a) What are Multi level inverters? Explain with circuit diagram, switching of
Multi-level inverters. State its advantages & disadvantages. [10]
b) What is the need of Harmonic elimination in Inverters? Explain any one
method to improve p.f. [6]
OR
Q6) Write short notes on any three : [16]
a) p based DC drives.
b) Field failure protection of Sep-Excited DC Motor.
c) Adaptive Control technique.
d) DC Link inverters.
e) Z-Source inverters.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is resonant converter? Explain with circuit diagram & waveforms
working of ZCS. [8]
b) What are Low drop out regulators? Explain. [4]
c) Compare Linear, switched Mode & Resonant converter. [4]
OR
Q8) a) What is soft switching in Resonant converter? Explain with circuit diagram
working of SLR. [8]
b) What is Synchronous rectifier? Explain. [4]
c) What is Hot Swappable Redundant Power Supply? Explain. [4]
Q9) a) Explain the need of brushless DC Motors in industries. [6]

b) What is Micro-stepping? Mention various types of Stepper Motor used
in industries? Enlist the application of Stepper Motor with circuit diagram
& specifications. [10]
OR
[4264]-525 2
Q10) a) What are different types of Renewable energy sources? Explain the role
of DC to DC converter in variable Wind energy conversion system. [8]
b) Explain in brief photovoltalic energy conversion system. [8]
Q11) a) Explain the operation of fuzzy logic based Ind. Motor wind generation
system. [8]
b) What are different types of power line disturbances & suggest preventive
& nullifying measures for the disturbances. [10]
OR
Q12) Write short notes on any three : [18]
a) Energy audit.
b) HVDC.
c) Wind Power Plant (WPP).
d) Battery charges.
e) FACTS (Flexible AC Transmission System).
[4264]-525 3

[4264]-640
NON CONVENTIONAL HYDROCARBON RESOURCES
4) Assume additional data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write in brief on characteristics of continuous accumulation system and
their resources. [10]
b) How is conventional oil and non conventional oil compared on chemical
analysis? [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain following terms: Heavy and extra heavy oil, Natural bitumen,
Shale oil, Tar sand, and tight reservoirs. [10]
b) Describe the optimum conditions for shale gas exploration. [5]
Q3) a) Following mineralogical variation is observed during detailed
petrophysical studies of the potential shale horizon. [7]
No. Depth in meters Mineralogy percent
Quartz Carbonate Clay minerals Others
1 2200m 28 20 45 07
2 2210 24 17 49 10
3 2220 22 12 62 06
4 2230 24 10 61 05
5 2240 56 12 25 07
6 2250 58 10 27 05
Evaluate behavior of shale for given depths to understand brittleness.
Give justification. What additional information is required to realize
potential of this horizon?
P.T.O.
b) How is Langmuir isotherm used in the calculation of gas recovery in
CBM? [8]
OR
Q4) a) How are hydrate plugs formed? [5]
b) Draw a Schematic diagram to explain heterogeneities in CBM reservoir.
How does it different from Shale Gas? [10]

a) Biodegradation of oil.
b) Reservoir modeling in shale gas reservoir.
c) Gas desorption and diffusion in recovery of CBM.
d) Simplified Process Schematic for Fischer-Tropsch Coal-to-Liquids
Systems.
e) How is recovery factor calculated in CBM?
f) Draw a typical desorption isotherm as a function of coal rank.
g) Hydrate types and formers.
h) Carbon Capture and Sequestration.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) A homogeneous isotropic rock plate of width 40mm and length 500 mm,
thickness 10mm with original unreformed volume 0.2 106mm2 has
Youngs modulus 5 1010 Pa and Poissons ratio of 0.25. The plate is
subjected to compressive force of 500N at the faces of its lateral end.
Find out change in volume during loading. [10]
b) Describe the importance of different mechanical characteristics in shale
gas development. [5]
OR
Q7) a) Discuss different pressures in fracturing operations. [10]
b) Calculate bottom hole treating pressure, wellhead pressure and HHP[5]
if Phyd = 7000 ft @ 8.7 ppg,
friction pressure pipe 1000 psi,
Pperforation = 300,
Ptortuosity = 200,
Flow rate = 1100 gm
[4264]-640 2
Q8) a) Describe environmental problems related to drilling and production
operations. [10]
b) Write in brief on Deliverability and drainage efficiency in CBM. [5]
OR
Q9) Prepare a GTO for a CBM drilling using following tables [15]
Table 1: Lithology
Description Depth in m
1 Alluvium 0 27 m
2 Mudstone, sandstone and siltstone 27 127 m
3 Sandstone, shale and siltstone 127 640 m
4 Sandstone, shale and coal 640 1140 m
Table 2: Information on coal seams
Coal Depth from Depth upto Coal seam no Depth from Depth upto
seam no in m in m in m in m
7 659 660 4 T 878 880
6 698 700 B 902 905
5 T 784 785 3 T 1000 1003
B 797 800 B 1062 1065
1&2 1150 1155
Table 3: Directional Drilling Data
Well Name EDTW 3A
TVD (meter) 900
TMD (meter) 1027
TMD + sump (meter) 1077
(Degree) 38.5
BUR(deg/100 ft) 3.5
Drift (meter) 400
Give answers for the following problems.
1. Decide kick of point, give precise depth
2. Design two casing policies (CP), what may be approximate depths for
casing and KOP
3. Design mud policy, give precise mud weight with proper justification
[4264]-640 3
a) Sources of liquid in a flowing gas well
b) NORM in shale
c) Treatment for produced water
d) Elastic properties of shale
e) Physical properties of hydrates
f) Explain with the help of schematic diagrams capillary pressure and relative
permeability relationship in conventional and low permeability reservoir
g) Dual water system in shale
h) CBM in India
[4264]-640 4

[4264]-757
B.E. (Automobile)
AUTOMOTIVE SYSTEM DESIGN
(2008 Pattern)
SECTION - I
Q1) Solve any three : [3 6 = 18]
a) Explain, Design for natural tolerances.
b) Discuss, Adequate and optimum design.
c) Significance of free variable, and constrained variable in Johnsons method
of optimum design.
d) Write note on, statistical considerations in design.
e) Explain aspects of Aesthetic design.
Q2) a) An engine develops 5.9 kW at 2100 rpm. Find the suitable size of clutch
plate having the friction lining riveted on both sides to transmit the power,
under the following conditions
i) Intensity of pressure on the surface not to exceed 6.87 104 Pa.
ii) Slip torque and losses due to wear is the 35% of engine torque.
iii) Coefficient of friction on contact surface is 0.3.
iv) Inside diameter of friction plate is 0.55 times the outside diameter.
[8]
b) Answer the followings : [4 2 = 8]
i) What causes the clutch to slip.
ii) What are the drawbacks with metallic lining
iii) List desirable properties of lining material.
iv) Why centrifugal clutch is more suitable for heavy duty applications.
P.T.O.
OR
a) Derive an expression for torque transmission capacity for single plate
friction clutch under uniform wear condition and uniform pressure
condition. [8]
b) Discuss in detail material and their properties as clutch frictional material.
[8]
Q3) a) A four speed gearbox is to be constructed for providing the ratios of
1.0, 1.46, 2.28, and 3.93 to as nearly as possible. The diametral pitch
of each gear is 3.25 mm and the smallest pinion is to have at least 15
teeth. Determine the number of teeth of the different gears, and then the
distance between the main and lay out shaft. [12]
b) Write note on gear train with types. [4]
OR
a) In a gear box the clutch shaft pinion has 14 teeth and low gear main shaft
pinion 32 teeth. The corresponding lay shaft pinions have 36 and 18
teeth. The rear axle ratio is 3:7; and the effective radius of the rear tyre
is 0.355 m. Calculate the car speed for the above system at an engine
speed of 2500 rpm. [8]
b) Enlist bearing types, parameters considered for selection of bearing. [4]
c) Write a note on types of gearboxes. [4]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) An automobile engine develops a maximum torque of 162 N.m. the low
gear ratio of transmission is 2.75, while the back axle ratio is 4.25. The
effective wheel radius is 0.325m the coefficient of friction between the
tyre and road surface is 0.6. If the permissible shear stress is 32370
104 Pa, determine the maximum shaft diameter, assuming that the load is
nearly torsional. What is the maximum load permissible on each wheel.[9]
b) List basic types of universal joint and explain one in detail with diagram.[9]
OR
a) Discuss propeller shaft, draw relation for design torque of the shaft and
list features of composite propeller shaft. [10]
b) An automobile engine develops 28 kW at 1500 rpm, and its bottom gear
ratio is 3.06. If a propeller shaft of 40 mm outside diameter is to be used,
determine the inside diameter of mild steel tube to be used, assuming a
safe shear stress of 55 103 kPa for the MS. [8]
[4264]-757 2
Q5) a) Explain the followings : [6 2 = 12]
i) Brake fade
ii) Brake torque
iii) Brake balance
iv) Braking efficiency
v) Properties of friction lining
vi) Components used in hydraulic brake system
b) The distance between the pads centre of pressure and the centre of disc
rotation is 0.12m. The coefficient of friction between the rubbing faces
is 0.35. Determine the clamping force required to produce a braking
torque of 82 N.M. [4]
OR
a) Draw line diagram of hydraulic single line braking system and explain in
detail. [6]
b) In a hydraulic single line braking system the force on foot pedal is 100N,
pedal leverage ratio is 4. 4 cross sectional area of master cylinder is
4cm2, cross sectional area of front piston 20 cm2. Cross sectional area
of the rear piston is 5cm2. Distance moved by effort is 1cm. Calculate
the followings : [10]
i) Front to rear brake ratio
ii) Total force ratio
iii) Distance moved by output
iv) Cylinder movement ratio
v) Total movement ratio
Q6) a) Explain design features of leaf spring.

b) Discuss vehicle dynamics.
c) Discuss forces on vehicle suspension system.
d) Write a note on air springs.
[4 4 = 16]
OR
a) A vehicle spring of semi elliptic type has leaves of 75 mm width and
10 mm thickness, effective length is 900 mm. If the stress is not to exceed
220725 kPa, when the spring is loaded to 4905N, estimate the required number
of leaves and the deflection under this condition. If the spring is just flat
under load, what is the initial radius take E = 196.2 106 kPa. [12]
b) Discuss general design considerations of suspension system. [4]

[4264]-757 3

[4264]-759
B.E. (Automobile Engineering)
VEHICLE SAFETY
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - II B) (Theory)
1) Answer any three questions from Section - I and any three from Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write the various characteristics of the vehicle structure. [6]
b) Why the safety systems are implemented in the Automobiles? [6]
c) What is the importance of the Ergonomics in Automotive safety? [6]
Q2) a) What is crash testing? Why the crash test is carried out? What are the
instruments are necessary for crash test? Explain any two of them in
brief. [12]
b) Define the following terms : [4]
i) Crashworthiness
ii) Crumple Zone
OR
Q3) a) What is impact testing? Explain the various types of impact testing. [8]
b) Explain the general requirements on body structure. [8]
Q4) a) Explain - Dummies used in Vehicle Testing. [8]

b) Define ergonomics & Explain the necessity of the ergonomics in
automobile safety. [8]
OR
Q5) a) What is mean by Anthropometry? Explain the human impact tolerances.[8]
b) State the various locations of controls in the Automobile Vehicles. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) What is passive safety? Write various passive safety systems & explain
any four of them in brief. [12]
b) Differentiate between Active safety systems & Passive safety systems.[6]
OR
Q7) a) Why the safety glasses are necessary? Explain the requirements of the
safety glasses. [8]
b) What is Bumper? Write the necessity of the Bumpers. [5]
c) Explain the various types of Seats. [5]
Q8) a) Write the various types of Automotive lamps. Explain any one of them in
brief. [8]
b) Write the various types of light signaling devices & Explain any two of
them in brief. [8]
OR
Q9) a) Why the testing of Automotive lamp is necessary? How the testing is
carried out? [8]
b) Write the necessity of lighting & signaling system in the vehicle & explain
the requirements of the lighting systems. [8]
Q10) a) Draw & Explain any four traffic signal symbols. [8]
b) Explain the responsibilities of the following : [8]
i) Transporter or the owner of the Good Carriage Vehicle
ii) Driver.
OR
Q11) Explain & Draw the classes of label with its symbol & color code for the
following : [16]
a) Explosives
b) Gases
c) Inflammable liquid
d) Oxidizing substance & organic peroxide
[4264]-759 2

[4264] - 454
B.E. (Mechanical S/W)
COMPUTATIONAL FLUID DYNAMICS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Obtain differential form of momentum equation using a suitable model
of flow. [10]
b) Give any two applications of CFD in industry and list minimum three
meaningful outputs expected from the simulation results of these problems.
[6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the concept of Substantial Derivatives, elaborate by giving a
suitable practical example. [8]
b) Give four distinct advantages and some Limitation of CFD technique.[8]
Q3) a) Explain MacCormack method and give its advantages over Lax-wendroff
technique. [12]
b) Give classification of equations used in CFD with suitable examples of
each. [6]
OR
Q4) a) What are CFL conditions? Explain its importance in CFD analysis.[10]
b ) Explain the concept of artificial viscosity. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What do you mean by transformation of Grid? [6]
b) Write few lines about : [10]
i) Adaptive grids.
ii) Unstructured mesh and hybrid mesh
OR
Q6) Obtain the solution procedure for a thermally developing fluid flow inside a
circular pipe. [16]
SECTION - II
du d 2 y
Q7) a) Solve one dimensional heat flow equation = 0 < x < 1.
dt dx 2
Subject to conditions
u (0, t) = 0, u (l, t) = 0
u (x, 0) = 2x, 0 < x <
= 2 (1x) < x < 1
Taking x = 0.1, t = 0.001
Use explicit finite difference method to find u at t = 0.001, 0.002, 0.003.[8]
b) Explain Lax-wendroff technique with a comment on it. [8]
OR
Q8) Explain ADI scheme to solve the two dimensional heat flow equation. [16]
du d 2u d 2u
= K 2 + 2

dt dx dy
Compare the advantages of this method with explicit and fully implicit method.
Q9) Give solution procedure by using SIMPLE algorithm. [16]

OR
Q10) a) Write the algorithm for TDMA (Tridigonal Matrix Algorithm) solver.[10]
b) List advantages and disadvantages of finite volume method. [6]
Q11) Explain finite volume method to solve one dimensional steady state diffusion
problem. [18]
OR
[4264]-454 2
Q12) Write short notes on any three below : [18]
a) Flow models used to analyze the flow.
b) Finite volume method.
c) Staggered Grid.
d) Comparison of Explicit and Implicit method.
e) Grids in CFD.
xxxx
[4264]-454 3

[4264] - 424
B.E. (Civil)
FINITE ELEMENT METHODS IN CIVIL ENGINEERING
(2008 Pattern) (Open Elective) (Semester - II)
SECTION - I
Q1) Figure 1 shows a plane truss with three members. Cross-sectional area of all
members 800 mm2 Young modulus is 200 kN/mm2.
a) Determine deflection at loaded joint.
b) Determine end forces of each member. [16]
OR
Q2) Analyse the prismatic beam ABCD loaded and supported as shown in figure 2
using finite element approach. Draw SFD and BMD. [16]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) When do you need transformation matrix? Write transformation matrix
of frame element. [6]
b) Obtain overall stiffness matrix for the portal frame as shown in figure 3.
Take AE = 400000 kN and EI = 1600 kN. m2. [12]
OR
Q4) A balcony grid ABC shown in figure 4 is in xy plane. Ends A and C are fixed.
Member AB is subjected to uniformly distributed load of intensity 30kN/m
and member BC is centrally loaded by 40 kN. Take EI = 1600 kN.m2 and
GJ = 800 kN.m2 for both AB and BC, find unknown joint displacements
at B. [18]
Q5) a) Derive the differential equations of equilibrium for three-dimensional

problems and show that shear stresses are complimentary. [10]
b) State the convergence criteria for the choice of the displacement function
in FEM. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Explain with example, plane stress and plane strain elasticity problem.[8]
b) Derive compatibility conditions in-terms of strain. [8]
[4264]-424 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain principle of minimum potential energy with example. [9]
b) Derive stiffness matrix for 1D axially loaded bar element using principle
of minimum potential energy. [9]
OR
Q8) a) Explain geometric isotropy using two dimensional Pascals triangle. [6]
b) Derive stiffness matrix of two noded beam element with 2 DOF at each
node. [12]
Q9) a) Distinguish between CST and LST elements. [8]

b) Obtain strain-displacement matrix for a CST elements. [8]
OR
Q10) a) State advantages of isoparametric formulation over the explicit
formulation. [8]
b) Derive element stiffness matrix for plane stress three noded CST element.
[8]
Q11) a) Derive shape functions for eight noded isoparametric rectangular element
with four corner nodes and four mid-side nodes. Use natural coordinate
system ( , ). [8]
b) State and explain three basic laws on which isoparametric concept is
developed. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Derive necessary matrices for formulation of stiffness matrix of
axisymmetric element of triangular cross-section. [10]
b) Explain importance of shape functions in finite element procedure. What
are typical characteristics of shape function? [6]
xxxx
[4264]-424 3

[4264] - 426
B.E. (Civil)
HYDROPOWER ENGINEERING
(2008 Pattern) (Open Elective) (Semester - II)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss the relative merits and demerits of hydropower as compared to
other power resources. [8]
b) What are the principal components of a hydro-electric plants? Discuss
the utility of each component in detail. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are the different stages of planning for water power development?
Explain with different guidelines all these stages in detail. [8]
i) Hydro power potential of India.
ii) Run off river plant.
Q3) a) Give the classification of hydropower plants. Explain valley dam plant in
detail. [8]
b) How hydropower plants are classified according to different criteria?
Explain all five criteria in detail. [8]
OR
Q4) Write notes on :
a) Micro hydro power plant. [8]
b) Tidal power plant. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is load factor, capacity factor and Utilization factor? Explain in
detail. [8]
b) A common load is shared by two stations, one being a base load plant
with 20MW installed capacity and other being a stand by station with
25MW capacity. The yearly output of stand by station is 10 106 kWh
and that of the base load plant is 125 106 kWh. The peakload taken by
stand by station is 12MW and this station works for 2500 hours during
the year. The base load station takes a peak load of 22.8 MW. Find out :
i) Annual load factors for both stations.
ii) Plant use factors for both stations.
iii) Capacity factors for both stations. [10]
OR
Q6) a) A run of stream station with installed capacity of 15,000 kW operates at
15% load factor when it serves as a peakload station. What should be
lowest discharge in the stream so that the station may serve as the base
load station? It is given that the plant efficiency is 75%. When working
under a head of 20 m. Also calculate the maximum load factor of the
plant when the discharge in the stream rises to 20 cumec. [10]
b) What is the importance of prediction of load? Explain in detail. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is underground power station? Explain various ways of locating
underground power houses in detail. [8]
b) What are the types of powerhouse? Explain surface powerhouse with its
components and draw the neat sketch. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in detail any four electrical equipments for the power house. [8]
b) What is instrumentation in powerhouse? How instrumentation and control
is achieved in case of power house? [8]
Q9) a) Explain cavitation in turbines with Thomas cavitation factor. [8]

b) A pelton wheel is to be designed for the following specifications : [10]
Shaft power = 11,772 kW
Head = 380 m
Speed = 750 rpm
Overall efficiency = 86%
Jet dia is not exceed one sixth of the wheel diameter. Determine :
i) The wheel diameter
ii) No of jets required.
iii) Diameter of jet.
Take Cv = 0.985 and = 0.45
[4264]-426 2
OR
Q10) a) Explain the classification of turbines according to various criteria in detail.
[8]
b) The internal and external diameters of an outward flow reaction turbine
are 2 m and 2.5 m resp. The turbine is running at 250 rpm and rate of
flow of water through the turbine is 6 m3/sec. The width of runner is
constant at inlet and outlet and is equal to 250 mm. The head on turbine
is 100 m. Neglecting the thickness of vanes and taking discharge radial at
outlet. Determine : [10]
i) Velocity of flow at inlet and outlet.
ii) Vane angle at inlet and outlet.
Q11) a) Write note on economic considerations of hydroelectric power plant.[8]

b) Explain carbon credit concept with its significance. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain the factors governing the pricing of electricity. [8]
b) What are the provisions regarding transmission of electricity as per
electricity act 2003? [8]
xxxx
[4264]-426 3

[4264] - 473
B.E. (Production)
PROCESS PLANNING & TOOL SELECTION

1) Answer 3 questions from Section - I and 3 questions from Section - II
SECTION - I
Q1) a) List the responsibilities of product and process engineers in an

organization. [8]
b) Draw and explain the diagram relating the operation classifications to the
complete manufacturing sequence. [8]
OR
i) Process picture.
ii) Routing.
iii) Part.
iv) Specifications.
b) What is the significance of process planning in industry? [8]

i) Flaws. ii) Lay.
iii) Datum. iv) Surface roughness.
v) Tolerance. vi) Limits.
vii) Basic size. viii) Nominal size.
b) How to analyze part print? Discuss in detail. [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) What is the purpose of grouping related surfaces or areas? Explain. [8]
b) What is mean by geometry of form? Define. [8]
i) Flatness,
ii) Angularities,
iii) Roundness,
iv) Concentricity.
Q5) a) Explain 3-2-1 principle of location. [6]

b) What is interchangeability? Discuss its importance. [6]
c) Explain dimensional control and mechanical control in relation to work -
piece control. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the alternate location theory. [6]
b) Discuss the causes of work-piece variations. [6]
c) Explain the purpose of tolerance chart. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the steps involved in machine selection method with a neat flow
chart. [8]
b) Why is milling better suited than shaping for producing flat surfaces in
mass-production machining? What are the two common ways of
classifying milling cutters. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the prime accuracies & producible accuracies of an equipment.
[8]
b) When should Utilized Machines be used for automatic production?
[8]
Q9) a) Explain the concept of qualifying and re-qualifying operations with

examples. [8]
b) Explain the benefits of CAPP, and discuss an approach of generative
CAPP System. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss the role of computer aided process planning (CAPP) in modern
Manufacturing. [8]
b) In what situations operations are to be combined? What are the benefits
of combining different operations. [8]
[4264] - 473 2
Q11) Write the process plan that describes the operations necessary to produce
the part as shown in fig. 1. Use milling cutter of 1 2 inch diameter end mill
with six teeth, select reasonable speed, feed and depth of cut. [18]
Fig. 1
All dimensions are in mm.
Material Qty
Aluminium 1000/month
OR
Q12) Analyze the component drawing (as shown in fig. 2) made up of aluminium.
Prepare the process sheet for mass production containing manufacturing plan
with operation sequence, equipments, tooling, fixtures, process parameters
and cycle time. [18]
ZZZ
[4264] - 473 3

[4264] - 519
B.E. (Electrical Engineering)
RENEWABLE ENERGY SYSTEM
2) Solve Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6, from section-I, and Solve Q. 7 or
Q. 8, Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12, from section-II.
5) Assume suitable additional data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain with neat sketch Solar Dish/Sterling Power Systems. [8]
b) Explain Proton Membrance Fuel Cell. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain with neat sketch Biomass for Electricity generation. [8]
b) Explain combined heat and power technology. [8]
Q3) a) Draw and explain wind farm layout showing the dimensions. [8]
b) Explain maximum rotor efficiency with the help of sketch and derivation.
[10]
OR
Q4) a) Draw and explain various types of wind turbines. [8]
b) List the methods and explain how maximum power can be achieved by
controlling speed. [10]
Q5) a) Write a short note on solar position at any time of day. [8]
b) Explain direct and diffused radiation and effect on power generation.[8]
OR
Q6) a) How the sun path diagrams can be used for shading analysis. [8]
b) Write short note on Monthly clear sky insolation. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the basic semiconductor physics used in photovoltaic to convert
sun light into electricity. [8]
b) Explain the impacts of Temperature and Isolation on I-V curves. [8]
OR
Q8) a) How shading impacts on I-V curves? [8]
b) Explain Ribbon Silicon Technologies. [8]
Q9) a) Write note on, Major Photovoltaic System Types. [8]

b) Explain the grid-connected PV system economics. [10]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the grid-connected PV systems and its interfacing with the utility.
[10]
b) Write a note on Grid Autonomy. [8]
Q11) a) Explain Nuclear energy power plant. [8]

b) Write a note on, Global warming and climate change. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain Biomechanical energy harvesting. [8]
b) Write a note on, Impact of renewable energy sources. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-519 2

[4264] - 539
B.E. (Electronics)
AUTOMOTIVE ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS
1) Answer three questions from section-I and three questions from section-II.
2) Attempt not more than six questions of which at least three questions must
be from each section.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in brief the basic Automotive System and System Components.[8]
b) Explain the Ignition System of IC Engine. [6]
c) List at least two important specifications of a battery and explain their
significance in brief. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Compare petrol engine with Diesel Engine with proper examples. [8]
b) State and explain various modes of operation of Hybrid Electric Vehicle
(HEV). [6]
c) What is Emission Control? Explain in brief. [4]
Q3) With the help of working principle, characteristics, limitations and use of
following sensors in context with automotive systems. [16]
a) Position sensing.
b) Distance sensing.
c) Torque sensing.
d) Vibration sensing.
OR
Q4) Explain the working principles of different types of Actuators, their
characteristics, limitations and applications in context with automotive
systems. [16]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) With appropriate examples explain Analog and Digital control methods
in automotive systems. [8]
b) Explain in brief the following control schemes in context with automotive
systems : [8]
i) Lighting Control.
ii) Wipers Control.
OR
i) Traction Control.
ii) Anti-theft System.
b) Explain in brief different strategies of Engine Management System.[8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Justify the selection of microprocessor, microcontroller, and digital signal
processor with in the automotive context with suitable examples. [12]
b) State and explain hardware and software debugging techniques in context
with automotive application. [6]
OR
Q8) a) How you will monitor the temperature of engine with the help of PIC?
Explain with the interfacing diagram, algorithm and C program. [12]
b) Explain in brief the Soft Real Time and Hard Real Time in context
with automotive system. [6]
Q9) a) With the help of proper example, explain the relevance of Internet
Protocols in automotive applications. [8]
b) Compare CAN, LIN and Flex Ray buses. [8]
OR
Q10) a) With the help of suitable example, explain how telematics can be effective
in automotive applications. [8]
b) Justify the selection of ARM 9 and ARM 11 in automotive applications
with proper examples. [8]
Q11) a) Write short note on Basic Wiring System and Multiplex Wiring System
in context with automotive system. [8]
b) Explain on board diagnostic system; in detail related to automotive
system. [8]
OR
[4264]-539 2
Q12) a) State and explain various safety norms and standards for Automotive
Systems. [8]
b) Explain off board diagnostic system, in detail related to automotive
system. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-539 3

[4264] - 553
B.E. (E & TC)
OPTICAL FIBER COMMUNICATION

1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6 from Section - I and Q.7 or Q.8,
Q.9 or Q.10, Q.11 or Q.12 from Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With a neat block diagram, explain the features of the key elements of an
optical fiber transmission link. [6]
b) The velocity of light in the core of a step index fiber is 2.01 x 10 m/s,
8
and the critical angle at the core-clad interface is 80. Determine the
numerical aperture and the acceptance angle for the fiber in air, assuming
it has a core diameter suitable for consideration by ray analysis. [6]
c) With reference to mode theory for optical propagation explain the terms:
Phase velocity, Group velocity and Group delay. [6]
OR
Q2) a) A graded index fiber with a parabolic index profile supports the
propagation of 742 guided modes. The fiber has a numerical aperture in
air of 0.3 and a core diameter of 70 m. Determine the wavelength of the
light propagating in the fiber. Further, estimate the new maximum core
diameter for single - mode operation at the same wavelength. [6]
b) State the advantages and drawbacks of vapour-phase deposition in the
preparation of glasses for optical fibers. [6]
c) Describe the major reasons for the cabling of optical fibers which are to
be placed in a field environment. Thus state the functions of the optical
fiber cable. [6]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Describe the important linear and nonlinear scattering losses in optical
fibers. [8]
b) Calculate the pulse spreading caused by material dispersion for a graded-
index multimode fiber working at = 850nm if the fibers length is
100 km and the light source is an LED whose rms spectral width is
70 nm. The given parameters are :
Dispersion slope, S0 = 0.097 ps/nm2. km and 0 = 1343 nm.
Is the dispersion value positive or negative in this example? State
the interpretation of negative sign. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the concept of critical bending radius for an optical fiber. A
multimode fiber has a core and clad refractive indices of 1.46 and 1.45
respectively. The critical radius of curvature at which large bending losses
occur is 84 m when the fiber is transmitting light of a particular
wavelength. Determine the wavelength of the transmitted light. [8]
b) Describe the techniques employed and the fiber structures utilized in
single-mode fibers to provide:
i) Dispersion - Shifted Fibers.
ii) Dispersion - Flattened Fibers. [8]
Q5) a) Explain the conditions necessary to attain lasing action in LASERs.

Also state the advantages of LASER Diodes over LED, for use in context
of fiber-optic communication. [8]
b) The radiative and non-radiative recombination lifetimes of minority carriers
in the active region of a double hetero junction InGaAsP LED are 30
nsec & 100 nsec respectively. Determine the total carrier recombination
lifetime and optical power generated internally if peak emission wavelength
is 1310 nm and the LED drive current is 40mA. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Describe the various types of fiber misalignment which may contribute
to insertion loss at: [8]
i) Multimode fiber joints and
ii) Single - mode fiber joints.
b) For experimentation, an engineer selects a GaAs Fabry-Perot LASER
with following parameters:
Optical cavity of length = 500 P .
Reflectivity at the two uncoated facets = 0.32 each.
Effective absorption coefficient = 10 cm1.
Calculate the threshold gain required for lasing to occur. [8]
[4264] -553 2
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain and compare PIN photodiode with APD with suitable electric
field diagram. [6]
b) An InGaAs avalanche photo-detector has a quantum efficiency of 90 %
at a wavelength of 1310 nm. If an incident optical power of 0.5 W
produces a multiplied photocurrent of 15 A, calculate the responsivity
and multiplication factor. [6]
c) With reference to optical fiber communication systems, explain the terms:
[6]
i) Thermal Noise.
ii) Dark Current Noise.
iii) Quantum Noise.
OR
Q8) a) Explain the terms quantum efficiency and responsivity of a photo-
detector. How are these terms related to each other? [6]
b) Draw and explain the equivalent circuit for the front end of an optical
fiber receiver. [6]
c) Comment on the relative merits and demerits of the three basic amplifier-
configurations adopted for optical fiber communications. [6]
Q9) a) Following are the parameters of a point to point optical link: [8]
Optical power launched : +3 dBm
Sensitivity of detector : -32 dBm
Source / Detector connector loss : 1dB each
Length of optical cable : 60 km
Cable attenuation : 0.3 dB/km
Jumper cable loss : 3 dB
Connector loss at each fiber joint : 1 dB
Assume two jumper cables and two cable joints at the two ends of
transmission fiber. Compute the power margin of the link using spread
sheet method.
b) Draw the block diagram of an analog optical fiber link and state the
major noise contributors. [8]
OR
[4264] -553 3
Q10) a) A lab setup of optical fiber demo-system is to be tested over an 8 km
length. The rise times of the chosen components are:
LED : 10 ns
p-i-n photodiode : 6 ns
Intermodal pulse broadening : 10 ns/km
Intramodal pulse broadening : 5 ns/km
From system rise time considerations, estimate the maximum bit rate
achievable on the link when using an NRZ format. [8]
b) Write a short note on: Performance analysis of analog optical fiber system.
[8]
Q11) Write short notes on: [16]

a) Optical Amplifiers.
b) WDM Components.
OR
Q12) a) A student performs an experiment based on an EDFA setup with following
settings:
Pump power : 30 mW
Pump wavelength : 980 nm
Signal wavelength : 1550 nm
Gain at 1550 nm : 20 dB
Calculate the maximum input power requirements and the maximum output
power possible with this setup. [8]
b) Explain precisely: [8]
i) Major requirements of transmitters used in WDM systems.
ii) Performance parameters of fiber couplers.
ZZZ
[4264] -553 4

[4264] - 559
B.E. (E & TC)
AUTOMOTIVE ELECTRONICS
1) Attempt Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6 from Section-I.
2) Attempt Q. 7 or Q. 8, Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12 from Section-II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain with suitable diagram working of 4 stroke petrol engine. [8]
b) State types of batteries used for automotive and various charging methods
used. [6]
c) Explain concept of transmission system used in vehicle. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Diesel engine working with suitable diagram. What are advantages
over Petrol engine. [8]
b) What is hybrid technology? Explain various operating modes and compare
advantages and disadvantages of each. [6]
c) Compare Manual and automatic transmission system. [4]
Q3) a) State selection considerations of sensors for automotive application.[4]

b) State specifications and signal conditioning of sensor used for measuring
speed of vehicle. [6]
c) Explain working principle of throttle valve used for speed control. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Draw interfacing diagram of temperature sensor and design signal
conditioning circuit for it. [6]
b) How crank shaft position is detected for fuel ignition. [6]
c) State various sensors used for stability control. Explain working of it.[4]
Q5) a) What is engine management system. Explain with block diagram how it
works in various operating modes. [10]
b) With suitable block diagram explain automatic cruise control system.
List sensors used in such system. [6]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) How overall engine performance is achieved in various working
conditions. [8]
b) Explain antilock brake system with block diagram. What are advantages
of it over normal braking system. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) List various 8/16 bit processors that are used for ECU in automotive
Vehicle Describe architecture of any one in detail. [10]
b) With suitable sensor interfacing diagram, write C program using PIC
controller for indicating speed of vehicle on LCD. [8]
OR
Q8) a) How timer/counters are used with interrupt in microcontrollers? [4]
b) Write C program using PIC microcontroller for displaying Engine
temperature on LCD. [8]
c) State software debugging features of MPLAB IDE. [6]
Q9) a) Explain Bluetooth protocol features compare it with 802.11. [8]

b) State specifications of CAN and how it is used in automotive Vehicle for
communication between ECUs? [8]
OR
Q10) a) Compare CAN & LIN protocol. [4]
b) What way Flex Ray is superior to CAN? State key features of it. [6]
c) What is need of MOST? List devices that can be connected and BW
requirement of each. [6]
Q11) a) In automotive vehicle what is concept of multiplexed wiring? Explain

with diagram how it is implemented. [8]
b) What is on board diagnostics system? How it indicate various faults?[8]
OR
Q12) a) State various methods of safety and security systems in automotive vehicle
that can be implemented. [8]
b) What are the equipments used in off board diagnostics? [8]
xxxx
[4264]-559 2

[4264] - 622
B.E. (Chemical Engineering)
FUEL CELL TECHNOLOGY
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - IV) (Theory) (Semester - II)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain electrochemical reaction and oxidation reduction reaction with
b) What does fuel cell indicates and explain its applications. [9]
OR
Q2) Compare among PEM fuel cell, phosphoric acid fuel cell, molten carbonate
fuel cell and solid oxide fuel cell, on the basis of electrode, electrolyte,
operating temperature, efficiency, advantages and disadvantages. [18]
Q3) Gibbs free energy for the formation of water vapor is 56.74 kcal/mole at
STP condition. In the typical SOFC, the partial pressures of hydrogen, oxygen
and water vapor are 0.8, 0.21 and 0.3 atm. Assume that activities of the
components are proportional to their partial pressures. The cell is operated
at 975 deg C. Calculate : [16]
a) Standard open circuit potential.
b) Open circuit potential at the operating conditions.
Faradays constant is 96487 J/V .mol.
OR
Q4) a) A current density of 9 A/m is obtained when pure hydrogen in fed to
2
SOFC at the pressure of 1.8 atm. Total pressure of gases on anodic side
is observed to be 2.2 atm. Air is supplied at 1.5 atm. The cell is operated
at 1000C. The diffusion factors for hydrogen, oxygen, water vapour
are 95, 70 and 55 C/sm2. atm respectively. Calculate concentration
overpotential across cathode and anode. [8]
P.T.O.
b) Calculate fuel utilization factor, air ratio, power output and fuel efficiency
of SOFC using following data : [8]
Average current density : 11 A/m 2
Active anode surface area : 0.3 m2

Fuel Flow rate : 20 mol/h
Fuel Composition : H2 80% and CO 20%
Air Flow rate : 20 mol/h
Output Potential : 230 V
Lower Heating Value of fuel : 25000 kcal/kg
Q5) Derive Nernst equation for calculating open circuit potential of SOFC using
H2 as a fuel and O2 as an oxidize. [16]
OR
Q6) a) Explain various methods for production of Hydrogen. [8]
b) Explain schematically the working principle of Solid Oxide Fuel Cell.[8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the mechanism of oxidative reforming of methane. [9]
b) What are the advantages and limitations of direct oxidation of
hydrocarbons? How these limitations can be removed? [9]
OR
Q8) a) Illustrate and compare between planar and tubular design of SOFC. [9]
b) Explain different types defect structure in solids and Kroger Vink notations. [9]
Q9) a) Design a tubular SOFC to generate 200 kW power from methane as a fuel.
Single tube has a anodic diameter 18 mm and active length of 1.8 m. [8]
b) Calculate mole fraction of defect at 80 and 975C. Defect energy is 75
kJ/mol. Comment on the significance of results. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Design a planner SOFC to generate 250 kW power for ethanol as a fuel. [8]
b) What is steam reforming? What are the advantages of internal steam
reforming. [8]
Q11) a) Explain charge transfer chemical reaction mechanism in SOFC. [8]

b) What are the recent advancements in the materials of anode, cathode,
and electrolyte and interconnect? [8]
OR
[4264]-622 2
Q12) Develop a mathematical model for SOFC system using the anodic system of
Ni, H2-H2O/YSZ. Hydrogen is used as a fuel and air as an oxidizer. Explain
the : [16]
a) Approach.
b) Assumptions.
c) Flow Chart and
d) Reactions.
xxxx
[4264]-622 3

[4264] - 642
B.E. (Petroleum)
IMPROVED OIL RECOVERY AND RESERVOIR SIMULATION

2) Question No. 4 (four) and 7(seven) is compulsory.
5) Use of a non-programmable calculator, log-log, semi-log paper is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) Derive the fractional flow equation for two phase flow. How is it used for
water flooding? [16]
Q2) Explain Thermal EOR. [16]
Q3) Explain Chemical EOR. [16]
Q4) a) State four elements of Polymer Design and Steam flooding. [6]
b) Name and explain any one model in Thermal EOR. [6]
c) Define MMP, CDC, Cosurfactant, Cosolvent, UL and LL phases. [6]
SECTION - II
2 p p
Q5) 2
= is the given equation for flow in porous media.
x t
Formulate the discretised equation. Start with Taylors Series. [16]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Given a one-dimensional reservoir, with the following data, set up the
matrix using the Crank Nicolson method. L = 400 ft, ct = 5E-6,
P(x,0) = 5000 psi, P (400,t) = 0 psi, P(0,t) = 5000 psi, viscosity = 5 cp,
permeability = 5 md, porosity = 20%. [12]
b) Show the solution profiles for different times on a P-x diagram and the
steady state solution. [4]
Q7) Explain steps in development of a reservoir. [18]
Q8) a) Use taylors series to derive the finite difference approximation formulas
for the Diffusivity equation. [8]
b) Modify the above equation if the left boundary has a flow rate condition.
[4]
c) Modify the above equation if the left boundary has a pressure condition.
[4]
ZZZ
[4264]- 642 2

[4264] - 643
B.E. (Petroleum)
PETROLEUM PRODUCTION ENGINEERING - II

1) Answer Q.No. 1 or Q.No. 2, Q.No. 3 or Q.No. 4, Q.No. 5 or Q.No. 6, from
Section - I and Q.No. 7 or Q.No. 8, Q.No. 9 or Q.No. 10, Q.No. 11 or Q.No. 12
from Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Which type of separator you will recommend in following conditions?
Explain the necessary features useful for this. [9]
i) Onshore processing facility, large amount of water expected.
ii) Cost effective for given spaceavailable.
iii) For better lgas liquid separation and to handle foaming Crudes.
b) Write and explain the four principal mechanisms governing the separation
process inside a three phase separator. [9]
OR
Q2) a) Design a three phase horizontal separator using the following data: [9]
Gas flow rate (Qg) = 11 MMscf/day
Oil flow rate (Qo) = 2110 bbls/day for 42 API
Operating Pressure = 980 psia
Operating Temperature = 60F
Specific Gravity of Gas = 0.6
Gas Compressibility = Z = 0.87
From graph, value of k = 0.284 (Constant based on liquid gas properties)
Liquid drop to be separated = dm = 100 micron
Assume slenderness ratio of 3 & 4. Retention time 2, 2.5, & 3 minutes.
b) Draw the neat schematic sketch of a three phase separator. [9]
P.T.O.
Q3) Draw detail process flow diagram of GGS. Show various features. [16]
OR
Q4) a) Write the necessary elements required for an emulsion to exist. What is
the role of an emulsifying agent in it? Explain. [6]
b) Draw the neat schematic sketch of a horizontal heater treater indicate
various components and explain the working. [10]
Q5) a) Explain the chemistry of corrosion process. [4]

b) Write various causes of oil field corrosion. [4]
c) List the factors that prevent to corrosion process. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Describe in brief any one method to control the corrosion of subsea
field equipments. [10]
b) Write a note on corrosion inhibitors. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss the solution to Scale problem. [8]

b) Explain procedure to design sand control job. [10]
OR
Q8) a) What are the various ways and methods to know decline in well
productivity? Also give solution in brief. [12]
b) Calculate pressure drop in the skin damaged zones for a vertical well and
a 2100 ft long horizontal well and give your comments on it. Following
reservoir properties are known. [6]
Skin factor = +6 for both the wells, Pay thickness = 70 ft, Horizontal
well production rate = 3000 bbls/day, Vertical well production
rate = 1100 bbls/day, Permeability, Kv = Kh = 40 md, Bo = 1.3
rbbl/STB, Oil viscosity = 2 cp.
[4264] -643 2
Q9) a) Write the advantages of horizontal well technology. [8]
b) A 360 acre lease is to be developed using 10 vertical wells.
It was proposed to consider horizontal well application for this field
development. If a vertical well effectively drains 40 acres, what will be
the drainage area for a 1500 ft and 2600 ft long horizontal well in the
same field? How many horizontal wells will be required to drain this sand
effectively? [8]
OR
Q10) If the production of ABC field is on its declining stage, discuss in detail
your step by step approach and general strategy for the following field
conditions to improve the overall productivity of 60 wells from two different
productive formations. [16]
Other field properties are as given below.
a) Onshore deviated wells, high API gravity oil.
b) Anticline structure having solution gas drive.
c) Unconsolidated thick sand.
d) Depth around 9,000 ft, HPHT wells.
e) Low pressure, low permeability.
f) Low GOR, pressure less than bubble point.
g) High water cut along with some sand production.
h) Target of primary recovery component achieved.
Q11) a) Draw a neat schematic sketch and describe any one completion
techniques for a horizontal well trajectory. [8]
b) Draw the schematic sketch and explain intelligent well completion. [8]
OR
Q12) Describe the objectives and challenges or field data in brief and discuss any
one case study or field methodology of, [16]
a) CHOPS.
b) Onshore production.
ZZZ
[4264] -643 3

[4264] - 650
B.E. (Petroleum)
WELL CONTROL METHODS
(2008 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Elective - IV)
2) Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt 2
questions from Section-I and 2 questions from Section-II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Calculate mud required to fill hole to pull 5 stands of drill pipe dry and
mud required to fill hole to pull 10 stands of drill pipe Wet Data. [8]
Drill pipe capacity = 0.0176 bbls/ft
Drill pipe metal displacement = 0.0082 bbls/ft
Average stand length = 92 ft.
b) Discuss leak off test procedure and uses in detail. [8]
c) Discuss normal pressure, abnormal pressure and subnormal pressure.[2]
Q2) a) Discuss soft shut off and hard shut off. Procedure while tripping out
operation. [8]
b) What would be the effect of closed well gas migration on the following
pressures at various locations. [8]
i) At any point above gas bubble.
ii) At any point below gas bubble.
iii) Gas bubble.
iv) SICP.
v) Bottom hole.
vi) SIDPP.
P.T.O.
Q3) Draw hydraulic system of BOP and discuss different functions of each
component in brief. [16]
Q4) a) A BOP stack is configured as pipe ram blind - ram, pipe ram, annular
BOP calculate required volume to close, open and close again all rams
and annular with safety margin of 30% [8]
Component Vol. to open (Gal) Vol. to close (Gal.)
Annular 30 32
BOP
Ram BOP 16 18
Describe
b) Use of diverter system in shallow gas hazard with suitable sketch. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Discuss wait and weight method graphically. [8]
b) Discuss following parameters. [8]
i) ICP.
ii) FCP.
iii) Kill mud weight.
iv) Slow Circulating Rate (SCR).
c) Discuss different causes of kick. [2]
Q6) a) The casing is set at 1500 ft and fracture gradient below the shoe is 0.68
psi/ft what is the maximum pressure that can be closed in, if a 9 ppg mud
is being used to drill with? [6]
b) Discuss volumetric fluid lubrication method of well control in detail.[10]
Q7) a) Discuss symptoms of kick and prevention of kick while deep water
drilling. [8]
b) Discuss in brief stripping operation. [8]

a) MAASP.
b) FOSV.
c) Concurrent method.
d) Underground blow out.
xxxx
[4264]-650 2

[4264] - 663
PLANT DESIGN AND PROCESS ECONOMICS

SECTION - I
Q1) Answer the following: [18]
a) List down the various financial Institutions available in India to meet the
requirements of industry for long-term finance.
b) List the factors to be considered in the evaluation of capital requirements
for a process plant.
c) Discuss breakdown of Fixed Capital Investment (FCI) items for a
chemical process.
d) Discuss incremental costs for economic analysis.
OR
Q2) a) Discuss in brief the various components of a balance sheet and Profit
and loss account statements. State the economic ratios and their
significance in brief. [9]
b) The annual production costs for a plant are Rs. 36.5 lakhs, while the
sum of annual fixed charges; overhead charges and general expenses are
Rs. 26 lakhs. Determine the break-even point, in units of production per
year if the total annual sales are Rs. 72.8 lakhs and the product sells at
Rs. 520 per unit. [9]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) A pump installation costing Rs. 95,000 has a salvage value of Rs. 4000.
It requires Rs. 3000 for its annual maintenance. If the value of the money
is 10% and the pump has a life of 4 years, what is the present worth of
service rendered by the pump? What is the capitalized assuming perpetual
operation. [8]
b) Discuss the types of cost indices available in the Chemical Engineering
literature. Discuss the importance of these cost indices for cost estimation
of chemical engineering equipment. [8]
OR
Q4) Write Short notes on: [16]
a) Taxes and Insurance.
b) Annuity and perpetuity.
c) Components of Total Product cost.
d) Methods used for evaluating investment proposals.
Q5) The following data presents the ratios pertaining to M/s ABC Petrochemicals
Ltd., Pune for the ear ending 31st March 2012: [16]
a) Annual sales : Rs. 40,00,000
b) Sales to net worth : 4 times
c) Current liabilities : 50%
d) Total debt to net worth : 80%
e) Current ratio : 2.2 times
f) Sales to inventory : 6 times
g) Average collection period : 45 days
h) Fixed assets to net worth : 75%
From the above information, prepare the balance sheet with as many details
as possible. Assume on sales on credit.
OR
Q6) The following proposals are under consideration: [16]
Proposal A B C D E
Initial outlay, Rs. 75,000 73,000 52,000 60,000 55,000
Annual cash flow Rs. 6,000 5,000 4,000 6,000 10,000
Life, years 10 6 8 9 12
Rank these proposals:
a) In the order of profitability after payback period, and
b) Net present value method assuming an interest rate of 10%.
[4264] -663 2
SECTION - II
Q7) A company purchases a dilute mixture of ethanol (5%) in water, and processes
it with simple distillation to recover the ethanol at a high concentration in
which form it is then sold for industrial use. The distillation plant comprises:
road tanker unloading bay, a raw material storage tank, with pumps, pipe
work etc., a distillation column, with condenser reflux tank for ethanol pumps
etc., a packaged boiler to provide heating to the distillation column reboiler
via steam coils, storage tanks and pumps etc for the ethanol product, and
road tanker load facilities. There has been an explosion of the distillation
column, and after it is required you are asked to conduct an audit to determine
whether it would be safe to restart operations.
You realize that you must approach this task systematically, and prepare a list
of the general types of topic, which you need, investigation as part of the
audit. Then for each type of topic, you prepare a list of specific questions
you will ask, and features you will inspect. [18]
a) List the types of topic you will investigate.
b) For each general type of topic, list several questions you will ask of
features you will inspect.
OR
Q8) a) Make a proforma for the specification Tray Dryer. [10]
b) Discuss the anatomy of Chemical Engineering Projects? What are the
standard references / resources for Petro-chemical engineers working in
Projects. [8]
Q9) a) Discuss in brief the following safety terms: [8]

i) HAZOP.
ii) Fault tree analysis.
iii) Trip and interlock system.
iv) HAZAN.
b) Discuss in brief the following: [8]
i) Piping Specifications.
ii) Pipeline network analysis.
iii) Piping layout and arrangements.
iv) Pipe fittings and auxiliaries.
[4264] -663 3
OR
Q10) a) A project has the following activities, activity duration and predecessors.
[8]
Activity Duration (days) Predecessor
P 6 -
Q 10 P
R 12 P
S 9 Q,R
T 8 R
U 5 S,T
i) Draw the CPM/PERT chart for this problem and determine the
critical path.
ii) Indicate the critical path on the CPM/PERT chart.
b) Discuss the importance of pilot plant and scale up in plant design projects.
[8]
Q11) a) Write a note on: Process Utilities in typical Petrochemical/Refinery

Complex. [8]
b) Explain the plant-design project stages with suitable example. [8]
OR
a) Engineering flow diagram and P&I Diagram.
b) Plant Layout.
c) PERT and CPM.
ZZZ
[4264] -663 4

[4264] - 669
CATALYST SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
(2008 Pattern) (Sem. - II) (Elective - IV)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss importance of Catalysis in Refinery and in Petrochemical
Complexs - Provide suitable examples. [8]
b) With help of neat diagram explain why Catalyst enhances speed of
reaction. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Define and explain : Homogeneous Catalysis, Functionality, Turnover
Frequency, Active Site. [8]
b) Differentiate between Physical Adsorption and Chemisorption. Provide
relevant examples. [8]
Q3) a) Discuss Langmuir Hinshelwood Model of Catalytic Reaction. Provide

the mathematical expression also. [8]
b) Discuss the stepwise procedure of Catalytic reaction. Highlight the
importance of rate limiting step in this context. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What are the period of operation of industrial catalysts? How are these
getting deactivated. Explain the mechanism of deactivation with help of
neat diagram. [8]
b) With help of suitable diagram differentiate between the processes of
Semi-Regenerative and Conventional Reformer units. Discuss the mode
of catalyst regeneration in both of the operations. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What are the novel techniques of synthesizing catalyst - discuss it in
depth. [6]
b) Name the important techniques employed for Characterization of industrial
catalysts. Discuss their utilities. [8]
c) What are Promoters - explain their importance and usage. [4]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss four important characteristics of supports of the commercial
catalysts. Name 3 different supports and discuss any one of then depth.[9]
b) Spray drying produces spherical particles of 5.2 microns diameter.
Calculate the external surface area considering nonporous particle. What
size of particle will be needed to provide external surface area of
78 m2/g? Assume density of particles to be 2.6 g/cm3. [9]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) With help of neat diagram explain the phenomenon Sintering. How
can it be reduced. What are the evil effects of Sintering for Industrial
Processes. [8]
b) What are dual functional catalysts? Discuss the method of dual
functionality and its mechanism with help of suitable real life example.[8]
OR
Q8) a) How to synthesize Zeolites? Highlight its important characteristics.
Discuss the shape selectivity of Zeolites and their industrial applications
in details. [10]
b) Supported metal Catalysts are very important - Explain and elaborate
with help of proper example. Discuss the mechanism of their function.[6]
Q9) a) Discuss the construction and operation of trickle bed reactor. Why it is
very important in the Refinery Complex? [8]
b) With help of neat diagram explain the operation of a hydrocarcker. Provide
the suitable operating conditions also. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Name the reactors to be used for isomerization reactions. Explain the
catalyst employed and its nature along with operating conditions. [6]
b) With help of neat diagram discuss Fluidized Catalytic Cracking with
proper emphasis on the catalyst used, operating condition, reaction time
and regeneration of catalyst. [10]
[4264]-669 2
Q11) a) What is GTL technology? What are its salient features. Discuss various
multiphase reactors employed in this emerging technology. Discuss the
various challenges to be overcomed for commercialization of the
technology. [9]
b) With help of neat diagram explain the operation of Methanol Synthesis
Reactor. Discuss all technical aspects associated with the design of the
reactor. [9]
OR
Q12) Write short notes on (any four) : [18]
a) Shift Catalyst.
b) Ammonia Reactor.
c) Multi-tubular Multiphase Reactor.
d) Catalytic Reformer.
e) Industrial Process of Manufacturing Ethylene Oxide.
xxxx
[4264]-669 3

[4264] - 681
B.E. (Polymer)
MOLD AND DIE DESIGN - II

1) Answer question number 1 or 2, 3 or 4, 5 or 6 from Section - I. Answer
question number 7 or 8, 9 or 10 and 11 or 12 from Section - II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written on separate answer books.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) For ejection of the internally threaded component by unscrewing, explain
the working principle of : [5]
i) Rotating core with extractor plate.
ii) Withdrawing rotating core.
b) Explain with an example, the design of the core used for manufacturing a
plastic component with single interrupted thread. [5]
c) With only sketches indicate the collapse of collapsible core to relieve the
internal threads. [6]
OR
Q2) a) With neat sketch, explain in-line layout for withdrawing of threaded
core for internally threaded component. [6]
b) Explain any 2 methods of retaining loose threaded cores in the molds for
molding components with internal threads. [5]
c) Explain design the factors to be taken into consideration while desigining
components with internal threads. [5]
Q3) a) Bring out the differences in the design of hot runner molds and 3 plates.
[6]
b) Select and justify material of construction used for manifold and nozzles
in hot runner molds. [6]
c) Explain the construction of rectangular manifold used in hot runner molds
with a neat figure. [6]
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) Explain the antechamber nozzle design with a neat figure. [6]
b) With neat sketches, explain the various hot runner manifold designs. [6]
c) List the various types of valve systems used in hot runner molds. Explain
any one in detail. [6]
Q5) a) With a neat sketch, explain semi-positive and flash type compression
molds. [8]
b) Write a note on factors taken into considerations during designing of
plug assist used in thermoforming. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the various materials used in fabrication of blow molds. [6]
b) What are the various factors taken into consideration for core rod design
in blow molds? [5]
c) Explain: [5]
i) Venting and
ii) Selection of gate location in transfer molds.
SECTION - II
Q7) Design a 2 cavity mold for the component shown in figure 1. Draw at least 2
views with one sectional view to bring out the details of the feed, cooling and
ejection system. Illustrate the relevant design calculations. [35]
OR
Q8) Design a 2 cavity mold for the component shown in figure 2. Draw at least 2
views with one sectional view to bring out the details of the feed, cooling and
ejection system. Illustrate the relevant design calculations. [35]
Q9) With a neat sketch, explain the constructional features of a coat hanger sheet
die. [10]
OR
Q10) With a neat sketch, explain the constructional features of a fish tail die. [10]
Q11) For a family mold, why is runner balancing preferred over gate balancing?
[5]
OR
Q12) Explain: [5]
a) Racetrack effect.
b) Jetting. Also suggest remedial actions to avoid the above phenomenon.
[4264] -681 2
[4264] - 681 3
ZZZ
[4264] - 681 4

[4264] - 686
B.E. (Polymer)
RUBBER TECHNOLOGY
1) Answer three questions from section-I and three questions from section-II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the thermodynamic theory for rubber elasticity. [6]
b) How are rubbers classified? What is the basis for their classification? Discuss
any two rubbers w.r.t. their synthesis, properties and applications. [8]
c) Discuss rebound resilience w.r.t. rubbers. State the application where
this property is important. How is it measured? [4]
OR
Q2) a) Explain a stress-strain graph for vulcanised and unvulcanised rubber.[6]
b) With the help of a flow chart explain the basic stages that occur in a raw
rubber technology. [6]
c) Discuss any two rubbers on the basis of their structure, composition,
properties, compounding and applications. [6]
Q3) a) Discuss the basic principles of compounding of rubbers. State and explain
machinery used for compounding of rubbers. [6]
b) Discuss vulcanising agents, accelerators, activators, retarders w.r.t.
rubbers. Give suitable examples of each one of them. [6]
c) State the various types of carbon blacks. How do they differ from one
another. [4]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What is the role of the following additives w.r.t. rubbers. Explain their
mechanism of functioning and give 2 examples of each (any two) : [6]
i) Peptizers.
ii) Tackifiers.
iii) Extender oils.
b) Discuss Mastication of Natural rubber with the help of a mastication
curve. [4]
c) Write a short note on fillers used with rubbers and their effect on the
properties of the rubber. [6]
Q5) a) What are the different vulcanising agents used to vulcanise rubbers?
Give specific examples. [6]
b) What are the different factors affecting the rate of vulcanisation? [6]
c) With the help of a cure curve discuss the oscillating disc theometer. [4]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss briefly the different methods to carry out vulcanisation in rubbers.
[6]
b) Write a short note on the Mooneys viscometer used in the rubber
industry. [6]
c) With the help of chemical reactions discuss vulcanisation in Natural rubber
and polychloroprene rubber. [4]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain in brief the process of injection molding of rubbers. [6]
b) List the different types of extruders used with rubbers and discuss. [6]
c) Explain the different types of role arrangements used in a calendar what
is roll bending in case of calendaring. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the process of compression molding of rubbers. Which rubber
articles are manufactured by this method? State the advantages of
compression molding process. [6]
b) State the various ways to overcome the problem of roll bending in
calendaring. [6]
c) What are the advantages and disadvantages of injection molding compared
to compression molding in rubbers? [6]
Q9) a) List the various components forming a type structure and explain the
function of each component. List the rubbers used in tyre manufacture.[6]
b) Draw a neat sketch and list the various constructional elements of a
cable stating the function of each element. [6]
[4264]-686 2
c) Explain the coagulant dipping process used for manufacture of rubber
gloves. [4]
OR
Q10) a) State the three main classes of cellular rubber and differentiate between
them. [6]
b) Explain the construction and manufacture of a conveyor belt and give its
applications. List the rubbers used in manufacturing conveyor belts.[6]
c) Draw a neat sketch and explain the constructional elements of a rubber
hose. What is the criteria for selection of material for hoses. [4]
Q11) a) Discuss the various tests carried out on unvulcanised rubbers. [8]
b) Discuss any two electrical tests carried out on rubbers. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain the procedure to carry out the abrasion test on rubbers. Give
two applications on which this test is performed. [8]
b) Define the term Permanent set. Explain the procedure to carry out
permanent set in compression. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-686 3

[4264] - 687
POLYMER THERMODYNAMICS AND BLENDS
3) Numbers to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic table, electronic pocket calculators is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss in detail with Limitations of different Laws of Thermodynamics. [10]
b) Explain the following terms : Intensive and Extensive Properties. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain in detail Heat of mixing and its role. [8]
b) Explain in detail Entropy of mixing and its role. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the thermodynamic conditions for Phase separations. [8]

b) Write a short note on Phase diagram. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Discuss with necessary diagram the effect of temperature on the Phase
stability. [8]
b) Explain the importance of Molecular weight parameter with necessary
diagram on the miscibility of polymer blend systems. [8]
Q5) a) Explain and derive Flory Huggins equation for polymer blends. [9]
b) Explain the role of Hilderbrand solubility parameter. [9]
OR
Q6) a) Explain with one example : [10]
i) Effect of Hydrogen bonding interaction.
ii) Effect of specific interaction like dipole-dipole interaction.
b) Explain Mixing Theory for Polymer Blend Mixture. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Draw and explain in detail the schematic representation of the steps to be
taken when developing polymer alloys and blends with a specified set of
desired performance characteristics. [10]
b) Discuss in detail all Es or advantages in employing polymer blend
technology. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Discuss the significances related to processing via polymer blend
technology. [6]
b) Explain the term Polymer alloy with its importance. [4]
c) Explain different Polymeric Modifier used to improve the following
properties such as Impact Strength, Chemical Resistance, Heat Deflection
Temperature, Flame Resistance. [8]
Q9) a) Define the term Spreading coefficient and Discuss with examples the method of
Compatibilization via addition of block or graft copolymers. [10]
b) Write a note on Polymer Blend Morphology. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss with one example the role of Maleic Anhydride grafted polymers
in blend Technology. [8]
b) Discuss Toughening of polymers via polymer blend technology with
two examples. [8]
Q11) a) Discuss in detail the applicable models to understand the Rheology of

Immiscible Blend systems. [8]
b) Write a note on any one Commercial Polymer blend involving engineering
polymer. [8]
OR
Q12) Write in detail classifications of Interpenetrating Polymer Network and discuss
Semi-IPN, Sequential-IPN. one with suitable example. [16]
xxxx
[4264]-687 2

[4264] - 740
BIO PROCESS MODELING AND SIMULATION

1) Answer any three questions from Section - I & any three questions from
Section - II.
3) Use of Programmable calculator is not allowed.
4) Draw a neat sketch wherever necessary.
5) Make necessary assumptions wherever required.
SECTION - I
Q1) Define and explain: [18]
a) Process model.
b) Simulation of a model.
OR
Q2) What is model building? Explain the four phases of model building with a neat
sketch? [18]

a) Equation of state.
b) Activity coefficient.
OR
Q4) Write detailed notes on applications of mathematical modeling. [16]

a) Rigid Process.
b) Stochastic Process.
OR
Q6) How do you classify models based on the state of the process? Explain in
detail. [16]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) What is a fed batch culture? Write the equations for microbial kinetics for a
fed batch culture. [18]
OR
Q8) Write short notes on modeling of a continuous culture. [18]
Q9) Explain in detail the Biological treatment of waste water by using Biological
film systems. [16]
OR
Q10) Write short notes on the following: [16]
a) Agitated bioreactor.
b) Sparged bioreactor.
Q11) Develop the model for a batch reactor where the following reactions take
place. A B C, A D with rate constants k1, k3 and k2 respectively. All
the reactions are endothermic and have first order kinetics. The reacting
mixture is heated by steam which flows through a jacket around the reactor
with a rate of Q (Kg/min). [16]
OR
Q12) Model a gravity tank system with proper assumptions and a neat sketch.
[16]
ZZZ
[4264] -740 2

[4264] - 741
PLANT ENGINEERING AND PROJECT COSTING

1) Answer any three questions from Section - I and any three questions from
Section - II.
5) Make necessary assumptions wherever necessary.
6) Use of programmable calculator is not allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the basic considerations in Biochemical/chemical plant design.

[8]
b) Discuss the importance of process flow diagram in plant design. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Justify Pilot plant data is required even if laboratory data is available.
[8]
b) Differentiate between qualitative and quantitative type of process flow
diagram. Explain the combined type of process flow diagram. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the criteria for location of different buildings and facilities in the
drawing of plant layout. [8]
b) Explain factors to be considered for preparing plant layout with a suitable
example. [10]
OR
Q4) a) Explain plant safety operation and maintenance. [6]
b) Explain the check list for safe plant design. [6]
c) Discuss the capacity estimation and economic factor for various utilities.
[6]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) List various pipe supports. [4]
b) Draw symbols for following used in engineering line diagram. [6]
i) Flow indicator.
ii) Level Indicator.
iii) Flow recorder.
iv) Pneumatic lines.
c) Write short note on colour code of pipeline carrying utilities. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Draw utility diagram for batch reactor. [4]
b) State different types of thermal insulation for heating and cooling used in
piping design. [6]
c) Write short note on pipe sizing. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Differentiate between CPM and PERT techniques in details. [9]

b) What are the factors affecting on fixed capital and working capital? [9]
OR
Q8) a) Discuss in details about plant testing and commissioning. [9]
b) Discuss about methods of raising finance. [9]
Q9) a) Discuss about the concept of marginal additional investment for

expansion and diversification. [8]
b) Discuss the effect of inflation on profitability analysis. [8]
OR
Q10) State the methods of profitability evaluation technique. Explain any four.
[16]
Q11) Write short note on straight line and sinking fund method for depreciation
determination. [16]
OR
Q12) Define term: [16]
a) Current value
b) Salvage value and
c) Recovery period.
ZZZ
[4264] -741 2

[4264] - 747
B.E.(Biotechnology)
INDUSTRIAL ORGANISATION AND MANAGEMENT
1) Answer any three questions from section-I and any three questions from
section-II.
2) Answer to the two sections should be written in separate books.
5) Make necessary assumptions wherever necessary.
6) Use of programmable calculator is not allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain management by objective. [5]
b) Differentiate between private limited and public limited types of
companies. [8]
c) Explain Henry Fayols theory of management. [3]
OR
i) Cooperative.
ii) Partnership deeds.
b) What is partnership organization? What are its advantages over single
ownership? [8]

i) Job specification.
ii) Job description.
iii) Job analysis and
iv) Job evaluation.
b) What is performance appraisal and explain in detail. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain industrial Fatigue along with its causes. [6]
b) Write short note on trade union. [6]
c) Discuss the objectives and functions of wage and salary administration.[6]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write short note on : [9]
i) VED analysis.
ii) SDE analysis.
iii) Control policies for A and C
b) Explain the following : [7]
i) Inventory carrying cost.
ii) Ordering cost
and How they are calculated.
OR
Q6) a) Explain various steps necessary for effective purchasing. [5]
b) What are store record? Explain Bin card. [5]
c) State significance of material management. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain different function of sales department? [4]
b) Explain the importance of marketing management for the growth of
industrial organization. [12]
OR
Q8) a) What is forecasting? Explain two types of forecasting. [6]
b) Define market research. What are the different methods of market
research? Give your comment how to market pharmaceutical product in
competitive market. [10]

i) Protective duty.
ii) Duty of Bounty fed articles and
iii) Expert duty.
b) Explain in detail import procedure in India. [6]
c) Write short note on let Export Order. [6]
OR
Q10) a) State and explain factors affecting International Trade. [8]
b) Write note on : [6]
i) VAT and
ii) MOD VAT.
c) Write note on ISO. [4]
Q11) a) Explain in detail the concept of contract act. [8]

b) What is the provision for penalty under payment of Gratuity Act? [8]
[4264]-747 2
OR
Q12) a) Discuss the provisions in MRTP Act. [8]
b) What are the conditions for dependent to be the nominee according to
the employee State Insurance? [8]
xxxx
[4264]-747 3

[4264] - 419
B.E. (Civil)
ADVANCED ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT
1) Solve Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6 from Section-I and Q. 7 or Q. 8,
Q. 9 or Q. 10, Q. 11 or Q. 12 from Section-II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write major requirements for obtaining ISO 14000 certification. [6]
b) Enlist ISO 14000 series. [6]
c) What is necessity of ISO 14000 standards? [6]
OR
Q2) a) Enlist Environmental Management System (EMS) principles and elements
and explain any one. [6]
b) Write about links between ISO 14001 and ISO 9000 in tabular form. [6]
c) Write the background and development of ISO 14000 series. [6]
Q3) a) Explain functions and powers of the state boards set up under The Water
(Prevention & Control) Act 1974. [8]
b) Explain the salient features of hazardous waste management handling
rules 1989. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What is the purpose of Air (Prevention & Control) Act 1981? Explain in
brief how this act helped the state pollution control board to control air
pollution. [8]
b) Write a note on penalties and procedures under : [8]
i) The Water Act and
ii) The Air Act.
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain in detail tangible and intangible economic losses due to air
pollution. [8]
b) Explain objectives of using air pollution control equipments. What data
is required to be collected before selecting control equipment? [8]
OR
Q6) a) Write about management of air pollution in an industry? Explain. [8]
b) Write National Ambient Air Quality Standards in tabular form. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What are the principles of industrial waste water treatment? Explain. [8]
b) What are the applications in industrial water pollution control? Explain.[8]
OR
Q8) a) What are the technologies of industrial water pollution control? Explain
any one. [8]
b) Write about waste management in sulphuric acid plant. [8]
Q9) a) What are the classifications of solid waste? State the source categories
of solid wastes? [8]
b) Explain the various methods of disposal of biomedical waste. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What is bio medical waste? Discuss the effects of biomedical wastes on
human health and environment. [8]
b) Discuss suitable methods of collection and disposal of municipal solid
waste. [8]
Q11) a) What is Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)? Explain the purpose

of EIA. [9]
b) Discuss the role of regulatory agencies and control boards in obtaining
environmental clearance for project. [9]
OR
Q12) a) Explain any one method of Environmental Impact Assessment. [9]
b) Explain procedure for public hearing in India. [9]
xxxx
[4264]-419 2

[4264] - 472
B.E. (Production)
COMPUTER INTEGRATED DESIGN AND MANUFACTURING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain with suitable example the following concepts. Specify differences
among them. [6]
i) Wire frame model.
ii) Surface model.
iii) Solid mode.
b) Write 3 3 transformation matrix for the following effects. [10]
i) Scale the X direction to be half as large and then rotate anticlockwise
by 90 about the origin.
ii) Translate down 0.5 unit, right 0.5 unit and then rotate anticlockwise
about origin by 45.
iii) Rotate anticlockwise about origin by 90 and then scale Y direction
by half as large.
OR
Q2) a) Explain the different technique for image generation on CRT. [6]
b) Find the concatenated homogeneous matrix (4 4 transformation) for
the following operations, performed in the following sequence, [10]
i) Rotation through 60 about Z axis.
ii) Translation through 15 and 25 units along X and Y direction
respectively.
iii) Rotation about 40 about X axis.
Q3) a) State and explain various types of boundary conditions used in the
engineering problems. [6]
P.T.O.
b) Figure 1 shows three springs connected in parallel. One end of the
assembly is fixed and at the other end force of 700 N is applied. Determine
the deflection of individual spring. [12]
OR
Q4) a) Explain following with sketch related to FEA. [6]
i) Member.
ii) Local axis.
iii) Degree of freedom.
b) A stepped bar is as shown in the figure 2 determine the displacement in
each of the sections. Given E1 = 70 GPa and E2 = 200 GPa. [12]
Q5) a) Write short note on Linear and Circular Interpolation in CNC. [8]
[4264]-472 2
b) Write a CNC program in G and M codes for drilling the two holes in part
as shown in the Figure 3 also write remark for each block. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Differentiate between Absolute & Incremental Positioning systems. [8]
b) Write a CNC program in G and M codes for milling the slot of 50mm
100mm for the part shown in the Figure 4 also write remark for each
block. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Discuss MRP I & MRP II in modern manufacturing system with sketch.[8]
b) Explain following terms related to Robot technology. [8]
i) Work Volume.
ii) Spatial resolution.
iii) Accuracy.
iv) Repeatability.
[4264]-472 3
OR
Q8) a) Explain in brief the following in relation with robot programming. [8]
i) Manual method.
ii) Walk through method.
iii) Lead through method.
b) Discuss various difficulties encountered in carrying out concurrent
Engineering. [8]
Q9) a) Explain opitz part classification and coding system with suitable example. [8]
b) Five machines constitute a GT cell. The From/To data for the machines
are shown in the table below, using From/To ratio determine the most
logical sequence of machines for this data. Construct the network
diagram, showing where and how parts enter and exists the cell. Also
develop a feasible layout plan for the cell based on the solution. [10]
To
From 1 2 3 4 5
1 0 10 80 0 0
2 0 0 0 85 0
3 0 0 0 0 0
4 70 0 20 0 0
5 0 75 0 20 0
OR
Q10) a) Explain the neat sketch following system in group technology. [8]
i) Single machine cell.
ii) Group machine layout.
iii) Flow line design.
b) Compare the following NC machine system and find out which system
is more cost effective. [10]
Machine Production Rate Maintenance Arrival Rate Inventory cost
cost
parts/Hr. units/month Per hour Unit/part/hr
I 25 140 15 1
II 30 200 20 1
Assume 180 working hours per month
Q11) a) Explain the scope of integration of CIM model of Digital Equipment
corporation (DEC). [8]
b) What is Rapid Prototyping (RP)? List out different RP techniques. Write
advantages of RP. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Explain with flow chart the concept of NIST-AMRF hierarchical model.[8]
b) What is 3D printing? Explain how product is manufactured from it. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-472 4

[4264] - 494
B.E. (Production S/W)
INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS & HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
1) Answer three questions from Section-I and three questions from section-II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in spearate books.
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Explain in detail about the impact of globalization and information
technology on industrial relations. [9]
b) What is trade union? Explain the problems faced by trade union. [9]
OR
Q2) a) What is Industrial Relation? Explain scope, objectives of industrial
relations. [9]
b) Define collective Bargaining. Explain the reasons for its success and
failure. [9]
Unit - II
Q3) a) Explain role of HR manager and structure of HR department. [8]
b) Discuss HR strategies and organizational strategies. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain Personnel Administration. State its objectives and principles.[8]
b) Describe elements of HRD systems. Also discuss their goals, elements.[8]
Unit - III
Q5) Write short notes (any two) : [16]
a) Objectives of manpower planning.
b) Succession planning.
c) Promotion.
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) Write short notes (any two) : [16]
a) Recruitment resources.
b) Reward and compensation strategies.
c) Job rotation.
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) Discuss various methods of training. [9]
b) Explain tools & aids used for effective training. [9]
OR
Q8) a) Discuss need & objectives of employee training. [9]
b) What are major procedures of training? [9]
Unit - V
Q9) a) Explain in detail competency Mapping. [8]
b) Explain how performance management system can be aligned with
business strategies of an organization. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss various methods of performance appraisal. [8]
b) Explain strategic importance of 360 degrees feedback. [8]
Unit - VI
Q11) Write short notes on (any two) : [16]
a) Industrial democracy.
b) Golden handshake.
c) Role of HRD in developing IR.
OR
a) Retrenchment and layoff.
b) Employee Morale.
c) Downsizing and project based employment.
xxxx
[4264]-494 2

[4264] - 515
B.E. (Electrical)
HIGH VOLTAGE ENGINEERING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write short note on following : [8]
i) Townsends first and second ionization coefficient.
ii) Townsends breakdown criterion.
b) What is Paschens law? How do you account for the minimum voltage
for breakdown under a given p d condition? [8]
OR
Q2) a) Discuss the breakdown of air in non-uniform fields and corona discharges.
[8]
b) Compare Townsends Theory and streamer theory of breakdown of
gaseous dielectrics. [8]
Q3) Explain following breakdown phenomenon of solid insulating materials :[18]

a) Electromechanical breakdown.
b) Thermal breakdown.
c) Treeing and tracking phenomenon.
OR
Q4) Explain following breakdown phenomenon of liquid dielectric materials.[18]
a) Suspended particle theory.
b) Cavitations and bubble theory.
c) Stressed oil volume theory.
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain occurrence of over voltage due to Lightning Phenomenon. [8]
b) Explain various reasons for Switching surges. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain insulation co-ordination with probabilistic analysis. [8]
b) Explain use of insulation coordination for selection of protective device
for high voltage power system and substation. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Define impulse waveform. What do you mean by a standard impulse
waveform? Explain wave front time and wave tail time. [8]
b) A 10 stage Cockraft-Walton circuit has all capacitors of 0.06 F. The
secondary voltage of the supply transformer is 100 kV at a frequency of
150 Hz. If the load current is 1mA. Determine : [8]
i) Voltage regulation.
ii) The ripple.
iii) The optimum number of stages for maximum output voltage.
iv) The maximum output voltage.
OR
Q8) a) With a neat sketch explain Tesla coil. How high ac voltage of high frequency
is generated with it? [8]
b) A 100 kVA, 250 V/200kV feed transformer has resistance and reactance
of 1% and 5% respectively. This transformer is used to test a cable at
400 kV at 50 Hz. The cable takes a charging current of 0.5 A at 400 kV.
Determine the series inductance required. Assume 1% resistance of
inductor. Also determine input voltage to the transformer. Neglect dielectric
loss of the cable. [8]
Q9) a) Explain how sphere gap is used for measurement of high voltage? Explain
in detail various factors which affect on measurement. [12]
b) A Bakelite sample is tested by Schering Bridge method having a standard
of 106F. The balance was obtained with a capacitance of 0.35F in
parallel with non-inductive resistance of 318 . The Non-inductive
resistance in the remaining arm of the bridge was 130 . Test voltage
20 kV, 50 Hz. Find the capacitance, the p.f. and equivalent series resistance
of the specimen. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Explain resistance, capacitance and mixed potential dividers with their
advantages and disadvantages. [12]
[4264]-515 2
b) A generating voltmeter has to be designed so that it can have a range
from 30 to 200 kV DC if the indicating meter reads a minimum current of
2 micro ampere what will be maximum current of meter? What should be
the capacitances of generating voltmeter be? [6]
Q11) Explain any two tests on following : [16]

a) Insulators.
b) Bushings.
c) Isolators.
d) Circuit breakers.
OR
Q12) a) Explain various tests conducted on cables. [8]
b) Which type and routine tests are conducted on power transformers.
Explain any two tests. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-515 3

[4264] - 535
B.E. (Electronics)
IMAGE PROCESSING AND MACHINE VISION
1) Attempt not more than 3 questions of which at least three questions must be
from each section.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the steps in image digitization? Explain image quantization in
detail. [8]
b) Explain monochrome vision model. [10]
OR
Q2) a) Explain one technique for Image Acquisition in detail. [10]
b) With the help of block diagram explain the fundamental steps in Digital
Image Processing. [8]
Q3) a) With the help of example explain 2D spatial correlation and convolution.[8]
b) Give the arithmetic operations performed in Image Processing. Give
example of each operation. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Give the masks for Average filter and Laplacian mask for Sharpening
Filter. Compute the value of the pixel F (3, 3) if it is smoothened by
3 3 average filter. [8]
0 1 2 3 2
5 6 7 8 4
F ( m, n ) = 4 3 2 1 2
8 7 6 5 3
1 5 3 7 8
P.T.O.
b) What are order statistic filters? Explain with example. [8]
Q5) a) What is Freeman chain code? What is the application of first difference
of the chain code. For the given chain code draw the boundary and also
find the first difference. [8]
Code = 0 0 0 0 6 0 6 6 6 6 4 4 4 4 2 4 2 2 2 2
b) Discuss Hough transform with algorithm and its application. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain Median Axis Transformation (MAT) Algorithm. [8]
b) Compare Region Growing & Region Splitting and Merging algorithms.[8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the terms : [8]
i) Coding Redundancy.
ii) Interpixel redundancy.
iii) Fidelity Criteria.
b) With the help of block diagram explain Transform Coding System. Explain
the terms forward and Inverse Transformation kernels. [10]
OR
Q8) a) Explain JPEG standard in detail. [10]
b) Find the set of codewords and average word length using Huffman coding
scheme for a set of gray levels with probabilities given below : [8]
Input G1 G2 G3 G4 G5 G6 G7 G8
Probability 0.03 0.1 0.02 0.1 0.05 0.15 0.25 0.3
Q9) a) Give the algorithm for 4-neighborhood and 8-neighborhood region
identification. What is Label Collision? [8]
b) What are different descriptors for geometric border representation? [8]
OR
Q10) a) Define : [8]
i) Eulerss number.
ii) Projection.
iii) Eccentricity.
iv) Elongatedness.
b) What are moments? Where are they used? [8]
Q11) a) Discuss the use of graph theory in pattern Recognition. [8]

b) What is Iso-morphism? Describe its classes? [8]
[4264]-535 2
OR
i) Foreshortening.
ii) Vanishing points in 3-D vision.
b) Explain how scene can be reconstructed from multiple views. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-535 3

[4264] - 617
B.E. (Chemical Engineering)
ENERGY CONSERVATION IN CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is energy conservation and state its importance? [6]
b) Explain the duties of accredited energy auditor in industry. [6]
c) Explain the role of energy manager in the process industries. [6]
OR
Q2) Define the following terms with the examples of each : [18]
a) Primary and Secondary energy.
b) Commercial and Non-Commercial Energy.
c) Renewable and Nonrenewable energy.
Q3) a) What is co-generation? Explain the importance of co-generation in sugar

industries? [10]
b) Enlist the parameters considered for the selection of optimum insulation
thickness. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Discuss the functions of steam straps in steam line. [6]
b) Define the term energy audit? Explain briefly the difference between
preliminary and detailed audit? [10]
Q5) a) State the advantages of air preheating in combustion process? [8]

b) Explain the improvements needed to reduce the available energy losses
for fractionation process? [8]
P.T.O.
OR
Q6) a) Explain the procedure of thermodynamic analysis of any process
equipment? [8]
b) Enlist the ideas for furnace efficiency improvement? [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the concept of process synthesis. What are the guidelines and
recommendations for the improving the process conditions? [10]
b) Enlist the checklist for the energy conservation items in heat exchangers?[8]
OR
Q8) Explain the energy performance assessment of heat exchanger and discuss
the steps involved in pinch analysis. [18]
Q9) a) What do you mean by energy audits and energy monitoring? Explain in
brief. [8]
b) State the importance of energy conservation in mixing. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the importance of good house keeping in a industry as a measure
of energy conservation. Explain in detail. [8]
b) Explain the role of energy manager in a industry. [8]
Q11) a) State the four levels that deals with energy conservation in the design of
complete processes? [8]
b) Explain waste heat utilization in process industries? [8]
OR
a) Future energy savings.
b) Fluidized bed combustion.
c) Thermodynamic aspects of separation processes.
d) Process design for energy conservations.
xxxx
[4264]-617 2

[4264] - 631
RESERVOIR ENGINEERING - II
(2008 Pattern)
Instructions to candidates :
1) Answer to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
2) Questions No. 2 (two) and 8 (eight) are compulsory.
6) Use of a non-programmable calculator, log-log, and semi-log paper is
allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Derive the continuity equation for a single phase fluid flowing through a
one dimensional porous media. [6]
b) Write down the diffusivity equation, along with all types of initial, inner
boundary and outer boundary conditions available for solving it. [10]
Q2) Following data is given : [18]

q = 30 stb/d
h = 140 ft
B = 1.47 RB/STB
k = 0.2 md
ct = 1.4 105 psi1
= 0.72 cp
rw = 0.5 ft
Pi = 3100 psi
porosity = 20%
re = 2800 ft
Calculate the reservoir pressure at the radius of 1ft, 5ft, 10ft and 50ft after 3
hours of oil production.
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain the concept of Superposition in time, with appropriate figures.[4]
b) What are the different types of flow regimes that you see in a typical well
test interpretation curve? Explain them with appropriate figures. [4]
c) A new oil well produced 400 stb/day for 2 days; then it was shut-in for
a pressure buildup test, during which the data in Table below were
recorded. The other data were : Bo = 1.25rb/stb, h = 20 ft, phi = 0.20,
rw = 0.29 ft, ct = 19.5 10 6, and viscosity = 1.1 cP. From these data,
>
estimate the formation permeability, k, pi, ans skin factor s. Use the
Semi-Log graph. [8]
Shut-in time, Del-t (hr) (tp + Del-t)/Del-t pws (psia)
0 - 1165
2 37.0 1801
4 19.0 1838
8 10.0 1865
16 5.5 1891
24 4.0 1905
48 2.5 1925
Q4) a) What do you mean by DST? How is it different from a PBU and DD
test? [6]
b) Explain the various flow periods of a DST, along with appropriate
figures. [10]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What is pseudo pressure? [16]
b) Explain Isochronal and Modified Isochronal Well test.
Q6) Explain flow regimes in horizontal well test. [16]
Q7) Explain Type curves for Decline curves. [16]
Q8) Define and explain the pressure derivative plot. Draw and explain the diagnostic
plot giving five examples. [18]
[4264]-631 2
Formulas for the exam
For E (i) function values, refer to the table given with the examination paper
, ,
[4264]-631 3
xxxx
[4264]-631 4

[4264] - 671
B.E. (Polymer Engg.)
POLYMER COMPOUNDING
1) Answer question number 1 or 2, 3 or 4, 5 or 6 from Section-I. Answer question
number 7 or 8, 9 or 10 and 11 or 12 from Section-II.
6) Assume suitable data if required.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the term scale of scrutiny and its importance in mixing. [5]
b) Explain the following terms used in understanding kinetics of mixing :[6]
i) Molecular diffusion.
ii) Eddy diffusion.
iii) Bulk diffusion.
c) Explain mixing action in double cone blenders with neat figures. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the mixing action in a eccentrically rotating drum tumbler blender.
[5]
b) Explain with example mechanism of liquid/liquid mixing in polymers.[6]
c) Write a short note on paddle mixer. [5]
Q3) a) Explain in detail the role of compatibilizer in polymer blending and explain
any one method of compatibilization. [8]
b) Discuss in details the mechanism and theory of surface modification of
fillers. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Discuss characteristics of polymer blends, polymer formulations and
filled polymers. [8]
b) Discuss the terms polymer blends, polymer alloys, compatible blends,
miscible blends, immiscible blends with one example. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write a note on photo-degradants used in polymer to prevent degradation
due to exposure to light. [9]
b) Explain the action of plasticizers, softeners and flow promoters with
OR
Q6) a) Indicate the mechanism of working of antioxidant and anti-ozonants.[8]
b) Write a note on particulate fillers used in polymer compounds. [5]
c) Explain the mechanism of working of UV stabilizers. [5]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Write a note on selection of optimum configuration of modular elements
for compounding of high aspect ratio fillers. [6]
b) Explain how chemical modification of existing polymer can be carried
out using reactive extrusion process with a relevant example. [6]
c) Write down the formulations for PVC compounds used for flooring.
Explain the significance of each ingredient. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Mention the advantages and disadvantages of reactive extrusion. [6]
b) Explain the various modular elements used in compounding of colorants
in a twin screw extruder. [6]
c) Write a note on compounding of polychloroprene and synthetic
polyisoprene. [6]
Q9) a) Explain important characteristics of distributive mixing sections. [4]

b) Explain in details the requirements of a good mixing section. [6]
c) Explain the mixing process in a University of Twente mixing ring with
a neat figure. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Write a note on planetary gear extruders. [8]
b) Explain cross channel barrier - EVK and straight cross channel barrier
(SCCB) dispersive mixing sections. [8]
Q11) a) Explain the terms conjugated and non-conjugated twin screw extruders.
Compare them with respect to their mixing action and conveying
b) Explain the working of a two roll mill. Explain how dispersive and
distributive mixing achieved in a two roll mill? [8]
OR
[4264]-671 2
Q12) a) Explain with neat sketches, working principle of kneading blocks used in
Twin screw extruders. [8]
b) Draw comparison between co-rotating and counter Twin screw extruder
(TSE) with respect to propulsive action and mixing. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-671 3

[4264] - 691
DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is divide and conquer strategy? Explain an algorithm for quick
sort. State its time complexity. [10]
b) Define the following : [6]
i) Big oh.
ii) Theta.
iii) Omega.
c) What is the difference between Prims and Kruscals technique for
minimum spanning tree. [2]
OR
Q2) a) Solve the following job sequencing problem (maximizing the profit by
completing jobs before their deadlines) using greedy algorithm.
N (Number of jobs) = 4
Profits associated with jobs (P1, P2, P3, P4) = (100, 10, 15, 27). Deadlines
associated with jobs (d1, d2, d3, d4) = (2, 1, 2, 1). [8]
b) Explain the different ways of measuring the running time of an algorithm.[6]
c) Prove by contradiction that
There exist two irrational numbers x and y such that xy is rational. [4]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Find a minimum-cost path from s to t in the multistage graph of Fig.1.
Do this using the forward approach. [8]
b) With respect to dynamic programming, explain in brief the following :[8]

i) Optimal Substructure.
ii) Overlapping Subproblem.
OR
Q4) a) Find the optimal binary search tree for the key and probabilities given
below : [8]
Key A B C D
Probability 0.1 0.2 0.4 0.3
b ) What is the flow shop scheduling problem? Explain how the principle of
optimality holds for this problem. [8]
Q5) a) Write an algorithm to solve 8-Queens problem using backtracking

method. [8]
b) Write a note on branch and bound method. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Compare the back tracking method with a depth first search technique.
How is Hamiltonian cycle problem solved using back tracking. [8]
b) Solve 0/1 Knapsack problem using branch and bound method with an
example. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) State and explain Cooks theorem. [8]
b) Differentiate between deterministic and non deterministic algorithms.[4]
c) Prove that
(Nf - satisfiability clique decision problem.)
( : reduces to) [6]
[4264]-691 2
OR
Q8) a) Define P, NP, NP-Hard and NP-Complete. Establish the relationship
among them. [10]
b) Prove that [8]
Partition minimum finish time preemptive job shop schedule (m > 1)
[Where m = No. of processors].
Q9) a) Solve pointer doubling problem using parallel technique. [8]

b) Draw the expression [8]
7 * (4 + (64 / (10 (3 * (13 (6 + 5))))))
as an expression tree with the leaves numbered from left to right, and
illustrate the operation of the parallel evaluation algorithm on this tree.
OR
Q10) a) Explain parallel computational models. [8]
b) Explain the odd-even merge technique for efficient parallelization of
merging. [8]
Q11) a) Explain the sequential and parallel technique for solving the convex hull
problem. [8]
b) Explain a deadlock detection and avoidance algorithm. Discuss the
algorithmic strategy used. [8]
OR
Q12) a) Evaluate all options for implementing Huffmans problem. [8]
b) What is meant by heuristic algorithms? Discuss any one heuristic search
algorithm. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-691 3

[4264] - 703
DISTRIBUTED OPERATING SYSTEMS
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer-books.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the different elements involved in implementation of RPC
mechanism? Explain role of each in RPC mechanism. [6]
b) Compare between multiprocessor operating system, Multicomputer
operating system, network operating system and distributed operating
system. [10]
OR
Q2) a) Why distributed operating systems more difficult to design than the
operating system for centralized time sharing system? [6]
b) Explain the following with respect to distributed operating system. [10]
i) Message passing in RPC.
ii) Stub and skeleton in RMI.
iii) Buffering.
iv) Group communication.
Q3) a) Explain the following with respect to synchronization in distributed

operating system. [10]
i) Clock skew.
ii) Drift rate.
iii) Causual ordering.
iv) Partial ordering.
b) Explain the vector clock in detail with implementation rules. [6]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Compare the following : [10]
i) Physical clock.
ii) Logical clock.
iii) Vector clock
in distributed operating system.
b) Why election algorithm is required in distributed operating system? Explain
it with any one election algorithm. [6]
Q5) a) What is the basic difference between token based and non-token based
algorithm for mutual exclusion? Explain any one algorithm from each
category. [12]
b) What happen in the following approaches in distributed deadlock detection
algorithms. [6]
i) Centralized Approach.
ii) Distributed Approach.
iii) Hierarchical Approach.
OR
Q6) a) What are the different issues in Deadlock detection and Resolution?
How Ho-Ramamoorthy algorithm is used in deadlock detection and
resolution. [12]
b) What is byzantine failure? Explain byzantine generals problems with
possible solution. [6]
SECTION - II
i) Log structure file system.
ii) Google file system.
b) Discuss whether message passing or DSM is preferable for fault tolerant
application. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain any distributed file system with respect to following : [12]
i) Architecture.
ii) Mechanism for building DFS.
iii) Design Issues.
iv) Performance.
v) Security.
b) What is granularity and page replacement in distributed shared memory.[6]
Q9) a) How the recovery mechanism achieved in distributed Operating System

using rollback and shadow paging? Explain with suitable example. [10]
b) What is checkpoints? How does it help in recovery mechanism? [6]
[4264]-703 2
OR
Q10) a) What is the voting protocol for fault tolerant system? Explain any
voting protocol in designing a fault tolerance system in distributed
environment. [8]
b) How do we achieve the security in the distributed operating system?
Explain it with access matrix model for security. [8]
Q11) a) What is the cluster? How do you compare cluster with distributed
system? How do we classify the clusters? Give any suitable
example of the cluster. [8]
b) What is service oriented architecture? How web services used in service
oriented architecture? How does it different than component based
development architecture? [8]
OR
Q12) Explain the Grid with respect to the following : [16]
a) Middleware architecture of Grid.
b) Working of Grid.
c) Types of Grid.
d) Application of Grid.
xxxx
[4264]-703 3

[4264] - 707
ADVANCED DATABASES
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain how the following operations can be parallelized using data
partitioning. [9]
i) Scanning.
ii) Sorting.
iii) Join.
b) Explain any two parallel database architecture. [6]
c) Define Attribute - value skew, partition skew in parallel Databases. [3]
OR
Q2) a) What form of Parallelism (interquery, intraquery, intraoperation) is likely
to be the most important for each of the following task. [6]
i) Increasing the throughput of a system with many small queries.
ii) Increasing the throughput of a system with a few large queries,
when the number of disks and processors is large.
b) Describe and differentiate between following partitioning technique with
examples. [9]
i) Round robin.
ii) Hash Partitioning.
iii) Range Partitioning.
c) Define pipeline parallelism. [3]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain the following with respect to robustness of distributed
databases. [9]
i) Read one write all available protocol.
ii) Coordinator Selection.
iii) Majority based approach.
b) What is the need of Directory access protocol. [3]
c) Explain data transparency with respect to Distributed Database. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Explain data fragmentation in distributed databases. [6]
b) Explain following w.r.to distributed database. [8]
i) Availability.
ii) Deadlock Handling.
c) What is heterogeneous distributed database. [2]

i) XML DTD.
ii) XML Schema.
iii) XQuery.
b) What is Web server, Application server, Mail server. [3]
c) What is the difference between Valid XML and well parenthesized XML.
[4]
OR
i) Application of XML.
ii) SOAP.
iii) Difference between XML and HTML.
b) What is three tier architecture? Explain its advantages. [7]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Why Data Preprocessing is required? Explain phases of Data
Preprocessing. [10]
b) Explain : [8]
i) OLAP operations.
ii) OLAP server.
iii) OLTP.
iv) Data cube.
OR
[4264]-707 2
Q8) a) Suppose that a data warehouse consists of three dimensions - time doctor
and patient and two measures - count and charge. Charge is the fee that
doctor charges a patient for a visit. [6]
i) Draw a star schema for the data warehouse.
ii) Starting with the base cuboid (day, doctor, patient). What specific
OLAP operation should be performed in order to list the total fee
collected by each doctor in 2000?
b) Differentiate between OLAP systems and OLTP systems. [6]
c) State and explain data transformation and reduction techniques. [6]
Q9) a) What is association rule mining? [8]

A Database has four transactions. Let min-sup = 60% and min-conf
= 80%.
TID date items-bought
T100 10/15/99 {K, A, D, B}
T200 10/15/99 {D, A, C, E, B}
T300 10/19/99 {C, A, B, E}
T400 10/12/99 {B, A, D}
i) List all frequent itemset using Apriori.
ii) List all strong association rules (with support s and confidence c)
matching the following meta rule, where X is the variable representing
customers, and item denotes variable representing items
(e.g A, B, etc) x transaction, buys (X, item 1).
buys (X, item 2) => buys (X, item 3) [s, c].
b) What is clustering? Explain k-mean algorithm with example for
clustering. [8]
OR
i) Descriptive data mining.
ii) Predictive data mining.
iii) Outlier analysis.
b) Explain decision tree ID3 algorithm by using suitable example. [7]
Q11) a) Define information retrieval system. Describe how it is different from

database system. [6]
b) Explain vector space model. [6]
c) What is page ranking and popularity ranking? [4]
OR
[4264]-707 3
i) Precision and recall.
ii) Web crawler.
iii) Inverted index.
iv) Directory.
b) What is TF-IDF method of ranking? Explain in brief. [4]
xxxx
[4264]-707 4

[4264] - 722
B.E. (I.T.)
INFORMATION RETRIEVAL
5) Assume suitable data, in necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Give difference between data retrieval and information retrieval. [8]
b) Enlist the algorithms used for clustering and explain single pass
algorithm. [10]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Luhns idea of index term weighting. [8]
b) Explain Rochhios algorithm and what are dendograms? Explain
in detail. [10]
Q3) a) Explain Boolean model in detail. [8]

b) Explain signature file with example. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain Boolean search in detail. What do you mean by co-ordination
level? Explain with example. [8]
b) Explain ring structure. Discuss its advantages and disadvantages. [8]
Q5) a) Discuss prototypes, projects and interface standards with respect to

Digital Libraries. [8]
b) Discuss retrieval performance evaluation. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What are Digital Libraries? [6]
i) Online IR system.
ii) User Oriented Measure.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain Ontology life cycle with suitable diagram. [9]
b) How are queries processed in distributed IR? [9]
OR
Q8) a) Compare parallel and distributed IR. [9]
b) What is domain specific ontology? How do you create it? [9]
Q9) a) Explain generic multimedia index approach. [8]

b) Discuss techniques to represent audio and visual documents. [8]
OR
a) Automatic feature extraction.
b) 2-D color images.
Q11) a) Write a note on web data mining. [8]

b) What are Mata searchers? Explain with suitable example. [8]
OR
Q12) a) How do you characterize the web? [8]
b) What are Meta Crawlers? Explain with suitable example. [8]
xxxx
[4264]-722 2

[4264] - 731
BIOSEPARATION - II
SECTION - I
Q1) What are process design criteria for low volume high value products. Explain
process development of any one product of same category. [16]
OR
Q2) a) What are four stages of downstream processing? Elaborate on each
stage in detail. [8]
b) A process for isolation an antibody against insulin has, as a unit operation,
the reaction of the antibody with the antigen in a continuous stirred tank
reactor. The reaction product is a precipitate that is continuously removed
from the reactor with 10% of the solution, which is mouse serum. Since
insulin is an expensive reagent, only stoichiometric amounts can be added
to the mouse serum, which contains 8 mg/liter of anti-insulin. If this
particular monoclonal antibody precipitates with its antigen in a l : l ratio,
how many milligrams of insulin must be added to the reactor per hour to
process 100mL of mouse serum per hour? (Assume that equilibrium is
achieved in this reactor). Sketch a flowchart of this process. [8]
Q3) What is basic principle of spectroscopy? Describe quantitative

spectrophotometric analysis with its instrumentation and applications. [16]
OR
Q4) Explain Spectroflurometry with the help of following points : [16]
a) Fluorescence and Phosphorescence.
b) Instrumentation.
c) Application.
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain different methods of designing affinity media using pre-activated
matrices. [9]
b) Overall process flow chart of process development of chromatography
steps for purification of a recombinant E. coli expressed protein is given
here. The protein of interest is a dual agonist of both the granulocyte
colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) and fetal liver tyrosine kinase
3 (flt-3) receptors. It is under development as a component of cancer
vaccine protocols to stimulate dendritic cell proliferation. The objective
of this work was to develop a robust and efficient purification process
that would generate material of adequate purity and quantity. Try to explain
each step of flow sheet with its importance and mechanism. Elaborate
the significance of each and every step for the purification of recombinant
protein mentioned here. [9]
CE - Cation Exchange Column, AE - Anion Exchange Column,
[4264]-731 2
OR
Q6) a) Read the following case example of purification of chitinases and
chitosanases and as per your knowledge write a flow sheet of purification
techniques (Specifically type of chromatography) used for the isolation
of these two enzymes.
Acidic chitinases (EC 3.2.1.14) were isolated and characterized
from 4-week - old nonembryogenic Citrus sinensis L.Osbeck cv
Valencia callus tissue. Eleven isoforms were isolated with
molecular weights between 26,000 and 37,400. Eight of the
isoforms were purified to homogeneity, and all but one cross-reacted
with a polyclonal antibody raised against a basic class I potato
leaf chitinase. The isoelectric points were from pH 4.5 to 5.4. All
hydrolases degraded chitin and four were capable of hydrolyzing
solubilized shrimp shell chitosan suggesting they may be
chitosanases (EC 3.2.1.99). Apparent chitosanase activity generally
decreased with decreasing acetylation of the chitosan (i.e. from
20% To 0% acetylation). The chitinases and chitosanases are
predominantly endochitinases. Chitosanase activity was optimal
at pH 5 while pH optimum for chitinase activity ranged between
pH 3.5 and 5.5. Basic and acidic forms of chitinase and chitosanase
were separated from each other. [6]
b) Write theory of Reversed Phase Chromatography. Describe RPC with
following points. [12]
i) Matrix.
ii) Ligand.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain quantitative Gas chromatographic analysis methods in detail.[6]
b) Describe chromatographic process along with five factors contributing
to molecular spreading in liquid chromatography. [10]
OR
Q8) a) Elaborate on Liquid versus Gas chromatography. [4]
b) Draw standard chromatogram and explain all terminologies of
chromatogram. [12]
[4264]-731 3
Q9) a) Based on the Kirkwood theory of the interactions between ions and
dipoles, answer the following : [6]
i) When comparing the solubilities of proteins at the same ionic strength,
would you expect solubility of a protein with a high dipole moment
to be high or low?
ii) In highly polar solvents, what balance would you expect between
salting in and salting out of a protein? Use appropriate equations to
justify your answers.
b) Justify the statement Supercritical Fluid extraction is upcoming green
Technology. [4]
c) Write the principle of following separation Techniques : [6]
i) Aqueous two phase separation.
ii) Molecular Sieves.
OR
Q10) What are Hyphenated Techniques, explain it with one example? [16]
Q11) Write and explain flowsheet of separation of following bioproducts (09M,

each). [18]
a) Peptide Antibiotics.
b) Butanol.
OR
Q12) Select one commodity organic acid and describe its production process
with the help of following points : [18]
a) Upstream Process.
b) Downstream Process.
Also elaborate on economic evaluation of each process.
xxxx
[4264]-731 4

[4264] - 442
B.E. (Mechanical)
MECHANICAL SYSTEM DESIGN
calculator and steam tables are allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) A compound cylinder consists of an inner steel tube with inner and outer
diameters of 40mm and 60mm respectively. It is reinforced by shrinking
a steel jacket of outer diameter 80mm. The compound cylinder is subjected
to an internal pressure of 60 MPa. The shrinkage allowance is such that
the maximum circumferential stresses in inner tube and jacket are same.
Calculate :
i) The interference pressure; and
ii) The original dimensions of inner tube and jacket.
Assume : E = 207kN/mm2. [12]
b) Derive Birnies equation. Also explain under what conditions it is used.[4]
OR
Q2) a) What are the factors to be considered for design of vertical cylindrical
pressure vessel. [4]
b) A pressure vessel, subjected to a design pressure of 0.75 MPa, consists
of a cylindrical shell with 2 m inside diameter and 10 mm thickness. An
opening of inner diameter 300 mm and wall thickness of 10 mm is
provided in the shell. The corrosion allowance is 2 mm and the weld
efficiency is 0.85. The extension of the opening inside and outside the
shell is 15mm. The yield strength of the material used for the shell and
the opening is 210 MPa. A reinforcing pad of a 10 mm thick plate is
provided for the opening. Determine the dimensions of reinforcing pad.
Assume factor of safety as 1.5. [12]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) A two stroke engine is to be designed for a brake power of 7 kW at a
speed of 800 rpm. The indicated mean effective pressure may be assumed
as 0.5 MPa. Design :
i) The bore and length of the cylinder liner.
ii) The thickness of the liner.
iii) The cylinder head thickness.
iv) The size, number and pitch of the studs.
Also calculate the apparent and net stresses in the liner, if the Poissons
ratio is 0.25. [12]
b) Draw a neat sketch of the connecting rod and explain its constructional
details. [4]
OR
Q4) Design a cast iron piston for a single acting four stroke diesel engine with the
following data : [16]
Cylinder bore = 200 mm
Length of the stroke = 250 mm
Speed = 600 rpm
Brake mean effective pressure = 0.60 MPa
Maximum gas pressure = 4 MPa
Fuel consumption = 0.25 kg per BP per hr
I/d ratio for bush in small end of connecting rod = 1.5
Assume suitable data if required and state the assumptions you make.
Q5) a) Explain the Johnsons method of optimum design. [4]

b) A thin spherical vessel is to be designed with the objective of maximum
gas storage capacity given by (1/6) D3, where D is the diameter of the
vessel. Mass of the empty vessel should not exceed 150 kg. The vessel
is subjected to internal pressure of 5 N/mm2 and the required factor of
safety based on yield strength is 2.0. Design the vessel using the following
materials. Also find the storage capacity. [14]
Material Mass Density Yield Strength
(kg/m3) (N/m2)
Steel alloy 7800 450 106
Aluminium alloy 2800 150 106
Titanium alloy 4500 800 106
Magnesium alloy 1800 100 106
OR
[4264]-442 2
Q6) A cantilever beam of length 200mm and rectangular cross - section is to
function in a device as a spring member. The width of the beam is five times
its depth. It is subjected to vertical force which varies from + 500 N to 500 N
at its free end. The maximum deflection at the free end is limited to 1mm. The factor
of safety is 2. Design the beam for minimum material cost, out of the following
materials. [18]
Material Mass Density Material cost Endurance Limit Modulus of Elasticity
(kg/m3) (Rs/kg Weight) (N/mm2) (N/mm2)
M1 7800 20 130 207 103
M2 2800 70 50 72 103
M3 4500 800 260 114 103
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the basic principles of DFMA. [6]
b) A straight tensile bars of diameter 10 0.1
mm are made of plain carbon
steel 40C8 having tensile yield strength of 300 30N/mm2. The load on
the bars is 23.5 5kN. If the diameters, strength and loads are normally
distributed, estimate the reliability of with standing the load by the bars.
The areas under the standard normal distribution curve from zero to Z
are as follows : [10]
Z 1.0 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.0 2.2 2.4
Area 0.3413 0.3849 0.4192 0.4452 0.4641 0.4772 0.4861 0.4918
OR
Q8) a) Two populations X and Y are added together. Derive the expressions to
find mean and standard deviations of the resultant population. [6]
b) Three cylindrical components each with a length of 30mm are to be
assembled to give a total length of 90 0.6mm. All individual cylindrical
components have same standard deviation and their natural and design
tolerances are equal. Specify the tolerances for individual components. [10]
Q9) a) Explain the term maximum loss of economic cutting speed. [4]
b) Find the speed steps arranged in geometric progression for the following
conditions.
Nmin = 100 rpm; Nmax = 1800 rpm.
Number of speed steps z = 8
Also draw the best possible structure diagram for the same. [12]
OR
Q10) a) The geometric progression ratio () in a multispeed gear box is selected
in the range of 1 to 2. Explain its significance. [5]
[4264]-442 3
b) Draw a layout of a machine tool gear box having following structural
formula 3 (1) 3 (3). Assume that the input speed to the gear box is
through a belt drive. [6]
c) Draw a structure diagram for the following structural formulae. [5]
i) 3 (1) 2 (3) 2 (6) ii) 2 (1) 3 (2)
Q11) a) Following data refers to a horizontal belt conveyor used for conveying a
coal in a thermal power plant. [12]
Capacity of conveyor M = 300 10 kg/hr 3
Belt speed v = 2m/s

Density of coal = 800kg/m3
Surcharge factor for belt c = 0.0725
Number of plies for belt zp = 3
Material factor for plies K1 = 2
Belt tension and arc of contact factor for belt K2 = 80
Electric motor speed 1440 rpm
Centre distance between snub pulleys L1 = 255m
Centre distance between drive and tail pulley L2 = 260m
Pitch of carrying run idlers tc = 1m
Pitch of return run idlers tr = 2.5m
Determine :
i) Standard belt width.
ii) Reduction ratio of gear reducer.
iii) Number of carrying and return run idlers.
standard belt width (mm) - 500, 600, 750, 800, 900, 1000, 1200,
1400, 1600
b) What are the design considerations in selecting the belt speed of a conveyor.[6]
OR
Q12) a) Following data refers to a flat belt conveyor for transporting crushed rock.
Mass density = 2 Ton/m3
Belt speed v = 1.75 m/s
Belt width B = 0.8 m
Surcharge angle = 25 for k = 2.35 104
Effective width of the material carried by the belt safety
b = (0.9B 0.05)
Determine the capacity of conveyor in Ton/hr. [8]
b) Explain concept of containerization and considerations in the design of
the same. [4]
c) Explain on the basis of applications selection between : [6]
i) Chain conveyor. ii) Screw conveyor. iii) Belt conveyor.
xxxx
[4264]-442 4

[4264] - 591
B.E. (Printing)
PRINT PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain Project and Batch type of production activity in detail with
OR
Explain the functions of Production Planning in detail with suitable
examples.
Q2) Explain the CPM technique of Operation Research in detail with its application
areas. [16]
OR
Explain the PERT technique of Operation Research in detail with its application
areas.
Q3) Explain the Job Sequencing Technique of Operations Research in detail along
with its applications. [18]
OR
Explain the various assumptions to be considered in Job Sequencing model
of Operations Research. Also explain the three types of Job Sequencing
models.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) Explain the Hungarian method of Assignment model in detail with example.[16]
OR
Differentiate between Assignment Model and Transportation Model with
reference to Definition, Assumptions and applications etc.
Q5) How Transportation Model of Operations Research area helps the

management. Explain with the help of example. [16]
OR
Explain in brief NWCM, LCM and VAM methods of solving transportation
problem with suitable example.
Q6) Explain the applications of Linear programming Model of OR with few

examples. [18]
OR
Explain in detail the procedure of formulating the Linear Programming Model
with suitable examples.
xxxx
[4264]-591 2

[4264] - 540
B.E. (Electronics)

Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are various definitions of artificial Intelligence (AI)? List the
applications of artificial Intelligence. [8]
b) Explain the significance of PEAs in AI? [5]
c) Compare Depth first and Best first search methods. [5]
OR
i) State.
ii) Search tree.
iii) Successor function.
iv) Branching factor.
b) What is turing test and explain with example. [6]
c) What are intelligent agents? Explain architecture of any one typical agent
with example. [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain waiting for Quiescence and Secondary search with proper
example. [8]
b) Apply constraint satisfaction to solve following cryptarithmetic problem.
[8]
SEND
+MORE
MONEY
OR
Q4) a) Explain Hill climbing algorithm in detail. [8]
b) Explain Mini - Max algorithm with example. [8]
Q5) a) Explain the forward chaining & backward chaining in knowledge

representation. [8]
b) Explain the first order logic symbols with suitable example. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain knowledge engineering in first order logic. [8]
b) What is Ontological Engineering? [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the reinforcement learning with its types. [8]

b) Explain the different learning methods with advantages and disadvantages.
[8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain architecture of artificial Neural Network and explain its
applications. [8]
b) Explain decision tree algorithm with suitable example. [8]
Q9) a) Explain Waltzs algorithm in detail. [8]

b) Explain architecture of expert system and its components. [10]
OR
Q10) a) What is perception? Give typical structure of it? [8]
b) Explain forward and backward reasoning with examples. [10]
[4264] -540 2
Q11) a) What is natural language processing? Explain the steps in natural language
processing. [8]
b) Write a short note on: [8]
i) Syntacting processing.
ii) Semantic analysis.
OR
Q12) a) What is probabilistic language processing and explain probabilistic
language models. [8]
b) Explain the Grammer induction in detail. [8]
ZZZ
[4264] -540 3

[4264] - 560A
B.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication)
PLC AND INDUSTRIAL PROCESS AUTOMATION

Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is P & I diagrams? Explain what information it contains & its use
for system engineer? [8]
b) Draw and explain the block diagram of process control & following
terms with example. [8]
i) Process.
ii) Error Detector.
iii) Set point.
iv) Control Element.
OR
Q2) a) Explain the followings with examples. [8]
i) Regulatory control.
ii) Human Aided control.
iii) Discrete state control.
b) Explain with neat diagram. [8]
i) DDC.
ii) DCS.
P.T.O.
Q3) a) What are intelligent transmitter and their features? [8]
b) Explain the Differential Pressure Transmitter with block diagram? Explain
various sensing Elements for differential pressure measurement? [8]
OR
Q4) a) What is process transmitter explain with block diagrams? Explain 2 wire
transmitter in detail. [8]
b) Explain how DPT can be used for process tank level and Flow
measurement? [8]
Q5) a) Explain the need of field busses, Write short note on: [10]
i) Foundation Field Bus.
ii) Profibus.
b) Why linearization of the sensor is necessary? [8]
Discuss various techniques used for linearization?
OR
Q6) a) What are the types of temperature sensors used in process industries?
[10]
Explain temperature measurement using
i) RTD.
ii) Thermocouple
with neat circuit diagrams.
b) The sensor output range of 2 mV to 20mV as the variable varies over the
range. Develop the signal conditioning so that this becomes 0-5V. The
circuit must have very high input impedance? [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What are the various types of converters used in process control loop?
[8]
Explain Following converters
i) I to P Converter.
ii) I to V Converter.
b) Pressure from 30 to 300 psi is converted to voltage by relation. [8]
1
V = 0.38[ p ] 2 2.72
It is converted by 8 bit ADC to digital value DV with 5V reference to
(0-255 range), Develop the linearization equation to give quantity in terms
of DV.
OR
[4264] -560A 2
Q8) a) Explain how to find CV to Flow control Value and Find [8]
i) The CV for a valve that must allow 150 gal of ethyl alcohol per min.
with a specific gravity of 0.8 at maximum pressure of 50 psi, and
ii) The required valve size.
b) Explain various principles of flow measurement? Explain various flow
control characteristics of flow control valves and explain working of
flow control valve with forward and reverse action of pneumatic actuator?
[8]
Q9) a) Explain what is PLCs in following regards [8]

i) Elements of PLCs.
ii) Operation of PLC.
iii) Scan Cycle and Scan Time.
iv) PLC programming languages.
b) Explain various parts of PLC. Draw the block diagram of I/O Cards of
PLC? Explain various network topologies used for networking of PLCs.
[8]
OR
Q10) a) A temperature sensor has a span of 20-250C. A measurement results in
a value of 55C for the temperature. Specify the error if the accuracy is
i) 0.5% full scale.
ii) 0.75% of span.
iii) 0.8% of reading.
What is possible temperature in each case? [8]
b) Develop the automation algorithm for water pumping system from
underground tank to overhead tank automatically? Select appropriate
sensing & control devices & PLC I/Os? Show the wiring connections
with PLC? Implement the ladder logic? [8]
Q11) a) Discuss PID algorithm for Digital implementation. [8]
b) State various implementation of PI controller? Explain any in detail.[10]

Explain effect of integral action on loop response.
OR
Q12) a) What is integral windup? Explain various method of controller tuning.
[10]
b) Write short notes on: [8]
i) Fuzzy logic systems and controllers.
ii) ANN based controllers.
ZZZ
[4264] -560A 3

[4264] - 579
MICRO ELECTRO MECHANICAL SYSTEMS
(Elective - IV) (2008 Pattern) (Sem. - II)

SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are different benefits of Miniaturization? [8]

b) Explain working of ADXL50 accelerometer with neat diagram. [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are the different applications of smart system in various areas?[8]
b) What is the purpose of various Components of smart system? [8]
Q3) a) Explain working principle of Electrostatic Comb drive with neat diagram.
[8]
b) Explain working principle of Silicon Capacitive Accelerometer with neat
diagram. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What are the applications of portable blood analyzer? Give its advantages.
[8]
b) Explain working principle of Micromirror with neat diagram. [8]
Q5) Explain following micromachining techniques with neat diagram. [18]

a) Thin film Deposition.
b) Evaporation.
OR
Q6) Explain following micromachining techniques with neat diagram. [18]
a) Sputtering.
b) Chemical Vapor Deposition.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Define Hooks Law. Derive the Equation to calculate strain using hooks
law in case of Bar. [8]
b) List the assumption in the theory of torsion. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in detail Bimorph Effect. [8]
b) Derive the equation for strain energy of the bar. [8]
Q9) a) Draw flow chart of finite element procedure and describe it. [8]
b) What are the different applications of finite Element Method. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What is finite element method? [8]
b) What are different steps involved in solving structural problem using
Finite Element Method. [8]
Q11) a) Explain working of Successive Approximation ADC with neat diagram.

[9]
b) What are different types of micro system Packages? Explain any two in
detail. [9]
OR
Q12) a) Draw and explain n-channel enhancement MOSFET. [9]
b) Explain with neat diagram flip-chip assembly of packaging technology.
[9]
ZZZ
[4264] -579 2

[4264] - 580
DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING

1) Answer any three questions from Section - I & any three questions from
Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write a short note on fundamental steps involved in digital image
processing. [8]
b) Explain in detail the components that are used in image processing system.
[8]
OR
Q2) a) Write a short note on image digitizing components. [8]
b) List out the different characteristics of image and explain anyone with an
example. [8]
Q3) a) Write are the different methods of image acquisition? Explain any one in
detail with neat diagram. [8]
b) Explain the concept of sampling and quantization with regard to digital
image acquisition. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Write a short note on different image operations on pixel basis. [8]
b) Explain the following terms related to image pixels. [8]
i) Luminance.
ii) Light.
iii) Intensity.
iv) Contrast.
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What do you mean by basis image and energy compaction with respect
to 2-D FT. [8]
b) Write a short note on the following: [10]
i) Discrete cosine transform (DCT).
ii) Short time Fourier transform (STFT).
OR
Q6) a) Discuss the properties of 2-D discrete cosine transform. Comment on
its Computational complexity. [8]
b) Write a short note on the following: [10]
i) Radon Transform.
ii) Gabor Transform.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) What is the necessity of image enhancement? Explain with one example.
[8]
b) Write a short note on histogram equalization. [10]
OR
Q8) a) Explain how high pass filter can be used for image sharpening. [8]
b) What do you mean by image averaging and mean filter. [6]
c) Explain how histogram statistics can be used for image enhancement.
[4]
Q9) a) Explain the concept of image restoration and its necessity. [8]
b) Write a short note on least mean square (Wiener) filter used for image
restoration. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the concept of inverse filtering. [8]
b) Write a short note on: [8]
i) Degradation model.
ii) Linear Degradations.
Q11) a) List out the various operations for edge detection? Explain any one in
detail. [8]
b) Explain the concept of segmentation? List out are the different methods.
[8]
OR
Q12) a) Write a short note on edge linking and boundary detection. [8]
b) What is region based segmentation? Write a short note on regional
descriptions. [8]
ZZZ
[4264] -580 2

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Total No. of Questions : 12] SEAT No.

P1104 [Total No. of Pages : 3

b) Write a short note on phyto remediation technology for waste water

c) Explain the design aspects and parameters of oxidation ponds. [6]

Q11) a) Discuss the characteristics of wastewater from following industries.[4]

P1112 [Total No. of Pages : 3

Q1) a) Enumerate the basic scientific disciplines giving important aspects of

Q3) a) A multi-criterion decision support systems is to be designed to collect

Q7) a) Define a transfer function. Discuss various types of transfer functions.[6]

Q11) a) Discuss a study about application of Artificial Neural Networks in Water

P1113 [Total No. of Pages : 3

Q3) a) Prepare a checklist for avoiding honeycombing in concrete and for

Q7) a) Explain input, processing and output as a system organisation with

Q9) a) Explain use of an MIS in the management control of a contractors

P1218 [Total No. of Pages : 3

Q1) a) Explain elastic rebound theory. [8]

Q3) a) Obtain the response for a SDOF system subjected to forced

Q7) A (230 500) mm column is reinforced with 8 -16#. It is supported on an

P1114 [Total No. of Pages : 3

Q5) a) What is the difference between non-destructive and semi-destructive

Q7) Write notes on : [18]

Q9) a) Explain the various properties of hardened SCC. [8]

P1023 [Total No. of Pages : 4

Q1) a) Write a short note on saturation system. [6]

Q3) a) Write a short note on surface drainage system of highway. [6]

Q5) a) Write a explanatory note on : [6]

Q7) a) Write short notes on any two of the following : [2 3 = 6]

i) Apron and Hanger.

ii) Minimum Turning Radius and Minimum Circling radius.

iii) Clam period and cross wind component.

c) What is the use of wind rose diagram in the orientation of a runway ?

b) Draw a neat labeled sketch showing all the components of a bridge.[4]

c) Draw sketches of any two types of abutment and state he conditions

d) How do you determine the flood discharge by direct method? [5]

Q10) a) Explain any five types of stresses acting on a bridge. [5]

c) Write short notes on any two of the following : [8]

i) Laceys silt factor

ii) Remedial measures to reduce the effect of scour

iii) Linear and natural waterway of a bridge.

iv) Column bents pier.

P851 [Total No. of Pages : 3

Q3) a) A building is planned to be constructed on R.C. Raft foundation of

Q7) a) Discuss stepwise the design of under-reamed pile. [8]

P853 [Total No. of Pages : 3

Q3) a) State the importance of Work Breakdown structure in construction

Q7) a) State importance of mathematical modeling in Risk Management. [9]

Q9) a) Explain role of Material Management in construction Management.[8]

Q11) a) Explain application of the Artificial Neural Network in civil Engineering.[8]

P1119 [Total No. of Pages : 2

Q1) a) State and explain the advantages of geometric progression. [8]

Q7) Describe the functions and requirements of spindle unit. [16]

Q11) Explain ergonomic considerations applied to the design of control members.

P988 [Total No. of Pages : 4

K1 = 10N/mm K2 = 15N/mm K3 = 25N/mm K4 = 20N/mm

Q7) A composite wall consists of 3 materials as shown in figure below. The

Q11) a) What are various meshing techniques. [8]

P989 [Total No. of Pages : 3

Q1) a) Explain the robot anatomy with figure. [8]

Q5) a) Classify robot drives. [6]

Q7) a) Explain steps to implement Denavit Hertenberg convention for robot