Date revised: November 29, 2016

The following sample exam for Private Pilot-Airplane (PAR) is suitable study material for the Private
Pilot-Airplane Rating. These questions are a representation of questions that can be found on all Private
Pilot-Airplane Rating tests. The applicant must realize that these questions are to be used as a study guide,
and are not necessarily actual test questions. The full PAR test contains 60 questions. The Application
Identification, Information Verification and Authorization Requirements Matrix lists all FAA exams. It is
available at: http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/testing_matrix.pdf

The FAA testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications include the
graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test questions.
FAA-CT-8080-2F, Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement for Sport Pilot, Recreational Pilot, and Private Pilot is
available at:
http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/test_questions/media/sport_rec_private_akts.pdf

The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains listings of learning
statements with their associated codes. Matching the learning statement codes with the codes listed on your
Airman Knowledge Test Report assists in the evaluation of knowledge areas missed on your exam. It is
available at: http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf

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 Private Pilot Airplane Sample Exam with ACS Codes

1 . PLT025 PA.I.F.K6
Which statement relates to Bernoulli`s principle?
A) For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
B) An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward.
C) Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
2 . PLT168 PA.I.F.K6
The term `angle of attack` is defined as the angle between the
A) chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
B) airplane`s longitudinal axis and that of the air striking the airfoil.
C) airplane`s center line and the relative wind.
3 . PLT391 PA.VI.B.K3
While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an
emergency?
A) 121.5 MHz.
B) 122.5 MHz.
C) 128.725 MHz.
4 . PLT008 PA.I.F.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.
Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft
Headwind = Calm
Temperature = 101 F
A) 445 feet.
B) 545 feet.
C) 495 feet.
5 . PLT124 PA.VI.A.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50F on the density
altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?
A) 1,000-foot increase.
B) 1,100-foot decrease.
C) 1,300-foot increase.
6 . PLT278 PA.VI.A.K13
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 35.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to
achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36F higher than standard.
A) 19.8 inches Hg.
B) 20.8 inches Hg.
C) 21.0 inches Hg.
7 . PLT008 PA.I.F.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft
Headwind = 8 kts
Temperature = 41 F
Runway = Hard surface
A) 837 feet.
B) 956 feet.
C) 1,076 feet.

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 8 . PLT402 PA.IX.A.K9
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
A) 118.0 and 118.8 MHz.
B) 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
C) 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.
9 . PLT473 PA.I.G.K1b
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
A) To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
B) To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
C) To decrease wing area to vary the lift.
10 . PLT497 PA.IX.A.K11
Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
A) 1200.
B) 7600.
C) 7700.
11 . PLT136 PA.IX.C.K1
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are
generally considered to be
A) more susceptible to icing.
B) equally susceptible to icing.
C) less susceptible to icing.
12 . PLT190 PA.I.G.R6
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of
carburetor ice would most likely be
A) a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
B) engine roughness.
C) loss of RPM.
13 . PLT132 PA.I.G.K1h
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
A) Maneuvering speed.
B) Turbulent or rough-air speed.
C) Never-exceed speed.
14 . PLT215 PA.VI.A.K10
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
A) northerly turning error.
B) certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.
C) the difference in location of true north and magnetic north.
15 . PLT497 PA.IX.A.K11
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
A) 7200.
B) 7000.
C) 7500.

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16 . PLT141 PA.II.D.K2
This sign confirms your position on
A) runway 22.
B) routing to runway 22.
C) taxiway 22.

17 . PLT444 PA.IV.B.K7
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A) Pilot in command.
B) Air Traffic Controller.
C) Second in command.
18 . PLT147 PA.III.B.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 47.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI,
the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
A) above the glide slope.
B) below the glide slope.
C) on the glide slope.
19 . PLT141 PA.II.D.K2
From the cockpit, this marking confirms the aircraft to be
A) on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.
B) on a runway, about to clear.
C) near an instrument approach clearance zone.

20 . PLT141 PA.II.D.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 64.) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?
A) A.
B) C.
C) E.
21 . PLT077 PA.II.D.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
A) landing.
B) taxiing and takeoff.
C) taxiing and landing.

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22 . PLT064 PA.I.D.K8
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 78.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the
Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
A) 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally
from the clouds.
B) 0 statute miles, clear of clouds.
C) 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
23 . PLT393 PA.I.E.K4
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A) Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
B) Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
C) Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
24 . PLT161 PA.I.E.K2
The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally
A) 10 NM.
B) 20 NM.
C) 30 NM.
25 . PLT044 PA.VI.B.K3
ATC advises, "traffic 12 o`clock." This advisory is relative to your
A) true course.
B) ground track.
C) magnetic heading.
26 . PLT119 PA.III.B.K3
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when
operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating
A) in Class B airspace.
B) in conditions of reduced visibility.
C) within 15 miles of a towered airport.
27 . PLT208 PA.IX.A.K1
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a
constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will
A) increase the chances of shock cooling the engine.
B) assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare.
C) nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.
28 . Question position intentionally left blank.
29 . PLT078 PA.III.A.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 52.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at
Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
B) Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.
C) Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.
30 . PLT354 PA.VI.B.K2
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight,
A) the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information.
B) the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
C) GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available.

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31 . PLT101 PA.I.D.K8
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 25, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
A) VOR.
B) VORTAC.
C) VOR/DME.
32 . PLT012 PA.I.D.K4
How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?
A) 14.25 NM.
B) 15.00 NM.
C) 14.50 NM.
33 . PLT078 PA.I.D.S9
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 52.) Where is Loup City Municipal located in relation to the city?
A) Northeast approximately 3 miles.
B) Northwest approximately 1 mile.
C) East approximately 7 miles.
34 . PLT064 PA.I.E.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate
over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet
AGL are
A) 1 mile and clear of clouds.
B) 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
C) 3 miles and clear of clouds.
35 . PLT300 PA.VI.B.K1
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing
selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
A) 180 FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT.
B) 0 TO or 180 FROM, regardless of the pilot`s position from the VOT.
C) 0 FROM or 180 TO, regardless of the pilot`s position from the VOT.
36 . PLT078 PA.I.D.S9
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 52.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose
of landing, initial communications should be with
A) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
B) Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz.
C) Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.
37 . PLT064 PA.I.E.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?
A) Class C.
B) Class E.
C) Class G.
38 . PLT044 PA.III.A.K2
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or
takeoffs at all towered airports
A) regardless of weather conditions.
B) only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
C) within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

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39 . PLT508 PA.I.B.K1c
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next
inspection will be due no later than
A) September 30, 2015.
B) September 1, 2016.
C) September 30, 2016.
40 . PLT163 PA.I.E.K3
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000
feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.
41 . PLT384 PA.II.B.K4
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of
A) all passengers.
B) the pilot in command.
C) the right seat pilot.
42 . PLT434 PA.III.A.K2
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over
the area prior to entering which class airspace?
A) Class C.
B) Class E.
C) Class G.
43 . PLT371 PA.I.A.K7
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
A) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
C) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
44 . PLT369 PA.I.E.K3
In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited?
A) Class E airspace not designated for federal airways above 1,500 feet AGL.
B) Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
C) Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL.
45 . PLT163 PA.I.E.K3
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000
feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
A) 500 feet.
B) 1,000 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.
46 . PLT141 PA.III.A.K3
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
A) taxi at a faster speed.
B) taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
C) return to the starting point on the airport.

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47 . PLT372 PA.I.B.K1c
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours.
When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
A) 3312.5 hours.
B) 3395.5 hours.
C) 3402.5 hours.
48 . PLT081 PA.I.C.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 16.) What sky condition and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the
eastern portions after 2300Z?
A) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
B) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 nautical miles visibility.
C) Ceiling 100 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
49 . PLT514 PA.I.C.S1
When speaking to a flight service weather briefer, you should state
A) the pilot in command`s full name and address.
B) a summary of your qualifications.
C) whether the flight is VFR or IFR.
50 . PLT495 PA.I.C.K4h
The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with
A) formation of the anvil top.
B) the start of precipitation.
C) continuous downdrafts.
51 . PLT274 PA.I.C.K2
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the
A) inflight aviation weather advisories.
B) weather depiction chart.
C) area forecast.
52 . PLT081 PA.I.C.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 16.) The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the twenty-fifth at
A) 0800Z.
B) 1400Z.
C) 1945Z.
53 . PLT514 PA.I.C.K1
You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should
A) provide the number of occupants on board.
B) identify yourself as a pilot.
C) begin with your route of flight.
54 . PLT516 PA.I.C.K4b
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is
primarily due to
A) stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
B) friction between the wind and the surface.
C) stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
55 . PLT192 PA.I.C.K4f
When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it
A) produces stratus type clouds.
B) causes showers and thunderstorms.
C) develops convective turbulence.

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56 . PLT076 PA.I.C.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
A) 230 true at 56 knots.
B) 230 true at 39 knots.
C) 230 magnetic at 56 knots.
57 . PLT081 PA.I.C.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 16.) What sky conditions and obstructions to visibility are forecast for upper
Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z?
A) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.
B) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 nautical miles in mist.
C) Ceiling becoming 100 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.
58 . PLT301 PA.I.C.K4c
When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience
A) clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
B) good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
C) an increase in temperature as altitude increases.
59 . PLT128 PA.I.C.K4k
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
A) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift.
B) Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness.
C) Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
60 . PLT021 PA.I.F.S1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figures 32 and 33.) Which action can adjust the airplane`s weight to maximum gross
weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?
Front seat occupants = 425 lbs
Rear seat occupants = 300 lbs
Fuel, main tanks = 44 gal
A) Drain 12 gallons of fuel.
B) Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
C) Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.