Ju J 2010 Science

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010
SCIENCE MODULE FOR SPM 2010

Contents
No
Items
pages
01
Format of an instrument for the evaluation of Science SPM

(Actual examination format)
02
Analysis of SPM science Paper 2005 -2009
03
Examination tips
04
Answering Strategy
05
Sets of questions
12
06
Scheme
227
07
Set of Practice Bestari Questions
256 - 290
08
Practise Bestari Scheme
291 - 307
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FORMAT OF INSTRUMENT FOR THE EVALUATION OF SCIENCE BEGINNING

SPM 2003
NO
ITEM
PAPER 1(1511/1)
PAPER 2 (1511/2)
01
Type of instrument
Objective test
Subjective test
02
Type of item
Objective item with

Multiple Choice
Multiple combination
Each item has four option,
A,B, C and D
Subjective item
Section A:
Structured item
Section B:
Response item
Section C:
Essay
Open response item
Limited response item
03
Number of Question
50 (answer all)
Section A
4 (answer all questions)
20 marks
Section B
5 (answer all questions)
30 marks
Section C
Answer question 10
And
Either question 11 or 12
04
Total marks
50
70
05
Method to responses
Mark on OMR sheet
Write in the spaces

provided on question
paper.
06
Duration of test
1 hour 15 minutes
2 hour and 30 minutes
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07
Construct requirement
Knowledge
: 25
Understanding :15
Application
:10
Knowledge
Understanding
Scientific skills
Application
08
Example of item base on

construct
Refer LPM question
Refer LPM question
09
Marking Scheme
(1 or 0 mark)
Analytical
10
Coverage responses
Evaluate the constructs on

all context
Evaluate the constructs on

all context
11
Level of difficulty
Low
:L
Moderate :M
High
:H
L: M: H= 5:3:2
L:M:H= 5:3:2
Extra instrument
Calculator
12
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Overall
L:M:H=5:3:2
:20
:14
:30
:6

ANALYSIS OF THE SPM SCIENCE PAPER ( 2005 - 2009 )
CHAPTER
O
1 Scientific Investigation
2 Body Coordination
3 Heredity and Variation
4 Matter and Substance
5 Energy and Chemical Changes
6 Nuclear energy
7 Light, Colour and Sight
8 Chemicals in Industry
Number of Form 4 Questions
9 Microorganisms and Their
Effect on Living Things
10 Nutrition and Food Production
11 Preservation and Concervation
of the Environment
12 Carbon Compounds
13 Motion
14 Food Thecnology and
Production
15 Synthetic Materials in industry
16 Electronics and Information
and
Communication Technology
Number of Form 5 Questions
TOTAL
3
4
4
3
2
5
2
23
4
2005
A B
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
1
1
3
4
5
4
4
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4
5
1
1
O = Objective question
P = Practical Question
3
5
4
3
3
3
3
24
5
1
2
4
2
5
1
1
1
1
2
1
3
2
26
50
2
4
2
5
T = Theory question
E = Essay question
QUESTION
2007
O A B C
5
3
3
4
2
5
2
24
3
3
3
4
4
2
3
2
21
5
1
1
1
1
2
1
4
2
5
5
2
1
3
3
2
2
2
27
50
2006
A B
1
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
3
26
50
2
4
3
5
2008
A B
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
6
3
5
1
1
1
1
1
29
50
3
5
1
1
1
1
1
1
3
5
1
1
2
1
1
3
2
4
3
2
3
2
3
4
4
4
3
4
3
2
24
4
4
2
2
2
2009
A B
2
3
26
50
1
3
4
2
5
1
3

EXAMINATIONS TIPS
ERRORS IN LANGUAGE
1. Wrong spelling.
2. Repeat answer using different sentence structure.
3. Use of active voice when writing a report .
SUGGESTION TO CANDIDATES
1. Master the basic concepts and facts
2. For practical, ensure that you have mastered all the skills regarding the process in
science.
3. Use the right / accurate terminologies
4. Elaborate in sequence and avoid repetition of facts.
5. Do more exercises
6. Avoid mixing languages in the answer.
7. Ensure there is detailed observation on the stimulus given.
SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS
1. Each step in a scientific investigation should be carried out to ensure a good grasp of
skills pertaining to basic science processes.
2. Ensure all the students are well versed in all topics.
3. Ensure students master the skills of science processes.
4. Use a variety of teaching and learning method.
5. Prepare worksheets which include a lot of stimulus.
6. Expose student to the exam formatted questions from form 1.
7. Increase the number of exercises.
ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR PAPER 1
STRATEGIES
1.Student must find/prepare / collect sets of topical objective question from revision
book.
2.Do test and retest until get 85% correct for each topical sets.
3.Practise answering each objective question in 1 minutes 30 seconds.
4.Practise answering high level question using Eliminate method
TEST AND RETEST METHOD
1.Get topical objective question from dependable source.
2.Do topical exercise.
3.If the mark gain less than 85% (set of 50 question 43 must correct), Redo the
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exercise on the same topic until you get 85 % or more.
4.Preparation activities for redo exercise include ( reading textbook, notes, mind
map, discussion and ask teacher)
5.If you are already achieve 85% , do the same for another topic.
6.If you are already done all 15 topics until November, it means you are 85% confidence
to be in examination hall.
ELIMINATE METHOD
EXAMPLE 1
1.What is the similarity between meiosis and mitosis ?
a. Number of daughter cells produced
b. Duplication of the chromosomes
c. Number of chromosomes in the daughter cell
d. Both are important in the growth of an organism
EXAMPLE 2
2.What happens to a person if his thyroid gland secretes excessive hormone into the
blood?
A The blood pressure increases
B The glucose level in the blood decreases
C The metabolic rate increases
D The salt level in the blood decreases
Notes:
1. To answer this question find the incorrect answer first.
2 . Reject that answer ( 3 distracters left)
3. Reject one more incorrect answer ( 2 distracters left)
4. Try to reject one more incorrect answer (One distracter only left) that is the answer.
ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR PAPER 2

SECTION A ( Alternative test to practical, 20 marks )
In this section the students must answer 4 questions which carry 20 marks. All the items in
this section will deal with Science Process Skills. In order for the students to get the answers,
they need to acquire the skills listed below. The students can get the answer from the question
and the stimulus implicitly and explicitly.
Science Process Skills (list and definition)
Science Process Skills enable students to formulate their questions and find out the answer
systematically.
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Descriptions of science process skills are as follows:
Observing
Using the sense of hearing, touch, smell, taste and sight to collect information about an object
or a phenomenon.
Classifying
Using observation to group objects or events according to similarities or differences
Measuring and Using Numbers
Making quantitative observations using numbers and tools with standardised units. Measuring
makes observation more accurate.
Inferring
Using past experiences or previously collected data to draw conclusions and make
explanations of events.
Predicting
Stating the outcome of a future event based on prior knowledge gained through experiences of
collecting data
Communicating
Using words or graphic symbols such as tables, graphs, figures or models to describe an
action, object or event.
Interpreting Data
Giving rational explanations about an object, event or pattern derived from collected data.
Defining Operationally
Defining concepts by describing what must be done and what should be observed
Controlling Variables
Identifying the fixed variable, manipulated variable and responding variable in an
investigation. The manipulated variable is changed to observe its relationship with the
responding variable. At the same time, the fixed variable is kept constant
Hypothesising
Making a general statement about the relationship between a manipulated variable and a
responding variable in order to explain an event or observation. This statement can be tested
to determine its validity.
Experimenting
Planning and conducting activities to test a certain hypothesis. These activities include
collecting, analysing and interpreting data and making conclusions.
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Guide to answering question in Section A
1. Each question in section A is an alternative question to the real practical exam
2. Hence data are usually given and the candidate is asked to make an inference or
conclusion, or experiment results are given and the candidate is required to give an answer
about the process in conducting an investigation.
3. Among the matters raised in the question are :
a) Making qualitative and quantitative observations from the diagrams or through the
measurements
b) Drawing diagram, graphs, tables or charts according to data or information given.
c) Making predictions, hypotheses, inferences and conclusions based on the candidates
scientific knowledge
d) Identifying a variable that is kept constant, that is manipulated and responds
4. Your answer should be brief but accurate based on information given or obtained from
your framework
ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR SCIENCE PROCESS SKILL QUESTIONS
A) Controlled Variable
Ways to find variables
1. From the sentence, find out the variables
Examples:
Steps:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Underline variables in the sentence

The underlined variables refer to manipulated variable and responding variable
Find out which variable that the change is fixed. This is the manipulated variable
The other one is responding variable.
2. From the table

Example 1:
Time/minute
Temperature/C
0
28
2
48
4
68
6
88
8
102
Steps:
a) Manipulated and responding variable given from the title of table are time and
temperature.
b) Time is manipulated variable because time are increase or changes.
c) Temperature is responding variable because changes of temperature
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10
102

Section B(Structured questions 30 marks)
1. This section covers five structured questions which are compulsory .
2. Most of these questions test the candidates command of knowledge and
understanding of facts, procedure of an experiment, concepts,principles, theories and
laws
3. Sometimes answers can be obtained from symbols,diagrams,tables and graphps
through interpretation and graphic extrapolation.
4. You must read the instruction at the beginning carefully so that you understand the
matter tested and obtain ideas to answer the questions.
5. A small part of the question generally relates to a subsequent part.
Guide to answering questions in section B
1.Usually, you need to use your knowledge of scientific facts ,principles and theories to
answer the questions.
2.Your answers should be brief and accurate.
Section C ( Essay questions, 20 marks)
1. This section contains three questions. Question 1 is compulsory and you may choose
either question 2 or 3.
2. Question 1 test the candidates command of scientific skills in experimenting as well
as the ability to make reports.
3. This question begins with a general statement, e.g. Acidic substances have a sour
test. The candidate is required to give a hypothesis based on the statement. Then, the
candidate is required to described the experiment based on the following to test the
hypothesis.
a)Aim of experiment
b)Identification of variables
c)List of apparatus and materials
d)Procedure
e)Tabulation of data
f)Conclusion
4. Questions 2 and 3, are usually short but the candidate is required to use his or
her knowledge and understanding of scientific concepts and theories to answer.
5. In this context, the candidate has to answer the question by drawing and writing a
Short essay following the instruction of the question.
6. All answers must be written in the space provided below each question.
Guide to answer the essay questions in section C
1. The format of question 1 is fixed and the candidate is required to answer it in the
same way as writing a report after an experiment.
2. For question 2 and 3, choose one you are confident in and answer it properly to obtain
maximum marks.
3. To answer this question, identify the key words which usually appear at the
beginning of the question.
4. Key words and the type of answer required are listed below:
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No
Key words
Type of answer
State
Give facts without explanation
Define
The answer must be specific statements of a concepts or

principle usually found in
Describe
Explain in detail and systematically procedures,events or

natural phenomena
Explain
Give reasons to explain the occurrence of a concept or a

principle.
Compare
List the similarities and differences between two different

matters.
Discuss
Give analytical and critical explanation.
Suggest
Give views and opinions based on knowledge, scientific

concepts and theories.
What
i)Give facts of information.

ii)Give explanation.
Why
Give explanation and reasons
10
How
i)List or describe steps in a process or a procedure in

carrying out an operation.
ii)Explain an event or phenomenon according to scientific
concepts and theories.
5.Apart from written answer, some questions require the candidate to draw and label
diagrams. In this contex, the diagrams should be clear, clean and of suitable size.
6.Wherever necessary, the workout of the calculation must be clearly shown in the space
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10

provided.
7.For an essay question which requires a long answer, plan your answer step-by-step and
write in short paragraphs
8.In an essay answer, each sentence should cover only one point in order to get one mark
which is usually allotted.
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11

CHAPTER 1: SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION
1.
The diagram below shows the statement

that represents the steps that involved in
the method of scientific investigation.
P
Q
R
S
T
U
V
2.
Forming a hypothesis.
Planning the investigation.
Identifying the problem.
Carrying out the investigation.
Making conclusion.
Analysing and interpreting
data.
Identifying the variables.
Which of the following are correct steps

that involved in the method of scientific
investigation?
A
B
C
D
5.
6.
Collecting data
Making observation
Forming a hypothesis
Identifying the problem
A
B
C
D
I, II and III only

I, II and IV only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
Why the method of scientific investigation

important?
Can be more observant and more
analytical.
II Think creatively and critically.
misconceptions
and
III Avoid
misinterpretations.
IV Effective in gaining, organizing, and
applying new knowledge.
The following statement are the variables

that should be identified. Which of the
following is not true?
A
B
C
D
7.
8.
I, II and III only

I, II and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
A complete experiment report should

contain the following, except
A
B
C
D
Hypothesis is a simple statement of what

one thinks will happen as a result of an
experiment. It usually shows the
relationship between
A the fixed variable and the responding

variable.
B the fixed variable and the manipulated
variable.
C the responding variable and the
manipulated variable.
D the responding variable and the
independent variable.
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I
II
III
IV
P, V, Q, S, U, T, R
R, V, P, Q, S, U, T
T, R, P, V, Q, S, U
R, P, V, Q, S, U, T
A Fixed variable is the variable that is

kept constant or unchanged.
B Manipulated variable is the variable
that is change to see its effect.
C Responding variable is the variable that
changes in response to the fixed
variable.
D Responding variable is the variable that
changes in response to the manipulated
variable.
4
Which of the following steps have been

carried
out
before
planning
the
investigation?
Operational definition.
Material and apparatus.
The aim of the experiment.
The size of the container influences the
rate of cooling.
Which of the following not the parts of the

step analysing and interpreting data?
A Plot a graph.
B Organizing the data.
C Find the relationships between the
variables.
D Check and confirm whether or not the
hypothesis is accepted.
12

9.
Which of the following should be done

before forming a hypothesis?
I
II
III
IV
Collecting data
Making observation
Identifying the problem
Planning the investigation
A
B
C
D
II and III only

I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV only
14.
with 30 cm boiling water. After some

time, he found that the volume of the
boiling water left in each three petri dishes
is different.
The inference of this experiment are

A the surface area expose to air.
B the larger the surface, the higher the
rate of evaporation.
C the surface area of the petri dish
influences the rate of evaporation.
D the experiment shows that the rate of
evaporation is influenced by the
surface area of the liquid exposed to
the air.
10. Which of the following statements shows

an inference?
A The surface area exposed to air.
B The size of the container influences the
rate of cooling.
C To investigate how surface area affects
the rate of cooling.
D The larger the surface area, the higher
the rate of cooling.
15. Why need to practice scientific attitudes

and noble values in learning science?
11. Which of the following variables that we

can find and record when doing an
experiment?
A
B
C
D
A Become rational thinker.

B Become responsibility and cooperative.
C Become effective decision-makers and
problem-solvers.
D Appreciating the contribution of
science and technology.
Fixed variable
Responding variable
Manipulated variable
Independent variable
16
12. An experiment is carried out to

A
B
C
D
test the problem

test the hypothesis
making a hypothesis
prove the observation
13 Which of the following are the attitudes

and values that important to the learning of
science?
I Emotional
II Daring to try
III Confident and independent
IV Diligence and perseverance
A I, II and III only
B I, II and IV only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV
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A student takes three petri dishes of

different sizes. Each petri dish is filled
The diagram below shows the graph that

represents the relationship between the
solubility of salt M with temperature.
What is the manipulated variable in this

experiment?
13
A
B
C
D
Solubility
Temperature
Type of salt M
Volume of water

17
The diagram below shows object P and Q

are placed in a measuring cylinder that
containing three different liquids.
19 "The shorter the pendulum, the more

oscillations it makes in a given time." This
statement is
A
B
C
D
20
Which of the following is the inference for

this experiment?
A
B
C
D
a conclusion
a hypothesis
an observation
aim of the investigation
The diagram below shows an experiment

that represents the relationship between the
densities and the ability to float in the
water.
Chloroform will float on the oil.

Oil is less dense than chloroform.
Mercury will float on the chloroform.
Mercury is less dense than chloroform.
18 The diagram below shows the steps of the

method of scientific investigation.
What is the manipulated variable in this
experiment?
A
B
C
D
Type of liquid
Type of objects
Size of the objects
Temperature of water
21. Which of the following are considered as

science process skills?
Which of the following is the step P and

Q?
P
Q
a Collecting data
A Forming
hypothesis
Carrying out the
B Making
observation
investigation
a Carrying out the
C Forming
hypothesis
investigation
a
D Carrying out the Forming
investigation
hypothesis
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14
I
II
III
IV
Drawing
Predicting
Controlling variable
Identifying problem
A
B
C
D
I, II and III only

I, II and IV only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
22. Which of the following is the most

important when recording the data?
A
B
C
D
26.
Fair
Honest
Curiosity
Confident
X = The amount of organic fertilizer

Y = Plant growth
Z = Amount of sunlight
23 The following are the positive attitudes

and values that required in the learning of
science, except
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
ego
systematic
flexible and open-minded
diligence and perseverance
I
II
III
IV
24 The following are the steps of scientific

investigation, except
A
B
C
D
Observing phenomenon
Controlling the variables
Carrying out the investigation
27
1000
1020
1040
1060
Amount of salt
added to
water(grams)
None
10
20
30
Responding Manipulated
Y
Z
Y
X
Z
X
X
Y
Control the variables.

Determine the procedure.
Determine the apparatus and material.
Determine the method of data
collection and data analysis.
Collecting data
Forming a hypothesis
Identifying the variable
28 If a student is a people that willing to

accept other's critical and opinions, what
kinds of the attitudes and values that this
student have?
A
B
C
D
25. What is the suitable hypothesis for this

experiment?
A The more salt is added, the lower the
temperature for boiling.
B The more salt added, the higher the
temperature for boiling.
C The type of the salt used will be
affected the temperature of boiling.
D The amount of salt added to water will
not be affected the temperature of
boiling.
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Fixed
X
Z
Y
Z
All of the following above are the part of

the step of
A
B
C
D
The table below shows the relationship

between the amount of salt and the
temperature of boiling.
Temperature of
water boiling
"It is the amount of organic fertilizer that a

farmer used will affect the growth of the
plant?" Identifying the variables for this
problem.
15
Being objective
Being fair and just
Being flexible and open minded
Being responsible and cooperative

CHAPTER 2: BODY COORDINATION
1.
The body systems that control and regulate

coordination consist of
A
B
C
D
2.
3.
5.
The diagram below shows the human

nervous system.
muscular system and nervous system.

central system and peripheral system.
nervous system and endocrine system.
endocrine system and circulatory
system.
Which of the following are the activities

regulated and coordinated by the nervous
system?
I
II
III
IV
Sense
Speech
Growth
Memory and thinking
A
B
C
D
I, II and III only

I, II and IV only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
What are the labels P and Q represented?

P
Q
Central nervous Peripheral nervous
system
system
B Peripheral nervous Central nervous
system
system
Involuntary
C Voluntary nervous
system
nervous system
Involuntary
Voluntary nervous
D
nervous system
system
A
What are the two body systems that control

and regulate coordination?
I
II
III
IV
Nervous system
Endocrine system
Circulatory system
Respiratory system
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
6.
Which of the following are consists of the

central nervous system?
I
II
III
IV
Brain
Spinal cord
Spinal nerves
Cranial nerves
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
II and IV only
III and IV only
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16
Which of the following are consists of the

peripheral nervous system?
I
II
III
IV
Brain
Spinal cord
Spinal nerves
Cranial nerves
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
II and IV only
III and IV only

7.
The diagram below shows a neurone.
10
The diagram below shows the three main

groups of neurones.
Label X and Y are

A
B
C
D
8.
9.
X
Dendron
Myelin sheath
Dendrite
Myelin sheath
Y
Myelin sheath
Dendron
Myelin sheath
Dendrite
Which of the following represents P, Q and

R?
A
Neurones can be classified into three main

groups. Which of the following are the
main groups of neurones?
I
II
III
IV
Axon
Relay
Motor
Sensory
A
B
C
D
I, II and III only

I, II and IV only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
B
C
D
11
P
Relay
neurone
Sensory
neurone
Sensory
neurone
Motor
neurone
Q
Motor
neurone
Relay
neurone
Motor
neurone
Sensory
neurone
R
Sensory
neurone
Motor
neurone
Relay
neurone
Relay
neurone
What is the function of a nucleus which is

containing in cell body?
A A protected.
B Receive nerve impulses and transmit
them.
C Controls all the activities in the
neurone.
D Speeds up the transmission of impulses
and provide nutrients to axon and
dendron.
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17
What is the function of this neurone?

A Transmits impulses from the central
nervous system to effectors.
B Transmits impulses from receptors to
the central nervous system.
C Transmits impulses from effectors to
the central nervous system.
D Processes impulses received from the
sensory neurones and transmits them to
the motor neurones.

12.
17.
The diagram below shows the pathway of

impulses in the nervous coordination.
This neurone is called

A
B
C
D
What are X and Y represented?
Axon
Relay
Motor
Sensory
A
B
C
D
13. Which of the following is the basic unit in

the nervous system?
A
B
C
D
I Knee-jerk reflex.
II Narrowing of eye when the intensity
of light is too great.
III Withdrawal of hand when touching a
hot object accidentally.
IV Blinking of eyes when an object is
moving towards our eyes.
The function
All are nerve cells
The length of axon
The length of dendron
A
B
C
D
15 The sensory cells found in our sensory

organs is called
A
B
C
D
I Help us to avoid injuries.

II detect stimuli in the environment.
III Knee-jerk is an example of reflex
action.
IV Rapid and automatic response to a
stimulus.
16 What is effector?
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I, II and III only

I, II and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
19. Which of the following are true about

reflex action?
stimuli
effectors
receptors
responses
A Detect stimuli in the environment.

B Rapid and automatic response to a
stimulus.
C Processes the information and then
sends out impulses.
D Respond to the instructions received
from the central nervous system.
Y
Effectors
Receptors
Motor
Sensory
18. Which of the following are the examples of

reflex action?
Neurone
Dendron
cell body
Myelin sheath
14. What is the similar of the sensory neurone,

motor neurone and relay neurone?
A
B
C
D
X
Receptors
Effectors
Sensory
Motor
18
A
B
C
D
I, II and III only

I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV

20. Which of the following consists in a
reflex?
21
I
II
III
IV
Receptors and effectors

Sensory neurones
Motor neurones
Relay neurones
A
B
C
D
I, II and IV only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
23.
The diagram below shows the reflex arc in

a human knee-jerk.
The diagram below shows the reflex arc in

a human knee-jerk.
Which of the following shows the path of

the nerve impulse?
A
B
C
D
24.
How many neurones involves in this reflex

action?
A
B
C
D
22
spinal cord effector

Receptor
spinal cord receptor
Effector
Receptor
spinal nerves
effector
Effector
spinal nerves
receptor
The diagram below shows the human

endocrine system.
One
Two
Three
Four
The diagram below shows the main parts of

the human brain.
Which of the following labelled as A, B, C

or D is the adrenal glands?
What are P, Q and R represent?
P
Q
R
Medulla
A Cerebrum Cerebellum
oblongata
Medulla
B Cerebellu Cerebrum
m
oblongata
Medulla
Cerebrum
C Cerebellu
m
oblongata
Cerebrum Cerebellum
D Medulla
oblongata
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25. The following are true of the hormone,

except
A
B
C
D
19
have a few target organs

produce in larger amount
produce by ductless gland
secrete directly into the bloodstream

26. The following are true of the pituitary
gland, except
29 Why the pituitary gland is called the

master gland of the endocrine system?
A located at the base of the cerebrum.

B often called the master gland of the
endocrine system.
C produce growth hormone which
stimulates growth.
D produce adrenaline to prepare the body
for action during emergency.
A It produces growth hormone.

B It located at the base of the cerebrum.
C It controls the rate of growth of a
human.
D It produces hormones which stimulate
other endocrine glands.
27.
30 Which of the following are the health

problem causes by drug abuse?
The diagram below shows a part the

human endocrine system.
What is the function of the label M?

A Controls the rate of metabolism.
B Conversion of glucose into glycogen.
of
secondary
sexual
C Develop
characteristics.
D Prepares the body for actions during
emergencies.
28.
The diagram below shows the part of the

human endocrine system.
What is this endocrine system?

A
B
C
D
Pancreas
Adrenal glands
Thyroid gland
Pituitary gland
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20
I
II
III
IV
Mental problem.
High blood problem.
Slow down nerve impulses.
Weakened of immune system.
A
B
C
D
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III only
I, II and IV only

CHAPTER 3:HEREDITY AND VARIATION
1.
2.
The characteristics of individuals that are

controlled by genes include
I
II
III
IV
Color of hair
Color of eyes
Types of ear lobes
Right handed or left handed
A
B
C
D
I, II and III only

I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
5.
A
B
C
D
6
Which of the following are true about

genes?
A
B
C
D
What is the label P represented?

A
B
C
D
I, II and III only

I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
7.
There are two type of cell division namely

A
B
C
D
4.
One
Two
Three
Four
The diagram below shows the structure of

a chromosome.
I Units of inheritance.
II Determine the characteristics.
III Thousand of genes in a DNA
molecule.
IV Consists of dominant genes and
recessive genes.
3.
Mitosis is a process whereby a cell

division into how many daughter cells?
Gene and mutation.

Mitosis and meiosis.
Dominant and recessive.
Chromosome and autosome.
A
B
C
D
Gene
Mutation
Cell division
Chromosome
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Which of the following are the similarities

between mitosis and meiosis?
I Important for inheritance.
II Each chromosome only double one.
III Same number of times nucleus
divides.
IV Parent cells divide to produce
daughter cells.
Which of the following controlled the

characteristics of individual?
A
B
C
D
DNA
Gene
Nucleus
Chromosome
21
I, II and III only

I, II and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV

8.
Which of the following process will

produce the gametes?
A
B
C
D
9.
12 Which of the following

importance of meiosis?
Mitosis
Meiosis
Mutation
Cytoplasm
A
B
C
D
I Genetic information varied.

II Divide parents cells to two daughter
cells.
III The number of times nucleus divides
is same with the number of times
cytoplasm divides.
11
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
A determined dominant traits.

B control the characteristic are present.
C shows it character in the presence of
recessive gene.
D shows it character in the absence of
recessive gene.
0.25
0.30
0.40
0.50
15. Which of the following is a recessive

traits?
A
B
C
D
Curly hair
Black hair
Left handed
Free ear lobes
16 A person with two different genes is said

to be
This process is known as
A
B
C
D
mutation
fertilization
reproductive
crossing-over
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5
10
15
20
14 The following are true about the dominant

gene, except
The diagram below shows a phase in

process meiosis.
A
B
C
D
II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
13 A cell in a plant contains 30 chromosomes.

How many chromosomes does each of its
female gamete have?
10. What is the probability that a couple can

get a girl baby?
A
B
C
D
the
I Reproduce sexually.
II Replacing dead cells.
III To produce variation.
Which of the following are true of the

process mitosis?
A
B
C
D
shows
22
genotype
phenotype
homozygous
heterozygous

17.
A parents with alleles shown as Cc x cc are

crossed.
21
The
diagram
below
shows
chromosomes in a male and female.
the
Cc - Curly hair
cc - Straight hair
What are the phenotype ratios of the F
generation?
A
B
C
D
18
1 Cc : 3 cc
2 Cc : 2 cc
3 Cc : 1 cc
4 Cc : 0 cc
The figure below shows a monohybrid

cross between two plants
TT tt
T : Tall (dominant)
t : Dwarf (recessive)
What is the genotype ratio of the F
generation?
A
B
C
D
What are labels X and Y represented?

A
B
C
D
1 tall : 3 dwarf
2 tall : 2 dwarf
3 tall : 1 dwarf
4 tall : 0 dwarf
Boy
Girl
Identical twins
Non-identical twins
20 If two ova are fertilized by two sperms.

What is the sex of baby?
A
B
C
D
I
II
III
IV
Sex is same.
One sperm is involved.
Two foetuses share the same placenta.
Two foetuses develop in the mother's
uterus.
A
B
C
D
I, II and III only

I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
23 Which of the following disorder is caused

by gene mutation?
Boy
Girl
Twins that have same sex.
Twins that have same or different sex.
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Y
22 + Y
22 + X
44 + Y
44 + X
22. Which of the following are true about the

identical twins?
19 If the 22 + X sperm fertilizes an ovum.

What is the sex of the baby?
A
B
C
D
X
22 + X
22 + Y
44 + X
44 + Y
A
B
C
D
23
Haemophilia
Down's syndrome
Turner's syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome

24 The down's syndrome disorder caused by
the possession of
A
B
C
D
28 If a female who has only one X

chromosome, she is suffering from
less one chromosome.

extra one chromosome.
less one sex chromosome.
extra one sex chromosome.
A
B
C
D
25. Which of the following are the causes of

mutation?
29 Diabetic patients need to be treated by

using
I Toxic chemicals
II Ultraviolet light
III Radioactive gamma rays
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
26 The following are the example

continuous variation, except
A
B
C
D
of
Weight
Skin color
Intelligence
Blood group
I Differentiate individuals.
II Improve product quality.
III Allows selective breeding to be
carried out.
IV For survival when environment
conditions change.
I, II and III only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
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Insulin
Potatoes
Sheep's milk
Gene therapy
30 Which of the following is the dominant

traits?
27 Which of the following are the importances

of variation?
A
B
C
D
Albinism
Haemophilia
Turner's syndrome
24
Blonde hair
Color blind
Straight hair
Free ear lobes

CHAPTER 4:MATTER AND SUBSTANCES
1.
Which of the following represents a

process condensation?
Gas can easily be compressed because

particles in gas
A
B
C
D
2.
Which of the following processes involved

absorb of heat?
A
B
C
D
3
I and II only
I and III only
II and IV only
III and IV only
Which of the following represents the

boiling?
A
25
boiling
melting
freezing
evaporation
Which of the following are true for pure

substances?
I
II
III
IV
Do not contain any impurities.

Has fixed melting and boiling point.
Not mixed with any other substance.
Crystals is an example of pure
substance.
A
B
C
D
I, II and III only

I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
Which of the following is the property of

non metals?
A
B
C
D
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Which of the following process involved a

release of heat?
A
B
C
D
I Boiling
II Melting
III Freezing
IV Condensation
are moving randomly.

have high kinetic energy.
have weak attractive forces.
are not arranged and far apart.
Shiny
High density
Dull and brittle
High tensile strength

8
The process of separating substances in a

mixture to obtain a pure substance is
A
B
C
D
filtration
distillation
purification
crystallization
Element
W
X
Y
Z
90 0C
99 0C
100 0C
105 0C
A
B
C
D
The table below shows some information

regarding an atom.
Nucleon number
Proton number
A
B
C
D
28
15
13
15
28
43
A
B
C
D
4
11
15
26
R and S
R and U
S and T
T and U
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W and X
W and Z
X and Y
Y and Z
15 The nucleus contains

protons only
neutrons only
protons and neutrons
protons and electrons
16 In the distillation process, what is used to

condensation the stream into pure water?
The table below shows information about

elements R, S, T and U. Which of the
following elements are isotopes?
Element
Proton
Nucleon
number
number
R
5
13
S
6
13
T
7
15
U
7
17
A
B
C
D
Number of
electron
19
9
10
17
A same chemical and physical properties.

B different chemical and physical
properties.
C same chemical properties but different
physical properties.
D different chemical properties but same
physical properties.
11 Atom X has 15 neutrons and 11 protons.

The number of electrons in Atom X is
A
B
C
D
Number of
proton
18
11
13
16
14 Isotopes have the
How many neutrons does this atom have?
12
The table below shows the information

about elements W, X, Y and Z. Which of
the following elements are negatively
charged?
What is the boiling point of water if added

a bit of salt in the water?
A
B
C
D
10
13
A
B
C
D
Impurities
Rubber stopper
Distillation flask
Liebig condenser
17 The method that use to remove ethanol

from a mixture of ethanol and water which
have different boiling points is
A
B
C
D
26
distillation
purification
crystallization
fractional distillation

18 Which of the following
crystallization process?
require
22 The following are true of molecules,

except
A Mixture of salt and sand.

B Mixture of ethanol and water.
C To obtain pure water from a salt
solution.
D To obtain petroleum fractions from
crude oil.
A have low melting and boiling point.

B may appear in solid, liquid and gas
state.
C insoluble in water but soluble in
organic solvents.
D conduct electricity only when melted
or dissolved in water.
19 Which of the following elements are nonmetals?

A
B
C
D
20
23 Why metals have high melting and boiling

points?
Gold
Copper
Bromine
Magnesium
Substance
P
characteristic:
has
the
A Are good conductors of electricity.

B Atoms are held strongly to each other.
C Weak Van der Waals' forces holding
the atom together.
D Oppositely charged are attracted to
each other by strong.
following
Corrosion resistant
Have low densities
Good heat conductor
24 The proton number enables us to predict

the number of protons an element
has.
II the number of electrons an element
has.
III the location of an element in the
Periodic Table.
I
Which of the following substance could be

P?
A
B
C
D
Iron
Copper
Sodium
Aluminium
A
B
C
D
21 Which of the following is true?
A
B
C
D
Molecules of
elements
Same type of
atoms
Two or more
different types of
atoms
Same type of
molecules
Two or more
different types of
molecules
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Molecules of
compounds
Two or more
different types of
atoms
Same type of
atoms
25
Two or more
different types of
molecules
Same type of
molecules
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II and III
The diagram below shows the Periodic

Table
The element X is a
A
B
C
D
27
Metal
Non-metal
Semiconductor
Transition element

26 Which of the following is true about the
Elements in Group 1?
A
B
C
D
29 Which of the following elements are not

from group 18?
Are non-metals
Very unreactive
Have high melting points
Have a relatively low density
A
B
C
D

elements in Group 18?
A
B
C
D
28
30
Neon
Xenon
Boron
Helium
The diagram below shows the location of

element P in the Periodic Table.
Gases
Very reactive
Called as halogens
Have high melting points
The diagram below shows the experiment

of electrical conductivity.
A
B
C
D
Which of the metals can be used as

electrode T?
A
B
C
D
Sulfur
Carbon
Copper
Magnesium
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28
2
3
4
5

CHAPTER 5:ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES
1
Comparison between physical change and

chemical change has shown at the table
below. Which of the following is true?
A
B
C
D
Physical Change Chemical Change

Reversible and
Irreversible and
temporary
permanent
No change in
Change in
chemical property chemical property
Little or none
C Require a lot of
energy
energy is required
D No new substances New substances
produced
produced
B
heat change negative.

release heat into surrounding.
absorbs heat from surroundings.
increase surrounding temperature.
Diagram below shows the energy level for

a chemical reaction.
Which is a chemical change among the

following?
A
B
C
D
3.
An endothermic reaction
Ice melting
Petrol burning
Heating iodine crystals
Sugar dissolve in water
The following statement is true about the

above reaction, except
Reaction X and Y that occurred have

shown is represented by the following
information.
A
B
C
D
Reaction X : Iron + water + Oxygen

Rust
Reaction Y : Ice
Water Steam
Releasing heat into surrounding occurred

when
I Burning magnesium ribbon in air.
chloride
solution
II Ammonium
dissolves in water.
III Calcium carbonate decomposes into
calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
Which is true that describes reaction X and

Y by the following information?
Reaction X
Reaction Y
Temporary
Permanent
A
B Chemical content Chemical content
remains
change
Produce new
No new substances
C
substances
formed
D Require plenty of Little heat required
heat
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Reaction above release heat.

The value of heat energy is positive.
Temperature of surrounding increase.
Reaction above is exothermic reaction.
A
B
C
D
29
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III

7
The information below shows an equation.

Hydrogen + Nitrogen
11
Ammonia
Calcium oxide +
Calcium carbonate
Carbon dioxide
Which of the following statement is true

regarding the equation?
8.
I
II
III
IV
The reaction is endothermic.

The reaction is reversible.
Releasing heat.
It is part of Haber Process.
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV.
Which type of chemical reaction can

describe equation above?
A
B
C
D
Temperature increase when sodium

hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid
solution undergo neutralization.
1:3
2:1
2:3
3:1
Based on this statement, what conclusion

can you make on it?
A
B
C
D
The following statement is true about

Haber process, except
A Reaction is reversible.
B The suitable temperature is 450 - 500
0
C.
C Releasing heat in the backward
reaction.
D The optimum pressure is 200
atmospheres.
The reaction is exothermic.

The reaction is endothermic.
Too much sodium neutralize.
All sodium hydroxide will make the
temperature fall.
13 The information below shows

characteristics about metal X.
the
Metal X does not produce hydrogen

gas when acid is added into.
Metal X is
10 Which of the following differences

between
endothermic
reaction and
exothermic reaction is true?
Endothermic
Exothermic
Break bonds
Form bonds
A
B
C
D
A
Negative H
Positive H
Increase
Decrease
surrounding
surrounding
temperature
temperature
Energy reactant
D Energy product
lower than energy lower than energy
reactant
product
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Dissolving
Combination
Displacement
Decomposition
12 The information below shows a statement

about sodium hydroxide and dilute
hydrochloric acid solution.
What ratio is require when producing

ammonia from the reaction between
hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas in the
Haber process?
A
B
C
D
The reaction of calcium carbonate

represented by the equation below.
B
C
30
Zinc
Silver
Calcium
Aluminium

14
The diagram below shows the reaction of

three pellets of metal Y added to the water.
16
The diagram below shows a reaction of

magnesium with dilute hydrochloric acid.
What observation can be derived from the

diagram above if the metal Y is Sodium?
Bubbles formed and gas X is released from

the experiment above. Gas X is
I Very fast with water.

II A loud pop sound is release by gas
when tested with glowing splint.
III Turns the red litmus paper into blue
color.
IV Pellets burned with brick-red flame.
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
17 What is the function of potassium (VII)

manganate in the experiment for reactivity
of metals with oxygen?
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
A
B
C
D
15 Information below shows the reactivity of

Metal X, Y and Z.
X
Y
Z
A
B
C
D
Iron oxide
Zinc oxide
Copper oxide
Magnesium oxide
19 Which of the following method is to

extracting the metal?
Z, Y, X
Y, Z, X
X, Y, Z
X, Z, Y
I Filtration and evaporation.

II Using carbon to reduce the metal.
III Electrolysis of molten ore of metals.
A
B
C
D
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For decoration.
Heated to release oxygen.
Heated to release nitrogen.
Stimulate the metal to heat until it
glows.
18 Carbon have the ability to displace oxygen

from the oxides of the following metals
except
No reaction either hot or cold

water.
No reaction with cold water but
with hot water.
Reacts very fast with water.
Which of the following arrangement in

ascending order for their reactivities is
true?
A
B
C
D
Oxygen
Hydrogen
Carbon dioxide
Nitrogen dioxide
31
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III

20 Why is the magnesium not using the
carbon reduction method to extract?
23
A Because the extraction process is low.

B Because the magnesium obtained is
pure.
C Because magnesium is more reactive
than carbon.
D Because the extraction process requires
a very high temperature and pressure.
The diagram below shows the arrangement

of apparatus set up study of the process of
electrolysis. After a few minute, there is
any result change to be made.
21 Metal in natural conditions exist in the

Earth's crust as metal ore consist of
22
I
II
III
IV
Metal oxides
Metal chlorides
Metal sulphides
Metal carbonates
What kind of error can be derived from the

diagram above that make no changes of it?
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II, and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
A
B
C
D
24
Diagram below shows the study of

electrolysis of copper (II) sulphate solution
with two carbon electrodes.
The anode becomes thinner.

Anode produce gas bubbles.
Anode deposite the copper metal.
Color of the solution gradually
becomes pale.
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Diagram below shows how an iron nails

can be electroplated.
Which of the following solution will

enable the iron nails to be plated with
copper?
The following result is true for the diagram

above, except
A
B
C
D
Current are too little.

Terminals were reversed.
Using powdered lead iodide.
The carbon rods are not function.
A
B
C
D
32
Silver nitrate
Copper nitrate
Copper sulphate
Aluminium nitrate

25 Which is a primary cell among the
following?
I
II
III
IV
Dry cell
Alkaline battery
Silver oxide battery
Cadmium battery
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
28 Which of the following is good habit when

using and disposing equipment that use
chemical reaction as energy sources?
I Take good care of the equipment.
II Disposing the equipment by sending
back to recycling centre.
III Follow the instruction of the
manufacturer of the equipment.
IV Throwing them together with the
household waste.
A
B
C
D
26 An alkaline battery is made up by which of

the following parts?
27
I
II
III
IV
Metal rod
Zinc powder
Sodium hydroxide solution
Mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and
carbon
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
29 The following is the new sources of energy

for equipment, except
I Wind mill
II Fuel cells
III Bio-diesel fuel
A
B
C
D
A chemical reaction in green plants has

been represented at the equation below.
A
B
C
D
I Throwing batteries to river.

II Using rechargeable batteries.
III Sending relevant equipment to recycle
center.
IV Discarding nickel cadmium batteries
to recycling bin.
N
Acid Nitrate
Carbon dioxide
Carbon dioxide
Glucose
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I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
30 Among the following, which are the ways

to overcome the worst effect due to
chemical reaction?
The M and N in the equation above is

M
Hydrogen
Mineral salt
Glucose
Carbon dioxide
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV.
A
B
C
D
33
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV

CHAPTER 6:NUCLEAR ENERGY
1
What is radioactive substance?
A A reactive substance that reacts with

oxygen.
B An element that is stable and can be
describe as inert.
C An element with the nucleus of atoms
is stable and not active.
D An element where the nucleus of the
atoms is not stable and decay
spontaneously.
2
Delta radiation
Beta radiation
Alpha radiation
Gamma radiation
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II and III only
II,III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
X emits radioactive radiation. Which of the

following is X?
A
B
C
D
Lead-210
Cobalt-80
Carbon-12
Sodium-23
The diagram below shows three radiations

in an electric field.
All isotopes with a proton number bigger

than X are radioactive. Value X is
A
B
C
D
A because it has the highest penetration

power.
B because it has the highest electrical
charge.
C because it has the highest magnetic
power.
it
has
consists
of
D because
electromagnetic wave.
Which of the following are dangerous

radioactive radiations are emitted during
nucleus decay?
I
II
III
IV
Why gamma radiation is the most

dangerous in the three types of radioactive
radiation?
25
53
75
83
Which of the following is X, Y and Z?
Uranium-235 is radioactive because

A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
it atom has a big nucleus.

it atom has many protons.
it atom has many electrons.
it atom has an unstable nucleus.
8
http://exammy.com/
34
X
Alpha
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Y
Beta
Gamma
Alpha
Alpha
Z
Gamma
Beta
Gamma
Beta
Among the following, which radioisotopes

used as a tracer to test the rate of fertilizer
absorption for plants?
A
B
C
D
Cobalt-60
Iodine-131
Carbon-14
Phosphorus-32

9
Which of the following radioisotope is

injected into a patient's body to detect
damage to the thyroid gland?
A
B
C
D
13
The diagram below shows radioactive

,
radiation
and
penetrating through
materials X, Y and Z.
Iodin-131
Cobalt-60
Sodium-24
Plutonium-238
10 Which of the following radioactive

radiation is negatively charged?
A
B
C
D
11
X-rays
Beta radiation
Alpha radiation
Gamma radiation
Which of the following represents X, Y

and Z?
The table below shows a characteristic of

radiation X.
A
B
C
D
Neutral charged.
Highest penetration of power.
Velocity is same as speed of light.
Very week ionization power.
12
X- rays
Beta radiation
Alpha radiation
Gamma radiation
A
B
C
D
The table below shows the penetrating

power of radiation P, Q and R.
Element
Penetration power
Block of Piece
Piece of
lead
of
aluminium
paper
No
Yes
Yes
No
No
No
No
No
No
P
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Beta
Q
Beta
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
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Z
Aluminium
Paper
Lead
Aluminium
Cobalt-60
Carbon-14
Uranium-238
Plutonium-238
15 Which of the following radioisotopes

playing an important role in archaeology
field?
A
B
C
D
Which of the following represents P, Q and

R?
A
B
C
D
Y
Paper
Aluminium
Aluminium
Lead
14 Which of the following radioisotopes has

dedicated its function in heart peacemakers
to help stabilize the heartbeat of heart
patients?
Which of the following is radiation X?

A
B
C
D
X
Lead
Lead
Paper
Paper
R
Gamma
Gamma
Alpha
Alpha
35
Cobalt-60
Carbon-14
Uranium-235
Phosphorus-32

16 Which of the following statement is the
usage of radioactive substance?
I
II
III
IV
To preserve food.
Detect brain tumours.
To detect underground pipe leakages.
Diagnose damage to the thyroid gland.
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
19
The diagram below shows the process of

nuclear fission.
17 The information below shows about the

characteristics of X.
The function of X is used to sterilize
surgical instruments in hospital. X will
kill and destroy all the bacteria and
fungus in surgical instruments.
Which of the following
substance can represents X?
According to the diagram above, the

process is producing
radioactive
A
B
C
D
A -radiation
B
-radiation
C
-radiation
D Uranium-235
20 Among the following below, which energy

source(s) is/are non-renewable?
I Fossil fuel
II Sea waves
III Solar energy
18 In a nuclear fission, a large amount of

energy is released to
A
B
C
D
I propel submarines.
II generate electrical energy.
III melt iron ores in the steel industry.
A
B
C
D
electrons
neutrons
nuclear energy
a smaller uranium atom
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
21 Natural fossil resources used to produce

energy are finish soon. However, people
are still against the idea of producing
nuclear energy. Why?
A Low cost in building a nuclear reactor.
B Plenty of other alternative energy
resources.
C Requires expertise and knowledge on
nuclear technology.
D Possibility of an accident involving the
leakage of radioactive substance.
http://exammy.com/
36

22 The radioactive substance used in nuclear
reactors are
A
B
C
D
26
The diagram below shows the nuclear

fission of Uranium-235.
Sodium rods
Radium rods
Uranium rods
Polonium rods
23 Which of the following is/are the

advantages of nuclear energy production?
I No air pollution occurs.
II Produce a small amount of waste.
III Require only a small amount of
radioactive substance.
IV Cost of generating electricity is lower
compared to the cost of generating
electrical energy from fossil fuels.
A
B
C
D
Which of the following is represented X

and Y?
X
Y
Barium-141
Krypton-92
A
Kryton-92
Barium-141
B
Radium-226
Kryton-92
C
Barium-141
Radium-226
D
I only
I, II, and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
27 The box to keep radioactive substances is

made from
24 How is the nuclear energy produced in

nuclear reactors changed into electrical
energy?
A
B
C
D
A Nuclear energy is used to heat metals

which can produce electrical energy.
B Nuclear energy is used to charge
batteries which can produce electrical
energy.
C Nuclear energy is used to activate
chemicals which can produce electrical
energy.
D Nuclear energy is used to boil water to
produce steam which then rotates the
turbine and dynamo to produce
electrical energy.
28 Among the following, which symbol is

warns the public about the radioactive
radiation?
A
25 Among the following is the effect from

exposure to radioactive radiation, except
A
B
C
D
Cancer growth.
Fever and cold.
Destruction of body cell.
Damage of foetus in a pregnant mother
body.
http://exammy.com/
clay
lead
glass
plastic
37

29 Among the following, which is used to
detect a radioactive radiation?
30 The following is a correct way to avoid the

negative effect that caused by radioactive
substance, except
I Cloud chamber
II Geiger-Muller tube
III Photographic paper
A
B
C
D
A Eat and drink around area containing

radioactive substances.
B Avoid from exposing ourselves to
C Wear docimeter when handling
D Stored radioactive substances in a
special containers made of thick lead
or concrete.
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
CHAPTER 7: LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT

1
The diagram below shows boy P and boy

A standing in front of a plane mirror.
The diagram below shows an object placed

at a distance less than F.
Among the following, which of the

following are the characteristic for the
image formed?
I Virtual
II Upright
III Diminished
What is the distance between boy P and

image of boy Y?
A
B
C
D
2
5 cm
7 cm
9 cm
12 cm
A
B
C
D
Which of the following is the characteristic

of an image formed by a plane mirror?
I
II
III
IV
Virtual
Upright
Same size
Laterally inverted
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
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I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Among the following, which will produce

a virtual image?
I Convex lens
II Plane mirror
III Concave lens
A
B
C
D
38
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III

5
The diagram below shows ray diagram for

a convex lens.
Which of the following ray diagram is

correct?
A
Which of the following is the focal length?

A
B
C
D
6
Between X and O
Between O and Y
Between O and Z
Between X and Y
The diagram below shows a ray diagram

for a convex lens.
D
Among the following instruments, which
is applying the principle shown in the
diagram above?
A
B
C
D
7
Camera
Projector
Telescope
Photostat machine
Real
Inverted
Bigger than the object
Positioned at a distance more than 2f in
The following is a characteristic of an

image.
front of the lens
Real
Inverted
Smaller than object
Which of the following instruments

produce image that have characteristic
above?
Which of the following produced image

that have characteristic above?
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
Glass prism
Convex lens
Plane mirror
Concave lens
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The table below shows the characteristic of

an image formed by a concave lens.
39
Camera
Projector
Telescope
Photostat machine

10
The diagram below shows an object placed

in front of a pin-hole camera which
consists of three holes.
12
Among the following, which is the correct

image that will produce on the screen?
Why the spectrum is formed?
White light is a mixture of seven

colours.
II Coloured lights travel at different
speeds in a glass prism.
III Coloured lights refract at different
angles in a glass prism.
I
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
13 Among the following, which phenomenon

is/are caused by scattering of light?
I The blue sky.

II The red sunset.
III The secondary rainbow.
A
B
C
D

camera?
Diaphragm controls the size of the
aperture.
II Image formed on the film is real,
inverted and smaller than the object.
III Amount of light that enters the camera
is also controlled by the length of time
the shutter is opened.
I
A
B
C
D
The diagram below shows a spectrum

being produced when a ray of white light
passed through a glass prism.
14 Which of the following will happens if the

atmosphere of earth is filled with haze
particles, dust and gases from exhaust?
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
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I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
40
The Sun looks red.

The sky looks blue.
The Sun looks dim.
The sky looks grey.

15 Which of the following is/are primary
colours?
16
18 Among the following, which is involving

the subtraction of colours?
I
II
III
IV
Red
Blue
Green
Yellow
I Colour printing.
II Formation of rainbows.
III Formation of white light spectrums by
glass prisms.
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
A
B
C
D
The diagram below shows white light

passing through a cyan filter.
19
Which of the following colour will form

on the screen?
A
B
C
D
17
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
The diagram below shows a observer the

colour of the white object after the filter of
X and Y.
Which of the following colour represents X

and Y that will cause the white object
appear black?
Blue
Green
Red and green
Cyan, green and blue
I Red and blue respectively.

II Red and green respectively.
III Red and magenta respectively.
The diagram below shows three spotlight

of red, blue and green light.
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
20 Why is black object seen black when other

coloured shine on them?
A Because the black object refracts all
the colours of the lights shining on it.
B Because the black object scatters all
C Because the black object absorbs all
D Because the black object reflects all the
colours of the light shining on it.
Which of the following colour can

represents K and L?
A
B
C
D
K
Cyan
White
Magenta
White
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L
White
Cyan
White
Magenta
41

21
The diagram below shows the ray box of

yellow and cyan shine on a white screen.
24 Alex is wearing a blue shirt enters a room

that illuminated by yellow light. Which of
the following colour will Alex's shirt
appear in the room?
A
B
C
D
Red
Blue
White
Black
25 Why colour plays an important rule to

animal?
Which of the following can represents P, Q
and R?
A
B
C
D
P
Cyan
Red
Yellow
Yellow
Q
Red
Cyan
Cyan
Green
I To give warning to enemy

II To attract partners attention
III To camouflage themselves
R
Yellow
Yellow
Green
Cyan
A
B
C
D
26 Which of the following is the importance

for colour to humans?
22 Paper A appears red and Paper B appears

green when it is illuminated by yellow
light. Which of the following colour is
Paper A and Paper B when illuminated by
red light?
Paper A
Red
Paper B
Red
Red
Red
Black
Blue
Black
Red
A
B
C
D
23 Which of the following colour will

observed when pigment red mix with
pigment yellow?
A
B
C
D
I
II
III
IV
Photocopy
Traffic lights
Colour printing
Electrical wiring
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
27 Since human eyes cannot see small

microorganisms. What instrument is
designed to help us overcome this
problem?
Red
Green
Orange
Magenta
http://exammy.com/
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
A
B
C
D
42
Periscope
Telescope
Magnifying glass
Electron microscope

28 Which of the following is/are function of
colours?
29 Which of the following instrument allow a

person observe objects at the surface of the
water in a submarine?
I Give warnings
II Beautify surrounding areas
III Present certain information
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
Telescope
Periscope
Plane mirror
Magnifying lens
30 Which of the following instruments allow

human to observe object in outer space?
A
B
C
D
Periscope
Electronic microscope
Astronomical telescope
Spectacles with convex lenses
Which of the following atomic structure is

represents alloys?
CHAPTER 8: CHEMICAL IN INDUSTRY

1
Which of the following is correct in

describing an alloy?
A
B
C
D
A metallic compound.
A mixture of two elements.
A mixture of two or more non-metals.
A mixture of a metal and another
metal.
Which of the following is an alloy?

I
II
III
IV
Brass
Bronze
Pewter
Copper nickel
A
B
C
D
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
Which of the following is not an alloy?

A
B
C
D
Brass
Bronze
Copper
Pewter
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43
Which of the following mixture is to

produce a bronze?
A
B
C
D
Tin and nickel

Tin and copper
Copper and iron
Copper and zinc

6
Which of the following is not an alloy

metal property?
A
B
C
D
10 Which substance is added to carbon steel

to avoid corrosion?
Durable
Stronger
Rust-proof
More easily shaped
A
B
C
D
The diagram below shows the arrangement

of different atoms found in a substance P.
11 Which of the following statement is true

for a superconductor?
A Substance which is a good conductor
of heat.
B Substance which allows current to flow
efficiently.
C Substance with zero resistance at a
high temperature.
D Substance with an electrical resistance
that is directly proportional to
temperature.
Which of the following is substance P?

A
B
C
D
8
Iron
Steel
Copper
Calcium
12 Mary discovers that her gold necklace goes

out of shape too easily. How can she
overcome this problem?
Which of the following is a special

property of an alloy which is suitable for
making aircraft body?
A
B
C
D
A Add more gold in it.

B Hammer it repeatedly.
C Melt the gold and add in other
elements.
D Melt and remould the gold repeatedly
until she gets the shape that she wants.
Hard and heavy

Light and strong
Shiny and strong
Low in density and shiny

alloy making process?
The information below is describing an

alloy X.
I Chemical change occurs.

II Physical change occurs.
III New substance formed which is better
than the original substance.
Won't rust
Durable and hard
Contains 75 % copper and 25 % nickel
Which of the following is made by alloy
X?
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
Cars
Coins
Bridges
Aeroplanes
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Tin
Iron
Chromium
Aluminium
44
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III

CHAPTER 9: MICROORGANISMS AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING
THINGS
1
A
B
C
D
2
cause
Vectors
Antigens
Pathogens
Antibodies
What acts as a host for the virus that

causes dengue fever?
A
B
C
D
The graph below illustrates the level of

antibodies in the blood of a patient for
immunity of a disease.
AIDS
Cholera
Hepatitis B
Dengue fever
What type of microorganisms

diseases?
A
B
C
D
The following diseases cannot be treated

using antibiotics except...
Which of the following statements refer to

the type of immunity shown in this graph?
Rats
Humans
Houseflies
Mosquitoes
I It is permanent.
II Antiserum is injected into the patient's
body.
III White blood cells are not stimulated to
produce antibodies.
The graph below shows the level of

antibodies in blood.
A
B
C
D
6
I only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
Bacteria are used to produce items such

as...
I alcohol
II cheese
III yoghurt
A
B
C
D
State the level of immunity that is achieved

as shown by this graph.
A
B
C
D
Active natural immunity

Passive natural immunity
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
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45
I only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
Projek
Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010
7 What do vaccines contain?
A
B
C
D
8
9.
Antigens
Antibodies
Active live pathogens
Dead or weakened pathogens
What type of microorganism

syphilis?
A
B
C
D
12
causes
Fungi
Viruses
Bacteria
Protozoa
Which penicillin disc is most effective in

preventing the growth of the bacteria
culture?
Vaccination can be given to a person for

the prevention of the following infections
except...
A
B
C
D
I malaria
II cholera
III hepatitis B
A
B
C
D
10
The diagram below shows four penicillin

discs of different concentrations placed in
a petri dish containing nutrient agar and
bacteria.
13
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
The table below shows the different

conditions in test tubes Q, R, S, and T that
are used to study the factors that affect
bacterial activity.
Test
tube
Q
It is caused by protozoon.
It can cause anaemia.
It causes fever.
The statements listed above describes the
disease called...
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
Present 37C
Absent
Present 37C
Present
Present 37C
Present
Q
R
S
T
14 What is the most effective way to sterilize

petri dishes used in an experiment to
culture bacteria?
feed on dead organisms.

feed on other living organisms.
carry out anaerobic respiration.
can manufacture their own food.
http://exammy.com/
pH Nutrie Tempe Moist

value
nts rature ure
5
Present 4C Present
After two days, which test tube showed

vigorous bacterial growth?
tinea
cholera
malaria
hepatitis B
11 Algae are classified as autotrophs because

they...
A
B
C
D
P
Q
R
S
A
B
C
D
46
Washing it with soap.

Freezing it in a freezer.
Washing it with boiling water.
Steaming it under high pressure.

15
The diagram below shows an experiment

to study the factors that affect the growth
of bacteria.
18 Bacterial activity is affected by the

following conditions:
I light intensity
II the pH value of the medium
III oxygen concentration
A
B
C
D
19 Mosquitoes are vectors for disease(s) such

as...
Which of the factors below is being

studied?
A
B
C
D
16
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
I dengue fever
II malaria
III cholera
pH
Light
Nutrient
Temperature
A
B
C
D
The diagram below illustrates the correct

way to keep a petri dish in an experiment
to culture bacteria.
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
20 The dough rises when yeast is added in.

Why does this happen?
A The carbon dioxide gas is released.
B There is an increase in temperature.
C There is an increase in the amount of
dough.
D There is an increase in the number of
yeast cells.
The petri dish is inverted so that...

A bacteria can grow and multiply
quickly.
B the growth of bacteria can be easily
observed.
C bacteria from the surroundings cannot
enter the petri dish.
D water droplets from condensation do
not affect the experiment.
21 The ideal temperature for bacterial activity

is...
A
B
C
D
17 Name the process that occurs when yeast is

added to grape juice and left for one week.
A
B
C
D
22 Cellulose found in plants can be digested

by herbivores due to the presence of
certain bacteria that secrete...
Oxidation
Distillation
Fermentation
Decomposition
http://exammy.com/
0C
15C
37C
50C
47
A
B
C
D
lipase
amylase
protease
cellulase
23 Which of the statements below describe the

characteristics of a virus?
27 Microorganisms are grouped based on

their...
I It has a nucleus.
II It reproduces only in living cells.
III It contains either DNA or RNA.
A
B
C
D
24
I only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
The diagram below shows the reproduction

of a microorganism.
28
I
II
III
IV
colour
shape
size
habitat
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
II, III and IV only
The diagram
microorganisms.
below
shows
three
Which combination below correctly

describes the method of reproduction?
Microorganism
A
B
C
D
25
Fungi
Algae
Viruses
Fungi
Methods of
reproduction
Budding
Conjugation
Binary fission
Spore formation
In damp conditions at
reproduce easily through...
A
B
C
D
37C
, bacteria
budding.
conjugation.
binary fission.
spore formation.
26 Which of the statements below correctly

describes bacteriophage?
A It is a bacterium that kills viruses.
B It is a type of virus that attacks
bacteria.
C It is a bacterium that causes diseases in
plants.
D It can multiply inside both living and
48
non-living cells.
http://exammy.com/
Microorganisms X, Y, and Z are...

A
B
C
D
X
Alga
Virus
Fungus
Virus
Y
Bacterium
Protozoon
Alga
Fungus
Z
Virus
Fungus
Bacterium
Protozoon
29 What is the smallest microorganism?

A
B
C
D
Algae
Viruses
Bacteria
Protozoa
30 Biotechnology uses microorganisms for...

I the production of bioplastic.
II the production of hormones.
III gene therapy.
A
B
C
D
II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III

CHAPTER 10: NUTRITION
1
Which statements below can be examples

of healthy eating habits?
A
B
C
D
I Eating junk food which is tasty.

II Drinking 2 to 3 litres of water
everyday.
III Eating sufficient quantities of fibres
from fruits and vegetables.
A
B
C
D
2
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
State the process of denitrification.
avoid indigestion.
prevent constipation.
enjoy life to the fullest.
meet the body's nutrient requirements.
A P Q
B
D QS
It maintains the concentration of

nitrogen in the air.
II It ensures a continuous source of
protein.
III It increases water pollution.
I
I only
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
49
boron
manganese
magnesium
molybedenum
What type of bacteria acts on dead plants

and animals?
A
B
C
D
I Bacteria
II Algae
III Fungi
http://exammy.com/
A lack of chlorophyll causes chlorosis in

plants. This is due to the insufficient level
of...
A
B
C
D
What classes of microorganisms have an

important role to play in the nitrogen
cycle?
A
B
C
D
R Q
C QR
Why is the nitrogen cycle important?
A
B
C
D
thickens the walls of arteries.

narrows the lumen of arteries.
enlarges the lumen of arteries.
makes the walls of the arteries thin.
The diagram below illustrates part of a

nitrogen cycle.
The purpose of eating a wide variety of

nutritious food is to...
A
B
C
D
Excessive cholesterol in arteriosclerosis...
Decaying bacteria
Nitrifying bacteria
Denitrifying bacteria
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
What can be done to increase the

concentration of nitrates in the soil?
A
B
C
D
Nitrification
Denitrification
Decomposition
Nitrogen fixation

10 In what area(s) of a plant that the nitrogenfixing bacteria can be found?
14 Plants require carbon, hydrogen, and

oxygen for the synthesis of proteins. What
macronutrients are needed for this process
as well?
I The soil
II Root nodules
III Leaves
A
B
C
D
11
I Boron
II Nitrogen
III Calcium
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
The diagram below shows the root system

of a plant.
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
15 The leaves on a tree turned yellow. The

soil is lacking in...
I magnesium
II nitrogen
III ferum
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
16 Name the gases that combine when

lightning is formed.
Name the plant that has this root system.
A
B
C
D
I Oxygen
II Hydrogen
III Nitrogen
Maize plant
Balsam plant
Hibiscus plant
Groundnut plant
A
B
C
D
12 What micronutrient is required by plants?

A
B
C
D
3
Calcium
Potassium
Manganese
Magnesium
17 The function of a bomb caloriemeter is...

A to determine the nutrition found in
food.
B to measure the quantity of mineral salts
present in food.
measure
the
quantity
of
C to
carbohydrates present in food.
D to measure the energy content present
in a sample of food.
What happens when a plant shows signs of

chlorosis?
A
B
C
D
Its growth is stunted.

Its leaves are turning yellow.
Its leaves are dropping prematurely.
Its leaves have black and brown spots.
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I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
50
18 Which of the food below has the lowest

calorific value per unit gram?
A
B
C
D
19
22 What are the factors that determine the fact

that men needs more energy than women?
Eggs
Bread
Tomatoes
Margarine
Men are bigger and heavier than

women.
II The metabolic rate of men is higher
than that of women.
III Men are braver than women.
I
The table below shows the calorific values

for three classes of food.
Classes of food
Fats
Proteins
Carbohydrates
A
B
C
D
Calorific value
(kJg-1)
37.6
22.2
16.7
23 Which of the people listed below requires

the least calories?
A
B
C
D
For a bun that weighs 300 grams which

contains 3.3g of fats, 30g proteins, and
150g carbohydrates; calculate its total
energy.
A
B
C
D
I Stroke
II Obesity
III Hypertension
A
B
C
D
I Age
II Sex
III State of health
A
B
C
D
21 A major part of an Eskimo's diet consists

of meat and fatty food. Why is it so?
http://exammy.com/
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III
25 Which of the statements listed below is

related to aneroxia?
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
A His culture favours more meaty food.

B The above food source is found
abundantly where he lives.
C To enable him to obtain more energy to
conduct heavy activities.
D To replace heat lost to the surroundings
so that body temperature can be
37C
maintained at
.
A lactating mother.
A child who is already active.
A labourer who is chopping firewood.
A grandmother that spends most of her
time resting.
24 What health problems are caused by an

excessive intake of salt?
3 295.08 kJ
3 130.08 kJ
3 2950.8 kJ
4 0950.8 kJ
20 What are the factors that influence the

calorific value requirement of a person?
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
51
It causes death.
It makes a person thinner.
It is a disease due only to malnutrition.
It causes female sufferers to experience
irregular menstruation.

26 The calorific value of a particular food can
be defined as...
30
A the energy value per calorie of the

food.
B the total amount of water that is found
in one gram of food.
C the total energy that is released when
one gram of food is burned completely.
D the total energy that is absorbed when
one gram of food is burned completely.
The diagram below illustrates the apparatus

used in the study of the importance of
macronutrients for plant growth.
27 A shortage of iodine in daily diet causes...

A
B
C
D
goitre
scurvy
anaemia
beri-beri
Why is the bottle wrapped in black paper?

I To keep the solution warm.
II To prevent sunlight from reaching the
solution.
III To prevent the growth of algae in the
solution.
28 What is cholesterol?
A
B
C
D
29
Fat
Vitamin
Mineral salt
Carbohydrate
A
B
C
D
The information below are the results from

an experiment to study the importance of
plant nutrients.
Spots of dead cells on leaves.
Stunted root growth.
Leaves drop easily.
What nutrients are lacking in the plant
from the experiment that was carried out?
I Phosphorus
II Sulphur
III Potassium
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
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52
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III

CHAPTER 11: PRESERVATION AND CONSERVATION OF THE
ENVIRONMENT
1
Which of the statements listed below are

correct measures of preserving and
conserving the environment?
Protecting the ecosystem from

destruction.
II Preventing the depletion of natural
resources.
III Maintaining the population of
endangered plant and animal species.
I
I Putting rubbish into recycling bins.

II Refrain from buying ornaments made
from animal parts.
III Burning fallen dried leaves and
branches of plants.
A
B
C
D
2
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
How
is
controlled?
environmental
A
B
C
D
pollution
A By burning tree stumps openly.

B By spraying insecticides and
pesticides.
C By treating factory wastes before
disposing them.
D By disposing hot water from power
stations into the sea.
3
Which statements below refer to human

activities that may cause the extinction of
species?
Using animal parts as traditional
medicine.
II Encouraging game hunting as a sport.
III Using animal parts as decorative
ornaments.
A
B
C
D
Global warming
Ozone depletion
Thermal pollution
The greenhouse effect
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
Which statements below refer to human

activities that may cause the extinction of
species?
Using animal parts as traditional
medicine.
II Encouraging game hunting as a sport.
III Using animal parts as decorative
ornaments.
I
What happens when there is leaching of

chemical fertilizers into rivers and ponds?
A There is air pollution.
B There is a rapid growth of algae.
C There is an increase in the number of
aquatic organisms.
D There is an increase in the oxygen
concentration of the water.
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I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
Name the phenomenon that happens when

heat is reflected from the Earth's surface
and gets trapped in the atmosphere.
A
B
C
D
Which of the statements listed below are

true about conservation and preservation?
A
B
C
D
53
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III

8
What gas is derived from oil palm fruit

stalks that are processed in a biogas
digester?
A
B
C
D
13 What do humans suffer as the effect of the

thinning of the ozone layer in the
stratosphere?
Butane
Methane
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
I Cataracts
II Cancer
III Diabetes
A
B
C
D
Identify the materials listed below that can

be recycled.
I Old newspapers
II Aluminium tin cans
III Plastic pails
A
B
C
D
14 What happens when there is uncotrolled

deforestation?
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
I The destruction of habitats

II Landslides
III Flooding
A
B
C
D
10 Why is deforestation carried out?

A
B
C
D
To produce oil
To make furniture
To produce plastic
To produce methane gas
A three carbon atoms.

B three oxygen atoms.
C one carbon atom and two oxygen
atoms.
D one oxygen atom and two hydrogen
atoms.
I coal
II petroleum
III tin ore
16 How can the pollution from burning fossil

fuels be reduced?
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
I By using an incinerator.
II By using renewable energy.
III By fixing catalytic converters in
vehicles.
12 Humus is the byproduct of compost from

the decomposition of...
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
mineral salts
toxic wastes
domestic wastes
chemical substances
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I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
15 The molecule of ozone consists of...
11 Mining activities are carried out by humans

to obtain...
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
54
I only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III

17
The diagram below shows a food web.
21 Which of the fuels listed below is fossil

fuel?
I Tar
II Coal
III Petroleum
A
B
C
D
Identify the statements below that are true.

I Eagles are tertiary consumers.
II Eagles are secondary consumers.
III Paddy is a producer.
A
B
C
D
22 What system in the human body is affected

by too much exposure to the ultraviolet
rays?
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
18 Which of the cycles below help maintain

the balance in nature?
A increases the temperature of the earth.

B is used by living organisms for
respiration.
C reflects the heat from the earth back
into the atmosphere.
D reduces the amount of ultraviolet rays
reaching the earth.
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
24 Identify the the effects of global warming

from the statements listed below.
19 What is the gas that is aasociated with the

greenhouse effect?
A
B
C
D
I An increase in the sea level.

II The melting of ice at mountain peaks.
III A decrease in food production by
plants.
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Sulphur dioxide
Nitrogen dioxide
A
B
C
D
20 How would carbon particles and smoke

from factories affect plants?
A Increase the rate of respiration in
plants.
B Decrease the rate of photosynthesis in
plants.
C Decrease the rate of transpiration in
plants.
D Increase the absorption of carbon
dioxide by plants.
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Skeletal system
Immune system
Nervous system
Digestive system
23 The ozone layer is important due to the

fact that it...
I The water cycle

II The nitrogen cycle
III Food webs
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
55
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III

CHAPTER 12:CARBON COMPOUNDS
1
The elements that are found present in the

fats molecule are...
I hydrogen
II magnesium
III carbon
A
B
C
D
2
A saturated fats are toxic.

B saturated fats have a high calorific
value.
C saturated fats are difficult to digest by
enzymes.
D saturated fats lead to the deposition of
low density cholesterol.
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
6
Palm oil can be used...

I as cooking oil
II for manufacturing margarine
III for making explosives
A
B
C
D
Excessive saturated fats in a diet needs to

be avoided because...
What process is used to

unsaturated fats to saturated fats?
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
The harmful effects of low density

cholesterol are...
they accumulate in the bile duct to
form bile stones.
II they accumulate in the walls of blood
vessels and slow down blood flow.
III they lower blood pressure.
A
B
C
D
8
What part of the oil palm fruit that palm oil
is derived from?
X only
X and Y
X and Z
X, Y, and Z
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
The diagram below shows the structure of

vulcanized rubber.
Name the atom that is marked with the

letter Q.
Why oil palm fruits are exposed to very

hot steam during the extraction process?
A To heat the oil palm fruit.

B To cook the oil palm fruit.
C To sterilize the oil palm fruit.
D To break down the oil palm fruit.
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Oxidation
Reduction
Nitrification
Hydrogenation
The diagram below shows the crosssection of an oil palm fruit.
A
B
C
D
change
56
A
B
C
D
Carbon
Sulphur
Nitrogen
Phosphorus

9
Addiction to alcohol
problems such as...
causes
social
13 What are the characteristics of natural

rubber?
I tension in the family

II road accidents
III conflicts between families
A
B
C
D
I Soft and sticky when heated.

II Elastic and bouncy.
III Hard and brittle when cooled.
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
10 Vulcanized rubber in comparison to natural

rubber is...
14 What is the function of concentrated

alkaline catalyst in the production of soap?
I more heat resistant

II softer
III harder
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
C Are more reactive.

the
D Have
maximum number
of hydrogen atoms
in their molecules.
A
B
C
D
Unsaturated fats
Have
shorter
hydrocarbon
chains.
Do not contain
hydrogen.
Are less reactive.
Have
less
hydrogen atoms in
their molecules.
A
B
C
D
Splitting
Polymerization
Depolymerization
Fractional distillation
17 Which statements listed below is true

about soap?
A Soap is suitable to be used in hard
water.
B Soap increases the surface tension of
water.
C The tail molecule of soap is soluble in
water.
D Soap is produced from vegetable oil
and alkali.
I Plastic bags
II Marble tiles
III Spectacles
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
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silk
nylon
polythene
polystyrene
16 What is the term used for the reaction to

combine a few small molecules to form a
single big molecule chain?
12 Identify from the list below products that

contain carbon.
A
B
C
D
To oxidize palm oil.

To hydrolyse palm oil.
To hydrogenise palm oil.
To fuse palm oil molecules.
15 A type of natural polymer is...
11 What is the difference between saturated

fats and unsaturated fats?
Saturated fats
Have
longer
hydrocarbons
A
chains.
B Contain hydrogen.
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
57

18 During a washing action, soap molecules
act to...
21 Alcohol causes damage to...

A
B
C
D
I increase the surface tension of water.

II attack dirt or grease with its tail.
III remove dirt from clothes.
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
22 Latex that is left in a beaker will coagulate

after a day because of...
A the latex reacting with oxygen in the
air.
B the action of bacteria on the latex
which produces acid.
C the alkali that is produced when the
latex is exposed to air.
D the water content in the latex that has
completely evaporated.
19 Which statements below describe alcohol?

It
forms
an alkane through
hydrogenation.
II It reacts with organic acid to form an
ester.
III It dissolves in water.
I
A
B
C
D
20
ears
bone
liver
lungs
23 What is the effect of excessive drinking?
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
The diagram below shows the preparation

of soap in the laboratory.
Cirrhosis of the liver.

Nervous breakdowns.
Lower cholesterol level.
Contraction of the arteries.
24 Which substances listed below contain

carbon?
A
B
C
D
Cotton
Ammonia
Common salt
Hydrochloric acid
25 Which substances listed below are nonorganic carbon compounds?

I calcium carbonate
II carbon dioxide
III hydrocarbons
Why is common salt added to the mixture

of palm oil and sodium hydroxide
solution?
A
B
C
D
A To provide salty taste to soap.

B To neutralise the alkali in the mixture.
C To increase the washing ability of
soap.
D To lower the solubility of soap in water
and precipitate it out.
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58
I and II only
I and III only
I and III only
I, II, and III

26 The difference between organic carbon
compounds and non-organic carbon
compounds is...
29
A organic carbon compounds are more

reactive than non-organic carbon
compounds.
B organic carbon compound molecules
are very big compared to non-organic
carbon compounds.
C organic carbon compounds originate
from living things while non-organic
carbon compounds originate from nonliving things.
D the structure of organic carbon
compounds are complex while the
structure of non-organic carbon
compounds are simple.
27 Which substances
hydrocarbons?
listed
below
What is used in this fermentation process?

I Rice + yeast
II Wheat + yeast
III Common salt + yeast
A
B
C
D
are
I Coal
II Petroleum
III Natural gas
A
B
C
D
hard
water
decomposes
soap
molecules.
II the magnesium and calcium ions in
hard water form salt with soap ions.
III a large number of soap molecules is
wasted due to its deposition as
magnesium or calcium salt.
I
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
I Hexane
II Heptene
III Pentene
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
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I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
30 Soap is unsuitable to be used in hard water

due to the fact that...
28 Identify the hydrocarbons listed below that

can decolourize acidified potassium
permanganate.
A
B
C
D
The diagram below shows the apparatus

used in making ethanol using the
fermentation process.
59
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III

CHAPTER 13: MOTION
1
The picture below shows

overloaded with goods.
lorry
The diagram below shows an operational

stage in a four-stroke petrol engine.
It is important for the government to

enforce the law to compound overloaded
vehicles because...
A goods might fall from the lorries.
B overloaded lorries are more difficult to
stop.
C overloaded lorries will damage the
roads.
D overloaded lorries might overturn on a
bend as they are less stable.
2
A
B
C
D
5
What should be increased in order to

obtain an increase of inertia of a moving
car?
A
B
C
D
What is the operational stage?
Speed of the car.

Power of the engine.
Distance travelled by the car.
Number of passengers in the car.
A
B
C
D
6
Energy
Inertia
Pressure
Momentum
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What safety features are used in vehicles to

reduce the negative effects of inertia?
I Safety seat belts
II Automatic airbags
III Absorber bumpers
An object will move in a straight line with

constant speed unless it is acted upon by
external forces. What causes this
phenomenon to happen?
A
B
C
D
Power stroke
Exhaust stroke
Induction stroke
Compression stroke
The bumper of the car is made of a

material that is easily dented in an
accident. Why this is done?
A
B
C
D
60
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
To prolong the time of accident.

To reduce the velocity of the car.
To increase the momentum of the car.
To conserve the momentum of the car.

7
The diagram below illustrates a piece of

chalk placed vertically on a trolley.
The diagram below shows the internal

combustion of engines X and Y.
What type of engine are X and Y?

The trolley is pushed so that it accelerates.
In which direction that the chalk would
fall?
A
B
C
D
8
A
B
W
X
Y
Z
C
D
The diagram below shows a coin placed on

a card.
diesel
petrol
diesel
diesel
petrol
petrol
petrol
A When its mass and velocity are

increased.
B When its mass and velocity are
decreased.
C When its mass is increased but its
velocity is decreased.
D When its mass is decreased but its
velocity is increased.
11 In an experiment to investigate the
relationship between the momentum of an
object and its mass, what is the fixed
variable?
I gravity
II inertia of the coin
III weight
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
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petrol
Y
Four stroke
engine
Four stroke
engine
Two stroke
engine
Two stroke
engine
10 When is the momentum of an object

increased?
When the card is flicked away, the coin

drops neatly into the cup. The factors that
cause this are...
A
B
C
D
X
Four stroke
engine
Four stroke
engine
Four stroke
engine
Four stroke
engine
61
The density of the object.

The weight of the object.
The volume of the object.
The velocity of the object.

12 What is an example of motion that is based
on the Principle of Conservation of
Momentum?
A
B
C
D
16
The diagram below illustrates the

arrangement of four cylinders in the engine
of a car.
The upward motion of a rocket.

The upward motion of an airship.
The upward motion of a helicopter.
The upward motion of an aeroplane.
13 Inertia measures...
A
B
C
D
14
mass
force
weight
momentum
What does this arrangement do?
The diagram below shows 4 identical tins

filled with different amounts of sand. The
tins are hung from a rod with string. The
length of the strings are equal.
A
B
C
D
Increase the power of the car.

Produce smoother output of power.
Reduce the usage of combustion fuel.
Complete the combustion of fuel
within the four stroke cycle.
17 What causes the combustion of fuel in a

four stroke diesel engine?
A
B
C
D
18
The tins are oscillated simultaneously with

equal force. Which tin takes the longest
time to stop oscillating?
A
B
C
D
What is X?
15 The acceleration of a car is 5 ms-2. This

means that in every second,...
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The description below occurs during stroke

X in a four stroke diesel engine.
Both the inlet valve and the exhaust valve
are closed.
The piston is moving downward.
W
X
Y
Z
A the displacement of the car is 5 m.

B the velocity of the car increases by 5
ms-1.
C the velocity of the car decreases by 5
ms-1.
D the momentum of the car increases by
5 kg ms-1.
Sparks from the spark plug.

Expansion of the combustion fuel.
Compression of the combustion fuel.
Heat from the friction between the
pistons and the wall of the cylinder.
A
B
C
D
62
Power stroke
Exhaust stroke
Induction stroke
Compression stroke

19
The diagram below shows a section of a

ticker tape obtained from a moving object.
23
Below are the parts of a four stroke engine.

W - Power stroke
X - Compression stroke
Y - Induction stroke
Z - Exhaust stroke
The sequence of the four stroke engine
cycle is...
What is the average speed of the object if

the ticker timer makes 50 dots per second?
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
10 cms-1
25 cms-1
41 cms-1
50 cms-1
The diagram below shows a simple

hydraulic system.
20 A car starts from rest and moves at a

constant acceleration of 2 ms-2. What is the
velocity of the car after 1 minute?
A
B
C
D
21
Y, X, Z, W
W, X, Z, Y
Y, X, W, Z
X, Y, W, Z
24
2 ms-1
12 ms-1
30 ms-1
120 ms-1
The forces acting on pistons P and Q are F1
and F2 respectively.Identify the statements
below that are true.
The diagram below shows the intermesh of

two gear wheels.
The pressure that acts on piston P is

equal to pressure that acts on piston Q.
II The liquid is compressed.
III F2 is larger than F1.
I
A
B
C
D
When is this position of gear used?

A
B
C
D
When a vehicle is starting from rest.

When a vehicle is moving up a slope.
When a vehicle is going down a slope.
When a vehicle is travelling at high
speed on a flat road.
25 What is the principle operation of a

hydraulic jack based on?
A
B
C
D
22 What is the shape of vehicles used in

water?
A
B
C
D
Aerofoil
Cylindrical
Rectangular
Streamlined
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I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
63
Pascal's principle
Bernoulli's principle
Archimedes' principle
The Principle of Conservation of
Momentum

26 A boy wearing a pair of sport shoes stands
on a weighing machine. The reading on the
weighing machine is 500 N and the size of
his shoes is 0.025 m2. What is the pressure
exerted on the weighing machine by the
boy?
A
B
C
D
27
29
The diagram below shows the hydraulic

brake of a car.
25 N m-2
12.5 N m-2
10 000 N m-2
20 000 N m-2
The diagram below shows a simple

hydraulic system.
What happens when the brake pedal is

released?
The brake fluid flows back to the
master cylinder.
II The spring separates the brake shoe
from the drum brake in the rear wheel.
III The bake pad is separated from the
brake disc in the front wheel.
I
The cross-sectional area of piston X and Y

is 25 cm2 and 100 cm2 respectively. A
force of 10 N acts on piston X. What is the
load supported by piston Y?
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
2.5 N
40.0 N
2 500 N
25 000 N
30 A car is moving at a uniform velocity of 10

ms-1. Then it accelerates to a velocity of 40
ms-1 in 5 seconds. Calculate the
acceleration of the car.
28 When is the Principle of Momentum

applied?
I When firing a shotgun.
II When driving piles into the ground
using a pile driver.
III When hammering a nail into wood.
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
http://exammy.com/
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
64
2 ms-2
6 ms-2
8 ms-2
10 ms-2

CHAPTER 14 :FOOD TECNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION
1
A farmer bought a two week supply of

meat. What method of preservation can be
used to maintain the freshness of the
meat?
A
B
C
D
The picture below shows the label on a

drink container for grape juice.
Drying
Cooling
Deep freezing
Vacuum packing
Food technology is used in food production

so that food...
I would be more attractive.
II is ready to eat.
III is easier to digest.
A
B
C
D
Based on the Food Regulations 1985, the

missing informtion on this food label is...
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
The imbalance between population

increase and technological development in
food production can lead to...
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
7
I Ingredients in the food.

II The expiry date of the food.
III The calorific value of the food.
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
What individuals can do to practise their

consumer rights?
I Right to return goods bought.
II Right to buy fresh food.
III Right to report to the statutory
authority.
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
http://exammy.com/
the
I seeking compensation
II getting information on food products
III selecting products with reasonable
prices.
What information is contained in a food

label?
A
B
C
D
of
6 Consumer rights include...
I starvation
II malnutrition
III social disturbances
A
B
C
D
the net weight.

the expiry date.
the main ingredients.
the name and address
manufacturer.
A
B
C
D
65
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III

8
What are the advantages of genetically

modified food?
11
The picture below shows a drink product.
It increases the quality and quantity of

food.
II It helps to overcome the world
shortage of food and prevent famines.
III Crops that produce insecticide
themselves do not need to be sprayed
with insecticide.
I
A
B
C
D
9
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
What is the most suitable way to process

and preserve this drink?
Which of the methods listed below can

increase the quality and quantity of food
production?
A
B
C
D
I Using modern technology.

II Using quality breeds.
III Educating the farmers.
A
B
C
D
10
12 Ah Seng wants to export prawns to Japan.

What method of preservation should be
used to maintain the freshness of the
prawns?
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
The information below are ingredients for

making biscuits.
A
B
C
D
Which ingredient helps the biscuits to last

longer?
Canning
Dehydration
Deep freezing
Vacuum packaging
14 Which of the chemicals listed below is a

preservative?
I Sulphur Dioxide
II Nitrite
III Lechitin
Margarine
Ascorbic acid
Baking powder
Vanilla essence
http://exammy.com/
Canning
Deep freezing
Pasteurization
Vacuum packaging
13 What method of food preservation listed

below can help to maintain vitamin
contents of food?
Wheat flour
Sugar
Margarine
Ascorbic acid
Baking powder
Salt
Vanilla essence
A
B
C
D
Cooling
Dehydration
Deep freezing
Pasteurization
A
B
C
D
66
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III

15 The process of dehydration is...
21 What method of food processing uses

gamma rays?
A adding water to food.

B boiling food at 100C .
C removing air from food.
D removing water from food.
A
B
C
D
16 Which of the following chemicals is

matched correctly to its function?
Chemical
Saccharin
Function
Emulsifier
Monosodium
glutamate
Boric acid
Gelatin
Flavouring
22 Why is lecithin added to ice cream?

A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
Sweetener
Preservative
that
I Damaged kidneys.
II Excessive hair loss.
III An increased risk of diabetes.
Colouring
Emulsifier
Flavouring
Preservative
A
B
C
D
18 Which food processing technology does

not kill bacteria spores?
A
B
C
D
To sweeten it.
To slow oxidation.
To remove unwanted colours.
To emulsify two substances
generally do not mix.
23 What are the effects of consuming too

much chemical found in food?
17 What is monosodium glutamate (MSG)?

A
B
C
D
Freezing
Canning
Irradiation
Vacuum packaging
24
Cooling
Freezing
Pasteurization
Vacuum packaging
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
The picture below shows a processed

drink.
19 Salt is added to fish and dried in the sun.

What type of food processing is this
called?
A Canning
B Dehydration
C Freeze drying
D Pasteurization
20 The increase in food production through
the use of quality breeds...
A do not require irrigation.
B is to carry out photosynthesis at night.
C can increase the lifespan of crops by 10
years.
D can produce higher yields in a shorter
period of time.
http://exammy.com/
The most suitable way to process this drink

is by...
A
B
C
D
67
cooling
freezing
freeze drying
pasteurization

25 The government
agency that is
responsible for the research to increase the
quantity and quality of palm oil is...
A
B
C
D
28 What can be done to reduce soil erosion?

I Terracing
II Contour planting
III Planting cover crops
MPOB
LKIM
MARDI
FELDA
A
B
C
D
26 What is the purpose of machinery in the

agriculture industry?
29 What is the purpose of efficient land

management?
I To increase the quantity of crop yield.

II To get the job done faster.
III To reduce the dependency on human
and animal labour.
A
B
C
D
I To prevent starvation.
II To prevent soil erosion.
III To avoid the loss of soil nutrients.
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
27 What measures can be taken to maintain

soil fertility?
63C
Heating food at
for 30 minutes
and cooling it quickly.
II Heating food in a pressure cooker at
120C for 15 minutes.
III Heating food at 72C and cooling it
quickly.
I
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
http://exammy.com/
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
30 Which of the methods listed below

describes pasteurization?
I By adding fertilizers.
II By cover rotation.
III By planting quality breeds.
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
68
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III

CHAPTER 15:SYNTHETHIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY
1
The uncontrolled disposal of synthetic

polymers can pollute the environment.
This is due to the fact that this substance
is...
A
B
C
D
cheaper and softer.

cheaper and stronger.
more expensive and softer.
more expensive and durable.
The processes of X and Y are...

A
B
C
D
water vapour and haze.

smoke and toxic gases.
water vapour and smoke.
smoke and carbon dioxide.
What are the effects of the disposal of

synthetic polymers to the environment?
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
Starch
Polythene
Polystyrene
Natural rubber
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Y
Depolymerization
Combustion
Polymerization
Combustion
headed with sulphur.

added with iron wire.
added with ethanoic acid.
added with ammonia solution.
Which of the pairs listed below is NOT

correct about plastic and its uses?
Type of plastic
PVC
Uses
Water pipe
B
C
Polystyrene
Perspex
Bakelite
Food container
Aeroplane
window-pane
Plastic bag
What is the monomer of isoprene?

A
B
C
D
X
Polymerization
Polymerization
Depolymerization
Depolymerization
To produce tyres that are harder and more

heat resistant, natural rubber should be...
A
B
C
D
I The flow of water in drains is blocked.

II They remain in the environment for a
long time.
III The accumulation of rain water in
used containers become breeding
places for mosquitoes.
The figure below shows a chemical

change.
The burning of synthetic polymers such as

plastic is prohibited because they can
cause pollution to the environment by
releasing ...
A
B
C
D
69

8
Which of the substance listed below is an

example of synthetic rubber?
A
B
C
D
12 What type of synthetic materials is used to

make food packaging boxes?
A
B
C
D
Perspex
Melamine
Polyvinyl chloride
Styrene-butadiene rubber
13 What happens when perspex is heated?
Which of the substance listed below is a

type of thermosetts plastic?
A
B
C
D
I A liquid is formed.
II The melting point of the monomer
becomes higher.
III Long chained molecules become short
chains.
Terylene
Polythene
Epoxyl glue
Polyvinyl chloride
A
B
C
D
10 Which of the gases listed below are

released when plastic is burned?
11
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
14 What example of products listed below are

made from neoprene?
I Carbon monoxide
II Carbon dioxide
III Nitrogen
A
B
C
D
Perspex
Neoprene
Polystyrene
Polyvinyl chloride
A
B
C
D
I only
II only
I and II only
I, II, and III
Tyres and shoe soles.

Petrol rubber tubes and tyres.
Shoe soles and electric wire casings.
Petrol rubber tubes and electric wire
casings.
15 What is the correct comparison between

synthetic rubber and natural rubber?
The diagram below shows the change in

the molecular structure of natural rubber
when it is stretched and release.
Synthetic rubber
More elastic
Natural rubber
Less elastic
A
B Does not react Reacts with acid
with acid
be
C Easily vulcanized Cannot
vulcanized
D Cannot withstand Able to withstand
heat
heat
The characteristic of natural rubber shown

is...
A
B
C
D
soft
sticky
elastic
easily snapped
http://exammy.com/
70

16 Which of the listed pairs below represent
the correct pairing of polymers and
monomers?
Polymers
Nylon
Monomers
Chloroethene
Perspex
C
D
Polythene
Thiokol rubber
Methyl
metacrylate
Chloroprene
Propene
20 What are the differences

thermoplastic and thermosetts?
Thermoplastic
I Soft
II Able to withstand
heat
III No cross linkages
A
B
C
D
17 Which substances listed below is a

synthetic polymer?
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
22 Synthetic rubber is...

I easily oxidize
II able to withstand heat
III good electric insulator
Use biodegradable plastic bags.

Bury the plastic bags in the soil.
Throw the plastic bags into the river.
Burn the plastic bags in a rubbish
dump.
A
B
C
D
19 Why thermosetts can only be melted and

moulded once only?
I bus tryes
II shoe soles
III cushions
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
http://exammy.com/
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
23 Products that are made of a combination of

synthetic rubber and natural rubber
include...
I Because they can withstand heat.

II Because they have long chains in their
polymer molecules.
III Because they have cross linkages
between long polymer plastics to
prevent sliding.
A
B
C
D
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
A They can withstand heat.

B They are not good insulators.
C They can be easily moulded into any
shape many times.
D They consist of long polymer chains
with cross linkages.
18 How do we avoid pollution from used

plastic bags?
A
B
C
D
Thermosetts
Hard
Cannot withstand
heat
Cross
linkages
present
21 What is true about thermoplastic?
I Protein
II Neoprene
III Polythene
A
B
C
D
between
71
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III

CHAPTER 16:ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION AND
COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
1
Fibre optics is a better choice of cable lines

compared to traditional copper for
telecommunication because...
4.
they are able to transmit more

information.
II they can carry electrical signals more
effectively.
III they face less interference during
transmission.
I
A
B
C
D
2
they are able to transmit more

information.
II they can carry electrical signals more
effectively.
III they face less interference during
transmission.
I
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A
B
C
D
What instruments listed below functions

by using telephone cables?
A
B
C
D
I Because it does not send pictures.

II Because it sends a large amount of
information.
III Because it is slow in transmitting
information.
Wave frequency is the...
A source produces a sound with a

frequency of 200 Hz and a wave length of
1.5 m. The velocity of the wave is...
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
72
13.3 ms-1
30.0 ms-1
133.3 ms-1
300.0 ms-1
The electronic component that is used to

store charges and electrical energy is a(n)...
A
B
C
D
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I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
A highest point of the wave.

B distance between two successive peaks.
C number of complete oscillations in one
second.
D distance between the rest position and
its peak.
Radio
Television
Fax machine
Cellular phone
Why is telegram less popular nowadays?
A
B
C
D
Fibre optics is a better choice for cable

lines compared to traditional copper for
telecommunications because...
diode
resistor
inductor
capacitor

8
The diagram below shows a satellite

communication system.
11
The information below is about component

X of a radio wave.
Designated as short waves in radio
communication.
Reflected by the ionosphere.
What is X?
A
B
C
D
The communication is transmitted through

X. X is...
A
B
C
D
9
12
long waves
short waves
microwaves
medium waves
High frequency
Very high frequency
Ultra high frequency
Super high frequency
The table below shows the components of

an electromagnetic spectrum.
W
Y
Microwave
Infrared
X
Z
Which of the waves listed is radio waves?
The diagram below shows a block diagram

for a radio transmission system.
A
B
C
D
13
W
X
Y
Z
The diagram below shows process P in a

radio transmission system.
Referring to the table below, what is true

about X, Y, and Z?
A
B
C
D
X
Modulator
Modulator
Oscillator
Oscillator
Y
Amplifier
Oscillator
Modulator
Amplifier
P is...
Z
Oscillator
Amplifier
Amplifier
Modulator
A
B
C
D
10 Which of the statement below is true about

microwaves?
A
B
C
D
They pass through the ionosphere.

They are used in AM broadcasting.
They cannot pass through a vacuum.
They are reflected by the ionosphere.
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Visible light
X-ray
73
oscillator
demodulator
amplitude modulation
frequency modulation

14
The diagram below shows the block

diagram for a radio receiver system.
18
The diagram below shows an audio signal

in an oscilloscope.
What is true about X, Y, and Z?

A
B
C
D
X
Amplifier
Detector
Tuner
circuit
Tuner
circuit
Y
Tuner circuit
Tuner circuit
Detector
Z
Detector
Amplifier
Amplifier
Amplifier
Detector
What is the frequency of the audio signal

shown above?
A
B
C
D
19
15 The shortest wavelength has...

A
B
C
D
low frequency waves

high frequency waves
very high frequency waves
ultra high frequency waves
1.0 Hz
1.25 Hz
2.5 Hz
5.0 Hz
The
diagram
below
shows
an
electromagnetic wave on the screen of an
oscilloscope.
16 A radio wave travels at a velocity of 3

108 ms-1. The frequency of the radio at the
wavelength of 0.6 m is...
A
B
C
D
1.8
2.0
3.6
5.0
108 Hz
108 Hz
108 Hz
108 Hz
17 What contains in the demodulator of

radio receiver system?
A
B
C
D
What is the amplitude

electromagnetic wave?
A
B
C
D
A diode and a fixed capacitor.

A diode and a variable capacitor.
An inductor and a fixed capacitor.
An inductor and a variable capacitor.
http://exammy.com/
74
2 cm
3 cm
4 cm
6 cm
of
the

20
The diagram below shows sound waves

produced from a source.
23 The advantages of using satellites for

communication are...
more information can be transmitted
compared to using cables.
II live telecasts can be broadcasted
simultaneously around the world.
III the communication is not affected by
weather.
I
A
B
C
D
Which is the wavelength?

A
B
C
D
21
24 The satellite communication

services such as...
JL
JM
KM
KN
A
B
C
D
X
Sound energy electrical energy
Y
Electrical energy
sound energy
I Solar cells
II Hydrogen cells
III A nuclear reactor
Y
Microphone
Loudspeaker
Microphone
Loudspeaker
A
B
C
D
22 The uses of satellites include...

I forecasting the weather.
II studying the structure of the earth's
surface.
III locating the position of ships.
A
B
C
D
26
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III

P of a radio transmitter.
Inductor and capacitor.
Generates radio waves.
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
http://exammy.com/
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
25 Where does a communication satellite gets

its power supply from?
What is true about devices X and Y?

A
B
C
D
provides
I relaying telephone conversations

II facsimile transmission
III the Internet
The diagram below shows the energy

changes in devices X and Y.
X
Microphone
Microphone
Loudspeaker
Loudspeaker
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
P is a (n)...
75
A
B
C
D
amplifier
oscillator
modulator
microphone

27
The diagram below shows part of a radio

receiver system.
29 What contains in the demodulator of

radio receiver system?
A
B
C
D
30
The function of the circuit shown is...

A to amplify sound signals.
B to separate sound signals from radio
waves.
C to superimpose sound signals with
radio waves.
D to select a frequency that resonates
with the carrier frequency.
28
The diagram below shows the block

diagram for a radio receiver system.
A
B
C
D
Decides the programmes to be received.

Electrons oscillate inside it.
P is a(n)...
oscillator
modulator
tuner circuit
demodulator
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A diode and a fixed capacitor.

A diode and a variable capacitor.
An inductor and a fixed capacitor.
An inductor and a variable capacitor.
The necessary component that enables

sound to be heard on a radio receiver
system is the....

P in a radio receiver system.
A
B
C
D
76
aerial
detector
amplifier
tuner circuit
PAPER 2
CHAPTER 1 : SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION
1.
The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the freezing
point of the pure water.
The table below shows the result of the experiment.
Substances
Freezing point / C
Pure water
0
Pure water +
common salt
(a) What is the freezing point for the pure water that is added common salt?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Write down one observation based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) State the variables in this experiment.
(i) Manipulated variable:
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Responding variable:
[ 1 mark ]
http://exammy.com/
77
2.
The diagram below shows an experiment to determine the mass, volume and the density of
the iron and the cork.
(a) Calculate the densities of the cork and the iron.

(i) Density of cork =_______ g cm
(ii) Density of iron =_______ g cm
3
3
[2 marks ]
(b)
If the cork and the iron are placed in a liquid with a density of 0.56g cm . What will
happen to the cork and iron?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State one hypothesis for this experiment based on the relationship between the density of
an object and its ability to float on a liquid.
[ 1 mark ]
http://exammy.com/
78
3.
The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the sprout of seeds.
(a) Write down one inference based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the variables in this experiment.
(i) Fixed variable:
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Manipulated variable:
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) Predict the seeds in test tube B.
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Give explanation for your answer in (c)(i).
[ 1 mark ]
http://exammy.com/
79
4.
The table below shows the weight of students in class 5B is divided into 5 groups.
Weight (kg)
40-44
45-49
50-54
55-59
60-64
Number of
students
2
6
12
9
3
(a) Draw a graph based on information the table that given.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) There are how many students in class 5B?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the highest weight of the students in class 5B?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the percentage of the students weighting 55 kg and above?
[ 1 mark ]
5.
The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the length of pendulum on the
time for 10 oscillations.
http://exammy.com/
80
(a) Based on the experiment above, complete the table below.

Length of
pendulum (cm)
Time for 10
oscillations (s)
10
20
30
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the variables in this experiment.
(i) Fixed variable:
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Manipulated variable:
[ 1 mark ]
http://exammy.com/
81
6.
The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of fixed amount of water heater
and the temperature of the water record in every 3 minutes.
(a) Write down one observation for this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the observation (a).
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the variable should be fixed in this experiment and explain how it is fixed.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Predict the temperature if more water is used.
[ 1 mark ]
7.
The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the weight of the load on the
extension of a spring.
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82
The table below shows the different weight and the extension of spring.
Weight of load
(F/N)
1.5
2.0
2.5
3.0
3.5
Extension of
spring (x/cm)
3.0
6.0
9.0
12.0
15.0
[ 1 mark ]
(i) Responding variable:
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) For this part of question, use the graph paper.
Based on the table above plot a graph of load of weight (F) versus extension of spring
(x).
[ 1 mark ]
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83
(ii) State the relationship between F and x.
[ 1 mark ]
8.
The diagram below shows an experiment to estimate the size of a water particle. 200 drops of
water are released from the burette to a container.
(a) Write down the initial reading and final reading of the burette.
(i) The initial reading of burette
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) The final reading of burette
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Calculate the volume of one drop of water.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) If one drop of water can produce 100 droplets of water, what is the volume of one droplet
of water?
http://exammy.com/
84
[ 2 marks ]
9.
The diagram below shows a measuring cylinder that containing water.
(a) What is the volume of water in the cylinder?

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
When a stone is placed into the water and the level of water become 58 cm . What is the
volume of the stone?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) If the mass of the stone given that is 50 g, calculate the density of the stone.
[ 1 mark ]
(d)
A cork with a density of 0.26 cm placed into the cylinder. If given the water with a
mass of 20 g. The cork will sink in the water or float on the water?
[ 2 marks ]
10. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the boiling
point of pure water.
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The table below shows the result of the experiment.
Substances
Boiling point C
Pure water
100
Pure water + salt

(a) What is the boiling point for the pure water after added the salt.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
(i) Responding variable:
[1 mark ]
[1 mark ]
11. The table below shows the gas pressure and the gas volume.
Pressure
10
15
20
25
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Volume
50
40
30
20
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(a) What is the relationship between the pressure and the volume of gas? Explain.
[ 2 marks ]
(i) Fixed variable
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Responding variable
[ 1 mark ]
12. A student doing an experiment to confirm his observation of the sugar will dissolve faster in
boiling water.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(i) Fixed variable
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Manipulated variable
[ 1 mark ]
13. The diagram below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.
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(a) Based on the diagram above, complete the blank of step (i) ,(ii) and (iii).
[ 3 marks ]
(b) State two the important of scientific investigation method.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State two attitudes and values are needed in a scientific investigation.
[ 2 marks ]
14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the lead shots of the test tube.
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(a) State the variables in this experiment.

(i)Fixed variable
[ 1 mark ]
(ii)Manipulated variable
[ 1 mark ]
(iii)Responding variable
[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the aim of experiment based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
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15. The flow chart below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.
Identifying the problem Forming a

X Carrying out the
hypothesis
investigation
Collecting
data
Conclusion
(a) Based on the diagram above, name the step X and explain this step.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) List two the part that involves in the step of planning the investigation.
1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List two things that should contain in a complete experimental report.
1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]
(a) What is inference? It is same with the conclusion?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is hypothesis?
[1 mark ]
(c) List the entire variable that important in a scientific investigation and explain it.
[3 marks ]
(d) State two of the forms of presenting data.
1.
2.
[2 marks ]
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16
The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the temperature of different
size of container
(a) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(i) Fixed variable
[ 1 mark]
(ii) Manipulated variable
[ 1 mark]
(iii) Responding variable
[ 1 mark]
(c) State two positive attitudes and values.
1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]
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17. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the density on the ability of an
object float or sink in the water.
Substances
Ice
Iron
Cork
Observation
(a) Based on the above experiment, complete the table.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(i) Fixed variable
[ 1 mark]
(ii) Manipulated variable
[ 1 mark]
(iii) Responding variable
[ 1 mark]
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18. The diagram below shows the density of a stone.
(a) What is the mass of the stone which shows in the diagram (a)?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the initial reading of the cylinder?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What the final reading of the cylinder is after placed the stone in the water?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the density of the stone?
[2 marks ]
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CHAPTER 2 : BODY COORDINATION

1.
The table below shows the reaction time for 10 students from class 5B by measuring the time
taken for each student to buttoning the shirts.
Student number
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Reaction time (ms)

30
90
110
60
120
40
160
130
50
100
(a) Complete the table below based on the reaction time of the students and placed into 4
groups.
Reaction time
(ms)
Number of
students in
group
[2 marks ]
(b) Based on the table in (a) draw a bar chart.
[1 mark ]
(c) What receptors are involved in this type of activity?
[1 mark ]
(d) Based on the receptors that found in (b), what is the function for the receptors?
[ 1 mark ]
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2.
The diagram below shows the reflex arc in a human knee-jerk.
(a) How many neurone involves in this reflex action?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the neuron that involved in this reflex action.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Write the summary of the path taken by an impulse.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) What is the outcome for this reflex action?
[ 1 mark ]
3.
The diagram below shows a type of neurone.
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(a) Name the type of this neurone.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the function of this type of neurone.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the label P?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) State the function of label P.
[ 2 marks ]
4.
The table below shows the reactions of sensory organs to various stimuli.
Stimuli
Ice cubes
Vinegar
Sugar cane
Television
Radio
Reaction
Feel cold
Sharp smell of sour
Sweet taste
Movie is see
Music is hear
Sensory organ involved
(a) State the suitable sensory organ that involved in the various stimuli.
[ 3 marks ]
(b) Write the pathway of impulses in the nervous coordination
[ 2 marks ]
5.
The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.
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(a) What is the function for cerebellum?

(b) Which parts of the human brain are controlled the involuntary actions?
[ 1 mark ]
[1 mark ]
(c) Explain the voluntary actions and give an example.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) What is the effect of injuries to the cerebrum?
[ 1 mark ]
6.
The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.
(a) Label P, Q and R.

[ 3 marks ]
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(b) What is the function of R?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Name two activities controlled by the P.
[ 2 marks ]
7.
The diagram below shows the cross section of the spinal cord and the nerves connected to it.
(a) Name the neurones that involved in this reflex action.

[ 3 marks ]
(b) Name the label P.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the function of P?
[ 1 mark ]
8.
The diagram below shows the human endocrine system.
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(a) What are endocrine glands?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the P and Q.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State the function for P and Q.
[ 2 marks ]
9.
The diagram below shows the human muscle.
(a) Label the structure X.
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[ 1 mark ]
(b) Explain the function of structure X.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Where can structure X be found?
[ 3 marks ]
10. The diagram below shows the human nervous system.
(a) Label the X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) Explain the function of the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.
[2 marks ]
(c) What is the human nervous system?
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[1 mark ]
11. The diagram below shows a neurone.
(a) Label the X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) Name the neurone that shows in the diagram above.
(c) Shows the direction of the impulse at the diagram.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
12. The diagram below shows a main part of human brain.
(a) Name the part of human brain that shows at the diagram above.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Label P, Q, R and S.
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[ 4 marks ]
13. The flow chart below shows nervous coordination in human.
Sensory neurone Motor neurone Central nervous

Stimulus Organ P
Motor neurone Effector Responds
system
(a) State two examples of organ P.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) What type of the action that shows in the flow chart?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) List two examples of such action.
[ 2 marks ]
14. The statement below shows the examples of voluntary action.
Eating
Reading
Dancing
Writing
(a) What is the voluntary action?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Give two examples of involuntary actions.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List two differences between voluntary actions and involuntary actions.
[ 2 marks ]
15. The diagram below shows the human endocrine gland.
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(a) What is the hormone secretes by X?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the function of the hormone that secretes by X?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) List two effects of oversecretion of hormone that secretes by X.
[ 2 marks ]
16. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in the withdrawal of hand from a hot object.
(a) Label P, Q and R.

[ 3 marks ]
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(b) Write the path taken by an impulse in the withdrawal reflex.
[ 2 marks ]
17. The diagram below shows a motor neurone.
(a) Label X.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the function of X?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) List two differences between the sensory motor and relay motor.
[ 2 marks ]
18. The diagram below shows an impulse pathway when a student accidentally touches a hot pot.
(a) Label the X, Y and Z.

[ 3 marks ]
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(b) Why the reflex actions are important?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) If the motor neurone is damaged, what will happen?
[ 1 mark ]
19. The diagram below shows three people that have different height. The Individual P who has a
normal height.
(a) Name the disease that faced by individual Q and R.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) Name the hormone that controls this disease.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the function of this hormone?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Name the endocrine gland involved in (b).
[ 1 mark ]
20. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located at the base of cerebrum.
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(a) What is the name of this endocrine gland?

[1 mark ]
(b) What is the function of this endocrine gland?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Name the hormone that secreted by this endocrine gland.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) List down the effect of under secretion and over secretion.
[ 2 marks ]
21. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located in front of the trachea.
(a) Name this endocrine gland.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the hormone produced by this gland.
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(d) List two effects of the under secretion of this hormone.
[ 2 marks ]
22. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located on top of the kidneys.
(a) Label P.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the hormone secreted by glands P.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(d) List two effects of over secretion of this hormone
[ 2 marks ]
23. The diagram below shows the ovaries in a female body.
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(a) Where the ovaries are located?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) List down the two hormones produced by ovaries.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List down the function of both hormones.
[ 2 marks ]
24. The diagram below shows a pair of testes in male body.
(a) Label X.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the function of X?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the main hormone produced by testes?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the function of this hormone?
25. The statement below shows three main groups of drugs.
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Stimulant
Depressant
Hallucinogens
(a) Define the drugs.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) List two drugs for group stimulant.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List two effects of drug abuse on nervous system and body coordination for group
hallucinogens.
[ 2 marks ]
CHAPTER 3 : HEREDITY AND VARIATION

1.
The table below shows the height of the students in class 5B.
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Height (cm)
Number of students
146 and below

146 -150
151 - 155
156 - 160
161 - 165
165 and above
1
5
13
12
6
5
109

(a) Draw a histogram based on the table above.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) What type of the variation that show in (b)?

[ 1 mark ]
(c) Give two characteristic of this type of variation .
1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]
2.
The graph below shows the ability to roll the tongue of the students in class 5A.
(a) What type of variation that shows at the graph?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Give two examples of this type variation.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List the factors that cause variation.
[ 2 marks ]
3.
The diagram below shows the formation of twins.
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(a) What type of twins is formed?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the process P.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) List the characteristics of this type of twins.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) What is the sex of the twins?
[ 1 mark ]
4.
The diagram below shows phases that happens in a cell division.
(a) What process are involved this phases?
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[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name this phases.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Describe this phases.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Is the mitosis process occurrence of crossing over?
5.
The diagram below shows how two types of twins are formed.
(a) Name the types of twins P and twins Q.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) State the similarity for the twins P and twins Q.
[1 mark ]
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(c) State the differences between the twins P and twins Q.
[ 3 marks ]
6.
The diagram below shows the selective breeding of two different types of oil palm.
(a) Defines what selective breeding is.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) List two examples products produce by selective breeding.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List two advantages of selective breeding.
[ 2 marks ]
7.
The diagram below shows the chromosome map of a patient that suffers of genetic disease.
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(a) Name the disease that suffers by the patient down's syndrome.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What cause the patient suffers the disease?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Which chromosome pair causes the disease?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) List two possible distinctive physical characteristic of the patient that suffers this disease.
[ 2 marks ]
8.
The diagram below shows the cell is undergoing cell division.
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(a) Name a type of cell division.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Where is this process take places in human body?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List down the two characteristic of this type of cell division.
[ 2 marks ]
9.
The diagram below shows the inheritance of tallness and dwarfness in plant.
(a) Write down each child's pair of genes in the boxes provides in the diagram.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) Based on the diagram above, what type of plant is dominant.
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[ 1 mark ]
(c) Give two example of recessive trait.
[ 2 marks ]
10
The diagram below shows the sex determination in human being.
(a) Name process X and process Y.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) What is the sex of the zygote F?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Explain how to determine the sex of zygote G.
[ 2 marks ]
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11
The diagram below shows the monohybrid cross between plants. R is gene for red flowers
,and r is gene for white flowers.
(a) Complete the diagram above.

[ 2 marks ]
(b)
What is the phenotype ratio of the red flowers to white flowers in the F generation?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Which type of flower is dominant?

[ 1 mark ]
(d) Define what homozygous is.
[ 1 mark ]
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12
The diagram below shows the chromosome mutations which involve changes in structure of
chromosomes.
(a) Label W, X, Y and Z.

[ 4 marks ]
(b) Define what chromosome mutation is.
[ 1 mark ]
13
The diagram below shows the relationship among gene, DNA and chromosome.
(a) What are X, Y and Z represent?

[ 3 marks ]
(b) Defines what genes are.
[ 1 mark ]
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(c) If the plant has 4 pairs of chromosomes. What is the number of chromosome in its
epidermal cell?
[ 1 mark ]
14
The following passage describes a type of mutation.

Gene mutation occurs when part of the DNA on single chromosome is
changed. As a result, a defective protein may be produced or no protein
may be produced at all. This can lead to a considerable change in
certain characteristic.
(a) What type of mutation is show at the passage above?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Give two examples for this type of mutation.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Define what mutation is.
[ 2 marks ]
15
The diagram below shows the phase of cell division in an animal cell.
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(a) Name a type of cell division.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the two characteristic of this type of cell division.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Explain process at P.
[ 2 marks ]
16. The diagram below shows process meiosis.
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(a) What is the purpose of this process?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) List down the differences between mitosis and meiosis in term of occurrence of crossing
over and number of times nucleus divides.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Why is the process crossing over and random distribution of chromosomes occurring
during meiosis?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Explain the process crossing over.
[ 1 mark ]
17. The statement below shows the disease of mutation.
Down's syndrome
Colour blindness
Haemophilia
(a) Which of the disease of mutation that shows at the statement above are under gene
mutation?
[ 2 marks ]
(b) Give three advantages of mutation.
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[ 3 marks ]
18. The diagram below shows a disease cause by chromosome mutation.
(a) Name the disease.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the characteristics of this disease.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Who will suffer from this disease?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the difference between this disease and Klinefelter's syndrome?
[ 1 mark ]
19. The diagram below shows the inheritance of the type of hair.
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(a) Label P, Q, R and S.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) Which type of hair is recessive?
[ 1 mark ]
(c)
What is the phenotype ratio of curly hair to straight hair in F generation?

[ 1 mark ]
(d) What type of variation is this?

[ 1 mark ]
20
The diagram below shows the two types of twins.
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(a) List two differences between these two types of twins.
[ 3 marks ]
(b) Define what Siamese twins are.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State two characteristics that are same for the identical twins.
[2 marks ]
21. The diagram below shows the chromosome map of Klinefelter's syndrome.
(a) This disease is cause by chromosome mutation or gene mutation?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Who will be affecting by this disease?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Define what Klinefelter's syndrome is.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Give two examples of mutagens.
[ 2 marks ]
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22. The diagram below shows the four groups of thumb prints for the students in class 5E.
(a) Construct a histogram of the number of students against the groups of thumb prints.
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[ 2 marks ]
(b) What type of variation that shows in (a)?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) List two differences between continuous variation and discontinuous variation.
[ 2 marks ]
23. The diagram below shows the inheritance of colour blindness.
(a) Complete the diagram above.

[ 4 marks ]
(b) What is the probability of the parents get a colour blindness son?
[ 1 marks ]
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24
The diagram below shows the variation among Vinson family member.
(a) What type of the diagram is used?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) What type of variation is shows on the diagram?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Give a conclusion that get from the diagram.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) List two important of variation.
[ 2 marks ]
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CHAPTER 4 : MATTER AND SUBSTANCE

1.
The table below shows the subatomic particles of some element.

Element
Proton number
P
6
Q
7
R
8
14
Nucleon number
Number of
electrons
Number of
neutrons
(a) Complete the table above.
10
[ 3 marks ]
(b) Which of the elements is an isotope?

[ 1 mark ]
(c) Define what isotopes are?
[ 1 mark ]
2.
The diagram below shows the arrangement and movement of the particles in the three states of
matter.
(a) Name the three states of matter that represented by X, Y and Z.
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[ 3 marks ]
(b) List two property of the matter X.

[ 2 marks ]
3.
The diagram below shows the part of the Periodic Table.
(a) Name an element which is in

(i) Group 17
(ii) Period 4
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Which element is a
(i) metal
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) non-metal
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) semimetal
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Which two elements have similar chemical properties?
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[ 1 mark ]
4.
The table below shows the properties of subatomic particles.

Subatomic
particles
Charge
Relative atomic
mass
Location
+1
1
Neutral
1
-1
1/840
In the nucleus
In the nucleus
In the electron
shells around
the nucleus
(a) Name the X, Y and Z

[ 3 marks ]
(b) Why the nucleus of an atom is has a positive change.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Which of this subatomic particles move in circular orbits around the nucleus?
[ 1 mark ]
5.
The diagram below shows interconversion of the three states of matter.
(a) Name the process A, B, C and D.
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[ 4 marks ]
(b) Name of the process involve absorption of heat?
6.
The diagram below shows the interconversion of the states of matter.
[ 2 marks ]
(a) Name the process P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) Describe the process P.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) The process P or Q involve releases of heat.
[ 1 mark ]
7.
The diagram below shows an incomplete Periodic Table.
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(a) What is the specific name of group 17?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the element B represented?
[ 3 marks ]
(c) Describe the element in group 1.
[ 1 mark ]
8.
The diagram below shows a distillation process.
(a) Label the flow of water at the top and bottom of the condenser.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Define what distillation is.

[ 2 marks ]
(c) What the purpose is of used the liebig condenser?
[ 1 mark ]
9.
The table below shows the substances and their boiling point.
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Substance
Boiling point ( C)
Pure water
Pure water + common salt
100
105
(a) What is the inference for this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the variables for this experiment.

(i) Manipulated variable
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the operational definition of pure water?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is pure substance?
[ 2 marks ]
10. The flow chart below shows purifying salt from a saturated solution of common salt.
Dissolving
Process P
Process Q
Filtration
Crystals
(a) Name the process P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) What is the method is using for this purifying?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Defines what purification is.
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[ 1 mark ]
(d) Name the other purification method.
[ 1 mark ]
11. The diagram below shows a Periodic Table.
(a) What is the specific name for group 18?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name element P.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) List three characteristic of element Q.
[ 3 marks ]
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(a) Name the elements P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) Give two characteristic of element T.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Which element is a semimetal?
[ 1 marks ]
13. The table below shows a physical property of atom and ions.
Physical property
Physical state at room
temperature
Electrical conductivity
Atomic substance
Ionic substance
Solid( for all metals except

Solid
mercury)
Gas(for all noble gases)
All metals are good
Conduct electricity only
conductors of electricity when melted or dissolved in
water
(a) Physical properties of substances depend on what?

[ 3 marks ]
(b) What are the physical properties of atoms and ions in term of melting point and solubility?
[ 2 marks ]
14. The graph below shows a boiling curve of a pure substance.
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(a) State the physical states at

(i) RS
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) ST
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the process where the substance changes state at
(i) BC
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) DE
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the boiling point for the substance?
[ 1 mark ]
15. The diagram below shows an activity to studying the physical properties of metals.
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(a) What are the physical properties of metal can observe from the activity?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Give another two physical properties of metal.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List two examples of metals.
[ 2 marks ]
16. The statement below shows the elements of metals and non-metals.
Copper
Sulphur
Sodium
Iodine
Chlorine
(a) Which of the above elements are
(i) metals?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) non-metals?
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[ 1 mark ]
(b) Show three differences between metals and non-metals.
[ 3 marks ]
17. The table below shows the number of protons, electrons and neutron.
Element Number Number Number
of
of
of
protons neutrons electrons
P
4
4
4
Q
5
1
1
R
13
10
9
S
19
15
19
(a) Which element is a
(i) neutral?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) positively charged?
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) negatively charged?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the nucleon number and proton number of element Q?
[ 2 marks ]
18. The diagram below shows two different liquid.
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(a) Which of the following liquid is not a pure substance? Explain your answer.
[2 marks ]
(b) Predict the boiling point and freezing point for the liquid X if liquid X is pure water.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Name two methods use to purifying the impurities on the liquid Y.
[ 2 marks ]
19. The diagram below shows a difference of properties between metals and non-metals.
In term of
State
Metals
Solids
Luminosity
Shiny
surface
Strong
Hardness
Non-metals
solids,
liquids or
gases
Dull surface
Brittle and
not strong
(a) Give an example for metals and non-metals.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) List another three differences between metals and non-metals in term of malleability,
ductility and density.
[ 3 marks ]
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20. The diagram below shows atomic structure of an atom P.
(a) Name the subatomic particles contained in the nucleus of atom P.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) Which group of the Periodic Table does P belong?
[1 mark ]
(c) State two used of this group.
[ 2 marks ]
(a) How are the elements arranged in the Periodic Table?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Using the letters P - S, name
(i) noble gas
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[ 1 mark]
(ii) an alkali metal
[ 1 mark]
(iii) an alkaline earth metal
[ 1 mark]
(iv) halogen
[ 1 mark]
CHAPTER 5 : ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

1.
The diagram below shows an apparatus to study in electroplating an iron spoon.
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(a) Name the parts for P and Q.

P:
Q:
[ 2 marks ]
(b) The experiment above is held for 30 minutes.
(i)What happens to the mass of the iron spoon?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii)What is K made of?
[ 1 mark ]
(iii)What observation can been make for substance K?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Write down the reason for why is the concentration of copper(II) sulphate solution is
unchanged for the experiment.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Give one condition that copper is able to electroplate nicely on the iron spoon.
[ 1 marks ]
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2.
The diagram below shows a study of the reactivity of three types of metal, X, Y, and Z reacting
with oxygen.
The table below shows the result that derived from experiment above.
Metal
Result
X
Burns very brightly.
Y
Glows brightly and vigorously.
Z
Glow with a little dim flame.
(a) State a hypothesis that can be derived from the experiment above.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Determine the following variable for the experiment above.
(i) Fixed variable:
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Manipulated variable
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the word equation for reaction between metal and oxygen.
(i) X
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Y
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[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Z
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Based on the table above arrange the reactivity of metals in descending order.
[ 1 mark ]
(e)
Copper, Magnesium, Aluminium

Use the substance above identify X, Y, and Z from the result of their reactivity as shown
by the experiment above.
X:
Y:
Z:
[ 3 marks ]
Diagram below shows a blast furnace used to produce a certain metal.
(a) Coke, substance X and substance Y are poured into the furnace.
Name the Substance X and Y.
Substance X:
Substance Y:
[ 2 marks ]
(b) What gas is it that blasted into the lower part of furnace?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What are the products P and Q which are extracted from the base of the furnace?
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Product P:
Product Q:
(d) Write an equation that related to the diagram above.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
4.
The diagram below shows an experiment which is carried out in the laboratory.
(a) Name the process of the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Determine which electrode is the anode and cathode.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the function of copper wires at the experiment above.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Predict the observation which occurs at the anode and cathode.
[ 2 marks ]
(e) What changes will occurs to the concentration of the copper(II) sulphate solution at the end
of the process?
[ 1 mark ]
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5.
The diagram below shows the extraction of tin in a blast furnace.
(a) What is the common name for tin ore?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the purpose for adding limestone into the blast furnace when extracting the tin
from its ore?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Write an equation for the reduction reaction that produces molten tin.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Why aluminium cannot be extracted using carbon in the reduction process?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Why is carbon usually be used when extraction of metals in the industrial?
[ 2 marks ]
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6.
The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to purify a piece of metal. After 15
minutes it doesn't show any result.
(a) State the error that causes no any observation can be making by the diagram above. Draw
the correct arrangement of apparatus that should be set up for experiment above in the
space below.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) Which of the substance act as
(i) anode
(ii) cathode
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Write the observation at the
(i) anode
(ii) cathode
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[ 2 marks ]
(d) At the end of experiment, what changes will take place at silver nitrate solution?
[ 1 mark ]
7.
The diagram below shows a graph of the volume of hydrogen gas produced against time for an
experiment to compare the reactivity of metals X and Y with dilute sulphuric acid.
(a) State one hypothesis for the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) According to the experiment above, identify the
(i) manipulated variable
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) responding variable
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) fixed variable
[ 1 mark ]
(c) At 6th minute, which metal produces more hydrogen gas?
[ 1 mark ]
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(d) Based on your opinion, what is the volume of hydrogen gas produced by the metal Y at the
20th minute?
[ 1 mark ]
8.
Diagram (a) and (b) shows an experiment to compare the reactivity of metals P and Q with
dilute hydrochloric acid.
(a) Predict the observation for the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]
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(b) Write down one inference that can be made from the observation above.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State one controlled variable in this experiment
[1 mark ]
The graph below shows the result of the experiment above.
(d) (i)State the relationship between the volume of gas and the reaction time in the first two
minute.
(ii) Guess the volume of gas collected by the seventh minute of metal Q.
[ 2 marks ]
(e) What substance of metal Q might be?
[ 1 mark ]
9.
Diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to study the production of electrical energy
by a simple cell.
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(a) State which the plates act as the positive and negative terminals.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) Determine the changes can be observed at the
(i) negative terminal
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) positive terminal
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Write the chemical reaction that occurs at the
(i) negative terminal
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) positive terminal:
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Explain how the galvanometer and the bulb function.
[ 2 marks ]
10. The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus of an experiment to study the
production of electricity from chemicals.
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Experiment is repeated by replacing the lead with other metal samples.

Readings of the voltmeter are observe in the experiment above and shows in table below.
Pair of metals
Zinc and nickel
Zinc and copper
Voltmeter reading
(V)
0.2
1.4
(a) State the voltmeter reading for the lead and copper that shown in diagram above.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the function for dilute hydrochloric acid in this experiment?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Determine the responding variable in this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Guess the readings of the voltmeter when a pair of copper metals is used in the experiment
above.
[ 1 mark ]
11. The diagram below shows the parts of a dry cell.
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(a) Determine the part that acts as

(i) the positive terminal
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) the negative terminal
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the parts of the following below according the diagram above.
K:
L:
M:
N:
[4 marks ]
(c) State two disadvantage of this cell.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) State two example of chemical cell that is same type of the cell above.
[ 2 marks ]
12. The diagram below shows the arrangement of apparatus of an experiment for the process of
electrolysis.
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(a) Write down the observation that will occur at

(i) anode
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) cathode
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Based on the answer of (a), explain how can this occur?
(i) anode
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) cathode
[ 1 mark ]
(c) How can you identify the answer of (c) in this experiment?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the intensity change for the color of the copper chloride solution while the
experiment proceeds?
[ 1 mark ]
13. The diagram below shows a process which uses electric energy to split up lead bromide.
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(a) What is the process shown in the diagram above?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) X and Y are two electrodes made of a certain material.
(i) What is the material?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Which is the negative electrode?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) Why solid lead bromide cannot conduct electricity?
[ 1 mark]
(ii) What changes have to make on solid lead bromide in order to conduct electricity?
[ 1 mark]
(d) When the electricity is passed through, what are the ions that present in the molten lead
bromide?
[ 2 marks ]
(e) (i) Electrode P will release a gas. What gas is that?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Determine the properties of the gas released.
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[ 1 mark ]
(f) A product formed at electrode L is
[ 1 mark ]
14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the reactivity of metals with oxygen.
(a) State the hypothesis about the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Based on the experiment, identify the
(i) fixed variable:
[ 1 marks ]
(ii) responding variable:
[ 1 marks ]
(iii) manipulated variable:
[ 1 marks ]
(c) What is the function of potasium permanganate?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) (i) What is the observation if the metal P is Magnesium?
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Explain the answer that you given in (d) (i).
[ 1 mark ]
(e) (i) What is the observation if the metal P is Copper?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Explain the answer that you given in (e)(i).
[ 1 mark ]
15. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of light on photographic paper.
(a) Draw the result of the photographic paper at the space below and labelled at the specific
part.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) Based on the experiment above, identify
(i) fixed variable
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) responding variable
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) manipulating variable
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Explain the result that you observe in (a).
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Write an equation of the experiment above.
[ 1 mark ]
16
The diagram below shows a process that related with light and chemical reaction.
Based on the diagram above, answer the following question.

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(a) What type of process can u describes based on the diagram above?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Based on the answer you given in (a), explain the meaning of process.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Name the two stages that will involve in the process above.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Write an equation for the reaction above.
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Explain one of the stages based on your given answer in (c).
[ 2 marks ]
CHAPTER 6 : NUCLEAR ENERGY

1.
The diagram below shows two detectors, P and Q which are used to locate the position of
water leakage in an underground pipe by adding some radioactive substance R, to the water.
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(a) Label parts P and Q in the diagram above.
[2 marks]
(b) Name radioactive substance R.

[1 mark]
(c) Explain how can Q enable us to detect the position of the leakage in the underground
pipe?
[1 mark]
(d) Why radioactive substance emitting gamma radiation is not added to the water?
[1 mark]
2.
The diagram below shows the deflection of the radiations when passed through an electric
field. Radioactive substance placed in container P emits radioactive radiation X, Y and Z.
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(a) Name radioactive radiation X, Y and Z.

(i) X:
(ii) Y:
(iii) Z:
[3 marks]
(b) (i) What will happen to radiation Y?
[1 mark]
(ii) Give one reason for your answer in (b)(i).
[1 mark]
(c) Radiation X is deflected more than radiation Z. Why?
[1 mark]
(d) Radioactive substance is kept inside container P.
(i) What is substance is used to made container P?
[1 mark]
(ii) Explain your answer in (d)(i).
[1 mark]
3.
The equation below shows the process of nuclear reaction between hydrogen isotopes.
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2
1
3
1
H 0n
+X
(a) Name the process represented by the above equation.

[1 mark]
(b) What is X?
[1 mark]
(c) What is the production of the above process?
[1 mark]
(d) State a place where the above process is happening most of the time.
[1 mark]
4.
The diagram below shows the decay of a nucleus.
(a) The above process shows the decay of the radioactive atom. Why?
[1 mark]
(b) List three types of radioactive radiations that are emitted during the process of
radioactive decay.
1.
2.
3.
[1 mark]
(c) Which radiation will be deflected, if the above radioactive are radiated through an
electric field?
[1 mark]
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(d) Which radiation can go through it, if the above radioactive radiations are blocked by
a sheet if aluminium?
[1 mark]
(e) Name two characteristics of atom X and Y compared to the original radioactive atom.
1.
2.
[1 mark]
5.
The diagram below shows one use of radioactive radiation.
(a) (i) What type of radioactive radiation used in the diagram above?
[1 mark]
(ii) Name the characteristics of the above radioactive radiation.
[1 mark]
(iii) State the use of the radioactive radiation as shown in the diagram above?
[1 mark]
(b) (i) What is equipment P?
[1 mark]
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(ii) State the function of equipment P.

[1 mark]
(c) Name the radioactive substance is used for detecting the effectiveness of fertilizers in the
field of agriculture.
[ 1 mark]
6.
The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of
aluminium produced in an aluminums factory.
(a) What radioactive radiation is emitted by the radioactive substance?

[1 mark]
(b) If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the
aluminums will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the
counter
(i) is less than 500?
[1 mark]
(ii) is more than 600?
[1 mark]
(c) The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.
[1 mark]
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(d) (i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety
precaution. What is X?
[1 mark]
(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?
[1 mark]
7.
The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of
aluminium produced in an aluminium factory.
(a) What radioactive radiation is emitted by the radioactive substance?

[1 mark]
(b) If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the
aluminium will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the
counter
(i) is less than 500?
[1 mark]
(ii) is more than 600?
[1 mark]
(c) The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.
[1 mark]
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(d) (i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety
precaution. What is X?
[1 mark]
(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?
[1 mark]
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CHAPTER 7 : LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT

1.
The diagram below shows an object placed in front of a convex lens.
(a) Complete the above diagram to show how an image is produced.
[1 mark]
(b) What are the characteristics of the image produced?

[1 mark]
(c) Name an instrument that uses the above diagram principle.
[1 mark]
(d) Draw a complete ray diagram to show how the image is produced, if the convex lens is
replaced with a concave lens of the same focal length,
[2 marks ]
2.
The diagram below shows a convex lens and F is its focus point. An object X is placed
between F and 2F of the lens.
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(a) Describe the focus point of a convex lens.

[1 mark]
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image.
[2 marks ]
(c) What is the measurement size of the image?
[1 mark]
(d) If object X is moved slightly further away from the lens, what will happen to the size of
the image?
[1 mark]
3.
The diagram below shows a ray of white light projected onto a coloured screen through a
coloured filter.
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(a) Complete the table below to show the colours that appear on the screen.
Filter
colours
Screen
colours
Green
Blue
Blue
Magenta
Red
Yellow
The colour of
light that
appears on the
screen
[3 marks ]
(b) Write down one inference that can be made from the above observation.
[2 marks ]
4.
The diagram below shows the overlapping of lights from torches K, L and M on a white
manila card. Torches K, L and M will produce red, blue and green light respectively when
switched on.
(a) What colour of the light that appears on spot P?

[1 mark]
(b) Name the light that is formed on spot P when any two of the lights from torches K, L and
M are switched on.
[1 mark]
(c) (i) Which torches that need to switch on if spot P appear cyan?
[1 mark]
(ii) What is the complementary colour for cyan?
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[1 mark]
(d) (i) What colour will spot P appear if only torch L is switched on and the white manila
card is replaced by a yellow manila card?
[1 mark]
(ii) Give a reason for your answer to d(i).
[1 mark]
5.
The diagram below shows the structure of the eye.
(a) Name the parts labelled as P, Q and R in the above diagram.
[3 marks ]
(b) What is the function of the part labelled as P?

[1 mark]
(c) Steven leaves a cinema hall after watching a movie film and the iris adjusts to the
situation when Steven steps out of the hall into the open bright daylight. Explain.
[1 mark]
(d) Make a comparison on how the eye and the camera focus on an object to produce a sharp
image.
[2 marks]
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CHAPTER 8 : CHEMICALS IN INDUSTRY

1.
The below diagram X and Y show the structures of an alloy and a pure metal.
(a) Which diagram shows the structure of

(i) a pure metal?
[1 mark]
(ii) an alloy?
[1 mark]
(b) Alloys are harder and stronger than pure metals. Explain.
[1 mark]
(c) (i) Name an alloy that can be formed from copper, antimony and tin.
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[1 mark]
(ii) What are the compositions of the alloy?
[1 mark]
(iii) State two uses of the alloy.
[1 mark]
2.
The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the formation of rust by pure
iron and an alloy of iron.
(a) Predict the observation of both types of iron nails after three days.
[ 1 mark]
(b) Write down one inference can be made based on your answer in (a)?
[1 mark]
(c) State the variables of the experiment.
(i) Manipulated variable:
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
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(iii) Constant variable:
[1 mark]
(d) What inference can be made from the experiment?
[1 mark]
3.
The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the hardness of an alloy with
a pure metal.
The table below shows the result of the experiment obtained.

Depth of dent (cm)
Block
1
2
3
Copper
1.6
1.4
1.5
Bronze
1.1
1.2
Average
1.0
(a) Complete the above table.

[2 marks ]
(b) State the relationship between the depth of dent and the hardness of the material tested.
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[1 mark]
(c) Based on the experiment results, which block is harder?
[1 mark]
(d) State the composition of bronze.
[1 mark]
(e) Draw pattern formed by the constituent atoms for copper and bronze.
Copper
Bronze
[1 mark]
4.
The diagram below shows the pollution of a certain area.
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(a) Based on the above diagram, what is the main gas pollution?
[1 mark]
(b) State the effect if the gas is excess.
[1 mark]
(c) Describe the greenhouse effect.
[1 mark]
(d) Suggest one way to reduce the pollution of the area in the above diagram.
[1 mark]
CHAPTER 9 : MICROORGANISMS AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS
1.
The table shows results from the experiment to study the effects of pH level on bacterial
growth.
pH value
2
3
4
5
7
8
10
14
Size of the bacteria

colony after 24 hours
(mm)
0
1
1.5
4
15
12
4
0
(a) State one hypothesis based on the observation from the table above.
[ 1 mark ]
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(b) Draw a graph to illustrate the relationship between the size of the bacteria colony and
the pH value based on the table above.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Based on the graph from part (b) state the optimum pH value for bacterial growth.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Predict the size of the bacteria colony at pH value 6.
[ 1 mark ]
2.
The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to study the effect of penicillin on
bacterial growth.
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Three penicillin discs X1, X2, and X3, with different concentrations are placed on the
37C
nutrient agar surface. The petri dish is incubated upside down at
. After two days, a
clear area is formed around each disc. The diameter of the clear area is measured and
recorded in the table below:
Penicillin disc
Diameter of the
clear area/cm
X1
1.5
X2
2.4
X3
2.0
(a) Based on the table above, state the disc that has the highest concentration of penicillin.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the hypothesis of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the method to fix the controlled variable in this experiment?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Penicillin is an antibiotic. Based on this experiment, give the operational definition of
antibiotic.
[ 1 mark ]
3.
The table below shows the results of an experiment to study the effects of temperature on
bacterial growth.
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Temperature/
C
Size of bacteria colony

after 24 hours/mm
0
15
25
35
60
2
5
10
15
3
(a) What is the hypothesis that can be stated from the table above?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) (i) Illustrate a graph to show the relationship between the size of bacterial colony and
temperature for the table above.
(ii) What is the optimum temperature for bacterial growth?
(ii) What is the size of the bacterial colony that can be predicted at
80C ?
[ 4 marks ]
4.
The graph below shows the change in the amount of antibodies in the body of a person
injected with a vaccine twice.
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(a) State the definition of vaccine.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) State a disease that can be prevented through vaccination.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the process that happens in the body after vaccination.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Why is it necessary for the person to be vaccinated twice?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Name the type of immunity obtained from the graph above.
5.
The table below shows an immunization programme of an infant.
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[ 1 mark ]

Age
After birth
1 month
3 months
4 months
5 months
9 months
18 months
Immunization
BCG
Hepatitis B (first dose)
Hepatitis B (second dose)
Poliomyelitis (first dose)
Triple Antigen (first dose)
Poliomyelitis (second dose)
Triple Antigen (second dose)
Poliomyelitis (third dose)
Triple Antigen (third dose)
Hepatitis B (third dose)
Measles
Triple Antigen (booster)
(a) What is immunization?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) What type of immunity is obtained from the immunization programme shown in the
table above?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) How many times of injection the immunization for Hepatitis B is given?
(ii) Why is it necessary for the immunization in 2(c)(i) be given more than once?
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Which of the immunization in the table above is given to prevent the infection of TB?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) State the diseases that can be prevented through the Triple Antigen immunization.
[ 1 mark ]
(f) Why are there more than one immunization given to the infant?
6.
The diagram below shows part of nitrogen cycle.
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[ 1 mark ]
(a) Complete the nitrogen cycle by stating the substances labelled P, Q, and R in the
diagram.
[ 3 marks ]
(b) In what form the nitrate must take to be absorbed by the plants?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the processes W and X.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) What bacteria are involved in the processes labelled Y and Z?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) The microorganism that carries out process X is found in certain plants. State the part
of the plant that contains this microorganism.
[ 1 mark ]
(f) What is an example of a chemical fertilizer that is used by farmers to increase the
nitrate content of soil?
[ 1 mark ]
7.
The diagram below shows four different microorganisms.
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(a) Name the category of the microorganisms by completing the table below.
Microorganisms
Categories
W
X
Y
Z
[ 4 marks ]
(b) What microorganism can cause diseases? State the diseases.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What are the two differences between W and X?
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Name the microorganism that can produce its own food. Why?
[ 2 marks ]
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8.
The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the study of the effect of antibiotics on
bacterial growth.
Three penicillin discs P, Q, and R of different concentrations and a tetracycline disc S were
placed on the surface of the nutrient agar containing bacteria culture. The petri dish was
37C
kept at a temperature of
. After five days, a clear area was observed around each disc
and the diameter of each area was measured and recorded as shown in the table below.
Discs
P
Diameter
of 1.6
clear area (cm)
Q
2.5
R
2.0
S
0.8
(a) Which disc has the highest concentration of penicillin?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Which antibiotic is more effective in preventing bacteria growth?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What microorganism is used to produce penicillin?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Name the fixed variable in this experiment and how to make it constant.
[ 2 marks ]
(e) State the effect of antibiotics on bacterial activity.
[ 1 mark ]
(f) What is the percaution that should be taken when carrying out this experiment?
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[ 1 mark ]
9.
The diagram below shows the activity of decomposing bacteria at different temperatures in
food P.
(a) What is the range of temperature where bacteria grow and reproduce fast in food P.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) State a range of temperature that is suitable to keep food P for long and in good
condition.
[ 1 mark ]
(c)
The temperature in most refrigerators is

temperature for more than 5 days?
4C
.Why is meat unsuitable to be kept at this

[1 mark ]
(d) In what way bacteria reproduce at a temperature of:

20C
(i)
(ii)
35C
[2 marks ]
(e) Calculate the number of bacteria produced from one bacterium after 5 hours, if the
bacterium reproduces every 30 minutes.
[2 marks ]
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10. The diagram below show the life cycle of a mosquito.
(a) In the life cycle of a mosquito, what is stage P?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the place that a female mosquito lays her eggs.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Define the term vector.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) In what way mosquitoes can be controlled at
(i) the adult stage and
(ii) at stage P? State one way for each stage.

[ 2 marks ]
(e) What is the microorganism carried by mosquitoes and the disease it causes?
[ 2 marks ]
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(f) Elaborate the way this disease is spread.
CHAPTER 10 : NUTRITION AND FOOD PRODUCTION
1.
[ 2 marks ]
The graph below shows the average consumption of calories by people from countries P and Q.
(a) Which country's population would have lower risk of suffering from arteriosclerosis?
Why?
[ 2 marks ]
(b) State two classes of food that are supplied by cereals.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the consumption of sugar (g) by the population from country Q? (Calorific value
of carbohydrates: 16.7 kJ)
[ 2 marks ]
(d) What are the reasons that the population from country Q is more likely to suffer from
dental caries?
[ 2 marks ]
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The table below shows the energy content of five common types of daily food. The columns P.
Q, R, and S show the percentage of four classes of food in each type of food.
Food Ener
P
s
gy
(%)
(kJ/1
00 g)
Beef 1 400 23.0
Butte 3 200 0.6
r
Milk 290
3.1
Potat 370
2.0
oes
Tuna 700 18.0
Q
(%)
R
(%)
S
(%)
55.0
17.0
20.0
83.0
90.0
82.0
4.7
16.0
3.5
-
70.0
12.0
(a) What is the food that has

(i) the lowest energy content?
(ii) the highest energy content?

[ 2 marks ]
(b) Study the table above carefully and identify the letters that represents fats and
carbohydrates. Provide a reason for each choice.
Fats Reason:
Carbohydrates Reason:
[ 4 marks ]
(c) State the two types of food that is suitable for an adult doing heavy work.
[ 2 marks ]
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3.
The diagram below shows the instrument used to measure the energy content in food.
(a) State the name of this instrument.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Label the place where food is placed inside the instrument with the letter 'F'.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the gas that passes through tube P and its purpose?
[ 2 marks ]
(d) State the changes of the water inside the instrument.
[ 1 mark ]
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4.
The diagram below shows apparatus used in the experiment to study the nutrients required for
plant growth.
(a) State the following:

(i) Manipulated variables
(ii) Responding variables
(iii) Fixed variables

[ 3 marks ]
(b) Why do the boiling tubes need to be aerated every day?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State two observations that can be noted on boiling tube Y after 5 days.
[ 2 marks ]
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(d) Why is boiling tube Z prepared?
[ 1 mark ]
5.
The diagram below shows a simple apparatus used in the laboratory to calculate the calorific
value of food.
(a) What is the definition of the term 'calorific value of food'?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) What are the fixed and responding variables for the calorific values of different types of
food using the same appartus?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Calculate the calorific value of groundnuts if the mass of groundnuts used is 10 g, mass
30C
of water used is 10 g, and temperature at the beginning of the experiment is
at the
85C .
end of experiment is
[ 2 marks ]
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6.
Table 1 below shows the types of food consumed by a student for breakfast. Table 2 that
follows shows the calorific values for three different types of food groups.
Table 1
Quantity of food groups (g)
Types of
food
1 glass of
milk
Quantity (g)
2 pieces of
bread
1 tablespoon
of jam
200 g
29.0 g protein
41.2 g carbohydrates
29.8 g fat
200 g carbohydrates
30 g
30 g carbohydrates
100 g
Table 2
Calorific value (kcal)
4
9
4
Food group
1 gramme carbohydrates
1 gramme fat
1 gramme protein
(a) Based on the table above, calculate the total calorific value of the food consumed by the
student.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Is the food eaten for breakfast a balance diet? Give reasons for your answer.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What diseases are caused a diet lacked in
(i) protein?
(ii) vitamin A?
[ 2 marks ]
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(d) What happens when an individual consumes an excessive amount of carbohydrates over
a long period of time? Give reasons for your explanation.
[ 2 marks ]
7.
The information below is a report from an agriculture officer after his investigation regarding
complaints from a group of dairy farmers.
There is an increase in the number of a certain type of insect which
feeds on clover plants in the fields.
The decrease in clover plants resulted in a drop in milk production and
subsequently loss of weight among cows.
Alternative methods using chemical substances can be carried out to
increase the fertility of soil.
(a) State the cycle involved from the information above.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the importance of the clover plants.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the compound that is present in the body of the cows?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Name the compound that is lacking in the fields.
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Name an example of the chemical substance suggested by the officer.
[ 1 mark ]
8.
The table below shows the calorific values of a few types of food.
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Types of food
Calorific value (kJ/100 g)
White bread
Tea with milk
Fried potatoes
Fried chicken
Butter cake
1 134
50
2 390
1 630
3 000
(a) Based on the table shown above, calculate the total calories consumed by a student
according to the amount of food consumed by completing the table below.
Types of
food
Quantity
consumed (g)
White
bread
150
Tea with
milk
100
Fried
potatoes
75
Fried
chicken
150
Butter cake
120
Calculation of calorific values (kJ)
Total
[ 5 marks ]
(b) Name the type of food that gives the most amount of energy.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Identify if the student is consuming a balaced diet. Give explanation for your answer.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) A nutritionist suggested that the student should include vegetables and fruits in his diet.
What are the two classes of food that is found in vegetables and fruits.
[ 2 marks ]
(e) If the student continues to consume this type of food for 15 years, what are the two types
of diseases he is most likely to suffer from.
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[ 2 marks ]
CHAPTER 11 : PRESERVATION AND CONVERSION OF THE ENVIRONMENT

1.
The diagram below shows a habitat in the ecosystem of a pond.
(a) Complete the diagram above using the words provided below:
Producer Primary consumer
Secondary consumer
[ 3 marks ]
(b) State the role played by the organisms labelled (ii).
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Illustrate a food chain found in the pond shown above.
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[ 2 marks ]
(d) Describe what happens when water rich in minerals flows into the pond.
[ 2 marks ]
2.
The diagram below shows layer X in the stratosphere.
(a) What is layer X?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the distance of Z from the Earth's surface?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) Name the chemical substance that causes layer X to become thinner?
(ii) Identify one item that used daily by humans that contains this ubstance.
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[ 2 marks ]
(d) (i) Name the space that is marked Y.
(ii) Name the ray from the sun that can pass through layer X.
[ 2 marks ]
(e) List two effects on humans when layer X becomes thinner.
[ 2 marks ]
3.
The diagrams below show three daily activities carried out by humans.
(a) What are the three activities shown in the diagrams above?
[ 3 marks ]
(b) Name the type of pollution that is caused by activities shown in (i) and (ii).
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Name two gases released by the activity done in (i) and state their effects on aquatic
organisms.
[ 3 marks ]
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(d) State a reason for carrying out activity (iii).
[ 1 mark ]
4.
The diagram below shows apparatus used to study the interaction between organisms.
(a) (i) Which airtight jar containing the grasshopper would die first?
(ii) Explain your answer in (a)(i).

[ 2 marks ]
(b) State one precaution that should be taken into consideration when conducting this
experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
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(c) What is the role of the plant in airtight jar Q to maintain a balanced ecosystem?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) (i) Would the same results be obtained if this experiment is conducted in a dark room?
(ii) Explain your answer in part (d)(i).

[ 2 marks ]
5.
The diagram below shows part of an industrial area.
(a) What are the five sources of pollution shown in the diagram above?
[ 5 marks ]
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(b) List the three pollutants that are released from the chemical factory.
[ 3 marks ]
(c) How are the pollutants harmful to humans and plants?
[ 2 marks ]
6.
The diagram below shows that the balance in nature can be maintained by various natural
cycle.
(a) Name the cycle shown in the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) What are the processes labeled P, Q, and R?
[ 3 marks ]
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(c) Why is this natural cycle important to living organisms?

[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the simplest carbon compound that is released from the factory?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) State the effects on the environment when there is no control of process R.
[ 2 marks ]
7.
The diagram below illustrates a nitrogen cycle.
(a) Name the substances labeled X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]
(b) What is process Q that changes plant protein to substance X?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) What type of bacteria is P?
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(ii) Explain the role of bacteria P.

[ 2 marks ]
(d) State two natural processes that can increase the level of nitrates in the soil.
[ 1 mark ]
(e) State one human activity that causes nitrogen levels in the soil to decrease.
[ 1 mark ]
(f) A farmer uses urea to fertilize his farm excessively. What is the effect of this activity on
the balance of nature?
[ 1 mark ]
8.
The table below shows the number of patients suffering from three types of diseases in area P
in 1990 and 1993. During this period, the number of people living in this area doubled.
Types of
disease
Bronchitis
Asthma
Cholera
Number of
patients
(1990)
30
15
10
Number of
patients
(1993)
100
70
40
(a) (i) What are two human activities that might cause the migration of people to this area?
(ii) Give a harmful effect for each of this activity.
(iii) State one method each to overcome the problems stated in part (a)(ii).
[ 6 marks ]
(b) What are the two pollutants found in the air in area P?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the type of pollution and its source that causes a rise in cholera cases in area P?
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[ 2 marks ]
CHAPTER 12 : CARBON COMPOUNDS

1.
The diagram below shows the interchangibility between polymers and monomers.
(a) What are two examples of natural polymers and identify the monomer that forms them?
[ 2 marks ]
(b) What are processes X and Y shown in the diagram above?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State a word equation for an example of process X.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Synthetic rubber is a useful synthetic polymer.
(i) What is the property of synthetic rubber that makes it suitable for use as oil tank liners
or oil hoses?
(ii) What synthetic rubber that is similar to natural rubber and can be vulcanized?
[ 2 marks ]
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2.
The diagram below shows the process involved in the production of vulcanized rubber and latex
paste.
(a) What is substance W that is added to latex to speed up the process of coagulation?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) If substance W is not added to latex, the latex still coagulates after one day. Explain your
observation.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Name substance Y that is added to latex to prevent the coagulation process so that the latex
can be concentrated into latex paste.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is substance X that is used in the production of vulcanized rubber?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Name one product Z that is made from vulcanized rubber. What are two characteristics of
vulcanized rubber that is suitable for producing product Z?
[ 2 marks ]
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3.
The diagram below shows the apparatus used to prepare alcohol in the laboratory.
(a) Name substance P that is added to the glucose solution.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the enzyme that is produced by P? State its function in the fermentation process.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State the type of alcohol that is produced.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) In what way alcohol is separated from the fermentation mixture?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) What are the two characteristics that the flame produced if alcohol is burned?
[ 2 marks ]
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4.
The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the laboratory during the preparation of soap.
(a) What vegetable oil and alkali that can be used in the preparation of soap?
[ 2 marks ]
(b) State the role of concentrated alkali in the process of producing soap.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the purpose of adding common salt to the mixture in this process?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) In what way can we test the filtrate collected is soap?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Illustrate a structure of the soap molecule and identify the part that is soluble in:
(i) water
(ii) grease
[ 2 marks ]
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5.
The diagram below shows a laboratory process of extracting a type of oil.
(a) What is step P?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the function of step P.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) In the large scale preparation of the oil, identify the step after the filtration step.
[ 1 marks ]
(d) (i) What is filtrate L?
(ii) Name the vitamins that are found in L.

[ 3 marks ]
(e) The diagram below shows the structure of an oil palm fruit.
(i) Identify the three parts of the fruit in the diagram above.
[ 3 marks ]
(ii) What part of the fruit produces a lot of liquid L?
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[ 1 mark ]
CHAPTER 13 : MOTION
1.
The diagram below shows a load, WN placed on the piston of syringe P. Load FN is placed on
the piston of syringe Q to balance the motion. The value of load F is recorded and the crosssectional area of syringe Q is measured. The experiment is repeated by using syringe Q with
different cross-sectional areas.
The table below shows the data obtained from the experiment.
0.02
0.04
0.06
Cross-sectional area
2
of syringe Q/m
11
23
32
Load F/N
0.08
0.10
44
55
(a) State the characteristic of liquid X that enables it to be used in the experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the fixed variable in this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) Draw a graph of load F against the cross-sectional area of syringe Q based on the table
shown above.
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(ii) Determine the pressure transmitted through the liquid from the graph in part (c)(i).
[ 3 marks ]
2.
The diagram P below shows an experiment to study the effect of force produced by a wooden
block when it is dropped from different heights where identical wooden blocks X, Y, and Z are
dropped onto the rods placed on the surface of the plasticine.
The diagram Q below shows the depth of the rods entering the plasticine caused by wooden
blocks X, Y, and Z.
(a) State the fixed variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) In what way force is measured in this experiment?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Based on the observation in the experiment, give one inference that can be derived from
this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Identify the wooden block that will produce the largest momentum just before colliding
with the plasticine.
[ 1 mark ]
(e) State a device that operates using this same principle.
[ 1 mark ]
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3.
The diagram below shows a ticker tape that has been obtained from the movement of a trolley
on a tilted platform. The trolley took 6 seconds to go from the top of the platform to the bottom.
The table below shows data about the ticker tape above.
Section of the
ticker tape
Length of
section/cm
2.0
_____
4.0
5.0
(a) Determine the length of Section 2 of the ticker tape and record it in the table above.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Draw a bar chart based on the table above.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Based on the graph in part (b), identify the type of movement made by the trolley.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Section 5 of the ticker tape follows section 4 also represents a 1 second interval. State
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your prediction for the length of Section 5 in cm, based on the diagram above.
[ 1 marks ]
4.
The diagram below shows the arrangement of an apparatus to study the motion of a trolley
down a runway.
The ticker timer is connected to a 50 Hz alternating current power pack. The diagram below
shows the ticker tape obtained from the experiment.
(a) A student observed the dots made on the ticker tape. He made a conclusion that the trolley
moved at uniform velocity. State a reason for his conclusion.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) The ticker tape shows 5 ticks when the trolley moved from X to Y.
(i) State the definition of 'tick'.
(ii) What is the uniform velocity of the trolley?

[ 3 marks ]
(c) The trolley moves down the runway with uniform acceleration. Mark the dots shown on
the ticker tape in the diagram below.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) The tape chart below shows the motion of a trolley down a runway. What is the motion of
the trolley?
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5.
The diagram below shows a ship floating in water that sails without sinking.
[ 1 mark ]
(a) (i) What is the upward force that acts on the ship?
(ii) What is the principle that describes the action of the upward force?
[ 2 marks ]
The diagram below shows the level of the ship in fresh water.
(b) (i) On the diagram above, indicate the level of the ship if it sails in sea water.
(ii) State your reason for your answer in part (b)(i).
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State why a ship can float in the sea.
[ 1 mark ]
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(d) The body of a ship is marked with horizontal lines to indicate the maximum permissible
load in a ship when it sails in different regions and seasons. Give the name of this
horizontal line.
[ 1 mark ]
6.
The diagram below shows an object placed on top of a car that travels at uniform velocity.
(a) The driver pressed the break pedal when a man was crossing the road.
(i) What is the effect on the object on top of the car?
(ii) State a reason for the answer given in part (a)(i).

[ 2 marks ]
(b) What are the two safety features that can be used in a car to reduce the negative effects of
inertia during an accident?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) The shape of a car is designed to reduce air resistance. In what way a car is shaped?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) A car does not use spark plugs. State the type of engine used in this car.
[ 1 mark ]
7.
The diagram below shows a steady flow of water through a tube.
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(a) Indicate the level of water in tubes P, Q, and R in the diagram above.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) Make a comparison of the pressure of water on points X and Z.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) State the reason for the water to rise in tubes A, B, and C.
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Indicate the level of water in tubes A, B, and C.
[ 2 marks ]
8.
The diagram below shows a stroke of a four stroke diesel engine.
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(a) (i) State the stroke in the diagram above.
(ii) How the air is affected inside the cylinder?

[ 2 marks ]
(b) (i) State P.
(ii) The structure of a four stroke petrol engine is similar to that of a four stroke diesel
engine expect that it contains Q instead of P. Name Q.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State the number of revolutions that is made by the crankshaft in a complete stroke cycle.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Why does the car engine normally consists of four cylinders?
[ 1 mark ]
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CHAPTER 14 : FOOD TECHNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION
1.
The table below shows three types of processed food.

Types of food
Chicken meat
Groundnuts
Potatoes
Name of food
Method of food
processing
(a) What is the method of food processing for foods X, Y, and Z?

[ 3 marks ]
(b) Describe the method of processing food X.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the difference between the methods used in processing foods Y and Z.
2.
Complete the table below:

Chemical used in food
processing
Flavouring
Emulsifier
Examples
Boric acid
Palm sugar
Tocopherol
(vitamin E)
Used in
Soups
and
sauces
Cakes
Ice
cream
Butter
and
biscuits
Functions
Prevents food from spoiling
[ 5 marks ]
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3.
The diagram below shows the food label for Tijace tomato sauce.
(a) State the two information that should be on this food label to fulfil all the conditions of the
Food Regulations 1985.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) State the action that can be taken by consumers if the information on a food label is not
complete.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What are the chemicals present in Tijace tomato sauce?
[ 2 marks ]
(d) State the functions of the chemicals listed in part (c).
[ 2 marks ]
4.
The table below shows types of food that is processed using a particular method of food
processing.
Types of food
Beef
Cabbage
Anchovies
Fresh cow's milk
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processing
W
X
Y
Z
216
(a) What is the purpose of food processing?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) What method of food processing is used for W, X, Y, and Z?
[ 4 marks ]
(c) State the method of food processing used in W.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Name one benefit of the method of food processing used in X.
[ 1 mark ]
(e) (i) How is the method of food processing done in Z?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) What is the benefit of method Z?
[ 1 mark ]
5.
The diagram below shows four ways of increasing the quality and quantity of food
production.
(a) Modern technology such as genetic engineering increases the quality of food produce. In
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what way is genetic engineering carried out?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) List three characteristics of quality breeds.
[ 3 marks ]
(c) (i) What are two government agencies that are involved in agricultural research?
(ii) Give an example of crops produced by these agencies.

[ 4 marks ]
(d) What type of education and guidance can the Ministry of Agriculture provide for
farmers?
[ 1 mark ]
6.
The diagram below shows a bread wrapper with incomplete information
(a) Based on the Food Act 1983 and Food Regulations 1985, list all of the missing
information from the food label shown above.
[ 3 marks ]
(b) (i) What is the most important data needed in part (a) when buying this bread?
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(ii) Give one reason for your answer in part (b)(i).
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) If this bread is consumed in excess for 2 years, state the effect of it on consumer's health.
[ 1 mark ]
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CHAPTER 15 : SYNTHETIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY
1.
Complete the table below:

Names of
plastic
Perspex
Types of
plastic
Thermosetts
Polypropene Thermoplastic
Monomers
Methyl
metacrylate
Styrene
One use of plastic
Making glue and electric insulator

Making food packaging containers
[ 8 marks ]
2.
The diagram below shows a flow chart for synthetic polymers.
(a) What are synthetic polymers P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]
(b) What is the monomer for polymers P, Q, and R?
[ 3 marks ]
(c) Give one use for polymers P, Q, and R.
[ 3 marks ]
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CHAPTER 16 : ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION

TECHNOLOHY (ICT)
1.
The diagram below shows part of the set-up of an experiment to study the relationship
between the wavelength and frequency of radio waves. Radio waves produced by an
oscillator circuit is connected to an oscilloscope.
The diagram below illustrates the wavelength of the radio wave on the screen of the
oscilloscope when its frequency is 1.5 x 108 Hz.
(a) In what way are the radio waves produced by the circuit shown in diagram P?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the length of the radio wave shown in diagram Q.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) The experiment is repeated by varying the variable capacitor. The table below shows the
results of this experiment.
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Frequency /
x 107 Hz
30.0
10.0
7.5
6.0
5.0
Wavelength
/m
(i) What is the responding variable in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Illustrate the graph of the wave length against frequency based on the table above.
[ 2 marks ]
2.
The diagram below shows the block diagram for a radio transmission system.
(a) (i) What is P?
(ii) What is the wave that is produced by P?

[ 2 marks ]
(b) The radio transmits amplitude modulated frequency waves. Illustrate the wave that is
transmitted by the aerial.
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[ 2 marks ]
(c) The modulated frequency wave is amplified by an amplifier. What is an essential

electronic component in the amplifier?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the difference between the waves transmitted through the aerial in comparison to
the waves that enter the microphone?
[ 1 mark ]
3.
The diagram below shows a simple radio receiver circuit used to receive frequency modulated
radio broadcasting.
(a) Illustrate the waves received by the aerial.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) (i) State the function of diode.
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) In what way the waves changes when passed through the capacitor?
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Illustrate the waves that pass through X.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) An electronic component is connected to box Y.
[ 1 mark ]
(i) Illustrate the symbol for the electronic component in box Y.
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) What is the function of the electronic component in box Y?
[ 1 mark ]
4.
The diagram below shows two earth satellite stations and a communication satellite.
(a) State the function of the communication satellite.

[ 1 mark ]
(b) (i) What type of electromagnetic wave that is transmitted from the earth satellite station?
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) State a reason for your answer in part (b)(i).
[ 1 mark ]
(c) The communication satellite is called a geostationary satellite.
(i) What is the reason that a communication satellite is called geostationary satellite?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) What is the minimum number of satellites to enable communication around the
world?
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Illustrate the arrangement of satellites that allows communication around the world.
[ 1 mark ]
5.
The diagram below show the location of X in an electromagnetic spectrum.

X
Infrared ray
Visible ray
Ultraviolet
ray
X-ray
Gamma ray
(a) What component of the electromagnetic spectrum has the longest wavelength?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) (i) What is X?
(ii) Calculate the wavelength when the frequency of X is 1.5 x 109 Hz. (The velocity of
the electromagnetic wave is 3 x 108 ms-1)
[ 3 marks ]
(c) X is used in a radio transmission system.
(i) State the name of X in the radio transmission system.
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(ii) Audio signals are combined with X and Y before they are transmitted. Name Y.
[ 2 marks ]
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SCHEME
CHAPTER 1
1B
2C
11 B
12 B
21 D
22 B
3C
13 C
23 A
4A
14 C
24 B
5D
15 C
25 B
6D
16 B
26 B
7D
17 B
27 D
8D
18 C
28 C
9A
19 B
29
10 B
20 B
30
CHAPTER 2
1C
2B
11 B
12 C
21 B
22 A
3A
13 A
23 A
4D
14 B
24 D
5A
15 C
25 B
6A
16 D
26 D
7C
17 A
27 B
8D
18 D
28 B
9C
19 B
29 D
10 C
20 D
30 D
CHAPTER 3
1D
2D
11 D
12 B
21 D
22 D
3B
13 C
23 A
4A
14 D
24 B
5B
15 C
25 D
6D
16 D
26 D
7 B
17 B
27 D
8B
18 C
28 C
9B
19 B
29 A
10 D
20 A
30 D
CHAPTER 4
1A
2A
11 B
12 D
21 A
22 C
3A
13 B
23 B
4D
14 C
24 C
5C
15 C
25 B
6D
16 D
26 D
7C
17 D
27 A
8C
18 A
28 C
9D
19 C
29 D
10 A
20 D
30 C
CHAPTER 5
1C
2B
11 D
12 A
21 D
22 A
3C
13 B
23 C
4C
14 B
24 C
5B
15 C
25 B
6A
16 B
26 D
7C
17 B
27 D
8D
18 D
28 B
9C
19 C
29 A
10 A
20 C
30 C
CHAPTER 6
1C
2C
11 D
12 A
21 D
22 C
3D
13 C
23 D
4D
14 D
24 D
5A
15 B
25 B
6A
16 D
26 A
7B
17 C
27 B
8D
18 B
28 D
9A
19 C
29 B
10 B
20 B
30
CHAPTER 7
1B
2D
11 D
12 D
21 D
22 C
3B
13 B
23 C
4C
14 A
24 D
5B
15 B
25 D
6A
16 D
26 C
7B
17 C
27 D
8B
18 A
28 D
9B
19 B
29 B
10 C
20 C
30 C
CHAPTER 8
1D
2D
11 B
12 C
21
22
3C
13 C
23
4B
14
24
5B
15
25
6D
16
26
7B
17
27
8B
18
28
9B
19
29
10 C
20
30
CHAPTER 9
1B
2C
3B
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5C
6C
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7D
8C
9A
10 C

11 D
21 C
12 C
22 D
13 C
23 C
14 D
24 D
15 C
25 C
16 D
26 B
17 C
27 D
18 A
28 D
19 B
29 B
20 A
30 D
CHAPTER 10
1C
2D
11 D
12 C
21 D
22 B
3B
13 B
23 D
4B
14 B
24 C
5A
15 D
25 D
6D
16 B
26 C
7C
17 D
27 A
8A
18 C
28 A
9B
19 A
29 D
10 B
20 D
30 C
CHAPTER 11
1B
2C
11 D
12 C
21 C
22 B
3D
13 B
23 D
4B
14 D
24 D
5D
15 B
25
6D
16 C
26
7C
17 B
27
8B
18 D
28
9D
19 B
29
10 B
20 C
30
CHAPTER 12
1B
2A
11 D
12 B
21 C
22 B
3C
13 D
23 A
4C
14 B
24 A
5D
15 A
25 A
6D
16 B
26 C
7B
17 D
27 D
8B
18 C
28 C
9B
19 C
29 B
10 C
20 D
30 C
CHAPTER 13
1B
2D
11 D
12 A
21 D
22 D
3B
13 A
23 C
4D
14 D
24 B
5A
15 B
25 A
6A
16 B
26 D
7A
17 C
27 B
8D
18 A
28 D
9C
19 C
29 D
10 A
20 D
30 B
CHAPTER 14
1C
2D
11 D
12 B
21 C
22 D
3B
13 C
23 D
4B
14 B
24 D
5B
15 D
25 A
6D
16 B
26 D
7C
17 C
27 D
8D
18 C
28 D
9B
19 B
29 C
10 B
20 D
30 C
CHAPTER 15
1B
2B
11 C
12 C
21 C
22 C
3D
13 C
23 B
4D
14 D
24
5A
15 B
25
6A
16 B
26
7D
17 C
27
8D
18 A
28
9C
19 B
29
10 C
20 C
30
CHAPTER 16
1 B
2 C
11 A 12 A
21 B
22 D
3 B
13 D
23 D
4 B
14 C
24 D
5 C
15 D
25 B
6 D
16 D
26 B
7 D
17 A
27 B
8 C
18 C
28 C
9 C
19 A
29 A
10 C
20 D
30 B
SCHEME PAPER 2
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CHAPTER 1 : SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION

1.
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
-3C
The added of the salt will affect the freezing point of the pure water
The freezing point of water that added salt is -3C
(i) Quantity of the salt added
(ii) Freezing point of the pure water
0 .5
= 0.25 gcm-3
2
6
(ii) = 2.0 g cm-3
3
b) The cork float on the liquid / the iron sink in the liquid
c) An object which is less denser than a liquid will float on the surface liquid
a) (i)
3.
4.
5.
6.
a) The seeds will sprout if have oxygen, water and the suitable temperature
b) (i) type and size of the seeds used
(ii) Sprout of the seeds
(iii) Different factor given (presence or absence water oxygen and temperature.
c) (i) the seeds in test tube B will not sprout
(ii) Because the layer of oil isolation the seeds with the oxygen
a) Build a histogram
b) 32
c) 50-54
12
d)
x100 37.5%
32
a) 9.90s, 15.65s, 19.50s
b) The shorter the length of pendulum, the more time used for 10 oscillation
c) (i) The angle of the oscillation
(ii)The time used for 10 oscillations
(iii)The length of pendulum
a)
b)
c)
d)
The temperature increase based on the increase in the time

The temperature increase if the amount of heater supply increase
The mass or volume of water.
The temperature of every 3 minutes will decrease
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7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
a) The extension of the weight load increase will cause the extension of the spring
increase
b) (i) Extension of spring
(ii)weight of load
c) (i) a graph weight vs extension
(ii) There are positive or direct relationship between the weight of load and the
extension of spring
a) (i) 3.8 cm3
(ii) 4.8 cm3
b) 200 drops = 1cm3
1 drop = 0.005cm3
c) 5 x 10-5 or 0.00005
a)
b)
c)
d)
50 cm3
8cm3
6.25gcm-3
The cork will float on the water because the water with a density of 4.0
a) 102C
b) The added of the salt will affect the boiling point of the pure water
c) (i) Boiling point of the pure water
(ii) Quantity of salt added
a) There are a negative relationship between the pressure of gas and the volume of gas.
The higher the pressure of gas the lower the volume of gas
b) (i) Amount of gas
(ii)volume of gas
(iii)pressure of gas
a) Time used to dissolves the sugar depend on the temperature of the water
b) The higher temperature of water, the less time is used to dissolves the sugar
c) (i) volume of water and amount of sugar
(ii)temperature of water
(iii)time is used to dissolves
a) (i) identifying the variables
(ii) planning the investigation
(iii) collecting data
b) Avoid misconception and misinterpretations, think critically and creatively
c) Being fair and just, being objective
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14.
15.
a) (i) volume of water, the size of the test tube

(ii)number of lead shots
(iii)the depth of test tube sink in water
b) To study how the depth of water in which the test tubes sink in the water is depends on
the number of lead shots
c) The more of number of lead shots the depther the test tube will sink in the water.
a) Planning this investigation is a scientific process used to examine the effect of
changing one variable on another variables
b) Control variables, determine the procedure
c) The aim of the experiment, operational definition.
CHAPTER 2 : BODY COORDINATION

1.
a) Reaction time
10 - 49
50 - 99
100 - 149
150 - 199
number of student in group

2
3
4
1
b) Histogram number of student vs reaction time

c) Proprioceptors
d) Coordinate the movement and maintain balance
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Two neurons
Motor neuron, sensory neuron
Receptor - sensory neuron - motor neuron - effector
The leg is straighted automatically
a)
b)
c)
d)
motor neuron
transmits impulses from the central nervous system to effectors
myelin sheath
speeds up the transmission of impulses, and a fatty structure which protects axon.
a) Reaction
Feel cold
Sharp smell of sour
Sweet taste
Movie is see
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sensory organ involved

skin
nose
tongue
eyes
232

Music is hear
ears
b) Stimuli receptors central nervous system effectors responses

5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
a) Plays role in controlling movement, maintaining balance and keeping posture.

b) Cerebellum
c) Voluntary action is an action which is controlled under conscious control. Example of
voluntary action is writing
d) Injuries to cerebrum can cause a loss os memory and senses.
a) P : medulla oblongata
Q : cerebellum
R : cerebrum
b) Controls voluntary actions, reasoning, learning, memory and intelligence
c) Heartbeat, peristalsis
a) Motor neuron, relay neuron, sensory neuron
b) Synapse
c) To allow the impulse to flow in one direction only
a) Endocrine glands are ductless glands which secrete hormones directly into the
bloodstream
b) Thyroid gland and pancreas
c) P : stimulate many other endocrine glands and stimulates growth
Q : conversion of glucose into glycogen
a) Proprioceptor
b) Coordinates the movement and maintain balance
c) Muscles, tendons, ligaments
a) X : spinal cord
Y : spinal nerves
b) Central nervous system : control of the nervous system
Peripheral nervous system : consist of nerves that enter and leave the brain and spinal
cord
c) Coordinates the body activities by sending message in the form of impulse in response
to stimuli
a) X : dendrite
Y : spinal nerves
b) Name the neuron that shows at the diagram
c) Diagram of impulse from left to right
a) Cerebrum
b) P : thought and reasoning
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R : sight
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
S : hearing
a) Ears, skin
b) Voluntary action
c) Reading and writing
a) Voluntary action is an action which is under conscious control
b) Breathing, sneezing
c) Voluntary action
involuntary action
Controlled by cerebrum
controlled by medulla oblongata
Action under conscious control
action not under conscious control
a)
b)
c)
d)
Pancreas
Insulin
Conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver
Low blood glucose level and weakness
a) P : Effector
Q : motor neuron
R : sensory neuron
b) Receptor --- sensory neuron --- relay neuron --- motor neuron --- effector
a) X : cell body
b) The nucleus controls all the activities in the neuron
c) Relay neuron
sensory neuron
The length of dendron
long
The length of axon
short
a) X : Relay neuron
Y : effector
Z : receptor
b) Help us to avoid serious injuries
c) The people will not be able withdrawal he fingers immediately
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q : Gigantism
Growth hormone
Stimulates growth
Pituitary gland
a)
b)
c)
d)
Pituitary gland
Produces hormones which stimulate many other endocrine gland
Growth hormone
Under secretion : dwarfism : over secretion
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21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Thyroxin gland
Thyroxin
Control the rate of metabolism
Sensitivity to cold, simple goiter
a)
b)
c)
d)
Adrenal glands
Adrenaline
Prepares the body for actions during emergencies
Chromic fatigue, cushings syndrome
a) Located at each side of the uterus

b) Estrogen, progesterone
c) Estrogen : development of female secondary sexual
Progesterone : regulate the menstrual cycle and play an important role in preparing
the body for pregnancy
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Scrotums
Protect the testes
Testosterone
Development of male secondary sexual charactreristics
Underdevelopment of secondary sexual aharacteristics.
a) Drugs are chemical substances which can affect our nervous system
b) Nicotine, cocaine
c) Impair muscular coordination, distort perceptions.
CHAPTER 3 : HEREDITY AND VARIATION

1.
2.
3.
a) Draw a histogram
b) Continuous variation
c) There is a complete range of measurements from one extreme to another
Has a normal distribution
a) Discontinuous variation
b) Type of hair and blood group
c) Genetic and environmental
a) Identical twins
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b) Fertilization
c) Contain exactly the same genetic information / have the identical sex and other similar
characteristics
d) Identical sex, boy or girl
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
a) Meiosis
b) Crossing over
c) Crossing over is a process occurring during meiosis in which a pair of homologous
chromosomes exchange genetic material
d) No
e) Two
a) Twins P : identical twins
Twins Q : non-identical twins
b) Two fetuses develop in mothers uterus at the same time
c) In terms of
identical twins
non-identical twins
Number of ovum involved
one
two
Sex of twin
same
might be same or fifty
Genetic information
same
different
a) Selective breeding is the crossing of two parents each with some good traits so as
produce offspring that process the good traits of both parents
b) Paddy or papaya
c) Improve the nutritional values / lower import and higher will help to boost the
economy of the country
a)
b)
c)
d)
Downs syndrome
Chromosome mutation
21
Short necks / flat cheeks
a) Meiosis
b) Ovaries and testes
c) Divides into four daughter cells, only half the chromosome number of parents cell.
a) Bb , Bb, Bb, Bb
b) Tallness
c) Left-handed, straight hair
a) Process X is meiosis
Process Y is fertilisation
b) Boy
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c) The 22 + X sperm fertilizes an 22 + X ovum, the zygote formes will be 44 + XX
and the zygote G will be a girl
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
a)
b)
c)
d)
RR, Rr, Rr, rr

3:1
Red flowers
A person who has two identical genes for a characteristics
a) W : deletion
X : duplication
Y : inversion
Z : attachment to a different chromosome
b) Chromosome mutations refer to changes in the structure or number of chromosomes
and the such changes occur as a result of errors in cell division.
a) X : gene
Y : DNA
Z : chromosome
b) Genes are units of inheritance that determine the characteristics of an individual.
c) 8
a) Gene mutations
b) Colour-blindness / albinism
c) Mutation is a change which occurs spontaneously on genes or chromosomes. There
are two types of mutations, namely chromosome mutation and gene mutation
a) Mitosis
b) Divides into two identical cells exactly the same number and kind of chromosomes as
parent cell
c) Centromere splits, each chromatid is now a chromosome. The chromosome are pulled
to the apposite poles at the cell. This is called polarization.
a) Parent cell divide to produce daughter cells
Important for inheritance
Each chromosome only double once
b) In term of
Number of chromosome
number of time
cytoplasm divides
17.
mitosis
same as the parent cell
one
meiosis
half of the number
chromosomes in the
parent cell
two
a) Color blindness and hemophilia

b) Produce an individual with characteristics that are different form the rest
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Enable more resistant to disease
Able to adopt better to changes in the environment
Ensure the survival of a species
18.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Turners syndrome
Fails to develop normal secondary sexual characteristic and sterile
Female
Tuners syndrome has only one sex chromosome and klinefelters syndrome have three
sex chromosome
a)
b)
c)
d)
P : Cc
Q : Cc
Straight hair
4 : 0
Discontinuous variation
19.
20.
a)
Number of zygote formed

Genetic information
R : Cc
Identical twins
one
same
S : Cc
non-identical twins
two
different
b) Siamese twins are joined of some parts of their bodies

Siamese twins contain exactly the same genetic information
c) Iris color / blood group
21.
22.
23.
24.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Chromosome mutation
Males
Klineefelters syndrome is caused by the presence of three sex chromosomes
Radioactive gamma lays and toxic chemicals
a) Histogram for number of students vs group of thumb prints

b) Discontinuous variation
c) Continuous variation
discontinuous variation
Quantitative characters
qualitative characters
Influenced by genetic factors
influenced by genetic factors
Environmental factors
a) Gametes : X
baby : XY
phenotype : boy
With normal color vision, color blindness boy
b) 25 %
a) Family tree
b) Discontinuous variation
c) Certain characteristics can be passed down from one generation to another
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d) Enables us to different individuals of the same species allow selective breeding to be
carried out
CHAPTER 4 : MATTER AND SUBSTANCE

CHAPTER 5 ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES
1.
2.
3.
4.
a) P : Anode
Q : Cathode
b) (i) Increase
(ii) Copper
(iii) Become thinner
c) This is because the copper at the anode dissolves to form copper ions, but copper ions
are also deposited at the anode.
d) Rotating the spoon at the uniform rate
a) Metals with different reactivitys show different reactivitys show different reaction
with oxygen.
b) (i) Oxygen gas
(ii) Activity of the reaction
(iii) type of metal
c) (i) X + oxygen ------ oxide of X
(ii)
Y + oxygen ------- oxide of Y
(iii) Z + oxygen ------ oxide of Z
d) Y, X , Z
e) X : Aluminium
Y : Magnesium
Z : Copper
a) X : Tin ore / cassiterite
Y : Limestone
b) Hot air
c) Product P : Molten slag
Product Q : Molten tin
d) Calcium carbonate ------- calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
a)
b)
c)
d)
Electroplating
The copper piece is the anode and the iron nails is the cathode
To transfer electric current from copper piece to the iron nail.
At the anode, copper piece dissolve in the copper sulphate solution and become copper
ions.
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At the cathode, copper ion in the copper sulphate solution are discharge and become
copper atoms which are attached on the iron nail
e) The concentration of the blue copper sulphate solution will remains unchanged.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Cassiterite
Limestone is used to absorb and removes the impurities in the ore
Tin oxide + carbon ------ tin + carbon dioxide
Because aluminium is more reactive than carbon
Carbon is cheap and able to get it easily.
a) Ampere
b) (i) Impure silver
(ii) pure silver
c) (i) Silver piece will become thinner
(ii) Silver piece will become thicker
d) No changes
a) Metal X reacts faster with dilute sulphuric acid than metal Y.
b) (i) Type of metal
(ii)
Reactivity
(iii) Concentration and volume of dilute sulphuric acid
c) Metal X
d) 25 cm3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Displacement reaction
Aluminium sulphate and hydrogen gas
Aluminium + Dilute sulphuric acid ----- Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen
Can test by a glowing splint. The hydrogen gas that release from the test tube will
make a pop sound.
a) Positive terminal : Copper plate

Negative terminal : zinc plate
b) The zinc plate become thinner
Produce gas bubble at positive terminal
c) Terminal negative
:
Zinc atoms - electron ---- zinc ions
Positive terminal
:
Hydrogen ions + electrons ---- hydrogen atoms
d) The flow of electron through the outside circuit from the cathode to the anode
produces electric current.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1.2 V
Used as an electrolyte
Voltmeter reading
0V
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11.
a) ( i ) K
(ii) N
b) K : Carbon rod
L : mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and carbon
M : Ammonium chloride paste
N : Zinc container
c) None rechargeable
Corrosion of the zinc casing results in leaked of the electrolyte
d) Nickel-cadmium cell
Lead- acid accumulator
12.
13.
a) (i) Gas bubbles are produced

(ii) A reddish brown metal is deposited at the cathode
b) (i) Chlorine gas is produced
(ii) The brown metal deposit is copper
c) Tested with litmus paper, it bleaches litmus paper
d) The density changes for color of the solution gradually decrease.
a) Electrolysis
b) (i) Carbon
(ii) P
c) (i) this because the ions in the solid lead bromide are strongly attracted to each other
by their electrostatic charges.
(ii) Heat the solid so that it melts into liquid
d) Lead ions and bromide ions
e) (i) Bromine
(ii)Brown pungent gas
f) Lead
CHAPTER 6 : NUCLEAR ENERGY

1.
2.
a) P - The Geiger Muller tube

Q - The scaler / rate meter / loud speaker
b) Substance R = Na-24
c) It will show a higher reading. It will be louder than normal
d) Gamma radiation will penetrate through the pipe
a) (i) X : Beta particle
(ii) Y : Gamma radiation
(iii) Z : Alpha particle
b) (i) Radiation Y is not depleted
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(ii) It is neutral
c) X is lighter than Z
d) (i) Lead
(ii)
Radioactive radiation cannot penetrate the lead container
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Nuclear fusion
Nuclear energy
Hydrogen bomb
The sun
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Radioactive atoms contain unstable nuclei

Alpha radiation, beta radiation, and gamma radiation
Alpha and beta radiation
Gamma radiation
Smaller and more stable
a) (i) Gamma radiation

(ii) the radioactive radiation has high penetrating power
(iii) the radioactive radiation is used to detect to content level in the bottle
b) (i) it is the Geiger Muller counter
(ii) To record the rate of radioactive
c) Phosphorus-32
a)
b)
c)
d)
Beta
(i) The aluminium is thicker than the acceptable thickness
To prevent radioactive radiation from being radiated in all directions
(i) a docimeter
(ii)
The photographic film on the docimeter turns black
CHAPTER 7 : LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT

1.
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Draw a light ray with image are real, inverted and diminished
Real, inverted and diminished
Camera
Draw a light ray with image are virtual, not inverted and diminished
a) The point on the principle axis where parallel rays of light will converge after passing
through the lens
b) Image are real, inverted and more than object ( draw a light ray )
c) 1.6 cm
d) Decrease
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3.
a) Filter color
Green
Blue
Red
screen color
blue
magenta
yellow
the color of light on the screen

black
blue
red
b) The color that appears on the screen is the result of the subtraction of light by the
coloured filter and coloured screen.
4.
5.
a) White
b) Secondary color
c) (i) K and L
(ii) Red
d) (i) Black
(ii)
Blue light is absorbed by the yellow card
a) P : Cornea
Q : Irish
R : Retina
b) P : Help to focus light onto the retina by refracting light rays that pass through it.
c) Irish muscle will contract to reduce the size of the pupil so that the amount of light
entering the eye is reduced
d) The eyes focuses by changing the thickness of the lens while the camera focuses by
moving the lens nearer or further from the film.
CHAPTER 8 : CHEMICALS IN INDUSTRY

1.
2.
3.
a) (i) Diagram Y
(ii) Diagram X
b) The atom of the second metal prevents the layers of sliding atoms in the first metal
from sliding over each other easily
c) (i) Pewter
(ii)
96% tin, 3% copper and 1% antimony
(iii) For making drinking mugs and vases, to make ornaments.
a) The iron nails become brown in color while there was no change to the steel nail.
b) The iron nail turned rusty whole the steel nail did not
c) (i) Type of nail
(ii)
Condition of the nails after the three days
(iii) Sodium chloride solution/test tube
d) Alloys can prevent corrosion or rusting
a) Copper : 1.5 cm
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Bronze : 1.1 cm
243

b) The softer the tested material, the deeper the dent is
c) Bronze
d) Copper and tin
4.
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Global warning / green house effect
c) When carbon dioxide increase with atmosphere, carbon dioxide gas absorbs heat from
the radiation of sunlight and heat is reflected back to earth. The trapping of this heat
causes the increase of the earth temperature.
d) Fixing a catalytic converter in the exhaust pipes of vehicles / using lead free petrol.
CHAPTER 9 : MICROORGANISMA AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS

1.
a) The most bacteria colony is observed at the pH value = 7

b)
c) pH = 7
d) pH = 6 : 8
2.
a) X2
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b) Penicillin kills bacteria. The higher the concentration of the penicillin, more bacteria
are killed
c) The size of penicillin disc / number of days
d) Antibiotic is a chemical that consists of fungi or bacteria that kills specific
microorganisms
3.
a) There is bigger and more bacterial colony when the temperature is increased after 24
hours.
b) (i) the graph size of bacteria colony vs temperature
(ii)
(iii)
4.
5.
6.
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
35C
3
A suspension containing weakened or dead pathogens of a particular disease

Cholera / hepatitis / TB
The white blood cells (lymphocytes) are stimulated to produce antibodies
To increase the number of antibodies to exceed the immunity level
Active acquired immunity
a) Immunization is a process where a person is given vaccination to help him acquire

immunity from a particular disease
b) Acquired immunity
c) (i) 3 times
(ii) The first dose is given to stimulate the body to produce antibodies immediately
but the level of antibodies produced is insufficient. By giving the second, third and
booster dose, the level of antibodies would increase to exceed the minimum level of
immunity required to fight diseases.
d) BCG
e) Tetanus
f) Each vaccination is given to prevent specific types of disease only
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
P : Plant protein
Ions
W : Denitrification
Nitrifying bacteria
Root nodules
Ammonium nitrate
Q : Ammonium compound
R : Nitrate
X : Nitrogen fixation
a) W : Viruses
X : Bacteria
Y : Protozoa
Z : Algae
b) W : Influenza
X : Cholera
Y : Malaria
c) W has no nucleus X has a nucleus
W contain either DNA or RNA where X contain both
W is smaller in sized compare to X.
d) Bacteria because it contains chlorophyll which enables it to carry out photosynthesis
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8.
9.
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Q
Penicillin Q
Fungus
Temperature : incubate at 37 C.
Kills the bacteria / prevents the growth of the bacteria
Wash hands before and after the experiment / sterilize the apparatus inside an
autoclave.
20C - 40C
-20C - 0C / more than 100C
More bacteria are produced making the meat not suitable to be eaten
(i) Spore formation
(ii) Binary fission
e) In 1 hour, 22 = 4 bacteria are produced
In 1 hour, 210 = 1024 bacteria are produced
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Larva
In stagnant water
An animal that carries pathogens from one organism to another
(i) Clear the surrounding areas around and inside the house to prevent mosquitoes
from hiding / spraying insecticide to kill mosquitoes
(ii) Rearing fish in ponds to feed on P / spreading a layer of oil on the surface of
water to prevent P from breathing
e) Protozoa, malaria / virus, dengue fever
f) When a mosquito bites an infected person and then bites a healthy person.
CHAPTER 10 : NUTRITION AND FOOD PRODUCTION

1.
2.
a) P because their diet contains less amount of meat, fats and oil
b) Fibres and proteins
c) 17.6 kJ of energy is released by 1 g of carbohydrate
2200 kJ of energy is released by
2200 17.6 = 125 g of sugar
d) Because their diet contains more sugar and less vegetables.
a) (i) Milk
(ii) Butter
b) Column S - fats
Reason : highest percentage for butter
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Column R - Carbohydrates
Reason : it is found in milk and potatoes but not in beef, tuna and butter
c) Butter and beef
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Bomb calorimeter
Refer diagram of bomb calorimeter
Oxygen, to help in the oxidation of the food
The temperature of the water increase
a) (i) the nutrient contents of Knops culture solution

(ii)
the growth rate of maize seedling such as the length of roots and stem, the
size of the leaves.
(iii) The original size of the maize seedling
b) To provide oxygen to the roots so that they would not rot
c) Stunted growth and the size of the leaves is small and the color of the leaves is yellow
d) To be used as a comparison in the results of the experiment
a) The amount of energy released when 1 gram of food is completely burned
b) Fixed variables : volume of water / mass of food
Responding variables : increase in temperature, amount of energy released
10 (85 35)
4.2 0.23kJg 1
c)
(1000 10)
a) 1469 kilocalories
b) No, because it does not contain fruits and vegetables that provides vitamins
c) (i) kwasyiorkor
(ii)Night blinders
d) Obesity becomes a problems because excessive carbohydrates would be changed into
fat to be stored in the body
a) The nitrogen cycle
b) The root nodules of clover plants contain nitrogen nitrogen fixing bacteria that convert
nitrogen gas into nitrates
c) Proteins
d) Nitrates
e) Ammonium sulphate/ ammonium nitrate
a) Type of food
White bread
Tea with milk
Fried potatoes
Fried chicken
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quantity (g)
150
100
75
150
247
Calorific value
1701.0
50.0
1792.5
2445.0

Butter cake
b)
c)
d)
e)
120
Total
Butter cake
No, because there is lack of fruits and vegetabled
Vitamins / minerals / fibres
Heart disease / high blood pressure / arteriosclerosis
3600.0
9588.5 kJ
CHAPTER 11 : PRESERVATION AND CONSERVATION OF THE

ENVIRONMENT
1.
2.
3.
4.
a) (i) secondary consumer

(ii) Producer
(iii) Primary consumer
b) Produces food and oxygen
c) Water plants ----- prawn ----- small fishes
d) It causes eutrophication. Algae that blooms rapidly on water surface prevents sunlight
from reaching the base of the pond. This results in the death of water plants and finally
the death of other aquatic organisms.
a) The ozone layer
b) 15 39 km
c) (i) Chlorofluorocarbon
(ii) Coolants in air conditioners and refrigerators / aerosol
d) (i) ozone hole
(ii)ultraviolet rays
e) Skin cancer, cataracts
a) (i) Burning of fossil fuels
(ii) Open burning of rubbish
(iii) Throwing rubbish into recyling bins
b) Air pollution
c) Sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
d) To conserve and preserve environment
a) (i) Jar P
(ii) The grasshopper in jar Q gets the oxygen from plant that produces it through
photosynthesis
b) To make sure that both jars P and Q are airtight
c) The plant absorbs carbon dioxide released by the grasshopper to enable it to perform
photosynthesis to supply oxygen to the grasshopper
d) (i) No
(ii) The grasshopper in jar Q would die first because the plant is competing with it to
use the oxygen supply.
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5.
a) Disposal of industrial waste

Disposal of sewage
Spraying of pesticides and herbicides
Exhaust smoke from aero planes
Smoke and heat from chemical factories
b) Ashes, soot and sulphur dioxide
c) Pollutants can damage body tissues and affect vision
6.
(a) Carbon cycle
b) P - photosynthesis
Q - respiration
R combustion
c) Maintains the level of carbon dioxide in the environment
d) Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide
e) Depletion of natural resources and air pollution
7.
8.
9.
a) X : Ammonium compound
Y : Nitrates
b) Decomposition
c) (i) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(ii) Bacteria P changes nitrogen in the atmosphere to nitrates. Nitrates are directly
used by plants to produced proteins.
d) Nitrification and nitrogen fixation
e) Farming
f) Water pollution causes the death of aquatic organisms.
a) (i) opening up of forest lands for development // industrialisation
(ii)loss of habitat // air pollution
(ii) replanting the same type of trees // using alternative energy sources
b) Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide / sulphur dioxide / oxides of nitrogen
c) Water pollution through the improper disposal of sewage
a) Driving a car that emits excessive exhaust fumes
Washing with detergents that pollute water sources
Throwing rubbish such as empty cans and boxes indiscriminately
Smoking cigarettes
b) Exhaust fumes contain gases such as carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, oxides of
nitrogen, and carbon particles that pollute the air. These gases add to the greenhouse
effect and indirectly cause global warming. They also play a part in the formation of
acid rain.
Oil and detergent flow into the river and pollute the water. These result in the death of
aquatic organism
Rubbish pollutes the surroundings and give off foul smells. They become breeding
grounds for vectors.
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Cigarette smoke pollute the air.
CHAPTER 12 : CARBON COMPOUND

1.
a) Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from
amino acid monomers
b) X : polymerization
Y : depolymerization
c) n (glucose)
starch when n = big number
d) (i) synthetic rubber is resistant to oil and solvents

(ii) SBR rubber can be vulcanized
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
W is formic acid
The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex
Y is ammonia solution
X is sulphur
Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
P is yeast
Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol.
Ethanol
Distillation
Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash
a) Palm oil and sodium hydroxide

b) Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with
fatty acids to form soap
c) Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out
d) The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth
e) (i) the head is soluble in water

(ii) the tail is soluble in grease
5.
a) Sterilization
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b) To destroy microorganisms in oil palm fruit.
c) Purification
d) (i) Raw palm oil
(ii) Vitamin E and A
e) (i) X : mesocarp
Y : endocarp
(ii) Mesocarp and kernel
Z : kernel
CHAPTER 13 : MOTION
1.
e) Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from
amino acid monomers
f) X : polymerization
Y : depolymerization
g) n (glucose)
starch when n = big number
h) (i) synthetic rubber is resistant to oil and solvents

(ii) SBR rubber can be vulcanized
2.
3.
4.
f)
g)
h)
i)
j)
W is formic acid
The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex
Y is ammonia solution
X is sulphur
Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.
f)
g)
h)
i)
j)
P is yeast
Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol.
Ethanol
Distillation
Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash
f) Palm oil and sodium hydroxide

g) Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with
fatty acids to form soap
h) Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out
i) The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth
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j) (i) the head is soluble in water
(ii) the tail is soluble in grease
5.
f)
g)
h)
i)
Sterilization
To destroy microorganisms in oil palm fruit.
Purification
(i) Raw palm oil
(ii) Vitamin E and A
j) (i) X : mesocarp
Y : endocarp
(ii) Mesocarp and kernel
Z : kernel
CHAPTER 14 : FOOD TECHNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION

1.
2.
a) X : Freeze drying
Y : vacuum packaging
Z : Irradiation
b) Food is kept in the freezing compartment of the refrigerator at -18C
c) Food Processing method Y
Food processing method Z
Air is sucked out from the plastic
food is radiated with gamma rays
Aerobic microorganism die
microorganism are killed by gamma rays
a)
Chemical used in food
processing
Preservative
Flavoring
Sweetener
Emulsifier
Antioxidant
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Examples
Used in
Functions
Boric acid Fish ball Prevents food from spoiling

Monosodium Soups
Makes food tastier
glutamate
and
sauces
Palm sugar
Cakes
Sweetens food
Lecithin
Ice
emulsifies two substances that
cream
cannot be mixed
Tocopherol
Butter
Prevents the oxidation of food
(vitamin E)
and
biscuits
Net weight, name and address of manufacturer

Report to the District Health Office or consumer association
Starch and benzoic acid
Function of starch : Prevents the separation of fluid parts of food
Function of benzoic acid : Prevents food from spoiling by impeding the growth and
reproduction of microorganism
4.
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a) To kill microorganisms and parasite, to enables easy food digestion and to enable food
to last longer
b) W : Freezing
X : Refrigeration
Y : Dehydrationj
Z : Pasteurization
c) At low temperature, the interaction between enzyme and microorganism is not active
d) To maintain freshness and nutrients in the food
e) (i) Heating at 63 C for 30 minutes or at 72 C for 15 second and is immerdiatly
cooled
(ii) To main tain taste and nutrients in the food, especially vitamins
5.
6.
a) The removal of a gene or section of a DNA molecule with the desired characteristics
from the cell of an organism and transferring it into a completely different organism
can produce the desired characteristics
b) Good resistance to diseases or pests, fast ripening of fruits and abundant harvest
c) (i) MARDI, MPOB
(ii)
MARDI - Jalomas sweet potatoes
MPOB - Tenera oil palm species
a) Berat bersih, alamat pengeluar, tarikh luput
b) (i) the expiry date
(ii) if the expiry date is over, the bread is then not safe for consumption and cause
diseases
c) Obesity
CHAPTER 15 : SYNTHETIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY

1.
Names of
plastic
Perspex
Types of
plastic
Thermoplastic
Epoxyl glue Thermosetts

Polypropene Thermoplastic
polystyrene Thermoplastic
2.
Monomers
One use of plastic
Methyl
metacrylate
Amide
Making transparent roof

Making glue and electric insulator
Styrene
Making food packaging containers
a) P : Nylon
Q : Neoprene rubber
R : Butyl rubber
b) P : Diamine and dicarboxylic acid
Q : Chloroprene
R : Isobutylene and isoprene
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c) P : Making synthetic textile and string
Q : making water pipes and hand gloves
R : making tyres, shoe soles and hoses.
CHAPTER 16 : ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION COMMUNICATION

`
TECHNOLOGY ( ICT )
1.
2.
a) Oscillating electric charges between the variable capacitor and the inductor
b) 1.5 cm
c) (i) wavelength of the radio wave
(ii) graph wavelength vs frequency
a) (i) Oscillator
(ii) Radio waves
b)
c) Transistor
d) Frequency of the wave transmitted is higher
3.
a)
b) (i) Seperates audio signals from radio waves

(ii) Earthed
(iii)
c) (i) transistor diagram

(ii) amplifiers audio signals
4.
a) To receive. Amplify and transmit information

b) (i) Microwave
(ii) It has the highest frequency that enables it to travel far and is not scrattered by the
particles in the atmosphere
c) (i) It appears stationary in the same spot in the sky
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(ii) 3 satellites
(iii)
5.
a) X / Radio wave
b) (i) Radio wave
(ii) 0.2 m
c) (i) carrier wave
(ii) Modulator
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BESTARI PRACTISE QUESTION
PROJEK JAWAB UNTUK JAYA (JUJ)
NEGERI PAHANG
TAHUN 2010
SCIENCE
KERTAS 1
Satu jam lima belas minit
JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

1.
Kertas soalan ini adalah dalam dwibahasa.
2.
Soalan dalam bahasa Inggeris mendahului soalan yang sepadan dalam

bahasa Melayu.
3.
Calon dikehendaki membaca maklumat di halaman belakang kertas soalan ini.
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256
BESTARI PRACTISE QUESTION

PROJEK JAWAB UNTUK JAYA (JUJ)
NEGERI PAHANG
TAHUN 2010
SCIENCE
KERTAS 2
Dua jam tiga puluh minit
JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU
1. Kertas soalan ini adalah dalam

dwibahasa
Bahagian
2. Soalan dalam bahasa Inggeris
mendahului
soalan
yang
sepadan dalam bahasa Melayu
3. Calon dibenarkan menjawab
keseluruhan atau sebahagian
soalan sama ada dalam bahasa
Inggeris atau bahasa Melayu
4. Calon dikehendaki membaca

maklumat di halaman 2
Soalan
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
Jumlah
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257
Markah
Markah
Penuh Diperolehi
5
5
5
5
6
6
6
6
6
10
10
10
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

MAKLUMAT UNTUK CALON
1. This question paper consists of three sections. Section A, Section B and Section C
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi tiga bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B dan Bahagian
C
2. Answer all questions in Section A and Section B.
Write your answers for Section A and Section B in the spaces provided on the
question paper
Jawab semua soalan dalam Bahagian A dan Bahagian B
Tulis jawapan bagi Bahagian A dan Bahagian B dalam ruang yang disediakan pada
kertas soalan
3. For Section C, answer Question 10 and either Question 11 or Question 12.
Write your answers for Section C on the other examination sheets
You may use equations, diagrams, tables, graphs and other suitable methods to
explain your answers
Bagi Bahagian C, jawab Soalan 10 dan mana-mana satu soalan daripada Soalan 11
atau Soalan 12
Tulis jawapan bagi Bahagian C pada helaian jawapan lain
Anda boleh menggunakan persamaan, rajah, jadual, graf dan cara lain yang sesuai
untuk menjelaskan jawapan anda
4. The diagrams in the questions provided are not drawn to scale unless stated
Rajah yang mengiring soalan tidak dilukis mengikut skala kecuali dinyatakan
The marks allocated for each sub-part of a question are shown in bracket
Markah yang diperuntukkan bagi setiap ceraian soalan ditunjukkan dalam kurungan
5. If you wish to change your answer, neatly cross out the answer that you have done.
Then write down the new answer
Sekiranya anda hendak menukar jawapan, batalkan dengan kemas jawapan yang
telah dibuat. Kemudian tulis jawapan yang baru
6. You may use a non-programmable scientific calculator
Anda dibenarkan menggunakan kalkulator saintifik yang tidak boleh diprogramkan
7. The time suggested to answer Section A is 60 minutes, Section B is 50 minutes and

Section C is 40 minutes
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Masa yang dicadangkan untuk menjawab Bahagian A ialah 60 minit, Bahagian B
ialah 50 minit dan Bahagian C ialah 40 minit
8. Hand in this question paper at the end of the examination
Serahkan kertas soalan ini di akhir peperiksaan
Section A
Bahagian A
[ 20 marks/markah ]
Answer all questions.
Jawab semua soalan
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259

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Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

SCIENCE MODULE FOR SPM 2010

Format of an instrument for the evaluation of Science SPM

Analysis of SPM science Paper 2005 -2009

Set of Practice Bestari Questions

Practise Bestari Scheme

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

FORMAT OF INSTRUMENT FOR THE EVALUATION OF SCIENCE BEGINNING

Objective item with

Mark on OMR sheet

Write in the spaces

2 hour and 30 minutes

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

Example of item base on

Refer LPM question

Refer LPM question

Evaluate the constructs on

Evaluate the constructs on

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR PAPER 2

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

Underline variables in the sentence

2. From the table

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

Give facts without explanation

The answer must be specific statements of a concepts or

Explain in detail and systematically procedures,events or

Give reasons to explain the occurrence of a concept or a

List the similarities and differences between two different

Give analytical and critical explanation.

Give views and opinions based on knowledge, scientific

i)Give facts of information.

Give explanation and reasons

i)List or describe steps in a process or a procedure in

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

The diagram below shows the statement

Which of the following are correct steps

I, II and III only

Why the method of scientific investigation

The following statement are the variables

I, II and III only

A complete experiment report should

Hypothesis is a simple statement of what

A the fixed variable and the responding

A Fixed variable is the variable that is

Which of the following steps have been

Which of the following not the parts of the

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

Which of the following should be done

II and III only

with 30 cm boiling water. After some

The inference of this experiment are

10. Which of the following statements shows