CORPORATION BANK SPECIALIST OFFICER'S EXAM 04

Reasoning Ability

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EARNEST each of which has as many letters between them in the
word as in the English alphabet?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) None of these

2. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth letter of the word
OUTRAGEOUS', which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If more than one such word can be
formed, give 'X' as the answer and if no such word can be formed, give 'Y' as the answer.
a) E
b) A
c) S
d) Y
e) X

3. In a certain code language 'ne ri so' means 'good rainy day ', 'si ne po' means 'day is wonderful' and ri jo' means ' good
boy'. Which of the following means 'rainy' in that code?
a) ne
b) ri
c) si
d) so
e) None of these

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group?
a) Bat
b) Spider
c) Mosquito
d) Butterfly
e) Cockroach

5. The position of the first and the second digits in the number 7986032451 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of
the third and fourth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fifth digit from the right end
after the rearrangement?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 0
e) None of these

6. Shyam, Neena, Sudha, Neerav and Rupesh are sitting around a circle facing towards the centre. Sudha is between
Shyam and Rupesh. Neena is to the immediate right of Shyam. Who is to the immediate right of Neena?
a) Rupesh
b) Neerav
c) Shyam
d) Sudha
e) None of these

7. In a certain code language PRECISE is written as FULCBPO. How would MONSOON be written in that code?
a) OQRSNQQ
b) NQQSKML
c) OQRSKML
d) OPQSKML
e) None of these

8. If R is coded as 5, L is coded as I, N is coded as 6, T is coded as 2, U is coded as 8, F is coded as 3, S is coded as 4, l is
coded as 9, and G is coded as 7, what is the decoded form of 425967?
a) TRINGS
b) SRTNIG
c) STRING
d) SITRNG
e) None of these

9. In a certain code STREAM is written a RASMTE. How would JOVIAL be written in the same code?
a) VOJLAI
b) VAJLOI
c) LAIVOJ
d) VIOILA
e) None of these

10. Pointing to Rahul, Mohan says, "He is the only son of my father's only daughter," How is Mohan related to Rahul?
a) Uncle
b) Nephew
c) Brother
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these

11. 'GROW' is written as '= @%# and 'WITHIN' is written as '# ' in a certain code language. How would 'WING' be
written in that code?
a) # =
b) #% =
c) % =
d) # =
e) None of these

12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
a) 23
b) 31
c) 47
d) 37
e) 51

13. If the letters of the word 'PRINCE' are rearranged as they appear in the English alphabet, the position of how many
letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) None of these

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
a) March
b) July
c) August
d) April
e) May

15. If 'A B' means 'subtract B from A'; 'A + B' means 'multiply A by B, 'A - B' means 'add B to A' and 'A x B means 'divide
A by B', then 5 - 24 X 4 + 2 3 = ?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 5
d) 19
e) None of these

Directions (16-21) : Answer the questions given below referring to the following arrangement:
J * R 3 P L 2 # I N 7 O C @ K 5 D = M $ 6 B < A Q 4

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regards their position in the above arrangement and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 2 3 #
b) O I C
c) K 0 5
d) # P I
e) B $ <

17. What will come in the place of the question mark(?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? P R J #
L 3 7 1.2 @ 0 N ?
a) DKC
b) 5@0
c) D K@
d) = 5@
e) None of these

18. If the above series is rearranged in the reverse order, which will be the eleventh clement to the left to the sixteenth
element from the left end?
a) J
b) 6
c) B
d) <
e) None of these

19. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant
and not immediately followed by a symbol?
a) None
b) Two
c) Four
d) Three
e) None of these

20. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and immediately toll owed by a consonant?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) More than three
e) None

21. If the position of the first ten elements of the above arrangements is reversed, which of the following will be the
twenty-third from the right end?
a) L
b) 2
c) 3
d) P
e) None of these

Directions (22-28) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered
I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.

22. Statements:
All pens are grasshoppers.
Some grasshoppers are clouds.
Some clouds are bottles.
Conclusions:
I. Some bottles are grass-hoppers.
II. Some clouds are pens.
III. No pen is cloud.
a) Only III follows
b) Only either II or Ill follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only either I or III follows
e) None of these

23. Statements:
Some reds are crows.
All crows are yellows.
All yellows are rabbits.
Conclusions:
I. All crows are rabbits.
II. Some yellows are reds.
III. Some reads are rabbits.
a) All follow
b) Only I follows
c) Only I and II follow
d) Either I or II follows
e) None follows

24. Statements:
All rings are birds.
Some birds are cages.
All cages are kites.
Conclusions:
I. All kites are cages.

II. Some kites are rings.

III. Some birds are kites.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only I and III follow
e) None of these

25. Statements:
Some trees are lions.
Some lions are cows.
All cows are bats.
Conclusions:
I. Some bats are trees.
II. Some cows are trees.
III. No bat is tree.
a) None follows
b) Only III follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only either I or III follows
e) None of these

26. Statements:
Some chocolates are sticks.
Some spoons are sticks.
All spoons are apples.
Conclusions:
I. All apples are chocolates.
II. Some sticks are apples.
III. Some spoons are chocolates.
a) Only Ill follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only II and III follow
d) All follow
e) None of these

27. Statements:
Some dogs are bags.
No bag is lion.
All rooms are lions.
Conclusions:
I. Some rooms are bags.
II. Some dogs are lions.
III. Some rooms are dogs.
a) All follow
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only Ill follows
e) None of these

28. Statements:
All cupboards are bears.
All diamonds are bears.

Some bears are chairs.

Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are diamonds.
II. Some cupboards are chairs.
III. All diamonds are chairs.
a) Only I follow
b) Only II follows
c) Only Ill follows
d) None follows
e) None of these

Directions (29-34) : In the following questions the symbols @, , $, # and are used with the following meaning as
illustrated below :
'X@ Y' means 'X is not greater than Y'.
'X # Y' means 'X is neither smaller than nor equal to Y'.
'X Y' means 'X is not smaller than Y'.
'X Y' means 'X is neither greater than nor smaller than Y'.
'X $ Y' means 'X is neither greater than nor equal to.'
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I &
II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer a) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer b) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer c) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer d) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer e) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

29. Statements: D @ R, S $ R, H S,
Conclusions:
I. D # S II. H R

30. Statements: G $ T, N T, O N
Conclusions:
I. T O II. O # G

31. Statements: P J, J # L, R @ L
Conclusions:
I. P # L II. R P

32. Statements: M A, A @ Q, B # Q
Conclusions:
I. M $ Q II. Q M

33. Statements: P $ V, W # V, U W
Conclusions:
I. U # P II. V U

34. Statements: I R, C I, C E
Conclusions:
I. C R II. R @ E

Directions (35-40) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven friends Q, R, S, T, U, V and W work at different places in India, i.e., Kolkata, Delhi, Bangalore, Baroda,
Chennai, Hyderabad and Mumbai not necessarily in that order. They work for the branches of three organizations i.e.

Vision, Skylark and Source one. Not more than three and not less than two of them work in any of the organizations. U
works at Baroda. S works at Mumbai and is in the same organization as W only. The one who works at Bangalore does
not work with Skylark. R works with Skylark and is placed at Hyderabad. T does not work at Delhi. Q works at Chennai
and is in the same organization as only U. Vision is the only organization with a branch at Baroda.

35. Who works at Kolkata?
a) R
b) W
c) V
d) T
e) None of these

36. In which organization does R work?
a) Skylark
b) Vision
c) Source one
d) Either a) or c)
e) None of these

37. Which three friends work in the same organization?
a) Q, U, T
b) V, R, W
c) V, R, T
d) W, R, T
e) None of these

38. Who work with the organization Source one?
a) Q, U
b) S, W
c) S, V
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

39. Who works at Delhi?
a) W
b) T
c) U
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

40. Who works at Bangalore?
a) V
b) T
c) W
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

Directions (41-45) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and -
Give answer a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer d) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. Who is the youngest among the four friends J, P, A and K?
I. A is younger than J but not as young as P.
II. K is elder than P but younger than A who is not the eldest.

42. What is Priya's favorite color among blue, yellow, red, green, black and white?
I. Priya does not like yellow, green or white.
II. Priya does not like the favorite color of her friend who likes blue.

43. How is Sonali related to Bharat?
I. Sonali's father and Pankaj are brothers.
II. Shilpa is the only daughter of Bharat who is the only son of Pankaj.

44. What is the color of the sky in a code language?
I. In that code language 'White' means 'Green'. 'Green' means 'Yellow' and 'Yellow' means 'Blue'.
II. 'Black' means 'Red', 'Red' means 'Pink' and 'Blue' means 'White' in the same code language.

45. On which day of the week was Mallika born?
I. Mallika was born just ten days after her cousin Smita who was born on Wednesday.
II. Shantanu was born on Sunday, which was just the next day of Mallika's birthday.

Directions (46-50) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Seven colleagues A, H, J, S, V, D and R work in four different departments of an organization Marketing, Finance,
HR and IT. Not more than two work in any department. Each of them is wearing different colored shirt, which is White.
Blue, Cream, Rosy, Black, Yellow and Pink, not necessarily in that order. A works with J in the Marketing department and
is not wearing White colored shirt. V is wearing Yellow colored shirt and does not work in the Finance department. H
works with S in the same department and is wearing Black shirt. Only D works in the HR department. R is in the same
department as Y. No one in the Marketing or IT department is wearing Cream shirt. J is wearing Rosy shirt. The one who
is wearing the Pink shirt is working in the Finance department.

46. Who work in the Finance department?
a) V, R
b) A, H
c) S, H
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

47. Who is wearing Cream shirt?
a) R
b) A
c) S
d) D
e) None of these

48. What colored shirt is wearing?
a) Black
b) White
c) Cream

d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

49. In which department is R working?
a) IT
b) Marketing
c) Finance
d) HR
e) Data inadequate

50. What colored shirt is R wearing?
a) Cream
b) White
c) Blue
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

Directions (51-55) : To answer these questions, refer to the letter series given below:
B H O Y Y N A G M P W R L F C E J Q U X Z S K D I T

51. Which of the following gives all the letters in the serial order which are immediately preceded by the vowels, vowels
to but taken in the order as they appear in the alphabet?
a) YGJXT
b) GJTVX
c) JGTYX
d) XYTJG
e) None of these

52. If each letter from your left is denoted by a number which is its serial number, then what will be the sum of the
numbers for the letters in the word 'KNOW'?
a) 42
b) 44
c) 45
d) 41
e) None of these

53. Which letter is sixth to the right of the middle letter between Y and Z?
a) X
b) Q
c) U
d) A
e) None of these

54. Four of the following five are similar in a certain way with reference to the above series and hence form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a) OYP
b) BVW
c) GMR
d) BYC
e) GPC

55. UHT is related to TIS in the same way as OYA is related to -
a) DSX

b) DZX
c) KSX
d) ISU
e) None of these

56. In a certain code 'HEAVY' is written as 'ICBTZ'. How will 'QUICK' be written in "that code?
a) OSJAL
b) QRJAL
c) RSKAL
d) RSJBL
e) None of these

57. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word 'IMAGINATION' each of which has as many letters between
them as there are between them in English alphabet?
a) Four
b) Three
c) Five
d) Two
e) None of these

58. In a class, ratio of passed to failed students in an exam is 5 : 1. Amar is 16th from the top and Sujit, who is three
ranks below Amar is 22nd from the bottom among the passed students. If all the students in the class had appeared for
the exam, what is the strength of the class?
a) 40
b) 32
c) 48
d) Data-inadequate
e) None of these

59. Ramu goes to B via C. Sonu goes to D via B and then goes to C. Dhruv goes to C, then to D and finally to B. If all the
three begin from the same point, who among them travels the longest distance?
a) Ramu
b) Sonu
c) Dhruv
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

60. Pointing to the man in the photograph, Raman said, "His mother has only one grandchild whose mother is my sister."
How is Raman related to the man in the photograph?
a) Data inadequate
b) Brother
c) Brother-in-law
d) Nephew
e) None of these

Directions (61-65) : Five skilled attendants L, M, N, P & Rare to attend the task everyday during the six hours working
period.
(i) Each one will attend the work for one hour.
(ii) There will be a gap of two hours between the hours being attended by N and P.
(iii) R will attend the work immediately before the rest hour (T). The rest hour (T) is not the second or the fourth hour.
(iv) L will attend the work before M.
(v) Nor P will not be the first to start attending the day's work.
(vi) P will attend the work from 4.00 p.m. which is immediately after the rest hour.

61. What is the starting time of R's working hour?
a) 1.00 p.m.
b) 2.00 p.m.
c) 3.00 p.m.
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these

62. What are the working hours of 'M' with reference to that of' L'?
a) Immediately before
b) Immediately after
c) Two hours after
d) Cannot be detem1incd
e) None of these

63. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the working of these five attendants starting from the first hour of
the day?
a) NLRTPM
b) LNPRTM
c) LNRMTP
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these

64. How many hours gap will be there between the working hours of M and N?
a) Cannot be determined
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these

65. Which of the following is the correct statement?
a) 'L' works in the end-hour
b) 'M' precedes 'P' as far as working hours are concerned
c) 'N' precedes 'L' as far as working hours are concerned
d) Rest hour begins at 3.00 p.m.
e) None of these

66. In a certain code Avdhut was better than many but not the best' is written as 'than the was but best Avdhut not
better many'. How will 'Ram, Raman, Ramesh went for swimming in the pool' be written in that code?
a) for the Raman swimming pool Ram in Ramesh went
b) went in R!im swimming pool Raman the Remesh for
c) went the Ram swimming pool Raman in Ramesh for
d) went the Raman swimming pool Ram in Ramesh for
e) None of these

67. D's father is B's son. C is the uncle of D and A is the brother of B. How is A related to C?
a) Brother
b) Son
c) Uncle
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

Directions (68-70) : E, F. G, H. I and J are sitting around a circle facing towards the centre. E. who is to the immediate left
of H is not the neighbour of G. I, the neighbor of G is not the neighbour of T. J is between H and F.

68. Which of the following is true?
a) E is to the immediate right of I
b) I is between G and F
c) H is between E and G
d) F is third to the right of I
e) None of these

69. What is the position of I?
a) Between G & F
b) Between E & G
c) Neighbour of H
d) Between J & H
e) None of these

70. Which of the following is false?
a) I is second to the left of H
b) G is third to the right of H
c) I is second to the left of G
d) E is fourth to the right of J
e) None of these

71. If M is written as W, N is written as E, R as O, D as M, E as N, O and D and W-as R, then how will 'WONDER' be
written?
a) MREONW
b) RDEWNO
c) MDERNO
d) RDEMNW
e) None of these

72. Arrange the vowels and consonants of the word ' ASTONISHMENT' in alphabetical order separately, first the vowels
and then the consonants. Which letter will be seventh to the left of the eleventh letter from your left in the new
arrangement?
a) T
b) N
c) H
d) 0
e) None of these

73. Which of the following are related in the same was as laugh : joy?
a) dance : class
b) picnic : play
c) competition : race
d) perspiration :cold
e) eat : hunger

74. By applying which of the following sets of the arithmetical signs will the value of (100 * 10) ** 0.9 * 81 be 'zero'?
a) *means - and ** means x
b) * means + and ** means x
c) * means and ** means -
d) * means - and ** means

e) None of these

75. If in a certain code, 'TOPICAL' is written as ONSMBDJ and 'FOLLOWS' is written as KNETXPM then how will 'FIGHTER'
be written in that code?
a) HIGQDSG
b) FHEQDSG
c) GJHSFUI
d) FHESFUI
e) None of these

Directions (76-80) : Study the following arrangement and answer the questions based on it.
W 2 S I * N L @ = B D 3 6 H J 9 # 7 P K $ V & 8 4 M

76. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to the group?
a) N S 3
b) 3 = 9
c) P 9 8
d) B @ J
e) # H V

77. If the symbols and numbers are interchanged serially as they appear in the arrangement such as with 2, * with I,@
with 3 and so on, then which element will be the 171h element to the right of the 201h element from the right end in
this new arrangement?
a) 8
b) $
c) 4
d) #
e) None of these

78. If we want to arrange in the ascending order-
I. the number of letters immediately followed by symbols
II. the number of symbols immediately followed by numbers and
III. the number of letters not immediately preceded by either symbols or numbers, then which of the following will
indicate the correct ascending order?
a) I, II, III
b) III, II, I
c) I, III, II
d) II, III, I
e) None of these

79. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol but
not immediately followed by a number?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
e) None of these

80. '2 I L' is to ' 8 V P' in the same way as '* N' is to-
a) $ 8 K
b) V 4 K
c) $ 4 K

d) $ 4 p
e) None of these

81. If in code language ' Fun ' is written as 'Gun' and some' is written as 'Tome', how will ' Gear' be written in that
language?
a) Bear
b) Fear
c) Cear
d) Tear
e) None of these

82. In a row of25 girl s, when Nayan was shifted to her right by 6 places, her number 1iom the right end of the row
became 14. What was the number of her original place from the left end of the row?
a) 6th
b) 4th
c) 5th
d) 11th
e) None of these

83. If C is denoted as I, I is denoted as R, R as E, E as A, A as O , O as F, F as S, S as T and T as C, then how will FACTORISE'
be written?
a) SOICFRETA
b) SOICEFRTA
c) SOIFCERTA
d) SIOCFERTA
e) None of these

84. In a row of boys there are 18 boys between Naresh and Kunal. Naresh is 31st from the left end of the row. If Naresh
is nearer than Kunal to the right end of the row, how far away is Kunal from the right end of the row?
a) 13th
b) 49th
c) 14th
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

85. If a meaningful word beginning with C can be formed from 'H O C G U' then, the third letter of that word is your
answer. If no such word can be formed then your answer is "5' i.e. 'None of these'.
a) H
b) G
c) U
d) C
e) None of these

Directions, (86-91) : Given an input, a coding machine generates pass codes for six batches every day as follows :
Input : infrastructure is one of the best possible
Pass Code:
Batch I : of infrastructure the is best one possible
Batch II : is possible the one infrastructure best or
Batch III : one is infrastructure possible best the of and so on till the sixth batch.
The first batch timing is 10.00 a.m. and each batch is of one hours duration.
There is a rest period of one hour after the fourth batch work is over.

86. Pass code for the first batch was "from Mahesh the is left ninth .end". Write the input in the reverse order of its
words
a) Mahesh is ninth from the left end
b) end left the from ninth is Mahesh
c) from ninth the is left Mahesh end
d) end Mahesh left is the ninth from
e) None of these

87. If the pass code on a day for the batch at 3.00 p.m. was ' test could include other types of questions,' what was the
pass code for the batch at 1.00 p.m. on that day?
a) types test other questions include of could
b) questions include of could types test other
c) could other of test include types questions
d) questions types include test of other could
e) None of these

88. The pass code for the batch immediately before the lunch hour was ' tear open along the right hand edge'. What was
the input for the pass code on that day?
a) open along the right hand edge tear
b) along right edge open the hand tear
c) the hand tear along right edge open
d) along open tear edge hand right the
e) None of these

89. Mr. 'A' was given a pass code for the batch beginning at 12 noon, which was 'choose the best answer from those
alternatives'. However, he was to be suddenly shifted to the batch at 1.00 p.m. What should be his pass code then?
a) answer choose from the those best alternatives
b) answer alternatives best those the from choose
c) answer best alternatives the those choose from.
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these

90. If input on a day is 'the institute is located in Bangalore city'. What will be the pass code for the batch at 1.00 p.m.?
a) in city institute located Bangalore
b) is institute the city Bangalore in located
c) city is Bangalore institute in the located
d) city located the in institute Bangalore is
e) None of these

91. The input for pass code on a day was there will be penalty for wrong answers'. What was the pass code for the sixth
batch on that day?
a) penalty be will there answers wrong for
b) for answers will penalty wrong there be
c) will there answers wrong for penalty be
d) there wrong penalty will answers for be
e) None of these

Directions (92-96) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and-
Give answer a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer d) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

92. Who came first among E, F, G, Hand I in the race?
I. H was behind G but ahead of F who was behind E but ahead of J.
II. F was behind H but ahead of J who was behind F and G

93. Who is the tallest among P, Q, R, S and T?
I. R is taller than T but not as tall as P, Q is taller than S but not as tall as R.
II. T is shorter than Q and R, Q is shorter than P but taller than S.

94. What does 'pa' mean in a certain code language?
I. In that code language 'ka ta ma' means 'you it first' and 'pale ta' means ' I saw it'.
II. In that code language 'da se ma' means 'she stood last' and 'te ma le' means 'he first saw'.

95. What is relation of M with N?
I. N is father-in-law of P, whose wife C is niece of M.
II. D is brother of C and nephew of M and P, who is husband of C is son-in-law of N.

96. How many students of the class did participate in the games?
I. Each boys and girls are 50 per cent and 50 per cent of each decided not to participate in the games. However in order
to organize games condition of minimum number of students i.e. 10 boys and 10 girls, was met by the class.
II. During the games one-third of boys and one-half of girls were on picnic and one-sixth, i.e., five boys did not take part
in the games, there were 60 students in the class and the remaining took part in the games.

97. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to the group?
a) NUMBER : MNUEBR
b) MORALE : RMOLAE
c) PENCIL : NPEICL
d) FLOWER : OFLEWR
e) MONKEY: OMNEKY

98. Four of the following five pairs of letters and numbers have same relationship as that of UNIFORM : 2415869 and
hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a) NIMOR: 41986
b) FINUM : 51429
c) MINOF: 91485
d) RUNIM: 62149
e) ORMIN : 86914

Directions (99-100) : There are six colors Red, Blue, White, Black, Brown and Green on six faces of a cube.
(i) White and red colors are on the opposite faces.
(ii) Blue and green colors are on the adjacent faces.

99. If blue face is towards brown color, then
(A) Green color is between blue and brown colors
(B) White colors is between blue and brown colors
(C) Black color is between blue and brown colors
a) Only Band C are true

b) Only A is true
c) Either B or C is true
d) Neither A nor B nor C can be definitely true
e) All A, B and C are true

100. Which of the following colors are on the opposite faces?
a) Green-Black
b) Blue-Brown
c) Black-Brown
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (101-105): What will come in place of 'the question mark (?) in the following equations?
101. 20% of 55+ 36% of 25 =?
a) 20
b) 19
c) 28
d) 16
e) None of these

102. 8
1.4
x 8
3.5
= 8
?

a) 4
b) 6.3
c) 4.9
d) 2.4
e) None of these

103. 25 + 8 - 17 = (?)
2

a) 25
b) 4
c) 16
d) 25
e) None of these

104. 83.99 - 56.11 - 21.09 =?
a) 12.14
b) 6.25
c) 5.45
d) 18.69
e) None of these

105. 2 * 1 + 1 = ?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) 5
e) None of these

Directions (106-110) : What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equations ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

106. (7.995)
2
+ 90.951 -? = 121.001 + 10.995
a) 33
b) 50
c) 18
d) 28
e) 23

107. 4.999 1.999 X 6.001 =?
a) 24
b) 20
c) 15
d) 17
e) 18

108. 14.995 X 8.001 X 20.991 =?
a) 1950
b) 2520
c) 2260
d) 1520
e) 2760

109. 26.003 - 154.001 6.995 =?
a) 4
b) 18
c) 8
d) 12
e) 14

110. + = ?
a) 11
b) 20
c) 24
d) 14
e) 27

Directions (111-115): What will come in place of the question mark (?) following number series?

111. 3 21 126 630 2520 7560 ?
a) 15120
b) 22680
c) 7560
d) 14230
e) None of these

112. 13 17 30 4 7 77 ? 201
a) 117
b) 124
c) 98
d) 156
e) None of these

113. 10 11 18 38 97.5 295.5 ?
a) 796

b) 1186
c) 889.5
d) 1037.75
e) None of these

114. 165 162 156 147 ? 120 102
a) 140
b) 132
c) 135
d) 138
e) None of these

115. 21 25 34 50 ? 111 160
a) 86
b) 72
c) 66
d) 59
e) None of these

116. The length of a rectangular plot is 25 meters more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot @ Rs. 19.50 per
meter is Rs. 4,095. What is the length of the plot in meters?
a) 40
b) 50
c) 65
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

117. Present ages of Ram and Sita are in the ratio of 13 : 12 respectively. 8 years later, their ages will be in the respective
ratio of 15 : 14. What is Sita's present age in years?
a) 50
b) 54
c) 48
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these

118. Three-fourth of one number is equal to 60% of another number. What is the ratio of the first number to the second
number?
a) 3 : 4
b) 5 : 4
c) 6 : 7
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these

119. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
298.12 + 281.92 + 28.21 + 928 =?
a) 183.75
b) 1636.18
c) 1725.13
d) 153.625
e) None of these

120. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
(12)
2
+ (19)
2
- 5 =?

a) 485
b) 505
c) 500
d) 495
e) None of these

121. A train crosses an 80 metres long platform in 30 seconds. If the speed of the train is 4 metre/second, what is the
length of the train?
a) 40 metres
b) 55 metres
c) 80 metres
d) 60 metres
e) None of these

122. Four of the five parts numbered a), b), c), d) and e) in the following equation are exactly equal. Which of the parts is
no equal to the other four? The number of that part is the answer.
a) (3 - 2)
2
+ 4 c) b) = 3
b) (3+ 2) + 2 (3 + 2) =
c) [c)
2
- b)
2
] + 2b) (2 + 3) =
d) (3- 2)
2
+ (3 + 2) 2 b) =
e) (3 + 2)
2
-2 c) (3- 2) + 3 [2 c)- 2)]

123. Ratio of a number to another number is 4 : 3 respectively. If 50% of the first number is 38, what is the other
number?
a) 55
b) 76
c) 89
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

124. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'FIND' be rearranged?
a) 16
b) 20
c) 22
d) 24
e) None of these

125. Mansi's monthly income is 40% more than that of Ajay. Ajay's monthly income is 17% less than that of Manoj. If the
difference between the monthly income of Mansi and Manoj is Rs. 2,430, what is Ajay's monthly income?
a) Rs. 15,000
b) Rs. 10,655
c) Rs. 12,450
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

Directions (126-130): Study the table carefully to answer the following questions:

Marks obtained by six students in Five different subjects

Subject English
(50)
Hindi
(50)
Maths
(150)
Science
(150)
Social Studies
(100)
Total
(500) Students
A 39 45 142 128 77 431
B 35 42 128 142 89 436
C 42 38 139 135 89 443
D 40 40 135 142 76 433
E 32 38 138 140 75 423
F 34 37 140 121 78 410


126. What is the approximate percentage obtained by D in English, Hindi and Science together?
a) 79
b) 89
c) 81
d) 83
e) 80

127. Who has scored the highest in Maths and Science together?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

128. What is the respective ratio of total marks obtained by A in English, Hindi and Maths to the total marks obtained by
B in Hindi, Maths and Science?
a) 104: 105
b) 226: 205
c) 105: 104
d) 113: 156
e) None of these

129. What is D's percentage in all the subjects together?
a) 86.6
b) 87.2
c) 88.6
d) 82
e) None of these

130. What are the approximate average marks obtained by all the students together in Social studies?
a) 81
b) 75
c) 77
d) 88
e) 85

Directions (131 -135) : Study the graph carefully to answer the following questions:

Number of Soaps and Toothpastes produced by a Factory over the years

131. What is the ratio of number of soaps produced in the year 1996 to the number of tooth pastes produced in the year
2001?
a) 5 : 9
b) 8 : 5
c) 6: 7
d) 5: 7
e) None of these

132. Number of toothpastes produced in the year 2000 form approximately what percent of total number of items
(toothpastes+ soaps) produced if) that year?
a) 37
b) 48
c) 52
d) 58
e) 42

133. Number of soaps and toothpastes produced in the year 1996 are in the ratio 5 : 9 respectively. How many more
soaps are required so that the ratio gets reversed?
a) 4600
b) 5600
c) 2000
d) 3500
e) None of these

134. What is the approximate average number of toothpastes produced over the years?
a) 3520
b) 3184
c) 4083
d) 3998
e) 4872

135. The percentage increase/decrease in production of soaps from the previous year was the highest for which year?
a) 1997
b) 1998
c) 1999
d) 2000
0
1000
2000
3000
4000
5000
6000
7000
8000
9000
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
N
u
m
b
e
r

P
r
o
d
u
c
e
d
YEARS
Soap
Tooth Paste

e) 2001

136. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
35 X 12 + 27 X ? = 987
a) 18
b) 35
c) 21
d) 31
e) None of these

137. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
504 56 X 18 + ? = 170
a) 10
b) 6
c) 12
d) 8
e) None of these

138. A sum of Rs.2900 amounts to Rs. 3422 in 3 years at simple interest. If the interest rates were increased by 3%, what
would it amount to in the same period?
a) Rs. 4465
b) Rs. 3683
c) Rs. 3596
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these

139. The circumference of a circle is 88 metres. What is its diameter?
a) 14 metres
b) 28 metres
c) 17 metres
d) 34 metres
e) None of these

140. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
721.22 - 66.25 + 596.65 =?
a) 58.32
b) 1251:62
c) 78.31
d) 1154.11
e) None of these

Directions (141-145): Study the table carefully to answer the following questions:

Number of Shoe pairs for sale and percentage of Shoe pairs actually sold In 6 different shoe stores over the years

Store R S T U V W
Year

No. of
Pairs for
sale
%
Sold
No. of
Pairs for
sale
%
Sold
No. of
Pairs for
sale
%
Sold
No. of
Pairs for
sale
%
Sold
No. of
Pairs for
sale
%
Sold
No. of
Pairs for
sale
%
Sold
1997 8950 42 4950 54 8620 75 6000 77 8980 45 5150 84
1998 9470 55 6500 87 4230 50 7500 68 8500 88 4800 63
1999 8760 25 7940 35 6120 65 7850 84 8120 90 6240 85
2000 7470 70 7550 64 8420 95 8260 75 9680 65 7860 55

141. What is the total number of shoe pairs that Store W did not manage to sell in the years 1997 m1d 1998 together?
a) 1860
b) 2542
c) 2190
d) 3759
e) None of these

142. The total number of shoe pairs actually sold by Store R over the years is approximately what per cent of the total
number of-shoe pairs for sale in those years?
a) 42
b) 35
c) 38
d) 47
e) 52

143. What is the ratio of number of shoe pairs sold by Store U in 2000 to the number of shoe pairs sold by Store W in the
same year?
a) 111 : 131
b) 2065 : 1441
c) 1447 : 2152
d) 1013 : 2613
e) None of these

144. What is the number of shoe pairs sold by Store T in 1999?
a) 4248
b) 3526
c) 3215
d) 4501
e) None of these

145. What is the approximate average number of shoe pairs sold by Store S over the year?
a) 5145
b) 4324
c) 3985
d) 4260
e) 2498

Directions (146-150) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions:

Number of students of Class IX in 6 different Sections of a School



72
66
54
81
75
48
0
20
40
60
80
100
A B C D E F
N
u
m
b
e
r

o
f

S
t
u
d
e
n
t
s

146. What is the ratio between the number of girls of section 'B' and the number of boys of section 'E' respectively?
a) 6 : 11
b) 3:5
c) 4 : 7
d) 1:2
e) None of these

147. In which section the number of boys is the highest?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

148. What is the ratio between the total number of girls of section B and C together and that of boys of the same
sections respectively?
a) 9 : 11
b) 6 : 7
c) 8 : 5
d) 5: 6
e) None of these

149. The number of boys of section A is approximately what per cent of the number of students of the same section?
a) 51
b) 27
c) 33
d) 44
e) 45

150. What is the total number of girls in sections D, E and F taking together?
a) 101
b) 125
c) 97
d) 88
e) None of these

English Language
Directions (151-160) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which tits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case.
If you've ever watched a documentary, where a cheetah is (151) a gazelle tor its next meal, you know what
agility is. As. The two animals (152) in a sixty-mile-an-hour life-and-death race, agility and speed determined how the
(153) will end. Whether the gazelle can (154) the cheetah or the cheetah can feed her cubs will be (155) by which animal
is faster and more agile. Both animals have skeletal and muscle structures that enable them to be (156) swift and
nimble. South-west Airlines, like the cheetah and the gazelle, is lean and muscular and has quick (157) Its agility in
quickly (158) people and reconfiguring resources comes in part from its (159) communication style. And its open
communication is partly a function of its lean structure and (160) code of conduct.

151.
a) proceeding
b) leading
c) pursuing
d) racing

e) investigating

152.
a) bind
b) engage
c) conflict
d) interlock
e) pledge

153.
a) debate
b) controversy
c) life
d) confrontation
e) fun

154.
a) refrain
b) void
c) quash
d) please
e) baffle

155.
a) determine
b) ended
c) claimed
d) defined
e) intended

156.
a) incredibly
b) excitedly
c) ironically
d) expectedly
e) believably

157.
a) stimulation
b) actions
c) positions
d) manifestation
e) reflexes

158.
a) rendering
b) mobilizing
c) serving
d) preparing
e) changing

159.
a) smooth

b) complex
c) defined
d) streamlined
e) resistant

160.
a) lively
b) lax
c) informal
d) non-existent
e) vague

Directions (161 -165): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five
pairs of words denoted by numbers a), b), c), d) and e). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the
sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.

161. More is ............. of conditions on the moon than .............. conditions on any other planet.
a) certain .............. the
b) known .............. of
c) aware ...... .... ... . of
d) favorable ............ those
(5.) uncertain ............. all

162. He looked .............. , but his movements were ............. .
a) handsome ............ slow
b) youthful ............quick
c) fearful ............. clumsy
d) pleasing .............. encouraging
e) aged ........... spirited

163. The cave was so ........... that we became ............
a) long .............. enthusiastic
b) deep ... .. ........ . cautious
c) dark ..... ......... frightened
d) crowded .............. isolated
e) sharp .............. worried

164. If you become .............. by the first example, just try some of the ............ ones, but don't give up.
a) enlightened .............. second
b) prepared .............. oncoming
c) well-equipped .............. coming
d) confused .............. next
e) nervous .............. earlier

165. Being a ............ person, he always keeps his ............. under control.
a) quite ............ power
b) cheerful .............. happiness
c) balanced ............ temper
d) thoughtful ............... thoughts
e) generous .............. wealth

Directions (166-170) : In each question below, an incomplete sentence is given which is followed by three possible fillers
denoted by (A), (B) & (C). Find out which one, two or three of these fillers can make the sentence meaningfully complete
and grammatically correct.

166. They admired my efforts because the thing that I had recovered was ............
(A) insignificant for them
(B) extremely precious
(C) revered by them
a) Only B
b) Only C
c) A or B
d) B or C
e) Any one of the three

167. Natural calamities occur so suddenly and unexpectedly that .............
(A) people get hardly any time to save themselves
(B) man realizes his limitations and supremacy of nature
(C) there is hardly any time to prevent devastation
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) A or B
d) A or C
e) Any one of the three

168 ............... the poor students failed to manage the assignment.
(A) Despite Jack of resources
(B) Owing to adverse circumstances
(C) It was a mere coincidence that
a) Only A
b) A or C
c) B or C
d) A or B
e) Any one of the three

169. .............. sacrifice their own self for the welfare of the common man.
(A) All men shying away from social service
(B) Only dedicated men
(C) In exceptional cases, certain anti social elements also
a) Only C
b) B or C
c) A or C
d) A or B
e) Any one of the three

170. ............. to address when the audience started shouting slogans against him.
(A) No sooner did he stand up
(B) Not much before he stood up
(C) Hardly had he stood up
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) B or C
e) Any one of the three

Directions (171-180) : In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are
numbered as a), b), c) and d). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of
the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer.
If all the four words are correctly spell and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark e) i.e. 'All Correct' as
your answer.

171. The government's strategy to encourage a)/ entrepreneurship b)/ gathers movementum c)/ with unenvisaged d)/
response. All Correct e)

172. It is indeed recommendable a)/that you have agreed b)/ to help us in promoting c)/ education and investing d)/ in
it. All Correct e)

173. The consummation a)/ of liquor b)/ is extremely c)/ harmful d)/ to health. All Correct e)

174. The flight a)/ could not land as per schedule b)/because the pilot couldn't see the runaway c)/ due to poor
visibillity. d)/ All Correct e)

175. His wehemently a)/ defending b)/ his stand c)/ on the issue has risen doubts d)/ in the minds of the people. All
Correct. e)

176. The complexitya)/ of human mind aggravates b)/ because of the dominance c)/ of intuition. d)/ All Correct e)

177. The dormitory a)/ was so overcrowded b)/ that there was no accomodation c)/ available d)/ for even one of us. All
Correct e)

178. The magician's a)/ performance b)/ was so remarkable that the audience c)/ was speltbound. d)1 All Correct e).

179. Being a strong believer a)/ in the existence b)/ of God, the Swami leads c)/ a pious d)/ life. All Correct e).

180. Annoyed a)/ by the humilation, b)/ the employees abandoned c)/ work and resorted to agitation. d)/ All Correct e)

Directions (181-185): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) The percentage of population below poverty line has been decreasing.
(B) Therefore, it is a welcome sign, but we must guard against our escalating rate of population growth.
(C) Poverty alleviation is one of the most significant programs.
(D) Taking into account the economic scenario of the country, the Planning Commission drafts some welfare programs.
(E) Although this change is slow and gradual it appears to be consistent.
(F) The extent of success of realization of this program can be sensed when we study the proportion of people below
poverty line.

181. Which sentence should come SIXTH (LAST) in the paragraph?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

182. Which sentence should come FIRST in the paragraph?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

e) E

183. Which sentence should come SECOND in the paragraph?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

184. Which sentence should come FOURTH in the paragraph?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

185. Which sentence should come FIFTH in the paragraph?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

Directions (186-190): In each of the following questions for words are given of which two words are most nearly the
same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate
the number of the letter combination, as your answer.

186.
(A) Debility
(B) Strength
(C) Prosperity
(D) Sociability
a) A-C
b) A-B
c) B-D
d) B-C
e) A-D

187.
(A) Prosaic
(B) Interesting
(C) Stupid
(D) Marathon
a) A-C
b) B-C
c) B-D
d) C-D
e) A-B

188.
(A) Plunge
(B) Grouch
(C) Grumble

(D) Despise
a) A-B
b) A-C
c) A-D
d) B-C
e) B-D

189.
(A) Prophetic
(B) Strange
(C) Poor
(D) Sterling
a) A-B
b) C-D
c) B-D
d) A-D
e) B-C

190.
(A) Shambles
(B) Flexible
(C) Periodic
(D) Organized
a) A-D
b) B-C
c) A-C
d) C-D
e) A-B

Directions (191-195) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
PASSAGE
Jet Airways announced a new scheme, check Fares ' that enables passengers to avail substantial savings on air
tickets on select flights.
These fares are 30 to 45 per cent lower than the normal economy class fares and will be available to passengers
close to the date of travel in two levels. Available in the economy class of specific flights, 'Check Fares' will complement
the existing 15-day and 21-day apex fares and the 30-day super apex fares. However, unlike the apex fares, these need
not be booked in advance. All a passenger is required to do is to check the availability of tickets at the time of booking
on the website, www.jetairways.com, or at any Jet Airways ticketing counter.
Travel agents across the country can book these fares on Global Distribution Systems. Waitlisted reservations
and open dates tickets will not be allowed on 'Check Fares ' booking. These fares can be sold on tickets only in India.
Similarly, extension of validity and group travel is not permitted on this new pricing initiative. The tickets can be reissued
only at Jet Airways offices after deduction of Rs. 500 as cancellation charges, a jet Airways release said.
The 'Check Fares' between Bangalore and Delhi will be available on flight numbers 801 and 802 costing Rs. 5,855
per ticket in Ievel-1 and Rs. 7,150 a ticket in level-2. On the Delhi-Mumbai sector, the new price will be avail bale on
flight numbers 302, 305, 306 and 353 with the cost being Rs. 4,250 in level-1 and Rs. 5,150 in levet-2. The level-1 fares
between Mumbai and Bangalore will be Rs. 3,250 and Rs. 3,750 in level-2 on flight numbers 443, 417, 444 and 418. In
the Delhi- Hyderabad sector, the Ievel-1 and level-2 '.Check Fares' are priced at Rs. 4,750 and Rs. 5,950 respectively on
flight numbers 825 and 828. The flight between Delhi and Chennai will now cost Rs. 5,850 in level-1 and Rs. 7, !50 in
level-2 on flights 822, 831 and 725. The Chennai-Hyderabad sector will now cost Rs. 2,890 in level-1 and Rs. 3,350 in
level-2 on flight numbers 3502 and 493. Between Delhi and Guwahati, a ticket will cost Rs. 5, 750 and Rs. 6, 750 in level-
1 and level-2 flights 601 and 602.

191. The name of Fares of Jet Airways which was announced a new scheme is
(A) Check Fares
(B) Check Rates
(C) Check Lists
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only A & B
d) Only B & C
e) None of these

192. Fares are ....... ...... lower than the normal economy class fairs.
a) 20 to 35 per cent
b) 25 to 40 per cent
c) 30 to 45 per cent
d) 40 to 50 per cent
e) I 0 to 15 per cent

193. Which of the following is/are required to check the availability of tickets at the time of booking?
(A) Website
(B) Jet Airways ticketing counter
(C) Global Distribution systems.
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) Only A & C
e) All of above

194. Which tickets are not allowed on 'Check Fares' bookings?
a) Waitlisted reservations
b) Open-dated tickets
c) Ticket taken before two months of the date of journey
d) Only 1 & 2
e) All 1, 2 & 3

195. On the Delhi-Mumbai sector, the new price will be available on flight numbers 302, 305, 306 and 353 with the cost
being Rs. 4,250 in Ievel-1 and Rs . in level-2.
a) Rs. 5, 150
b) Rs. 4,295
c) Rs. 6,150
d) Rs. 6,820
e) None of these

Directions (196-198) : Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in
the passage.

196. AVAIL
a) benefit
b) aid
c) damage
d) harm
e) hinder

197. NORMAL

a) peculiar
b) ordinary
c) old
d) straight
e) popular

198. AVAILABLE
a) handy
b) unavailable
c) vacant
d) aiding
e) pioneering

Directions (199-200) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word in bold as used in the passage.
199. SPECIFJC
a) definite
b) particular
c) general
d) precise
e) express

200. BOOK
a) cancel
b) arrange
c) enter
d) insert
e) adopt



ANSWERS

Q.1 B
Q.2 E
Q.3 D
Q.4 A
Q.5 D
Q.6 B
Q.7 C
Q.8 C
Q.9 B
Q.10 A
Q.11 A
Q.12 E
Q.13 C
Q.14 D
Q.15 A
Q.16 E
Q.17 A
Q.18 C
Q.19 C
Q.20 E
Q.21 B
Q.22 B
Q.23 A
Q.24 C
Q.25 D
Q.26 B
Q.27 E
Q.28 D
Q.29 D
Q.30 B
Q.31 A
Q.32 C
Q.33 A
Q.34 A
Q.35 D
Q.36 A
Q.37 C
Q.38 B
Q.39 E
Q.40 C
Q.41 E
Q.42 D
Q.43 E
Q.44 B
Q.45 C
Q.46 C
Q.47 D
Q.48 E
Q.49 A
Q.50 B
Q.51 B
Q.52 E
Q.53 C
Q.54 A
Q.55 E
Q.56 E
Q.57 B
Q.58 D
Q.59 D
Q.60 C
Q.61 B
Q.62 B
Q.63 E
Q.64 D
Q.65 E
Q.66 D
Q.67 C
Q.68 A
Q.69 B
Q.70 E
Q.71 E
Q.72 D

Q.73 E
Q.74 A
Q.75 D
Q.76 A
Q.77 B
Q.78 E
Q.79 C
Q.80 C
Q.81 E
Q.82 A
Q.83 E
Q.84 D
Q.85 E
Q.86 A
Q.87 C
Q.88 B
Q.89 B
Q.90 D
Q.91 A
Q.92 D
Q.93 A
Q.94 E
Q.95 D
Q.96 E
Q.97 E
Q.98 D
Q.99 D
Q.100 C
Q.101 A
Q.102 C
Q.103 B
Q.104 E
Q.105 D
Q.106 E
Q.107 C
Q.108 B
Q.109 A
Q.110 D
Q.111 A
Q.112 B
Q.113 D
Q.114 C
Q.115 E
Q.116 C
Q.117 C
Q.118 E
Q.119 E
Q.120 C
Q.121 A
Q.122 D
Q.123 E
Q.124 D
Q.125 C
Q.126 B
Q.127 E
Q.128 D
Q.129 A
Q.130 A
Q.131 E
Q.132 D
Q.133 B
Q.134 C
Q.135 A
Q.136 C
Q.137 D
Q.138 B
Q.139 B
Q.140 B
Q.141 E
Q.142 D
Q.143 B
Q.144 E
Q.145 C
Q.146 B
Q.147 D
Q.148 A
Q.119 C
Q.150 E
Q.151 C
Q.152 B
Q.153 E
Q.154 A
Q.155 A
Q.156 A
Q.157 B
Q.158 A
Q.159 A
Q.160 C
Q.161 C
Q.162 E
Q.163 C
Q.164 D
Q.165 C
Q.166 A
Q.167 D
Q.168 C
Q.169 B
Q.170 D
Q.171 C
Q.172 A
Q.173 A
Q.174 C
Q.175 A
Q.176 E
Q.177 C
Q.178 D
Q.179 E
Q.180 B
Q.181 B
Q.182 D
Q.183 C
Q.184 A
Q.185 E
Q.186 B
Q.187 E
Q.188 D
Q.189 B
Q.190 A
Q.191 A
Q.192 C
Q.193 E
Q.194 D
Q.195 A
Q.196 A
Q.197 B
Q.198 C
Q.199 C
Q.200 A