March 2012 Part III Insight

INSIGHT
EXAMINERS GENERAL COMMENTS

BREACH OF EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
IN SPITE OF THE EXAMINERS GENERAL COMMENT IN PREVIOUS EDITIONS OF THE INSIGHT, IT WAS OBSERVED THAT A NUMBER OF CANDIDATES HAVE CONTINUED TO BREACH EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS AS STATED BELOW:
A) BY ATTEMPTING MORE QUESTIONS THAN ALLOWED IN EACH PAPER; AND B) BY ATTEMPTING MORE QUESTIONS THAN ALLOWED IN EACH SECTION.
INADEQUATE COVERAGE OF THE SYLLABUS

IT HAS BECOME MANIFEST THAT MANY CANDIDATES DO NOT COVER THE SYLLABUS IN DEPTH BEFORE PRESENTING THEMSELVES FOR THE EXAMINATION. CANDIDATES ARE THEREFORE ADVISED TO BE ADEQUATELY CONVERSANT WITH ALL ASPECTS OF THE SYLLABUS.
ATSWA PART III MARCH 2012

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FOREWORD
This issue of INSIGHT is published principally, in response to a growing demand, as an aid to: (i) Candidates preparing to write future examinations of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of Nigeria (ICAN) at an equivalent level; Unsuccessful candidates in the identification of those areas in which they lost marks and need to improve their knowledge and presentation; Lecturers and students interested in acquisition of knowledge in the relevant subjects contained therein; and The profession in improving pre-examination and screening processes, and so the professional performance.
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
The answers provided in this book do not exhaust all possible alternative approaches to solving the questions. Efforts have been made to use methods, which will save much of the scarce examination time. It is hoped that the suggested answers will prove to be of tremendous assistance to students and those who assist them in their preparations for the Institutes Examinations.
NOTE
Although these suggested solutions have been published under the Institutes name, they do not represent the views of the Council of the Institute. They are entirely the responsibility of their authors and the Institute will not enter into any correspondence about them.

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CONTENTS PAGE
PRINCIPLES OF AUDITING 1 - 23
COST 24 46
ACCOUNTING
PREPARING TAX COMPUTATION AND RETURNS 47 - 66
MANAGEMENT 67 - 86

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AT/121/PIII.9 No........................ Examination
ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANCY BODIES IN WEST AFRICA ACCOUNTING TECHNICIANS SCHEME WEST AFRICA PART III EXAMINATIONS MARCH 2012 PRINCIPLES OF AUDITING
Time Allowed 3 hours Insert your Examination number in the space provided above
SECTION A: Attempt All Questions PART I: Marks) MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS (30
Write ONLY the alphabet (A,B,C,D or E) that corresponds to the correct option in each of the following questions. 1. Which of the following is NOT an area of interest in a typical audit firm? A. B. C. D. E. 2. Insolvency Production Taxation Audit Investigations Management Consultancy
An important document that defines clearly the extent of an auditor responsibilities on any professional engagement and is intended to minimize areas of conflict between client and auditor is described as................Letter A. B. C. D. E. Representation Domestic Engagement Management Agreement
INSIGHT
3. A true and fair view in financial statements requires that those statements comply with a comprehensive accounting system applied consistently on yearly basis and in conformity with all relevant legislations. Based on the above statement, a true and fair view may NOT be achieved, if the A. B. Figures on the financial statements are accurate in material amount. Financial statements conform to accounting policies required by regulatory authorities, comply with accounting standards and present relevant information. Financial statements are prepared on a basis that is consistent with previous period and there is adequate disclosure if rules of consistency are not applied. Presentation of the figures/balances in the financial statements is so obscured or complicated that they are difficult to interpret or understand. Description of the figures in the financial statements is full with proper disclosure of their substance.
C.
D.
E.
4.
Bright Companys Managing Director whose company started business recently requested you, as a professional accountant, to educate him on basic principles of auditing as applicable to a registered company. Audit carried out on Bright Company is compulsory because the law requires the Financial Statements of such company to be audited annually. Such an audit is known as A. B. C. D. E. Companies and Allied Matters Act Audit Compulsory Audit Compliance Audit Law required Audit Statutory Audit
5.
Which of the following is the primary objective of an audit? A. Prevention of fraud and errors
INSIGHT
B. C. D. E. Assistance to the management in the establishment of effective auditing system Detection of any form of irregularity Report of the internal control weaknesses to the management Expression of professional opinion on the financial position of an enterprise
6.
The judge in the .said this about an auditor He must be honest - that is, he must NOT certify what he does NOT believe to be true, and he must take reasonable care and skill before he believes that what he certifies is true. A. B. C. D. E. Re - Thomas Gerrard & Sons (1967) Re Kingston Cotton Mill (1896) Re London General Bank (1895) Re London & Oil Storage (1904) Re City Equitable Fire Insurance Co. Ltd. (1924)
7.
An auditor violates the professional ethical standards when
A. B. C. D. E.
He performs audit services for a percentage of the clients turnover His firms name end with the words Chartered Accountants. He mentions the services he provides on the internet He makes available working papers for purposes of a peer review without the clients consent He recruits staff for his client
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8. If an auditor discovers information which adversely affects the financial statements that he is currently auditing, he should
A. B. C. D. E.
Report to the audit committee Qualify his report at the end of the assignment Report to the Corporate Affairs Commission/Registrar of Companies Inform the Corporate Affairs Commission/ (Registrar of Companies) verbally Resign his appointment as an auditor.
9.
Which of the following is NOT an exercise of due professional care? A. B. C. D. E. Examination of all available corroborating evidence Review of the judgement exercised at every level of supervision Bringing professional experience to bear in an assignment Reduction of audit risk to the barest minimum Prevention of fraud and irregularities
10.
If an audit engagement is accepted but the auditor does NOT have knowledge about the clients operations, he should A. B. C. D. E. Employ a joint auditor who has experience on the nature of the clients business Reject the appointment outright Obtain knowledge of matters relating to clients business by hiring an expert Transfer the audit work to an experienced and big audit firm Obtain a legal advice on what to do.
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11. Which of the following would NOT normally signal a going concern issue? A. B. C. D. E. Stock would not have to be valued at their forced sale or net realizable value Prepayments may have no future benefit Long-term liabilities will immediately become payable Long-term assets would need not be valued at net realizable value and not at cost less depreciation New liabilities such as redundancy pay may need to be included in the financial statements
12.
The auditor may NOT be expected to concern himself with ONE of the following statements while conducting value for money audit:A. The organizational structure, in particular the allocation of responsibilities, delegation of authority and the system for making managers accountable. The existence and soundness of managements arrangement for assessing competing priorities and programmes of work Whether management has defined its overall objectives adequately and its strategy for achieving those objectives Whether alternative means of achieving objectives have been considered The expectation gap and performance gap in existence.
B. C. D. E. 13.
Which of the following factors may NOT impair the going concern of a business organization. A. B. C. D. E. Management incompetence Fraudulent practices of management Political unrest Ability to meet creditors bills as at when due Failure of proper control mechanism and insider abuse.
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14. The auditor may NOT consider ONE of the following while reviewing assets of an organization. A. B. C. D. E. 15. The purpose of the asset The valuation date and age of the asset The alternative usage of the asset The remaining economic life The basis of valuation.
The advantages of automated working papers include the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. The risk of errors is reduced Standard forms do not have to be carried to audit location The working papers will be neater and easier to review Audit working papers can be transmitted for review through a modem or fax facilities and so on Many files would have to be created on every asset.
16.
A computer can be used by auditors in the following ways EXCEPT A. Evaluation of audit risk B. Analytical procedures C. Duplication of audit work D. Flow charting the clients system E. Preparation of audit programmes. What is the statutory number of Audit Committee members in a public limited company? A. B. C. D. E. 5 6 8 No specific limit 7
17.
18.
Test of the extent to which rules, policies, laws and government regulations are followed by an entity being audited is called A. B. C. Government audit Compliance audit Forensic audit
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D. E. Operational audit Balance sheet audit
19. Which of the following headings is NOT relevant in the format of an audit report? A. B. C. D. E. Title Introductory paragraph Auditors opinion Date of incorporation Reporting standard
20. To which organ of government does the Auditor General of your country report? A. B. C. D. E. 21. The The The The The Judiciary Executive Accountant Generals Office Legislature Auditor Generals Office
In designing written audit programmes, an auditor should establish specific audit objectives that relate primarily to the A. B. C. D. E. Timing of audit procedures Financial statement assertions Cost benefit of gathering evidence Assertions of management Selected audit techniques
22.
Which of the following statements is NOT a component of an entitys Internal control? A. B. C. D. E. Risk assessment Monitoring of control Control summary Control procedures Control environment
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23. When considering internal control, the concept assurance should be observed by an auditor. This implies that A. B. C. D. E. 24. an of reasonable
Adequate safeguards over access to assets and records should permit an entity to maintain proper accountability Internal control may be ineffective due to mistakes in judgement and personal carelessness The cost of an entitys internal control should not exceed the benefits expected to be derived Establishing and maintaining internal control is an important responsibility of management The auditor should plan his audit engagement to remove the limitations inherent in internal control systems
Everyone in the organization has responsibility for internal controls in organization EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. Management Board of directors Internal auditors Shareholders Other personnel
25.
Which of the following is NOT a reason why a company establishes a system of internal controls. A. B. C. D. E. Help achieving its performance and profitability goals Prevent loss of resources by fraud and other means Ensure reliable financial reporting Compliance with laws and regulations Control management spending
26. Which ONE of the following audit terms is NOT a technique of substantive test? A. B. C. D. E. Inspection Enquiry Walk through test Computation Vouching
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27. A sampling method in which values of a particular magnitude are selected is referred to as A. B. C. D. E. 28. Discovery sampling Haphazard sampling Random sampling Stratified sampling Multi-stage sampling
ONE of the following audit working papers is an example of items to be kept in a Current Audit working papers file. A. B. C. D. E. Details of the system of accounting including that of the computer applications A copy of the organizations statutes and other legal or statutory documents governing existence of the business Details of the audit plan, including time budgets, staffing, statement of the scope and level of tests An organizational chart showing the top management functions and division of responsibilities A letter of engagement for the preceding financial year
29.
The main reasons for preparing audit working papers EXCLUDE A. B. C. D. E. Provision of evidence of work done Supportive of audit opinion Assistance in audit planning Assistance to the management to increase companys profitability Enabling audit partners and managers to review work done by their subordinates
30.
Presenting Financial Statements in a way to portray a state of affairs of an organization better than its real financial position is called A. B. C. D. E. Teaming and lading Misappropriation Misinterpretation Window dressing Maladministration
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PART II: Marks) SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS (20
Write the answer that best completes each of the following questions/statements 1. 2. The word Audit is derived from a Latin word which means................... The compliance of a firm with appropriate accounting standards on a consistent basis from year to year and also in accordance with all relevant legislation will ensure................of the financial statements of an entity. The competitive position constitute................. of a firm and its good reputation
3.
4.
Providing accounting as well as audit service to the same client carries a risk of.......................... The external auditor is normally removed by...................... The Professional behaviour of members of a professional body are guided by.............................. The auditor is expected to be familiar with rules and regulations of governance guiding the operation of clients business. The document that contains such rules is the...................... Before accepting an audit engagement from a prospective client whose financial statements for the preceding period were audited by another auditor, the in-coming auditor should.................the out-going auditor. Professional bodies of disciplinary action on necessary sanctions. Accountants are erring members empowered to initiate through the..............for
5. 6.
7.
8.
9.
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10. The auditors..................might be compromised if he receives an unduly large proportion of the firms recurring gross fees from one client. The information obtained by the auditor in arriving at the conclusion on which the audit opinion is based is referred to as...................... The risk that the auditors substantive procedures will NOT detect a misstatement that exists in an account balance or class of transactions that could be material is called........................ The error that the auditor expects to be present in the population is known as ......................... The process of dividing a population into sub-populations, each of which is a group of sampling units which have similar characteristics is called..................... Application of auditing procedures using the computer as an audit tool are known as ......................... How long can a person serve as the Auditor-General of your Country? A test that is designed to aid the auditor in ensuring that all expenses and liabilities for the period under audit are properly reported is referred to as........................... List TWO situations which will cause an auditor to issue a qualified audit report. What does the acronym SMO stands for? When financial statements comply with generally accepted accounting practices that are applied consistently from year to year, and all relevant legislations, they are said to present..........................
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16. 17.
18.
19. 20.
SECTION B - Attempt Any FOUR Questions (50 Marks)
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QUESTION 1 Auditors might be liable to third parties where the third parties might have relied on the information contained in the audited financial statements. You are required to: a. Explain SIX ways the auditors in public practice can minimize audit risks to audit firms. (8 Marks) What are the conditions that must exist before damages can be awarded against the auditor for negligence? (4 Marks) (Total 12 Marks)
b.
QUESTION 2 Every Public Limited Liability Company is required to appoint an auditor who is expected to give his opinion on the financial statements at the Annual General Meeting. You are required to: a. Outline the responsibilities of the directors in relation to the preparation of financial statements? (4 Marks) List the responsibilities of the shareholders in view of the above statement? (8 Marks) (Total 12 Marks)
b.
QUESTION 3 Auditors do not go through all the records during the examination of the books of the organisation in the course of the audit exercise. They rather take representative samples for testing. Required:
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a. b. What is sampling? (1 Mark) (1
Write short notes on the following: (i) Haphazard sampling Marks) (ii) Random sampling (1 Marks) (iii) Stratified sampling (1 Marks) (iv) Systematic sampling Marks) (V) Multi-stage sampling Marks) Marks) c.
(1 (1 (7
Enumerate FOUR factors to be considered in choosing a sample size. (4 Marks) (Total 12 Marks)
QUESTION 4 Listed below are some basic concepts which underline the practice of auditing: a. b. c. d. e. Auditors Responsibility Independence of the Auditor Materiality Audit Evidence True and fair view
You are required to write brief notes on each of them. (12Marks) QUESTION 5
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Auditors are supposed to render report to the shareholders of the organizations on the financial statements presented to them for audit. On some occasions, such audit reports are qualified especially where there are uncertainties and disagreements. Required: a. Briefly enumerate the basic principles to follow in issuing a qualified audit report. (2 Marks) List the uncertainties and disagreements that can cause such qualification of audit reports. (10 Marks) (Total 12 Marks)
b.
QUESTION 6 Internal controls are procedures which ensure that all transactions, assets and liabilities are recorded correctly. Required: a. What are the control procedures in the following areas? i. Cash receipts and payments Marks) ii. Wages and salaries Marks) (5 (5
b.
Why does the auditor have to assess and evaluate the internal control systems? (2 Marks) (Total 12 Marks)
SECTION A PART I
1. 2. 3. B C D
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
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4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. E E C C B D C A E D C E C B B D D B C C D D C
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27. 28. 29. 30. B C D D
EXAMINERS COMMENT Questions set under Multiple choice questions covered most topics of the Syllabus and only 50% of the candidates scored passed marks due to inadequate preparations towards the examinations and non-coverage of the entire syllabus PART II SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. To hear True and fair view Goodwill Self review threat Shareholders Codes of Ethics /Ethical standards Articles of Association Communicate with/contact Disciplinary Tribunal/Committee Independence Audit Evidence/Evidential matter Detection Risk/Inherent Risk Expected Error Stratified sampling
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15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. Computer Assisted Audit Techniques/CAAT Age of 60 years /35 years of service Subsequent events review /cut off procedures (i) Disagreement (ii) Uncertainty
Statement of Member Obligation A true and fair view
EXAMINERS COMMENT Candidates performances in short answer questions were below examiners expectations. About 50% of the candidates managed to have half of the allocated marks. SECTION B SOLUTION 1 (a) Accountants and auditors in public practice can minimize potential risks liabilities for professional negligence in many ways. Such as: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Having a functioning quality control system. Ensure that audit procedures are carried out properly in accordance with International Standards on Auditing. Agreeing the duties and responsibilities in an engagement letter specifying the specific tasks to be undertaken. Defining in the audit report the precise work undertaken, the work not undertaken and any limitations to the work. Stating in the engagement letter the purpose for which the report has been prepared and that the client may not use it for any other purpose. Stating in any report the purpose of the report and that it may not be relied on for any other purpose. Identifying the authorized recipients engagement letter and in the report. Putting a disclaimer to the report. of reports in the
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9. Obtaining an indemnity from the client or the third party.
10. Take out a professional Indemnity Insurance. b. Negligence is an act or omission which occurs because the person (e.g. an auditor) failed to exercise that degree of reasonable skill and care which is reasonably to be expected in the circumstances of the case. For an allegation of negligence to succeed and damages awarded against the auditor, the following conditions must be in existence. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) There must be a clear case of negligence. Financial loss has resulted. Financial loss must be directly attributable to the reliance upon the negligently prepared document. The auditor must have known the purpose for which the document was prepared and it would be relied upon. The auditor had a duty of care to the client. There was a breach of such duty of care.
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EXAMINERS COMMENT This question demanded six ways that auditors in Public Practice can minimize audit risks to audit firms and conditions that must exist before damages can be awarded against the auditor for negligence. About 30% of the candidates attempted this question and the performance was poor. Major pitfalls observed include candidates failure to understand the demand of the question due to inadequate preparation and non-coverage of the syllabus. SOLUTION 2 (a) The directors of a business enterprise are responsible for the preparation of the financial statements as well as the institution of the systems of internal control in operation. This accounting involves: The maintenance of accounting records and documents like vouchers, receipts and invoices, balancing of books or transactions recorded in the various ledgers, Extraction of the Trial Balance and Finally the preparation of the financial statements of the enterprise in the form of Trading , Profit and Loss accounts which show the profit or loss made in a particular period or year and Balance Sheet which shows the state of affairs in terms of the financial position of the enterprise at a particular date. (b) The Shareholders of a company as providers of finance usually entrust the day to day running of the company to professional managers to runs its affairs and prepare an account of their stewardship function for the consideration of the shareholders at the annual general meeting. The providers of finance who are not directly involved in the management of an enterprise required summaries of transactions so that they could understand the enterprises financial position without having to go through the cash book in details. EXAMINERS COMMENT
Directors responsibilities in relation to the preparation of financial statements and shareholders responsibilities to the financial statements were tested. About 90% of the candidates that attempted the question recorded poor marks. Candidates are
the
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advised to prepare adequately for subsequent examinations and cover the syllabus so as to have good performance.
SOLUTION 3 (a) Auditing Sampling: It is a process of selecting a representative number from a given population for testing to assist in drawing conclusion on the characteristics of the population. (b) (i) Haphazard Sampling: This involves choosing items subjectively but avoiding bias. It involves making a random selection of
(ii) Random Sampling: item. (iii)
Stratified Sampling: It involves the division of the population into sub-population (layers) in choosing a sample.
(iv) Systematic: This involves making a random start and then taking Every e.g 10th thereafter. (vi) Multi-stage sampling: The appropriate data is stored in two or more levels (e.g. chains of shops and stock items select shop first, then stock items).
(c)
Factors to be considered in choosing a sample size: (i) Population: When a few items are under examination, sampling may not be appropriate, however, with large population the use of sampling technique is relevant. Risks: Population with high degree of risks will require a larger sample to be examined. Materiality: The material concept is very important in auditing, Auditor should pay attention to items that are very significant. Error rate: The tolerable level of error should be carefully determined. Degree of Assurance: The degree of assurance and the confidence level will affect the auditors judgment in choosing a sample size.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
EXAMINERS COMMENT
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The question centred on what is Sampling? and short notes on five types of Sampling. About 50% of the candidates attempted this question and scored poor marks due to shallow preparations towards examinations by the candidates. Candidates are advised to have adequate knowledge and cover the entire syllabus for each subject. SOLUTION 4 (a) Auditors responsibility: Auditing commences on the completion of accounting functions. The audit function normally involves the auditor to give his independent opinion whether the accounting functions have been properly carried out and to verify the figures in the accounting books and records to ensure they are reasonable. Independence of the auditor: The concept of an auditors independence is an attitude of the auditors mind that is characterized by the auditors integrity and professional approach to his work. In essence, the auditor should not be involved in any relationship with his client which may cast doubts in the minds of users of financial statements and doubt his audit opinion. Therefore the auditor should not only be independent of his clients at all times but he must be seen to be independent. Materiality: An item is said to be material where its non-disclosure, omission or misstatement or otherwise will destroy the truth and fairness of the view shown by the financial statements. Materiality may be considered in the context of a particular item within the profit and loss account or the financial statements as a whole. It may be assessed in relative or absolute terms. Audit evidence: Audit evidence consists of information/document that auditors come across in the course of an audit so as to assist in the process of forming an independent opinion on an enterprises financial statements. The primary objective of the auditor is to express an opinion as to the truth and fairness view given by the clients financial statements and in discharging this duty, he must endeavour to generate sufficient evidence to back-up the figures and facts in the financial statements presented to the users of the accounts. (e) True and fair view: This is an important concept to the accountancy profession especially to the auditor. Moreover, the provision of Companies and Allied Matters Act (CAMA) 1990 require the financial statements to show true and fair view but fails to define what is true and fair view.
(b)
(c )
(d)
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There is equally no authoritative legal definition and interpretation of the concept. True seems to mean an objective verification that the information contained therein are factual without error. Fair seems to mean the presentation of the right impression and is not misleading. When a set of accounts is portrayed to show a true and fair view, it implies the following: 1. The assets are fairly stated, that they exist, owned by the business and properly valued. 2. All the liabilities have been fully disclosed. 3. The results shown in the profit and loss accounts are accurate and fairly stated. 4. There are no material errors or misstatements in the financial statements. EXAMINERS COMMENT All candidates attempted the question and about 70% of the candidates scored 50% and above of the allocated marks. Failure to define the concepts clearly made the candidates to lose pass marks. SOLUTION 5 (a) The following principles are to be followed in issuing a qualified audit report. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (b) Give all the reasons and explanations for the qualification. Estimate and qualify the financial effect (if applicable). Report should be clear, concise and unambiguous. Wordings should reflect the nature of circumstances and Degree of materiality.
Uncertainties:
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The major uncertainty occur where the auditor is unable to form an opinion on a matter relating to the accounts presented. Some causes of uncertainties are: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) Inherent uncertainties (nature of the item). Limitations in the scope of the audit. Absence of proper accounting records (documents). Doubt about the outcome of a major litigation. Doubt about the outcome of long-term contract. Doubt about the ability of the company to remain a goingconcern. Liability to obtain all the information and explanations necessary.
(viii) Inability to carry out a necessary audit procedure. (c) Disagreements: A disagreement is a situation where the auditors opinion on a matter relating to the accounts conflicts with the view given by the financial statements. A disagreement may affect a particular item in the accounts or the financial statement taken as a whole. Causes of disagreements (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Failure to comply with legislature. Company follows an inappropriate pronouncements/guidelines (IFAC, IAS, IPSAS). Disagreement as to facts or figures. Company adopts an inappropriate accountancy policy. Disagreement as to facts or figures.
EXAMINERS COMMENT
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Listing of basic principles needed before issuing a qualified audit report and listing of the Uncertainties and disagreements that can cause such qualification of audit reports. More than 99% that attempted the question had average marks.
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SOLUTION 6 (a) Control procedures on cash receipts and payment: Cash receipts and payment. i. ii. Review the operation of the cash system. Appointment of suitable person to be responsible at different stages of collection and handling of money received with clearly defined responsibility. How, by whom, and at what frequency cash offices and registers are to be cleared What arrangements are to be made for agreeing cash collections with cash and sales records. What arrangements are to be made for dealing with recording and investigating any cash shortage or surpluses. Rules as to cash advances to employees and official, i.o.us and the casting of cheques. Whether any limit is to be imposed as regards amounts disbursed in respect of individual payments (limitation of disbursement). Arrangements to ensure that workers supporting payments cannot be presented for payment again (payment voucher marked paid). Nomination of a responsible person to authorize expenditure, the means of indicating authorization and the documentation (Authorisation of expenditure).
iii. iv. v. vi. vii
viii
ix
Wages and Salaries (i) What arrangements are to be made to provide the requisite cash For paying out and what slips are to be taken to safeguard such Moneys during collection and treatment and until distribution. What safeguard against inequalities are to be adopted and what particulars are to be given to the payee.
(ii)
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(iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) Who is to pay cash wages over to employees. How payees identities are to be verified and how distribution is to be recorded. What arrangements are to be made for dealing with unclaimed wages. Which persons are to prepare and to sign cheques and bank transfer list. Whether a separate wages and salary bank account is to be maintained, what amounts are to be transferred to it from time to time.
(b)
The auditor have to assess and evaluate the internal control in order to be position to: i. ii. iii. Place reliance on the system. Establish the integrity of the operator of the system Assist him in determining the nature, timing and extent of substantive testing necessary to enable him express an opinion on the financial statement.
EXAMINERS COMMENT Control procedures on (i) Cash receipts and payments and (ii) Wages and Salaries and reason why auditor have to assess and evaluate the Internal Control System were tested. About 90% of the candidates attempted the question. Some candidates managed to have half of the allocated marks. Candidates were ill-prepared and did not give necessary attention to details/ requirements of the question which accounted for their pitfalls in the examinations
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ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANCY BODIES IN WEST AFRICA ACCOUNTING TECHNICIANS SCHEME WEST AFRICA PART III EXAMINATIONS MARCH 2012 COST ACCOUNTING
Time Allowed - 3 hours Insert Your Examination number in the space provided above. SECTION A (ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS) PART I MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS MARKS) (30 AT/121/PIII.10 Examination No
Write ONLY the alphabet (A, B, C, D or E) that corresponds to the correct option in each of the following questions. 1. ONE of the following is NOT part of the objectives of Advanced Manufacturing Technology (AMT) A. B. C. D. E. 2. Greatest possible manufacturing flexibility Greater offer of product variety whilst manufacturing their costs Greater offer of product variety whilst reducing their costs Providing no incentive for improvement Providing high levels of customer satisfaction
Cost Control and Cost Reduction are A. B. C. D. E. Two distinct management tools Aimed at replacing humans with machinery Aimed at changing specifications of materials input into production process Used during crisis situations Opposite of each others
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3. An ideal standard is A. B. C. D. E. 4. What costs are expected to be Actual cost in the last period Expected costs in the next period Costs based on actual condition Actual cost in the present period
A standard specifically established based on the prevailing working condition within the industry is known as A. B. C. D. E. Basic standard Non-Basic standard Current standard Potential standard Regular standard
5.
Trade discount is a A. B. C. D. E. Special sales promotion Special sales commission Boxing day jumbo sales Reduction in price per unit given to specific customers Reduction in price to special customers due to early payment
6.
Which of the following is a benefit of budgeting? A. B. C. D. E. Encourages inter-departmental conflicts Involves considerable costs Promotes coalition of interest Replaces the need for supervisory executive ability Places a great demand on management time
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7. Which of the following investment appraisal techniques can be classified as a traditional method? A. B. C. D. E. 8. Net Present Value Internal Rate of Return Discounted Payback Period Profitability Index Method Accounting Rate of Return
Decision rule under Accounting Rate of Return (ARR) method of Investment Appraisal is to select all projects whose A. B. C. D. E. ARR are lower than the companys required rate of return Payback periods are shorter than the minimum established by the organisation Present value of cash inflows equals present value of cash outflows ARR are higher than the companys required rate of return Present value of cash inflows exceeds present value of cash outflows
9.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of Net Present Value method of investment Appraisal? A. B. C. D. E. Ignores risk Ignores time value of money Ignores the actual size of the cashflow Ignores the impact of inflation Ignores wealth maximization objective of the organization
10.
The cost of an asset acquired two years ago is a good example of a A. Budgeted cost
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B. C. D. E. 11. Well calculated cost Notional cost Relevant cost Sunk cost
In a process account, normal losses are valued at A. B. C. D. E. Good production cost less work-in-progress (WIP) Good production cost No cost Cost of raw materials Good production cost less scrap value
12.
The output from the production process with little value is referred to as A. B. C. D. E. Left over Residue Good production Waste Scraps
13.
ONE of the possible reasons for discrepancy between physical stock and stock shown in records is A. B. C. D. E. Violent fluctuations in prices Quantum of materials used in the organisation Frequency of purchases and issues Stock returns not properly recorded Bulkiness of the materials
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14.
Economic order quantity is a quantity of materials to be ordered which takes into account the optimum combination of all but ONE of the following. A. B. C. D. E. Usage rate Cost of processing the order Order delivery time Stockholding costs Cost of money tied up in inventory
15.
Costs associated with running out of stock INCLUDE A. B. C. D. E. Insurance and security costs Pilferage and damage costs Loss of customer goodwill Handling costs Storage costs
16.
Idle time is the difference between hours paid and hours worked. Which of the following is a cause of normal idle time? A. B. C. D. E. Temporary lack of work Machine setting up time Machine breakdown Black out as a result of Energy workers strikes and lock-outs Waiting for tools
17.
Labour turnover is the movement of people into and out of the organization. Which of the following is an avoidable cause of Labour Turnover? A. Health conditions
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B. C. D. E. 18. Retirement Death Climatic conditions Poor terms of engagement
Administrative overhead is incurred for carrying out the administrative function of an organization. Which ONE of the following costs can be classified under administrative overhead? A. B. C. D. E. Discount and rebates Patent fees Audit and legal fees Carriage inwards Carriage and freight outwards
19.
A cost which tends to vary directly with the volume of output is known as A. B. C. D. E. Fixed cost Step costs Mixed costs Non-linear costs Variable cost
20.
Prime cost is A. B. C. D. E. The total of direct costs The material cost of a product The cost of operating a department The total of indirect costs All costs incurred in manufacturing a product
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21. Costing methods refer to the systems of cost finding and ascertainment. Which of the following methods is NOT a costing method? A. B. C. D. E. 22. Job costing Standard costing Batch costing Service costing Operation costing
Opportunity cost is A. B. C. D. E. The cost at which an asset identical to that which is being replaced could be purchased Hypothetical cost which is specially computed outside the accounting system for the purpose of decision-making The sacrifice involved in accepting an alternative under consideration. Additional cost of producing one additional unit The increase or decrease in total cost that results from an alternative course of action
23.
Which of the various techniques listed below is NOT commonly used for inventory control? A. B. C. D. E. ABC Technique Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) Stock levels Works cost Perpetual inventory system
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24. Many businesses have problems of slow-moving, non-moving and obsolete materials. Which of the following is a main reason for these kinds of problems? A. B. C. D. E. 25. Proper storage of materials Proper purchase procedure Preparation of material budgets Review of the stores ledger Technological changes
Last-in-first-out (LIFO) method of pricing material issues is based on the assumption that A. B. Materials which are purchased first are issued first When materials purchased in different lots are stored together, their identity is lost and therefore, issues should be charged with this consideration in mind Issues should be priced using the price at which materials would be replaced The last materials purchased are the first materials issued out Materials issued are charged at the rate of the highest priced materials in stores
C. D. E. 26.
Bin card is maintained by A. B. C. D. E. An officer in the cost office Storekeeper Plant engineer Departmental head Production planner
27.
The accounting system where the cost accounts and financial accounts are combined in one set of accounts is known as A. Integrated accounting system B. Interlocking accounting system
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C. Control accounting system D. Cost control accounting system E. Marginal costing system 28. Payroll sheet is prepared by the A. B. C. D. E. 29. Engineering department Cost Accounting department Personnel department. Time-keeping department Wages department
Over absorption of factory overhead due to inefficiency of management should be disposed of by A. B. C. D. E. Transfer to costing profit and loss account Carry forward to next year Supplementary rate Comprehensive rate Allocation
30.
The stage of production at which separate products are identified is known as A. B. C. D. E. Apportionment point Split off stage Reverse cost point Pre-separation stage Allocation stage (20
PART II SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS MARKS)
Write the answer that best completes each of the following questions/statements
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1. 2. A top executive who heads the budget control organization is known as What will be the Break Even Point in Naira when fixed cost is N1 million and Profit Volume Ratio is 40%. What will be the Material Cost Variance where actual material cost is 500 units at 6 per unit and Standard Material Cost is 600 units at 5 per unit? Labour Mix variance is a sub-variance of The summary of all functional budgets is known as.. The rate of change in the composition of the labour force in an organization is called.. The time required for the cash inflows from a capital investment project to equal the cash outflows is known as The cost of abnormal idle time is normally charged to.. Indirect expenditure incurred in formulating an organisations policy, directing and controlling its operations is categorized as. An unavoidable residue materials arising in certain manufacturing processes is referred to as. types of
3.
4. 5. 6.
7.
8. 9.
10.
11.
When the amount of overhead absorbed is more than the amount of actual overheads incurred, it is known as. A prediction of what may happen as a result of a given set of circumstance is referred to as. Material Price Variance is the responsibility of
12.
13.
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14. 15. State the formula for calculating Accounting Rate of Return (ARR). The verification of cost accounts and a check on the adherence to the cost accounting plan is called. The amount of difference when expenses exceed revenue for an accounting period is referred to as. A move towards zero inventory and an emphasis on perfect quality or zero defects are features of.technique. Life cycle costing tracks and accumulates the actual costs from the beginning to the end of a State the formula for calculating Direct Labour Efficiency variance. A budget which is continuously updated by adding a further accounting period when the earliest accounting period has expired is called.
16.
17.
18.
19. 20.
SECTION B (ATTEMPT ANY FOUR QUESTIONS) MARKS)
(50
QUESTION 1 Ramilado Industries maintain separate books for Financial Accounting and Cost Accounting. The Financial Income Statement of the company for the year ended 31st March 2011 is given as: Income Statement For the Year ended 31st March 2011 Particular Opening balance of stock: Raw materials Work-in-progress Finished goods 100,00 0 25,000 75,000 Particular Sales 200,000 Closing balance of 1,804,00 0
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Purchases of Raw Materials Wages Factory Overhead Admin. Overheads Distribution& Selling Overheads Debenture Interest Preliminary Expenses written off Net Profit stock: 770,000 Raw materials 240,000 Work-in-progress 130,000 Finished Goods 120,000 90,000 Miscellaneous Income 20,000 25,000 410,000 2,005,00 0 2,005,00 0 90,00 0 20,00 0 80,00 0
190,000 11,000
A statement reconciling profit as per Financial Accounts records prepared by the firm is as shown below: Particulars Profit as per Profit and Loss A/c (a) Differences in valuation inventory Deduct - Raw Materials b/f - WIP b/f - WIP c/f - Finished Foods b/f Add: Raw 15,000 - Finished 7,500 Materials Goods of 10,000 6,000 2,000 15,000 33,000 c/f c/f 22,500 22,500 410,000
(33,000)
(b)
Other Items: Add: Debenture Interest
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20,000 Preliminary expenses Written off 25,000 45, 000 Deduct: Miscellaneous Income 11,000 Profit as per Costing Profit & Loss A/c 433,500 34,000
You are required to prepare the following accounts as they would appear in the cost records: a. Raw Materials Control account (2 Marks) b. Work In Progress Account (2 Marks) c. Finished Goods Stock Account (2 Marks) d. Cost of Sales Account Marks) e. Costing Profit and Loss Account (2 Marks) Show all workings Marks) QUESTION 2 AGERIGE Transport Company is running a fleet of six buses between two towns 150 kilometres apart. Seating capacity of each bus is 40 passengers. The following particulars are available for the month of September. Wages of drivers, conductors and cleaners Salaries of office and supervisory staff Diesel and other lubricants Repairs and maintenance Taxation, insurance etc Depreciation Interest on capital N 180,000 75,000 516,000 60,000 120,000 195,000 150,000
(2
(Total12
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Actual passengers carried were 100% of the seating capacity. All the buses ran on all days of the month. Each bus made one round trip per day. You are required to calculate the cost per passenger (in kilometers). (12 Marks) QUESTION 3 a. ABC Technique is one of the various techniques commonly used for inventory control. You are required to give THREE advantages of this value based system of inventory control. (3 Marks) b. Egbuya Nigeria Limited uses three varieties of stock items totaling 25,000units. The following information relates to the holding and usage of these items of stock. No of Units of stock 1) 2) 3) 23,625 1,300 75 25,000 % 94.5% 5.2% 0.30% 100% % in value of stock holding 15% 25% 60% 100% % in usage of stock 5% 10% 85% 100%
You are required to classify the stock items as per ABC Analysis Technique. Comment on your analysis. (9 Marks) (Total 12 Marks) QUESTION 4
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Kilesi Nigeria Limited is considering a capital investment and the estimated cash flows are as stated below: Year 0 1 2 3 4 The companys cost of capital is 25%. You are required to: a. (i) Marks) (ii) Calculate the NPV of the project Assess whether the project should be undertaken. (1 Mark) (7 Cashflow (Le) (1,000,000) 600,000 800,000 400,000 300,000
b.
State TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of Net Present Value (NPV) technique of Investment Appraisal (4 Marks) Total 12 Marks)
QUESTION 5 Fortour Limited makes and sells a single product. The following data relate to the year 2011. Production 2200 units Sales 2000 units Variable manufacturing cost/unit Fixed manufacturing overhead (total) Variable selling and administration overhead/unit Fixed selling and administration overhead Selling price per unit You are required to: a. Prepare the companys income statement based on N = 14 = 4400 = 1.00 = 800 = 30
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(i) (ii) Marginal costing principles Marks) Absorption costing principles Marks) (6 (5
b. Explain the difference in profit figure, if any (1 Mark) (Total 12 Marks) QUESTION 6 Just-in-time (JIT) system has been widely acclaimed as a major contributor to Japans Success in manufacturing process. You are required to: a. Explain the term JIT System. (2 Marks) b. State FIVE main goals of JIT (2 Marks) c. Adeolu plans to sell childrens gurgles at Oyo State International Trade Fair holding at Sango in April this year. He has been given the privilege of purchasing these gurgles at N50 each and returning all unsold ones. The booth rent at the Fair is N20,000 payable in advance and each gurgle will be sold at N90 each. You are required to determine the number of gurgles to be sold to: i. Break-even (4 Marks) ii. Yield 20% operating margin on sales (4 Marks) (Total 12 Marks) SECTION A PART I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS D A A C D
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6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. C E D A E C E D A C B E C E A B C D E D B A E
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29. 30. A B
EXAMINERS COMMENT Thirty (30) questions on various topics of the syllabus. Five(5) suggested answers of which only the correct one is to be given by the candidate. This was the major area that determined the fate of the students in this examination. PART II SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. Budget Controller N2,500,000 NIL Labour Efficiency Variance Master budget Labour Turnover Rate Payback Period Costing P & L A/C Administrative or Office or General Overheads Scrap Over-absorption or over-recovery of overheads Forecast Purchase Manager ARR = Cost Audit Loss Just In - Time x 100
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18. 19. 20. Product Labour Efficiency Variance = (Std Hours Act Hours) Std Rate Rolling or Continuous Budget
Workings Question 2. BEP = ratio
= = N2,500,000 Question 3. Material Cost Variance = Standard Material Cost - Actual Material Cost = = = (500 x N6) - (600 x N5) N3,000 - N3,000 NIL
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EXAMINERS COMMENT Twenty (20) questions requiring candidates to supply short direct answers. This and the Multiple Choice Question determined the fate of candidates in the examination. SECTION B SOLUTION 1 Ramilado Industries (i) Raw Materials Control A/C Opening 110,00 Balance 0 Purchases 770,00 0 880,00 0 Work In Progress A/C Opening Balance Raw Materials Control A/C Wages Control A/C Factory Overheads Control A/C 31,000 Closing Balance 775,000 Finished Goods Stock A/C 240,000 130,000 1,176,00 0 (iii) Finished Goods Stock A/C Opening Balance 90,000 Closing Balance Work In Progress 1,158,00 Cost of Sales A/C Control A/C 0 1,248,00 0 Cost of Sales A/C Finished Good Stock 1,160,50 Costing 1,160,50 A/C 0 Profit and 0 Loss A/C 1,160,50 1,160,50 18,000 1,158,00 0 Closing Balance 105,000 WIP A/C 775,000 880,000
(ii)
1,176,00 0 87,500 1,160,500 1,248,000
(iv)
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0 0
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(v) Costing Profit and Loss A/C 1,160,50 Sales 0 Admin Overhead 120,000 Selling & Distribution 90,000 O/head 1,370,50 0 Net Profit (as per Cost 433,500 A/Cs) 1,804,00 0 Cost of Sales Workings: i. Opening Balance for Raw Materials in Cost Accounting Opening bal as per Fin. A/Cs 100,000 Add: Diff. as per Reconciliation Statement 10,000 110,000 Closing balance of Raw Materials in Cost Accounting Closing bal as per Fin. A/Cs 90,000 Add: Diff. as per Reconciliation Statement 15,000 105,000 WIP opening balance in Cost Accounting Opening balance Add: Diff. as per Reconciliation v. WIP closing balance in Cost Accounting Opening balance Less: Diff. as per Reconciliation iv. 20,000 2,000 18,000 Finished Goods Opening balance in Cost Accounting Opening balance 75,000 Add: Diff. as per Reconciliation 15,000 90,000 25,000 6,000 31,000 1,804,00 0
1,804,00 0
ii.
iii.
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Finished Goods Closing balance in Cost Accounting Opening balance Add: Diff. as per Reconciliation 80,000 7,500 87,500 EXAMINERS COMMENT Cost Accounts Book Keeping under Interlocking Accounts. About 45% of the candidates attempted the question, with less than 10% of them getting pass marks. Their main pitfall was the inability to carry out the necessary adjustments required for the solutions. SOLUTION 2 AGERIGE TRANSPORT COMPANY Cost/Passenger km = Total Cost No. of passenger km Passenger km for the month = No. of x Distance x Capacity of x Actual capacity days Buses each Bus utilized = 6 x 150 x 40 x 100% x 2 x 30 = 2,160,000 passenger - kilometre Operating Cost sheet for the month of September Passenger Kilometre = 2,160,000 N N 1. Standing Charges: Wages 180.000 Salaries 75,000 Taxation etc 120,000 Interest 150,000 525,000 2. Variable charges Diesel etc Repairs & Maintenance Depreciation TOTAL COST 516,000 60.000 x Round trip x No. of
576,000 195,000 1,296,00 0
3.
Cost per passenger - km = Total Cost No. of passenger km = N1,296,000 2,160,000
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= N0.60 EXAMINERS COMMENT Question on Service Costing Method; Transport Costing Statement. About 60% of the candidates attempted the question. Average score was 40% of maximum scores. SOLUTION 3 (a) Advantages of ABC techniques 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) (b) Closer and stricter control can be exercised on those items which represent large amounts of capital Economy in stock holding costs Enhances regulation of investment in stock Selective control helps in maintaining high stock turnover rate Helps to maintain enough safety stock for C category items
ABC Classification Categor y A B C No. of (units) 75 1,300 23,625 items % in value 60 25 15 % usage 85 10 5 of
Comments: A items 75 items constituting 0.30% of the total number of the items represents 60% of total inventory value and 85% of the total usage in the final product. They are classified as A items because of their highest value in the total material cost. B items 1300 items constituting 5.2% of the total number of the items represents 25% of the total inventory value and 10% of the total usage in the final product. They are classified as B items because of their moderate value.
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C items 23625 items constituting 94.5% of the total number of the items represents 15% of the total inventory value and 5% of the total usage in the final product. They are classified as C items because of their low value. EXAMINERS COMMENT Question on ABC technique of Inventory Control. Only about 10% of candidates attempted the question and average performance was poor. SOLUTION 4 (a) ILESI NIG. LTD. Yea r 0 1 2 3 4 ii. Cash flow N (1,000,00 0) 600,000 800,000 400,000 300,000 Discount factor @ 25% 1.000 .800 .640 .512 .410 NPV Present value N (1,000,00 0) 480,000 512,000 204,800 123,000 319,800
The present value of cash inflows exceeds the present value of cash outflows by N319,800 which means that the project will earn a discounted cash flow yield in excess of 25%. Therefore, the project should be undertaken. Advantages of NPV 1. It recognises the time value of money 2. Gives absolute guide to how much shareholders wealth will improve if the project is accepted. 3. Useful in ranking projects in capital rationing situation Disadvantages of NPV 1. It relies on current estimation of the cost of capital 2. Not easy to calculate 3. Ignores risk involved in each project
b.
EXAMINERS COMMENT Net Present Value approach to Capital Investment Appraisal. About 98% of the candidates attempted the question and not more than one out of every 20 of them failed it. Students find it easier with the computations than with explanation of advantages and disadvantages.
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SOLUTION 5 ai. For-four Limited Income Statement for the year ended 31 st December 2011 based on Marginal Costing Principles N Sales (2000 units @ N30) Variable Cost (2200 @ N14) Less: Closing stock (200@14) Cost of goods produced Add: Variable selling & Admin Ohead (2000 @ N1.00) Total Variable Cost CONTRIBUTION Less: Fixed Overhead- Manufacturing Selling & Admin (aii) 30,800 2,800 28,000 2000 30,000 (30,000 ) 30,000 4,400 800 5,200 24,800 Income statement for the year ended 31 st December 2011 based on Absorption Costing Principle N Sales (2000 units @ N30) Variable overhead (2200 @ 30,80 N14) 0 Fixed overhead (2200 @ N2) 4,400 Cost of goods produced 35,20 0 Less: Closing stock (200@16) 3,200 Cost of goods sold 32,00 0 Add: Selling & Adm Ohead -Variable (N2,000 @N1.00) 2,000 -fixed 800 Total Cost Profit N 60,000 N 60,000
34,800 25,200
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(b) Profit under absorption costing N25,200 and under marginal costing N24,800. The difference of N400 in profit is due to over-valuation of closing stock in absorption costing by N400 (N3,200 N2,800)
EXAMINERS COMMENT Profit Statement preparation, comparing Absorption and Marginal Costing Techniques. Over 95% of the candidates attempted the question. Many candidates were unable to calculate rightly the value of closing stock under Absorption Costing Technique. Notwithstanding that, the question was, on average, well attempted by candidates. SOLUTION 6 a. Just in Time (JIT) System It is a system developed with the aim of reducing non-value-adding costs and long-run costs. It is a system whose objective is to produce or procure products/components as they are needed or required than for inventory. It involves a continuous commitment to the pursuit of excellence in all phases of manufacturing systems design and operations. It is a system designed to produce the required items of high quality, exactly at the time they are required and in the required quantities. b. Main Goals of JIT (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) c. No opening or closing stocks Elimination of non value adding activities No production wastages 100% on time deliveries Batch sizes of one Demand pull manufacture No breakdowns Short set-ups
Adeolu Sales of Gurgles i. Selling Price/Unit = N90 Var Cost/Unit = 50 Contribution/Unit = 40 At B/Even Point , Total Cont = Fixed Cost being units sold, 40 = 20,000
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= (ii) = 500 units
Quantity required to yield 20% operating margin on sales is arrived at by determining the contribution that leaves 20% of sales after deducting Fixed Costs of N20,000. Sales = 90 50 40
Variable Cost = Contribution = 40 = 20000 + 18 22 = 20000 units = 909 units Computations :
40 = 20000 + (0.2 sales)
Sales 90 (909) = 81,810 Cost 50 (909) = 45,450 Cont. 40 (909) = 36,360 Fixed Costs = 20,000 Profit (Operating margin) = 16,360= 20% of 81810
EXAMINERS COMMENT i Just-In-Time approach to stock management and ii. Cost-Volume Profit analysis for Decision making. About 90% of the candidates attempted the question, showing that they availed themselves of the Institutes efforts to acquaint them with current global developments in the profession. They were however unable to score very good marks due to poor expressions. As for the C-V-P part of the question, not up to half of the candidates were able to calculate beyond the break-even point.
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AT/121/PIII.11 No..
Examination
ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANCY BODIES IN WEST AFRICA ACCOUNTING TECHNICIANS SCHEME WEST AFRICA PART III EXAMINATIONS - MARCH 2012 PREPARING TAX COMPUTATION AND RETURNS
Time allowed: 3 hours Insert your Examination number in the space provided above SECTION A: PART 1 MARKS) (Attempt all questions) (30
Write ONLY the Alphabet (A, B, C, D, or E) that corresponds to the correct option in each of the following questions. 1. Which of the following is NOT a reason why the office of a Tax Appeal Commissioner would be declared vacant? A. B. C. D. E. 2. Where he brings integrity to bear in carrying out or discharging his duties Where he has absented himself from two consecutive meetings without an approval from the chairman Where he is confirmed to be of unsound mind Where he has committed a criminal offence or felony or offence related to tax matters Where he has attended a meeting concerning a tax payer in which he has interest without informing the other commissioners
An annual return submitted by a tax payer should contain the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. The audited financial statements The income tax computations The number of houses built The capital allowance computations Details of Property, Plant & Equipment disposed of during the year
3.
The Tax Clearance Certificate shall NOT disclose which ONE of the following?
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A. B. C. D. E. 4. Turnover Name, address and Tax-payers Identification Number (TIN) Tax paid Taxable income Nature of business
Which of these Stamp duty instruments is NOT liable to fixed duties? A. B. C. D. E. Payment Receipt Cheque leaves Bank Notes Guarantors form Promissory Notes
5.
The following documents shall be forwarded to the relevant tax authorities when returns are filed for the first time EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. Original of the Certificate of Incorporation Certified true copy of Memorandum and Articles of Association Letter of appointment of the Auditors Unaudited Financial Statements of the Company Tax and capital allowances computations for the year
6.
Which of the following is NOT qualified to be a member of a Tax Appeal Tribunal? A. B. C. D. E. A A A A A person experienced in business Legal Practitioner Chartered Accountant Tax Practitioner Tax Evasion Specialist
7.
Which of the following is NOT a form of assessment? A. B. C. D. E. Self assessment Provisional Assessment Best of judgment assessment Installment assessment Revised assessment
8.
To which of the following courts can a tax payer go if the decision of the tax Appeal Commissioner is not satisfactory to him? A. B. C. D. E. The The The The The Tribunal Court Magistrate Court High Court Court of Appeal Revenue Court
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9. Which of the following is NOT contained in an annual tax return? A. B. C. D. E. 10. The payroll computation A copy of the duly completed self assessment form The audited financial statement The income tax computation The capital allowances computation
Education Tax Liability is computed as A. B. C. D. E. 2% 2% 2% 2% 2% of of of of of Chargeable profit Taxable profit Assessable profit Net profit Additional profit
11.
Unrelieved Loss from a non-insurance business can be carried forward for tax purposes for A. B. C. D. E. Five years Four years Seven years An indefinite period until it is totally relieved Three years
12.
Income of a Trustee, Settlor or Executor of an Estate is described for tax purposes as A. B. C. D. E. Earned income Trust income Third party income Unearned income Future income
13.
The Principal place of residence of an individual whose only source of income is pension is A. B. C. D. E. His state of origin That place in which he usually resides That place nearest to his usual place of work His place of work Place nearest to his place of worship
14.
Accounting period for a business that has been operating for some years is normally
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A. B. C. D. E. 15. 9 months 10 months 6 months 18 months 12 months
Which of the following is NOT a reason for changing the accounting date of a business? A. B. C. D. E. Aligning with government fiscal year Complying with government directive Change in office location For uniformity and convenient consolidation of companies within a group When a company merges with another which has a different accounting date
16.
The Tax Authority in charge of collection of Companies Income Tax is A. B. C. D. E. Internal Revenue Service Local Government Authority Bureau of State/Inland Revenue Service Federal/National Inland Revenue Service Joint Tax Board
17.
Which of the following forms the basis of computing annual allowance for a new asset? A. B. C. D. E. Cost of asset dividend by the estimated tax life of the asset Cost of asset less the initial allowance Cost of asset divided by the Corporate tax Cost of asset less the initial allowance divided by the estimated tax life of the asset Cost of asset less the estimated tax life divided by the initial allowance
18.
A company with accounting year-end of 31 December each year should submit Returns latest by A. 30 September of the following year B. 30 June of the following year C. 30 April of the following year D. 31 March of the following year E. 31 May of the following year Omojola Nigeria Limited has June 30 as its permanent year-end, which of the following forms the basis of assessment for 2007? A. B. 1/1/2007 - 31/12/2007 1/7/2005 - 30/6/2006
19.
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C. D. E. 20. 1/1/2006 - 31/12/2007 1/7/2006 - 30/6/2007 1/7/2007 - 31/12/2007
A Company that is engaged in agricultural business is subject to a tax free period of A. B. C. D. E. 6 years 7 years 3 years 5 years 10 years
21.
In partial disposal of assets in Capital Gains Tax, the cost of the part disposed is determined using this formula.
x z x+y
From the above, y represents A. B. C. D. E. 22. Market value of the part not disposed of Cost of acquiring whole asset Cost of acquiring the part disposed of Market value of the part not disposed of Sale proceeds of the part disposed of
In Question 21 above, x equals A. B. C. D. E. Cost of acquiring whole asset Amount reinvested Market value of part disposed of Market value of part not disposed of Sales proceed on the part disposed of
23.
Which of the following is NOT is exempt from Capital Gains Tax? A. B. C. D. E. Gains Gains Gains Gains Gains on disposal of a dwelling house arising from a registered friendly society from disposals and diplomatic bodies arising on the disposal of capital items arising from the disposal of any government security
24.
Which of the following is allowed for tax purposes? A. B. C. D. E. Stamp duties on increase in share capital Income Tax provision Any sum recoverable under an insurance Any contribution to a pension fund General legal advisory services
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25. Which of the following is an example of incorporeal property under Capital Gains Tax? A. B. C. D. E. 26. Earned income Stock Patent Debts Capital allowance
Which of the following is NOT an example of Stamp duty instruments for Ad-valorem assessment? A. B. C. D. E. Bill of Exchange Share Capital of company Cheque leaves Promissory Notes Policy of life insurance
27.
The benefits of adjudication include the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. It shows the genuiness of the instrument It satisfies the statutory requirements It confers tax clearance certificates to the payer The instrument is admissible for all purpose not withstanding any objection as to the duty required to be paid It is the first step in disputing the stamp duties opinion of the correct amount.
28.
The penalty for aiding and abetting a Value Added Tax (VAT) offence is A. B. C. D. E. Fine of N5,000 or imprisonment for a term of five years Fine of N50,000 or imprisonment for a term of five years N25,000 Fine or imprisonment for a term of five years N10,000 Fine or imprisonment for a term of five years N7,500 Fine or imprisonment for a term of five years
29.
Payment of Value Added Tax (VAT)/Goods and Services Tax (GST) should be effected not later thanfollowing the month of transaction. A. B. C. D. E. 30 days 5 days 20 days 21 days 10 days
30.
Which of the following information will NOT feature in a tax invoice?
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A. B. C. D. E. SECTION A PART II: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS MARKS) (20 Rate of VAT Biodata of tax payer Customers name and address Tax payers identification number Type of goods
Write the answer that best completes each of the following questions/statements 1. Under the Education Tax Act CAP E4 LFN 2004, the due date for the payment of education tax is withindays of the service of the notice of assessment by the Federal Inland Revenue Service Board (FIRSB) A quasi-Court of "`first instance" to settle tax disputes is known as the.. An aggrieved tax payer is entitled to appeal against a tax assessment by giving notice of appeal to.. An aggrieved tax payer may be represented before the tribunal by a. For the purpose of tax computations, income received net of withholding tax must be state.. The document which the relevant tax authority issues to every beneficiary as an evidence that withholding tax was deducted from its income is called.. When does an assessment become final and conclusive? Self assessment was introduced on Dividend Income is an earned income. True or false? The income accruing to a partner during the year he joins a partnership business will be assessed on..basis What is the basis of assessment of the income of a partner from a partnership When a qualifying capital expenditure is acquired through instalmental payment, the total amount paid excluding the interest element during the basis period forms the basis of computing the
2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
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13. 14. 15. For assets acquired on Hire purchase,.is to be treated as an allowable expense. In place of depreciation charge, the tax authority allowsas deductible expense. Sums allowable as deductions in computing the profits or gains or losses of a trade for income tax purposes are NOT allowable as deductions under Capital Gains Tax. True/False? Withholding Tax of corporate bodies must be remitted to the relevant tax authority within..days following the date of transaction. The increase in the capital value of an asset between the date of acquisition of the asset and the date of its disposal is called. In respect of VAT (GST), an appeal from the Tax Appeal Tribunal shall be made to the Failure to keep proper records attracts penalty of..for every month in which the failure occurs. Credit method and..are two methods of claiming VAT refund.
16. 17.
18. 19. 20.
SECTION B - ATTEMPT ANY FOUR QUESTIONS (50 MARKS) QUESTION 1 It is the civil obligations of citizens to pay tax and taxes which come in various forms. You are required to: a. Distinguish between Direct Taxes and Indirect Taxes. (4 Marks) b. Explain the ethical issues in the administration of Income Tax. 1 (8 /2 Marks) (Total 121/2 Marks) QUESTION 2
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The organs of tax administration in Nigeria include Joint Tax Board (JTB), Federal Inland Revenue Service Board (FIRSB), State Board of Internal Revenue (SBIR), Local Government Revenue Committee and Joint State Revenue Committee. You are required to: a. State the members of the State Board of Internal Revenue. Marks) b. Explain the ethical issues in the administration of Income Tax Marks) (TOTAL Marks) QUESTION 3 a. Tax Legislation contain rules that will apply when a company ceases operations. You are required to: i. Give FOUR instances where a business can cease operation (2 Marks) ii. Explain briefly the cessation rules under Companies Income Tax Act CAP C21 LFN 2004. (4 Marks) Mr. Chukwu who has been trading for several years recently decided to cease business due to lack of raw materials. He actually ceased trading on 30 June 2009. He declared the following adjusted profits: Year ended 31/12/2007 Year ended 31/12/2008 Period to 30/06/2009 You are required to: a. Compute the assessable profits of Mr. Chukwu for the relevant years of assessment. (61/2 Marks) (Total 121/2 Marks) L$ 500,000 430,000 70,000 (7 (8 12
b.
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QUESTION 4 The Net Profit of Kingsley Nigeria Ltd for the year ended 31 May 2009 was N62,580,000, after crediting profit on the sales of Property, Plant & Equipment and after charging the following: N Building Fund 40,000 Depreciation 4,250,000 Club house Project 24,500 Donation to Community fund 72,000 Recreations Club 57,300 Church Building fund 6,000 Legal Charges for purchase of leasehold 150,000 rights Directors Remuneration 850,000 Other information include: i. net ii. Profit on sale of Property, Plant & Equipment N8,000 (included in the profit) The capital allowance and balancing allowance claimed for the year were agreed with Tax Authority at N9,500 and N52,580 respectively.
Required: Calculate the income tax payable by the company for the relevant year of assessment. (121/2 Marks) QUESTION 5 Withholding tax is a tax deducted at source and which enhances voluntary compliance. You are required to: a. Enumerate other merits and demerits of the withholding tax system. (10 Marks)
b. List the information to be disclosed in Withholding Tax Returns. (21/2 Marks) (Total 121/2 Marks)
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QUESTION 6 Benjis International Limited is a manufacturer of hospital equipment that registered for VAT purposes. During the year 2011, the company expended 1,920,000 on the materials in the process of converting same into finished products for resale, while it bought its major inputs for 12million. At the end of the year, only 55% of the total cost of finished products were sold at 18,240,000. The suppliers of major input materials are registered companies for VAT purposes. You are required to: a. b. Compute total VAT payable for the year ended 31 December 2011. (71/2 Marks) Explain briefly FIVE merits of the Value Added Tax (VAT) system. (5 Marks) (Total 121/2 Marks)
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SECTION A PART I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS A C D E D E D C A C D A B E C D D B B D A E
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23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. D E C C C B D B
EXAMINERS COMMENT All the candidates attempted the multiple choice questions. Majority of the candidates scored above 60 percent in these questions. It is equally important to note that the questions cover the entire syllabus. PART II SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 60 days Tax Appeal Tribunal Tax Appeal Tribunal Solicitor or Chartered Accountant or Adviser Gross Withholding Tax Credit Note An Assessment becomes final and conclusive when no valid objection or appeal has been lodged within the time limit 1 January 1998 False Actual year/Commencement basis Preceding year basis
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12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. Capital allowance Interest element Capital allowance True 21 Capital Gain Federal High Court N2,000 Direct cash refund method
EXAMINERS COMMENT These short-answer questions also cover substantial part of the syllabus. All the candidates attempted the questions, but many scored below 50 percent. SECTION B SOLUTION 1 a. 1 2 3 4 (b) The administration of both the Companies Income Tax and Personal Income Tax in Nigeria is vested in the Federal Board of Inland Revenue Service and the State Board of Internal Revenue respectively. The officials of these relevant tax authorities as well as the tax practitioners are expected to regard and deal with all documents, information returns and DIFFERENCE BETWEEN DIRECT TAXES AND INDIRECT TAXES DIRECT TAX It is levied directly on persons income It has lower cost of collection It can give room for tax evasion INDIRECT TAX Levied as a percentage of goods and services. Cost of collection may be higher It can be used to check consumption pattern It can be used to redistribute It can be used to check consumption income
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assessment with strict confidentiality and there should not be any conflict of interest in performing their duties. They must display integrity in all that they do. A person shall be guilty of an offence under the obligation of secrecy if he communicates or attempts to communicate tax payers information to another person for any reason. A tax practitioner is not expected to act for two opposing parties. Notice of any attempt to do this must be sent across to the parties to seek their consent. CONDITIONS FOR DISCLOSURE OF INFORMATION Information on tax payers may be disclosed under the following conditions: (i) (ii) If information is necessary by government for purpose of double tax relief. If information is required by the Auditor-General of the Federation or any other officer authorized by him for the performance of his official duties.
EXAMINERS COMMENT This is a good question on the administration of tax. About 97 percent of the candidates attempted the question. Whilst many did well in a part of the question, majority did not perform well in b part which is on the ethical issues in the administration of income tax. SOLUTION 2 (a) COMPOSITION OF THE STATE BOARD OF INTERNAL REVENUE (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) The executive Chairman of the State Service, The Directors and Heads of Department within the State Service A Director from the State Ministry of Finance, Three persons nominated by the Commissioner for Finance in the State, A legal Adviser to the state Service, from the State Ministry of Justice,
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(vi) (b) The Secretary to the State Service who shall be an ex-officio member.
COMPOSITION OF JOINT STATE REVENUE COMMITTEE (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) The Chairman of the State Internal Revenue Service as Chairman, The Chairman of each of the Local Government Revenue Committees, A representative of the Ministry of Local Government not below the rank of a Director A representative of the National Revenue Mobilisation, Allocation and Fiscal Commission as an observer, The State Sector Commander of the Federal Road Safety Commission The Legal Adviser of the State Board of Internal Revenue The Secretary of the Committee who shall be a Staff of the State Internal Revenue Service. He shall be an ex-officio member
EXAMINERS COMMENT This is a two-part question on the organs of tax administration. About 90 percent of the candidates attempted the question. Majority of the candidates did not understand the composition of the State Board of Internal Revenue. However, the overall performance was fair. SOLUTION 3 (ai) (i) Management misunderstanding. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) decisionThis can be as a result of
Liquidity problem- when the business day to day running can no longer be financed. Inavailability of raw materials for the business. If Court orders the closure. Loss of market share.
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(vi) (vii) (aii) If the business is unable to pay its creditors. If the business runs into perpetual loss making.
The relevant years are final year and penultimate year. Final year is the ultimate year. The actual income for that period is the income from the beginning of the period to the day the business ceases operation. Penultimate year- This is the year immediately preceding the year of cessation. The income assessable is the income from 1 st January to 31st December of the year or the income of the accounting year immediately preceeding the penultimate year, whichever is higher.
(b)
COMPUTATION OF ASSESSABLE INCOME FOR MR. CHUKWU FOR 2008 AND 2009 YEARS OF ASSESSMENT. BASIS PERIOD ASSESSABL E PROFIT N 500,000 70,000
YEAR OF ASSESSMENT 2008. Higher of: Actual year Basis Preceding year Basis 2009: Actual Year Basis Summary Year of Assessment 2008 2009
1/1/08-31/12/08 (N430,000) 1/1/07-31/12/07 (N500,000) 1/1/09-30/6/09
Profit (N) 500,000 70,000
EXAMINERS COMMENT This is a good question on cessation rule. More than 98 percent of the candidates attempted the question. Many candidates displayed proper understanding of the question. Suffice it to say that the general performance was satisfactory.
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SOLUTION 4 OLABUWE NIGERIA LIMITED (1) CALCULATION OF INCOME TAX PAYABLE FOR 2010 YEAR OF ASSESSMENT N N Net Profit per accounts 62,580,000 (1) Add back: Building fund 40,000 Depreciation 4,250,000 Club house project 24,500 Donation to Community Fund 72,000 Recreation club 57,300 Church Building Fund 6,000 Legal charges for purchase of 150,000 4,599,800 Leasehold rights 67,179,800 Deduct: Profit on sale of fixed assets 8,000 8,000 67,171,800 Less Capital Allowance 9,500 Balancing allowance 52,580 62,080 Chargeable profit 67,109,720 Company income Tax @ 30% 20,132,916 EXAMINERS COMMENT This is a standard computation question on Companies Income Tax About 98 percent of the entire candidates attempted the question. The general performance was above average. SOLUTION 5 A(ii) merits of withholding tax systems (1) (2) (3) It helps to broaden the tax base by bringing unknown tax payers to the tax authority Ensures faster mobilization of revenue i.e Government receives revenue from tax payers upfront It reduces the incidence of tax evasion
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(4) It is self accounting in nature i.e involves little or no cost of collection (5) (6) (7) (ii) It enhances voluntary tax compliance It educates the tax payer and collection agents on tax matters It saves time for the Revenue officers to attend to other duties
DEMERITS OF WITHHOLDING TAX 1. 2. 3. 4. High rate of withholding tax is likely to affect the operational performance of most businesses Since WHT is deducted at source at source, it will likely discourage hard work by Revenue officers It leads to the lacking up of the capital of some businesses with the Revenue agencies The application of Withholding tax affects the cash flow of most businesses as the receive amount is less than what they have estimated in the invoice issued
(b)
INFORMATION TO BE DISCLOSED IN WITHHOLDING TAX RETURN (i) (ii) Name and address of the tax payer Name and address of the relevant tax authority to which remittance is being made (iii) Name and address of the beneficiaries from whom withholding tax has been deducted (iv) Nature of the transaction of each beneficiary (v) Gross amount of the transaction (vi) The annlicable rate of withholding tax (vii) The tax withheld (viii) The Net amount paid
EXAMINERS COMMENT This is a two-part question on withholding tax. About 30 percent of the entire candidates attempted the question. Many did not perform well in the a part of the question, which tested candidates understanding of the merits and demerits of withholding tax. However, they performed satisfactorily in the b part of the question which deals with the withholding tax returns.
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SOLUTION 6 (a) BENJIS INTERNATIONAL NIGERIA LIMITED SCHEDULE OF COMPUTED VAT PAYABLE FOR THE YEAR ENDED 31, DECEMBER 2011 Vat output N18,240,000 (1) 868,571.42 5 Less: Materials 1,920,000 x /105 x55% (50,285.71) (1) Less: VAT input 12,000,000 x 5/105 x55% (314,285.71) (2) Total VAT payable 504,000 (b) Merit of VAT System VAT is a reliable source of income to the government It provides solution to the problem of tax evasion in Nigeria It eliminates inadequacies and narrow scope of sales tax VAT is fair and equitable because consumer pay tax only in goods and services consumed It encourages export business and thus enhances balance of payment VAT addresses the issue of regressive taxation because the more you consume, the more you pay, therefore the richer tends to buy more and pay more VAT may be used as a tool for fiscal policy It is easy to administer five points Little or no cost of collection.
EXAMINERS COMMENT This is a good question on Value Added Tax (VAT). About 40 percent of the entire candidates attempted the question. The major pitfall was in the aspect of computation of VAT output and VAT input. The general performance was below average.
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AT/121/PIII.12 No
Examination
ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANCY BODIES IN WEST AFRICA ACCOUNTING TECHNICIANS SCHEME WEST AFRICA PART III EXAMINATIONS - MARCH 2012 MANAGEMENT
Time Allowed: 3 hours Insert your Examination number in the space provided above SECTION A (30 Marks) (MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS)
Write ONLY the alphabet (A, B, C, D, E) that corresponds to the correct option in each of the following questions: 1. The technical term used at meetings giving the right to any member to exercise his or her choice on any issue is A. Resolution B. Voting C. Proxy D. Amendment E. Motion Which of these is NOT a principle of effective planning?
2.
A. Principle of efficiency B. Principle of Premising C. Principle of Navigational Change D. Principle of Commitment E. Principle of hierarchy 3. The flow of information through inter-related stages of analysis towards the achievement of an aim is called A. Progress B. Process C. Procurement D. Production E. Performance 4. What guides executives in defining the business their firm is in, the ends it seeks, and the means it will use to accomplish those ends is
,
A.
Strategy Formulation
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B. C. D. E. 5. Long-range planning Task formulation Tactical planning Domestic planning
A message designed to be inclusive of the expectations of all stakeholders for the companys performance over the long run is A. B. C. D. E. Social Responsibility Mission Statement Tactical Statement Long-range Statement Task Statement Strength Weakness Opportunity Opportunist Threat
6.
Which of the following is NOT an element in SWOT analysis? A. B. C. D. E.
7.
ONE of the following is a major consideration of McClellands Motivation Theory A. B. C. D. E. Existence need Safety need Need for power Hygiene factors Growth needs
8.
The main thrust of Blake and Moutons managerial grid is A. B. C. D. E. Concern for people and concern for production Country club management Impoverished Management Authority Compliance Management Middle-of-the-road Management
9.
Which of the following is NOT a type of information transmitted through upward communication? A. B. C. D. Employee views and suggestions Answers to queries Instructions Employee grievances
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E. Reports and data
10. Which of the following arrangements describes the process of group formation? A. B. C. D. E. Forming, Storming, Norming and Performing Storming, Forming, Norming and Performing Forming, Norming, Storming and Performing Norming, Storming, Forming and Performing Norming, Forming, Performing and Storming
11. Which ONE of the following are specific managerial roles identified by Mintzberg? A. B. C. D. E. 12. A. B. C. Leader Spokesman Negotiator Arbitrator Enterpreneur ONE of the following statements is not true about managers Top managers require the best conceptual skill, because their primary responsibilities are planning and organizing Middle managers require the best human skills because they are required to communicate, coordinate and motivate people Effective managers need conceptual, human and technical skills in sizeable proportion to avoid failure First-line managers require more of human skills than technical
D. skills E. Middle level managers require the best technical skills than human skills to perform an organizational role
13. A special skill which requires a manager to demonstrate his ability to analyze and diagnose a situation and distinguish between cause and effect is A. B. C. D. E. Human relations skills Competitive skills Technical skills Conceptual skills Collaboration skills
14. The theorist who interpreted and popularized the findings of Hawthorne
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experiment was A. B. C. D. E. 15. A. B. C. D. E. 16. Henri Fayol Henry Gantt Max Webber Elton Mayo Peter Drucker Which of the following is NOT an input in the production system? Raw materials People Money Convertion Information ONE of these is NOT a feature of batch production system A. General purpose machine and equipment used B. Provision of heavy shop-floor stores C. It is usually found in heavy engineering firms D. Strong emphasis is placed on production planning and scheduling E. Short production runs which translated into higher production cost 17. Which of the following is NOT an element of an organization structure? A. B. C. D. E. Configuration Work specialization Departmentalisation Chain of command Span of control
18. The linking together of superiors and surbodinates of units and sub-units at different levels of the organization is referred to as A. B. C. D. E. Vertical coordination Horizontal coordination Composite coordination Parallel coordination Diagonal coordination
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19. Control helps the organization to achieve which ONE of the following? A. B. C. D. E. Adapting to changing conditions Minimizing the Errors Coping with organizational complexity Minimizing cost Determining the budget
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20. When both line authority and staff authority are involved in an organization, it is called A. B. C. D. E. Line and staff organization Line organization Staff organization Specialised organization Compulsory staff
21. An organization whose design is not defined by or limited to the vertical and horizontal demarcations is termed A. B. C. D. E. Matrix structure Budget structure Simple structure Boundaryless organization Complex structure
22. For the prevention of fire, a safety provision measure is that every factory must be provided with A. B. C. D. E. Water dam Fire extinguisher Transmission machinery Goggles Belts and ropes
23. Which of the followings is a form of penalty for indiscipline in an organization? A. B. C. D. E. Fines Demotion Promotion Discharge Pay-cut
24. In Maslow hierarchy of needs, the need for protection from danger, threat or deprivation is called A. B. C. D. E. Physiological needs Safety needs Social needs Self-esteem needs Self-actualization needs
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25. ONE of these will NOT be of interest to a corporate organization with respect to social responsibility A. B. C. D. E. 26. A. B. C. D. E. 27. A. B. C. D. E. 28. A. B. C. D. E. Employees Government Consumers Disabled but illegal group Disabled but unrecognized group Which of the following is NOT an objective of planning? To To To To To minimize risk and uncertainty implement guidelines focus attention on objectives secure economy in operation make control activities effective
Which of these is a feature of mass production system? It produces one off items The products are made to customers specification General purpose machinery and equipment used The workforce has wide range of skills Long production runs for individual products Which of these is in favour of social responsibility of business Social involvement can create a weakened international balance of payments situation Business has enough power, and additional social involvement would further increase its power and influence There is lack of accountability of business to society Business has a great deal of power that it is reasoned, should be accompanied by an equal amount of responsibility There is no complete support for involvement in social actions
29. The view that society will benefit most when business is left alone to produce and market profitable products that society needs is an/a.of social responsibility A. B. C. D. Socio-economic model Voluntary model Economy model Legal model
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E. Ethical model
30. ONE of the mostly considered effort of management in institutionalizing ethical behavior is to set up Ethics Committee within the organization. Which of these is not expected to be the function of the Committee? A. B. C. D. E. Holding regular meetings to discuss ethical issues Checking for possible violations of the code Communicating the code to all members of the organization Reporting unethical behaviour within the organization Reporting the activities of the committee to management SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
PART II: (20 Marks)
Write the answer that best completes each of the following questions/statements. 1. The activities involved in the placement of jobs according to their relative importance to other jobs can be described as Any combination of workers or employees whether temporary or permanent, the purpose of which is to regulate the terms and conditions of employment of workers is called The cessation of work by a body of persons employed acting in combination, or a concerted refusal to work under a common understanding is called .. A payment that is a percentage of sales revenue is . The creation of finished goods and services using factors of production is called .. The regulation exercise after a product or service has been completed to ensure that the final output conforms with standards is referred to as .
2.
3.
4. 5.
6.
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7. According to ETZIONI, an organization that is deliberately constructed to seek a specific goal is . The management function of integrating the activities organization to achieve a common goal is termed.... of an
8.
9.
A consumer product that the consumer, in the process of selection and purchase, usually compares on such bases as suitability, quality, price and style is called that are backed up by buying power is
10. Human wants called..
11. The conditions in the general environment that help a company achieve strategic competitiveness is.. 12. Strategy concerned with deciding how a firm should compete in the industries in which it has elected to participate is 13. Identifying early signals of emerging trends and changes that may affect the firm is 14. Expectancy theory of motivation was pioneered by .. 15. A type of communication whose origin cannot be readily traced to a known source is called . 16. A stage in group development where members develop strong bond and become a strong, loyal and cohesive group is called .. 17. A manager that ensures the completion of activities so that organizational goals are attained is an . 18. The process of comparing actual performance with planned action and taking corrective action if needed is
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19. The Management Theorist that recognized that science and mathematics could be applied in the management of organizations and also that detailed cost measurements were needed is . 20. A type of partnership in which all owners share in operating the business and assuming liability for the business debt is
SECTION BAnswer any FOUR questions (50 Marks) QUESTION 1 Human resources is seen as the most valued asset of any organization. You are required to: a. Define Human Resource Management Marks) b. Explain FIVE functions of Human Resource Management Marks) (Total12Marks) QUESTION 2 Principle is a basic general truth, that is, the foundation of something. You are required to explain FIVE principles of effective planning. (12 Marks) QUESTION 3 Communication is the life-blood of any organization. You are required to: (2 (10
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a. Illustrate the key elements of a communication process, (with the aid of a simple diagram) (2 Marks)
b.
Explain briefly FIVE common barriers to effective communication in organizations? (5 Marks) c. Explain TWO ways by which a manager can minimize the effect of these barriers? (5 Marks) (Total 12 Marks) QUESTION 4 As an office manager of an organization, describe FIVE factors you will consider in designing effective layout of control forms emanating from your office. (12 Marks) QUESTION 5 As a new businesses are being built, some existing ones are dying. You are required to explain FIVE measures that can be put in place to forestall business failures. (12 Marks) QUESTION 6 You are an accounting officer in Bluebird Incorporated, and you read in a recent bulletin of the Corporate Affairs Department that Henry Mintzbergs managerial role is suitable for the company. You are required to: a. Explain Henry Mintzbergs managerial role (7 Marks) b. Give specific example of each role activity you have explained in (a) above. (5 Marks) (Total 12 Marks)
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SECTION A PART I
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. B E B A B D C A C A D D D D D C A A E A D B
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23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. C B D B E D C D
EXAMINERS COMMENT The multiple choice questions covered all the parts of the syllabus. All the candidates attempted the questions and the general performance was good. More than 75% of the candidates who attempted the questions did very well. PART II SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. Job rating Trade Union/Labor Union Strike Commission Production Feed back control/quality control Formal organisation Coordination Shopping product Demand /effective demand Opportunities
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12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. Business level strategy Scanning Victor Vroom Grape vine /Rumour Performing Effective manager Controlling Charles Babbage General partnership/ordinary partnership
EXAMINERS COMMENT The short answers questions cut across the entire syllabus. All the candidates also attempted the questions. About 60% of the candidates who attempted the questions performed satisfactorily. SECTION B SOLUTION 1 Human resource management can be defined as all management decisions and actions that affect the relationship between the organization and employees. Human resource management can be defined as all activities, concepts, policies programmes and theories jointly connected with the acquisition and utilization of people to achieve organizational goals. FUNCTIONS OF HUMAN RESOURCES MANAGEMENT i. Human Resources planning: This is the process of forecasting human needs of an organization so that steps are taken towards fulfilling it. Recruitment and selection: This refers to all activities carried out to attract
ii
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qualified applicants to fill vacant positions in an organization. iii Training and development: This involves giving employees the knowledge, skills, methods and altitudes which will make them perform effectively and efficiently. Performance appraisal. This has to do with the process of monitoring an employees performance on the job. Employee compensation: This refers to rewards given to an employee in return for the contributions to the business. Employee welfare services and benefits: This involves inducement of employees to put in their best by providing an enabling environment in the work place.
iv
v vi
vii Industrial Relations: This has to do with coordinating relations between the organization and employees. Viii Induction and orientation: it is designed to introduce the newly employed to the company and the company to the newly employed in order to reduce the adjustment problem of new employees and create a sense of belonginess. ix Staff disciplines
EXAMINERS COMMENT The question tested the candidates knowledge on Human Resource Management and its functions. More than 92% of the candidates attempted the question and the general performance was above average. SOLUTION 2 The principles of effective planning are: (i) Principle of contribution to objectives: Plan should contribute towards the accomplishment of a firms objectives. (ii) Principle of efficiency of plans: The principle stresses upon economical use of individual effort to achieve group goals.
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(iii) Principle of planning premises: A coordinated structure of plans can only be developed when managers in the organization understand and agree to consistent planning premises Principle of policy framework: Every member of the planning team must understand the basic policy framework of the organization. Principle of timing: The plan must have a time structure Principle of limitations: Every plan is confronted with some limitations and these limitations are very critical to the attainment of the goals. If these limitations are well understood and recognized, the better for the planner. Flexibility principle: Flexibility must be built to the plans
(iv) (v) (vi)
(vii)
(viii) Principle of participation: This involves subordinate in the planning process. (ix) (x) Principles of open system approach. Make your plan in a way that external and internal environment compliant Effective planning should be precise, practicable and simple to understand and operate.
EXAMINERS COMMENT The question tested the candidates knowledge on the principles of effective planning. More than 85% of the candidates attempted the question and the general performance was above average. SOLUTION 3 ELEMENTS OF COMMUNICATION PROCESS Message Channel
Sender (Encoder) (decoder)
Noise
Receiver
Feed back
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(b) Barriers to effective communication are: i ii iii iv v vi vii viii (c) Semantic poor listening Conflicts Emotional problems Communication overload Poor organizational structure Lack of planning Inappropriate channels of communication
The ways to minimize the effects of the Barrier are: i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. Improve the general atmosphere for effective communication by adopting open door style Planning before communicating Provision of the right media for communication and make these media accessible to all employees Over load of managers with volumes of irrelevant information must be avoided by regulating the quantity of information flowing to them Break down physical barriers to communication by designing the office layout in such away that it makes it possible for employees to interact. Reduce the use of highly technical jargon especially when communicating with subordinates.
EXAMNIERS The question tested the candidates knowledge on the elements of a communication process, barriers to effective communication and ways to minimize the effect of these barriers. More than 80% of the candidates attempted the question and the general performance was above average. SOLUTION 4 The factors you will consider in designing effective layout of control forms emanating from my office are: (i) Purpose: The reason or purpose of the form should not only be considered should also be its title (ii) Paper size and arrangement: international paper size range e.g A4, quarto
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should be considered along with their suitability and ability to ease handling and filing (iii) Cost: Costs involved in producing the form that includes the size, quality, quantity and method of printing the form should be considered through cost and benefit analysis (iv) Form Appearance: The appearance of the form should be colourful, attractive and the wording bold and legible. Provision should be made on four sides of the form for dating, comments and filing purposes. (v) Paper texture and quality: The quality of paper having to do with its weight, texture, grade and good colour should be considered in order to impress readers. (vi) Quantity/ Units: The number of copies required vis avis the number of expected readers should be amornised to curb waste likely to result from over production and inadequacy as a result of shortage. (vii) Information layout: The information should be laid out in the form that attracts readers. The sequence should flow from the less important to the most important. (viii) Simple & easy to understand: The form should be in simple grammar that make the information simple and easy to understand and digest technical words should be avoided. (ix) Direct & Concise: The information on the form should be directed straight to beneficiaries. Statements should be brief and concise. EXAMNINERS COMMENT The question tested the factors in designing effective layout of control forms. About 10% of the candidates attempted the question but, 3% scored above average. The major pitfall was that some candidates were discussing about
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location of offices and control. Candidates are employed to read harder to cover the syllabus. SOLUTION 5 The Measures that can be put in place to forestall business failures are: 1. DEVELOPMENT OF BUSINESS PLAN: There is a need to carry out a feasibility study which will reveal the viability or otherwise of the business. FINANCIAL INFORMATION: There is a need to obtain accurate and timely financial information about the business. The financial requirements of the business will help a lot. TARGET business Who are strategic CUSTOMER INFORMATION: Most entrepreneurs go into without having a target customer at the back of their mind. our customers, where are they, what do they want, are all questions.
2.
3.
4.
COMPETITOR PROFILE: Competitors are real in business environment. There is a need to assess the strength and weakness of the competitors for a better business decision making. DEVELOP STRONG MANAGEMENT TEAM: Sound and active workers must be recruited. Best hand that will give the business the best should be considered. NETWORKING: Business does not operate in a vacuum. There is a need to develop strong ties with stakeholders in the market. BUSINESS WILL: Will to succeed, this is very important in business undertaking. PROPER PLANNING: There is a need for business to decide in advance what to achieve in the future. SOUND DECISION MAKING: Business is all about decision. In order to prepare business for success, there is a need to be thorough in decision making. CAPITAL FORMATION: One of the major reasons for business failure is shortage of capital. There is a need for provision of enough capital resource.
5.
6. 7. 8. 9.
10.
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EXAMINERS COMMENT The question tested the candidates knowledge on the measures that can be put in place to forestall business failures. More than 90% of the candidates attempted the question. Only 45% scored above average. The major pitfall was that most candidates were discussing what makes businesses fail rather than the measures
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SOLUTION 6 The Henry Mintzbergs Managerial Role is 1. Interpersonal Role i Figure head: The person who symbolizes an organization or a department. Here the manager determines the direction or mission of the organization and informs employees and other interested parties about what the organization is seeking to achieve. e.g receives visitors, and signs documents. ii Leader: The manager encourages surbordinates to perform at a high level and to take steps to train, counsel and mentor subordinates to help them reach their full potential. iii groups Liaison: Manager link and coordinate the activities of people and both inside and outside the organization. Inside the organisation, managers are responsible for coordinating the activities of people in different departments to improve their ability to cooperate. Outside the organization, managers are responsible for forming linkages with suppliers or customers. 2. Informational Role:
I Monitor: Manager monitors and analyses information from inside and outside the organization, so that he can effectively organize and control people and other resources. He maintains personal contact. ii Disseminator: The manager transmits information to other members of the organization to influence their work attitudes and behavior e.g holding meetings and making phone calls. iii Spokesman: The manager uses information to promote the organization so that people inside and outside the organization respond positively to it. Eg Board meeting, passes information to the board and media.
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3. Decisional Role: i Entrepreneur: The managers decides which project or programes to initiate and how to invest resources to increase organizational performance e.g development of new programmes and control of activities. Disturbance Handler: The manager assumes responsibility for an unexpected event or crises that threaten the organizations access to resources e.g correct variances. iii Resource Allocator: The manager decides how best to use people and other resources to increase organisatiional performance e.g monitors budget and expenses. iv Negotiator: The manager reaches agreements with other managers or groups claiming the first right to resources, or with the organization and outside groups such as shareholders or customers e.g maintaining good relationship between management, employees and outside world. EXAMINERS COMMENT The question tested the candidates knowledge on Henry Minitzbergs managerial roles. More than 70% of the candidates attempted the question and the general performance was above average. However, most candidates could not really distinguish the B part. Candidates are advised to always cover the syllabus.
ii handling
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INSIGHT

EXAMINERS GENERAL COMMENTS

INADEQUATE COVERAGE OF THE SYLLABUS

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PREPARING TAX COMPUTATION AND RETURNS 47 - 66

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SECTION A: Attempt All Questions PART I: Marks) MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS (30

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An auditor violates the professional ethical standards when

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SECTION B - Attempt Any FOUR Questions (50 Marks)

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Statement of Member Obligation A true and fair view

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(ii) Random Sampling: item. (iii)

(ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

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iii. iv. v. vi. vii

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PART II SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS MARKS)

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SECTION B (ATTEMPT ANY FOUR QUESTIONS) MARKS)

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Other Items: Add: Debenture Interest

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