Materi TOEFL Preparation
Materi TOEFL Preparation
Materi TOEFL Preparation
Toefl-preparation course
CONVERTED
SCORE
SECTION 1
45
44
43
42
41
41
37
38
37
35
33
32
32
31
30
29
28
27
26
25
24
CONVERTED
SCORE
SECTION 2
44
43
42
41
40
40
38
37
36
35
33
31
29
27
26
25
23
22
21
20
20
CONVERTED
SCORE
SECTION 3
40
39
38
37
36
35
34
32
31
30
29
28
28
27
26
25
24
23
23
22
21
You should first use the chart to determine your converted score for each section. Suppose
that you got 30 correct in the first section, 28 correct in the second section, and 43 correct in
the third section. The 30 correct in the first section means a converted score of 51. The 28
correct in the second section means a converted score of 52. The 43 correct in the third
section means a converted score of 58. (see the chart below.)
SECTION 1
SECTION 2
SECTION 3
NUMBER CORRECT
30
28
43
CONVERTED SCORE
51
52
58
Next, you should determine your overall score in the following way :
1. Add the three converted scores together.
51+ 52 + 58 = 161
2. Divide the sum by 3.
161 / 3 = 53.7
3. The multiple by 10.
53.7 x 10 = 537
The overall TOEFL score in this example is 537
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
The following language skills will help you to implement these strategies
and procedures with the sort dialogues on both the paper TOEFL test and
the computer TOEFL test.
STRATEGIES
____________________________________________________
SKILL 1 : FOCUS ON THE LAST LINE
The short dialogues involve conversations between two people, each
followed by ques-tion. It is important to understand that the answer to this
type of question is most often (but not always!) found in the last line of
the conversation.
Example from the Paper and Computer TOEFL Test
On the recording, you hear:
(man)
Billy really made a big mistake this time.
(woman) Yes, he forgot to turn in his research paper.
(narator) What does the woman say about Billy?
In your test book or on the computer screen, you read:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The last line of this dialogue indicates that Billy forgot to turn in his research
paper, and this means that he didnt remember to submit it. The best answer is
therefore answer (D).
The following chart outlines the most important strategy for the short
dialogues:
STRATEGY #1: FOCUS ON THE LAST LINE
1. The last line of the dialogue probably contains the answer to the question.
2. Listen to the first line of the dialogue. If you understand it, thats good. If you dont
understand it, dont worry because it probably does not contain the answer.
3. Be ready to focus on the last line of the dialogue because it probably contains the
answer. Repeat the last line in your mind as you read through the answer in the
text.
EXERCISE 1 : In this exercise, you should focus on the last line of the dialogue,
read the question, and then choose the best answer to that question. Remember
that you can probably answer the question easily with only the last line.
1. (man)
romance,
idea
(narrator) What does the woman
mean?
2. (woman) Was anyone at home at
Barbs house when you
went there to deliver the
package?
(man)
I rang the bell, but no
one answered.
(narrator) What does the man
imply?
3. (woman)
You just got
back from interview for
the internship.
How do you think it went.
(man)
I think its highly unlikely
that I got the job.
(narrator) What does the man
suggest?
and question on the recording and then choose the best answer to the question.
You should focus carefully on the last line.
Now begin the recording at toefl exercise 1.
1.
6.
(A)
He is leaving now.
(B) He has to go out this
2.
way.
3.
(C) He will not be leaving
soon.
4.
(D) He will do it his own way.
5.
(A)
He locked the door.
7.
(B) He tried unsuccesfully to
get into the house.
8.
(C) He was able to open the20.
door.
9.
(D) He left the house without
locking the door.
10.
11. (A) She doesnt like to listen
to turkeys.
12. (B) She thinks the dinner25.
sounds special.
13. (C) She especially likes the
roast turkey
30.
40.
(A)
close.
41.
51.
52.
53.
Often the correct answer ina short dialogue is an answer that
contains synonyms (words with similiar meanings but different
sounds) for key words in the conversation.
54.
55.
56. Example from the Paper and Computer TOEFL Test
57.
58. On the recording, you hear:
59.
(woman)
Why is Barbara feelings so happy?
60.
(man) She just started working in a real estate agency.
61.
(narator)
What does the man say about Barbara?
62.
63. In your test book or on the computer screen, you read:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
64.
65.
She
She
She
She
66.
In this dialogue, the key word started means began, and the
key word working refers to job. The best answer to this question is
therefore answer (B).
67.
The following chart outlines a very important strategy
for short dialogues:
68.
69.STRATEGY #2: CHOOSE ANSWER WITH SYNONYMS
1. As you listen to the last line of the dialogue, focus on key words in that line.
2. If you see any synonyms for key words in a particular answer, then you have
probably found the correct answer.
70.
71.
EXERCISE 2: In this exercise, underline key words in the last
line of each short dialogue. Then underline synonyms for these key
words in the answer, and choose the best answer to each question.
Remember that the best answer is probably the answer that
contains synonyms for key words in the last line of the dialogue.
72.
1.
2.
1. (woman)
Did
you
see
the
manager(A)
about the job in the
bookstore?
(man)
Yes, and I
also had to fill out an
application.
(D)
(narrator) What does the
man means?
4.
3.
He got a job as bookstore manager.
(B) The bookstore was not accepting
applications.
(C) He saw a book about how to
apply for jobs.
It was necessary to complete a form.
6.
(narrator) What does
the woman ask?
(A) If they could leave at noon
(B) If it is possible to go by 12:00
5.
(C) Why they cant leave at noon
(D) If they could leave the room
7.
3. 3.
(man)
Was
the
6.
concert well received?
(A) The performance went on for a
4.
(woman) The
audience
long time.
applauded for a long
(B) There was applause throughout
time
after
the
the performance.
performance.
(C) The people clapped on and on
5.
(narrator) What does the
after the concert.
woman say about the
(D) The audience waited for a long
concert?
time for the concert to begin
7. TOEFL EXERCISE 2: In this exercise,listen carefully to
each short dialogue and question on the recording, and then
choose the best answer to the question. You should look for
synonyms for key words in the last line.
8.
9. Now begin the recording at toefl exercise 2.
10.
1. (A)
The final exam was
19. (D)
He had to wait for the
harder than the others.
plane to land.
2. (B)
There were two exams
20.
rather than one.
21. (A) Shed rather go running.
3. (C)
He thought the exam
22. (B)
She doesnt want to go
would be easier.
into the pool.
4. (D)
The exam was not very
23. (C)
Shell change clothes
difficult.
quickly and go swimming.
5.
24. (D)
She needs a sweatsuit
6. (A) Hes not feeling very well.
to go running.
7. (B)
Hes rather sick of
25.
working.
26.
8. (C)
Hes
feeling
better
27. (A)
The firefighters saved
today than yesterday.
the homes for last.
9. (D)
Hed really rather not
28. (B)
A firefighter saved the
answer the question.
hillside last night.
10.
29. (C)
The homes on the
11. (A) The
company
was
hillside were burned.
founded about a year ago.
30. (D)
The
houses
werent
12. (B)
It was just established
destroyed.
that he could go into business.
31.
13. (C)
The family is well32. (A) Theres enough soup.
established.
33. (B) The
spices
are
14. (D)
The business only lasted
adequate.
a year.
34. (C) She thinks the soups
15.
too salty.
16. (A) He did not look at the
35. (D) The man should add
right schedule.
more salt and pepper.
17. (B)
The plane landed in the
36.
right place.
37. (A) He was lucky to receive
18. (C)
The plane arrived on
a grant for his studies.
time.
38. (B) He used his fortune to
pay his fees.
39.
(C) He is a scholar at a
collage with low fees.
40. (D) He paid to get a
scholarship.
41.
42. (A) It profited from previous
mistakes.
43. (B) It errned a lot of money.
44. (C) This was the last year
that it would make a profit.
45. (D) It was not so succesful.
46.
47. (A) Chucks bank account
has too much money in it.
48. (B) He thinks Chuck has the
wrong kind of bank account.
49. (C) He thinks that Chuck is
on his way home from the
bank.
50. (D) There isnt enough
money in Chucks account.
51.
52.
53.
54.
11
55.
Skill 3: AVOID SIMILIAR SOUNDS
56.
57.
Often the incoreect answers in the short dialogues are
answer that contain words with similiar sounds but very
different meanings from what you hear on the recording. You
should definitely avoid these answer.
58.
59.
60. Example from the Paper and Computer TOEFL Test
61.
62. On the recording, you hear:
63.
(man) Why couldnt Mark come with us?
64.
(woman)
He was searching for a new apartment.
65.
(narator)
What does the woman say about Mark?
66.
67. In your test book or on the computer screen, you read:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
70.
The key words in the last line of the dialogue are
searching and apartment. In answer (C) and (D), the words
research and church sound like search, so these answers are
incorrect. In answers (A) and (D), the words department and
appointment sound like appartment, so these answers are
incorrect. The best answer is therefore answer (B).
71.
The following chart outlines a very important
strategy for the short dialogues:
72.
73.STRATEGY #3: AVOID SIMILIAR SOUNDS
1. Identify key words in the last line of the dialogue.
2. Identify words in the answers that contain similiar sounds, and do not choose these
answers.
74.
75. NOTE : In Appendix A there are drills to practice distinguishing
similiar sounds. You may want to complete these practise drills
before trying the following exercises.
76.
77.
78.
EXERCISE 3: In this exercise, underline key words in
the last line of each short dialogue. Then underline words
with sounds similiar to these key words in the answers, and
choose the best answer to each question. Remember that the
best answer is probably the answer that does not contain
words with sounds that similiar to the sounds of the key
words in the last line of the dialogue.
79.
2.
1. (woman)
I
heard
that Sally just moved
into a new, big house
near the beach.
(man)
But
Sally doesnt have a
cent!
4.
5.
3.
(narrator) What does
the man mean?
Sally has no sense of responsibility.
(B) Sally sent her friend to the
house.
(C) Sally has no money.
(D)Sally is on the set with her.
6. (woman) Did
they
get the near car they
wanted?
7.
(man)
No,
they
lacked the money.
8.
(narrator) What does
the man mean?
9.
11.
3. (man)
Have
you
finished packing yet?
12.
(woman) You should
call the porter to get
the suitcases.
13.
(narrator)
What does the woman
mean?
14.
10.
(A) They locked the map in a car.
(B) They looked many times in the car.
(C) It cost a lot of money when the car
leaked oil.
(D) They didnt have enough money to
buy another car.
(A) Its
important
to
pack
the
suitcases.
(B) They need help carrying their
bags.
(C) The man should pack his suit in
case he needs it.
(D) The suitcases are quite portable.
15.
16. TOEFL EXERCISE 3: In this exercise, listen carefully to
each short dialogue and question on the recording, and then
choose the best answer to the question. You should be careful
to avoid answer with similiar sounds.
17.
18.Now begin the recording at Toefl Exercise 3.
19.
1. (A) She has to wait for some cash.
18. (C)
He didnt like most of
2.
(B) The
waiter
is
the lesson.
bringing a glass of water.
19. (D)
He didnt like most of
3.
(C) The lawn is too
the lesson.
dry.
20.
4.
(D) She
needs
to
21. (A) Some animals started the first
watch out for a crash.
fire.
5.
22. (B)
Animals are killed by
6. (A) The sweaters the wrong size.
forest fires.
7.
(B)
The mans feet
23. (C)
In the first frost, animals
arent sweating.
die.
8.
(C)
The answer makes
24. (D)
Frost can kill animals.
the man seem fat.
25.
9.
(D)
The
sweet
girl
26. (A) Twenty pairs of shoes are on
doesnt feel right.
sale.
10.
27.
(B)
The
shoe
11. (A)
He has been regularly
salesclerk spent twenty dollars
using a computer.
on pears.
12.
(B)
He communicates
28.
(C) The shoes cost
with a Boston company.
twenty dollars.
13.
(C)
He regularly goes
29.
(D) The shoes could
to communities around Boston.
be repaired for twenty dollars.
14.
(D)
He
has
been
30.
traveling back and forth to
31. (A) Tom tended to dislike biology
Boston.
lab.
15.
32. (B)
Attendance
wasnt
16. (A) He thought the lesson didnt
necessary at biology lab.
matter.
33. (C)
Tom went to biology lab.
17. (B) He couldnt learn the
34. (D)
There was a tendency to
lesson.
require biology lab.
14
42. (B)
The
newspaper
headlines descriped a bad
storm.
43. (C)
There was news about a
headstrong man.
44. (D)
He had a new bed.
45. (A) If she could do the grocery
shopping.
46. (B) If she prefers cooked
vegetables or salad
47. (C) If she could help prepare
the salad.
48. (D)
If she minds shopping
for vegetables.
15
16
52.The following skills will help you to implement these procedures in the
long conversations on the paper TOFL test.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58. BEFORE
LISTENING_______________________________________________
_______________
59.
Employment office
Students
Jobs
34.
35.
101.
102.
20
103.
104.There are two possible methods to use while you listen to a long
conversation:
105.
You can just listen to the conversation (and ignore the answer).
You can follow along with the answer while you listen.
106.
107.Some students prefer to just listen to the conversation while it is being
spoken, and if that method works well for you, then that is what you
should do. Other students find that they can answer more questions
correctly if they read along with the answers while the conversation is
being spoken. Because the detail questions are answered in order, it is
possible to read along while you listen to the conversation on the
recording.
108.
109.
110.
Example from the Paper and Computer TOEFL Test
111.
112.
On the recording, you hear:
124.
113.
(man) Can I help you?
125.
In your test book, you
114.
(woman)
Im
read (same time):
interested in opening an
1. (A) A checking account
account.
126. (B)
A savings account
115.
(man) Well,
we
have
127. (C)
A money market
several different types of
account
acounts: checking accounts,
128. (D)
A
time
deposit
savings
accounts,
time
account
deposit accounts.
129.
116.
(woman)
Its
a
130.
checking account that I am
131.
interested in
132.
117.
(man) I can help you with
2. (A) A form
that. First, you have to fill
133. (B)
An account
out a form, and then I need
134. (C)
A
piece
of
to see some identfication.
identification
118.
(woman)
That sounds
135. (D)
A check
easy enough. Thanks for
136.
your help.
137.
119.
138.
120.
On the recording, you hear:
139.
121.
(narrator) 1. What type
140.
of account does the
141.
woman want?
142.
122.
2. What does the
143.
man need for her to
144.
show him?
145.
123.
146.
21
147.
148. When you read the answer to the first question, you can anticipate that the first
question is: What type of account? As you listen, you determine that the woman wants
a checking account. Therefore, you can anticipate that the best answer to the first
question is (A).
149.
When you read the answers to the second quesions, you can anticipate that
the question is going to ask What thing . . .? In the conversation, the man asks her to
fill out a form and show identification, so as you are listening you can anticipate that
the correct answer to the second question is either (A) or (C). When you hear the
question, you can determine that the best answer is answer (C).
150.
151.
152.
153.
TOEFL EXERCISE 5: Listen to each complete and answer
the questions that follow.
154.
1.
(A)
Find work on campus
2.
(B) Work
in
the
employment office
3.
(C) Help students find
jobs
4.
(D) Ask the woman
quetions
5.
6. (A) In the library
7. (B)
In a classroom
8. (C)
In a campus office
9. (D)
In a apartment
10.
11. (A) No more than ten
12. (B)
At least twenty
13. (C)
Not more than twenty
14. (D)
Up to ten
15.
16. (A) Every morning
17. (B)
Afternoons
and
weekends
18. (C)
When hes in class
19. (D)
Weekdays
20.
21. (A) Fill out a form
22. (B)
Give her some
additional information
23. (C)
Tell her some news
24. (D)
Phone her
25.
26. (A) Just before a vacation
27. (B)
Just after the end of a
school semester
28. (C)
At the end of the
summer
29. (D)
Just after a break from
school
30.
31. (A) A trip to visit the Eskimos
32. (B)
A trip the woman is
planning to take
33. (C)
A trip the man has
already taken
34. (D)
A camping trip the man
and woman took
35.
36. (A) Three hours
37. (B)
Three complete days
38. (C)
Three classes
39. (D)
Three weeks
40.
41. (A) Sleeping outside on the ground
42. (B)
Spending time in a hot
tub
43. (C)
Relaxing at the lodge
44. (D)
Enjoying excellent food
45.
46. (A) Shed be scared, but shed like
to try
47. (B)
She cant wait
48. (C)
it
would
be
quite
exciting for her
49. (D)
Shed prefer not to try
50.
51. (A) All kinds of pollution
52. (B)
How acid rain has
harmed the earth
53. (C)
Pollution from cars and
factories
54. (D)
The causes and possible
effects of acid rain
55.
56. (A) Nuclear power
57. (B)
Electricity
58. (C)
Burning coal and oil
59. (D)
Solar power
60.
61. (A) From sulfur dioxide and water
vapor
62. (B)
From sulfur dioxide and
nitrogen oxide
63. (C)
From nitric acid and
sulfur dioxide
64. (D)
From water vapor and
nitric acid
65.
66. (A) Only in North America
67. (B)
At the North and South
Poles
68. (C)
In parts of several
northern continents
69. (D)
In equatorial areas
70.
71. (A)
She
should
protect
herselffrom the rain
72. (B)
She should clean up the
water supply
73. (C)
She should read a novel
24
74. (D)
She should get more
75.
information about acid rain
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.The following skills will help you to implement these procedures in the
long talks on the paper TOEFL test.
81.
82. Skill 6: ANTICIPATE THE TOPICS
83.
84.It is very helpful to you understand overall comprehension if you know
what topics to expect in the long talks. You should therefore try to
anticipate the topics you will be hearing (as you did with the long
conversations). For examples, are the talks about American history, or
literature, or some aspect of school life. A helpful strategy is therefore to
look briefly at the answers in the test book, before you actually hear the
talks on the recording, and try to determine the topics of the talks that you
will hear.
85.
86.
87. EXERCISE 6: Look at the answers to the five quetions together, and try
to anticipate the topic of the talk for those five questions. (Of course, you
cannot always determine exactly what the topics is, but you often can get
a general idea.) questions I through 5 have been answered for you.
88.
14. (D)
TO read one chapter of
1. (A)
During a biology
the text
laboratory session
15.
2.
(B) In a biology study
16.
(A)
Room assignments
group
3.
(C) On the first day
17. (B)
Exam topics
of class
18. (C)
Reading assignment
4.
(D) Just before the
19. (D)
The first lecture
final exam
20.
5.
21.
(A)
Exams and lab work
6. (A) Once a week
22. (B)
Reading and writing
7. (B)
Two times a week
assignments
8. (C)
Three times a week
23. (C)
Class
participantion
9. (D)
For fifteen hours
and grades on examinations
10.
24. (D)
Lecture and laboratory
attendance
11.
(A) To do the first
25.
laboratory assignment
26.
12. (B)
To take the first exam
27.
13. (C)
To study the laboratory
28.
manual
29.
30.
31.What is the topic of the talk for questions 1 through 5?
32. The requirements of a biology class
33.
34.You can guess this because of the following clues:
biology
first day of class
reading assignments
exam(s)
lab work
35.
36.
100.
101.
102. What is the topic of the talk for questions 11 through 15?
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
28
108.
109. These are two possible methods to use while you listen to the
talks.
You can just listen to the talk (and ignore the answer)
You can follow along with the answers while you listen
110.
111.
Some students prefer to just listen to the talk while it is
being spoken, and if that method works well for you, then that is
what you should do. Other students find that they can answer
more questions correctly if they read along with the answer
while the talk is being given. Because the detail questions are
answered in order, it is possible to read along while you listen to
the talk on the recording.
112.
113.
114.
Example from the Paper and Computer TOEFL Test
115.
116. On the recording,
125.
you hear:
126.
In your test book, you
117.
(woman)
The
Great read (same time):
Chicago Fire began
1. (A) In a barn
118.
on October 8, 1871, and
127. (B)
In Mrs. OLearys
according to legend began
home
when a cow knocked over a
128. (C)
In a cow pasture
lantern in Mrs. OLearys
129. (D)
In a lantern factory
barn. No mather how it
130.
began, it was a disastrous
131.
fire. The preceding summer
132.
had been exceedingly dry in
133.
the Chicago area, and the
2. (A)
The dry weather
eztreme
dryness
winds
prior to the fire made it
created an inferno that
worse.
destroyed 18.000 buildings
134. (B)
It happened during
and killed more that 300
the
summer.
people
before
it
was
135. (C)
Chicagos
winds
extinguished the following
made it worse.
day.
136. (D)
It killed many
119.
people.
120.
On the recording, you hear:
137.
121.
(narrator)
1.
According to
138.
legend, where did the
139.
Great
Chicago
Fire
140.
begin?
141.
122. 2.
Which of the
142.
following is not true
143.
about the Great Chicago
144.
Fire?
145.
123.
146.
124.
29
147. When you read the answers to the question, you can
anticipate that the first question is: where did something
happen? As you listen, you determine that the fire began in Mrs.
OLearys barn. Therefore, you can anticipate that the best
answer to the first question is (A).
148.
If you read the answers to the second question while
you listen to the talk, you can determine that answers (A), (C),
and (D) are true. Answer (B) is not true: the fire did not begin in
summer, it began in October, which is in autumn. Therefore,
answer (B) is the best answer to the question Which of the
following is not true about the Great Chicago Fire?
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
31
33
126.
6. NOT ONLY ... BUT ALSO .../NOT ONLY ... BUT ....... AS WELL
127.
128. Not only is fermentation useful in dairy product but also it is used for agricultural one.
129. Not only was she a professional politician, but she was also a scientist.
130. Not only did he work on the gonverment office, but he took graduate course as well.
131.
7. PREPOSITION + GERUND
132.
133.
Sustainable development calls for improving quality of life among the people.
134.
135.
PREPOSITIONS
136.
Like the art of photography, Drawing is an art of reproducing a picture on
paper.
137.
138.
ON,IN,AT,BY,FOR,OF
139.
A stronomers gather data by carefully observing and analyzing the heavens.
140.
141.
FROM, WITH, WITHOUT
142.
Modern architects insist without using the building materials native to local
areas.
143.
8. TO + VERB I
144.
IBM works with government agencies in the world to implement Linux
system.
145.
Motorola failed to anticipate the worldwide shift to digital call phones.
146.
General Motors had also found other ways to select the representative dealers.
147.
Voice over internet Protocol has the capacity to expand the wordwide services.
148.
9. USED TO & BE USED TO
149.
You used to visit Bandung last year. He is used to having lunch at the
campus cafetaria.
150.
You used to read the newspaper before going to campus. He is used to eating
a bowl of cereal for health.
151.
10. HAD BETTER & WOULD RATHER
152.
You had better reserveyour seats today if you wont to go by rain.
153.
You had better start getting up early so that go to get top clean on line.
154.
You would rather live with your husband again next year.
155.
You would rather not cook for the family together before going out.
156.
11. Noun + of + Noun
157.
It was the invention of the electronic calculator providing smell computergeneration.
158.
Each of the four typesof human teeth are suited for a specific purpose.
159.
Several different varieties of these may grow in a single acre.
160.
Nokia has develop a suite of mobile devices to support enterprise
communication.
161.
12. COMPARATIVE + THAN / THE + SUPERERLATIVE /DOUBLE COMPARATIVE /
MULTIPLE + AS MANY/MUCH + AS
162.
163.
Calligraphy is a greater art form than
painting in Arabic countries and China.
164.
Springs with higher temperature than
their surroundings are called thermal springs.
165.
The brains is the largest mass of nerve
tissue in the human body.
The decimal system is the worlds most useful ways of expressing numbers.
He Africa and Arabic countries are the worlds driest desert areas.
The United State is the worlds biggest democratic country.
The larger the water source, the greater the electric water-based power.
The bigger the market you build, the more shoppers you may hope.
The citizens in the densely populated bities consume meat twice as much as
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
they did in 1950.
172.
The research result shows that the number of vehicles are three times as
many as those in the cities.
173.
13. THERE + IS/ARE
174.
175.
There are really more beneficial insects than pest insects in many Asian and
African countries.
176.
177.
There are no important pieces of American fiction published in America before
1819.
178.
179.
On the moon there is no air because the moons gravitational field is too weak
to retain an atmosphere.
180.
181.
During the early period of ocean navigation, there was hardly any need for
sophisticated instrument.
182.
14. NEGATIVE EMPHASIS
183.
184.
Not only
185.
Never before was the bridge completely finished last year.
186.
Never again did the project manager cancel the work.
187.
Seldomare the animals reglected to leave home.
188.
Only rarely
does the man drive the car himself.
189.
Only after
has he visited his home town for the last ten
years.
190.
Not once
did she smoke cigarettes.
191.
192.
II. ADJECTIVE WORDS + PLURAL NOUN
1. Other + Plural Noun
193.
Other population densities are relatively concentrated in the cities.
194.
Other important export items were agricultural based products.
195.
2. Any Other + Plural Noun
196. The cabdriver didnt take any other passengers due to the floods.
197.
The pilot would rather not to fly any other renewable Aircrafts.
198.
3. All + Plural Noun
199. All scientific books are available in this book store.
200.
All developing countries propose the sustainable development.
201.
4. Some of + Plural Noun
35
242.
243.
stop
be called
be
informend
be
VI.
VII.
37
287.
smoking.
288.
soon.
289.
on the ceiling.
290.
as the best actress.
291.
292.
293.
*) propose, recommend, require, suggest, urge.
294.
295. importan
work
b. It is t
that he
in the management.
attend
be placed
296. imperati
the next meeting.
be
297. ve
in the front desk.
invited
298. essential
the opening ceremony.
299.
300.
ADJECTIVE CLAUSE
1. ADJECTIVE CLAUSE
301.
The flight which is scheduled for
Wednesday is suddenly canceled.
302.
The woman who works in the
company looks beautiful.
303.
2. ACTIVE/PASSIVE PARTICIPLE PHRASE
304.
The woman working in the
ceremony looks beautiful.
305.
306.
The students studying English in
the library feel excited.
307.
The flight scheduled for
Wednesday is suddenly canceled.
308.
The books commonly published by
Gramedia are expensive.
309.
SENTENCE
1. SVO/C/A
310.
The Alaskan highway, (that is) the
main artery between Alaska and the Continental US,
311.
runs more than 400 miles along the
west coast of North America.
312.
Architecture is the oldest art form,
combining beauty and functionality into one.
313.
2. PRESENT PERFECT TENSE
314.
For the last ten years solar power
has become important in satisfying the energy needs.
315.
Recently the researchers have
concluded that air pollution is a serious problem.
316.
3. SVO/C, Verb-Ing
317.
Electrical resistance is a common
property of all materials, differing in degree.
318.
They expanded their travel
advisory, improving the strategy of marketing.
319.
4. CONDITIONAL
VIII.
320.
IF you study hard, you will pass
the English language test.
321.
IF you studied hard, you would
pass the English language test.
322.
IF you had studied hard you
would have passed the English language test.
323.
5. PASSIVE
324.
The blue whale in the sea the largest
creature in the sea.
325.
Many issues in mass media by the
organizing commite.
326.
Some aspirin
for the babys health
recovery.
327.
A child in urban area
to see the
rural country.
328.
6. SIMPLE PAST TENSE
329.
The doctor spent a great amount of
money researching the tropical diseases in the developing countries.
330.
Three years ago the health workers in
India tried to assess the effects on cognition of radiotheraphy.
331.
ADJECTIVE
332.
1. SO + ADJECTIVE + THAT + SOV/C
333.
SUCH + A + ADJ. + N + THAT +
SVO/C
334.
The house is so small that it needs
enlarging.
335.
This plant is so big that it should be
moved outside.
336.
This is such a tall plant that it should
be cut down.
337.
These are such comfortable houses that
they are expensive.
338.
2. ADJECTIVE + ENOUGH
339.
The weather in this country is
comfortable enough for a tour.
340.
The house near the river bank is large
enough to dwell in.
341.
3. Adverb-ly + Adjective + (noun)
342.
It is a refreshingly unconventional point of view on the developed country.
343.
Katharine left behind a remarkably diverse network of friends worldwide.
344.
4. Adjective, Adjective + Noun
345.
Surabaya is an industrial, business city.
346.
Airlangga University is a smart, comfortable campus.
347.
5. THE + ADV.LY + VERB III + NOUN
348.
The densely populated cities in Indonesia have faced the clean water shortage.
349.
The illegally deforested areas have caused soil degradation.
350.
X.
39
3. NOUN CLAUSE
386.
That you get score 550 in th TOEFL test is completely amazing.
387.
That you stop smoking cigars makes your body healthy and fresh.
388.
4. MODIFIER
a. MODIFIER, SOV/CA
389.
After graduating from the collage, he wants to work in the city.
390.
When treating a patient, the doctor finds the lung cancer caused by the air
contamination.
391.
To prepare the English proficiency test, he studies five hours every day for
two months.
392.
b. SUBJECT, APPOSITIVE, VO/C
393.
The Toyota Prius, a second generation hybrid car, has an electric motor.
394.
Omron, a manufacturer of a wide range of high-tech equipment, is focused on
value added.
395.
Lenovo, Chinas leading computer maker, agreed to purchase IBM for end users.
396.
c. SUBJECT + TO INFINITIVE PHRASE + PREDICATE
397.
The preparation to take the TOEFL test has been done for a week.
398.
The journey to survey the location needs more than three hours.
399.
The diverse architecture to be found in ASEAN areas is living window into the
regions history.
400.
d. SUBJECT + PREPOSITION + WHICH + ADJ. CLAUSE + VO/C
401.
The library from which you borrow the book look new.
402.
The house with which you are concerned is repaired.
403.
5. IT CLAUSE
404.
It was recommended that the peoples middle-scale economy was supported by the
soft loan.
405.
It was promptly after the natural disaster in Aceh thata international aids were
seriously sent.
406.
6. AGREEMENT
407.
The facilities at the research center of university are among the best.
408.
The guest, along with his have and two sons, is seated at the front.
409.
7. CONJUNCTION
a. CONJUNCTION + ADVERB-LY + VERB III
410. As observed in Surabaya in 1999, atherosderosis was the most common
complication.
411. When appointed as president, he was recognized for his diplomacy.
412. If academically viewed from the business aspect, it is profitable.
413. While slightly interviewed, the pilot said that the order to fly was issued.
414.
b. CONJUNCTION + VERB-ING
415. When treating a patient, the doctor examines the throat to eradicate.
416. While interviewing the applicants, the employer offer the salary expected.
417.
c. CONJUNCTION + ADJ. PHRASE, SVO/C
418. When necessary to investigate, the case can be reported to the police.
419. If essential to investigate, the police will do it soon.
420.
421.
435.
41
439.
SECTION 1
440.
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
441.
Timeapproximately 35 minutes
(including the reading of the directions for each part)
442.
443.
444.
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to
demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in
English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions
for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated
or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not take notes or write in
your test book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told
to do so.
445.
446.
Part A
447.
448.
Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between
two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about
the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be
repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers
in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
449.
450.
Listen to an example.
451.
452.
On the recording, you will hear :
453.
(man)
That exam was just awful.
454.
(woman)
Oh, it could have been worse.
455.
(narrator)
What does the woman mean?
456.
457.
In your test book, you will read: (A) The exam was really
awful.
458.
(B) It was the worst exam she
had ever seen.
459.
(C) It couldnt have been more
difficult.
460.
(D) It wasnt that hard.
461.
462.
You learn from conversation that the man thought the exam
was very difficult and that the woman disagreed with the man. The
43
best answer to the question, What does the woman mean? is (D),
It wasnt that hard. Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
463.
464.
465.
466.
467.
468.
469.
470.
471.
472.
473. 1. A. Carla
does not live
very far away.
474.
B. What
Carla said was
unjust.
475.
C. He
does not fear
what anyone
says.
476.
D. Carla
is fairly rude to
others.
477.
478. 2. A. She
thinks its an
improvement.
479.
B. The
fir trees in it
are better.
480.
C. It
resembles the
last one.
481.
D. It is
the best the
man has ever
done.
482.
483. 3. A. He
graduated last
in his class.
484.
B. He is
the last person
in his family to
graduate.
485.
C. He
doesnt believe
he can improve
gradually.
486.
D. He
has finally
finished his
studies.
487.
488. 4. A. He
thought the
dress was so
chic.
489.
B. He
was surprised
the dress was
not expensive.
490.
C. He
would like to
know what
color dress it
was.
491.
D. The
dress was not
cheap.
492.
493. 5. A. Leave
the car
somewhere
else.
494.
B.
Ignore the
parking
tickets.
495.
C. Add
more money to
the meter.
496.
D. Pay
the parking
attendant.
497.
498. 6. A. He
does not like to
528.
518.
D. She
wants a new
wallet for
herself.
519.
520. 10. A. He
took a quick
trip.
521.
B. The
big boat was
towed through
the water.
522.
C.
There was coal
in the water.
523.
D. He
didnt go for a
swim.
524.
525. 11. A. She
just left her
sisters house.
526.
B. Her
sister left the
sweater
behind.
527.
C. She
believes her
sweater was
left at her
sisters house.
529.
D. She
doesnt know
where her
sister lives.
530.
531. 12. A. She
doesnt have
time
tocomplete
additional
532.
reports.
533.
B. She
cannot finish
the reports
that she is
534.
already
working on.
535.
C. She
is scared of
having
45
547. 14. A. He
cannot see the
huge waves.
548.
B. The
waves are not
coming in.
549.
C. He
would like the
woman to
repeat what
she
550.
said.
551.
D. He
agrees with
the woman.
552.
553. 15. A. The
exam was
postponed.
554.
B. The
man should
have studied
harder.
555.
C.
Night is the
best time to
study for
exams.
556.
D. She
is completely
prepared for
the exam.
572.
occur when
people dont
wait their
565.
turn.
566.
567. 17. A. In a
mine.
568.
B. In a
jewerly store.
569.
C. In a
clothing store.
570.
D. In a
bank.
571. 18. A. A
visit
to
the
womans
family.
B. The telephone bill.
573.
C. The cost of a new
trelephone.
574.
D. How far away the
womans family lives
575.
576. 19. A. She
hasnt met her
new boss yet.
577.
B. She
has
a
good
opinion of her
boss.
578.
C. Her
boss has asked
her about her
579.
imp
ressions of the
company.
580.
D. Her
boss has been
putting a lot of
pressure
581.
on
her.
582.
583. 20. A. The
racital starts in
three hours.
584.
B. He
intends
to
recite
three
different
poems.
585.
C. He
received
a
citation on the
third of the
586.
mont
h.
587.
D. He
thinks
the
performance
begins
at
three.
588.
589. 21.
A.
Choose a new
dentist.
590.
B. Cure
the
pain
himself.
591.
C.
Make
an
appointment
with
his
dentist.
592.
D. Ask
his
dentist
about the right
way to brush.
593.
594. 22. A. It is
almost
five
oclock.
595.
B. The
man
doesnt
really need the
stamps.
596.
C. It is
a long way to
the post office.
597.
D. It
would
be
better to go
after
five
oclock.
598.
599. 23. A. The
article
was
placed
on
reserve.
600.
B. The
woman
must
ask
the
professor for a
601.
copy
.
602.
C. The
woman should
look through a
number
603.
jour
nals
in
the
library.
604.
D. He
has
reservations
about
the
information in
605.
the
article.
606.
607. 24. A. He
needs to take a
nap.
608.
B. He
hopes
the
woman
will
47
625.
C. The
exact amount
of
snow
is
unclear.
626.
D. He
expected
the
woman to go
out in the
627.
sno
w.
628.
629. 28.
A.
Shes going to
take the test
over again.
630.
B. She
thinks she did
a good job on
the exam.
631.
C. She
has not yet
taken
the
literature
exam.
632.
D.
Shesunhappy
with how she
did.
633.
634. 29. A. The
door
was
unlocked.
635.
B. It
was better to
wait outside.
636.
C. He
could notopen
the door.
637.
D. He
needed to take
a walk.
638.
639. 30. A. He
nailed
the
doorshut.
640.
B. He
is heading
home.
641.
C. He
hit
himselfin
the head.
642.
D. He
is absolutely
correct.
643.
644.
645.
646.
647.
652.
653.
648.
649.
650.
651.
654.
Part B
655.
656. DIRECTIONS: In this part of the test, you will hear
longer conversations. After each conversation, you will
hear several questions. The conversations ad questions
will not be repeated.
657.
After you hear a question, read the four possible
answers in your test book and select the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter
for the answer you have chosen. Remember, you are not
allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
658.
659. 31. A. The
672.
C. The
haircut is
scissors
unusually short.
usedtoc ut his
660.
B. This
hair.
is Bobs first
673.
D. Piles
haircut.
of his hair.
661.
C. Bob
674.
doesnt
675. 34. A. You
knowwho gave
should become
him thehaircut.
a hairstylist.
662.
D. After
676.
B.
the haircut.
Please put it
Bobs hair still
back on.
touches the
677.
C. Itll
663.
floor.
grow back.
664.
678.
D. It
665. 32. A. It is
wont grow fast
just what he
enough.
wanted.
679.
666.
B. He
680. 35. A.
enjoys having
Every evening.
the latest style.
681.
B.
667.
C. He
Every week.
dislikes it
682.
C.
immensely.
Every Sunday.
668.
D. he
683.
D.
thinks it will be
Every month.
cool in the
684.
summer.
685. 36. A. That
669.
she was eighty670. 33. A. A
five years old.
broken mirror.
686.
B. That
671.
B. The
a storm was
hairstylist.
coming.
49
699.
B.
Watch the
weather
forecasts with
his great700.
grandmother.
701.
C. Help
his greatgrandmother
relieve some of
702.
her
pressures.
703.
D.
Believe his
greatgrandmothers
predictions
704.
about the
weather.
705.
706.
707.
708.
709.
710.
711.
723.
712. Part C
713.
714. DIRECTIONS: In this part of the test, you will hear
several talks. After each talk, you will hear some
questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
715.
716. After you hear a question, you will read the four
possible answers in your test book and choose the best
answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.
717.
718. Here is an example.
719.
720. On the recording, you will hear:
721.
722. (narrator) Listen to an instructor talk to his class
about painting.
(man)
Artist Grant Wood was a gilding force in the
school of painting known as American regionalist, a style reflecting
the distinctive characteristics of art from rural areas of the United
States. Wood began drawing animals on the family farm at the age
of three, and when he was thirty-eight one of his paintings received
a remarkable amount of public notice and acclaim. This painting,
called American Gothic, is a starkly simple depiction of serious
couple staring directly out at the viewer.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
724.
725. Now listen to a sample question.
726.
727. (narrator) What style of painting is known as
American regionalist?
728.
729. In your test book, you will read:
Art from Americas inner cities.
Art from the central region of the United States.
Art from various urban areas in the United States.
Art from rural section of America.
730.
731. The best answer to the question What style of
painting is known as American regionalist? is (D), Art
from rural section of America. Therefore, the correct
choice is (D).
732.
733. Now listen to another sample question.
734. (narrator) What is the name of Woods most
successful painting?
735.
736. In your test book, you will read:
American Regionalist.
The Family Farm in Iowa.
American Gothic.
A serious Couple.
737.
738. The best answer to the question What is the name of
Woods most successful painting? is (C), American
Gothic. Therefore, the correct choice is (C).
739.
740. Remember, you arenot allowed to take notes or write
in your test book.
741.
742. 39. A. In a
750.
D. It
car.
means they are
743.
B. On a
pretending to
hike.
be sad.
744.
C. On a
751.
tram.
752. 41. A. They
745.
D. In a
are sad.
lecture hall.
753.
B. They
746.
are warming
747. 40. A. It
themselves.
means they
754.
C. They
have big tears.
are getting rid
748.
B. It
of salt.
means they like
755.
D. They
swim.
regret their
749.
C. It
actions.
means they
756.
look like
757. 42. A.
crocodiles.
Taking
photographs.
51
780.
D.
Some written
homework.
781.
782. 47. A.
Writers.
783.
B.
Actors.
784.
C.
Athletes.
785.
D.
Musicians.
786.
787. 48. A. He or
she would see
butterflies.
788.
B. He
or she would
break a leg.
789.
C. He or
she would have
shaky knees.
790.
D. He
or she would
stop breathing.
791.
792. 49. A. By
staring at the
audience.
793.
B. By
breathing
shallowly.
794.
C. By
thinking about
possible
negative
outcomes.
795.
D. By
focusing on
what needs to
be done.
796.
797. 50. A. At
two oclock.
798.
B. At
four oclock.
799.
C. At six
oclock.
800.
D.At
eight oclock.
803.
804.
805.
806.
807.
808.
809.
810.
811.
812.
STOP
813.
814. This is the end of Section 1.
815.
816. Read the directions for Section 2.
817. Do not read or work on any other section of the test.
818. Look at the time now before you begin work on
Section 2.
819. Use exactly 25 minutes to work on Section 2.
820.
821.
822.
823.
824.
SECTION 2
825.
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
826. PART A
827. Directions: Questions 1-10 are incomplete sentences.
Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases,
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or
phrase that best completes the sentence.
828.
1. _____ range in color from pale
yellow to bright orange.
(A) Canaries
(B) Canaries which
(C)That canaries
(D)Canaries that are
829.
2. Carnivorous plants _____ insects
to obtain nitrogen.
(A) are generally trapped
(B) trap generally
(C)are trapped generally
(D)generally trap
830.
3. A federal type of government
result in ______.
(A) a vertical distribution of
power
(B) power
is
distributed
vertically
(C)vertically ditributed
53
845.
16.Light can travels from the Sun to the Earth in eight minutes and twenty
seconds.
846.
A
B
C
D
17.Every human typically have twenty-three pairs of chromosomes in most
cells.
847.
A
B
C
D
18.In the sport of fencing, three type of swords are used: the foil, the epee, and
the sabre.
848.
A
B
C
D
19.The Internal Revenue Service uses computers to check tax return
computations, to determine the
849.
A
B
850.
reasonableness of deductions, and for verifying the accuracy of
reported income.
851.
C
D
20.There was four group of twenty rats each involved in the test.
852.
A
B
C
D
21.The type of jazz known as swing was introduced by Duke Ellington when
he wrote and records
853.
A
B
C
D
854.
It Dont Mean a Thing Iof It Aint Got That Swing.
855.
22.The bones of mammals, not alike those of other vertebrates, show a high
degree of differentiation.
856.
A
B
C
D
23.The United States receives a large amount of revenue from taxation of a
tobacco products.
857.
A
B
C
D
24.Much fats are composed of one moleculeof glycerin combined with three
molecules of fatty acids.
858.
A
B
C
D
25.The capital of the Confederacy was originally in Mobile, but they were
moved to Richmond.
859.
A
B
C
D
26.A pearls develops when a tiny grain of sand or some another irritant
accidentally enters into the shell
860.
A
B
C
D
861.
of a pearl oyster.
27.The English horn is an alto oboe with a pitch one fifth lower as that of the
soprano oboe.
862.
A
B
C D
28.In the Milky Way galaxy, the most recent observed supernova appeared in
1604.
863. A
B
C
D
29.Although the name suggests otherwise, the ship known as Old Ironsides was
built of oak and cedar
864. A
B
C
865.
rather than it was built of iron.
866.
D
30.Never in the history of humanity there have been more people living on this
relatively small planet.
867.
A
B
C
D
31.Because of the mobile of Americans today, it is difficult for them to put down
real roots
868.
A
B
C
D
32.For five years after the Civil War, Robert E. Lee served to president of
Washington College, which
869.
A
B
D
870.
later was called Washington and Lee.
55
871.
D
33.Doctors successfully used hypnosis during World War II to treat fatigue
battle.
872.
A
B
C
D
34.The lobster, like many crustaceans, can cast off a damaging appendage and
regenerate a new appendage
873.
A
B
C
874.
to nearly normal size.
875.
D
35.The main cause of the oceanstides is the gravitation pull of the Moon.
876.
A
B
C
D
36.The curricula of American public schools are set in individual states; they do
not determine by the
877.
A
B C
D
878.
federal government.
37.The fact that the sophisticated technology has become part of revolution in
travel delivery systems has
879.
A
B
C
880.
not made travel schedules less hectic.
881.
D
38.Balanchines plotless ballets, such Jewels and The Four Temperaments,
present dance purely as a
882.
A
B
C
D
883.
celebration of the movement of the human body.
39.In a solar battery, a photosensitive semiconducting substance such as silicon
crystal is the source of
884.
A
B
C
885.
electrician.
886.
D
40.In early days hydrochloric acid was done by heating a mixture of sodium
chloride with iron sulfate.
887.
A
B
C
D
888.
889.
890.
891.
892.
893.
894.
895.
896.
897.
898.
899.
56
900.
STOP
901.
902. This is the end of Section 2.
903.
904. Read the directions for Section 3.
905. Do not read or work on any other section of the test.
906. Look at the time now before you begin work on
Section 3.
907. Use exactly 55 minutes to work on Section 3.
908.
909.
910.
912.
SECTION 3
911.
READING COMPREHENSION
913.
57
2.
(C)Rain, snow and humidity
3. Which of the following is
(D)Rain, hail and humidity.
another word that is often used
6.
in place of precipitation?
7. What is the average annual
(A) Humidity
rainfall in inches in the United
(B) Wetness
States?
(C)Rainfall
(A) Thirty-six inches
(D)Rain-snow
(B) Thirty-eight inches
4.
(C)Forty inches
5. The term precipitation includes
(D)Forty-two inches
(A) Only rainfall
8.
(B) Rain, hail and snow
9.
10.
11.If a state has 40 inches of snow
17.Which of the following was
in a year, by how much does
NOT mentioned as a factor in
this
increase
the
annual
determining the amount of
precipitation?
precipitation that an area will
(A) By two feet
receive?
(B) By four inches
(A) Mountains
(C)By four feet
(B) Latitude
(D)By 40 inches
(C)The sea
12.
(D)Wind
13.The phrase proximity to in
18.
line 11 is closest in meaning to?
19.The word substantially in line
(A) Communication with
19 could best be replaced by
(B) Dependence on
(A) Fundamentally
(C)Nearness to
(B) Slightly
(D)Similarly to
(C)Completely
14.
(D)Apparently
15.Where
is
the
annual
20.
precipitation highest?
21.The word that in line 21
(A) The Atlantic Ocean
refers to
(B) The Great Lakes
(A) Decreases
(C)The Gulf of Mexico
(B) Precipitation
(D)The Pasific Ocean
(C)Areas
16.
(D)Mountain range
22.
23.Question 11-20
24.
25.
Course numbers are an indication of which courses are open
to various categories of students at the university. Undergraduate courses
with the number 100 or 200 are generally introductory courses
appropriate for freshmen or sophomores, whereas courses with the
(5) number 300 or 400 often have prerequisites and are open tojuniors and
seniors only. Courses with the numbers 800 above are open only to
graduate students. Certain graduate courses, generally those devoted to
introductory material, are numbered 400 for undergraduates students
who qualify to take them and 600 for graduate students. Courses designed
(10) for students seeking a professional degree carry a 500 number for
undergraduare students and a 700 number for graduate students. Courses
numbered 99 or below are special interest courses that do not carry
academic credit. If students elect to take a special interest course, it will
not count toward the number ofhours needed tocomplete graduation
requirements.
58
26.
A full-time undergraduates student is expected to take
courses that total twelve to eighteen credit hours. A full time graduate
student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen credit hours.
(15) Students holding assisyantships are expected to enroll for proportionately
fewer hours, a part time graduate student may register for a minimum of
three credit hours. An overload, this is, more than maximum number of
hours, may be taken with the approval of an academic advisor. To register
for an overload, student must submit the appropriate approval form when
registering. Overloads above 24 hours willnot be approved underany
circumstances.
27.
28.
29.
30.Where would this passage most
40.If an undergraduate student
likely be found?
uses the number 520 to
(A) In a syllabus
register for an accounting
(B) In a college catalog
course, what number would a
(C)In an undergraduate course
graduate student probably use
(D)In an graduate course
to register for the same course?
31.
(A) Accounting 520
32.What is the purpose of the
(B) Accounting 620
passage?
(C)Accounting 720
(A) To inform
(D)Accounting 820
(B) To persuade
41.
(C)To criticize
42.How is a student who resgiters
(D)To apologize
for
eight
credit
hours
33.
classified?
34.The word prerequisites in
(A) Full time student
line 4 is closest in meaning to
(B) Graduate student
(A) Courses required before
(C)Part time student
enrolling
(D)Non degree student
(B) Course
needed
for
43.
graduation
44.Which of the following courses
(C)Courses
that
include
would not be included in the
additional charges
list of courses for graduation?
(D)Courses that do not carry
(A) English 90
academic credit
(B) English 100
35.
(C)English 300
36.The word those in line 6
(D)English 400
refers to
45.
(A) Graduate students
46.
(B) Graduate courses
47.
(C)Introductory courses
48.
(D)Courses numbers
49.
37.
50.A graduate students may NOT
38.Which classification of students
(A) Enroll
in
a
course
would be eligible to enroll in
numbered 610
mechanical Engineering 850?
(B) Register for only one one(A) A graduate student
hour course
(B) A part time student
(C)Register for courses if he
(C)A full time student
has an assistanship
(D)An undergraduate student
(D)Enroll inan introductory
39.
course
51.
59
52.The
phrase
under
any
53.
circumtances in line 20 is
54.
closest in meaning to
55.
(A) Without cause
56.
(B) Without permission
57.
(C)Without exception
58.
(D)Without a good reason
59.
60.
61.Question 21-30
62.
63.
The temperature of the Sun is over 5,000 degree fahrenheit
at the surface, but it rises to perhaps more than 16 million degrees at the
center. The sun is so much hotter than the earth that matter can exist only
as a gas, except at the core. In the core of the Sun, the pressures are so
(5) great against the gases that, despite the high temperature, there may be a
small solid core. However, no one really knows, since the center of the Sun
can never be directly observed.
64.
Solar astronomers doknowthat the Sun is divided into five
layers orzones. Starting at the outside and goinng down into the Sun, the
zones are the corona, chromospheres, photosphere,convection zone, and
finally the core. The first three zones are regarded as the Suns
(10) Atmosphere. But since the Sun has no solid surface, it is hard to tell where
the atmosphere ends and the main body of the Sun begins.
65.
The Suns outermost layer begins about 10,000 miles above
the visible surface and goes ouward for millions of miles. This is the only
part of the Sun that can be seen during an eclipse such as the one in
February 1979. At any other time,the corona can be seen only when special
(15) instruments are used on cameras and telescopes to shut out the glare of
the Suns rays.
66.
The corona is a brilliant, pearly white, filmy light, about as
bright as the full moon. Its beautiful rays are a sensational sight during an
eclipse. The coronas rays flash out in a brilliant fan that has wispy spike
like rays near the Suns north and south poles. The corona is thickest at
the Suns equator.
67.
The corona rays are made up of gases streaming outward at
(20) tremendous speeds and reaching a temperature of more than 2 million
degree Fahrenheit. The rays of gas thin out as they reach the spacearound
the planets. By the time the Sunss corona rays reach the Earth, they are
weak and invisible.
68.
69.The word great in line 4 is
(D)The distance of the Sun
closest in meaninng to
from the planets
(A) Dangerous
72.
(B) Unknown
73.All of following are parts of the
(C)Variable
Suns atmosphere EXCEPT the
(D)Strong
(A) Corona
70.
(B) Chromospheres
71.With what topic is the second
(C)Photosphere
paragraph mainly concerned?
(D)Core
(A) How the Sun evolved
74.
(B) The structure of the Sun
75.The word one in line 14
(C)Why scientists study the
refers to
Sun
(A) The Sun
(B) The corona
60
(C)An eclipse
(D)Photograph the Sun
(D)The surface
78.
76.
79.It can be inferred from the
77.The purpose of the special
passage that a clear view of the
instruments mentioned in line
Suns outer layer is usually
15 is to
prevented by
(A) Magnify the image of the
(A) The Suns rays
Sun
(B) An eclipse
(B) Block out the Suns intense
(C)Lack of light
light
(D)The great distance
(C)Measure the amount of
energy emitted by the Sun
80.The word sensational in lina
(A) The remaining layers of the
18 is closest in meaning to
Sun
(A) Spectacular
(B) The evolution of the Sun to
(B) Predictable
its presents form
(C)Bizarre
(C)The eclipse of February
(D)Constant
1979
81.
(D)The scientists who study
82.According to the passage as the
astronomy
corona rays reach the planets,
86.
they become
87.Where in the passage does the
(A) Hotter
author compare the light of the
(B) Clearer
Suns outermost layer to that of
(C)Thinner
another astronomical body?
(D)Stronger
(A) Lines 2 3
83.
(B) Lines 9 10
84.
(C)Line 17 18
85.The paragraph following the
(D)Lines 22 - 23
passage most likely discuss
which of the following?
88.
89.Question 31-40
90.
91.
The acacia is a genus of trees and shrubs of the Mimosa
family. Although nearly five hundred species of Acacia have been
identified, only about a dozen of the three hundred Australian varieties
grow well in the southern United States, and these, only three are
(5) flowering. The Bailey Acacia has fernlike silver leaves and small, fragrant
flowers arranged in rounded clusters. The Silver Wattle, although very
similar to the Bailey Acacia, grows twice as high. The Sydney Golden
Wattle is squat and bushy with broad, flat leaves and sharp spine twigs.
Named for its bright, yellow flowers, the Golden Wattle is the most showy
(10) and fragrant of the Acacia. Another variety, the
Black Acacia or
Blackwood, has dark green leaves and obtrusive blossoms. Besides being a
popular tree for ornamental purposes, the Black Acacia is valuable for its
dark wood, which is used in making cabinets and furniture, including
highly prized pianos.
92.
The Acacias unusual custom of blossoming in February has
been commonly attributed to its Australian origins. In the Southern
Hemisphere, of course, the seasons are reversed, and February, which is
wintertime in the United States, is summertoomei Australia. Actually,
however, the pale, yellow blossoms appear in August in Australia.
61
62
colonies. By 1637, the fort had expanded into the village of New
Amsterdam, and other small communities had grown up around it,
including New Harlem and Stuyvesants Bourwery, and New Amsterdam
began to prosper, developing characteristics of religious and linguistic
tolerance unusual for the times. By 1643, it was reported that eighteen
(10) different language were heard in New Amsterdam alone.
118.
Among the multilingual settlers was a large group of English
colonies from Connecticut and Massachusetts who supported the English
(15) Kings claim to all of New Netherlands set out charter that gave territory
to his brother James, the Duke of
York. In 1664, when the English sent
a formidable fleet of warship into the New Amsterdam harbor, Dutch
governor Peter Stuyvesant surrended without resistance.
119.
When the English acquired the island, the village of New
Amsterdam was renamed New York in honor of Duke. By the onset of the
(20) revolution, New York City was already a bustling commercial center. After
the war, it was selected as the first capital of the United states. Although
the government was eventually moved, first to Philadelphia and then to
Washington D.C., New Yorl City has remained the unofficial commercial
capital.
120.
During the 1690s, New Yorl became a heaven for pirates
who conspired with leading merchants to exchange many agricultural
products for English manufactured goods. In addition, trade with the West
Indies prospered. Three centuries afterhis initial trade with the indians,
Minuits tiny investment was worth more than than seven billion dollars.
121.
122. Which of following would be
129.
the best title for this passage?
130. Why were so many languages
(A) A history of New York City
spoken in New Amsterdam?
(B) An
account
of
Dutch
(A) Because the Dutch West
Colonies
India Company was owned
(C)A biography of Peter Minuit
by England
(D)The first Capital of the
(B) Because the Dutch West
United States
India
Company
allowed
123.
freedom of speech
124. What did the Indians receive
(C)Because the Dutch West
in exchange for their island?
India Company recruited
(A) Sixty Dutch guilders
settlers from many different
(B) $ 24.12 U.S.
countries in Europe
(C)Goods and supplies
(D)Because the Indians who
(D)Land in New Amsterdam
lived there before the Dutch
125.
West
India
Company
126. Where was New Amsterdam
purchase
spoke
many
located?
language
(A) In Holland
131.
(B) In North America
132. The word formidable in line
(C)On the island of Manhattan
18 is closest in meaning to
(D)In India
(A) Powerful
127.
(B) Modern
128. The word heterogeneous in
(C)Expensive
line 8 could best be replaced by
(D)Unexpected
(A) Liberal
133.
(B) Renowned
134. The name of New Amsterdam
(C)Diverse
was changed?
(D)Prosperous
63
137.
138. Which city was the first
capital of the new United
States?
(A) New Amsterdam
(B) New York
(C)Philadelphia
(D)Washington
139.
140. On what date was Manhattan
valued at $7 billion?
(A) 1626
(B) 1726
(C)1656
(D)1926
141.
142.
143.