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Complete questIon bank

Prepared by

v. p . r a j a s h e k e r ,

M.Sc., b.ed., M.Phil., p.g. teacher in physics

achariya siksha mandir

villianur, puducherry 10
mobile : 9994472749
STD : 12

SUBJECT : PHYSICS
1. ELECTROSTATICS

ONE MARKS BOOK BACK(V V I)

1.1
1.2
1.3
1.4
1.5
1.6
1.7

A glass rod rubbed with silk acquires a charge of +8 1012C. The number of electrons it has gained or lost
(a) 5 107 (gained)
(b) 5 107 (lost)
(c) 2 108 (lost)
(d) 8 1012 (lost)
The electrostatic force between two point charges kept at a distanced apart, in a medium r = 6, is 0.3 N.
The force between them at the same separation in vacuum is
(a) 20 N
(b) 0.5 N
(c) 1.8 N
(d) 2 N
Electric field intensity is 400 V m1 at a distance of 2 m from a point charge. It will be 100 V m1 at a distance?
(a) 50 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 4 m
(d) 1.5 m
Two point charges +4q and +q are placed 30 cm apart. At what point on the line joining them the electric field is zero?
(a) 15 cm from the charge q
(b) 7.5 cm from the charge q
(c) 20 cm from the charge 4q
(d) 5 cm from the charge q
A dipole is placed in a uniform electric field with its axis parallel to the field. It experiences
(a) Only a net force
(b) only a torque
(c) both a net force and torque
(d) neither a net force nor a torque
If a point lies at a distance x from the midpoint of the dipole, the electric potential at this point is proportional to
(a) 1/x2
(b) 1/x3
(c) 1/x4
(d)1/x 3/2
Four charges +q, +q, q and q respectively are placed at the corners A, B, C and D of a square of side a. The electric
potential at the centre O of the square is
(a)

1.8

1.10
1.11
1.12
1.13

1 2q
4 a

(c)

1 2

4 2 0

(b)

1 4q
4 a

(c) pE cos

(d) zero
(d) pE sin

The work done in moving 500 C charge between two points on equipotential surface is
(a) zero
(b) finite positive
(c) finite negative
(d) infinite
Which of the following quantities is scalar?
(a) dipole moment
(b) electric force
(c) electric field
(d) electric potential
The unit of permittivity is
(a) C2 N1 m2
(b) N m2 C2
(c) H m1
(d) N C2 m2
The number of electric lines of force originating from a charge of 1 C is
(a) 1.129 1011
(b) 1.6 1019
(c) 6.25 1018
(d) 8.85 1012
The electric field outside the plates of two oppositely charged plane sheets of charge density is
(a)

(b)

Electric potential energy (U) of two point charges is

(a)

1.9

1 q
4 a

(b)

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

(c)

(d) zero

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1.14
1.15

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases from 5 f to 60 f when a dielectric is filled between
the plates. The dielectric constant of the dielectric is
(a) 65
(b) 55
(c) 12
(d) 10
A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge produces no electric field at points
(a) outside the sphere
(b) on its surface
(c) inside the sphere
(d) at a distance more than twice

PTA QUESTIONS (IMPORTANT )

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)

SI unit of electric charge is

a) coulomb
b) ampere second
c) volt second / ohm
Electric dipole moment always acts in the direction from
a) +q to q
b) q to +q
c) infinity to +q
An electric dipole in a uniform electric field experiences
a) force
b) torque
c) momentum
When a dipole is aligned with field then potential energy is given as
a) pE sin
b) 0
c) pE
Relative permittivity of vacuum is
a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
The permittivity of vacuum is 0 is equal to
1

d) all the above

d) infinity to q
d) neither force nor torque
d) pE cos
d) 0

C-2 N+1m+2
b)
C2 N-1m-2 c) 9 X 109 C-2 N+1m+2
d) 9 X 109 C2 N-1m-2
a)

4 X 9 X 10 9
7)
A lightning conductor works on the principle of
a) Corona discharge
b) action of sharp points
c) (a) or (b)
d) none
8)
An electric dipole consists of two -------------------- charges
a) like and equal
b) like and unequal
c) unlike and equal
d) unlike and unequal
9)
Action of points is used in
a) dynamo
b) lightning conductor
c) Van de Graff generator
d) both (b) and (c)
10)
An example for polar molecule
a) N2
b) H2
c) H2O
d) O2
11)
Two charges 10-6 C and 10-7 C repel each other with a force of 400 N. The distance between the charges is
a) 0.15 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 1.5 m
-15
12)
If the distance between two protons in uranium atom is 9 X 10 m, then the mutual electric potential energy
between them
a) 9 X 10-14 J
b) 1.44 X 10-15 J
c) 2.56 X 10-14 J
d) 1.6 X 10-5 J
13)
If two identical point charges separated by 3m experience a force of 10 N,
then the value of each charge is
a) 10-1 C
b) 10 C
c) 1 C
d) 10-4 C
PUBLIC QUESTIONS(V V I )
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)

The unit of electric flux

a) Nm2C-1
b) Nm-2C-1
c) Nm2C
d) Nm-2C
The work done in moving 4 C charge from one point to another in an electric field is 0.012 J.
The potential difference between them is
a) 3000 V
b) 6000 V
c) 30 V
d) 48 X 103 V
Torque on a dipole in a uniform electric field is maximum when a angle between p and E is
a) 0o
b) 90o
c) 45o
d) 180o
Potential energy of two equal negative point charges of magnitude 2 C placed one meter apart in air is
a) 2 J
b) 0.36 J
c) 4 J
d) 0.036 J
The value of permittivity of free space is
a) 8.854 X 1012 C2 N-1m-2
b) 9X 109 C2 N-1m-2
c) 1 / 9 X 109 C2 N-1m-2
The principle used in lightning conductor is
a) corona discharge
b) mutual induction
c) self induction
The unit of electric field intensity is
a) N C-2
b) N C
c) V m-1
The unit of electric dipole moment is
a) V / m
b) C / m
c) V m
Electric potential energy of an electric dipole in electric field is given by
a) pE sin
b) - pE sin
c) -pE cos

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

d)

C2N-1m-2

d) electromagnetic induction
d) V m
d) C m
d) pE cos

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10)
11)

12)

13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)

29)
30)

Which of the following is not a dielectric?

a) ebonite
b) mica
c) oil
In the given circuit the effective capacitance between A and B will be

d) gold

a) 3 F
b) 36 / 13 F
c) 13 F
d) 7 F
The direction of electric field at a point on the equatorial line due to an electric dipole is
a) along the equatorial line towards the dipole
b) along the equatorial line away from the dipole
c) parallel to the axis of the dipole and opposite to the direction of dipole moment
d) parallel to the axis of the dipole and in the direction of dipole moment
The number of electric lines of force originating from a charge of 1 C is
a) 1.129 X 105
b) 1.6 X 10-19
c) 6.25 X 1018
d) 8.85 X 10-12
The equivalent capacitance of two capacitors in series is 1.5 F. The capacitance of one of them is 4 F. The value of
capacitance of the other is
a) 2.4 F
b) 0.24 F
c) 0.417 F
d) 4.17 F
The law that governs the force between electric charges is
a) Amperes law
b) Faradays law
c) Coulombs law
d) Ohms law
An electric dipole placed at an angle in a non uniform electric field experiences
a) neither a force nor a torque
b) torque only
c) both force and torque
d) force only
A capacitor of capacitance 6 F is connected to a 100 V battery. The energy stored in a capacitor
a) 30 J
b) 3 J
c) 0.03 J
d) 0.06 J
When an electric dipole of dipole moment p is aligned parallel to the electric field E then the potential; energy of the dipole
is given as
a) pE
b) zero
c) pE
d) pE / 2
Quantization of electric charge is given by
a) q = ne
b) q = CV
c) q = e / n
d) q = C / V
An example of conductor is
a) glass
b) human body
c) dry wood
d) ebonite
The unit of electric field intensity is
a) N C
b) N C-1
c) V m
d) N C-2
-10
The magnitude of the force acting on a charge of 2 X 10 C placed in a uniform electric field of 10 Vm-1 is
a) 2 X 10-9 N
b) 4 X 10-9 N
c) 2 X 10-10 N
d) 4 X 10-10 N
The torque experienced by an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field at an angle with the field is
a) pE cos
b) pE cos
c) pE sin
d) 2pE sin
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases from 5 F to 50 F when a dielectric is filled between the plates.
The permittivity of the dielectric is
a) 8.854 X 10-12 C2 N-1m-2
b) 8.854 X 10-11 C2 N-1m-2
c) 12
d) 10
The negative gradient of potential is
a) electric force
b) torque
c) electric current
d) electric field intensity
When a point charge of 6 C is moved between two points in an electric field, the work done is 1.8 X 10-5 J. The potential
difference between two points is
a) 1.08 V
b) 1.08 V
c) 3 V
d) 30 V
Three capacitors of capacitances 1 F, 2 F and 3 F are connected in series. The effective capacitance of the capacitors
is
a) 6 F
b) 11 / 6 F
c) 6 / 11 F
d) 1 / 6 F
An electric dipole of moment p is placed in uniform electric field of intensity E at an angle with respect to the field. The
direction of the torque is
a) along the direction of p
b) opposite to the direction of p
c) along the direction of E
d) perpendicular to the plane containing p and E
The electric field intensity at a distance r due to infinitely long straight charged wire is directly proportional to
a) r
b) 1 / r
c) r2
d) 1 / r2
The ratio of electric potential at points 10 cm and 20 cm from the centre of an electric dipole along its axial line is
a) 1 : 2
b) 2 : 1
c) 1 : 4
d) 4 : 1

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

Mob : 9994472749

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31)

The intensity of electric field at a point is equal to

a) the force experienced by a charge q
b) the work done in bringing unit positive charge from infinity to that point
c) the positive gradient of the potential
d) the negative gradient of the potential
32)
The capacitance of a capacitor is
a) directly proportional to the charge q given to it
b) inversely proportional to its potential V
c) directly proportional to the charge q and inversely proportional to the potential V
d) independent of both the charge q and potential V
33)
The intensity of the electric field that produces a force of 10-5 N on a charge of 5 C is
a) 5 X 10-11 NC-1
b) 50 NC-1
c) 2 NC-1
d) 0.5 NC-1
34)
The unit of the number of electric lines of force passing through a given area is
a) no unit
b) NC-1
c) Nm2C-1
d) Nm
35)
A dielectric medium is placed in an electric field Eo . The field induced inside the medium
a) acts in the direction of the electric field Eo
b) acts opposite to Eo
c) acts perpendicular to Eo
d) is zero
36)
A non polar dielectric is placed in an electric field ( E ). Its induced dipole moment
a) is zero
b) acts in the direction of E
c) acts opposite to the direction of E
d) acts perpendicular to E
37)
n capacitors each of capacitance C are connected in series. The effective capacitance is
a) n / C
b) C / n
c) nC
d) C
38)
When the charge given to a capacitor is doubled, its capacitance
a) increases twice
b) decreases twice
c) increases four times
d) does not change
39)
The value of relative permittivity of air is
a) 8.854 X 10-12 C2N-1m-2
b) 9 X 109 C2N-1m-2
c) 1
d) 8.854 X 1012
40)
The unit of relative permittivity is
a) C2N-1m-2
b) Nm2C-2
c) no unit
d) NC-2m-2
41)
The electric field intensity at a short distance r from uniformly charged infinite plane sheet of charge is
a) proportional to r
b) proportional to 1 / r
c) proportional to 1 / r2
d) independent of r
42)
Two point charges +q and -q are placed at points A and B respectively separated by a small distance. The electric field
intensity at the midpoint O of AB
a) is zero
b) acts along AB
c) acts along BA
d) acts perpendicular to AB
43)
An electric dipole of dipole moment p is kept parallel to an electric field intensity E. The work done in rotating the dipole
through an angle of 90 is
a) zero
b) pE
c) pE
d) 2pE
44)
The total flux over a closed surface enclosing a charge q ( in Nm2C-1)
a) 8q
b) 9 X 109 q
c) 36 X109 q
d) 8.854 X 10-12 q
45)
The repulsive force between two like charges of 1 coulomb each separated by a distance of 1m in vacuum is equal to
a) 9 X 109 N
b)109 N
c) 9 X 10-9 N
d) 9 N
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)
Two capacitors of 20 F and 35 F are charged to a potential of 120 V each. When they are connected in parallel, the
potential across them is
a) 60 V each
b)100 V each
c) 120 V each
d) 240 V each
2)
The component used in tuning the radio circuit is
a)resistors
b) capacitors
c) transistors
d) diodes
3)
The equivalent capacitance of (n + 1 ) identical capacitors connected in series is
a) (n + 1 ) C
b) 1 / (n + 1) C
c) (n + 1) / C
d) C / (n + 1)
4)
In a hydrogen atom, the electron and proton are bound together at a separation of about 0.53 . If the potential energy is
zero at infinite separation, then the potential energy of the electron proton system is ____________
a) 54. 4 eV
b) 27.2 eV
c) 13.6 eV
d) zero
5)
The meaning of the Greek word electron is ______________
a) electricity
b) Charge
c) amber
d) glass
6)
The property of attraction and repulsion between charged bodies is not used in ________
a) fly ash collection in Chimneys
b) ink jet printing
c) Xerox machine
d)Cordless phone
7)
The electric field inside an electrostatic shielding is ____________
a) E = 0
b) infinity
c) E = q / 40 r2
d) q / 40 R2
8)
The angle between the direction of electric field and an equipotential surface is ________
a)zero
b)900
c) 1800
d) 600

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

Mob : 9994472749

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9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)

The induced dipole moment is given as ______________

a) P = E
b) P = / E
c) P = E
d) P =
The working principle of Van de Graff generator is ____________
a)action of points
b) electrostatic induction
c) action of points and electrostatic induction
d) None of these
If the distance between two charges is doubled the electrostatic force between the charges will be _____________
a)four times more b) four times less
c) will increase two times
d) will decrease two times
If a proton is moved against the coulomb force of an electric field __________
a) work is done by the electric field
b)energy is used from some outside source
c) the strength of the field is decreased
d) the energy of the system is decreased
If two capacitors of capacitance 2 F and 6 F are put in series, the effective capacitance of the system is
2

d) F
a) 8 F
b) 2 F
c) F
3
The tangent to the electric line of force at any point gives ____________
a)the potential at that point
b) the strength of electric field
c)the direction electric field at that point
d) magnetic line
The electric potential at infinity from a point charge q is ______________
a)zero
b)infinity
c) 2q
d) q/2
The potential energy of a system of charges 3C and 3C separated by a distance of 9 m is ________
a) 3 x 109 Joules
b) 9 x 109 Joules
c)27 x 109 Joules
d) 1/9 x 109 Joules
The electric potential at any point on the equatorial line of a dipole is _________
a)zero
b)infinity
c) P/40 r
d) P / 40 r3
In a circular plate the charges accumulate at __________
a)the center
b) at the surface area
c) at the edges
d)entire surface including edges.
The working principle of electrophorus is ____________
a) Self induction
b) Mutual induction
c) electrostatic induction d) electromagnetic induction
The total flux over a closed surface enclosing a charge q is __________
a) 9 x 109 q
b) 4q
c) 36 q
d) 36 x 109 q
The work done in moving a unit +ve charge in a uniform electric field is ____________
a)infinity
b) maximum
c) minimum
d) zero
The electric potential at a point due to a charge of 100 micro coulomb at a distance of 9 metres is ____________
a) 9 V
b) 100 V
c) 100 micro volt
d) 10 5 V

THREE MARKS
VVI
1)
State Coulombs law in electrostatics
2)Define 1 coulomb on the basis of Coulombs law
3)
Define electric field intensity. Give its unit
4)What is an electric dipole? Define electric dipole moment
5)
Define electric flux. Give its unit
6)
Why is safer to be inside a car than standing under a tree during lightning?
7)
State Gauss law in electrostatics
8) What are the applications of capacitor?
9)
Distinguish between electric potential and potential difference
IMPORTANT
1)
3)
5)
7)

Define the unit of potential difference

What is electrostatic induction?
Define the unit of capacitance
What is polar molecule? Give two examples

2) What is an equipotential surface?

4) What is a capacitor? Define its capacitance
6) What is meant by dielectric polarization?
8) What is non - polar molecule? Give two examples

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)
3)
4)

Distinguish between conductors and insulators. Give examples

What is permittivity and relative permittivity? How are they related?
What does an electric dipole experience when kept in uniform electric field and non- uniform electric field?
Write a note on microwave oven

PUBLIC PROBLEMS (IMPORTANT)

1)

Three capacitors each of capacitance 9 pF are connected in series. What is the total capacitance of the combination?

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

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2)

Calculate the effective capacitance of the combination shown in the figure

3)

Calculate the potential at a point due to a charge of 4 X 10-7 C located at 0.09 m away from it
FIVE MARKS

VVI
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)

Obtain an expression for electric field at a point due to a point charge

Write the properties of electric lines of force
Derive an expression for the torque acting on the electric dipole when placed in the electric field
Obtain an expression for the electric potential due to point charge
Deduce the expression for the capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor
Prove that the energy stored in parallel plate capacitors is q2 / 2C

IMPORTANT
1)
2)

Obtain an expression for the electric potential energy of an electric dipole in an electric field
Obtain an expression for electrostatic potential energy for the system of two point charges

ADDITIONAL
1)

What is a dielectric? Explain the effect of introducing a dielectric slab between the plates of parallel plate capacitor

PUBLIC PROBLEMS(IMPORTANT )
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)

A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area 200 cm2 and separation between the plates is 1 mm. Calculate
(i) the potential difference between the plates if 1 nC charge is given to the capacitor. (Ii) With the same charge if the plate
separation is increased to 2 mm, what is the new potential difference and (iii) the electric field between the plates?
Three capacitors each of capacitance 9 pF are connected in series. (i) What is the total capacitance of the combination?
(ii) what is the potential difference across each capacitor if the combination is connected to 120 Vsupply ?
Two capacitors of capacitances 0.5 F and 0.75 F are connected in parallel and the combination to a 110 V
battery. Calculate the charge from the source and charge on each capacitor
A square of side 1.3 m has charges + 12 nC, - 24 nC, + 31 nC and + 17 nC as its corners. Calculate the electric
potential at the centre of the square
Two positive charges of 12 C and 8 C respectively are 10 cm apart. Find the work done in bringing those 4 cm
closer, so that they are 6 cm apart
Two capacitors of unknown capacitances are connected in series and parallel. If the net capacitances in the
two combinations are 6 F and 25 F respectively. Find their capacitances
The plates of the parallel plate capacitor have an area of 90 cm2 each and are separated by 2.5 mm.
The capacitor is charged by connecting it to a 400 V supply. How much electrostatic energy is stored by the capacitor?
Three charges - 2 X 10-9 C, + 3 X 10-9 C and 4 X 10-9 C are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side
20 cm. Calculate the work done in shifting the charges from A , B and C to A1, B1 and C1 respectively. Which are the mid
points of the sides of triangle?

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

Mob : 9994472749

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TEN MARKS
VVI
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)

What is an electric dipole? Derive an expression for the electric field due to an electric dipole at a point on its axial line
Derive an expression for the electric field due to an electric dipole at a point on its equatorial line
Derive an expression for the electric potential due to electric dipole. Discuss the possible cases
State the principle and explain the construction and working of Van de Graaff generator
Deduce the expression for the equivalent capacitance of capacitors connected in series and parallel
State Gausss law. Applying this, calculate electric field due to i) an infinitely long straight charged wire with uniform
charge density ii) an infinite plane sheet of charge

ADDITIONAL
1)

Explain the principle of capacitor. Deduce an expression for the capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor.

2. CURRENT ELECTRICITY
ONE MARKS BOOK BACK( V V I )
2.1
2.2
2.3

2.4
2.5
2.6
2.7
2.8
2.9
2.10

A charge of 60 C passes through an electric lamp in 2 minutes. Then the current in the lamp is
(a) 30 A
(b) 1 A
(c) 0.5 A
(d) 5 A
The material through which electric charge can flow easily is
(a) quartz
(b) mica
(c) germanium
(d) copper
The current flowing in a conductor is proportional to
(a) drift velocity
(b) 1/ area of cross section
(c) 1/no of electrons
(d) square of area of cross section.
A toaster operating at 240V has a resistance of 120. The power is
(a) 400 W
(b) 2 W
(c) 480 W
(d) 240 W
If the length of a copper wire has a certain resistance R, then on doubling the length its specific resistance
(a) will be doubled
(b) will become 1/4th
(c) will become 4 times
(d) will remain the same.
When two 2 resistances are in parallel, the effective resistance is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 0.5
In the case of insulators, as the temperature decreases, resistivity
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) becomes zero
If the resistance of a coil is 2 at 0oc and = 0.004 /oC, then its resistance at 100o C is
(a) 1.4
(b) 0
(c) 4
(d) 2.8
According to Faradays law of electrolysis, when a current is passed, the mass of ions deposited at the cathode is
independent of
(a) current
(b) charge
(c) time
(d) resistance
When n resistors of equal resistances (R) are connected in series, the effective resistance is
(a) n/R
(b) R/n
(c) 1/nR
(d) nR

PTA QUESTIONS(IMPORTANT)
1)
2)
3)
4)

The external energy necessary to drive the free electrons in a definite

a) current
b) resistance
c) emf
Force experienced by a free electron in an electric field E is
a) Ee
b) E / e
c) e / E
The unit of mobility is
a) m2V1s-1
b) m2V-1s-1
c) m-2V-1s-1
Drift velocity of electrons is of the order of
a) 0.2 cm s-1
b) 0.1 cm s-1
c) 0.1 m s-1

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

direction is called

d) power
d) Ee2
d) m2V-1s-2
d) 1 cm s-1

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5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)

The unit of conductance is

a) ohm m-1
b) mho m
c) ohm m
d) mho
The unit of resistivity is
a) ohm m-1
b) mho m
c) ohm m
d) mho
Resistivity of mercury is zero at
a) 2.4 K
b) 4.2 oC
c) 4 .2 K
d) 2.4 oC
At the transition temperature the electrical conductivity becomes
a) zero
b) infinity
c) minimum
d) none of these
The tolerance carbon resistors without a colour ring is
a) 20 %
b) 10 %
c) 2 %
d) 25 %
If the resistance of a material increases with increase in temperature then its temperature coefficient of resistance
a) zero
b) negative
c) positive
d) none of these
A material with negative temperature coefficient of resistance is called
a) metal
b) alloy
c) thermistor
d) thermometer
Due to ageing, the internal resistance of a cell is
a) increases
b) decreases
c) doesnt change
d) becomes zero
One kilo watt hour is equal to
a) 3.6 X 105 J
b) 0.36 X 105 J
c) 36 X 105 J
d) 36 X 103 J
Unit of electrochemical equivalent is
a) C kg-1
b) kg C
c) kg C-2
d) kg C-1
Electrolyte used in lead acid accumulator is
a) lead acid
b) HCl
c) dil. H2SO4
d) HNO3
The number of electrons flowing per second through a conductor, when a current of 3.2 A flows through it is
a) 2 X 1019
b) 3 X 1018
c) 6.25 X 1018
d) 6.25 X 1019
A 750 W power iron box is used for 4 hours. If the cost per unit is 75 paise, the total expense is
a) Rs. 22.50
b) Rs. 5.25
c) Rs.2.25
d) Rs.3.00
The value of carbon resistor with the colour code of yellow, violet and orange is
a) 37 k
b) 4.7 k
c) 47 k
d) 3.7 k

PUBLIC QUESTIONS( V V I )
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)

Resistance of a metal wire of length 10 cm is 2 . If the wire is stretched uniformly to 50 cm, the resistance is
a) 25
b) 10
c) 5
d) 50
The colour code on a carbon resistor is red red black. The resistance of the resistor is
a) 2.2
b) 22
c) 220
d) 2.2 k
The brown ring at one end of a carbon resistor indicates a tolerance
a) 1 %
b) 2 %
c) 5 %
d) 10 %
The unit of conductivity is
a) mho
b) ohm
c) ohm m
d) mho m-1
The transition temperature of mercury is
a) 4.2 oC
b) 4.2 K
c) 2.4 oC
d) 2.4 K
The relation between current and drift velocity is
a) I = n A Vd / e
b) I = n A Vd e
c) I = n e Vd / A
d) I = n A Vd E
When the diameter of a conductor is doubled, its resistance
a) decreases twice
b) decreases four times c) decreases sixteen times
d) increases four times
A cell of emf 2.2 V sends a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 . The internal resistance of the cell is
a) 0.1
b) 1
c) 2
d) 1.33
The electrical resistivity of a thin copper wire and a thick copper rod are respectively 1 m and 2 m. Then
a)1>2

b) 2 > 1

c) 1= 2

d)1 /2 =

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)
2)

The value of the carbon resistor whose colours are red, green, yellow is ________
a) 250
b) 230
c) 230 K
d) 250 K
The amount of charge in a metallic wire is 5 x 107C. If the current density in the wire is 3 x 105 C ,
the drift velocity of the electron is ____________
a) 1.67 x 102 ms-1
b) 6 x 10 3 ms-1
c) 6 x 10 -3 ms-1
d) 3 x 10 13 ms-1

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3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)

21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)

The potential developed between two ends of conductor is 25 volts. 2A current flows through it.
The conductance of the conductor is ____________
a) 80 mho
b) 80 milli mho
c) 80 micro mho
d) 40 mho
A resistance wire is cut into 4 equal parts and all the four parts are connected in parallel.
The ratio of the effective resistance to the original resistance is ________
a) 1 : 2
b) 2 : 1
c) 4 : 1
d) 1 : 4
0
0
The resistance of a conductor is 5 at 50 C and 6 at 100 C. Then the resistance at 00 C is ____________
a) 0
b) 3.5
c) 4
d) 8
The current always flow from _________
a) Positive to negative
b) Negative to positive
c) Zero potential to zero potential
d) Positive to positive
The external energy necessary to drive the electrons in a definite direction is called _____
a) Force
b) Electromotive force c) Potential difference
d) Current
The current i is expressed as ___________
a)i = q x t
b) i = q / t
c) i = t / q
d) i = 1 / qt
Ohms law is true only when _____________
a)temperature increases
b) temperature decreases
c)temperature neither increases nor decreases
d) temperature increases and decreases
The conductivity of super conductors is ____________
a)zero
b) very low
c) infinity
d) very high
The super conducting transition temperature of mercury is _______________
a) 4.20C
b) 268.80C
c) -268.80C
d) 00C
Current in a super conducting wire can flow __________
a)without change in magnitude
b) without change in magnitude and direction
c)with the change in magnitude
d) with the change in energy
The silver or gold ring on a carbon resistor corresponds to ________
a)first number
b) second number
c) powers of 10
d) tolerance
The grey colour ring on a carbon resistor corresponds to ___________________
a)1
b) 2
c) 9
d) 8
The blue colour ring on a carbon resistor corresponds to ________________
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
The tolerance of silver ring is _____________
a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 5%
d) 10%
In the parallel combination of resistors ___________ is the same.
a)current
b) potential difference c) resistance
d) all the three
Thermistor is a material with ___________ temperature coefficient of resistance
a)low and +ve
b) high and +ve
c) negative
d)
The bridge wire in metre bridge is made up of __________
a) Steel
b) Copper
c) Nichrome
d) Manganin
The emf is ______________
a. directly proportional to the resistance in the external circuit
b. inversely proportional to the resistance in the external circuit
c. independent of the resistance in the external circuit
d. is a force
The instrument used to measure electric power is _______________________
a) Ammeter
b) Multimeter
c) Wattmeter
d) Voltmeter
Mass of the substance liberated at an electrode during electrolysis is ___________
a)m = z i2 t
b) m = z2 i t
c) m = z i t
d) m = z i t2
Primary cell is a device which converts ____________
a)electrical energy into chemical energy
b) chemical energy into electrical energy
c)chemical energy into kinetic energy
d) heat energy into electrical energy
The anode in Daniel cell is ____________
a)zinc rod
b) copper rod
c) copper vessel
d) glass vessel
The anode in Lechlanche cell is ____________
a)zinc rod
b) copper electrode
c) copper vessel
d) carbon rod
The current from Lechanche cell is ____________________
a) 1 A
b) 0.5 A
c) 2 A
d) 0.25 A

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27)
28)

The cathode in Lead acid accumulator is _______________

a) PbO2
b) spongy lead
c) carbon plate
The specific gravity of the electrolyte in Lead Acid accumulator __________
a) 1.2
b) 1.284
c) 1.28

d) copper plate
d)1.82

THREE MARKS
VVI
1)
Define drift velocity. Give its unit
2)Define mobility of electrons. Give its unit
3)
Define current density. Give its unit
4)State Ohms law
5)
Name three changes observed in transition temperature
6)State Kirchoffs first law
7)
State Kirchoffs second law
8)
Distinguish between electric power and electric energy
9)
State Faradays laws of electrolysis
10)
Distinguish between emf and potential difference
11)
Define temperature co - efficient of resistance
12)
Mention any three applications of secondary cells
IMPORTANT
1)
3)

Define resistivity of a material. Give its unit

Define electric current. Give its unit

2)
4)

Define critical temperature in superconductors

Why is copper wire not suitable for potentiometer?

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)
3)

Distinguish between primary cells and secondary cells

Why automobile batteries have low internal resistance.
The colours of carbon resistor are orange, orange, orange. What is the value of resistor?

PUBLIC PROBLEMS(IMPORTANT)
1)

In the following circuit, calculate the current through the circuit. Mention its direction

2)
3)

A manganin wire of length 2 m has a diameter of 0.4 mm with a resistance of 70 . Find the resistivity of the material
Three resistors are connected in series with 10 V supply as shown in the figure. Find the voltage drop across each
resistor

4)

The resistance of a platinum wire at 0 oC is 4 . What will be the resistance of the wire at 100 oC if the temperature
coefficient of resistance of platinum is 0.0038 /oC
The resistance of a nichrome wire at 0 oC is 10 . If is temperature coefficient of resistance is 0.004 /oC, find its resistance
at boiling point of water. Comment on the result
Two wires of small material and length have resistances 5 and 10 respectively. Find the ratio of radii of two wires
If 6.25 X 1018 electrons flow through a given cross section of a conductor in unit time, find the current

5)
6)
7)

10

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8)

In the given circuit what are the total resistance and current supplied by the battery?

9)

Find the magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit

10)

From the following network find the effective resistance between A and B

FIVE MARKS( V V I )
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)

Distinguish between drift velocity and mobility. Establish a relation between drift velocity and current
List some applications of superconductors
Explain the effective resistance of a series network
Explain the effective resistance of a parallel network
Explain the determination of internal resistance of a cell using voltmeter
Obtain the condition for zero deflection in Wheat stones network
State and verify Faradays first law of electrolysis
State and verify Faradays second law of electrolysis

IMPORTANT
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Explain the principle of a potentiometer.

How can emf of two cells be compared using potentiometer?
Explain the reactions at the electrodes of Daniel cell
Explain the reactions at the electrodes of Leclanche cell
Explain the flow of charges in metallic conductor

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)

Describe an experiment to find unknown resistance and temperature coefficient of resistance using meter Bridge
Explain the action of the lead acid accumulator

PUBLIC PROBLEMS(IMPORTANT)
1)

11

In the given network calculate the effective resistance between points A & B

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2)
3)
4)

5)
6)
7)
8)
9)

The effective resistances are 10 , 2.4 when they are connected in series and parallel respectively. What are the
resistances of individual resistors?
A copper wire of 10-6 m2 area of cross section, carries a current of 2 A. If the number of electrons per cubic meter is
8 X 1028. Calculate the current density and average drift velocity.
Three resistors are connected in series with 10 V supply as shown in the figure. Find the voltage drop across each other

What is the drift velocity of an electron in a copper conductor having area 10 X 10 -6 m2, carrying a current of 2 A. Assume
that there are 10 X 1028 electrons / m3
Find the current flowing across three resistors 3 , 5 , and 2 connected in parallel to a 15 V supply. Also find the
effective resistance and total current drawn from the supply.
In a meter bridge, the balancing length for a 10 resistance in left gap is 51.8 cm. Find the unknown resistance and
specific resistance of a wire of length 108 cm and radius 0.2 mm.
An iron box of power 400 W is used daily for 30 minutes. If the cost per unit is 75 paise, find the weekly expense on using
the iron box
The resistance of a field coil measures 50 at 20C and 65 at70C. Find the temperature coefficient of resistance.

3. EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

ONE MARKS BOOK BACK (V V I )
3.1

Joules law of heating is

I2

3.5

(b) H = V2 Rt
(c) H = VIt
(d) H = IR2t
(a) H =
Rt
Nichrome wire is used as the heating element because it has
(a) low specific resistance
(b) low melting point
(c) high specific resistance
(d) high conductivity
Peltier coefficient at a junction of a thermocouple depends on
(a) the current in the thermocouple
(b) the time for which current flows
(c ) the temperature of the junction
(d) the charge that passes through the thermocouple
In a thermocouple, the temperature of the cold junction is 20oC, the neutral temperature is 270C.
The temperature of inversion is
(a) 520C
(b) 540C
(c) 500C
(d) 510C
Which of the following equations represents Biot-savart law?

3.6

(a) = 0 2
(b) = 0
(c) = 0
(d) =
4
2
4
4 2

Magnetic induction due to an infinitely long straight conductor placed in a medium of permeability is

3.2
3.3
3.4

(a)

0 I

4a

12

(b)

0 I

2a

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(c)

I
4a

(d)

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3.7
3.8
3.9
3.10
3.11
3.12

3.13

In a tangent galvanometer, for a constant current, the deflection is 30o. The plane of the coil is rotated through 900. Now,
for the same current, the deflection will be
(a) 300
(b) 600
(c) 900
(d) 00
The period of revolution of a charged particle inside a cyclotron does not depend on
(a) the magnetic induction
(b) the charge of the particle
(c) the velocity of the particle
(d) the mass of the particle
The torque on a rectangular coil placed in a uniform magnetic field is large, when
(a) the number of turns is large
(b) the number of turns is less
(c) the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the field
(d) the area of the coil is small
Phosphor bronze wire is used for suspension in a moving coil galvanometer, because it has
(a) high conductivity
(b) high resistivity`
(c) large couple per unit twist
(d) small couple per unit twist
Of the following devices, which has small resistance?
(a) moving coil galvanometer
(b) ammeter of range 0 1A
(c) ammeter of range 010 A
(d) voltmeter
A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted with S .The effective resistance of the combination is Ra.
Then, which of the following statements is true?
(a) G is less than S
(b) S is less than Ra but greater than G.
(c) Ra is less than both G and S
(d) S is less than both G and Ra
An ideal voltmeter has
(a) zero resistance
(b) finite resistance less than G but greater than Zero
(c) resistance greater than G but less than infinity
(d) infinite resistance

PTA QUESTIONS(IMPORTANT )
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.

13

Nicrome is used as the heating element, because ---------(a) it has high specific resistance (b) it has high melting point
c) it is not easily oxidized (d) all the above
Fuse wire is an alloy of --------------(a) 37%Pb & 63% Sn
(b) 63%Pb & 36% Sn
(c) 73Pb & 27% Sn
(d) 37%Sb & 63% Sn
Melting point of tungsten is---------------(a)3380C
(b) 3380 K
(c) 380C
(d) 380 K
Filament of an electrical bulb is usually enclosed in a glass bulb containing -------(a) inert gas at high pressure
(b) inert gas at low pressure
(c) ideal gas at high pressure
(d) ideal gas at low pressure
In which of the following, Joule heating effect is undesirable?
(a)electric iron
(b) electric toaster
(c) transformer and dynamos
(d) fuse wire
Which of the following is not a thermo emf effect?
(a) Peltier effect
(b) Thomson effect
(c) Joule effect
(d) Seebeck effect
In a Cu-Fe thermocouple, the direction of the current at the hot junction is--------(a) from Cu to Fe
(b) from Fe to Cu
(c) either (a) or (b) depending on temperature of hot junction
(d) random direction
For a given thermocouple, the neutral temperature is ----------(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) a constant
Electric filament lamp is working on the basis of ------(a) Joule heating effect
(b) Peltier effect
(c) Thomson effect
(d) Seebeck effect
An example for positive Thomson metal is----------(a) iron
(b) cobalt
(c) copper
(d) nickel
The device thermopile is based on-----------(a) Joule effect
(b) Peltier effect
(c) Thomson effect
(d) Seebeck effect
In a thermopile, the deflection in the galvanometer is proportional to ----------(a) intensity
(b) frequency
(c) velocity
(d) energy
Magnitude and direction of Lorentz force is given by the expression
(b) =q( x )
(c) F=B(v x B)
(d) F=v2(q x B)
a) F=v(qx B)
6
An electron is moving with a velocity of 3 x10 m / s perpendicular to the magnetic field of 0.5T, and then the force
experienced by the electron is
(a) 24 x 10-11N
(b) 2.4 x 10-13N
(c) 13.6 x 10-27N
(d) 13.6 x 10-11N

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15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.

An particle with (e/m) ratio 4.8 x 107CKg-1 travels in a circular path of radius 0.45m in a magnetic field of 1.2 T,
then the speed of the particle is
(a) 2.6 x 104m/s
(b) 2.6 x 105m/s
(c) 2.6 x 107m/s
d) 1.3 x 107m/s
Period of revolution of a charged particle inside a cyclotron does not depend on
(a) the magnetic induction
(b) the charge of the particle
(c) the velocity of the particle
(d) the mass of the particle
Work done by a Lorentz force is
(a) zero when = 90
(b) zero when = 45
(c)always zero
(d) maximum = 90
Two parallel straight conductors carrying currents in the same direction
(a) repel each other
(b) attract each other
(c) do not experience any force
(d) experience a maximum force
Direction of a force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by
(a) Flemings left hand rule
(b) Flemings right hand rule
(c) end rule
(d) Ampere-circuital law
A current of 2A flows through two long straight parallel conductors separated by a distance of 10cm.
The force per unit length on each conductor is
(a) 0.0458 N
(b) 8 x 10-4N
(c) 8 x 10-5N
(d) 8 x 10-6N
The coil in moving coil galvanometer is suspended by a
(a) aluminium wire
(b) copper wire
(c) iron wire
(d) phosphor-bronze wire
Suspended coil galvanometer can measure current of the order of
(a) 10-6A
(b) 10-8A
(c) 106A
(d) 108A
An ideal ammeter is one which has
(a) zero resistance
(b) high resistance
(c) high resistance in parallel
(d) high resistance in series
Phosphour-bronze wire is used for suspension in a moving coil galvanometer, because it has
(a) high conductivity
(b) high resistivity (c) large couple per unit twist
(d) small couple per unit twist
A galvanometer of resistance of 50 ohm is shunted with a wire of 10 ohm. The current through the galvanometer when the
current in the circuit is 12A is
(a) 3A
(b) 2A
(c) 5A
(d) 6A
The value of gyromagnetic ratio is
(a) 8.8 x 109 C/Kg
(b) 8.8 x 1010 C/Kg
(c) 8.8 x 10-9 C/Kg
(d) 8.8 x 10-9 C/Kg

PUBLIC QUESTIONS( V V I)
1)
The unit of reduction factor of tangent galvanometer is
a) no unit
b) tesla
c) ampere
d) ampere / degree
2)
A galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter by connecting a
a) low resistance in series
b) high resistance in parallel
c) high resistance in series
d) low resistance in parallel
3)
In a thermocouple, the temperature of the cold junction is 200C, the inversion temperature is 6000C,
then the neutral temperature is
a) 3100C
b) 3200C
c) 3000C
d) 3150C
4)
In a tangent galvanometer a current 1 A, produces a deflection of 300. The current required to produce a deflection
of 600 is
a) 3 A
b) 2 A
c) 3 A
d) 1 / 3A
5)
Peltier effect is the converse of
a) Joules effect
b) Ramans effect
c) Seebeck effect
d) Thomson effect
6)
The torque experienced by a rectangular current loop placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field is
a) maximum
b) zero
c) finite minimum
d) infinity
7)
In which of the following pairs of metals of the thermocouple the e.m.f is maximum?
a) Fe Cu
b) Cu Zn
c) Pt Ag
d) Sb Bi
8)
Which of the following principle is used in a thermopile?
a) Thomson effect
b) Peltier effect
c) Seebeck effect
d) Joules effect
9)
Fuse wire is an alloy of
a) Lead and Tin
b) Tin and Copper
c) Lead and Copper
d) Lead and Iron
10)
Thermopile is used to
a) measure temperature b) measure current
c) detect thermal radiation
d) measure pressure
11)
The resistance of the filament of a 110 W, 220 V electric bulb is
a) 440
b) 220
c) 484
d) 848
12)
Unit of Peltier coefficient is
a) ohm
b) mho
c) volt
d) ampere

14

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13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)

For a given thermocouple the neutral temperature

a) depends upon the temperature of cold junction
b) depends upon the temperature of hot junction
c) is a constant
d) depends upon the temperature of cold junction and the temperature of hot junction
When the number of turns in a galvanometer is doubled, current sensitivity
a) remains constant
b) decreases twice
c) increases twice
d) increases four times
An electron is moving with a velocity of 3 X 106 ms-1 perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.5 T.
The force experienced by the electron
a) 2.4 X 10-13 N
b) 13.6 X 10-27 N
c) 13.6 X 10-11 N
d) zero
Fuse wire
a) is an alloy of lead and copper
b) has low resistance
c) has high resistance
d) has high melting point
In a thermocouple, the temperature of the cold junction is - 300C, and the neutral temperature is 270 0C.
The temperature of inversion is
a) 5200C
b) 5400C
c) 5000C
d) 570 0C
Which of the following produces large Joule heating effect?
a) 1 A current through 2 resistor for 3 second
b) 1 A current through 3 resistor for 2 second
c) 2 A current through 1 resistor for 2 second
d) 3 A current through 1 resistor for 1 second
Nicrome is used as the heating element, because it has ---------(a) low specific resistance (b) low melting point
c) high specific resistance
(d) high conductivity
In the experiment to verify Joules law when the current passed through the circuit is doubled keeping resistance ( R ) and
time of passage of current ( t ) constant. Temperature of the liquid
a) increases twice
b) increases four times c) increases sixteen times
d) decreases four times
AB is rod of lead. The end A is heated. A current I is allowed to flow along AB. Now due to Thomson effect in rod AB
a) heat is absorbed
b) heat is liberated
c) heat is neither absorbed nor liberated
d) heat is first absorbed and then liberated

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)
2)
3)
4)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)

15

The magnetic induction at the center of a coil of 250 turns, radius 0.25m and carrying a current of 6A is
(a) 12 x 10-4 T
(b)3.768 x 10-4 T
(c)12 x 10-3 T
(d)37.68 x 10-3 T
o
AT.G. gives a deflection of 45 when a current of 2A flows through it. Then the deflection of 60o produced a current of
(a) 35mA
(b) 350 mA
(c) 3.7A
(d)3.5A
When the charge is at rest, then the magnetic Lorentz force is ..
(a)minimum
(b)maximum
(c)zero
(d)infinity
Two wires each carrying a current of 600A in the same direction are placed with their axes 0.3 m apart.
The force between them per metre length is
(a) 24 N
(b)0.24 N
(c)240 N
(d)2.4N
The number of turns of a coil of radius 20 cm required to produce a magnetic field of 5 x 10-4 T at the center with a
current of 5A is .
(a) 50
(b)25
(c) 500
(d) 100
The heating element in electric iron is made up of
(a)manganin
(b)copper
(c)steel
(d) nichrome
In which one of the following the heat production is minimized ?
(a)electric iron
(b)electric bulb
(c)transformer
(d)electric oven
In a Fe-Cu thermocouple the direction of current is
(a)iron to copper at the cold junction
(b)iron to copper at the hot junction
(c) clockwise
(d)anticlock wise
Beyond the temperature of inversion the thermo emf .
(a)invreases
(b)changes its sign and increases
(c)does not increase
(d)neither increases nor decreases
The deflection in the galvanometer of a thermopile is proportional to .
(a)frequency of radiation (b)wavelength of radiation
(c)velocity of radiation
(d)intensity of radiation
The unit of magnetic induction is ..
(a) Weber
(b)Weber m
(c)Weber m-2
(d)Ampere m
The magnetic polarity of the current carrying solenoid is givent by .
(a)Flemings left hand rule
(b)Maxwells cork screw rule
(c)End rule
(d)Right hand palm rule
If the coil is parallel to the magnetic field the torque is
(a)zero,
(b)minimum
(c) maximum
(d)infinity

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15)

If the number of turns in a galvanometer is doubled ..

(a) the current sensitivity is halved
(b)the voltage sensitivity is halved
(c)voltage sensitivity remain unchanged
(d)the voltage sensitivity is doubled
Positive charges will always move from ..
(a)higher potential to lower poterntial,
(b)lower poterntial to higher potential
(c)zero poterntial to higher potential
(d)zero potential to lower potential
In a thermocouple the emf produced at neutral termperature is
(a)zero
(b)maximum
(c)minimum
(d)infinity
For which of the following Thomson effect is negative ?
(a)Sb
(b)Zn
(c)Co
(d)Cu
Which law is used to calculate the magnetic induction due to current carrying conductor ?
(a)Kirchoffs law
(b)Gauss law
(c)Biot-Savart law
(d)Amperes law
The working principle of a moving coil galvanometer is ..
(a) Flemings left hand rule
(b)Flemings right hand rule
(c) Amperes swimming rule
(d)Right cork screw rule
In a moving coil galvanometer the deflection is
(a)directly proportional to the current
(b) inversely proportional to the current
(c)directly proportional to I2
(d) inversely proportional to I2
Shunt is a resistance of .
(a) low value connected in a series with galvanometer
(b) high value connected in parallel with galvanometer
(c) high value connected to series with galvanometer
(d) low value connected in parallel with galvanometer
As the range of voltmeter increases the value of resistance in series
(a) increases
(b)decreases
(c)remains the same
(d)becomes zero
The unit of galvanometer constant
(a) ampere
(b) degree
(c) ampere / degree
(d) no unit

16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)

THREE MARKS
VVI
1)
State Joules law
2)Why nichrome is used as heating element in heating devices?
3)
Define Peltier co efficient. Give its unit
4)Define Thomson co efficient. Give its unit
5)
State tangent law
6)What is Amperes circuital law?
7)
State Flemings left hand rule
8)Define ampere
9)
How is galvanometer converted into i) ammeter and ii) voltmeter
10)
Write the limitations of a cyclotron
IMPORTANT
1)
2)

How is the current sensitivity of a galvanometer increased?

State Maxwells right hand cork screw rule
3)State Biot Savart law

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)
4)

In a galvanometer, increasing the current sensitivity does not necessarily increase the voltage sensitivity. Explain
What is neutral temperature of a thermocouple?
3)Define temperature of inversion
State end rule

PUBLIC PROBLEMS(IMPORTANT)
1)
2)

Calculate the resistance of the filament of 100 W, 220 V electric bulb.

A conductor of length 50 cm carrying a current of 5A is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of induction 2 10-3 T.
Find the force on the conductor.
FIVE MARKS

VVI
1)
State and explain Biot Savart law.
2)
Deduce an expression for the magnetic Lorentz force acting on a charged particle
3)
Explain how will you convert a galvanometer into an ammeter
4)
Explain how will you convert a galvanometer into an voltmeter

16

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ADDITIONAL
1)

Explain current loop as a magnetic dipole

PUBLIC PROBLEMS (IMPORTANT )

1)

A circular coil of radius 20 cm has 100 turns of wire and it carries a current of 5 A. Find the magnetic induction at appoint
along its axis at a distance of 20 cm from the center of the coil
A rectangular coil of 500 turns and area 6 X 10-4 m2 is suspended inside a radial magnetic field of induction 10-4 Tby a
suspension wire of torsional constant 5 X 10-10 Nm per degree. Calculate the current required to produce deflection of 100
A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 20 produces full scale deflection for a current of 50 mA. How will you
convert galvanometer into i) an ammeter of range 20 A and ii) a voltmeter of range 120 volt?
A long straight wire carrying current produces a magnetic induction of 4 X 10-6 T at a point 15 cm from the wire.
Calculate the current through the wire
In a hydrogen atom electron moves in an orbit of radius 0.5 Ao making 1016 revolutions per second. Determine the
magnetic moment associated with orbital motion of the electron
Two parallel wires each of length 5 m are placed at a distance of 10 cm apart in air. They carry equal currents alongthe
same direction and experience a mutually attractive force of 3.6 X 10-4 N. Find the current through the conductors.
A galvanometer has a resistance of 40 . It shows full scale deflection for a current of 2 mA. How will you convert
the galvanometer into a voltmeter of range 0 to 20 V?
Two straight infinitely long parallel wires carrying equal current placed at a distance of 20 cm apart experience a mutually
attractive force of 4.9 X 10 -5 N per unit length of the wire. Calculate the current
The deflection of a galvanometer falls from 50 divisions when 12 resistance is connected across the galvanometer.
Calculate the galvanometer resistance.
TEN MARKS

2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
VVI
1)
2)

State Joules law of heating. Explain Joules calorimeter experiment to verify Joules law
Deduce an expression for the magnetic induction due to an infinitely long straight conductor carrying current.
Write the expression for the magnetic induction when the conductor is placed in a medium of permeability
3)
Deduce the relation for the magnetic induction at a point along the axis of a circular coil carrying current
4)
Explain in detail the principle, construction and theory of a tangent galvanometer
5)
Explain the principle, construction, working and limitations of a cyclotron with a diagram
IMPORTANT
1)
Applying Amperes circuital law, find the magnetic induction due to a straight solenoid
2)
Obtain an expression for the force between two long parallel current carrying conductors. Hence define ampere.
3)
Discuss the motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field
ADDITIONAL
1)

Explain in detail the principle, construction and theory of moving coil galvanometer

4. ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION & A . C

ONE MARKS BOOK BACK (V V I )
4.1
4.2
4.3
4.4

17

Electromagnetic induction is not used in

(a) transformer
(b) room heater
(c) AC generator
(d) choke coil
A coil of area of cross section 0.5 m2 with 10 turns is in a plane which is perpendicular to an uniform magnetic field
of 0.2 Wb/m2.The flux though the coil is
(a) 100 Wb
(b) 10 Wb
(c) 1 Wb
(d) zero
Lenzs law is in accordance with the law of
(a) conservation of charges (b) conservation of flux (c) conservation of momentum
(d) conservation of energy
The selfinductance of a straight conductor is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) very large
(d) very small

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

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4.5
4.6
4.7
4.8
4.9
4.10
4.11
4.12
4.13
4.14

The unit henry can also be written as

(a) Vs A1
(b) Wb A1
(c) s
(d) all
An emf of 12 V is induced when the current in the coil changes at the rate of 40 A S1. The coefficient of self induction
of the coil is
(a) 0.3 H
(b) 0.003 H
(c) 30 H
(d) 4.8 H
A DC of 5A produces the same heating effect as an AC of
(a) 50 A rms current
(b) 5 A peak current
(c) 5A rms current
(d) none of these
Transformer works on
(a) AC only
(b) DC only
(c) both AC and DC
(d) AC more effectively than DC
The part of the AC generator that passes the current from the coil to the external circuit is
(a) field magnet
(b) split rings
(c) slip rings
(d) brushes
In an AC circuit the applied emf e = Eo sin (t + /2) leads the current I = Io sin (t /2) by
(a) /2
(b) /4
(c)
(d) 0
Which of the following cannot be stepped up in a transformer?
(a) input current
(b) input voltage
(c) input power
(d) all
The power loss is less in transmission lines when
(a) voltage is less but current is more
(b) both voltage and current are more
(c) voltage is more but current is less
(d) both voltage and current are less
Which of the following devices does not allow d.c. to pass through?
(a) resistor
(b) capacitor
(c) inductor
(d) all the above
In an ac circuit
(a) the average value of current is zero.
(b) the average value of square of current is zero.
(c) the average power dissipation is zero.
(d) the rms current is 2 time of peak current

PTA QUESTIONS (IMPORTANT )

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.

18

The generator rule is --------------(a) Flemings left hand rule

(b) Flemings right hand rule
(c) Maxwells right hand cork screw rule
(d) Amperes swimming rule
The frequency of A.C. for guided rocket is --------(a) 50 Hz
(b) 400 Kz
(c) 400 Hz
(d) 100 KHz to 100 MHz
The Q-factor has values lying between --------for normal frequencies
(a) 0 to 10
(b) 10 to 50
(c) 50 to 100
(d) 10 to 100
Cores of chokes using low frequency AC circuits are made of -------(a) stelloy
(b) mumetal
(c) iron
(d) aluminium
Power loss due to Joule heating is also called as ------------(a) copper loss
(b) Eddy current loss
(c) flux leakage
(d) Hysteresis loss
---------- transmits large amount of power with low cost and high efficiency
(a) two phase alternator (b) three phase alternator
(c) single phase alternator
(d) none of the above
In low power AC dynamos magnetic field is provided by------------(a) permanent magnets (b) electromagnets
(c) horse-shoe magnets
(d) cylindrical magnets
The average power of an AC is also called -------- of the circuit
(a) true power
(b) instantaneous power
(c) resonant power
(d) RMS power
In a three phase AC generator, the three coils are inclined at an angle of --------------(a) 45o
(b) 90o
(c) 120o
(d) 180o
For an ideal transformer, efficiency is-------(a) greater than one
(b) less than one
(c) equal to one
(d)infinity
Induction motors are used in---------(a) grinders
(b) generators
(c) refrigerators
(d) fans
In a step down transformer, the following condition is satisfied
(a) Es > Ep
(b) K < 1
(c) Ip > Is
(d)Np < Ns
Choke coils are commonly seen in -----------(a) incandescent bulbs
(b) fluorescent tubes
(c) stabilizer circuits
(d) radio
A circuit will have flat resonance, it the Q value is -----------(a) high
(b) infinity
(c) low
(d) zero
400 MW power produced at 15,000 V at Neyveli power station is stepped upto -------- before transmission
(a) 22,000 V
(b) 230,000 V
(c)110,000 V
(d) 20,000 V

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PUBLIC QUESTIONS( VVI )
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)

The angle between the area vector A and the plane of the area A is
a)
b) 2
c) / 2
d) zero
If the flux associated with a coil varies at the rate of 1 Wb / minute then the induced e.m.f is
a) 1 V
b)1 / 60 V
c) 60V
d) 0.60V
In an a.c. circuit with an inductor
a) voltage lags current by / 2
b) voltage an current are in phase
c) voltage leads current by
d) current lags voltage by / 2
In L.C.R series a.c. circuit, the phase difference between current ad voltage is 300. The reactance of the circuit is
17.32 . The value of resistance is
a) 30
b) 10
c) 17.32
d) 1.732
The unit of henry can also be written as
a) V A s-1
b) Wb-1 A
c) s
d) all of these
In a stepup transformer the input voltage is 220V and the output voltage is 11 kV. The ratio of number of turns of
primary to secondary is
a) 50:1
b) 1:50
c) 25:1
d)1:25
In an a.c. circuit, the current I= I0 sin (t - / 2 ) lags behind the e.m.f. e = E0 sin (t + / 2 )by
a) 0
b) / 4
c) / 2
d)
The generator rule is
a) Flemings left hand rule
b) Flemings right hand rule
c) Maxwells right hand corkscrew rule
d) Right hand palm rule.
In LCR circuit when XL = XC the current
a) is zero
b) is in phase with the voltage c) leads the voltage
d) lags behind the voltage
Transformer works on
a) both AC and DC
b) AC more effectively than DC
c) AC only
d) DC only
Lenzs law is in accordance with the law of
a) conservation of energy
b) conservation of charge
c) conservation of momentum
d) conservation of angular momentum
The self-inductance of a straight conductor is
a) Zero
b) infinity
c) very large
d) very small
In an AC circuit with capacitor only, if it the frequency of the signal is zero, then the capacitive reactance is
a) Infinity
b) zero
c) finite maximum
d) finite minimum
In step-up transformer the output voltage is 11 kV and the input voltage is 220 V. The ratio of number of turns of
secondary to primary is
a) 20 : 1
b) 22 : 1
c) 50 : 1
d) 1 : 50
The generator rule is
a) Flemings left hand rule
b) Flemings right hand rule
c) Maxwells right hand cork screw rule
d) Amperes swimming rule.
The core used in audio frequency choke is
a) Iron
b) carbon
c) lead
d) steel
The reactance offered by 300 mH Inductor to an AC supply of frequency 50 Hz is
a) 1046
b) 94.2
c) 9420
d) 104.6
The r.m.s. value of an a.c. voltage with a peak value of 311 V is
a) 100 V
b) 220 V
c) 50 V
d) 70.7 V
In a transformer, eddy current loss is minimized by using
a) laminated core made of mumetal
b) laminated core made of stelloy
c) shell type core
d) thick copper wires
A power of 11, 000 W is transmitted at 220 V. The current through line wires is
a) 50 A
b) 5 A
c) 500 A
d) 0.5 A
For a DC circuit the value of capacitive reactance ( Xc ) is
a) zero
b) infinity
c) / 2
d)
The quality factor of an a.c circuit containing a resistance R, inductance L and capacitance C is
a) Q =

23)

19

b) Q =

c) Q =

d) Q =

In a three phase AC generator the three coils are fastened rigidly together and are displaced from each other by an angle
a) 90o
b) 180o
c) 120o
d) 360o

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24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
32)

33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)

39)

40)

In RLC series circuit, at resonance

a) current is minimum
b) impedance is maximum
c) circuit is purely inductive
d) current is in phase with the voltage
A D.C of 5 A produces the same heating effect as an
a) 50 A rms current
b) 5 A peak current
c) 15 A rms current
d) none of these
In LCR series circuit, at resonance
a) impedance is maximum
b) current is minimum
c) impedance is equal to R
d) o = 1 / LC
The core used in audio frequency chokes is
a) iron
b) carbon
c) lead
d) air
The r.m.s. value of the alternating current flowing through a resistor is 5 A. Its peak value is
a) 3.536 A
b) 70.7 A
c) 7.07 A
d) 7 A
A coil of area of cross section 0.5 m2 with 10 turns is in a plane which is parallel to an uniform magnetic field of 0.2 Wb/m2.
The flux though the coil is
a) 100 Wb
b) 10 Wb
c) 1 Wb
d) zero
In an A.C. circuit average power consumed is 200 W and the apparent power is 300 W. The power factor is
a) 1.5
b) 0.66
c) 0.33
d) 1
The effective value of alternating current is
a) Io / 2
b) Io / 2
c) Io 2
d) 2 Io
A rectangular coil is uniformly rotated in a uniform magnetic field such that the axis of rotation is perpendicular to the
direction of the magnetic field. When the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field
a) (i) magnetic flux is maximum, (ii) induced e.m.f. is maximum
b) (i) magnetic flux is zero, (ii) induced e.m.f. is zero
c) (i) magnetic flux is maximum, (ii) induced e.m.f. is zero
d) (i) magnetic flux is zero, (ii) induced e.m.f. is maximum
In LCR series circuit, at resonance
a) XL = XC
b) XL> XC
c) XL< XC
d) = 1 / LC
In an a.c. circuit the voltage leads the current by a phase of / 2, then the circuit has
a) only an inductor
b) only a capacitor
c) only a resistor
d) L, C and R in series
When the frequency of an a.c. circuit increases, the capacitance reactance offered by capacitor connected in the circuit
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) becomes zero
The resonant frequency of RLC circuit is o. The inductance is doubled, the capacitance is also doubled. Now the
resonant frequency of the circuit is
a) 2 o
b) o / 2
c) o / 4
d) o / 2
The rms value of a.c voltage with peak of 311 V is
a) 220 V
b) 311 V
c) 180 V
d) 320 V
The co efficient of self induction of a solenoid is independent of
a) the number of turns in coil
b) the area of cross section of the coil
c) the length of the coil
d) the current passing through the coil

and i = 10 sin .
The instantaneous emf and current equations of an a.c. circuit are respectively e = 200 sin +
3
The average power consumed over one complete cycle is
a) 2000 W
b) 1000 W
c) 500 W
d) 707 W
In a series RLC circuit, the instantaneous values of current and emf arei= I0 sin (t - / 3 ) ande = E0 sin t
respectively.The phase difference between current and voltage is
a) zero
b) 180
c) 60
d) 45

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)
2)
3)
4)

20

A coil of 50 turns and area of cross-section of 0.1m2 has its axis perpendicular to a magnetic induction of 0.9 wb / m 2,
then the flux passing the coil is
(a)4.5Wb
(b)45 Wb
(c) 0
(d) 4.5 m Wb
The self inductance of a coil is equal to the magnetic flux linkage of the coil, when the current through the coil is
(a) 1 A
(b) 1 A / S
(c) 2 A
(d) constant.
For d.c.the capacitor offers ..
(a)infinite resistance
(b)zero resistance
(c)maximum resistance, (d) minimum resistance.
The coefficient of self induction of a coil of 1000 turns which produces a magnetic flux of 0.5 Wb for a constant current
of 2.5 A is
(a)4 x 102 H
(b)4 x 10 2 H
(c) 2 x 10-2 H
(d)2 x 102 H

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5)

In a step up transformer the transformer ratio (k)

(a) K = 0
(b) K > 1
(c) K < 2
(d) K = 1
In an ideal transformer .
(a)Input power = output power
(b)input power output power
(c)input power > output power
(d)input power < output power
For normal frequencies Q factor lies between .. ..
(a)0 and
(b)10 and 1000
(c)10 and 100
(d)1 and 100
AF choke is a coil of .
(a)large inductance and low resistance
(b)large inductance and large resistance
(c)low inductance and low resistance
(d)low inductance and high resistance
Commercially electric power is generated by the method of ..
(a)chemical action
(b)thermo couple
(c)electromagnetic induction (d)photo electric effect
When steady current flows through one coil the current induced in the adjacent coil is .
(a)zero
(b) minimum
(c)zero
(d)infinity
A motor is a device used to convert
(a)mechanical energy into electric energy
(b)electrical energy into mechanical energy
(c)chemical energy into mechanical energy
(d)electrical energy into magnetic energy
Slots are made in copper plate that swings between the poles of a magnet .
(a)to minimize the speed of swinging
(b)to minimize the eddy current loss
(c)to increase the speed of swinging
(d)to increase the eddy current
The motion of the coil in a galvanometer is damped because of the -------------(a)suspension head
(b)elasticity of the suspension wire
(c)formation of eddy currents
(d) restoring torque
Large eddy currents are used in
(a)galvanometer damping
(b)speedometer (c)induction furnace
(d)transformer
Stepdown transformer is a device which converts .
(a)low voltage AC into high voltage a AC
(b)high voltage AC into low voltage AC
(c)low power AC into high power AC.
(d)high power AC into low power AC
The efficiency of a transformer is always
(a) equal to 1
(b)less than 1 (c)greater than 1
(d)equal to 2
The magnetization of the core of a transformer is repeatedly reversed by the alternating magnetic field.
Some energy is wasted due to this. This is known as
(a)copper loss
(b)eddy current loss
(c)hysteresis loss
(d) flux loss
Hysteresis losses in a transformer can be minimized by
(a)using thick wire of the coils
(b)having laminated core made up of stelloy
(c)using mumetal as core
(d)using a shell type of core
The phenomenon of resonance is used in
(a)Radar
(b)Radio
(c)Reactor
(d)Generator
For ordinary domestic consumers the voltage given is
(a)250 V
(b)440 V
(c)200 V
(d)230 V
The frequency of domestic power supply is ..
(a)50 Hz
(b)100 Hz
(c)500 Hz
(d)200 Hz

6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)

An AC electric main line is denoted by 220 V, 5A. What do they indicate?

(a)Peak value
(b)RMS value
(c)instantaneous value (d)Mean square Value
The frequency of DC current is .
(a)zero
(b)infinity
(c) 50 Hz
(d)100 Hz

23)

THREE MARKS

VVI
1)
3)
5)
7)
9)
11)

21

Define magnetic flux. Give its unit

State Faradays laws of electromagnetic induction
State Flemings right hand rule
Define 1 henry
Distinguish between step-up & step-down transformer
Define RMS value of a.c

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

2)What is electromagnetic induction?

4)State Lenz law
6)Define self inductance. Give its unit
8)State the methods of producing induced emf
10)Define quality factor

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IMPORTANT
1)
3)
5)
7)

Distinguish between self inductance and mutual inductance

Why a d.c. ammeter cannot read a.c.
What is capacitive reactance? Give its unit
What is resonant frequency in LCR circuit?

2)What is poly phase AC generator?

4)What is inductive reactance? Give its unit
6)A capacitor blocks d.c. but allows a.c. why?

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)

What happens to the value of current in RLC series circuit, if frequency of the source is increased?
Define power factor
Give the practical applications of self induction ( choke coil )
Discuss the advantages and drawbacks of a.c. over d.c.
Define mutual inductance. Give its unit
Define alternating current .Give its expression.

PUBLIC PROBLEMS ( IMPORTANT )

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)

Calculate the mutual inductance between two coils when a current of 4 A changing to 8 A in 0.5 s in one coil, induces an
e.m.fof 50 mV in the other coil.
An aircraft having a wing span of 20.48 m files due north at a speed of 40 ms-1. If the vertical component of earths
magnetic field at the place is 2 x 10-5 T, calculate the e.m.f. induced between the ends of the wings.
The wings of an aero plane are 10 cm apart. The plane is moving horizontally towards the north at a place where the
vertical component of earths magnetic field is 3 x 10-5 T. Calculate the induced e.m.f. setup between the tips of the wings
if the velocity of the aero plane is 720 km / hr.
A coil of area of cross-section0.5 m2 with 10 turns is in a plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 Wb / m2.
Calculate the flux through the coil.
A capacitor of capacitance 2 F is in an AC circuit of frequency 1000 Hz. If the r.m.s value of the applied e.m.f is 10 V,
find the effective current in the circuit.
An ideal transformer has transformation ratio 1 : 20. If the input power and primary voltage are 600 mW and 6 V
Respectively, find the primary and secondary currents.
Calculate the capacitive reactance of a capacitor of capacitance 2 F in an A.C. circuit of frequency 1000 Hz
Write the equation of a 25 cycle current sine wave having rms value of 30 A.
An e.m.f. of 5 V is induced when the current in the coil changes at the rate of 100 A s-1. Find the co-efficient of self
induction of the coil

FIVE MARKS ( VVI )

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Obtain an expression for the energy associated with an inductor

Obtain an expression for the self inductance of a long solenoid
Obtain an expression for the mutual inductance between two long solenoids
Explain how an emf can be induced by changing the area enclosed by the coil
What are the reasons for various energy losses in transformer? How they can be minimized?

IMPORTANT
1)
2)
3)
4)

Obtain an expression for RMS value of alternating current

Obtain an expression for the current flowing in a circuit containing resistance only. Find the phase relationship between
voltage and current
Derive an expression for the average power in an a.c circuit
Describe the principle, construction and working of a choke coil

PUBLIC PROBLEM( IMPORTANT )

1)

22

An A.C generator consists of a coil of 10,000 turns and of area 100 cm2. The coil rotates at an angular
speed of 140 r.p.m in a uniform magnetic field of 3.6 X 10-2 T. Find the maximum value of the e.m.f. induced

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TEN MARKS
VVI
1)

Discuss with theory the method of inducing emf in a coil by changing orientation with respect to the direction of the
magnetic field
Describe the principle, construction and working of single phase AC generator
Explain in detail the principle, construction and theory of a transformer. Define its efficiency. Mention the losses
A source of alternating emf is connected to a series combination of a resistor R, an inductor L and a capacitor C. Obtain
with the help of a vector diagram and impedance diagram, an expression for i) the effective voltage ii) the impedance
iii) the phase relationship between the current and the voltage

2)
3)
4)

IMPORTANT
1)

Obtain an expression for the current flowing in a circuit containing inductance only. Find the phase relationship between
voltage and current
Obtain an expression for the current flowing in a circuit containing capacitance only. Find the phase relationship between
voltage and current

2)

ADDITIONAL
1)

Describe the principle, construction and working of three phase AC generator

5. ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND WAVE OPTICS

ONE MARKS BOOK BACK( VVI )
5.1

5.2
5.3
5.4
5.5
5.6
5.7
5.8
5.9
5.10

23

In an electromagnetic wave
(a) power is equally transferred along the electric and magnetic fields
(b) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular to both the fields
(c) power is transmitted along electric field
(d) power is transmitted along magnetic field
Electromagnetic waves are
(a) transverse
(b) longitudinal
(c) may be longitudinal or transverse
(d) neither longitudinal nor transverse
Refractive index of glass is 1.5. Time taken for light to pass through a glass plate of thickness 10 cm is
(a) 2 108 s
(b) 2 1010 s
(c) 5 108 s
(d) 5 1010s

In an electromagnetic wave the phase difference between electric field E and magnetic field B is
(a) /4
(b) /2
(c)
(d) zero
Atomic spectrum should be
(a) pure line spectrum
(b) emission band spectrum
(c) absorption line spectrum
(d) absorption band spectrum.
When a drop of water is introduced between the glass plate and plano convex lens in Newtons rings system, the ring
system
(a) contracts
(b) expands
(c) remains same
(d) first expands, then contracts
A beam of monochromatic light enters from vacuum into a medium of refractive index . The ratio of the wavelengths of
the incident and refracted waves is
(a) : 1
(b) 1 :
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
If the wavelength of the light is reduced to one fourth, then the amount of scattering is
(a) increased by 16 times
(b) decreased by 16 times
(c) increased by 256 times
(d) decreased by 256 times
In Newtons ring experiment the radii of the mth and (m + 4)th dark rings are respectively 5 mm and 7 mm. What is the
value of m?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 10
The path difference between two monochromatic light waves of wavelength 4000 is 2 X 107 m. The phase difference
between them is
(a)
(b) 2
(c) 3 /2
(d) /2

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5.11
5.12
5.13

5.14

In Youngs experiment, the third bright band for wavelength of light 6000 coincides with the fourth bright band for
another source in the same arrangement. The wave length of the another source is
(a) 4500
(b) 6000
(c) 5000
(d) 4000
A light of wavelength 6000 is incident normally on a grating 0.005 m wide with 2500 lines. Then the maximum order is
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4
A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light. What happens if the red light is replaced by blue light?
(a) bands disappear
(b) no change
(c) diffraction pattern becomes narrower and crowded together
(d) diffraction pattern becomes broader and farther apart
The refractive index of the medium, for the polarising angle 60o is
(a) 1.732
(b) 1.414
(c) 1.5
(d) 1.468
PTA QUESTIONS ( IMPORTANT )

1.
2.
3.

Angle between the electric component and the magnetic component of an electromagnetic wave is
(a) 0
(b) /4
(c) /2
(d)
Phase difference between the electric field and the magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is
(a) 0
(b) /4
(c) /2
(d)
The velocity of electromagnetic wave in vacuum or free space is
(a)

4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

24

1
0 0

(b) 0 0

(c)

(d)

0 0

Existence of electromagnetic waves was confirmed experimentally by

(a) Maxwell
(b) Henry
(c) Hertz
(d) Huygen
In Hertz experimental arrangement, the two metal plates A and B are placed with a separation of
(a) 6m
(b) 60 mm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 60 cm
Frequency of electromagnetic waves produced by Hertz arrangement was about
(a) 5x107Hz
(b) 50x107 Hz
(c) 8x1014 Hz
(d) 4x1014 Hz
Physical properties of the electromagnetic waves are determined by their
(a) wavelength
(b) sources
(c) method of excitation (d) all these
Frequency band of radio waves used cellular phones is
(a) high
(b) low
(c) ultra high
(d) very low
Radiation used to destroy bacteria and for sterilizing surgical instruments are
(a) radio waves
(b) X-rays
(c) UV radiations
(d) gamma rays
Radiation used in the detection of forged documents and finger prints in forensic lab is
(a) IR rays
(b) UV rays
(c) gamma rays
(d) X-rays
Wavelength of two sodium lines (D1 and D2) are
(a) 8590Ao and 8596Ao
(b) 5893Ao and 5890Ao
o
o
(c) 5896A and 5890A
(d) 6958Ao and 6950Ao
Spectrum produced by the incandescent solids at high temperature is
(a) continuous emission spectrum
(b) line spectrum
(c) continuous absorption spectrum
(d) line absorption spectrum
Spectrum produced by the electric filament lamp
(a) depends on the temperature of the source
(b) independent of temperature of the source
(c) depends on characteristics of the source
(d) depend on the method of excitation
Free excited atoms emit-------------- spectrum
(a) continuous emission
(b) line emission
(c) band emission
(d) line absorption
When the temperature of the solid is increased, the spectrum spread from
(a) red to green
(b) blue to green
(c) red to blue
(d) violet to red
Dark line appearing in the solar spectrum are called
(a) Raman lines
(b) Tyndall lines
(c) Fraunhoffer lines
(d) Rayleigh lines
Temperature of suns outer layer is about
(a) 14x106K
(b)14x107K
(c) 600K
(d) 6000K
Lifetime of the substance exhibiting the phenomenon of fluorescence is
(a) more than 10-5 s
(b) equal to 10-5 s
(c) less than 10-5 s
(d)equal to 103 s
Delayed fluorescence is known as
(a) luminescence
b) bio-luminescence
(c) phosphorescence
(d) reflection
Strength of scattering depends on
(a) wavelength of light
(b) size of the particle
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) velocity of light

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21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.

27.

Absorption of light by the molecules, followed by its re-radiation in different directions is called
(a) reflection
(b) multiple reflection
(c) scattering
(d) dispersion
In Raman effect, lines of shorter wavelength are called
(a) Stokes lines
(b) anti stokes lines
(c) Raman lines
(d) Rayleigh lines
In Stokes lines, energy of scattered photon is
(a) equal to energy of incident photon
(b) lesser than the energy of incident photon
(c) greater than the energy of the incident photon
(d) zero
Raman shift is
(a) independent of the frequency of incident light
(b) characteristics of the substance
(c) independent of the characteristic of the substance
(d) both (a) and (b)
A linear source of light at infinite distance in an isotropic medium emits a _______ wavefront
(a) spherical
(b) cylindrical
(c) circular
(d) plane
If o is the frequency of incident radiation and s is the frequency of scattered radiation of given molecular sample, then
Raman shift or Raman frequency () is given by
(a) = o - s
(b) = s - o
(c) = s + o
(d) = 2(o - s)
If the path difference between two monochromatic wave is , the phase difference must be

(a) 2
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.

25

(b)

(c)

(d)

Colours in the thin film is due to

(a) dispersion of light
(b) scattering of light
(c) interference of light (d) reflection of light
A ray of light traveling in a rarer medium, gets reflected at the surface of a denser medium. The automatic path change
produced is
(a)
(b) 3 / 4
(c) / 2
(d) / 4
In Newtons ring experiment, the radius of the nth dark ring is proportional to
1
(a) n
(b) n2
(c)
(d)

Bending of light waves around the edges of an obstacle is known as

(a) reflection
(b) diffraction
(c) refraction
(d) polarization
In case of Fraunhofer diffraction, the incident wavefront is
(a) spherical
(b) cylindrical
(c) elliptical
(d) plane
In Fresnels diffraction, the shape of the incident wavefront is
(a) spherical
(b) cylindrical
(c) plane
(d) (a) or(b)
The point on the successive slits separated by a distance equal to grating element are called as
(a) identical points
(b) grating points
(c) corresponding points (d)equal points
Transverse nature of electromagnetic waves was confirmed by the phenomenon of
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) polarization
(d) reflection
In the propagation of light waves, the angle between the plane of vibration and plane of polarization is
(a) 0
(b) 90
(c) 45
(d) 180

In case of partially polarised light, when the analyzer is rotated through 90 , the intensity of light beam varies from
(a) maximum to zero
(b) zero to maximum
(c) maximum to minimum
(d) remains same
The polarizing angle for glass is
(a) 57.5
(b) 52.5
(c) 32.5
(d) 37.5
In the arrangement of pile plates, the glass plates are inclined at an angle of ______with the axis of the tube
(a) 57.5
(b) 52.5
(c) 32.5
(d) 37.5
________ is an example for uniaxial crystal
(a) mica
(b) topaz
(c) selinite
(d) quartz
Of the following optically active material is
(a) sodium chloride
(b) calcium chloride
(c) sodium
(d) chlorine
Instrument used to determine the optical rotation produced by the substance is________
(a) interfero meter
(b) Jamins photometer (c) poloriscope
(d) polarimeter
In Raman effect, Raman shift in frequency is always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) negative for Stokes lines and positive for antistokes lines
(d) positive for Stokes lines and negative for antistokes lines
The ratio of scattering powers of two wavelengths 400nm and 6000Ao is
(a) 81 : 16
(b) 16 : 81
(c) 81 : 64
(d) 64 : 81

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PUBLIC QUESTIONS ( VVI )
1)
2)
3)

4)

The existence of electromagnetic waves was confirmed experimentally by

a) Hertz
b) Maxwell
c) Huygens
d) Planck
When a ray of light is incident on a glass surface at polarizing angle of 57.5 o, the angle between the incident ray and the
reflected ray is
a) 57.5o
b) 32.5o
c) 115o
d) 90o
Unpolarised light passes through a tourmaline crystal. The emergent light is analysed by an analyzer. When the analyzer
is rotated through 90o, the intensity of light
a) remains uniformly bright
b) remains uniformly dark
c) varies between maximum and minimum
d) varies between maximum and zero
Velocity of the electromagnetic waves through vacuum is
(a)

5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)

26

1
0 0

(b) 0 0

(c)

(d)

0 0

In a plane diffraction grating the unit of grating element is

a) no unit
b) metre
c) metre-1
d) degree
A ray of light is incident on a glass plate at its polarizing angle. The angle between the incident ray and reflected ray is
a) 57.5o
b) 32.5o
c) 90o
d) 115o
Which of the following is not an electromagnetic wave?
a) X rays
b) gamma rays
c) U-V rays
d) rays
If C is velocity of light in vacuum, the velocity of light in medium with refractive index is
a) C
b) C /
c) / C
d) 1 / C
A ray of light passes from a denser medium into a rarer medium. For an angle of incidence of 45o, the refracted ray grazes
the surface of separation of the two media. The refractive index of the denser medium is
a) 3 / 2
b) 1 / 2
c) 2
d) 2
Of the following, which one is uniaxial crystal?
a) mica
b) aragonite
c) topaz
d) quartz
o
In Newtons rings experiment light of wavelength 5890 A is used. The order of the dark ring produced where the
thickness of the air film is 0.589 m is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Of the following, optically active material is
a) sodium chloride
b) calcium chloride
c) sodium
d) chlorine
The radiations used in physiotherapy are
a) ultra violet
b) infra red
c) radio wavwes
d) microwaves
Electric filament lamp gives rise to ------------------- spectrum
a) line
b) continuous
c) band
d) line absorbtion
In Youngs double slit experiment the separation between the slits is halved, and the distance between the slits and the
screen is doubled. Then the fringe width is
a) unchanged
b) halved
c) doubled
d) quadrupled
The phenomenon of light used in the formation of Newtons rings is
a) diffraction
b) interference
c) refraction
d) polarization
An example of uniaxial crystal is
a) tourmaline
b) mica
c) topaz
d) selenite
In Raman effect, the spectral line with lower frequency than the incident frequency is
a) Fraunhoffer line
b) Rayleighs line
c) Stokes line
d) Anti Stokes line
The optical rotation doesnt depend on
a) concentration of the solution
b) frequency of the light used
c) the temperature of the solution
d) intensity of the light used
Which of the following gives rise to continuous emission spectrum?
a) electric filament lamp
b) sodium vapour lamp
c) gases in the discharge tube
d) calcium salt in Bunsen flame
The transverse nature of light waves is demonstrated only by the phenomenon of
a) interference
b) diffraction
c) polarization
d) reflection
If the velocity of light in a medium is 2.25 X 108 ms-1 then the refractive index of the medium will be
a) 1.5
b) 0.5
c) 1.33
d) 1.73
The polarizing angle for water is 53o4. If the light is incident at this angle on the surface of water, the angle of refraction
in water is
a) 53o4
b) 26o30
c) 30o4
d) 36o56

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24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
43)
44)
45)
46)

In Raman effect if the scattered photon gains energy, it gives rise to

a) stokes line
b) anti stokes lines
c) stokes lines and anti stokes lines
d) Rayleighs line
In case of Fraunhoffer diffraction, the wave front undergoing diffraction is
a) spherical
b) cylindrical
c) elliptical
d) plane
A ray of light is incident on a glass surface such that the reflected ray is completely plane polarized. The angle between
the reflected ray and the refracted ray is
a) 57.5o
b) 32.5o
c) 90o
d) 115o
Soap bubbles exibit brilliant colours in sunlight due to
a) scattering of light
b) diffraction of light
c) polarization of light
d) interference of light
The radii of Newtons dark rings are in the ratio
a) 1 : 2 : 3..
b) 1 : 2 : 3.
c) 1 : 3 : 5 d) 1 : 4 : 9 .
In the grating formula sin = Nm, the unit of N is
a) metre
b) metre-1
c) no unit
d) ( metre ) 2
The ratio of the radii of the 4th and 9th dark rings in Newtons rings experiment is
a) 4 : 9
b) 2 : 3
c) 16 : 81
d) 2 : 3
Which of the following is not an optically active material
a) quartz
b) sugar crystals
c) turpentine oil
d) calcium chloride
In Raman effect ,the incident photon makes collision with an excited molecule of the substance. The scattered photon
gives rise to
a) Stokes line
b) anti Stokes lines
c) Zeeman line
d) Rayleighs line
The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The velocity of light in glass is
a) 2 X 108 ms-1
b) 4.5 X 108 ms-1
c) 3 X 108 ms-1
d) 1.33 X 108 ms-1
The dark lines found in the solar spectrum are called
a) Raman lines
b) Fraunhoffer lines
c) Stokes lines
d) anti Stokes lines
In Youngs experiment, the third bright band for wavelength of light 6000 Ao coincides with the fourth bright band for
another source in the same arrangement. The wavelength of another source is
a) 4500 Ao
b) 6000 Ao
c) 5000 Ao
d) 4000 Ao
A ray of light travelling in a rarer medium and reflected at the surface of a denser medium automatically undergoes a
a) phase change of / 2
b) phase change of 2
c) path difference of
d) path difference of / 2
Waves from two coherent sources interfere with each other. At a point where the trough of one wave superposes with the
trough of other wave, the intensity of light is
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) no change
The nature of the wave front corresponding to extraordinary ray inside a calcite crystal is
a) plane
b) spherical
c) elliptical
d) cylindrical
A ray of light is incident on a plane glass surface at an angle of 570300. The angle between the reflected ray and the
refracted ray is
a) 32030
b) 900
c) 1150
d) 570300.
If i is the angle of incidence, the angle between the incident wave front and the normal to the reflecting surface is
a) i
b) 900 i
c) 900 + i
d) i - 900
Arrange the spectral lines H , H , H , H in the increasing order of their wavelength
a) H , H , H , H
b) H , H ,H , H
c)H ,H ,H , H
d) H , H , H ,H
Refractive index of a material for a polarizing angle of 550is
a) 1.4281
b) 1.7321
c) 1.4141
d) 1.5051
In a Nicol prism, the ordinary ray is prevented from coming out of Canada balsam by the phenomenon of
a) reflection
b) polarization
c) diffraction
d) total internal reflection
0
In a plane transmission grating the width of a ruling is 12000 A and the width of a slit is 8000 A0. The grating element is
a) 20 m
b) 2 m
c) 1 m
d) 10 m
Which of the following is used to study crystal structure?
a) microwave
b) infra red rays
c) ultraviolet rays
d) X rays
In Youngs double slit experiment, bandwidth contains
a) bright band only
b) dark band only
c) either a bright band or a dark band
d) both a bright band and a dark band

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)
2)

27

The amount of scattering of light, if the wavelength of light is reduced to half is _________
a) increased by 8 times b) increased by 4 times
c) increased by 16 times
d) decreased by 8 times
The frequency of the radio waves whose wavelength is 10 m is __________
a) 30 kHz
b) 3 MHz
c) 30 MHz
d) 30 GHz

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3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)

The phenomenon of photo electric emission is explained by __________

a)electromagnetic theory and not quantum theory
b)quantum theory and not corpuscular theory
c)wave theory and not quantum theory
d)corpuscular theory and not wave theory
When ultra violet light is incident on fluorescent materials they emit __________
a) infra red rays
b) ultra violet rays
c) X rays
d) visible light
Colours produced by thin films due to interference depend on ___________
a) the thickness of the film only
b) the angle of incidence only
c) the angle of refraction only
d) both thickness of film and angle of incidence
The condition for destructive interference due to reflected light in thin films is __________
a) 2 t cos r = (2 n 1) / 2
b) 2 t cos r = n
c) t cos r = (2 n 1 ) / 2
d) t cos r = n
The wave front in Fraunhofer diffraction is ____________
a) spherical
b) cylindrical
c) elliptical
d) plane
The refractive index of Canada balsam is _______________ for ordinary ray
a) 1.658
b) 1.486
c) 1.532
d)1.550
In an electromagnetic wave the angle between the electric component and magnetic component is ____________
a) 00
b) 450
c) 900
d) 1800
The velocity of radio waves is _____________
a) 300 km / sec
b) 3 x 105 km / sec
c) 3 x 1010 m / sec
d) 3 x 108 km / sec
In a corpuscular theory when corpuscles approach a surface between two media they are attracted.
This explains_____________
a) Refraction
b) Reflection
c) Diffraction
d) Polarisation
The electromagnetic nature of light waves are proposed by _____________
a) Newton
b) Hugens
c) Einstein
d) Maxwell
The electromagnetic theory failed to explain _______________
a) polarization
b) diffraction
c) interference
d) photoelectric effect
The value of Planks constant h is equal to ______________
a) 6.625 x 10-35J/s
b) 6.625 x 1034Js
c) 6.625 x 10-34 Js
d)6.625 x 10-35 Js
If a point source of light in an isotropic medium is very close to an observer then the wave front will be _______________
a) plane
b) cylindrical
c) spherical
d) elliptical
X rays are lying between ________________
a) visible light ultraviolet
b) ultraviolet and gamma rays
c) visible light and radio waves
d) ultraviolet and infrared rays
The radii of the dark rings Newtons ring experiment are in the ratio _______
a) 1 : 2 : 3
b) 12 : 22 : 32
c) 1 : 3 : 5
d) 1 : 2 : 3
The ratio of distance between the slits to the size of the slits in Youngs double slit experience is _____________
a)0.03
b) 0.3
c) 0.1
d) 10
In Youngs double slit experiment if one of the slits is covered ___________
a) the bright fringes only disappear
b) both the bright and dark fringes disappear
c) uniform illumination is produced
d) complete darkness is produced
When light is reflected at the denser medium there is an automatic change of phase of ________

a) / 2
21)

22)
23)
24)
25)
26)

28

b)

c) 3 / 2

d) 0

The centre of Newtons rings is dark because_________

a) the thickness of air film at the centre is zero
b) the ray reflected by the glass plate undergoes a phase change
c) no light fall at the centre
d) the centre is covered by black paper
If 10000 rulings are present in one metre length using diffraction grating then the grating elements is equal to
a) 1 x 10-5 m
b) 1 x 10-4 m
c) 1 x 10-3 m
d) 1 x 10-7 m
Polarisation by reflection was discovered by _____________
a) Fresnel
b) Malus
c) Brewster
d) Nicol
The polarising angle of glass is ______________
a) 52.50
b) 53.40
c) 57.50
d) 47.50
A Nicol Prism has its length and breadth in the ratio ____________
a) 3 : 1
b) 2 : 1
c) 1 : 3
d) 2 : 3
When light from a source is made to pass through substance it produces
a) emission spectrum
b) absorption spectrum c) no spectrum
d) bright light

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27)

When light from the carbon arc is made to pass through sodium vapour the spectrum produced will be a _____________
a) continuous spectrum b) line spectrum
c) band spectrum
d) line absorption spectrum
The central core of the sun is called __________
a)chromospheres
b) stratosphere
c) photosphere
d) exosphere
The dark lines found in the solar spectrum are useful to ___________
a) determine the temperature of the sun
b) to study the suns surface
c) to identify the elements in the suns atmosphere
d) to study about the planets
In Raman spectrum stokes lines are the lines of _________________
a) same wavelength as that of incident radiation
b) greater wavelengths
c) shorter wavelengths
d) particular wavelengths

28)
29)
30)

THREE MARKS
VVI
1)
3)
5)
7)
9)

What are electromagnetic waves?

State Rayleighs scattering law
Why sun appears reddish at sunrise and sunset?
Define specific rotation
What are coherent sources?

2) What are Fraunhofer lines?

4)Why the sky appears blue in colour?
6)What is Tyndall scattering?
8)Why the centre of Newtons ring is dark?
10)Distinguish between Fresnel and Fraunhofer diffraction

IMPORTANT
1)
2)
3)
5)
7)
8)
9)
11)
12)
14)

Define critical angle

What are the conditions for total internal reflection to take place?
What is the principle of superposition of waves?
4)Give the conditions for sustained interference
What is fluorescence?
6)What is phosphorescence?
Distinguish between corpuscle and photon?
Give the conditions for obtaining clear and broad interference bands
Define bandwidth
10)Define optic axis
Distinguish between polarized and unpolarised light
On what factors the amount of optical rotation depend on?
13)Define polarizing angle
Distinguish between interference and polarisation

PUBLIC PROBLEMS ( IMPORTANT )

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)

29

A 300 mm long tube containing 60 c.c. of sugar solution produces a rotation of 9o when placed in a polarimeter.
If the specific rotation is 60o, calculate the quantity of sugar contained in the solution.
In Youngs experiment the width of the fringe obtained with light of wavelength 6000 Ao is 2 mm. Calculatethe fringe width
if the entire apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.33.
A light of wavelength 6000 Ao falls normally on a thin air film. 6 dark fringes are seen between two points. Calculate the
thickness of the air film.
In Newtons ring experiment the diameter of the certain order of dark ring is measured to be double that of second ring.
What is the order of the ring?
A light of wavelength 5890 Ao falls normally on a thin air film. 6 dark fringes are seen between two points. Calculate the
thickness of the air film
Two slits 0.3 mm apart illuminated by light of wavelength 4500 Ao. The screen is placed at 1 m distance from the slits.
Find the separation between the second bright fringe on both sides of the central maximum.
The refractive index of a medium is 3. Calculate the angle of refraction if the unpolarised light is incident on it at the
polarizing angle of the medium.
A plano convex lens of radius 3 m is placed on an optically flat glass plate and is illuminated by monochromatic light. The
radius of the 8th dark ring is 3.6 mm. Calculate the wavelength of light used
In Youngs double slit experiment, the distance between the slits is 1.9 mm. The distance between the slit and the screen
is 1 m. If the bandwidth is 0.35 mm, calculate the wavelength of light used.

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FIVE MARKS
VVI
1)
2)
3)
5)

Mention the characteristics of electromagnetic waves

Obtain an expression for the radius of the nth dark ring in Newtons ring experiment
State and prove Brewsters law
4)Write a note on pile of plates
Write a note on Nicol prism
6)Write a uses of Polaroid

IMPORTANT
1)

Explain the applications of Newtons ring experiment

ADDITIONAL
1)

Distinguish between ordinary ray and extra ordinary ray

2)Write a note on double refraction

PUBLIC PROBLEMS( IMPORTANT )

1)

A soap film of refractive index 1.34 is illuminated by white light incident at an angle 30 o. The reflected light is
examined by a spectroscope in which dark band corresponding to the wavelength 5893 Ao is found .Calculate the smallest
thickness of the film
In Youngs experiment a light of frequency 6 X 1014 Hz is used. Distance between the centres of adjacent fringes is 0.75
mm. Calculate the distance between the slits, if the screen is 1.5 m away.
A parallel beam of monochromatic light is allowed to incident normally on a plane transmission grating having5000lines
per cm. A second order spectral line is found to be diffracted at an angle 30o. Calculate the wavelength of the light.
A monochromatic light of wavelength 5893 Ao is incident on a water surface of refractive index 1.33. Find the velocity,
frequency and wavelength of light in water.
A plane transmission grating has 5000 lines/cm. Calculate the angular separation in second order spectrum of red line
7070 Ao and blue line 5000 Ao.
A soap film of refractive index 1.33 is illuminated by white light incident at an angle 300. The reflected light is examined by
spectroscope in which dark band corresponding to the Wavelength 6000 Ao is found. Calculate the smallest thickness of
the film.
TEN MARKS

2)
3)
4)
5)
6)

VVI
1)
2)
3)

Explain emission spectra and absorption spectra

Explain Raman scattering with the help of energy level diagram.
On the basis of wave theory, explain total internal reflection. Write the condition for total internal reflection
to take place
4)
Derive an expression for band width of interference fringes in Youngs double slit experiment.
ADDITIONAL
1)
Discuss the theory interference in thin film due to reflected light and obtain condition for the intensity to be maximum
and minimum
2)
Discuss the theory of plane transmission grating

30

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6.ATOMIC PHYSICS
ONE MARKS BOOK BACK ( VVI )
6.1
6.2

6.3
6.4
6.5
6.6
6.7

6.8
6.9
6.10
6.11
6.12
6.13
6.14
6.15

6.16

The cathode rays are

(a) a stream of electrons
(b) a stream of positive ions
(c) a stream of uncharged particles
(d) the same as canal rays
A narrow electron beam passes undeviated through an electric field E = 3 104 V/m and an overlapping magnetic field
B = 2103 Wb/m2. The electron motion, electric field and magnetic field are mutually perpendicular.
The speed of the electron is
(a) 60 ms1
(b) 10.3 107 ms1
(c) 1.5 107 ms1
(d) 0.67 107 ms1
According to Bohrs postulates, which of the following quantities take discrete values?
(a) kinetic energy
(b) potential energy
(c) angular momentum
(d) momentum
The ratio of the radii of the first three Bohr orbit is,
(a) 1 : 1/2 : 1/3
(b) 1 : 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 4 : 9
(d) 1 : 8 : 27
The first excitation potential energy or the minimum energy required to excite the atom from ground state of hydrogen
atom is,
(a) 13.6 eV
(b) 10.2eV
(c) 3.4 eV
(d) 1.89 eV
According to Rutherford atom model, the spectral lines emitted by an atom is,
(a) line spectrum (b) continuous spectrum
(c) continuous absorption specturm
(d) band spectrum
Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy (i.e.,) EA < EB < EC. If 1, 2, 3 are the
wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the following
statements is correct.
(a) 3 = 1 + 2
(b)3 = 12 / 1 + 2
(c) 1 = 2 + 3 = 0
(d) 23 = 21 + 22
The elliptical orbits of electron in the atom were proposed by
(a) J.J.Thomson
(b) Bohr
(c) Sommerfeld
(d) de Broglie
Xray is
(a) phenomenon of conversion of kinetic energy into radiation.
(b) conversion of momentum
(c) conversion of energy into mass
(d) principle of conservation of charge
In an X-ray tube, the intensity of the emitted Xray beam is increased by
(a) increasing the filament current
(b) decreasing the filament current
(c) increasing the target potential
(d) decreasing the target potential
The energy of a photon of characteristic X-ray from a Coolidge tube comes from
(a) the kinetic energy of the free electrons of the target
(b) the kinetic energy of ions of the target
(c) the kinetic energy of the striking electron
(d) an atomic transition in the target.
A Coolidge tube operates at 24800 V. The maximum frequency of X radiation emitted from Coolidge tube is
(a) 6 1018 Hz
(b) 3 1018 Hz
(c) 6 108 Hz
(d) 3 108 Hz
In hydrogen atom, which of the following transitions produce a spectral line of maximum wavelength?
(a) 2 1
(b) 4 1
(c) 6 5
(d) 5 2
In hydrogen atom, which of the following transitions produce a spectral line of maximum frequency
(a) 2 1
(b) 6 2
(c) 4 3
(d) 5 2
After pumping process in laser,
(a) the number of atoms in the ground state is greater than the number of atoms in the excited state.
(b) the number of atoms in the excited state is greater than the number of atoms in the ground state.
(c) the number of atoms in the ground state is equal to the number atoms in the excited state.
(d) No atoms are available in the excited state.
The chromium ions doped in the ruby rod
(a) absorbs red light
(b) absorbs green light
(c) absorbs blue light
(d) emits green light
PTA QUESTIONS ( IMPORTANT )

1)
2)
3)

31

The value of Rydbergs constant is

a) 1.094 x 107 m -1
b) 1.094 x 10-7 m -1
c) 1.094 x 107 m 1
The life time of atoms for laser in excited state is
a) 10-8 s
b) 10-3 s
c) 108 s
Positive column in a discharge tube is produced at a pressure of
a) 110 mm of Hg
b) 100 mm of Hg
c) 10 mm of Hg

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d) 103s
d) 0.1 mm of Hg

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4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)

The wavelength of radiations absorbed by chromium ions in Ruby laser is

a) 5800 A0
b) 5400 A0
c) 5300 A0
d) 5500 A0
For a given operating voltage the minimum wavelength of X-rays is
a) the same for all metals
b) not same for all metals
c) zero for some metals
d) high for certain metals
The elliptical orbits of electron was explained by
a) J.J. Thomson
b) Sommerfeld
c) de Broglie
d) Bohr
In Thomson atom model, the wavelength of spectral line obtained from Hydrogen atom is
a) 1300 A0
b) 1500 A0
c) 4861 A0
d) 6363 A0
Mosleys law led to the discovery of chemical element
a) Helium
b) Iodine
c) Rhenium
d) Radon
The life time of meta stable state is
a) 10-5 s
b) 10-3s
c) 10-4s
d) 10-8s
When X-rays fall on certain metals, they liberate
a) Positrons
b) electrons
c) photons
d) photoelectrons
In an X- ray tube, the intensity of emitted X-ray beam is increased by
a) increasing the filament current
b) decreasing the filament current
c) increasing the target potential
d) decreasing the target potential
The spacing between the atoms arranged in the dimensional space in crystal is of the order of
a)10-10 m
b) 10-10 cm
c) 10-8 m
d) 10-8 mm
The continuous X-ray spectra consists of radiations of
a) well defined wavelengths
b) very low wavelengths
c) very high wavelengths
d) all possible wavelengths
The size of an atom from Rutherford experiment is
a) 10-10 m
b) 10-16 m
c) 10-14 m
d) 10-12 m
The energy of meta stable state of Ne in He Ne laser is
a) 20.66 eV
b) 1.89 eV
c) 10.2 eV
d) 3.4 eV
The light from a LASER source is monochromatic because all the photons
a) are in phase
b) have same energy
c) have same amplitude
d) are in the same direction
Einsteins photoelectric effect and Bohrs theory of hydrogen spectral lines confirmed
a) dual nature of radiant energy
b) energy of matter
c) radiant energy d) matter waves
In an hydrogen atom, value of Bohr radius is
a) 0.53 x 10-8 m
b)53 A0
c) 0.53 A0
d) 530 nm
For the principal quantum number 3, the possible l values are
a) 3,2, 1
b) 2, 1, 0
c) 1, 0, -1
d) 0, -1, -2
The radius of second orbit of hydrogen atom is
a) 0.53A0
b) 2.12A0
c) 1.06A0
d) 4.24A0
The ratio of the specific charge of an particle to that of a proton is
a) 1 : 2
b) 1 : 1
c) 2 : 1
d) 1 : 4
For a first order X- ray diffraction, the wavelength of X ray equal to the inter planar distance at a glancing angle of
a) 450
b) 300
c) 600
d) 150
1 MeV =
a) 1.602 x 10-19 J
b) 1.602 x 10-16 J
c) 1.602 x 10-13 J
d) 1.602 x 10-31 J

PUBLIC QUESTIONS
VVI
1)
2)
3)
4)

32

In holography, which of the following is recorded on the photographic film?

a) Frequency and amplitude
b) phase and frequency c) phase and amplitude
d) frequency only
The direction of viscous force in Millikans oil drop experiment is
a) always downwards
b) always upwards
c) opposite to the direction of motion of the oil drop
d) either upwards or downwards
The value of Rydbergs constant is
a) 1.094 x 10 -7m1 b) 1.094 x 10 -7m-1
c) 1.094 x 10 7m-1
d) 1.094 x 107m1
When an electric field is applied to a atom each of the spectral lines split into several lines. This effect is known as
a) Zeeman effect
b) Stark effect
c)Raman effect
d)Seebeck effect

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5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)

In a discharge tube, the source of positive rays (Canal rays) is

a) cathode
b) anode
c) gas atoms present in the discharge tube
d) fluorescent screen
The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced in an X-ray tube at 1000 kV is
a) 0.0124A0
b) 0.124 A0
c) 1.24 A0
d) 0.00124 A0
The ionization potential of hydrogen atoms is
a) 13.6 eV
b) -13.6 eV
c) 13.6 V
d) -13.6 V
Number of waves per unit length is known as
a) wavelength
b) wave number
c) bandwidth
d) frequency
A three dimensional image of an object can be formed by
a) atomic spectroscopy b) holography
c) molecular spectroscopy
d) MASER
The spectral series of hydrogen atom in UV region are called
a) Balmer series
b) Lyman series
c) Paschen series
d) Pfund series
Maser material are
a) dia magnetic ions
b) Para magnetic ions
c) Ferro magnetic ions
d) non-magnetic ions
If the minimum wavelength of X-rays produced from a Coolidge tube is 0.062nm then the
potential difference between the cathode and target material is
a) 2000 V
b) 20,000V
c) 2 x 105 V
d) 6.2 X 103 V
The unit of Rydberg constant is
a) m
b) no unit
c) m-2
d) m-1
For the first order X-ray diffraction, the wavelength of the X-ray is equal to the lattice spacing at a glancing angle of
a) 150
b) 600
c) 450
d) 300
A Coolidge tube operates at 18600 V. The maximum frequency of X-radiation emitted from it is
a) 4.5 X 1018 Hz
b) 45 X 10 18 Hz
c) 4.05 x 1018 Hz
d) 45.5 x 10 18 Hz
If R is Rydbergs constant , the minimum wavelength of hydrogen spectrum is
a) 1 / R
b) R/4
c) 4/R
d) R
If a and b are semi-major and semi-minor axes of the ellipse respectively and I is the orbital quantum number,
then the expression to find the possible elliptical orbits is

18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)

33

+1

b) =
c) =
d) =
a) =

A crystal diffracts monochromatic X-rays. If the angle of diffraction for the second order is 900,then that for the first order
will be
a) 600
b) 450
c) 300
d) 150
In Sommerfield atom model , for a given value of n, the number of values l can take is
a) n
b) n+1
c) n-1
d) 2n+1
The energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atoms is -13.6 eV. Its potential energy is
a) -13.6 eV
b) 13.6 ev
c) -27.2eV
d) 27.2 eV
In an X-ray , the intensity of the emitted X-ray beam is increased by
a) increasing the filament current b) decreasing the filament current
c) increasing the target potential
c) decreasing the target potential
The wavelength of D1 and D2 lines emitted by sodium vapour lamp is
a) 589.6 nm ,589 nm
b) 589 nm, 589.6 nm
c) 589.3 nm , 589 nm
d) 589 nm, 589.3 nm
If the minimum wavelength of X-ray produced in a Coolidge tube is 0.62 A0, the operating potential is .
a) 20 kV
b) 0.2 kV
c) 2k V
d) 10 kV
Wave number is defined as the number of waves
a) produced in one second
b) in a distance of 1 metre
c) in a distance of 3 x 108 metre
d) in a distance of metre
In Sommerfield atom model, for principal quantum number n=3, which of the following sub shells represents circular path?
a)3s
b)3p
c) 3d
d) None of these
In Millikans experiment, the plates are kept at a distance of 16mm and are maintained at a potential difference of
10,000V. The electric intensity is
a) 62.5 V/m
b) 6.25 x 105 V/m
c) 6.25 x 103 V/m d) 1.6 x105 V/m
If R is Rydberg constant, the shortest wavelength of Paschen series is
a) R/9
b) 9/R
c) 16 / R
d) 25/R
e/m of cathode ray particle
a) depends upon the nature of the cathode
b) depends upon the nature of the anode
c) depends upon the nature of the gas atoms present inside the discharge tube
d) is independent of all these

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29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)

40)

If c is the velocity , the frequency and the wavelength of a radiation, then its frequency is defined as
a) the number of waves in a distance of one metre
b) the number of wave in a distance of
c)the number of waves in a distance of c
d) the number of waves produced in a period of T second.
A Coolidge tube operates at 24800 V. The maximum frequency of X-radiation emitted from Coolidge tube is
a) 6 x 1018 Hz
b) 3 x 1018 Hz
c) 6 x 108
d)3 x 108 Hz
The wave number of a spectral line of hydrogen atom is equal to Rydbergs constant. The line is
a) First line of Lyman series
b) series limit of Lyman series
b) first line of Pfund series
d) sries limit of Pfund series
In Millikans oil drop experiment, charged oil drop is balanced between the two plates. Now the viscous force
a) acts upwards
b) acts down wards
c) is zero
d) acts either upwards or downwards
In hydrogen atom, which of the following transitions produce a spectral line of maximum frequency?
a) 2 1
b) 6 2
c) 4 3
d) 5 1
In hydrogen atom, which of the following transitions produce a spectral line of maximum wavelength?
a) 2 1
b) 3 2
c) 4 3
d) 5 4
The ratio of of areas enclosed by first three Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom is
a) 1 : 16 : 81
b) 1 : 2 : 3
c) 1 : 4 : 9
d) 1 : 8 : 27
A Coolidge tube operates at 24800 V. The minimum wavelength of X radiation emitted from Coolidge tube is
a) 6 1018m
b) 3 1018m
c) 0.6 10-10m
d) 0.5 10-10 m
When an electron jumps from M shell to the K shell it gives
a) K line
b) K line
c) L line
d) L line
If is the frequency of characteristic X ray line emitted by a target element of atomic number Z, then Moseleys law is
a) Z
b) Z
c) Z2
d) Z3
The specific charge of cathode ray particle
a) depends on nature of the cathode
b) depends on nature of the anode
c) depends on nature of gas atoms present inside discharge tube
d) independent of all the above
In Millikans oil drop experiment, charged oil drop moves under the influence of electric field. Now the viscous force is
a) Zero
b) acts downwards
c) acts upwards
d) acts first upwards and then downwards.

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)
2)
3)

4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)

34

An X ray diffraction of a crystal gave first order reflection at 14014. If the wavelength of X rays is 1.543 A0,
the distance between the two cleavage planes is _____________
a) 314 A0
b) 31.4 A0
c) 3.14 A0
d) 3140 A0
7
-1
The value of Rydbergs constant is 1.094 x 10 m . The wave number of second line of Lyman series is ______________
a) 2.05 x 106 ms 1
b) 1.52 x 106 ms 1
c) 9.724 x 106 ms 1
d) 4.1 x 106 ms 1
The direction of deflection of electrons under the influence of magnetic field is given by ____________
a) Flemings right hand ruleb) Flemings left hand rule
c) Cork screw rule
d) end rule.
The electric field applied in Thomsons experiement is given by the formula
a) E = V / d
b) E = d / V
c) E = BeV
d) E = Vd
The radius of the metal plates used in Milikans oil drop experiment is ___________
a) 22 cm
b) 11 cm
c) 16 mm
d) 32 cm
The two metal plates in Millikans experiment are separated by a distance of _______
a) 22 cm
b) 11 mm
c) 16 cm
d) 16 mm
scattering experiment cannot be explained by ___________
a) Thomson atom model b) Rutherford atom model
c) Bohr atom model
d) Sommerfeld atom model
In Rutherford scattering experiment the observations are made with the help of ___
a) high power microscope
b) high power telescope c) low power microscoped) low power telescope
The energy of second excited state of hydrogen atom is ____________
a) 13.6 eV
b) 3.4 e V
c) 1.51 e V
d) 3.02 eV
The shape of I s sub shell is _____________
a) circular
b) elliptical
c) irregular
d) hexagonal
The principal quantum numbers can take values from ____________
a) 0 to n
b) 0 to
c) - to
d) 1 to
The maximum number of electrons in a sub shell is given by __________
a) 2(2l + 1)
b) 2n2
c) n2
d)l
Mosley arranged the elements based on _____________
a) atomic weight
b) atomic number
c) chemical properties
d) all the above

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14)

The pressure inside a Coolidge tube is ______________

a) 10-6 m of Hg
b) 10-7 m of Hg
c) 10-8 m of Hg
d) 10-9 m of Hg
The energy of metastable state of He in He Ne laser is _____________
a) 20.61 eV
b) 20.66 eV
c) 10.61 e V
d) 10)66 eV
The electrons were discovered by _____________
a) Newton
b)Clerk
c) William de Broglie
d) J.J Thomson
Most gases conduct electricity at _____________
a) normal pressure
b) very low pressure
c) very high pressure
d) none of the above
In Millikans experiment the down ward force acting on the oil drop is __________
a) attractive force
b) repulsive force
c) viscous force
d) coulomb force
When Cathode rays pass through an electric field __________
a) they are deflected towards + ve
b) they are deflected towards ve
c) they are not deflected from its direction
d) they are deflected perpendicular to the field.
X rays are used in Millikans oil drop experiment to __________
a) produce vacuum inside
b) evaporate the oil drops
c) ioinise the air inside
d) heat the oil drops
The sharp lines found in an X ray spectrum are due to ____________
a) line spectrum
b) continuous spectrum c) characteristic X rays
d) X diffraction
When an electron from the N shell jumps to the vacant state in L shell, the X ray emitted is known as ____________
a) K line
b) K line
c) L line
d) L line
Who discovered the non radiating orbits of electrons?
a) Thomson
b) Rutherford
c) Bohr
d) Sommerfeld
The energy required to remove an electron from the first orbit of hydrogen atom is ___
a) 3.6 e V
b) 136 eV
c) 1.36 eV
d) 13.6 eV
When an electron of hydrogen jumps from any higher orbit into the second orbit the spectral line lies in a series called
a) Lyman series
b) Balmer series
c) Paschen series
d) Brackett series
Paschen series lies in the region of ___________________
a) visible light
b) uv rays
c) IR rays
d) X rays

15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)

THREE MARKS
VVI
1)
3)
5)
6)
8)
10)

Define wave number. Give its unit

2)Define ionization potential
State Moseleys law
4)Define excitation potential energy and ionization potential energy
What are the characteristics of the anode to be used in a Coolidge tube?
What are hard and soft X rays?
7)What are the important characteristics of laser?
What is meant by normal population?
9)What is meant by population inversion?
Write the conditions to achieve laser action
11)Give the two important conclusions of Laue experiment

IMPORTANT
1)
3)
4)
6)

What is meant by positive column?

2)What are cathode rays?
Calculate the mass of an electron from the known values of specific charge and charge of electron.
What is meant by energy level diagram?
5)What are X rays?
State Braggs law
7)Give any three medical applications of laser

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)
3)

Why ordinary plane transmission gratings cannot be used to produce diffraction effects in X rays?
How does laser light differ from ordinary light?
Write the differences between spontaneous and stimulated emission

PUBLIC PROBLEMS( IMPORTANT )

1)
2)
3)

35

An X-ray diffraction of a crystal gave the first line at a glancing angle 627 . If the wavelength of X-ray is 0.58 , find the
distance between the two cleavage planes.
Calculate the longest wavelength that can be analysed by a rock sale crystal of spacing d = 2.82A in the first order.
Rydberg constant for hydrogen atom is 1.097 x 107 m-1. Calculate the shortest wavelength of the spectral line
of its Lyman series.

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4)

How much should be the voltage of an X-ray tube so that the electrons emitted from the cathode may give an
X-ray of wavelength 1 A0 after striking the target?
Find the minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an X-ray tube operation at 1000kV.
Calculate the short wavelength limit of Lyman series.( R = 1.097 x 107 m-1 )
The minimum wavelength of X rays produced from a Coolidge tube is 0.05 nm. Find the operating voltage of the
Coolidge tube
A beam of electrons moving with a uniform speed of 4 107 ms1 is projected normal to the uniform magnetic field
where B = 1 103 Wb/m2. What is the path of the beam in magnetic field?
Wavelength of Balmer second line is 4861. Calculate the wavelength of first line

5)
6)
7)
8)
9)

FIVE MARKS
VVI
1)
3)
4)

Write the properties of cathode rays

2)Write the properties of positive rays
Obtain an expression for the energy of an electron for hydrogen atom in nth orbit
Explain the spectral series of hydrogen atom
5)State and obtain Braggs law

IMPORTANT
1)
3)
4)
6)
8)

Explain Coolidge tube to produce X rays

2)Describe Laue experiment
Explain the results of Rutherford scattering experiment
What are the drawbacks of Rutherfords atom model
5)Explain characteristics X ray spectrum
Explain continuous X ray spectrum
7)
What are the various applications of laser in medical field
What are the drawbacks of Sommerfeld atom model

PUBLIC PROBLEMS( IMPORTANT )

1)
2)

Wavelength of Balmer second line is 4861 . calculate the wavelength of the first line.
In Braggs spectrometer , the glancing angle for first order spectrum was observed to be 80.
Calculate the wavelength of X-rays, if d= 2.82 x10-10 m. At what angle will the second maximum occur?
An a particle is projected with an energy of 4 Mev directly towards a gold nucleus. Calculate the distance of its closest
approach.
( atomic no. of gold = 79, atomic no. of particle = 2 )
An electron beam passes through a transverse magnetic field of 2 x 10-3 tesla and an electric field E of 3.4 x 104 V/m
acting simultaneously. If the path of the electrons remains undeviated, calculate the speed of electrons. If the electric field
is removed, what will be the radius of the electron path?

3)
4)

TEN MARKS

VVI
1)
2)
3)

Describe the J.J. Thomson method to determine the specific charge of electron
State Bohrs postulates. Obtain an expression for the radius of nth orbit of hydrogen atom
How will you determine the wavelength of X - rays using Bragg spectrometer?
Write any five properties of X rays
Draw a neat sketch of Ruby laser. Explain its working with the help of energy level diagram
Draw a neat sketch of He Ne laser. Explain its working with the help of energy level diagram

4)
5)

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)

Describe the Millikans oil drop method to determine the charge of an electron
Explain Rutherford scattering experiment. Deduce the expression for distance of closest approach

36

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7. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter and Relativity

ONE MARKS BOOK BACK ( VVI )

7.7

A photon of frequency is incident on a metal surface of threshold frequency . The kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectron is
(a) h ( )
(b) h
(c) h
(d) h ( + )
The work function of a photoelectric material is 3.3 eV. The threshold frequency will be equal to
14
10
20
14
(a) 8 10 Hz
(b) 8 10 Hz
(c) 5 10 Hz
(d) 4 10 Hz.
The stopping potential of a metal surface is independent of
(a) frequency of incident radiation
(b) intensity of incident radiation
(c) the nature of the metal surface
(d) velocity of the electrons emitted.
At the threshold frequency, the velocity of the electrons is
(a) zero
(b) maximum
(c) minimum
(d) infinite
The photoelectric effect can be explained on the basis of
(a) corpuscular theory of light
(b) wave theory of light
(c) electromagnetic theory of light
(d) quantum theory of light
The wavelength of the matter wave is independent of
(a) mass
(b) velocity
(c) momentum
(d) charge
If the kinetic energy of the moving particle is E, then the de Broglie wavelength is,

7.8

(b) = h
(c) = h 2mE
(a) =
The momentum of the electron having wavelength 2 is

7.1
7.2
7.3
7.4
7.5
7.6

2mE

24

7.9
7.10

24

(d) = E
24

h
2m
24

(a) 3.3 10 kg m s1
(b) 6.6 10 kg m s1
(c) 3.3 10 kg m s1 (d) 6.6 10 kg m s1
According to relativity, the length of a rod in motion
(a) is same as its rest length
(b) is more than its rest length
(c) is less than its rest length
(d) may be more or less than or equal to rest length depending on the speed of the rod
If 1 kg of a substance is fully converted into energy, then the energy produced is
16
24
8
(a) 9 10 J
(b) 9 10 J
(c) 1 J
(d) 3 10 J
PTA QUESTIONS ( IMPORTANT )

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

6)
7)
8)
9)
10)

37

Focal length of the electromagnetic lens used in an electron microscope depends on

a) the velocity of electrons
b) the magnitude of the current passing through energizing coils
c) the medium between the energizing coils
d) all the above
Photoelectric current depends upon
a) intensity of incident light
b) frequency of incident light
c) the potential difference between two plates
d) all the above
Electron microscope is operated in
a) high pressure
b) high vacuum
c) normal pressure
d) none of the above
Stopping potential of a metal surface is independent of
a) frequency of incident radiation
b) intensity of incident radiation
c) the nature of metal surface
d) velocity of electron emitted
The maximum KE of the photoelectrons
a) increases with intensity of incident light
b) decreases with intensity of incident light
c) varies linearly with the frequency of incident light
d) varies exponentially with the frequency of the incident light
The linear momentum of de Broglie wave is
a) h / P
b) / P
c) h /
d) / h2
The resolving power of an electron microscope will be ________________ than that of an optical microscope.
a) 10, 000 times greater b) 1, 00, 000 times greater
c) 1, 00, 000 times lesser d) 10, 000 times lesser
When the frequency of incident radiation increases the value of stopping potential
_____________
a) will decrease
b) will increase
c) remains the same
d) will not increase
The potential which is just sufficient to bring the photoelectric current to zero is called ______________ potential
a) photoelectric
b) threshold
c) stopping
d) minimum
The rest mass of photon is
a) h
b) h / C
c) C / h
d) zero

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11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)

The phenomenon of photoelectric effect is ________

a) spontaneous process b) instantaneous process
c) continuous process
d) stimulated process
The cathode of a photo emissive cell is coated with _____________
a) low work function material
b) high work function material
c) light sensitive material d) reflecting material
Newtons laws are not valid in
a) inertial frames
b) non-inertial frames
c) all frames
d) reference frames
In the photo emissive cell, the anode is made up
a)copper
b) gold
c) platinum
d) zinc
In Newtons mechanics which of the following is treated as absolute?
a) mass
b) time
c) length & space
d) all the above
____________ demonstrated photoelectric effect experimentally first,
a) J.J. Thomson
b) Hallwachs
c) Richardson
d) de Broglie
If the electron is moving with a velocity of 500 km / s then the de Broglie wavelength is
a) 500 m
b) 9.11 Ao
c) 14.5 Ao
d) 66.2 Ao
The wavelength of electrons accelerated by a potential difference of 60, 000 V is about
a) 3 x 10-12 m
b) 5 x 10-12 m
c) 5 x 10-10 m
d) 4 x 10-10 m

PUBLIC QUESTIONS ( VVI )

1)
2)

3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)

The value of stopping potential when the frequency of light is equal to the threshold frequency is
a) maximum
b) Zero
c) minimum
d) infinity
Two photons, each of energy 2.5 eV are simultaneously incident on the metal surface. If the work function of the
metal is 4.5 eV then from the surface of the metal
a) one electron will be emitted
b) two electrons will be emitted
c) more than two electrons will be emitted
d) not a single electron will be emitted
The work function of a metal if 6.626 X10-19 J. The threshold frequency is
a) 1 x 1015 Hz
b) 10 x 1 -19 Hz
c) 1 x 10-15 Hz
d) 10 x 1019 Hz
According to special theory of relativity the only constant in all frames of reference is
a) mass
b) length
c) time
d) velocity of light
When a material particle of rest mass m0 attains the velocity of light is mass becomes
a) 0
b) 2 m0
c) 4 m0
d) infinity
The particle which has zero mass but has energy is
a) electron
b) photon
c) proton
d) neutron
Photon has
a) energy but zero mass b) mass but zero energy c) zero mass and zero energy
d) infinite mass and energy
An electron of mass m and charge e accelerated from rest through a potential of V volt, then its final velocity is
a) Ve / m
b) Ve / 2m
c) 2Ve / m
d) 2Ve / m
Einsteins photoelectric equation is
a) W+ h = mv2max
b) mv2max = W
c) h + mv2max = W
d) W+ mv2max = h
Electron microscope works on the principle of
a) photoelectric effect
b) particle nature of electron
c) wave nature of moving electron
d) dual nature of matter
If the radius of third Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is r, then the de Broglie wavelength of electron in this orbit is
a) r / 3
b) 3 r
c) 2 r / 3
d) 3 (2 r )
The de Broglie wavelength of electron accelerated with a potential V is

a) =
13)
14)
15)
16)

38

b) =

c) =

d) =

A graph is drawn taking frequency of incident radiation along the X axis and its stopping potential along the Y axis.
The nature of the graph is
a) a straight line
b) a parabola
c) an ellipse
d) a circle
A photon of energy 2E is incident on a photosensitive surface of photoelectric work function E. The maximum kinetic
energy of photoelectron emitted is
a) E
b) 2 E
c) 3 E
d) 4 E
In the photo electric phenomenon if the ratio of the frequency of incident radiation incident on a photosensitive surface is
1 : 2 : 3 the ratio of the photoelectric current is
a) 1 : 2 : 3
b) 1 : 2 : 3
c) 1 : 4 : 9
d) 1 : 1 : 1
When the momentum of a particle increases, its de Broglie wavelength
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) infinity

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17)

When an electron is accelerated with potential V. its de Broglie wavelength is directly proportional to
a) V
b) V -1
c) v
d) V -
Stopping potential of a metal surface is independent of
a) frequency of incident radiation
b) intensity of incident radiation
c) the nature of metal surface
d) velocity of electron emitted
The number of de Broglie waves of an electron in the nthorbit of an atom is
a) n
b) n -1
c) n + 1
d) 2n
The work function of a photoelectric material is 3.3 eV. The threshold frequency will be equal to
14
10
20
14
(a) 8 10 Hz
(b) 8 10 Hz
(c) 5 10 Hz
(d) 4 10 Hz.

18)
19)
20)

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)

The frequency of photon having an energy of 75 eV is _____________

a) 181.1 x 1016 Hz
b) 18.11 x 1016 Hz
c) 1.811 x 1019 Hz
d) 1.811 x 1016Hz
A particle mass of 1 milligram has equivalent energy ___________
a) 3 x 105J
b) 9 x 105 J
c) 9 x 1010 J
d) 9 x 1013 J
Photo electric current __________ with the intensity of incident radiation
a) increases
b) increases linearly
c) decrease
d) decreases linearly
The relation between stopping potential (V0) and K.E of electrons is given as ________
a) eV0 = mV2max
b) eV0 = mVmax
c) eV0 = mV2max
d) V0 = mV2max
In the photo emissive cell the anode is made up of ______________
a) copper
b) gold
c) platinum
d) zinc
For the operating voltage of 100 V the de Broglie wavelength of electron is _________
a) 1227
b) 12.27
c) 1.227
d) 122.7
Angular momentum of an electron in a stable orbit is equal to ___________
a) nh
b) mr
c) mr2
d) m2r
The resolving power of electron microscope _______ times greater than that of optical microscope
a)109
b)108
c) 1012
d)105
________ experiment proves the non existence of ether in space
a) Galileo
b) Davisson Germer
c) Michelson and Morley
d) Lorentz
Electron microscope is operated in ______________
a) high pressure
b) high vacuum
c) normal pressure
d) None of the above
In an electron microscope ____________ lenses are used
a) glass
b) quartz
c) electromagnetic
d) rock salt
At stopping potential the photoelectric current is _____________
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) infinity
d) zero

2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)

THREE MARKS
VVI
1)
3)
5)
7)
9)

What is photoelectric effect?

Define threshold frequency
What are photo cells?
Mention the applications of electron microscope
State the postulates of special theory of relativity

2)Define stopping potential ( cut off potential )

4)Define work function
6)What are matter waves?
8)Mention the limitations of electron microscope

IMPORTANT
1)
3)

Define the frame of reference

2)Distinguish between inertial and non- inertial frames of references
If a body moves with velocity of light, what will be its mass? Comment your result

PUBLIC PROBLEMS (IMPORTANT)

1)
2)
3)

39

What is the de Broglie wavelength of electron of kinetic energy 120 eV? (h= 6.626 x 10-34 Js;m= 9.1 x 10-31 kg)
Calculate the threshold wavelength of certain metal of work function 1.8 eV
Find the de Broglie wavelength of electron in the fourth orbit of hydrogen atom.

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FIVE MARKS
VVI
1)
2)
3)
5)

What is photoelectric effect?.State the laws of photoelectric emission

Derive Einsteins photoelectric equation
What are the applications of photo cells?
4)Derive an expression for de Broglie wavelength for matter waves
Explain length contraction
6)Derive Einsteins mass energy equivalence

IMPORTANT
1)
2)

Explain time dilation

Derive an expression for de Broglie wavelength for electron

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)

Explain the variation of photoelectric current with applied voltage

Discuss the effect of frequency of incident radiation on stopping potential

PUBLIC PROBLEMS(IMPORTANT )
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)

How fast would a rocket have to go relative to an observer for its length to be corrected to 99 % of its length at rest?
At what speed is a particle moving if the mass equal to three times its rest mass?
The time interval measured by an observer at rest is 2.5 X 10-8 s. What is the time interval as measured by an observer
moving with a velocity 0.73 C ?
The work function of iron is 4.7 eV. Calculate the cut off frequency and the corresponding cut off wavelength of this
metal.
A metallic surface when illuminated with light of wavelength 3333 A0 emits electrons with energies upto 0.6 eV. Calculate
the work function of the metal.
A proton is moving at a speed of 0.900 times the velocity of light. Find its kinetic energy in joule and MeV.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of electron of kinetic energy 120 eV?

8. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
ONE MARKS BOOK BACK( VVI )
8.1
8.2
8.3
8.4
8.5
8.6
8.7
8.8
8.9

40

The nuclear radius of 4Be8 nucleus is

(a) 1.3 1015 m

(b) 2.6 1015 m
(c) 1.3 1013 m
(d) 2.6 1013 m
The nuclei 13Al27 and 14Si28 are example of
(a) isotopes
(b) isobars
(c) isotones
(d) isomers
The mass defect of a certain nucleus is found to be 0.03 amu. Its binding energy is
(a) 27.93 eV
(b) 27.93 keV
(c) 27.93 MeV
(d) 27.93 GeV
Nuclear fission can be explained by
(a) shell model
(b) liquid drop model
(c) quark model
(d) Bohr atom model
The nucleons in a nucleus are attracted by
(a) gravitational force (b) electrostatic force
(c) nuclear force (d) magnetic force
The ionisation power is maximum for
(a) neutrons
(b) particles
(c) rays
(d) particles
The half life period of a certain radioactive element with disintegration constant 0.0693 per day is
(a) 10 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 140 days
(d) 1.4 days
The radio-isotope used in agriculture is
(a) 15P31
(b)15 P 32
(c) 11Na23
(d) 11Na24
The average energy released per fission is
(a) 200 eV
(b) 200 MeV
(c) 200 meV
(d) 200 GeV

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8.10
8.11
8.12
8.13
8.14
8.15
8.16

The explosion of atom bomb is based on the principle of

(a) uncontrolled fission reaction
(b) controlled fission reaction
(c) fusion reaction
(d) thermonuclear reaction
Anemia can be diagnosed by
(a) 15P31
(b)15P32
(c) 26 Fe 59
(d) 11Na24
In the nuclear reaction Hg198 + X Au198 + H1, X-stands for
80

(a) 5.05 minutes

8.17

8.18
8.19

79

(a) proton
(b) electron
(c) neutron
(d) deuteron
In decay
(a) atomic number decreases by one
(b) mass number decreases by one
(c) proton number remains the same
(d) neutron number decreases by one
Isotopes have
(a) same mass number but different atomic number
(b) same proton number and neutron number
(c) same proton number but different neutron number
(d) same neutron number but different proton number
The time taken by the radioactive element to reduce to 1/e times is
(a) half life
(b) mean life
(c) half life / 2
(d) twice the mean life
The half life period of Na13 is 10.1 minute. Its life time is
(b) 20.2 minutes

(c)

10.1
minutes
0.6931

(d) infinity

Positive rays of the same element produce two different traces in a Bainbridge mass spectrometer. The positive ions have
(a) same mass with different velocity
(b) same mass with same velocity
(c) different mass with same velocity
(d) different mass with different velocity
The binding energy of 26Fe56 nucleus is
(a) 8.8 MeV
(b) 88 MeV
(c) 493 MeV
(d) 41.3 MeV
The ratio of nuclear density to the density of mercury is about
(a) 1.3 1010
(b) 1.3
(c) 1.3 1013
(d) 1.3 104

PTA QUESTIONS ( IMPORTANT )

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)

41

Mass of proton is ______________times the mass of electron.

a) 2
b) 1836
c) 1636
d) 1863
Number of neutrons in 17 Cl 35 is
a) 17
b) 18
c) 35
d)19
Empirical relation between radius of nucleus (R) and its mass number (A) is given by
a) R = r0A4
b) R = r0 3 A4
c) R = r03 A1/3
d) R = r0A1/3
16
The charge of 8 O nucleus is
a) 1.6 x 10-19 C
b) -12.8 x 10-19 C
c) 1.28 x 10-18 C
d) 2.56 x 10-18 C
Energy equivalence of 1 amu is
a) 931 eV
b) 913 eV
c) 931 MeV
d) 913 MeV
In Bainbridge mass spectrometer, the distance between the opening of the chamber and the position of the
dark line gives
a) the radius
b) the diameter
c) half the radius
d) twice the diameter
Ratio of strength of nuclear force to that of gravitational force is
a)10-40
b) 10-20
c) 1020
d) 1040
The nucleons in a nucleus are attracted by
a) gravitational force
b) electrostatic force
c) nuclear force
d) magnetic force
Nuclear forces were explained by
a) Chadwick
b) Bohr
c) Curie
d) Yukawa
Nuclear force is a
a) long range force
b) short range force
c) repulsive force
d) charge based force
Nuclear density
a) depends on atomic number
b) is a constant c) depends on neutron number
d) depends on mass number
1 amu is equal to
a) 1.494 x 10-10 J
b) 14.94 x 10-10 J
c) 931 J
d) 931eV
Energy released per nuclear fusion
a) 200Mev
b) 26.7eV
c) 2.67 MeV
d) 26.7 MeV

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14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)

42

Activity of one gram of radium is

a) 3.7 x 1010 becquerel
b) 3.7 curie
c) 3.7 x 1010 curie
In pressurized heavy water reactors, the fuel used is
a) uranium
b) uranium carbide
c) uranium oxide
The ionization power is minimum for
a) alpha particles
b) particles
c) gamma rays
The relation connecting half life and mean life of a radioactive sample is

d) 1 becquerel
d) low enriched uranium
d) electrons

a) = 0.6931T
b) T = 0.6931 /
c) = 0.6931 / T d) T = 0.6931
Activity of one gram of radium is equal to
a) 1 roentgen
b) 1 curie
c) 1 henry
d) I second
14
12
The ratio of C and C atoms in atmosphere is
a) 106 : 1
b) 104 : 1
c) 1 : 106
d) 1: 104
The exposure of radiation dosage which causes diseases like leukemia is
a) 600 R
b) 100R
c) 250 mR
d) 25 mR
The half life period of an isolated neutron is about
a) 31 minutes
b) 13 minutes
c) 13 hours
d) 13 s
The natural radioactive gas is
a) radon
b) helium
c) oxygen
d) krypton
Cobalt 60 is used for the treatment of
a) cancer
b) heart attack
c) thyroid gland
d) maintaining blood circulation
The half life period of radiocarbon is
a) 2800 years
b) 5600 years
c) 4200 years
d) 5300 years
An example for electrostatic accelerator is
a) Cockcraft Walton accelerator
b) Linear accelerator
c) cyclotron
d) Betatron
The class of accelerators which can accelerate particle only upto few million
electron volt are
a) Linear accelerator
b) cyclotron accelerator c) spiral type accelerator
d) electrostatic accelerator
With spiral type accelerators, the particles are accelerated to an energy in the order of
a) 106eV
b) 109eV
c) 10-9eV
d) few million electron volt
The first instrument to record the visual observation of the tracks of the charged particles when they pass through
matter is
a) Geiger muller counter
b) Wilsons cloud chamber
c) Vandegraff generator
d) Cyclotron
Average number of neutrons released per fission of uranium is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 2.5
d) 3.5
The instrument used to measure the intensity of radioactive radiation is
a) Geiger muller counter
b) Bainbridge spectrometer
c) electron microscope
d) Cyclotron
The rest mass of mesons vary between
a) 250 me 1000 me
b) 250 mp 1000 mp
c) 250me 100 me
d) 250me 100me
In fast breedor reactors,
a) heavy water used as moderator
b) graphite is used as moderator
c) ordinary water is used as moderator
d) no moderator is required
The explosion of atom bomb is based on the principle
a) uncontrolled fission reaction
b) controlled fission reaction
c) fusion reaction
d) thermonuclear reaction
The principle of an atom bomb is
a) nuclear fission
b) nuclear fussion
c) conservation of momentum
d) collision of simple particles
Between latitudes of 420 and 900 the cosmic ray intensity is
a) minimum
b) maximum
c) a constant
d) none of the above
_____________ is the reason for production of carbon 14 in the atmosphere.
a) X rays
b) UV rays
c) Cosmic rays
d) gamma rays
The cosmic ray intensity is maximum at an altitude ______________
a) 10 km
b) 20 km
c) 40 km
d) 60 km
The cosmic ray intensity is maximum at a place of latitude
a) 0
b) 300
c) 400
d) 900
Natural uranium consists of
a) 99.28% of U235 and 0.72% of U238
b) 99.28% of U235 and 0.72% of Pu239
238
235
c) 99.28% of U and 0.72% of U
d) 99.28% of U238 and 0.72% of Pu239
Energy of the primary cosmic rays is in order of
a) 108 MeV
b) 108 eV
c) 1018 MeV
d) 1018 eV

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41)
42)
43)
44)

The safe limit of a person to receive radioactive radiation per week is

a) 250 R
b) 25 mR
c) 250mR
Which of the following is the strongest force in nature _____________
a) electrostatic force
b) gravitational force
c) nuclear force
Muons belong to ____________
a) photons
b) leptons
c) baryons
Nuclear fission can be explained by
a) quark model
b)Bohr atom model
c) liquid drop model

d) 250R
d) magnetic force
d) mesons
d) shell model

PUBLIC QUESTIONS ( VVI )

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)

43

The nuclear force is due to the continuous exchange of particles called

a) leptons
b) mesons
c) hyperons
d) photons
14
1
1
In the following nuclear reaction 7 N + 0 n
X+1H
a) 6 N 14
b) 6 C 14
c) 6 O 14
d) 7 C 13
Which of the following particles is a lepton?
a) electron
b) proton
c) neutron
d) meson
One amu is equal to
a) 931 eV
b) mass of carbon atom c) 1.66 X 10 -27 kg
d) mass of oxygen atom
The time taken by the radioactive element to reduce to e - times is
a) half life
b) mean life
c) half life / 2
d) mean life / 2
The penetrating power is maximum for
a) particles
b) particles
c) gamma rays
d) protons
In the following nuclear reaction 13 Al 27 + 2 He 4
X+0n1
the element X is
a) 15 Si 30
b) 15 P 30
c) 15 S 30
d) 15 Si 29
The moderator used in nuclear reactor is
a) cadmium
b) boron carbide
c) heavy water
d) uranium ( 92 U 235 )
The numbers of and particles emitted when an isotope 92 U 238 undergoes and decays to form 82 Pb 206
are respectively
a) 6 , 8
b) 4 , 3
c) 8 , 6
d) 3 , 4
The particles which exchange between the nucleons and responsible for the origin of the nuclear force are
a) photons
b) leptons
c) mesons
d) baryons
Which of the following is not a moderator?
a) liquid sodium
b) ordinary water
c) graphite
d) heavy water
A
An element Z x successively undergoes three decays and four decays and gets converted to an element Y. The
mass and atomic number of the element Y are respectively
a) A 12, Z 2
b) A 12, Z + 2
c) A 12, Z + 4
d) A 8, Z + 2
The fuel used in Kamini reactor is
a) 92 U 238
b) 92 U 233
c) 92 Pu 239
d) low enriched uranium
The mean life and half life of a radioactive element are related as
a) = 2T
b) = T / 0.6931
c) = 0.6931 T
d) = T / 2
A
A radioactive element Z X after emitting three particles and four particles is converted into an element Y
represented as
a) Z-6 Y A-12
b) Z+2 Y A-12
c) Z-2 Y A-12
d) Z-10 Y A-12
Which of the following is used to detect the presence of blocks in blood vessels?
a) 15 P 31
b) 15 P 32
c) 26 Fe 59
d) 11 Na 24
-15
If the nuclear radius is 2.6 X 10 m, the mass number will be
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
Slow neutrons are neutrons having energies between
a) 1000 eV to 2000 eV
b) 2000 eV to 0.5 MeV
c) 0 eV to 1000 eV
d) 0.5 MeV to 10 MeV
Particle that has no charge and no rest mass but travels with velocity of light is
a) baryon
b) meson
c) lepton
d) photon
The half life of radioactive element is 300 days. The disintegration constant of the radioactive element is
a) 0.00231 day
b) 0.00231 / day
c) 0.0231 / day
d) 0.0231 day
The explosion of atom bomb is based on the principle of
a) uncontrolled fission reaction b) controlled fission reaction c) fusion reaction
d) thermonuclear reaction

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22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)

28)
29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)

38)
39)

40)

The mean life of radon is 5.5 days. Its half life is

a) 8 days
b) 2.8 days
c) 0.38 days
d) 3.8 days
The energy equivalent to 1 amu is
a) 931 MeV
b) 931 meV
c) 931 eV
d) 913 MeV
9
12
1
In the nuclear reaction 4 Be + X
+ 0 n , X stands for
6C
a) proton
b) particle
c) electron
d) deuteron
Which of the following belongs to Baryon group
a) photon
b) electron
c) pion
d) proton
The ionization power is maximum for
a) particles
b) particles
c) gamma rays
d) neutrons

t
According to the law of disintegration N = N0 e ,the number of radioactive atoms that have been decayed during
a time t is
a) N0
b) N
c) N0 N
d) N0 / 2
The coolant used in fast breeder reactor is
a) ordinary water
b) heavy water c) liquid sodium d) boron carbide
Which of the following are isotones?
a) 92 U 235 and 92 U 238
b) 8 O 16 and 7 N 14
c) 6 C 14 and 7 N 14
d) 7 N 14 and 6 C 13
Arrange , and rays in the increasing order of their ionizing power
a)
b)
c)
d)
When mass number increases, nuclear density
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) may increase or decrease
The nuclear force between a proton and another proton inside the nucleus is
a) zero
b) short range
c) repulsive
d) long range
The cosmic ray intensity is maximum at latitude of
a) 00
b) 450
c) 900
d) 600
The rays which have the greatest ionizing power are
a) neutrons
b) particles
c) rays
d) particles
Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
a) nuclear fission
b) nuclear fusion
c) nuclear force
d) carbon nitrogen cycle
Which of the following is massless and chargeless but carrier of energy and spin?
a) neutrino
b) muon
c) pion
d) kaon
In proton-proton cycle four protons fuse together to give
a) an particle, two electrons, two neutrinos and energy of 26.7 MeV
b) an particle, two positrons, two neutrinos and energy of 26.7 MeV
c) a helium atom, two positrons, two neutrinos and energy of 26.7 eV
d) an particle, two positrons, two antineutrinos and energy of 26.7 MeV
The explosion of atom bomb is based on the principle
a) uncontrolled fission reaction
b) controlled fission reaction
c) fusion reaction
d) thermonuclear reaction
1 curie is
a) activity of 1 g of uranium
b) 1 disintegration / second
c) 3.7 X 1010 becquerel
d) 1.6 X 1012 disintegration / second
The binding energy per nucleon of 26 Fe 56 nucleus is
a) 8.8 MeV
b) 88 MeV
c) 493 MeV
d) 41.3 MeV

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)
2)
3)

44

The nuclear force and gravitational force are in the ratio _____________
a) 1: 1040
b) 10-40 : 1
c) 1040 : 1
d) 1010 : 1
In a nuclear reaction, there is a decrease of mass of 0.05 amu. Then the energy released in the nuclear reaction is
a) 46.55 eV
b) 46.55 MeV
c) 465.5 MeV
d) 465.5 eV
The half life period of a radioactive element is 15 hours. At the end of 30 hours the fraction of the radioactive element
remaining is ____________
a) 0
b) 1 / 3
c)
d)1 / 4

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

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4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)

If 15/16 of an artificial radioactive element decays in 176 seconds, its half life is ____
a) 44 S
b) 42 S
c) 40 S
d) 45 S
If initially , the number of disintegration per minute of carbon 14 be 15.3, when will it be reduced to 3.83 per minute?
a) After 6500 years
b) After 5600 years
c) After 11200 years
d) After 16800 years
The half life of a given sample of a radioactive material is 5 days. The number of nuclei at a given instant is N.
The number of nuclei that remains undecayed after 10 days is __
a) N/4
b) N/22
c) N/32
d) N/2
The shape of a nucleus in stable state is ____________
a) elliptical
b) cone
c) square
d) spherical
Inter molecular forces in a liquid drop are ____________
a) very weak
b) very strong
c) short range forces
d) long range forces
The unit of radioactivity is ________________
a) Curie
b) Joliot
c) Joule
d) Watt
1 Becquerel = _____________
a) 1 disintegration per second
b) 2 disintegration per second
c) 4 disintegration per second
d) 10 disintegration per second
The high resistance used in G.M counter is of ____________
a) 1 mega ohm
b) 10 mega ohm
c) 100 mega ohm
d) 10000 ohm
Mass of hyperons vary from __________
a) 1836 me to 3275 me
b) 1836 me to 2180 me
c) 2180 me to 3275 me
d) 0 to 3275 me
When a magnetic field is applied on a moving charge it will follow ___________
a) a spiral path
b) a zig zag path
c) a straight line path
d) a circular path
To control the chain reaction, the following rods are used in a nuclear reactor_________
a) carbon rods
b) uranium rods
c) cadmium rods
d) none of these
The number of isotopes of chlorine is ____________
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
The mass of neutron is _____________
a) 1.007277 amu
b) 1.0007277 amu
c) 1.008665amu
d) 1.0008665amu
The maximum value of BE / A is ___________
a) 8.1 MeV
b) 8.8 MeV
c) 9.8 MeV
d) 7.8 MeV
The velocity sector in Bainbridge mass spectrometer allows ______________
a)all the positive ions to pass through
b)no positive ions to pass through
c)only the positive ions of particular velocity to pass through

19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)

45

d)only the positive ions of particular mass to pass through

In the velocity selector the angle between magnetic and electric fields is _________
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 450
Who discovered the highly radioactive element Radium?
a) Henry Becquerel
b) Soddy
c) Fajans
d) Curie couple
The metal which absorbs all the three types f radioactive radiation is ________
a) copper
b) gold
c) silver
d) lead
The window in the GM counter is made up of _____________
a) copper
b) lead
c) mica
d) iron
In the nuclear fission of uranium the fission products having atomic numbers ranging from ____________ are obtained
a) 1 to 34
b) 35 to 58
c) 24 to 58
d) 58 to 105
The safe limit of a person to receive radioactive radiation per week is _________
a) 250 mR
b) 250 mR
c) 250 MR
d) 250 R
The fusion process requires __________
a) low pressure
b) high pressure
c) low temperature
d) high temperature
The intensity of cosmic rays is minimum at ____________
a) at poles
b)latitude 400
c) latitude 500
d) equator
Particles that have rest mass equal to or greater than that of a nucleons are __________
a) Baryons
b)Mesons
c)Leptons
d) Photons
All the elementary particles that have masses smaller than of pions are named as ___
a) Baryons
b)Mesons
c)Leptons
d) Photons
Positron belongs to the group of ____________
a) Baryons
b)Mesons
c)Leptons
d) Photons

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THREE MARKS
VVI
1)
3)
5)
7)
9)
11)
13)

What are isotopes? Give examples

2)What are isobars? Give examples
What are isotones? Give examples
4)Define atomic unit
Define radioactivity
6)State the radioactive law of disintegration
Define curie
8)How do you classify the neutrons in terms of its kinetic energy
Define roentgen
10)What are the precautions to be taken by those working in radiation laboratories?
What is meant by breeder reactor?
12)What are cosmic rays?
What is meant by pair production and annihilation? 14)Write the uses of nuclear reactor

IMPORTANT
1)
3)

Write any three properties of nuclear force

Define activity of a radioactive substance

2)Define half life period of radioactive element

4)Define mean life period

ADDITIONAL
1)
3)
5)
6)
8)

What is artificial transmutation?

2)Distinguish between uncontrolled and controlled chain reaction
Define critical size and critical mass in nuclear fission 4)What are anti particles?
Select the pairs of isotopes, isobars and isotones from the following nuclei 11 Na 23 , 12 Mg 24 , 11 Na 24 , 10 Ne 23
Calculate the energy equivalence of 1 amu
7)What do you mean by artificial radioactivity?
What are thermo nuclear reactions?
9)Distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion

PUBLIC PROBLEMS ( IMPORTANT )

1)
2)

The half life of radon is 3.8 days. Calculate its mean life
The radioactive isotope 84Po214 undergoes a successive disintegration of two decays and two decays. Find the
atomic number and mass number of the resulting isotope
Tritium has a half life of 12.5 years. What fraction of the sample will be left over after 25 years?
What percentage of a given radioactive substance will be left after 5 half life periods?
Calculate the number of atoms in one gram of 3 Li 6
The halflife of 84 Po 214 is 3 minute. What percentage of the sample has decayed in 15 minutes.

3)
4)
5)
6)

FIVE MARKS
VVI
1)
3)

Give the properties of rays

Give the properties of rays

2)Give the properties of rays

5)Explain Soddy Fajans radioactive displacement law

IMPORTANT
1)
3)

Give the properties of neutrons

Explain the different characteristics of nuclear forces

2)What are the applications of radio isotopes?

4)Explain liquid drop model of the nucleus

ADDITIONAL
1)
3)

Explain chain reaction in nuclear fission with a neat diagram 2)Explain the working of an atom bomb
Explain how cosmic ray shower is formed
4)How do you classify the elementary particles into four groups?

PUBLIC PROBLEMS ( IMPORTANT)

1)
2)

46

A piece of bone from an archaeological site is found to give a count rate of 15 counts per minute. A similar sample of fresh
bone gives a count rate of 19 counts per minute. Calculate the age of the specimen. ( Given T = 5570 years )
Calculate the energy released when 1 kg of 92 U 235 undergoes nuclear fission. Assume energy per fission is 200 MeV.
Avagadro number = 6.023 X 1023. Express your answer in kilowatt hour also

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3)

Find the energy released when two 1 H 2 nuclei fuse together to form a single 2 He 4 nucleus. Given the binding energies
per nucleon of 1 H 2 and 2 He 4 are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV respectively
A reactor is developing energy at the rate of 32 MW. Calculate the required number of fissions per second of 92 U 235.
Assume that energy per fission is 200 MeV
Show that the mass of radium ( 88 Ra 226 ) with an activity of 1 curie is almost a gram.
(Given T = 1600 years, 1 curie = 3.7 X 1010 disintegrations per second )
Calculate the mass of coal required to produce the same energy as that produced by the fission of 1 kg of U 235
(Given : heat combustion of coal = 33.6 X 10 6 J kg -1, energy per fission of U 235 = 200 MeV, 1 eV = 1.6 X 10 -19 J,
Avagadro number = 6.023 X 10 23 )
If the mass defect of the nucleus 6 C 12 is 0.098 amu, and then calculate the binding energy per nucleon
Calculate the time required for 60 % of a sample of radon to undergo decay. ( Given T of radon = 3.8 days )
The binding energy per nucleon for 6 C 12 nucleus is 7.68 MeV and that for 6 C 13 is 7.47 MeV. Calculate the energy
required to remove a neutron from 6 C 13 nucleus.
A reactor is developing energy at the rate of 32 MW. Calculate the required no. of fissions per second of 92 U 235. Assume
that energy per fission is 200 MeV
Calculate the energy released in the following equation
6
1
4
3
3 Li + 0 n
2 He + 1 H
Given : mass of 3 Li 6 nucleus = 6.015126 amu
mass of 0 n 1 = 1.008665 amu
4
mass of 2 He = 4. 002604 amu
mass of 1 H 3 nucleus = 3.016049 amu
A carbon specimen found in a cave contained a fraction of 1/8 of C14to that present in a living system. Calculate the
approximate age of the specimen. Given T of 6C14= 5560 years.

4)
5)
6)

7)
8)
9)
10)
11)

12)

TEN MARKS
VVI
1)
2)
3)

Discuss the principle and action of a Bainbridge mass spectrometer to determine the isotopic masses
Explain the construction and working of Geiger Muller counter
What is nuclear reactor? Explain the functions of ( i ) moderator ( ii ) control rods and ( iii ) neutron reflector Mention the
uses of nuclear reactor. Diagram not necessary.
4)
What are cosmic rays? Explain ( i ) latitude effect ( ii ) altitude effect of cosmic rays
5)
State the radioactive law of disintegration. Obtain an expression to deduce the amount of the radioactive
substance present at any instant. Obtain the relation between half life period and decay constant.

9. SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES AND APPLICATIONS

ONE MARKS BOOK BACK( VVI )
9.1
9.2
9.3
9.4
9.5
9.6
9.7

47

The electrons in the atom of an element which determine its chemical and electrical properties are called
(a) valence electrons
(b) revolving electrons
(c) excess electrons
(d) active electrons
In an Ntype semiconductor, there are
(a) immobile negative ions
(b) no minority carriers (c) immobile positive ions(d) holes as majority carriers
The reverse saturation current in a PN junction diode is only due to
(a) majority carriers
(b) minority carriers
(c) acceptor ions
(d) donor ions
In the forward bias characteristic curve, a diode appears as
(a) a high resistance
(b) a capacitor
(c) an OFF switch
(d) an ON switch
Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the phenomenon of
(a) collision
(b) ionization
(c) doping
(d) recombination
The colour of light emitted by a LED depends on
(a) its reverse bias
(b) the amount of forward current
(c) its forward bias
(d) type of semiconductor material
The emitter base junction of a given transistor is forward biased and its collectorbase junction is reverse biased.
If the base current is Increased, then its
(a) VCE will increase
(b) IC will decrease
(c) IC will increase
(d) VCC will increase.

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9.8
9.9
9.10
9.11
9.12

Improper biasing of a transistor circuit produces

(a) heavy loading of emitter current
(b) distortion in the output signal
(c) excessive heat at collector terminal
(d) faulty location of load line
An oscillator is
(a) an amplifier with feedback
(b) a convertor of ac to dc energy
(c) nothing but an amplifier
(d) an amplifier without feedback
In a Colpitts oscillator circuit
(a) capacitive feedback is used
(b) tapped coil is used
(c) no tuned LC circuit is used
(d) no capacitor is used
Since the input impedance of an ideal operational amplifier is infinite,
(a) its input current is zero
(b) its output voltage becomes independent of load resistance
(c) its output resistance is high
(d) it becomes a current controlled device
The following arrangement performs the logic function of ______gate

(a) AND

(b) OR

(c) NAND

9.13

If the output (Y) of the following circuit is 1, the inputs A B C must be

9.14

(a) 0 1 0
(b) 1 0 0
(c) 1 0 1
According to the laws of Boolean algebra, the expression ( A + AB ) is equal to
(a) A
(b) AB
(c) B

9.15

(d) EXOR

d) 1 1 0
(d) A

The Boolean expression ABC can be simplified as

(a) AB+C

(b) ABC

(c) AB + BC + CA

(d) A B C

PTA QUESTIONS( IMPORTANT )

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

7.
8.
9.
10.
11.

48

Resistivity of semiconductor is ----------a) greater than that of the conducting material

b) smaller than that of the insulators
c) greater than that of the insulator but lesser than the conductors
d) equal to that of the conductors
For an insulator the forbidden energy gap is
a) less than 3 eV
b) less than 0.7 eV
c) more than 3 eV
d) 0.7 eV
In glass, the energy gap between valance band and conduction band is of the order of
a) 3 eV
b) 6 eV
c) 10 eV
d) 0.7 eV
Forbidden energy gap for the semiconductors like Ge and Si are respectively
a) 1.1 eV and 0.7 eV
b) 0.7 eV and 1.1eV
c) 11 eV and 0.7 eV
d) 1.1 eV and 7 eV
In case of good conductors, forbidden energy gap is
a) more than 3 eV
b) equal to 3 eV
c) zero
d) 0.7 eV
In intrinsic semiconductors,
a) number of free electrons is equal to the number of holes
b) number of free electrons is greater than the number of holes
c) number of free electrons is lesser than the number of holes
d) number of free electrons is zero.
Amount of impurity to be added to a intrinsic semiconductor is of the order of -------a) 50 ppm
b) 100 ppm
c) 500 ppm
d) 1000 ppm
Donor atom is a
a) tetravalent
b) trivalent
c) pentavalent
d) divalent
Of the following, the donor atoms are
a) Si and Ge
b) aluminium and gallium
c) Bi and Ar
d) boron and indium
Acceptor atom is a
a) tetravalent
b) trivalent
c) pentavalent
d) divalent
Width of the potential barrier in a PN junction diode depends on
a) number of electrons
b) potential difference
c) number of holes
d) nature of the material

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12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.

Rectifier efficiency of half wave rectifier is approximately

a) 60.4 %
b) 81.2 %
c) 40.6 %
d) 30.2 %
Variation of d.c output voltage as a function of d.c load current is called
a) rectification
b) filter
c) regulation
d) full wave rectification
Zener diodes are used as ------------------a) rectifiers
b) filters
c) regulators
d)amplifiers
zener current is ----------------a) depend on applied voltage
b) independent of applied voltage
c) depend on material of the diode
d) depend on the knee voltage
--------- is a reverse biased, heavily doped semiconductor PN junction diode
a) LED
b) LCD
c) Zener diode
d) transistor
A Zener diode working in the -----------region can act as voltage regulators
a) normal
b) saturated
c) breakdown
d) constant voltage
Emitters main function is to supply --------a) electrons
b) majority charge carriers
c) minority charge carriers
d) holes
The thickness of the base of the transistor is of the order of
a) 100m
b) 50 m
c) 25 m
d) 200 m
In any transistor, which of the following is true?
a) IB = IE / IC
b) IC = IE + IB
c) IE = IB + IC
d) IC = IE /IB
Value of in terms of is given by

1+
1

b) =
c) =
d) =
a) =

a) 2
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.

1+

The value of in any transistor lies between

a) 500 300
b) up to 1000
c) 0 9
d) 0.95 0.99
Common emitter configuration has
a) high input impedance
b) low output admittance
c) higher current gain
d) all the above
In CE amplifiers, the phase reversal between input and output voltage is
a) 0o
b) 90o
c) 180o
d) 270o
At lower and upper cut-off frequencies, the gain of the amplifier is ------times of mid frequency gain
b)

1
2

c)

d)

1
2

When the number of amplifiers are connected in cascade, the overall gain is equal to ---- of individual stages
a) sum of voltage gain
b) difference of voltage gain
c) product of voltage gain
d) mean voltage gain
OP-AMP consists of
a) 20 transistors, 11 resistors, 1 capacitor
b) 1 transistor, 11 resistors, 20 capacitors
c) 20 transistors, 1 resistor, 11 capacitors
d) 11 transistors, 20 resistors, 1 capacitor
In common base connection = 0.95, IE = 1mA, then the value of collector current is
a) 0.05 mA
b) 0.95 mA
c) 1.05 mA
d) 1 mA
In a transistor the value of is 0.99, then the value of is
a) 49
b) 90
c) 99
d) 9.9
In a transistor =40, the base current is 25 A. Then the collector current IC is
a) 100 A
b) 1000 mA
c) 1mA
d) 0.1 mA
Three amplifiers have gains 10, 50 and 80 respectively, when they are connected in cascade the overall gain is
a) 4000
b) 400
c) 40000
d) 140
If an inductor of inductance

1
4

H and the capacitance 4pF are connected in parallel to form LC tank circuit, then the

frequency of oscillations is
a) 5 MHz
b) 0.5 MHz

c) 50 MHz

d) 500 MHz

c) 0.3 eV

d) 10 eV

c) A =

d) A + = 0

PUBLIC QUESTIONS( VVI)

1)
2)

49

The forbidden energy gap for germanium is of the order of

a) 1.1 eV
b) 0.7 eV
Condition for oscillation is
a) A = 0
b) A = 1 /

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3)
4)
5)
6)
7)

8)

The potential barrier of silicon PN junction diode is approximately

a) 0.3 V
b) 0.7 V
c) 1.1 V
d) 10 V
The Boolean expression to represent NAND operation is
a) Y = A + B
b) Y = A . B
c) Y = A
d) Y = A B
The forbidden energy gap for silicon is of the order of
a) 1.1 eV
b) 0.7 eV
c) 0.3 eV
d) 10 eV
In CE single stage amplifier, the voltage gain at mid frequency is 10. The voltage gain at upper cut off frequency is
a) 10
b) 14.14
c) 7.07
d) 20
Find the voltage across the resistor as shown in the figure ( silicon diode is used)
a) 2.4 V
2.7 V
b) 2.0 V
D
c) 1.8 V
d) 0.7 V
180

9)

Barkhausen Condition for maintenance of oscillation is

a) A = 0
b) A = 1 /
c) A =
The output of the logic circuit given below is

c) A + B

d) A + B

10)

a) A + B
b) A . B
The output of the given operational amplifier is

a) 2 sin t

c) 2 sin (t + 100)

d) 2 sin (t + 100)

b) 2 sin t

d) A =1 / 2

11)

The symbol to represent LED is

12)

A logic gate for which there is Low output when both the inputs are High is
a) AND
b) NAND
c) NOR
The output voltage of the operational amplifier given below is

d) EXOR

a) -1 eV

d) -5 V

13)

50

b) +1 V

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14)
15)
16)
17)
18)

19)

20)

In a junction transistor the emitter region is heavily doped since emitter has to supply to the base
a) minority carriers
b) majority carriers
c) acceptor ions
d) donor ions
A logic gate which has an output 1 , when the inputs are complement to each other is
a) AND
b) NAND
c) NOR
d) EXOR
Of the following, the donor atoms are
a) silicon and germanium
b) aluminium and gallium
c) bismuth and arsenic d) boron and indium
In common emitter ( CE ) amplifiers, the phase reversal between input and output voltages is
a) 0
b) 90
c) 270
d) 180
The following arrangement performs the logic function of

a) AND
b) EXOR
c) OR
d) NAND
In common emitter transistor circuit, the base current of the transistor is 50 A and the collector current is 25 mA. Then
the current gain is
a) 50
b) 500
c) 20
d) 200
The following arrangement performs the logic function of

a) AND
21)
22)
23)

24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
32)

51

b) NAND

c) OR

d) NOR

An example for non sinusoidal oscillator is

a) multivibrator
b) RC oscillator
c) Colpitts oscillator
d) crystal oscillator
In single stage CE amplifier, the voltage gain at mid frequency is 10. The voltage gain at upper cut off frequency is
a) 10
b) 10.1
c) 7.07
d) 14.14
The following arrangement performs the logic function of -------------- gate

a) AND
b) OR
c) NAND
d) EXOR
The forbidden energy gap for conductors is of the order of
a) 1.1 eV
b) 0.7 eV
c) zero
d) 10 eV
In the pin configuration of IC 741, pin 3 represents
a) inverting input
b) non inverting input
c) Vcc
d) output
In a transistor, the value of ( 1 / 1 / ) is equal to
a)
b)
c) /
d) 1
A logic gate for which there is an output only when both the inputs are zero is
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) EXOR
d) AND
The phase reversal between the input and output voltage is single stage CE amplifier is
a) / 2
b) 2
c)
d) 3 / 2
In a PN junction diode on the side of N but very close to the junction there are
a) donor atoms
b) acceptor atoms
c) immovable positive ions
d) immovable negative ions
In N type semiconductor donor level lies
a) just below the conduction band
b) just above the conduction band
c) just below the valence band
d) just above the conduction band
For a transistor connected in common emitter mode ( CE ) the slope of the input characteristic curve gives
a) input impedence
b) current gain
c) reciprocal of input impedence
d) voltage gain
Which of the following devices has a source of emf inside it ?
a) voltmeter
b) ammeter
c) ohmmeter
d) rectifier

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33)

In CE single stage amplifier if the voltage gain at mid frequency is Am, then the voltage gain at lower cut off frequency is
a) Am /2
b) 2 Am
c) 2/Am
d) Am/2

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)

12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)

52

The voltage gain of a amplifier without feedback is hundred. If a negative is introduced with a feedback fraction
= 0.1 then the gain of the feedback amplifier is ____
a) 9.09
b) 10
c) 100.1
d) 90.9
The essential condition for the maintenance of the oscillation is _________
a) / A
b)A/ = 1
c) A = 1
d) A = 0
The resonant frequency of colpits oscillator is 3 / 2 MHz. If the capacitance increases by 50 per cent the resonant
frequency will be __________
a) 103 MHz
b) 10 KHz
c) 10 MHz
d) 1 MHz
The negative feedback is used ______________
a)to convert the amplifier into an oscillator
b)to improve the performance of multi vibrator
c)to improve the overall performance of the amplifier
d)to produce saw tooth potential
A silicon atom has ___________ electrons
a) 14
b) 10
c) 22
d) 30
The valence band may be ___________
a) empty
b) partially filled
c) completely filled
d) partially or completely filled
The forbidden energy gap in insulator is ___________
a) more than 3 eV
b) less than 3 eV
c) equal to 3 eV
d)
The vacancy for an electron is called ______________
a) hole
b) proton
c) positive vacancy
d) negative vacancy
________ impurity is added to silicon to make it as P type semi conductor
a) Monovalent
b) Trivalent
c) Tetravalent
d) Divalent
In a diode at forward bias the voltage at which the current starts to increase rapidly is _________
a) cut off voltage
b) stopping potential
c) knee voltage
d) critical voltage
Rectification is a process in which _____________
a) ac is converted into dc
b) dc is converted ac
c) ac voltage is stepped up
d) dc voltage is stepped up
In half wave rectifier __________ number of diodes are used
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Which is suitable for high voltage applications?
a) Half wave rectifier
b) Full wave rectifier
c) Bridge rectifier
d) Transistor rectifier
Which of the following bias is most preferable in transistor biasing?
a) Base bias
b) Base bias with emitter feed back
c) Base bias with collector feedback
d) Voltage divider bias
A+A+1=?
a)A
b) 0
c)1
d) A
OP AMPs are used in _____________
a) digital operations only
b) analog operations only
c) timing circuits only
d) both in anlog operations and in the timing circuits
In a multimeter in which of the following scales zero is marked at the right extreme?
a) voltage scale
b) current scale
c) resistance scale
d) power scale
The most used transistor circuit is ___________
a) CB
b) CC
c)CE
d) None of the above
RC coupled amplifier is used in _____________
a) current amplification b) power amplification
c) voltage amplification d) None of the above
NAND gate is a _____________
a) Basic gate
b) basic universal gate
c) universal gate
d) None of these
The arrow head is always at ___________ of a transistor
a) collector
b) base
c) grid
d) emitter
The unit of output admittance is _____________
a) ohm
b)henry
c) farad
d) mho

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23)

The qualities of a good amplifier are _____________

a)low input impedance, high output impedance
b) high input impedance, low output impedance
c)both input impedance and output impedance are low
d)both input impedance and output impedance are high
If A is the mid frequency gain of an RC coupled amplifier the gain at the cut off frequencies will be ______________
a)2A
b) A / 2
c) A / 2A
d) A /2
In positive feed back the phase difference between input signal and feedback signal is ________
a) 00
b) 450
c) 900
d) 1800
In an oscillator the feedback used is ____________
a) negative
b) positive
c) degenerative
d) phase reversal feedback
The variables used in Boolean algebra can assume two values as ___________
a)1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 0 and 1
In monolithic ICs all components are fabricated in a single piece of silicon called _______
a) silicate
b) wafer
c) silica
d) monosil
In regenerative feedback amplifiers the overall gain _____________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) constant
d) decreases and increases

24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)

THREE MARKS

VVI
1)
3)
5)
7)
9)
11)
13)

What is an intrinsic semiconductor? Give two examples

2)What is an extrinsic semiconductor?
What are the three different methods of doping a semiconductor?
4)What is meant by doping?
What is rectification?
6)Define band width of an amplifier
What are the advantages of negative feedback?
8)Mention the advantages of ICs
Give the Barkhausen criteria for oscillators
10)What is an integral circuit?
Distinguish between linear and digital ICs
12)What are logic gates?
State De Morgans theorems
14)What are universal gates? Why are they called so?

IMPORTANT
1)
3)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)

What is a semi conductor?

2)Define valence band
Define conduction band
4)What is meant by forbidden energy gap?
What is light emitting diode? Give its uses
Why is a transistor called as current amplification device?
Why CE configuration is preferred over CB configuration for operating transistor as an amplifier?
What is meant by feed back? Name the two types of feed back
Give the important parameters of operational amplifier
Whit is meant by virtual ground in operational amplifier
11)Boolean algebra proofs

PUBLIC PROBLEMS & CIRCUIT DIAGRAMS( IMPORTANT )

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

53

The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 and gain with positive feedback is 200. Calculate the feedback fraction
When negative feedback is applied to an amplifier of gain 50, the gain falls to 25. Calculate the feedback ratio.
The voltage gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100. If negative feedback is applied with a feedback fraction = 0.1.
Calculate the voltage gain after feedback
When there is no feedback the gain of the amplifier is 100. If 5% of the output voltage is fed back into the input through a
negative feedback network, find out the voltage gain after feedback.
Find the output of the amplifier circuit given below

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6)

The outputs of two NOT gates are NORed, as shown in the figure. What is the logic operation performed?

7)

Find the output of the ideal operational amplifier shown in the figure for the input of Vin = 120 mV direct current.

8)

Find the output Y of the logic circuit given below

9)

Give the Boolean equation for the given logic diagram

10)

Find the output of the given circuit

11)

What is the Boolean expression for the logic diagram shown in figure? Evaluate its output if A = 1 and C = 1

12)
13)

The base current of transistor is 50 A and collector current is 25 mA. Find the value of current gain .
Prove the Boolean identity
(A + B ) ( A + C ) = A + BC

54

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14)

Give the Boolean equation for the given logic diagram

15)

A transistor is connected in CE configuration. The voltage drop across the load resistance 3 k is 6 V. Find the base
current. The current gain of the transistor is 0.97
Draw the circuit diagram of AND gate using diodes and resistor
Draw the circuit diagram for NPN transistor at Common Emitter ( CE ) mode
Draw the circuit diagram of OR gate using diodes
Draw the circuit diagram for NPN transistor in Common Collector ( CC ) mode
Draw the circuit for summing amplifier
Draw energy band diagrams of N type semiconductor and P type semiconductor
Draw NOT gate using transistor
Draw the circuit for inverting amplifier
Draw the circuit for difference amplifier

16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)

Find the output of the ideal operational amplifier shown in the figure for the input of Vin = 120 mv dc

26)

In a common base transistor IC = 0.97mA and IB= 30A. Calculate the value of current gain().
FIVE MARKS

VVI
1)
2)

Explain the working of half wave rectifier

State and explain De Morgans theorems

IMPORTANT
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)

Explain with circuit how zener diode can be used as voltage regulator?
Deduce the relation between and of a transistor
Explain the action of operational amplifier as inverting amplifier
Explain the action of operational amplifier as non - inverting amplifier
Explain the action of operational amplifier as summing amplifier
Explain the action of operational amplifier as difference amplifier
Explain how multimeter is used as ohm meter

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)
3)
4)

55

Describe the valence band, conduction band and forbidden gap with the help of energy level diagram
Describe the energy band structure of insulator, semi conductor and conductor.
Describe the working of transistor amplifier
What is an EXOR gate? Give the Boolean expression for it

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

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PUBLIC PROBLEMS ( IMPORTANT )
1)

A transistor is connected in CE configuration. The voltage drop across the load resistance 3 k is 6 V. Find the base
current. The current gain of the transistor is 0.97
Explain the circuit symbol and pin out configuration of an operational amplifier

2)

TEN MARKS
VVI
1)
2)
3)

What is rectification? Explain the working of bridge rectifier

Sketch the circuit of Colpitts oscillator and explain its working
Explain in detail the feedback amplifier. Mention the advantages of negative feedback

IMPORTANT
1)
2)

Explain an experiment to determine the characteristics of a transistor in CE configuration. Explain how the transistor
parameters can be evaluated?
Explain with neat circuit diagram, the working of single stage CE amplifier. Draw the frequency response curve and
discuss the results

10. COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS

ONE MARKS BOOK BACK ( VVI)
10.1
High frequency waves follow
(a) the ground wave propagation
(b) the line of sight direction
(c) ionospheric propagation
(d) the curvature of the earth
10.2
The main purpose of modulation is to
(a) combine two waves of different frequencies
(b) acquire wave shaping of the carrier wave
(c) transmit low frequency information over long distances efficiently
(d) produce side bands
10.3
In amplitude modulation
(a) the amplitude of the carrier wave varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal.
(b) the amplitude of the carrier wave remains constant
(c) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the frequency of the modulating signal
(d) modulating frequency lies in the audio range
10.4
In amplitude modulation, the band width is
(a) equal to the signal frequency
(b) twice the signal frequency
(c) thrice the signal frequency
(d) four times the signal frequency
10.5
In phase modulation
(a) only the phase of the carrier wave varies
(b) only the frequency of the carrier wave varies.
(c) both the phase and the frequency of the carrier wave varies.
(d) there is no change in the frequency and phase of the carrier wave
10.6
The RF channel in a radio transmitter produces
(a) audio signals
(b) high frequency carrier waves (c) both audio signal and high frequency carrier waves
(d) low frequency carrier waves.
10.7
The purpose of dividing each frame into two fields so as to transmit 50 views of the picture per second is
(a) to avoid flicker in the picture
(b) the fact that handling of higher frequencies is easier
(c) that 50 Hz is the power line frequency in India
(d) to avoid unwanted noises in the signals
10.8
Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into electrical signals by the process of
(a) reflection
(b) scanning
(c) modulation
(d) light variation
PTA QUESTIONS( IMPORTANT )
1.

56

Communication refers to----------a) sending information

b) receiving information
c) processing information
d) sending, receiving and processing of information electronically

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2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.

57

Ground wave is of prime importance for

a) short wave signals only
b) long wave signals only
c) medium wave signals only
d) medium and long wave signals
Space wave propagation is particularly suitable for the waves having frequency------a) above 40 MHz
b) below 30 MHz
c) below 20 MHz
d) above 30 MHz
The mechanism involved in the sky wave propagation is --------a) reflection
b) refraction
c) interference
d) polorisation
Long distance radio communication is possible through the --------- propogation
a) ground wave
b) surface wave
c) the sky wave
d) all the above
The audio frequency range is -------a) 20 Hz to 200000 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz
c) 20 Hz to 2000000 Hz
d) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
The radiation of electrical energy is practicable only at ----------a) low frequencies
b) very low frequencies
c) high frequencies
d) moderate frequencies
Factor that determine the strength and quality of the transmitted signal is
a) Q-factor
b) frequency of the carrier wave
c) frequency of the modulating wave d) modulation factor
For effective modulation the degree of modulation should ----------a) exceed 100 %
b) exceed 200 %
c) never exceed 50 %
d) never exceed 100 %
The magnitude of the both upper and lower side band is ----------a) 2 times the carrier amplitude Ec
b) times the carrier amplitude Ec
c) m times the carrier amplitude Ec
d) m/2 times the carrier amplitude Ec
The human voice of music contains waves with a frequency range of ---------a) 3 30 Hz
b) 30 300 Hz
c) 3000 30000 Hz
d) 300 3000 Hz
Which modulation facilitates highest transmission speeds on a given bandwidth?
a) amplitude
b) frequency
c) phase
d) all the above
For the purpose of coupling the transmitter and the receiver to the space link, we use
a) amplifier
b) oscillator
c) antenna
d) FAX
The intermediate frequency used in the AM radio receiver is--------a) 10.7 MHz
b) 475 KHz
c) 455 Hz
d) 455 KHz
If 900 KHz station is tuned, then the local oscillator will have to produce a frequency
a) 600 KHz
b) 455 KHz
c) 10.7 MHz
d) 1355 KHz
For super heterodyne FM receivers, the intermediate frequency is ------a) 455 Hz
b) 45 KHz
c) 10.7 kHz
d) 10.7 MHz
In FM broadcast, the frequency deviation of sound signal is
a) 25kHz
b) 50 KHz
c) 75 kHz
d) 100 KHz
In TV transmission sound signals are -------a) amplitude modulated
b) frequency modulated
c) phase modulated
d) none of the above
Vidicon camera tube works on the principle of ------a) photoconductivity
b) thermoelectric effect c) thermionic emission
d) Seebeck effect
When exposed to light, the resistance of the photoconductive material------a) decreases
b) increases
c) increases or decreases
d) is not altered
In Vidicon camera tube the front face of the target plane is coated with-------a) antimony tri sulphide
b) aluminium oxide
c) zinc oxide
d) tin oxide
In Vidicon camera tube the back face of the target plane is coated with-------a) antimony tri sulphide
b) aluminium oxide
c) zinc oxide
d) tin oxide
The frequency of the scanning is
a) 20 per second
b) 50 per second
c) 100 per second
d) 25 per second
How many synchronizing pulses are used for scanning
a) one
b) two
c) three
d)four
Balanking pulse used for TV scannning
a) high frequency saw tooth potential
b)low frequency saw tooth potential
c) high positive potential
d) high negative potential
In TV scanning blanking pulse is spplied to
a) horizontal deflecting plates
b) vertical deflecting plates
c) control grid
d) filament
In interlaced scanning the vertical scanning frequency is
a) 10 fields per second
b) 25 fields per second
c) 50 fields per second d)100fields per second
A signal which can take any value within the given range
a) digital signal
b) analog signal
c) AM signal
d) FM signal
The greatest technical problem in analog communication
a) noise
b) nature of signal
c) wider band width
d) power of system

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30.

Any form of information that has been put into digitaal form is called
a) signal
b) amplitude
c) power
d) data
31.
In twisted pair cable wire is twisted to
a) decreasing external noise
b) speedy data transfer c) increasing external noise
d) both a and b
32.
Fax cannot be used for transmitting
a) sound messages
b) live suns and motion
c) either a or b
d) both a and b
33.
Optical fibre works on the principle of
a) total internal reflection
b) refraction
c) reflection
d) polarisation
34.
Satellite orbiting the earth will be geo-stationary when it is at a height of -------km from the earth
a) 36000
b) 3600
c)360
d)36
35.
For uplink transmission commercial comunication satellites use
a) 5MHz bandwidth near 6GHz
b) 50 MHz bandwidth near 6GHz
c) 500MHz bandwidth near 5GHz
d) 500 MHz bandwidth near 6GHz
36.
For downlink transmission commercial comunication satellites use
a) 500 MHz bandwidth near 4 GHz
b) 50 MHz bandwidth near 4 GHz
c) 500MHz bandwidth near 5GHz
d) 5 MHz bandwidth near 4GHz
37.
In actual practice the band width used for uplink transmission by the satellite
a) 5.725 7.075 GHz
b) 3.4 4.8 GHz
c) 6.725 7.075 GHz
d) 5.725 6.075 GHz
PUBLIC QUESTIONS (VVI)
1)
In television, blanking pulse is applied to
a) horizontal plates
b) vertical plates
c) control grid
d) filament
2)
In an AM super heterodyne receiver, the local oscillator frequency is 1.245 MHz. The tuned station frequency is
a) 455 KHz
b) 790 KHz
c) 690 KHz
d) 990 KHz
3)
The radio waves after refraction from different parts of ionosphere on reaching the earth are called as
a) ground waves
b) sky waves
c) space waves
d) micro waves
4)
The principle used for transmission of light signals through optical fibre is
a) refraction
b) diffraction
c) polarisation
d) total internal reflection
5)
Digital signals are converted into analog signals using
a) FAX
b) modem
c) cable
d) coaxial cable
6)
In interlaced scanning time taken to scan one line is
a) 20 ms
b) 64 s
c) 50 ms
d) 100 s
7)
The first man made satellite is
a) Aryabhatta
b) Sputnik
c) Venera
d) Rohini
8)
The audio fequency range is
a) 20 Hz to 200000 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz
c) 20 Hz to 2000000 Hz d) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
9)
The purpose of dividing each frame into two fields s0 as to transmit 50 views of the picture per second is
a) the fact that handling of higher frequencies is easier
b) that 50 Hz is the power line frequency in India
c) to avoid unwanted noises in the signals
d) to avoid flicker in the picture
10)
Skip distance is the shortest distance between
a) the point of transmission and the point of reception
b) the uplink station and the downlink station
c) the transmitter and the target
d) the receiver and the target
11)
An FM signal has a resting frequency of 105 MHz and highest frequency of 105.03 MHz when modulated by a signal.
Then the carries swing is
a) 0.03 MHz
b) 0.06 MHz
c) 0.03 kHz
d) 60 MHz
12)
In the AM superheterodyne receiver system the value of the intermediate frequency is equal to
a) 445 kHz
b) 455 kHz
c) 485 kHz
d) 465 kHz
13)
In television, blanking pulse is applied to
a) horizontal deflector plates
b) vertical deflector plates
c) control grid d) filament
14)
In an AM receiver, the local oscillator frequency is 2750 kHz. The tuned in station frequency is
a) 2905 kHz
b) 2295 kHz
c) 3055 kHz
d) 2250 kHz
15)
For FM receivers, the intermediate frequency is ------a) 455 Hz
b) 45 KHz
c) 10.7 kHz
d) 10.7 MHz
16)
The intermediate frequency of the super heterodyne FM receivers is ------a) 455 kHz
b) 10.7 MHz
c) 455 Hz
d) 455 MHz

58

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17)

Vidicon camera tube works on the principle of

a) photoconductivity
b) thermoelectric effect

c) thermionic emission

d) seeback effect

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)

59

In communication systems, a part of EM waves like _________ being used.

a) radio waves and micro waves
b) radio waves and space waves
c) micro waves and sky waves
d) sky waves and space waves
The propagation of electromagnetic waves depends on ____________
a)the properties of the medium in which it travels
b)the frequency of waves
c)the properties of the waves and environment
d)the wavelength of the waves and the atmosphere
Space wave propagation is suitable for frequency ______________
a) below 30 MHz
b) above 30 MHz
c) below 30 GHz
d) above 30 GHz
Long distance radio communication follows ___________________
a) sky wave propagation
b) space wave propagation
c) surface wave propagation
d) space and surface wave propagation
In the skip zone __________
a) there is reception of ground waves
b) there is no reception of ground waves
c) there is reception of space waves
d) there is no reception of space waves
The electrical energy is converted into sound energy using a ___________
a Modulatore
b) Loudspeaker
c) Gramaphone
d) Microphone
In amplitude modulation _____
a)only the phase of the carrier wave is changed
b)only the frequency of the carrier wave is changed
c)both frequency and phase of the carrier wave is changed
d)only the amplitude of the carrier wave is changed
The modulating signal may be represented as _________
a) es = Ec cos s t
b) es = Es cos s t
c) es = Ec cos c t
d) es = Es cos c t
The difference between maximum frequency of USB and minimum frequency of LSB is
a) channel width
b) modulation factor
c) frequency deviation
d) carrier swing
The frequency of an FM transmitter without signal input is called as the
a) bandwidth
b) frequency deviation
c) center frequency
d) carrier swing
In phase modulation, the rate of variation is proportional to the __________
a) signal frequency
b) carrier frequency
c) bandwidth
d) both signal frequency and carrier frequency
In a radio system an electromagnetic wave travels from the _________
a) receiver to the transmitter through space
b) uplink to the downlink thro space
c) downlink to the uplink thro space
d) transmitter to the receiver thro space
In a transmitter , a high frequency wave is generated using ___________
a) an oscillator
b) an amplifier
c) a multi vibrator
d) modulator
In FM transmitter, the main function of buffer is to isolate ____________
a) phase modulator from power amplifier
b)crystal oscillator from the phase modulator
c) crystal oscillator from power amplifier
d) phase modulator from AF amplifier
The intermediate frequency of mixer circuit is ____________
a) 450 KHz
b) 455 KHz
c) 455 MHz
d) 450 MHz
In superheterodyne AM receiver usually a diode detector circuit is used because of its ______________
a) low efficiency and low distortion
b) high efficiency and low distortion
c) low distortion and excellent audio fidelity
d) high efficiency and high audio fidelity
In TV, sound signals are _____________
a) frequency modulated
b) amplitude modulated c) phase modulated
d) none of the above
A television camera converts ______________
a) electrical energy into light energy
b) light energy into intensity of the image
c) light energy into electrical energy
d) electrical energy into intensity of image
Vidicon functions on the principle of _____________
a) photosensitivity
b) photoconductivity
c) photo electricity
d) photo resistivity
In vidicon camera tube, the resistance of the photoconductive layer decreases _
a) as the intensity of light decreases
b) as the intensity of light increases
c) as the frequency of light increases
d) as the frequency of light decreases
In AM transmitter, the main function of buffer is to isolate ____________
a) phase modulator from power amplifier
b)crystal oscillator from the phase modulator
c) crystal oscillator from power amplifier
d) phase modulator from AF amplifier

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22)

The intermediate frequency of mixer circuit is ____________

a) 450 KHz
b) 455 KHz
c) 455 MHz
d) 450 MHz
In superheterodyne AM receiver usually a diode detector circuit is used because of its ______________
a) low efficiency and low distortion
b) high efficiency and low distortion
c) low distortion and excellent audio fidelity
d) high efficiency and high audio fidelity
In TV, Picture signals are _____________
a) frequency modulated b) amplitude modulated c) phase modulated
d) none of the above
A television camera converts ______________
a) electrical energy into light energy
b) light energy into intensity of the image
c) light energy into electrical energy
d) electrical energy into intensity of image
Vidicon functions on the principle of _____________
a) photosensitivity
b) photoconductivity
c) photo electricity
d) photo resistivity
In vidicon camera tube, the resistance of the photoconductive layer decreases _
a) as the intensity of light decreases
b) as the intensity of light increases
c) as the frequency of light increases
d) as the frequency of light decreases
For scanning the picture elements ____________ can be used.
a) positive potential
b)negative potential
c) feedback potential
d) saw tooth potential
A saw tooth potential to horizontal plates is called
a) field synchronizing pulse
b) frame synchronizing pulse
c) line synchronizing pulse
d) blanking pulse
The number of synchronizing pulses used for scanning the picture is ___________
a) 2
b)3
c)1
d)4
In 625 line TV system, each frame is divided into sets of ___________
a) 32.15 lines
b) 31.25 lines
c) 321.5 lines
d) 312.5 lines
In a 625 line system, the vertical field scan time is ____________
a) 20s
b) 64 s
c) 20 ms
d) 64 ms
The control grid in monochrome picture tube is used to ___________
a)control the intensity of electron beam
b)produce the brightness of the spot
c)control the intensity of electron beam and brightness of spot
d)controls secondary electron emission
Radar are used _____________
a) only to detect radio waves
b) only to fix the position of targets
c) to detect radiio waves and to fix the position of targets
d) to transmit graphical information
Time taken by Geo stationary satellites to complete one rotation round the earth is __
a) 36,000 hrs
b) 365 days
c) 24 hrs
d) 120 hrs
Blanking pulse is applied to the _________________ of the electron gun
a) cathode
b) anode
c) grid
d)filament
For effective modulation the degree of modulation should ____________
a) be zero
b) be equal to 100 %
c) be more than 100%
d) not be more than 100 %
During scanning the blanking pulse is produced by ____________
a)applying saw tooth potential to Y Y plates
b)applying saw tooth potential to X X plates
c)applying high positive potential to grid
d)applying high negative potential to grid
The process of extracting the signal wave from the modulated wave is called ________
a) rectification
b) Amplification
c) modulation
d) demodulation

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THREE MARKS
VVI
1)
3)
5)
6)
7)

What is meant by skip distance?

2)Define modulation factor
What is meant by skip zone?
4)What are the advantages of frequency modulation?
What are the different types of wire and cable used for telecommunication system?
What are the advantages of fiber optic communication system?
What are the advantages of frequency modulation?

ADDITIONAL
1)
What is the necessity of modulation?
2)Define band width in amplitude modulation
3)
What are the limitations of amplitude modulation?
4)What is meant by scanning?
5)
What is interlaced scanning?
6)What is FAX? Mention its use.
7)
Mention the applications of fiber optic communication system

60

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

Mob : 9994472749

www.kalvisolai.com
FIVE MARKS
VVI
1)
2)
3)
4)

What are the advantages and disadvantages of digital communication?

Explain with block diagram FM radio transmitter
Mention the principle of RADAR and write its applications
What is an optic fibre? Mention its advantages.

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)
3)

Explain with block diagram super heterodyne FM radio receiver

Give the merits and demerits of satellite communication
Explain frequency modulation

PUBLIC PROBLEMS (IMPORTANT)

1)

A 10 MHz sinusoidal carrier wave of amplitude 10 mV is modulated by a 5 kHz sinusoidal audio signal wave of amplitude
6 mV. Find the frequency components of the resultant modulated wave and their amplitudes.
TEN MARKS

VVI
1)
2)
3)

Make an analysis of amplitude modulated wave. Plot the frequency spectrum

With the help of block diagram explain the function of a monochrome TV transmission
With the help of block diagram explain the function of a monochrome TV receiver

ADDITIONAL
1)
2)
3)

Explain the function of Vidicon camera tube

Explain monochrome picture tube
Explain the transmission and reception of RADAR with block diagram

ALL THE BEST

61

V.P.Rajasheker M.Sc.,B.Ed., M.Phil.,

Mob : 9994472749