2003 U. S.

NATIONAL
CHEMISTRY OLYMPIAD
NATIONAL EXAMPART I
Prepared by the American Chemical Society Olympiad Examinations Task Force

OLYMPIAD EXAMINATIONS TASK FORCE

Arden P. Zipp, State University of New York, Cortland
Chair
Peter E. Demmin (retired), Amherst Central High School, NY
David W. Hostage, Taft School, CT
Alice Johnsen, Bellaire High School, TX
Jerry D. Mullins, Plano Senior High School, TX
Ronald O. Ragsdale, University of Utah, UT
Amy Rogers, College of Charleston, SC
DIRECTIONS TO THE EXAMINERPART I
Part I of this test is designed to be taken with a Scantron answer sheet on which the student records his or her responses. Only this
Scantron sheet is graded for a score on Part I. Testing materials, scratch paper, and the Scantron sheet should be made available to the
student only during the examination period. All testing materials including scratch paper should be turned in and kept secure until
April 27, 2003, after which tests can be returned to students and their teachers for further study.
Allow time for the student to read the directions, ask questions, and fill in the requested information on the Scantron sheet. The answer
sheet must be completed using a pencil, not pen. When the student has completed Part I, or after one hour and thirty minutes has
elapsed, the student must turn in the Scantron sheet, Part I of the testing materials, and all scratch paper.
There are three parts to the National Olympiad Examination. You have the option of administering the three parts in any order, and
you are free to schedule rest-breaks between parts.
Part I
Part II
Part III

60 questions
8 questions
2 lab problems

single-answer multiple-choice
problem-solving, explanations
laboratory practical

1 hour, 30 minutes
1 hour, 45 minutes
1 hour, 30 minutes

A periodic table and other useful information are provided on page 2 for student reference. Students should be permitted to use nonprogrammable calculators.
DIRECTIONS TO THE EXAMINEEPART I
DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL DIRECTED TO DO SO. Answers to questions in Part I must be entered on a Scantron
answer sheet to be scored. Be sure to write your name on the answer sheet; an ID number is already entered for you. Make a record
of this ID number because you will use the same number on both Parts II and III. Each item in Part I consists of a question or an
incomplete statement that is followed by four possible choices. Select the single choice that best answers the question or completes the
statement. Then use a pencil to blacken the space on your answer sheet next to the same letter as your choice. You may write on the
examination, but the test booklet will not be used for grading. Scores are based on the number of correct responses. When you
complete Part I (or at the end of one hour and 30 minutes), you must turn in all testing materials, scratch paper, and your Scantron
answer sheet. Do not forget to turn in your U.S. citizenship statement before leaving the testing site today.

Not valid for use as an USNCO National Exam after April 27, 2003.
Distributed by the ACS DivCHED Examinations Institute, University of Wisconsin-Milwaukee, Milwaukee, WI.
All rights reserved. Printed in U.S.A.

ABBREVIATIONS AND SYMBOLS

n Faraday constant
F molal
A formula molar mass
M molar
atm free energy
G molar mass
u frequency
mole
A gas constant
R Plancks constant
N A gram
g pressure
C heat capacity
C p rate constant
c hour
h retention factor
C joule
J second
E kelvin
K speed of light
Ea kilo prefix
k temperature, K
H liter
L time
S
measure of pressure mmHg volt
K
milli prefix
m

amount of substance
ampere
atmosphere
atomic mass unit
atomic molar mass
Avogadro constant
Celsius temperature
centi prefix
coulomb
electromotive force
energy of activation
enthalpy
entropy
equilibrium constant

CONSTANTS
m
M
M
mol
h
P
k
Rf
s
c
T
t
V

R = 8.314 Jmol1K1
R = 0.0821 Latmmol 1K1
1 F = 96,500 Cmol1
1 F = 96,500 JV1mol1
N A = 6.022 1023 mol1
h = 6.626 1034 Js
c = 2.998 108 ms1
0 C = 273.15 K

EQUATIONS
E = Eo

1
1A
1
H

k E 1 1
ln 2 = a
k1 R T1 T2

H 1
lnK =
+ c
R T

RT
ln Q
nF

PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS

18
8A
2
He

3
Li

2
2A
4
Be

13
3A
5
B

14
4A
6
C

15
5A
7
N

16
6A
8
O

17
7A
9
F

6.941

9.012

10.81

12.01

14.01

16.00

19.00

20.18

11
Na

12
Mg

13
Al

14
Si

15
P

16
S

17
Cl

18
Ar

22.99

24.31

26.98

28.09

30.97

32.07

35.45

39.95

19
K

31
Ga

32
Ge

33
As

34
Se

35
Br

36
Kr

1.008

4.003

10
Ne

20
Ca

3
3B
21
Sc

4
4B
22
Ti

5
5B
23
V

6
6B
24
Cr

7
7B
25
Mn

8
8B
26
Fe

9
8B
27
Co

10
8B
28
Ni

11
1B
29
Cu

12
2B
30
Zn

39.10

40.08

44.96

47.88

50.94

52.00

54.94

55.85

58.93

58.69

63.55

65.39

69.72

72.61

74.92

78.96

79.90

83.80

37
Rb

38
Sr

39
Y

40
Zr

41
Nb

42
Mo

43
Tc

44
Ru

45
Rh

46
Pd

47
Ag

48
Cd

49
In

50
Sn

51
Sb

52
Te

53
I

54
Xe

85.47

87.62

88.91

91.22

92.91

95.94

(98)

101.1

102.9

106.4

107.9

112.4

114.8

118.7

121.8

127.6

126.9

131.3

55
Cs

56
Ba

57
La

72
Hf

73
Ta

74
W

75
Re

76
Os

77
Ir

78
Pt

79
Au

80
Hg

81
Tl

82
Pb

83
Bi

84
Po

85
At

86
Rn

132.9

137.3

138.9

178.5

180.9

183.8

186.2

190.2

192.2

195.1

197.0

200.6

204.4

207.2

209.0

(209)

(210)

(222)

87
Fr

88
Ra

89
Ac

104
Rf

105
Db

106
Sg

107
Bh

108
Hs

109
Mt

110

111

112

114

(223)

(226)

(227)

(261)

(262)

(263)

(262)

(265)

(266)

(269)

(272)

(277)

(2??)

Page 2

58
Ce

59
Pr

60
Nd

61
Pm

62
Sm

63
Eu

64
Gd

65
Tb

66
Dy

67
Ho

68
Er

69
Tm

70
Yb

71
Lu

140.1

140.9

144.2

(145)

150.4

152.0

157.3

158.9

162.5

164.9

167.3

168.9

173.0

175.0

90
Th

91
Pa

92
U

93
Np

94
Pu

95
Am

96
Cm

97
Bk

98
Cf

99
Es

100
Fm

101
Md

102
No

103
Lr

232.0

231.0

238.0

(237)

(244)

(243)

(247)

(247)

(251)

(252)

(257)

(258)

(259)

(262)

Not valid for use as an USNCO National Examination after April 27, 2003

DIRECTIONS
! When you have selected your answer to each question, blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet using a soft, #2
pencil. Make a heavy, full mark, but no stray marks. If you decide to change an answer, erase the unwanted mark very carefully.
! There is only one correct answer to each question. Any questions for which more than one response has been blackened will not
be counted.

1. In an experiment to determine the percentage of water in

a solid hydrate by heating, what is the best indication that
all the water has been removed?
(A) The solid melts.
(B) The solid changes color.
(C) Water vapor no longer appears.

6. According to the
solubility curve
shown, how many
grams of solute can be
recrystallized when 20
mL of a saturated
solution at 60 C are
cooled to 0 C?

(D) Successive weighings give the same mass.

60

40

20

10

K
o
Temperature, C

2. The curve shown results

when a liquid is cooled.
What temperature is closest
to the freezing point of the
liquid?

Solubility (g solute / 100 mL soln)

! Your score is based solely on the number of questions you answer correctly. It is to your advantage to answer every question.

(A) 7.0

M
L

(B) 12

30
50
Temperature ( o C)

(C) 25

70

(D) 35

7. Which would produce the largest change in the H2O level

when added to water in a 25 mL graduated cylinder?
(A) 10.0 g of Hg (d = 13.6 gmL-1)

Time, min

(A) L

(B) M

(C) L + M
2

(D) M + N
2

3. What is the proper way to dispose of a two milliliter

sample of hexane after completing experiments with it?
(A) Return it to the solvent bottle.
(B) Place it in a waste bottle with compatible organic
materials.
(C) Flush it down the drain with large quantities of
water.
(D) Pour it on a solid absorbent so it can be thrown away
with solid waste.
4. Which anion can undergo both oxidation and reduction?
(A) Cr2O72(B) NO3(C) OCl -

(D) S 2-

5. The mass percentages in a compound are carbon 57.48%,

hydrogen 4.22% and oxygen 38.29%. What is its
empirical formula?
(A) C 2H2O

(B) C 4H3O2

(C) C 5H4O2

(D) C 8H7O4

(B) 7.42 g of Al (d = 2.70 gmL-1)

(C) 5.09 g of iron pyrite (d = 4.9 gmL-1)
(D) 2.68 g of oak (d = 0.72 gmL -1)
8. Diborane, B2H6, can be prepared by the reaction;
3NaBH 4 + 4BF3 r 3NaBF4 + 2B2H6
If this reaction has a 70 percent yield, how many moles
of NaBH4 should be used with excess BF3 in order to
obtain 0.200 mol of B2H6?
(A) 0.200 mol

(B) 0.210 mol

(C) 0.300 mol

(D) 0.429 mol

9. What volume of 6.0 M H2SO4 should be mixed with

10. L of 1.0 M H2SO4 to make 20. L of 3.0 M H2SO4
upon dilution to volume?
(A) 1.7 L

(B) 5.0 L

(C) 8.3 L

(D) 10. L

10. An aqueous solution that is 30.0% NaOH by mass has a

density of 1.33 g.mL-1. What is the molarity of NaOH in
this solution?
(A) 8.25

Not valid for use as an USNCO National Examination after April 27, 2003

(B) 9.98

(C) 16.0

(D) 33.2

Page 3

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) both 1 and 2

(D) neither 1 nor 2

12. Benzene melts at 5.50 C and has a freezing point

depression constant of 5.10 C. m-1. Calculate the freezing
point of a solution that contains 0.0500 mole of acetic
acid, CH 3COOH, in 125 g of benzene if acetic acid forms
a dimer in this solvent.
(A) 3.46 C

(B) 4.48 C

(C) 5.24 C

(D) 6.01 C

(B) C 4H10

(C) C 5H12

Temperature

(A) decrease both the melting and boiling points

(B) increase both the melting and boiling points
(C) increase the melting point and decrease the boiling
point
(D) decrease the melting point and increase the boiling
point

13. A 200. mL sample of a gaseous hydrocarbon has a

density of 2.53 g.L-1 at 55 C and 720 mmHg. What is its
formula?
(A) C 2H6

18. According to the phase

diagram, what would be the
effect of increasing the
pressure on this substance?

Pressure

11. Which change

1. an increase in water temperature
increases the
solubility of a gas in 2. a decrease in gas pressure
water?

(D) C 6H6

19. When the substances below are arranged in order of

increasing entropy values, S, at 25 C which is the
correct order?
(A) CO2(s) < CO2(aq) < CO 2(g)

14. A liquid has a vapor pressure of 40 mmHg at 19.0 C and

a normal boiling point of 78.3 C. What is its enthalpy of
vaporization in kJ . mol -1?
(A) 42.4

(B) 18.4

(C) 5.10

15. Sulfur and fluorine form SF 6 and

S 2F 10, both of which are gases at
30 C. When an equimolar
mixture of them is allowed to
effuse through a pinhole, what is

(D) 1.45

Molar Mass g.mol-1

SF 6
S 2F 10

146
254

the ratio SF 6/S2F10 in the first sample that escapes?

(A) 1.32/1

(B) 1.74/1

(C) 3.03/1

(C) CO2(s) < CO2(g) < CO2(aq)

(D) CO2(g) < CO2(s) < CO2(aq)
20. When 50. mL of 0.10 M HCl is mixed with 50. mL of
0.10 M NaOH the temperature of the solution increases
by 3.0 C. Calculate the Hneutralization per mole of HCl.
(The solution has a density = 1.0 g.mL-1 and
C p = 4.2 J . g-1. C-1)
(A) 1.3 103 kJ

(B) -1.3 102 kJ

(C) -2.5 102 kJ

(D) -1.3 103 kJ

(D) 3.48/1

16. The volumes of real gases often exceed those calculated

by the ideal gas equation. These deviations are best
attributed to the
(A) attractive forces between the molecules in real
gases.
(B) dissociation of the molecules in real gases.
(C) kinetic energy of the molecules in real gases.
(D) volumes of the molecules in real gases.
17. The electrical conductivity of a solid is slight at 25 C
and much greater at 125 C. The solid is most likely a(n)
(A) ionic compound

(B) insulator

(C) metal

(D) semiconductor

Page 4

(B) CO2(g) < CO2(aq) < CO 2(s)

21. The combustion of 0.200 mol of

liquid carbon disulfide, CS2, to
give CO 2(g) and SO2(g) releases
215 kJ of heat. What is Hf for
CS2(l) in kJ. mol -1?
(A) 385

(B) 87.9

Hf

kJ.mol-1

CO2(g)
SO2(g)

-393.5
-296.8

(C) -385

(D) -475

22. For the reaction: 2NO2(g) r N2O4(g) H < 0. What

predictions can be made about the sign of S and the
temperature conditions under which the reaction would
be spontaneous?
Srxn

Temperature Condition

(A) negative

low temperatures

(B) negative

high temperatures

(C)

positive

high temperatures

(D)

positive

low temperatures

Not valid for use as an USNCO National Examination after April 27, 2003

23. As G for a reaction changes from a large negative

value to a large positive value, K for the reaction will
change from
(A) a large positive value to a large negative value.
(B) a large positive value to a small positive value.

29. For the reaction

2A + 2B r Product
the rate law is Rate = k[A][B]2. Which mechanism is
consistent with this information?
(A) B + B s C

(C) a large negative value to a large positive value.

(D) a large negative value to a small negative value.

C + A r Product (slow)
(C) A + A s C

24. E is measured at constant volume and H is measured

at constant pressure. For the reaction;
2C (s) + O2(g) r 2CO(g) H < 0 kJ
How do the E and H compare for this reaction?
(A) E < H

(B) E > H

(C) E = H

(D) Impossible to tell

from this information.

25. Which statement about second order reactions is correct?

(A) Second order reactions require different reactants.
(B) Second order reactions are faster than first order
reactions.
(C) Second order reactions are unaffected by changes in
temperature.
(D) The half-life of a second order reaction depends on
the initial reactant concentration.
26. A first order reaction has a rate constant of 0.0541 s-1 at
25 C. What is the half-life for this reaction?
(A) 18.5 s

(B) 12.8 s

(C) 0.0781 s

(D) 0.0375 s

27. The reaction between NO and I2 is second-order in NO

and first-order in I 2. What change occurs in the rate of the
reaction if the concentration of each reactant is tripled?
(A) 3-fold increase

(B) 6-fold increase

(C) 18-fold increase

(D) 27-fold increase

28. For the rate equation,

Rate = k[A][B]2,
what are the units for the rate constant, k, if the rate is
given in mol . L-1. sec-1?
(A) L. mol . sec
(C) L2. mol -2. sec-1

(B) L. mol -1. sec-1

(D) L3. mol -3. sec-2

(B) A + B r C (slow)
C + B r product
(D) A + B s C

B+BsD

B + C r D (slow)

C + D r Product (slow)

D + A r product

30. Which straight line gives the activation energy for a

reaction?
(A) rate constant vs T
-1
(C) rate constant vs T

(B) ln (rate constant) vs T

(D) ln (rate constant) vs T-1

31. Based on the equilibrium constant for the reaction below,

2SO3(g) s 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
K = 1.8 10-5
what is the equilibrium constant for the reaction
SO2 (g) + 1/2O2 (g) s SO3(g)

K=?

(A) 2.1 10-3

(B) 4.2 10-3

(C) 2.4 102

(D) 5.6 104

32. CO(g) + Cl2(g) s COCl(g) + Cl(g) Keq = 1.5 10-39

If the rate constant, k, for the forward reaction above is
1.4 x 10 -28 L . mol-1. sec-1 what is k (in L. mol-1. sec-1 ) for
the backward reaction?
(A) 2.1 10-67

(B) 1.0 10-11

(C) 9.3 1010

(D) 7.1 1027

33. Calculate the [H +] in a 0.25 M solution of methylamine,

CH3NH2 (Kb = 4.4 10-4).
(A) 1.1 10-4

(B) 1.0 10-2

(C) 9.1 10-11

(D) 9.5 10-13

34. A 0.010 M solution of a weak acid, HA, is 0.40%

ionized. What is its ionization constant?
(A) 1.6 10-10

(B) 1.6 10-7

(C) 4.0 10-5

(D) 4.0 10-3

Not valid for use as an USNCO National Examination after April 27, 2003

Page 5

35. 1.0 L of an aqueous solution in which

[H 2CO3] = [HCO3-] = 0.10 M, has [H+] = 4.2 10-7. What
is the [H+] after 0.005 mole of NaOH has been added?
(A) 2.1 10-9 M

(B) 2.2 10-8 M

(A) 0.629 V

(B) 0.689 V

(C) 3.8 10 M

(D) 4.6 10 M

(C) 0.748 V

(D) 0.866 V

-7

-7

36. A solution of Pb(NO3)2 is added dropwise to a second

solution in which [Cl-] = [F-] = [I -] = [SO42-] = 0.001 M.
What is the first precipitate that forms?

37.

41. The voltage for the cell

Fe Fe2+(0.0010 M) Cu2+(0.10 M) Cu
is 0.807 V at 25 C. What is the value of E?

(A) PbCl2

(Ksp = 1.5 10-5)

(B) PbF2

(K sp = 3.7 10-8)

(C) PbI2

(K sp = 8.5 10-9)

(D) PbSO4

(K sp = 1.8 10-8)

(A) 0.39 M

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 6

38. Use the standard reduction potentials;

Sn 2+(aq) + 2e r Sn(s) E = -0.141 V
Ag+(aq) + e r Ag(s)
E = 0.800 V
to calculate E for the reaction;
Sn(s) + 2Ag +(aq) r Sn2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(B) 0.941 V

(C) 1.459 V

(D) 1.741 V

39. Which of the

processes happen
during the
discharging of a lead
storage battery?

(B) microwave

(C) ultraviolet

(D) visible

44. All of the following possess complete d shells EXCEPT

(B) 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

(B) -585 kJ

(C) -390 kJ

(D) -195 kJ

Page 6

(B) Cu 2+

(C) Ga 3+

(D) Zn2+

(A) 6s

(B) 5p

(C) 5d

(D) 4d

46. Which set of quantum numbers (n, l, ml , ms) is

permissible for an electron in an atom?

(A) 1 only

(A) -1170 kJ

(D) 0.89 M

45. Which orbital fills completely immediately before the 4f?

1. H2(g) is produced
2. PbO2 is converted to PbSO4
3. The density of the electrolyte
solution decreases

40. What is the value of G for the reaction?

2Al(s) + 3Cu 2+(aq)
r 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s)

(C) 0.78 M

(A) infrared

(A) Ag+

(A) 0.659 V

(B) 0.46 M

43. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is capable

of inducing electron transitions with the greatest energy?

Cl2 + OH- r Cl- + ClO3What is the coefficient for OH- when this equation is
balanced with the smallest integer coefficients?
(A) 2

42. A current of 2.0 A is used to plate Ni(s) from 500 mL of

a 1.0 M Ni2+(aq) solution. What is the [Ni2+] after 3.0
hours?

(A) 1, 0, 0, -1/2

(B) 1, 1, 0, +1/2

(C) 2, 1, 2, +1/2

(D) 3, 2, -2, 0

47. When the elements Li, Be, and B, are arranged in order
of increasing ionization energy, which is the correct
order?
(A) Li, B, Be

(B) B, Be, Li

(C) Be, Li, B

(D) Li, Be, B

48. Which forms the most alkaline solution when added to

water?
(A) Al2O3

(B) B 2O3

(C) CO2

(D) SiO 2

E = 2.02 V
49. What is the total number of valence electrons in the
peroxydisulfate, S2O82-, ion?
(A) 58

(B) 60

(C) 62

(D) 64

Not valid for use as an USNCO National Examination after April 27, 2003

50. For which species are both

bonds of equal length?

1. ClO22. NO2-

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) both 1 and 2

(D) neither 1 nor 2

51. Which compound has the highest melting point?

(A) MgO

(B) KCl

(C) NaCl

(D) CaO

52. Which molecular geometry is least likely to result from a

trigonal bipyramidal electron geometry?

57. Which substance will react most rapidly with Br 2(aq)?

(A) benzene

(B) chloropropane

(C) propanone

(D) propene

58. Which compound includes a carbon atom with an sp

hybridized orbital?
(A) benzene

(B) butyne

(C) methyl chloride

(D) phenol

59. Which compound has the highest vapor pressure

at 25 C?

(A) trigonal planar

(B) see-saw

(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

(B) CH3CH2CH2OCH3

(C) linear

(D) t-shaped

(C) CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2

(D) (CH3) 3COH

53. Which diatomic species has the greatest bond strength?

(A) NO

(B) NO+

(D) O2-

(C) O2

60. Which of the molecules can exist as optical isomers?

54. During the complete combustion of methane, CH4, what

change in hybridization does the carbon atom undergo?
(A) sp3 to sp

(B) sp3 to sp 2

(C) sp2 to sp

(D) sp2 to sp 3

(A)

Br

H
O

OH

(C)
55. What is the formula for the
compound?

Br
OH

C
H

(B)

CH3
O

(D)

CH3
CH3

(A) C 8H10

(B) C 8H12

(C) C 8H14

(D) C 8H16

OCH3

OH

C
Br

Br

Br

56. Which is most likely to react by an SN1 mechanism?

(A) CH3Cl

(B) CH3CHClCH3

(C) (CH3) 3CCl

(D) C 6H5Cl

Not valid for use as an USNCO National Examination after April 27, 2003

END OF TEST

Page 7

CHEMISTRY OLYMPIAD 2003

NATIONAL EXAM
PART 1 KEY

Number
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

Answer
D
B
B
C
D
A
B
D
C
B
D
B
C
A
A
D
D
B
A
C
B
A
B
A
D
B
D
C
D
D

Not valid for use as an USNCO National Examination after April 27, 2003

Number
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.

Answer
C
C
D
B
C
D
D
B
D
A
C
C
C
B
A
A
A
A
C
C
A
A
B
A
A
C
D
B
B
B