Basic Examination

Leve1 III
Test I

1. Qualification for personnel performing nondestructive testing must be performed

in strict compliance with #SNT-TC-lA.

X True
/ y: False

2. To meet the physical requirement of nondestructive testing, the individual must

pass an eye exam to which requirement:

~ Jaeger 1/2 letters at a distance of 12" in one eye.

~ Jaeger 1/2 letters at a distance of 12" in both eyes.
C. Jaeger #3 letters at a distance of 12" in one eye.
D. Jaeger 1/3 letters at a distance of 12" in both eyes.

3. Once you have passed an eye exam, you never have to take it again.

/;:~:e
4. Recertification is required for only Level I and II inspectors every three years.

/) i:~:e
5. Your employee may reexamine you at any time and may extend or revoke your certifi-

X. True
B. False
6. You change jobs from Peabody Testing to Autcmatio~ Industries, your qualifications
as Level II are/are not valid with Automation?

A. Are
y. Are Not

7. One of your Level II candidates fails the specific portion of the exam therefore,
he must wait prior to a retake or show evidence of additional training.

A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
/- 30 days

8. In accordance with #SNT-TC-IA, a composite grade of _ is required for

certification of Level I and II personnel.

A. 70%
.JI'. 80%
C. 85%
D. 90%

.,",'.
 9. When weight factors are used as referenced in

~S"~iI;:b~~betwe.n and

c. .3 to .7
D. None of the above

10. What is the minimum number of test specimens that should be used for the practical
portion of the Level I and II test in accorda~ce with #ASNT-TC-1A?

yo One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

11. Describe the duties of a Level III test examiner.

i <ff-"_~~;;;i., J,. \ -.J\i' (~J c:dt~ Ot1' co A ...e..)(_a\.,~~.~ Ii'",-~

h'li."-'~ c-.._J.. es--.-t '0., . k~dj s-i- .., ! 6'

Q-~ 0K~.c)~tl-V\
. ~ f~,be..u._:;;.e't rr: ~~\""Cd: ..fhS; /)...,,...,Le!.r.t:( j2lL

ertified Level II Ultrasonic Inspector must be able to perform what function

l1
sted below? (More than one answer required.)

Set-up and calibrate equipment

Establishing procedures
y; Evaluate results in respect to Code requirements
D. None of the above

13. The #ASNT-TC-1A is a document that provides guidelines only and is not a hard
and fast requirement.

/(
B.
True
False

14. Define the word Qualification as used in #ASNT-TC-lA.

d\_e._..~c~ ,>1\Q._h~ Ls..k{\.\h '4_Dj;.)lL~e JtJ<:-\JL'-.G-..

I. 'h~lA t~Cl\'~
,h c.x-pe." (\e..cr~~\e.tA /!(L fer~',\h.Rf!-It~
~\~"\.C ~ r=r:JJ- pf4:'un.1~

15.
tt d.v.\.~~ s ..ui o- . ~ f &c..ift 'G. ~\~--b
Define the word Certification as used in #ASNT-TC-IA.
 16. Define Certifying Agency as used in #ASNT-TC-lA.

~ 'vL e.; f\ld e.(' j tlNt- {f'S l>h ~eY_ L_.,~ e t?-~' fl'tL (/

17. It is reconnnended that a passing grade of % or greater be maintained on

the general, specific and p.ractical portions of the examination by a candidate.

~
: 70%
80%
-. /\'

C. 90%
D. None of the above

18. Certification of all levels of NDT personnel is the responsibility of the

A. Examiner
B. AS NT
...fY.' Employer
D. Outside Agency

t2
19. It is the responsibility of the employer to establish written practices covering
only the certification of its individuals.

,A True
B. False

20. e vision test also requires you to be able to differentiate between color con-
tras~ethod for which certification is sought.

/- True
B. False

21. GTAW welding-process would normally produce which of the following type of defects?

A. Slag
B. Porosity
~ Tungsten Inclusion
D. None of the Above

22. The following weld abbreviation SMAW is known as:

A. Submerged Arc Welding

y. Shielded Manual Arc Welding
~ ~tud Arc Welding
D. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding

23. Gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW) requires that the welder hand feed the filler
me-tal into the weld joint.

.",t'. True
B. False
24. As a billet is rolled into a plate or bar which defect could be produced?

A. Hot Tears
B. Porosity
C. Cold Shuts
~: Seams

25. Grinding cracks are generally located at to the grind process.

---
Parallel Grinding Process
900 to Grinding Process
~
C. 1800 to Grinding Process
D. None of the Above

26. Repeated loadings, by bending or vibration, could cause which of the following.

A. Laps
B. Tears
Fatique Cracks
/-D. Bursts

27. Underbead cracking is usually found in the heat effected zone and immediately
~acent to the weld bead. -----------.

'7
~True
False
28. Pitting on t4.esurface of an item either internal or external is classified as
C;7rf'~ )i~1' .

29. From the drawing below indicate the number to the letter as they apply:
...---
__ --,;..r-' A. Leg of Fillet Weld 3
r ~~
[.jy.3
J
_
fi
C.
D.
Throat of Fillet Weld
Depth of Fusion
Toe of Weld
~
~

---t-

,.
30. From the drawing below indicate the proper names for the weld joint:

1- Root Face

! t Groove Angle ~
0 3. Plate Thickness _2_
_L 4. Bevel Angle C--

31- Match the proper joint drawings with their proper names.
Answer
,
.L. ~L:::I
A. Tee -.3-
6. ~ B. Lap
7. ~c=J
C. Butt }-
D. Single J ----4-
2. ~
E. Single U ~
F. Corner
G. Single Vee
3. ~
~
4. --~

5.
b[r)
 -_
OI~CTION
Of T~AVn

32.

The diagram above shows:

A. Shielded Metal Arc Welding

B. Gas Metal Arc Welding
/-D. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding
Submerged Arc Welding

33. Why does gas tungsten arc welding produce an ~~:P~~~~lclean weld deposit?

0-
.
Mild heat input results in sufficient time for evolved gases to escape.
Shielding Gas is Used
. c. Both A and B
D. None of the above
34. What is the major cause of undercut, underfill and overlap in shielded metal
arc we Ldi.ng?

A. Poor joint preparation

.:
C.
Poor welding technique
Wrong shielding chemicals

U
PROTECTIVE GAS
ELECTRODE
D. None of the above FROM ElECTRODE COATING - COATING

MOLTEN WElO METAL \~ __ ..... -0=- ElECTROOE

__ ,.,," '" WIRE
: ARC
's~,I'", .1 METAL"'''\:\
, 'f~OROPLeTS

35. The diagram above shows:

BASE
METAL
~ Shielded Metal Arc Welding
B. Gas Metal Arc Welding
C. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding
D. Submerged Arc Welding

36. On a radiograph of a pipe weld there is a very light irregularly-shaped small

image in the weld. This image would most likely~ due to the presence of:

A. Porosity
B. Slag Inclusion
/~ Tungsten Inclusion
D. Inadequate Buildup

37. Internal splines and holes drilled parallel to or near test surfaces will
cause which of the following indications during a magnetic particle examination:

Broad, fuzzy indications directly aligned with the part's internal contours.
~ B. Sharp, well-defined indications directly aligned with the part's internal
contours.
C. No indications
D. Both A and B above
38. In Figure I shown below, assuming a uniform beam pattern, what relationship
would you expect to exist between the amplitudes of the reflected laminar
.signals at position A and B?

A. 12 dB Difference
~ A m~
~Equal
/(.S.,/ 2 to 1
Amplitudes )/--'1+-->: --+--J ---I--"-t-\ -~"'"
D. 3 to 1
l----...... lamin",. Reflectol"
FIGURE1

39. l\1hichof the following is a possible cause for __

false_.np'ene
::-.-
... ._trant-i-Rd:i-c.ations?
....
_...
_-.._.. -'-'_'._ .

A. Excessive Washing
B. Inadequate Application of Developers
C. Penetrant or Part too Cold During Penetration Time
P Lint or Dirt

40. Some limitations of coil magnetization techniques are that:

A. Coil must be of minimum diameter in relation to part.

B. The effective field is generally limited on either side of the coil.
Small diameter parts should be placed close to the coil.
J. All of the Above.

41. The differences in signals received from identical reflectors at different

material distances from a transducer may be caused by:

A. Material Attenuation
,,%. Beam Divergence
~ Near Field Effects
A.7 All of the Above

42. The pat tern of iron powde r sprinkled on a paper placed over a bar magnet is
called a:

A. Field Survey
~ Magnetometer
h'/ Magnetograph
~ Flux Meter

43. The range of specimen thicknesses that can be adequately recorded on the
radiograph is referred to as the:

Sensitivity of the Radiograph

~ Latitude of the Radiograph
C. Accuracy of the Radiograph
/- Intensi ty of the Source

44. The total energy losses occurring in all materials is called:

Q c.
Attenuation
Scatter
Beam Spread
/- Interface
.0

45. Which of the following is not a recommended metho d of removing grease from a
surface of a part to be penetrant tested?

A. Vapor degreasing
~ Alkaline cleaner
~ Cleaning with solvent-type material
c C/Hot water rinse

46. Large grains in a metallic test specimen usually result in:

A. Decrease Or Loss of Back Surface Reflection

Large "Hash" or Noise Indications
~ Decrease in Penetration
&. A11 of the Above

47. Which of the following are typical of foreign matter which might block the openings
of discontinuities if the surface of a test specimen is not properly cleaned?

A. Paint
B. Scale
C. Core and Mold Material
All of the Above
/"
48. The parts are blanks cut from rolled iron bar stock. They have been rough
machined. Inspection by the continuous method, using a circular shot, reveals
well-defined but broken lines running parallel with the axis on some of the
pieces and no indications on others. The .br oken lines range in length from
~ to 1 inch. These indications are indicative of:

A. Shrinkage
B. Machining Tears
C . Surface Checking
./ Nonmetallic Inclusions

49. Alarger physical size source may produce an equivalent quality radiograph of:

~4 The Source-to-film Distance is Increased

B. More Backing Lead is Used
C. A Faster Film is Used
D. Exposure Time is De creased

50. Which of the following is a discontinuity that might be found in a forging?

Shrinkage Cracks
Laps
Cold Shuts
Insufficient Penetration
 51. In Figure below, ac flowing through a primary coil sets up a magnetic fie1d and
causes a flow of eddy currents in the rod. The voltage of the secondary coil
is dependent upon:

these eddy currents.

the primary coil.
the generator.
all of the above.
GENERATOR

r-------------~
9 PRIMARY COIL

SfCONOARY COIL ~ !
bLL
52. In eddy current testing, the theoretical maximum testing speed is determined by
the =--- ~
~ magnetic flux density.
~ testing frequency.
C. conveyor drive
D. test coil impedance

53. In eddy current testing of ferromagnetic materials, the dc saturating field may
be provided by:

A. an encircling solenoid.
B. a magnetic yoke.
both A and B.
~ D. none of the above.

54. Which of the following is a property of eddy currents induced in a conductor by

an encircling coil?

A. The mc.gnitude of eddy current flow is large compared to the current flow in
~ the coil.
(~ The eddy current flow is affected by permeability variations in the sample.
c. The eddy current flow dissipates no power in the conductor.
D. None of the above.

55. Which of the following is a property 2n eddy currents induced in a homogeneous

conductor by an encircling coil?

They are weakest on the conductor surface.

ri? c.
D.
The phase of the eddy currents varies throughout the conductor.
They travel in straight lines.
They are maximum along the coil axis.
56. When removing excess .Eos.!.:..))ll,!.ls.i.(~,~~~~~~U.m!.!_in
a production situation in-
volving small irregularly shaped parts, one may use a:

~strong forceful spray. ~ ~ commercial solvent.

~ strong water blast. ~:_ hot water immersion.

57. The use of high power spot bulbs for ~.~lo_:-___s~.::_~!::-:

should be avoided as too much glare may occur.

will reduce eye fatigue -- -
is acceptable provided light is shielded.
D. is acceptable provided light is not shielded.

58. How is the concentration of the solid content of a suspension of magnetic

particles measured?

By weigh.i n g the supens Lon

By soaking the solids in benzol
By permi tting the "solids to settle out of suspension
By measuring the pull on a magnet.

59. Materials weakly attracted by magnetic fields are:

~ paramagnetic
B. aual magnetic
c. covertly magnetic
D. diamagnetic

60.
instrument is to:
....... ---.~--
The intended purpose of the adjustable calibrated attenuator of an ultrasonic
.....-..

~ control transducer damping

~ increase the dynamic range of the instrument.
9'. broaden the frequency range.
~D. attenuate the voltage applied to the transducer.