MATERIALS ENGINEER EXAMINATION NO.

5
Instruction: Choose the best answer. The Examination is good for two hours.

1. What is the physical property of concrete that withstand deterioration due to exposure to weathering action?
a. Durability b. strength c. Adsorption d. absorption
2. Over sanded and under sanded mixtures requires more water in order to be workable, but making it so well,
only result in a sacrifice in:
a. Durability b. strength c. Adsorption d. absorption
3. The method used to test on the workability of concrete and the tests are readily made in the field.
a. Slump test b. core test c. dynamic tests d. ball penetration test
4. For rich mixes, the strength of _______ is the controlling factor.
a. Cement b. aggregates c. sand d. all of the above
5. Sampling of Portland cement should be done in accordance with AASHTO___.
a. T129 b. T 130 c. T127 d. none of the above
6. The practice of artificially densifying and incorporating definite density into the soil mass rolling, tampering.
a. Soil classification b.soil sampling c. quatering d.compaction
7. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement will occurs leading o failure:
a. Pascal b.force c.bearing capacity d.none of the above
8. Specified or selected materials of designed thickness placed as foundation for pavement.
a.subbase b. base c. sub-grade d. Treated layer
9. The materials in excavation (cuts) embankment (fills) and embankment foundation immediate below the
layer of subbase, base or pavement and to such depth as may effect the structural design:
a.subbase b. base c. sub-grade d. Treated layer
10 Specified or selected materials of designed thickness placed as a foundation for base:
a. subbase b. base c. sub-grade d. Treated layer
11. A sand used to measure the volume of test hole in FDT:
a.calibrated sand b. fine sand c. very fine sand d. all of the above
12. Provided along the slopes of high embankments as an erosion control measure and to improve the stability
of the side slopes;with a required compaction of 90% AASHTO T99 method C.
a. Side path b. berm c. stone masonry d. riprap
13. The most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous concrete mixes:
a.Penetration test b.compaction test c. core test d. Marshall stability test
14. A layer of an asphalt aggregate mixture of variable thickness used to eliminate irregularities in the content of
an existing surface prior to placement of an overlay:
a.Asphalt Leveling Course b.Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt tack coat d.all of the above
15. An application of low-viscosity cutback to an absorbent surface or a mixed-in application of emulsified
asphalt. It is used only on untreated base prior to placement of an asphalt pavement.
a.Asphalt Leveling Course b.Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt Prime coat d. none of the above
16. The upward movement of asphalt in an asphalt pavement resulting in the formation of a film of asphalt on the
surface.
a.bleeding b.bowl-shape c.cracks d.corrugation
17. A very light application of asphalt applied to an existing asphalt or Portland cement surface, used to ensure a
bond between the surface of being paved and the overlaying course
a.Asphalt Leveling Course b.Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt tack coat d. none of the above
18. A mixture of slow setting emulsified asphalt, water, aggregates and mineral filler produce to a slurry
consistency and placed on pavement surface.
a. asphalt emusion slurry seal b.emulsified asphalt c. seal coat d. tack coat
19. A crack sometimes crescent shaped, that point in the direction of the trust of the wheels on the pavement
surface caused by lack of bond between two pavement layer.
a.raveling b. reflective crack c.bowl-shape crack d.slippage cracks
20. Any condition that might contribute to making a pavement slippery
a. frictionless b.sliding hazard c.skid hazard d. none of the above
21. The uniform rate of flow of concrete cu.m per hour when poured.
a. 10-15 b.15-20 c.20-25 d.30-33
22. Used to evaluate the potential strength of soil aggregate.
a.CBR b.Abrasion c.immersion-compression d. all of the above
23. Test used to determine the hardness property of course aggregates.
a.CBR b.Abrasion c.immersion-compression d. all of the above
24. The stones used for stone masonry shall have a thickness of not less than:
a. 200mm b.25mm c.150mm d.noe of the above
25. The temperature for moist curing of specimen that gives the best result.
a. 15.5 C to 37.5 C b. 17.5 C to 39.5 C c. 13.5 C to 35.5 C d.13.5 C to 33.5 C
26.The maximum size to course aggregates required for Item 311 (PCCP)
a. 2 ½ inches b. 3 ½ inches c. 1 ½ inches d. 4 ½ inches
27.The gradation requirement used for Hot Mix Bituminous Pavement.
a. grading A b. grading B c. grading C d. grading D
28. The placing temp. for bituminous mixture measured in the truck prior to dumping.
a. 107 ºC ,min b. 107 ºC ,max c.159 ºC,min d. 159 ºC,max
29. Unsuitable materials are soils with a liquid limit exceeding.
a. 80 b. 85 c. 100 d. 90
30. Unsuitable materials are soils with natural water content exceeding.
a. 80 b. 85 c. 100 d. 90
31. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic material such as grass, roots, sewerage highly
organic soils such as peat and muck.
a. Suitable materials b. soil aggregate c.unsuitable material d.none of the above
32. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a liquid limit of:AASTO T-89
a.35,max b.35,min c.25,max d.25,min
33. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 104 shall have a liquid limit of: AASTO T-89
a.30,max b.30,min c.25,max d.25,min
34. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 201 shall have a liquid limit of: AASTO T-89
a.30,max b.30,min c.25,max d.25,min
35. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 202 shall have a liquid limit of: AASTO T-89
a.30,max b.30,min c.25,max d.25,min
36. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a plasticity index of:
a.12,max b.12,min c.6,max d.6,,min
37. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a plasticity index of:
a.12,max b.12,min c.6,max d.6,,min
38. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a plasticity index of:
a.12,max b.12,min c.6,max d.6,,min
39. The coarse portion, retained on a 2.00mm (No.10) sieves for Item 201 shall have a mass percent of wear
by the Los Angeles Abrasion Tests as determined by AASHTO – T96.
a. 50,min b. 45,min c.50,max d.45,max
40. The coarse portion, retained on a 2.00mm (No.10) sieves for Item 202 shall have a mass percent of wear
by the Los Angeles Abrasion Tests as determined by AASHTO – T96.
a.50,min b. 45,min c.50,max d.45,max
41. The materials passing the 19mm sieves for Item 202 shall have a soaked CBR value tested according to
AASHTO T-193.
a. 25%,max b. 25%,min c.80%,min d.45%,min
42. The materials passing the 19mm sieves for Item 201 shall have a soaked CBR value tested according to
AASHTO T-193.
a. 25%,max b. 25%,min c.80%,min d.45%,min
43. The materials passing the 19mm sieves for Item 200 shall have a soaked CBR value tested according to
AASHTO T-193.
b. 80%,max b. 25%,min c.80%,min d.45%,min
44. The coarse portion, retained on a 2.00mm (No.10) sieves for Item 202 shall have a mass percent of wear
by the Los Angeles Abrasion Tests of:
a.80%,max b. 45%,min c.80%,min d.45%,max
45. A thin asphalt surface treatment used to waterproof and improve the texture of an asphalt wearing surface.
a.Asphalt Leveling Course b.Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt Seal coat d. none of the above
46. An application of asphalt materials to any type of road or pavement surface with or without a cover of
mineral aggregates that produce an increase in thickness of less than 25mm or 1 inch.
a.Asphalt Leveling Course b.Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt tack coat d. all of the above
47. The solvent used to test on residue from distillation at 288ºC of asphalt materials
a. Trichloroethylene b. colormatic test c. spot test d. bitumen
48. Cutback asphalt can be classified according to each ________.
a.Permeabilty b. fluidity c. penetration grade d. viscosity
49. Asphalt cement can be determined or classified by their ________.
a.Permeabilty b. penetration grade c. ductility d. viscosity
50. Blown asphalt, Hard asphalt or______ are used as joint filler.
a. Oxidized b. asphalt cement c. hot asphalt d. none of the above
51.What test that will determine if the asphalt is a good binder?
a.CBR b.Abrasion test c.immersion-compression d. Ductility test
52. Which of the ff. is not an important property aggregates?
a. Weigth b. granules c. smoothness d. none of the above
53. What property of mix that has the ability to resist deformation from an imposed load?
a.sustainability b.suitability c. stability d. resistivity
54. What property of mix that has the ability to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel
load?
a. flow b.fatigue resistance c. stability d. resistivity
55. In Marshall Stability Test, which of the criteria not included in determining the average bitumen content
a.weight b. flow c. stability d. smoothness
56. Given: Maximum Stability= 6.05 Bulk Specific Gravity= 2.495
Maximum Unit Weight = 5.55 Stability = 1.150
Flow= 5.65 Flow, 025mm= 7.20
Design Air Voids= 5.20 VFA= 75.00
Determine the Optimum Asphalt Content?

a. 6.50 b. 4.50 c.6.50 d. 3.56

57. What property of mix that has the ability to offer resistance to slipping or skidding when mix?
a. flow b.fatigue resistance c. skid resitance d. resistivity
58. Given: Weight of Sample in Air = 1,188
Weight of Sample in Water = 700
Weight of Sample in Saturated Dry= 1,230
Specific Gravity of Asphalt = 2.48
Specific Gravity of Aggregates = 2.55

Determine the Bulk Specific Gravity of Mix?

 a. 2.45 b. 2.4 c. 2.24 d. 5.0

59. Given: Specific Gravity of Asphalt = 1.01

Specific Gravity of Aggregates = 2.72
% Asphalt Content = 7%
% Air Voids = 4%
Determine the Maximum Theoretical Specific Gravity considering Air Void?
a. 3.43 b. 2.43 c. 1.33 d. 2.44
60. What property of mix that has the ability to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual
settlement and movements of the base and sub-grade?
a. flexibility b.fatigue resistance c. stability d. resistivity
61. Mineral filler shall have a plasticity index of not greater than ________.
a. 3 b. 2 c. 6 d. 4
62. Emulsified Asphalt is c colloidal dispersion of asphalt in water. It is ________ colored before use and turns
________ when the emulsion is broken.
a. Brown-chocolate b. chocolate-brown c.chocolate-black d.all black
63. Bituminous materials should fall with what range of tolerance?
a. ±0.2% b. ±0.4% c.±0.5% d.±0.1%
64. Temperature of mixture shall have a range of tolerance of ________.
a. ± 10°c b. ± 5°c c. ± 7°c d. ± 4°c
65. Given: Dry Stability = 1,600
Wet Stability = 1,400
Saturated Stability = 1,200

Determine the Index of retained Strength.

a. 97.6% b. 87.50% c. 88.0% d. 100%
66. What is the initial load employed in stability machine?
a.120 psi b. 180 psi c. 130 psi d. 150 psi
67. What is a small air space that occurs between the coated aggregates particles in a compacted mix?
a. air voids b. bubbles c. null d. grains
68. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to, or greater than, ________ mass percent of the
density of laboratory specimen prepared in accordance with the Marshall Stability Test.
a. 85% b. 97% c. 95% d. 90%
69. What is the measure of the resistance or measure of distortion of the specimen?
a.plasticity index b. flow index c. group index d. all of the above
70. Given: % of CA, FA, MF respectively = 45, 35, 20
Sp. Gr. Of CA, FA, MF respectively = 2.75, 2.56, 2.40

What is the specific gravity of aggregates?

a. 2.61 b. 3.41 c. 4.23 d. 2.34
71. In Job-Mix formula, how many blows needed for designing heavy traffic for 14 kg/sq,cm.
a. 56 blows b. 25 blows c. 75 blows d. none of the above
72. In Job-Mix formula, how many blows needed for designing heavy traffic for 7 kg/sq,cm.
a. 56 blows b. 25 blows c. 50 blows d. none of the above
73. What is the longitudinal surface depression of the wheel paths?
a. Raveling b. blow-up c.rutting d. pumping
74. Given: Weight of original sample = 1,140 grams
Weight after Extraction = 980 grams
Original Weight of filler ring = 30 grams
Increase of Weight in filler ring = 30 grams
Determine the asphalt content?

a. 6.55 b.5.55 c.4.55 d.3.55

75. For the same stretch of road, no core test was conducted at the end of each days operation. Thus, cores
were taken for every 100 linear meters of the completed pavement.

100 m 5.3 2.262

100 m 5.1 2.311
100 m 5.1 2.225
100 m 5.2 2.237
100 m 5.0 2.226

What is the quantity?

a. 170.2 b.169.72 c.155.68 d. 179.95
76. The specimen is tested for stability and flow at ________ ºC as specified in the standard procedure
a. 30 ºC b. 25 ºC c. 40 ºC d. 20 ºC
77. In the design of Air Voids, will draw down a line at ________.
a. 4 b.5 c.6 d.7
78. During asphalt construction, what are the controlled tests?
a. Extraction test b. stability test c. grading test d. all of the above
79. What do you call the localized upward displacement of a pavement due to swelling of the sub-grade or some
portion of the pavement structure?
 a. Pumping b. cracks c. raveling d. upheaval

80. What do you call the slab movement under passing loads resulting in the ejection of mixtures of water, sand,
clay or silt along transverse or longitudinal joints?
a. Pumping b. cracks c. raveling d. upheaval
81. Given:
Wt. of dry aggregate = 950g
Wt. of asphalt = 50g

What is the % of asphalt by weight of total mix?

a. 5% b. 3 % c. 7% d.4%
82. Does the percent asphalt in problem #81 meet the required specification for percent asphalt in bituminous
mixes? Why?
a. Yes, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous mixes is 5% to 8%
b. Yes, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous mixes is 7% to 10%
c No, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous mixes is 1% to 3%
d.No, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous mixes is 7% to 10%
83. If the actual percent asphalt in problem #81 is 5% and the percent asphalt in a job-mix formula is 5.6% did it
pass the required tolerance? Why?
a. No, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula is 1-0.4%.
b. yes, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula is 1-0.5%.
c. No, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula is 1-0.6%.
d. yes, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula is 1-0.7%.
84. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than _____.
a. 30 ºC b. 29 ºC c. 39 ºC d. 15 ºC
85. What greatly influenced the service of an asphalt pavement?
a. grade and quantity of asphalt b. temperature and quantity of asphalt
c. grade and quality of asphalt d. grade and temperature of asphalt
86. What influenced primarily the grade of asphalt selected?
a. Temperature b. climatic condition c. strength d. ductility
87. In the quality control test for an asphalt, this determines the Index Retained Strength of the Mix.
a.Immersion Compression test b. CBR c. Abrasion Test d.Marshall Stability Test
88. What is the correct temperature that the mixture shall be placed as measured in the truck just prior to
dumping into the spreader?
a. 109 ºC b. 107 ºC c. 106 ºC d. 105 ºC
89. When Tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
a. 66- 109 ºC b. 66- 107 ºC c. 66-106 ºC d. 66-105 ºC
90. When the compaction is be done in order to attain the required density?
a. When the equipment is ready
b. Depend on the contractor
c. when the mixture is still hot and workable
d. as soon as the materials are ready
91. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required density?
a.density strip b. trial section c.rammer d. all of the above
92. What should be the control during the mixing and compaction is of great significance in the strength of the
resulting pavement?
a. Aggregates b. mineral filler c. water-cement ratio d. temperature
93. What is the stabilizing agent for soil (silky and clayey?
a. Hydrate b. lime c. cement d. geotextiles
94. What is the stabilizing agent for sandy soil?
a. Hydrate b. lime c. cement d. geotextiles
95. Lumber is considered as well – seasoned if the moisture content is ________?
a. 13-20% b. 12-18% c.30-35% d.7-12%
96. Liquid limit brass cup with sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a height of
what?
a. 10mm b.8mm c. 12mm d. 15mm
97. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit device are rotated?
a.3 rev/s b.4rev/s c.5rev/s d.2rev/s
98. In doing plastic limit tests to what diameter will the soil thread will begin to break?
a. 3.2mm b. 2.3mm c.8.2mm d. 4.4mm
99. it is used in a gravimetric-volumetric relationship in soils, (or defined as the
ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temp.)
a. Unit weight b. specific gravity c. absorption d. none of the above
100. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
a. 335 sq.m b. 355 sq.m c.500sq.m d. none of the above
 MATERIALS ENGINEER EXAMINATION NO.6
Instruction: Choose the best answer. The Examination is good for two hours.

1. sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, sand weighing
scale, oven with temperature control, chisel, or digging tools, plastic bags
and labeling materials (tag name), is use for?
a. FDT b. Moisture Content c. Abrasion Test d. CBR Test
2. What is the standard diameter of an orifice in FDT sand cone?
a.1.7mm b. 2.7mm c.12.7mm d.25mm
3. The two major components of concrete are _______and Mineral Aggregates.
a.water b. fine sand c. paste d. none of the above
4. What is the minimum sample for moisture content determination if the maximum size of particles is 50mm (2
inches)?
a.20-1500kgs b. 25-1000kgs c. 50-1000kgs d. none of the above
5. What is the minimum mass of field sample for a maximum size of fine aggregates at 4.75mm (no.4)?
a.25 lb b. 10 kgs c.a & b d.none of the above
6. What is the minimum mass of field sample for a maximum size of fine aggregates at 4.75mm (no.4)?
a.25 lb b. 10 kgs c.a & b d.none of the above
7. . What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of aggregates of
50mm (2 inches)?
a.75kgs b. 100 kgs c. 150 kgs d.175 kgs
8. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of aggregates of
9.5mm (3/8”)?
a. 15kgs b. 10kgs c. 50 kgs d.25 kgs
9. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of aggregates of
12.5mm (1/2”)?
a. 15kgs b. 10kgs c. 50 kgs d.25 kgs
10. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of aggregates of
19.0mm (3/4”)?
a. 15kgs b. 10kgs c. 50 kgs d.25 kgs
11. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of aggregates of
25.0mm (1”)?
a. 110lbs b. 10kgs c. 25kgs d.a & c
12. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of aggregates of
37.5.0mm (1 1/2”)?
a. 110lbs b. 75kgs c. 85kgs d.a & c
13. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of aggregates of
63mm (2 1/2”)?
a. 110lbs b. 125kgs c. 185kgs d.a & c
14. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of aggregates of
75mm (3”)?
a. 110lbs b. 175kgs c. 185kgs d.150kgs
15. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of aggregates of
90mm (3 1/2”)?
a. 110lbs b. 175kgs c. 185kgs d.150kgs
16 What is the minimum mass of coarse aggregates retained on the 2.0mm sieve shall be set a side for sieve
analysis for 50mm (2 inches) particle size?
a. 2kgs b. 3kgs c. 4kgs d.5kgs
17 What is the minimum mass of coarse aggregates retained on the 2.0mm sieve shall be set a side for sieve
analysis for 25mm (1 inch) particle size?
a. 2kgs b. 3kgs c. 4kgs d.5kgs
18 What is the minimum mass of coarse aggregates retained on the 2.0mm sieve shall be set a side for sieve
analysis for 75mm (3 inches) particle size?
a. 2kgs b. 3kgs c. 4kgs d.5kgs
19. Determines the purity of asphalt on how much bitumen is in the aspahalt?
a.asphaltene b. petrolene c.solubility d.none of the above
20. The properties of asphalt depend upon this ________ substance which is
soluble in petroleum solvents.
a.asphaltene b. petrolene c.solubility d.none of the above
21. Imparts ductility and high breakpoint
a.asphaltene b. petrolene c.solubility d.none of the above
22. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates subbase materials on surface irregularity
measured by a 3m straight edge.
a.+20mm b. +10mm c.-10mm d.a&c
23. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates sub-grade materials on surface irregularity
measured by a 3m straight edge.
a.+20mm b. +10mm c.-30mm d.-20mm
24. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates base course materials on surface irregularity
measured by a 3m straight edge.
a.+5mm b. +10mm c.-5mm d.-20mm
25. The permitted variations in design requirements of item 203, 206, 300 materials on surface irregularity
measured by a 3m straight edge.
a.+20mm b. +5mm c.-5mm d.-20mm
 26. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates base course materials on crossfall or camber.
a.0.2% b. 0.3% c. 0.5% d.0.4%
27. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates subbase materials on crossfall or camber.
a.0.2% b. 0.3% c. 0.5% d.0.4%
28. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates sub-grade materials on crossfall or camber.
a.0.2% b. 0.3% c. 0.5% d.0.4%
29. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates on 203,206,300 materials on crossfall/camber
a.0.2% b. 0.3% c. 0.5% d.0.4%
30. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on base course materials.
a.±20mm b. ±10mm c. ±15mm d. ±25mm
31. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on subbase course materials.
a.±20mm b. ±10mm c. ±15mm d. ±25mm
32. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on sub-grade materials.
a.±20mm b. ±10mm c. ±15mm d. none of the above
33. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on Item 203,206 materials.
a.±20mm b. ±10mm c. ±15mm d. none of the above
34. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on Item 300 materials.
a.+15mm b. -5mm c. ±15mm d. a & b
35. The permitted variations in design requirements of item 203, 206, 300 materials on design longitudinal grade
over 25meter length on item 105, 200, 201, 203, 206, 300?
a.0.2% b. 0.3% c. 0.1% d.0.4%
36. A type of bitumen use in bituminous concrete surface course which is a product of the distillation of crude oil
a.petroleum asphalt b. coal c.tar d.none of the above
37. A type of Cut-Back asphalt whicj dissolves in diesel.
a.slow curing b. medium curing c.rapid curing d.none of the above
38. A type of cut back asphalt which dissolves in gasoline.
a.slow curing b. medium curing c.rapid curing d.none of the above
39. What is the range of tolerance in a job-mix formula of an aggregates passing No.4 and larger…
a.± 5% b.± 7% c.± 4% d. a.± 10%
40. What is the range of tolerance in a job-mix formula of an aggregates passing No.8 and No.100.
a.± 5% b.± 7% c.± 4% d. a.± 10%
41. What is the range of tolerance in a job-mix formula of an aggregates passing No.200.
a.± 1% b.± 2% c.± 3% d. a.± 4%
42. In the construction of bridge projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of the regular
piles?
a.test pitting b.test piling c.steel testing d. none of the above
43. Type of emulsified asphalt that works better with wet aggregates and cold weather.
a.cationic emulsion b.anionic emulsion c.cut-back asphalt d. none of the above
44. Type of emulsified asphalt which adhere better to aggregates which has positive charges.
a.cationic emulsion b.anionic emulsion c.cut-back asphalt d. none of the above
45. The maximum permissible water-cement ratio for strength of 3,000 psi.
a.0.50 b. 0.45 c.0.55 d. 0.58
46. How many hours does a fine aggregates tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water?
a.4-10 hrs b.15-19hrs c.20-25hrs d. none of the above
47. What is the required speed of Los Angeles Abrasion Machine per minute
a.20-25mm/min b.20-23mm/min c.30-33mm/min d. 35-38mm/mim
48. What is the size or diameter and weight of cast-iron spheres use in abrasion?
a. approximately 46.8 mm diameter and each weighing between 390-455 grams
b. approximately 47.8 mm diameter and each weighing between 390-455 grams
c. approximately 48.8 mm diameter and each weighing between 390-455 grams
d. approximately 49.8 mm diameter and each weighing between 390-455 grams
49. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12 numbers of
spheres?
a. 4584 ±25 gram b. 3330 ±25 grams c. 2500 ±25 grams d. 5,000 ±25 grams.
50. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading B with 11 numbers of
spheres?
a. 4584 ±25 gram b. 3330 ±25 grams c. 2500 ±25 grams d. 5,000 ±25 grams.
51. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading C with 8 numbers of
spheres?
a. 4584 ±25 gram b. 3330 ±25 grams c. 2500 ±25 grams d. 5,000 ±25 grams.
52. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading D with 6 numbers of
spheres?
a. 4584 ±25 gram b. 3330 ±25 grams c. 2500 ±25 grams d. 5,000 ±25 grams.
53. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading E,F,G with 12
numbers of spheres?
a. 4584 ±25 gram b. 3330 ±25 grams c. 2500 ±25 grams d. 5,000 ±25 grams.
54. What is the rotation of the Los Angeles Machine, grading A ,B,C,D per revolutions?
a. 750 revolution b. 500 revolutions c. 1000 revolutions d. 550 revolutions.
55. What is the rotation of the Los Angeles Machine, grading E,F,G per revolutions?
a. 750 revolution b. 500 revolutions c. 1000 revolutions d. 550 revolutions.
56.it evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregates gives an indication of quality as determined by
resistance to impact and wear it determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic of
rolling.
a.CBR test b. Abrasion test c.ductility test d.all of the above
57.What is the sieve use in sieving materials form Abrasion Machine?
a. sieve # 12 (1.70mm) b. sieve # 10 (2.00mm) c. sieve # 4 (4.75 mm) d. sieve # 40 (0.425mm)
58. Percent tolerance of error in calibrating the machines
a. ± 1% b. ± 2% c.-2% d.+2%
59. How to compute for the compressive strength of concrete cylinder sample?
a.P/A b.F/A c.3/2 PL/AE d. none of the above
60. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
a.12 days b. 14 days c. 21 days d. 28 days
61. At what age should a structural concrete be tested for compresve tes?
a.12 days b. 14 days c. 21 days d. 28 days
62. How to compute for the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested @ third point Loading?
a.P/6 b.F/12 c.3 P/12 d. none of the above
63. How to compute for the flexural strength of concrete cylinder for center point?
a.3P/2 b.F/A c.3/2 PL/AE d. none of the above
64. Which part of the batch for fresh concrete should the sample be taken from a stationary mixers, revolving
drum truck mixers or agitators?
a. four or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the batch
b. three or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the batch
c. one or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the batch
d. two or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the batch
65. A 16mm (5/8 inches) diameter and 610mm (24 inches) long with the tamping end rounded to a
hemispherical tip of the same diameter as the rod. this refers to what?
a. spheres b. cup brass c. tamping rod d. hammer rod
66. What is the individual strength requirement for loading bearing concrete masonry units(item 704)?
a.750 psi b. 500 psi c.800 psi d. 600 psi
67. What is the individual strength requirement for non-loading bearing concrete masonry units(item 704)?
a.750 psi b. 500 psi c.800 psi d. 600 psi
68. Its significance is to determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation and is used to
classify the bars into grade.
a. Testing Of RSB b. Testing of Aggregates c. testing of Soil d. none of the above
69. What Property of RSB will be evaluate if it test for bending?
a. yield point b. resistivity c. ductility d. all of the above
70. What kind of paint that has a reflectance in the form of beads?
a. reflectorized traffic paint b. Epoxy Paint c. Talu Paint d. none of the above
71. Pigments and____ are the two common component of house paints.
a.glass beads b. saw dust c. sand d. none of the above
72. cut-back asphalt and emulsified asphalt are samples of __________.
a. Liquid asphalt b. vicous asphalt c. rapid asphalt d. none of the above
73. What asphalt is commonly called hot asphalt in Item 310.?
a. Hard asphalt b. oxidized asphalt c. blown asphalt d. none of the above
74. The blown, hard or oxidized asphalt are used for water-proofing or_______.\
a. emulsifier b. oxidizing agent c. joint filler d. penetrator
75. What do you call an asphalt which contains water?
a. Cold asphalt b. rapid curing c. emulsified d. cut-back
76. What is the Penetraton Grade of Blown,Oxidized or Hard asphalt?
a. 0-30 mm b. 30-40mm c. 40-75mm d. none of the above
77. Tack coat is use in the existing bituminous concrete pavement.
a. false b. true c. maybe d. none of the above
78. Bituminous Prime coat is use to treat the surface of base course.
a. false b. true c. maybe d. none of the above
79. No tack coat or Prime coat shall be applied when the weather is foggy or rainy.
a. false b. true c. maybe d. none of the above
80. What type of cut-back asphalt a kind of asphalt use as tack coat?
a. slow curing b. medium curing c. rapid curing d. all of the above
81. It is used on an existing bituminous surface course with or with out an application of aggregates.
a. tack coat b. seal coat c. prime coat d. all of the above
82. If concrete cylinder sample for RCCP is not available for compressive test, one
(1) whole piece RCCP for every 50 pieces RCCP will be submitted for quality test.
a. false b. true c. maybe d. none of the above
83. One set (3 pcs.) concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCCP?
a. 25 pcs b. 50 pcs c. 30 pcs d. none of the above
84. As work progresses in a concrete pavement construction sampling of concrete(6”x6”x21”)for flexural strength
test determination should be taken using:
a. beam mold @ 61 strokes per layer b. beam mold @ 63 strokes per layer
c. beam mold @ 60 strokes per layer d. beam mold @ 62 strokes per layer
85. The strength level of concrete for Item 3.11 will be considered satisfactory if the average of all sets of three
(3) consecutive strength test results equals or exceed the specified strength and no individual result is
deficiency by _______ of the specified strength.
a. 20 % b. 25% c. 30% d. 15%
86. A class B structural concrete requires a minimum compressive strength of_______tested @ 28 days.
a. 2500 psi b. 2400 psi c. 3000psi d. 5000 psi
87. It is the most important characteristics the concrete mix which could be easily placed without segregaton.
a. durability b. plasticity c. permeability d. workability
88. What is the latest state of the art equipment containing a radioactive material which is commonly used in the
compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the measurement of moisture content?
a. pundit ultrasonic concrete tester b. nuclear density gauge (NDG)

b. 3-meter straight-edge d. Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger

89. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete?
(This instrument or equipment is a non-destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 x 180 x
160mm and the main uses include the determination of concrete strength (either in-situ or pre-cast0, also to
determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections.)
a. pundit ultrasonic concrete tester b. nuclear density gauge (NDG)
c. 3-meter straight-edge d. Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
90. What is the instrument or equipment used for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as soon as the
asphalt mix has been initially compacted?
a. pundit ultrasonic concrete tester b. nuclear density gauge (NDG)
c. 3-meter straight-edge d. Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
91. An instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The results of
the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural conditions of roads, and to help in the design
of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvements.
a. pundit ultrasonic concrete tester b. nuclear density gauge (NDG)
c. 3-meter straight-edge d. Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
92. A manually-operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface profile, which may be
expressed in terms of International Roughness Index (IRI)
a. falling weight deflectometer b. rebar locator
c Dynamic Cone Penetration (DCP) d. MERLIN Road Roughness Measuring Device
93. What is the instrument that is used to pinpoint rebar’s, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in
concrete before cutting or drilling?
a. falling weight deflectometer b. rebar locator
c Dynamic Cone Penetration (DCP) d. MERLIN Road Roughness Measuring Device
94. An equipment which is used to measure differential deflections between joints of a concrete pavement, to
determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to estimate the
remaining life of an existing pavement
a. falling weight deflectometer b. rebar locator
c Dynamic Cone Penetration (DCP) d. MERLIN Road Roughness Measuring Device
95. An equipment that is used for the rapid in-situ measurement of the structural properties of existing with
unbound granular materials.
a. falling weight deflectometer b. rebar locator
c Dynamic Cone Penetration (DCP) d. MERLIN Road Roughness Measuring Device
96. This item consist of placing markings on the finished pavement. The work shall include the furnishing of
finished of premixed reflectorized traffic pain or reflectorized pavement marking paint conforming to the
requirements ASTM 248.
a. Item 606 b. Pavement marking c. none of the above d. a & b
97. The dried paint film shall not show blistering, peeling, wrinkling and discoloration when immersed in water
for______ hrs.
a. 24 hrs b. 12 hrs c. 36 hrs d. 72 hrs
98. What is the specific gravity of Pavement marking (Item 606)?
a. 1.5 min b. 2.4 min c. 1.7min d. 2.0min
99. The amount of glass beads or glass spheres requirement when mixed with the paint shall be:
a. 750 g/L b. 550 g/L c. 500 g/L d. 600 g/L
100.. The appearance of glass beads shall be transparent, colorless, and the sum of the particles that are fused,
plane , angular , and colored and contains ________ shall not exceed 20 percent.
a. pigments b. beads c. particles d. bubbles
 MATERIALS ENGINEER EXAMINATION NO.7
Instruction: Choose the best answer. The Examination is good for two hours.

1. The pavement marking (Item 606) shall be readily extrude at a temperature of_______________
a.110±5°c b. a.230±9°F c. a.211±7°c d 23±1.7°c
2. Traffic Paint shall be applied to the pavement At the Rate of___________
a. 30-33 L/sq.m b 0-3 L/sq.m. c. 0-0.33 L/sq.m d.30-0.45 L/sq.m
3. Traffic Paint shall be dry sufficiently to be free from cracking from_________to_______ .\
a. 15-25 mins b. 15-30 mins c. 15-25 hrs d. 15-30 hrs
4. This Item shall consist of the construction of the rubble concrete in accordance with this specification and in
conformity with the lines, grades, slopes, and dimesions as shown in the plans or established by the
Engineer.
a. Item 707 b. Item 507 c. Item 606 d. item 704
5. What type of concrete shall be used for Rubble Concrete (item 507) in accordance with Structural Concrete.
a. Class B b. Class A c. Class C d. Class P
6. In Placing Concrete Class B for Rubble concrete (Item 507), the clearance between stones shall not be less
less than _______.
a. 2 ½” b. 63 mm c. 50mm d. a & b
7.What is the maximum size of concrete aggregates for Class B concrete.
a. 2 ½” b. 63 mm c. 50mm d. a & b
8.What is the item for concrete Masonry unit?
a. Item 506 b. Item 505 c. Item 704 d. item 504
9.Concrete masonry unit if subject to test, 6 units of CHB Shall be tested for every 10,000 units.(3 units for
______________ and 3 units for____________).
a. absorption & compression b. stability & durability c.density & thickness d. all of the above
10. What is the item for Joint Mortar?
a. Item 504 b. item 604 c. item 704 d. none of the above
11. Mortar for Masonry Beds and Joints shall be:
a. 1:2 b. 1:3 c. 1:1 d. Class B only
12. What should be the PH values for mixing water that is used in the construction?
a. 2-5.5 b. 5.5-7.5 c. 4.5-8.5 d. it does’nt matter
13. What is the item no. for Water?
. a. Item 710 b. Item 714 c. Item 704 d. item 711
14. This item shall consist of furnishing and applying termite control chemicals, including the use of equipment
and tools in performing such operations.
a. Termite Control Work b. Termite demolition c.termite termination d. all of the above
15. What is the item No. of number 14 problem?
a. Item 606 b. Item 1000 c. item 714 d. Item 3110
16. What type of termite control which is specified for crenching soil beneath foundation of proposed buildings.
a.Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution b. Type III – Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated d. none of the above
17. What type of termite control that is used as wood preservatives.
a.Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution b. Type III – Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated d. none of the above
18. What type of termite control which is applied to visible or suspected subterranean termite mounds and
tunnels where termites are exterminated trophallaxes method (exchange or nourishment between termites
while greeting each other upon meeting).
a.Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution b. Type III – Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated d. none of the above
19.What is the Item no. for Soil Poisoning?
a. Item 1003.1 b. item 1000.1 c. item 1004.1 d. item 10005.1
20.In Soil Poisoning an applicationof Type I working solution at the rate of what?
a. 10 L/ln.m b. 9 L/ln.m c. 8 L/ln.m d. none of the above
21.In Soil Poisoning, this method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite intestaton,
where trenches in concentric circles, squares or rectangles are dug 150mm to 220mm wide and at least 1
meter apart.
a. Cordoning method b. Drenching method c. wrenching method d. concentric method
22. This Soil Poisoning method shall be applied when there is infestation of termite.
a. Cordoning method b. Drenching method c. wrenching method d. concentric method
23. In drenching method, a Type 1 working solution is use @ a rate of__________________.
a. 20 L/ln.m b. 21 L/ln.m c. 22 L/ln.m d. none of the above.
24. What should be the state of Soil if it is treated with Soil Poisoning so that it will allow to have a uniform
distribution of the toxicants agents.
a. low plasticity b. low moisture content c. high liquid limit d. high moisture content
25. What should be the period of the application of toxicants prior to placement of concrete which shall be
contact with the treated materials.
a. @least 24 mins b. @least 12 mins c. @least 24 hrs d. @least 12 hrs
26.This item shall consist of furnishing all required materials, fabricated woodwork, tools, equipment and labor
and performing all operations necessary to the satisfactory completion of all carpentry and joinery works in
strict.
a. item 1001 b. item 1002 c. item 1003 d. item 1004
27. What is the moisture content requirement for air-dried or sun dried rough lumber use for framing and siding.?
a. 18-20% b. @least 22 % c. 15-25% d. @ least 14 %
28. Dressed lumber for exterior and interior finishing for doors and windows,cabinet and flooring boards shall be:
a. sun-dried d. air-dried c. kiln-dried d. oven-dried
29. What is the moisture content requirement for a dressed lumber at the time of installation.?
a. @ least 20% b. in excess of 14% c. 15-25% d. @ least 22 %
30. An item no. for Corrugated Metal Roofing.
a. Item 1010 b. item 1012 c. item 1011 d. item 1013
31. what should be the gauge shall be use for Corrugated metal roofing?
a. gauge 24 b. gauge 28 c. gauge 26 d. none of the above
32. What is the required thickness for the gauge in problem no.31 for item Corrugated metal roofing?
a. 0.48cm b. 0.48mm c. 0.48 inches d. none of the above
33. What is the required weight for the gauge in problem no.31 for item Corrugated metal roofing?
a. 4.74 kg/sq.m b. 3.74 kg/sq.m c.2.74 kg/sq.m d. 5.75 kg/sq.m
34. Averaging of the thickness and density of the 2 or 3 cores should not be done.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
35. In the construction of a 380-linear meter asphalt road, with a designed thickness of 5cm, a width requirement
of 3,05m, and a programmed quantity for bituminous mix of 135 tons, an asphalt core was taken for each full
day’s operation. Results of thickness and density tests are as follows:

Paving Date Paving length, meter Thickness, cm Density , gram/cu.cm

Day1 1.20 5.3 2.262
Day2 1.40 5.1 2.311
Day3 1.20 5.0 2.221

Compute for the quantity of Bituminous mixtures should be paid.

a. 134.85 tons b. 134.28 tons c. 134.58 tons d. 134.82 tons
36. What should be the required ratio for length to diameter (L/D) of a specimen for determining the
compressive strength that contain embedded reinforcement should be avoided if possible or trimmed to
eliminate the reinforcement.
a. @least 2 b. @ least 1 c. @least 1.5 d. none of the above
37.For compressive strength determination, what should be the diameter of the core specimen .
a. @ least three (3) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate. used in the concrete.
b. @ least four (4) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate.
c. @ least twice (2) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate in the core sample
d..a & c
38 For compressive strength determination, what should be the length of the core specimens, when capped.
a. Same to its diameter b. twice its diameter c. four times its diameter d. none of the above
39. For individual measurement of core sample, which is less than the specified thickness by more than 25mm
shall not be included in the average.
. a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
40. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 50% payment is recommended on
the project?
a. 21-25mm b more than 25mm c. 5mm,max d. 11-15mm
41.What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 70% payment is recommended on
the project?
a. 21-25mm b more than 25mm c. 16-20mm d. 11-15mm
42. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 85% payment is recommended on
the project?
a. 6-10mm b more than 25mm c. 16-20mm d. 11-15mm
43. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 95% payment is recommended on
the project?
a. 6-10mm b 5mm,max c. 16-20mm d. 11-15mm
44. All joints shall be sawed before uncontrolled shrinkage cracking occur.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
45. The sawing of any joints shall be omitted if crack occurs or near the joint prior to the time of sawing.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
46. No cold joint shall be constructed within 1.50m of an expansion joint, contraction joint or plane of weakness.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
47. If the Concrete lanes are concreted separately, what is the joint in the form of key and keyways that is use?
a. transverse contraction joint b. Longitudinal joint
c. transverse construction joint d. weakened plane joint
48.What is the variation permitted on the surface of the asphalt using the straight edge method .
a. 5mm,min b. 6mm,min c. 5mm,max d. 6mm,max
49. The subbase is a structural layer which accepts greater compressive stress than the sub-grade and thus
reduces that deformation of the pavement under traffic loading.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
50.The base reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by the traffic in the subbase and the sub-grade.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
51. In asphalt pavement,the base and the subbase serve to provide structural capacity to bituminous concrete
slab, while in PCCP, the base and the subbase spread the load over the foundation.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
52. What is the chief load bearing element of gravel roads.?
a. base course b. subbase course c. sub-grade course d. either a & b
53. Proper design of the base or subbase course can lead to structural failure of the slabs.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
54. what does it mean if soil has high values for liquid and Plasticity index?
a. good b. low plastic limit c. poor/weak d. none of the above
55. what is the approximate area for cracking and seating of PCCP .
a. 1 sq.m b. 0.5 sq.m c. 2 sq.m d. either a or b
56. Reflection cracking on the overlay is caused by the differential movement at cracks and joint in the old
pavements.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
57. As part of the selection process, ______________are taken to evaluate the condition of existing pavement
or any asphalt pavement prior to cracks and seat treatment.
a. cores are taken at three different locations. b. two cores are taken at four different locations
c. 5 cores are taken at three different locations d. @ least 1 but not more than three core samples
58. The Lower the coefficient of permeability of the supporting subbase material, the better the chances in
seating the cracked pieces and avoiding pumping and rocking.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
59. What is the reasonable range of structural layer coefficient for properly cracked and seated PCCP?
a. 0.25-0.30 b. 0.28-0.32 c. 0.10-0.16 d. none of the above
60. The most popular and extensively used for cracking or breaking and removal of pavements.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer c. arrow hammer d. either b or c
61. The impact hammer attached to the end of the leaf-spring arm which can be controlled in a horizontal as well
as vertical direction. It is mounted on the rear of a truck.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer c. Resonant Pavement breaker d. whiphammer
62. The hammer is mounted on the trailer which is tractor or truck drawn.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer c. arrow hammer d. whiphammer\
63. This equipment is vibrated 44 cycles per second and it is generally induces longitudinal cracks.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer c. Resonant Pavement breaker d. whiphammer
64.Using arrow hammer/guillotine, no cracking should be closer than 2 ½ ft from an existing transverse joint.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
65. once the cracked, the PCCP pieces are seated firmly against the base or sub-grade and should be done by
applying two passes of rolling using what equipment?
a. 50-ton pneumatic tired roller b. 35-ton pneumatic roller c. tandem smooth type roller d. either a or b
66. Cracking and seating does not mean reducing the PCCP to rubble.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
67. PPCP overlay is used overlay material on the cracked and seated pavement where a minimum thickness of
_____ with a maximum size of ____ aggregates and a modulus of rapture of concrete of______ @ 28 days.
a. 180mm, 40mm,650psi b.18cm, 40mm, 650psi c. 1.8mm,40mm,650psi d. either a or b
68. It is commonly used overlay material on the cracked and seated pavement where its thickness will depnd on
the expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement section. The recommended
thickness is 3”-5”.
a. Hot Mix Asphalt b. PCCP overlay c. rock layers d. either b or c
69. Rectifying inherent drainage problem is essential for the cracking and seating to be effective.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
70. Concrete shall be conveyed through sheet metal or approved pipes when placing operation involves
dropping the concrete more than 1.5 meter.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
71. Falsework of continuous structures shall not be removed in any span until the first and second adjoining span
on each side have reached the specified strength.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
72. For concrete which is deposited in water shall have a minimum cement content of______ of concrete.
a. 500 kg/cu.m b. 600 kg/cu.m c. 450 kg/cu.m d. 400 kg/cu.m
73. For concrete deposited in water should have a slump of____ to ______.
a. 10-20 mm b. 25-30 cm c. 10-20 cm d. 25-30 cm
74. Concrete deposited in water shall be placed in compact mass, in final position, by means of ______ or button
dun bucket to prevent segregaton.
a. tremie b. vibrator c. casing d. none of the above
75. What is the commonly used curing media for curing the fresh concrete.
a. Liquid membrane-forming compound b. Water emulsifier
c. superplasticizer d. none of the above
76. The concrete should be cured immediately at the final placement, especially during the first seven days, in
order that the plastic shrinkage will be minimized.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
77. The reasonable range of slump for Class A concrete.
a. 2-4 inches b. 50-100mm c. 50-100cm d. either a or b
78. The reasonable range of slump for Class B concrete.
a. 2-4 inches b. 50-100mm c. 50-100cm d. either a or b
79 The reasonable range of slump for Class C concrete.
a. 2-4 inches b. 50-100mm c. 50-100cm d. either a or b
80. The reasonable range of slump for Class P concrete.
a. 4 inches,min b. 4inches,max c. 100mm,max d. either b or c
81. The reasonable range of slump for Class Seal concrete.
a. 4-8 inches b. 100-200 mm c. 100-200 cm d. either a or b
82.In compaction of Concrete, a well consolidated concrete is _____ to _______ % higher in strength than that
of concrete which is thoroughly consolidated.
a. 20-25% b. 25-30% 30-33% d. 15-20%
83. Unsuitable materials are soils with liquid limit exceeding 80 or plasticity index exceeding 55.
a. false b. true c. maybe d. none of the above
84. unsuitable materials are soil with a natural water content exceeding 100%.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
85. Unsuitable materials are soils with higher natural density of 800 kg/cu.m or higher.
a. false b. true c. maybe d. none of the above
86. An embankment(item 104), requires ______ of compaction.
a. 90 % b. 95% c. 100% d. none of the above
87. The surface layer of sub-grade material requires ______ compaction in every layer of 150mm.
a. 90 % b. 95% c. 100% d. none of the above
88. What is the degree of compaction of materials immediately under pavement structures?
a. 90 % b. 95% c. 100% d. none of the above
89. In this method the materials for the embankment shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 225
mm in depth, loose measure, and extending to the full width of the embankment.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock c. Hydraulic consolidation d. controlled density method.
90. In this method the materials for the embankment shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300
mm in depth, loose measure, parallel to finished grade and extending to the full width of the embankment.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock c. Hydraulic consolidation d. controlled density method
91.The shattered rock obtained in rock cuts shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by
means of bulldozers. This method shall not be used in fills less than 1.2m in depth, and in no case, shall the
rock embankment be placed within 600mm of the earth grade.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock embankment c. Hydraulic consolidation d. controlled density method
92. This involves the introduction of water into embankment to accelerate consolidation.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock c. Hydraulic consolidation d. controlled density method
93. The material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited as to form the grading and cross-
section, and shall be thoroughly compacted.
a. Hydraulic fill c. hydraulic consolidation c.Rock d. controlled density method
94. Embankments construction across peat marshes consists of total or partial excavation of the peat using
power shovels which is usually carried on in conjuction with backfilling of the peat areas.
a. Hydraulic fill c. hydraulic consolidation c.Rock d. Methods of treatment of peat marshes
95. Where unsuitable material is present under the embankment, corrective work consists of placing a surcharge
constructed to the full width of the road bed.
a.Hydraulic fill c. Placing & removing surcharge c.Rock d. Methods of treatment of peat marshes
96. A cracks in the concrete that are predominantly perpendicular to the pavement centerline
a. transverse crack b. longitudinal crack c. diagonal cracks d. restraint crack
97. A crack that are predominantly parallel to the pavement centerline.
a. transverse crack b. longitudinal crack c. diagonal cracks d. restraint crack
98. Cracks at any angle to the centerline of the pavement.
a. transverse crack b. longitudinal crack c. diagonal cracks d. restraint crack
99. Cracks that develop near the outside edges of a PCCP and progress in an irregular path toward the
longitudinal joint.
a. transverse crack b. longitudinal crack c. diagonal cracks d. restraint crack
100. These diagonal cracks forming a triangle with a longitudinal edge or joint and a transverse joint.
a. corner cracks b. spatting cracks c. scaling cracks d. faulting cracks
 MATERIALS ENGINEER EXAMINATION NO.7
Instruction: Choose the best answer. The Examination is good for two hours.

1. Cracking, breaking and chipping of slab egdes at the longitudinal and transverse joint.
a. corner cracks b. spalling cracks c. scaling cracks d. faulting cracks
2. It is the deterioration of the upper concrete slab surface, normally 3 mm, to 13mm and may occur anywhere
over the pavement.
a. corner cracks b. spatting cracks c. scaling cracks d. faulting cracks
3. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack.
a. corner cracks b. spatting cracks c. scaling cracks d. faulting cracks
4. Brooming and pouring of tack coat are generally not effective because excess tack material usually
accumulates at the bottom of the hole around the edge.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
5.