ANDHRA UNIVERSITY

(Accredited with A Grade by NAAC)

VISAKHAPATNAM 530003 (A.P.)

NOTIFICATION

ICET 2015
Andhra Pradesh State Integrated Common Entrance Test for Admission
into M.B.A. and M.C.A. Courses of all Universities in Andhra Pradesh State
and their Affiliated Colleges (Being conducted on behalf of APSCHE,
Hyderabad)

Applications are invited for appearing at the Andhra Pradesh Integrated Common
Entrance Test (ICET-2015) for admission into M.B.A. and M.C.A. courses (full
time/part-time/evening/distance mode) offered by the following Universities in the
State of Andhra Pradesh including their affiliated colleges for the academic year 20152016 to be conducted by Andhra University, Visakhapatnam (as per section 11 (2) (II)
(vi) of the Act No: 16 of 1981 of the Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education
and in pursuance of the powers conferred under rule 2 (I) (vii) of the rules issued in the
G.0. Ms.No.25 Higher Education (EC.1) Dept Dt: 19.03.04 and amendments for the
Academic Year 2015.2016).

1. Andhra University (AU)

2. Sri Venkateswara University (SVU)
3. Sri Padmavati Mahila Vishwavidyalayam
4. Sri Krishnadevaraya University (SKDU)
5. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University (BRAU)
6. JNT University, Kakinada (JNTU-K)
7. JNT University, Anantapur (JNTU-A)
8. Adikavi Nannaya University(ANU)
9. Acharya Nagarjuna University (ANU)
10. Krishna University (KU)
11. Vikram Simhapuri University (PU)
12. Rayalaseema University, (SU)
13. Yogi Vemana University (YU)

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA TO APPEAR FOR ICET-2015

a) The candidates should be Indian Nationals and should satisfy local / non-local status requirements
laid down in the Andhra Pradesh State Educational Institutions (Regulations of Admission) Order,
1974 as amended up to date (as per G.O. Ms. No. 25, dated: 19.03.2004 & G.O.Ms.No.108, dated
3-7-2005,Higher Education Department, dated 30-7-2005 and its amendments).
b) The candidates other than Indian Nationals should satisfy the rules of the Universities concerned
c) The candidates seeking admissioni) For MBA: Should have passed recognized Bachelors Degree Examination of minimum three
years duration with at least 50% marks (45% marks in case of reserved categories) in the
qualifying examination.
ii) For MCA: Should have passed recognized Bachelors Degree examination of minimum three
years duration with at least 50% marks (45% marks in case of reserved categories) in the
qualifying examination with Mathematics at 10+2 level.

d) The qualifying Degree obtained by Distance Mode Program should have recognition by joint
committee of UGC, AICTE and DEC.
e) The candidates who are appearing for the final year degree examination shall also be eligible to
appear for ICET-2015
f) Admission into any college depends on its Recognition/Affiliation by the Statutory Bodies.
g) Qualifying marks in ICET-2015 is 25% and no minimum marks are prescribed for SC/ST
candidates.

Mere qualification in the entrance test does not entitle a candidate to find admission into
MBA/MCA course unless the candidate:
i)

appears for Counseling at the notified Centers

ii) applies in response to the admission notification issued by the authority concerned
(for part-time\evening\distance mode)
iii) satisfies all the eligibility criteria for admission as stipulated by the authority concerned

SUBMISSION OF ONLINE APPLICATIONS

ICET-2015 Applications should be submitted through ONLINE mode only. The Registration fee
for online submission and late fee, if applicable, may be paid at AP Online Centers / Citizen
Service Centers, e - Seva Centers in A.P. and also through payment gateway (Credit Card /
Debit Card).
ONLINE APPLICATION FEE: Rs. 250/IMPORTANT DATES FOR ONLINE SUBMISSION
Date of Commencement of Submission of Online Applications

: 14-03-2015

Last date for Submission of Online Applications

a) Without Late Fee
(Only Registration Fee)
b) With a Late fee of Rs. 500/(+ Rs. 250 Registration Fee)
c) With a Late fee of Rs. 2,000/(+ Rs. 250 Registration Fee)
d) With a Late fee of Rs. 5,000/(+ Rs. 250 Registration Fee)
d) With a Late fee of Rs. 10,000/- (+ Rs. 250 Registration Fee)

:13-04-2015
: 20-04-2015
: 27-04-2015
: 04-05-2015
: 11-05-2015

DATE AND TIME OF ICET-2015 EXAMINATION

16-05-2015 (Saturday) (10.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.)
REGIONAL TEST CENTERS
The ICET-2015 examination will be held at the following 15 Regional Test Centers in Andhra
Pradesh State
1
2
3
4

Anathapur
Bhimavaram
Guntur
Kadapa

Note:

5
6
7
8

Kakinada
Kuppam
Kurnool
Nellore

9
10
11
12

Ongole
Rajahmundry
Srikakulam
Tirupathi

13
14
15

Vijayawada
Visakhapatnam
Vizianagaram

i) This is only a Notification and not a prospectus.

ii) For detailed information about instructions to candidates, syllabus and pattern
of test, and Regional Centers etc.,

visit: www.apicet15.org, www.andhrauniversity.edu.in, www.apsche.org.

Place: Visakhapatnam
Date: 09.03.2015

CONVENER
ICET-2015

INSTRUCTIONS CONCERNING ENTRANCE TEST

1.

Candidates indulging in Impersonation and or any kind of malpractice are liable for prosecution,
inviting a punishment of imprisonment for 3 to 7 years with or without fine ranging from ` 5,000/to ` 20,000/-

2.

The Convener, APICET-2015 reserves the right to reject the application of the candidate at any
stage if; (a) the candidate fails to satisfy the eligibility conditions, and (b) any false or incorrect
information is furnished in online application.

No correspondence for whatsoever reason will be entertained with regard to rejection of application

3.

Any change whatsoever including that of Caste/Community/Status of category and regional centre
claimed in the Online application form will not be permitted once the form is registered with the
Convener. As per G.O.Ms. No. 58 Social Welfare Dept., Govt. of A.P. Dt. 12.5.1998, the candidates claiming
admission into this course under reserved quota meant for SC, ST and BC are required to produce
Integrated Community Certificate issued by the competent authority.

4.

MEDIUM OF TEST:

5.

APICET RESULTS

English only for Section-C and English & Telugu for Section-A & Section-B of the
question paper.
a)

Qualifying Marks for APICET-2015: The qualifying percentage of marks in the Entrance Test is
25% (i.e. 50 marks out of total 200 marks). However, for candidates belonging to Scheduled
Castes or Scheduled Tribes, no minimum qualifying percentage of marks is prescribed.

b) Ranking: Candidates will be given State-wide ranks in the order of merit at the APICET - 2015.
For the preparation of merit list, in case more than one student scores the same ranks at
APICET, the tie will be resolved as follows:
(i) By considering the marks scored in Section-A
(ii) If the tie persists, marks obtained by a student in Section-B will be taken into
consideration.
(iii) If the tie still persists, the tie will be resolved by taking into account the age of the
candidate giving the older candidate Priority.
c) Rank obtained in APICET - 2015 is valid for admission into MBA/MCA Course (Full Time / Part
Time / Evening / Distance Mode) of all universities in Telangana State for the academic year
2015-2016 only.
d) Evaluation: Every care will be taken to avoid errors in the evaluation, checking, scrutiny,
tabulation and ranking. However, request for re-verification will be entertained on payment of
Rs. 1,000/- by D.D. drawn in favour of the Convener, APICET 2015 (payable at Andhra
University, Visakhapatnam on any Nationalized Bank), within fifteen days from the date of
declaration of results. After this date no request will be entertained.
6.

The OMR answer scripts of candidates appearing the APICET-2015 will be preserved for
six(6)months from the date of announcement of APICET-2015 results.

7.

The conduct of APICET-2015 is subject to orders and instructions issued from time to time by the
Government of Telangana and Telangana State Council of Higher Education.

8.

All disputes arising out of any matter concerning APICET-2015 shall be subject to the jurisdiction
of AP High Court only. In such disputes, only the Convener, APICET-2015 and the Secretary,
APSCHE can be impleaded as respondents.

SYLLABUS OF APICET - 2015 ENTRANCE TEST

(General Information: 200 Questions: 200 Marks: Time 150 minutes)

Section-A: Analytical Ability

75 Questions (75 Marks)

1. Data Sufficiency:
A question is given followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as i and ii. If the data given in i alone is
sufficient to answer the question then choice (1) is the correct answer. If the data given in ii alone is sufficient to answer
the question then choice (2) is the correct answer. If both i and ii put together are sufficient to answer the question but
neither statement alone is sufficient, then choice (3) is the correct answer. If both i and ii put together are not sufficient
to answer the question and additional data is needed, then choice (4) is the correct answer.

2. Problem Solving
a)

Sequences and Series:

Analogies of numbers and alphabet, completion of blank spaces following the pattern in a:b::c:d relationship; odd thing
out: missing number in a sequence or a series.

b) Data Analysis:
The data given in a Table, Graph, Bar diagram, Pie Chart, Venn Diagram or a Passage is to be analyzed and the questions
pertaining to the data are to be answered.
c) Coding and Decoding Problems:
A code pattern of English Alphabet is given. A given word or a group of letters are to be coded or decoded based on the
given code or codes.
d) Date, Time & Arrangement Problems:
Calendar problems, clock problems, blood relationships, arrivals, departures and schedules, seating arrangements,
symbol and notation interpretation.

Section -B: Mathematical Ability

75 Questions (75 Marks)
I.

Arithmetical Ability
Laws of indices, ratio and proportion; surds; numbers and divisibility, l.c.m. and g.c.d; Rational numbers, Ordering.;
Percentages; Profit and loss; Partnership, Pipes and cisterns,
time, distance and work problems, areas and volumes, mensuration, modular arithmetic.

II.

Algebraical and Geometrical Ability

Statements, Truth tables, implication converse and inverse, Tautologies-Sets, Relations and functions, applications Equation of a line in different forms.
Trigonometry - Trigonometric ratios, Trigonometric ratios of standard angles, (0, 30, 45, 60, 90, 180): Trigonometric
identities: sample problems on heights and distances, Polynomials; Remainder theorem and consequences; Linear
equations and expressions; Progressions, Binomial Theorem, Matrices, Notion of a limit and derivative; Plane geometry lines, Triangles, Quadrilaterals, Circles, Coordinate geometry-distance between points.

III. Statistical Ability:

Frequency distributions, Mean, Median, Mode, Standard Deviation, Correlation, simple problems on Probability.

Section-C: Communication Ability

50 Questions (50 Marks)
Objectives of the Test
Candidates will be assessed on the ability to:
1. Identify vocabulary used in day-to-day communication.
2. Understand the functional use of grammar in day-to-day communication as well as in business contexts.
3. Identify the basic terminology and concepts in computer and business contexts (letters, reports, memoranda, agenda,
minutes etc.).
4. Understand written text and drawing inferences.
Part 1: Vocabulary
Part 2: Business and Computer terminology
Part 3: Functional Grammar
Part 4: Reading Comprehension (3 Passages)

SYLLABUS AND INFORMATION ABOUT THE TEST

The test is designed to measure the candidate's ability to think
systematically, to use the verbal and mathematical skills and to assess his/her aptitude for
admission into MBA/MCA programme. The Test emphasizes accuracy. Therefore, the candidate is
required to go through the instructions carefully. This is an objective type test and the questions
are of multiple choice. Out of the given options, the candidate has to choose the correct answer. If
the Candidate gives more than one answer to any question, such answers will be ignored while
awarding marks.
GENERAL INFORMATION:

PATTERN OF THE TEST:

The test consists of 200 questions of one mark each in the following topics.
No. of Questions

Section-A:
Section-B:

Section-C:

Analytical Ability
(i) Data Sufficiency
(ii) Problem Solving
Mathematical Ability
(i) Arithmetical Ability
(ii) Algebraical and Geometrical Ability
(iii) Statistical Ability
Communication Ability
(i)
Vocabulary
(ii)
Business and Computer Terminology
(iii) Functional Grammar
(iv) Reading Comprehension
Total

20
55

Duration of
The Test :

35
30
10

2 1/2 Hours
(150 Minutes)

10
10
15
15
200

I. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

1. Candidates are directed to carry into the examination hall a Ball Point Pen only with Blue or
Black ink.
2. Besides this, the candidate should not bring any other material including the instructions
booklet, Papers, Cell Phones, etc., into the examination hall. Any candidate found in
possession of any forbidden material, will be sent out of the examination hall.
3. Candidates must remain seated in their allotted places till the completion of the examination.
In no case they will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the examination.
Before leaving the examination hall, the candidates must return the OMR Answer Sheet and
data card to the invigilator.
4. Every candidate appearing for ICET2015 shall be provided with a specially designed Optical
Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet on which the candidate has to mark the answer and other
relevant data. The method of marking the answers is illustrated in this section. Candidates
are advised to go through the instructions given for marking the answers and other entries
on the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet thoroughly and practice the same at their
residence which should make it easy for them to answer in the examination hall.
5. The Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet should be handled carefully by the candidates.
They are advised not to fold, wrinkle or tear the answer sheet under any circumstance.

Further, the candidates are advised not to scribble or make any marks on the answer sheet
except marking the answers and other relevant data at the appropriate place on the answer
sheet. Any violation of these instructions will automatically lead to disqualification of the
candidate.
6. Candidates shall note that they will not be given a second blank Optical Mark Reader (OMR)
answer sheet under any circumstance. Hence they are advised to be careful while handling
their answer sheet.
7. Candidates shall read carefully the instructions before starting to answer the questions.
8. The question paper booklet given to the candidate shall consist of 200 multiple choice type
questions in three different sections with four responses given to each question, out of
which only one response is correct for the given question. Candidates shall mark the correct
answer in Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circle
with Ball Point Pen (Blue or Black). They should not use HB Pencil for this purpose under
any circumstances.
II. Instructions

to fill up OMR answer sheet:

1. Follow the Instructions given on the OMR answer sheet. Fill up information and
darken all the relevant circles on the OMR answer sheet carefully, otherwise your
answer sheet will become invalid.
2. Use Ball Point Pen (Blue or Black) only for darkening the circles for information and
answering on the answer sheet. Use Ball Point Pen only as directed on the answer
sheet to write information.
Example:

Correct method of
Darkening

Wrong method of
Darkening

Wrong method of
Darkening

Wrong method of
Darkening

Wrong method of
Darkening

3. Please darken the most appropriate response chosen by you, only in the
corresponding circle against the number corresponding to the question, you are
attempting.
4. Please do not make any stray marks ELSEWHERE on the Answer Sheet, ELSE the
Answer Sheet will become invalid.
SYLLABUS AND MODEL QUESTION PAPER OF THE TEST
(General Information: 200 Questions: 200 Marks: Time 150 minutes)

Section-A: Analytical Ability: 75Q (75 Marks)

1. Data Sufficiency:
20Q (20 Marks)
A question is given followed by data in the form of two
statements labeled as i and ii. If the data given in i alone is
sufficient to answer the question then choice (1) is the
correct answer. If the data given in ii alone is sufficient to
answer the question then choice (2) is the correct answer. If
both i and ii put together are sufficient to answer the
question but neither statement alone is sufficient, then
choice (3) is the correct answer. If both i and ii put together
are not sufficient to answer the question and additional data
is needed, then choice (4) is the correct answer.
2. Problem Solving
55Q (55 Marks)

a) Sequences and Series

25Q (25 Marks)
Analogies of numbers and alphabet, completion of blank spaces
following the pattern in a:b::c:d relationship; odd thing out:
missing number in a sequence or a series.
b) Data Analysis
10Q (10 Marks)
The data given in a Table, Graph, Bar diagram, Pie Chart, Venn
Diagram or a Passage is to be analyzed and the questions
pertaining to the data are to be answered.
c) Coding and Decoding Problems 10Q (10 Marks)
A code pattern of English Alphabet is given. A given word or a
group of letters are to be coded or decoded based on the given
code or codes.
d) Date, Time & Arrangement Problems 10Q (10 Marks)

Calendar problems, clock problems, blood relationships,

arrivals, departures and schedules, seating arrangements,
symbol and notation interpretation.
Section -B: Mathematical Ability
75Q (75 Marks)
I. Arithmetical Ability
35Q (35 Marks)
Laws of indices, ratio and proportion; surds; numbers and
divisibility, l.c.m. and g.c.d; Rational numbers, Ordering.;
Percentages; Profit and loss; Partnership, Pipes and
cisterns, time, distance and work problems, areas and
volumes, mensuration, modular arithmetic.
II.

Algebraical and Geometrical Ability 30Q (30 Marks)

Statements, Truth tables, implication converse and
inverse, Tautologies-Sets, Relations and functions,
applications - Equation of a line in different forms.
Trigonometry - Trigonometric ratios, Trigonometric
ratios of standard angles, (0, 30, 45, 60, 90, 180):
Trigonometric identities: sample problems on heights and
distances, Polynomials; Remainder theorem and
consequences; Linear equations and expressions;
Progressions, Binomial Theorem, Matrices, Notion of a
limit and derivative; Plane geometry - lines, Triangles,

Quadrilaterals,
between points.

Circles,

Coordinate

geometry-distance

III. Statistical Ability:

10Q (10 Marks)
Frequency distributions, Mean, Median, Mode, Standard
Deviations, Correlation, simple problems on Probability.
Section-C: Communication Ability:

50Q (50 Marks)

Objectives of the Test

Candidates will be assessed on the ability to
5. identify vocabulary used in the day-to-day communication.
6. understand the functional use of grammar in day-to-day
communication as well as in the business contexts.
7. identify the basic terminology and concepts in computer and
business contexts (letters, reports, memoranda, agenda,
minutes etc.).
8. understand written text and drawing inferences.
Part 1. Vocabulary
Part 2. Business and Computer terminology
Part 3. Functional Grammar
Part 4. Reading Comprehension (3 Passages)

10Q (10M)
10Q (10M)
15Q (15M)
15Q (15M)

Note: In questions 5 and 6 pick the odd thing out

MODEL QUESTION PAPER
SECTION A
Analytical Ability
(i) Date Sufficiency
In each of the questions numbered 1 and 2, the question is
followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as i
and
ii. You must decide whether the data given in the statements
are sufficient to answer the questions. Using the data, make
an appropriate choice form (1) to (4) as per the following
guidelines.

5. (1) 65

(2) 126

(3) 217

6. (1) BFH

(2) MQS (4) GJL (4) NRT

b) Data Analysis
Note: The following figure has four intersecting circles, each
representing a group of persons having the quality written
against it. Study the figure carefully and answer questions 7 and
8.
Hard-working
Intelligent
A

B
F

E
I

(1) If the statement i alone is sufficient to answer the question;

(2) If the statement ii alone is sufficient to answer the question;
(3) If both the statements i and ii are sufficient to answer the
question but neither statement alone is sufficient.
(4) If both the statements i and ii together and not sufficient to
answer the question and additional data is required.
1. What is the value of the non-negative integer x?
(i) 2x is odd
(ii) 3x is odd
2. What is the length of the train?
(i) It crosses a pole in 8 seconds.
(ii) It crosses a bridge of length 100 m in 12 seconds.
(i)

a) Sequence and Series

Note: In each of the questions numbered 3 and 4, a sequence of
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given.
Each question has a blank space. This has to be filled with
the correct answer chosen from the given four options to
complete the sequence without breaking the pattern.

4. 9, 19, 40, , 146

(1) 70 (2) 59 (3) 69
(4) 64

Truthful

C
M

H
K

Honest

7. The region which represents people who are not honest but
possess all other three qualities, as denoted by
(1) B
(2) F
(3) D
(4) M
8. The region which represents the people who are neither honest
nor truthful but are intelligent and hard working, is denoted by
(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) B
c) Coding and Decoding Problems:
In a code TANK is written as SZOL and FRIEND is written as
EQHFOE. Find the process of coding and answer the question
9.

Problem solving

3. AZBY, CXDW . GTHS

(1) EXUV
(2) EVFU
(3) EVRU

(4) 343

(4) EVSU

9. The code for ZENITH is

(1) YDMJUI (2) ADMJUI (3) YFMJUI
d) Date, Time & Arrangement Problems:

(4) ADMJUG

10. In a row of six persons, D and C are immediate neighbours of E.

B is a neighbour of A only. A is the fourth from F. Who are on
the two end points?
(1) F, B
(2) F, C (3) B, D (4) C, A
SECTION-B
Mathematical Ability

5/5

(i) Arithmetical Ability:

1. A wire of length 132 cm is bent to form a rectangle whose
sides are in the ratio 7:4. The area (in square cms) of the
rectangle is
(1) 4032
(2) 4230
(3) 100
(4) 3420
2. The ratio of the area of square of side a to the area of an
equilateral triangle of side a is
(1) 4: 3
(2) 2: 3
(3) 3 :2
(4) 3 :4
3. If in a group of people, m persons can speak Telugu, n
persons can speak Tamil and t persons can speak both Tamil
and Telugu, then, the number of persons who can speak
either Telugu or Tamil is
(1) m-n+1
(2) m-n-t (3) m+n-1
(4) n-m+t
4. If a:b 1; 3 and b:c = 2:5, then, a:b:c =
(1) 1:3:5
(2) 1:6:5 (3) 2:6:15

(4) 6:2:15

(ii) Algebraical and Geometrical Ability

5. If one root of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is double the
other root, then
(1) b2 = 9ac
(2) 2b2 = 3abc
(3) b = 2a (4) 2b2 = 9ac
6. Equation of the line passing through the point (2, -3) and
perpendicular to the line segment joining the points (1, 2) (1, 5) is
(1) 2x-3y-13 = 0
(2) 2x-3y-9 = 0
(3) 2x-3y-11 = 0
(4) 2x-3y-7 = 0
7. If (0, 0), (2, 2) and (0, a) form a right angled isosceles
triangle, then a =
(1) 4
(2) -4
(3) 3
(4) -3
(iii) Statistical Ability:
8. The mean deviation of the values 21, 23, 25, 28, 30, 32, 38,
39, 46, 48 from the mean is
(1) 7.6
(2) 6.7
(3) 7.8
(4) 8.7

9. Eight coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of

getting at least six heads is
39
29
31
37
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
256
256
256
256
10. If the standard deviation of a1, a2, ., an is s, then, the
standard deviation of a1 + b, a2 + b, ., an + b is
(1) s + b
(2) s b
(3) s
(4) sb
SECTION C
Communication Ability
Part 1 : Vocabulary
Choose the correct meaning for the word:
1. Alleviation
(1) Decoration (2) Exaggeration (3) Mitigation
Aggravation
Fill in the blank choosing the correct word:
2. The old lady is an . Story-teller
(1) adept
(2) adopt
(3) adapt

(4) adrift

Part 2 : Business and Computer Terminology

Choose the correct answer:
3. An Actuary is
(1) One who presents himself

(4)

(2) One who project himself

(3) One who works in a sanctuary
(4) One who makes calculations connected with insurance
Part 3 : Functional Grammar
Choose the correct answer:
4. A : Would you mind lending your umbrella?
B : Yes, I do.
In this conversation
(1) B is willing to lend it to A (2) B excuses himself
(3) B is hesitant
(4) B is annoyed by the request
5. If wishes were horses, beggars would ride. This sentence
(1) speaks of an utter impossibility
(2) expresses a condition
(3) implies a difficult possibility
(4) states an absurdity
Fill in the blank with the appropriate phrase/verb/ preposition
6. We had a pleasant conversation a cup of tea.
(1) with
(2) on
(3) over (4) during
7. Some bottles are not suitable . Recycling.
(1) for
(2) with
(3) to
(4) in

Part-4 : Reading Comprehension

Read the following passage and answer questions 8 to 10

The overwhelming vote given by the greater part of the public has so far been in favour of
entertainment which passes the time easily, and satisfies that part of our imagination which
depends on the more obvious kind of daydreams. You can argue that these daydreams are usually
substitutes for our own inactivity, ineffectualness, and lack of power or influence, so that we make
up for what we secretly regard as our deficiencies by watching the stimulating adventures of other
people who are larger, stronger, more effective, or more beautiful than we are. The conventional
stars act the roles of other people who are larger, stronger more effective, or more beautiful than
we are. The conventional West, or in the jungles we will never visit (we would not dare to, most of
us, if we could), or in the underworld of great cities where crime and violence may not pay in the
end, but are very exciting to watch if your youth is being spent in the day-to-day routine of school
or office, on the one hand, or in the kitchen and living - room of 39 Blank St, on the other.
Whether we admit it to ourselves or not, most of us are very conscious of deficiencies in our looks,
our clothes, and the circumstances of our homes. But on the screen we can feast our eyes on people
selected to appear because of their good looks, dressed in expensive and sometimes extravagantly
showy clothes, and moving about most of the time in the plushy environment of wealth. What you
cannot have yourself, at least you can continuously look at surrounding other people, and, who
knows, one day you may have these things too, like the stars who have come up from nowhere but
now earn large fortunes!
8. Why do we enjoy films in which there are larger-than-life characters?
(1) We don't like films to be true to life
(2) We like the big screen.
(3) Art is not for art's sake
(4) They enable us to compensate ourselves for our shortcomings.
9. Why do we enjoy films based on crime and violence?
(1) Human beings admire criminals.
(2) They provide for us with some relief from the boredom of routine life
(3) Crime and violence have become part of our life.
(4) All human beings are sadists.
10.
What aspect of human psychology the author does refer to in the second paragraph?
(1) Human beings enjoy the very sight of qualities and luxuries they are deprived of.
(2) Human psychology is very complex.
(3) Human beings love being poor.
(4) Human being admire themselves.