C T F

ch1 KEY
1. (p. 4) Given that OB experts have been accumulating a distinct knowledge about behavior within organizations, OB is referred to as a field
of study.
TRUE
AACSB: Analytical Skills
Blooms taxonomy: Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 1
McShane - Chapter 01 #1
2. (p. 4) In order for something to be called an organization it must have buildings and equipment.
FALSE
Blooms taxonomy: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
3. (p. 4) All organizations have a collective sense of purpose, whether it's producing oil or creating the fastest Internet search engine.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
4. (p. 4) Social entities are called organizations only when their members have complete agreement on the goals they want to achieve.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
5. (p. 4) Accounting, OB, and Marketing are three business fields that have a clearly-defined career path.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 4 An important principle in organizational behavior is that OB theories should never be used to predict or influence organizational
-5)
events.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 4 Everyone is a manager.

-5)
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
8. (p. 3) Globalization, competitive landscape, virtual workplace, technological advancement, and evolving employment relationship are five
emerging OB trends in the workplace.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 6) Open system organizations are unable to maintain a close alignment of the organization's systems with the external environment.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
10. (p. 6) According to the systems perspective, most organizations have one working part rather than many sub-components.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
11. (p. 6) The best organizational practices are those built on the notion that organizations are closed systems.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
12. (p. 6) The open systems perspective emphasizes that organizations survive by adapting to changes in the external environment.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 7) One of the fastest ways to acquire knowledge is to hire individuals or purchase entire companies that have valued knowledge.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
14. (p. 8) Knowledge management improves an organization's capacity to acquire, share and use knowledge in ways that improve its survival
and success.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
15. (p. 8) Intellectual capital includes, among other things, the knowledge captured in an organization's systems and structures.
TRUE
Difficulty: Difficult
16. (p. 8) Intellectual capital represents the stock of knowledge held by an organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
17. (p. 8) Experimentation and grafting are ways to reduce organizational memory.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
18. (p. 8) Structural capital includes knowledge embedded in the organization's systems and structures.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
19. (p. 8) One way organizations can retain intellectual capital is to eliminate employee leave.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
20. (p. 8) A perspective that effective organizations incorporate several workplace practices that leverage the potential of human capital is
called high-performance work practices.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
21. (p. 9) One widely mentioned high-performance work practice is employee involvement.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
22. (p. 9) Working on a self-directed team actually reduces employee motivation because employees feel they have no direction.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 9) Organizations are more effective when they invest in employee skills and knowledge development.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
24. (p. 9 Stakeholders are shareholders, customers, suppliers, governments and any other groups with a vested interest in the organization.
-10)
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
25. (p. 10) Values represent an individual's short-term beliefs about what will happen in the future.
FALSE
AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning abilities
Difficulty: Medium
26. (p. 10) Values have a strong influence on our priorities, our preferences, and our desires.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
27. (p. 10) Ethics refers to the study of moral principles or values that determine whether actions are right or wrong and outcomes are good or
bad.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
28. (p. 10) The "triple bottom line" philosophy says that in addition to their own profitability, successful organizations focus on the financial
performance of their suppliers and customers.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
29. (p. 12) There are five individual-level dependent variables found in most OB research.
TRUE
Difficulty: Hard
30. (p. 12) Task performance refers to goal-directed behaviors under the individual's control that support organizational objectives.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
31. (p. 12) One example of organizational citizenship behaviors is assisting co-workers with their work problems.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
32. (p. 12) Counterproductive work behaviors are voluntary.

FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
33. (p. 12) Given the significant involvement in the organizational activities, engaged employees avoid practicing organizational citizenship.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 12) Dark-side workplace behaviors are collectively known as counterproductive work behaviors (CWBs).
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
35. (p. 12) Counterproductive work behaviors include threats and work avoidance.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
36. (p. 13) Joining the organization is a type of work-related behavior.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
37. (p. 13) Job dissatisfaction is a major reason why people quit their jobs.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
38. (p. 13) Job satisfaction is a positive work evaluation.

FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
39. (p. 13) Employees who experience job dissatisfaction or work-related stree are more likely to be absent or late for work.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
40. (p. 14) Globalization may have both positive and negative implications for people working in organizations.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
41. (p. 14) Globalization refers to economic, social, and cultural connectivity with people in other parts of the world.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
42. (p. 14) Reduced job security and increased work intensification are partly caused by globalization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 15) Three of the most prominent workforce diversity forms are: age, gender, and occupation.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
44. (p. 15) People born between 1946 and 1964 are referred to as Generation X employees.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
45. (p. 15) Research indicates that baby boomers and Generation-X employees bring the same values and expectations to the workplace.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
46. (p. 15) Workforce diversity potentially improves decision making and team performance on complex tasks.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 16) Work/live balance refers to minimizing conflict between work and nonwork demands.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
48. (p. 16) According to research, although telecommuting significantly increases employee stress and reduces productivity and job satisfaction,
it makes employees feel more empowered.
FALSE
Difficulty: Hard
49. (p. 17) Most organizational behavior theories have been developed by OB scholars rather than from other disciplines.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
50. (p. 17) Psychology and sociology have contributed many theories and concepts to the field of organizational behavior.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
51. (p. 17) Communications and information systems are two emerging fields from which organizational behavior is now acquiring knowledge.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
52. (p. 17) Marketing is one of the disciplines that has not made any contribution to organizational behavior knowledge.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
53. (p. 17 The field of organizational behavior relies on qualitative rather than quantitative research to understand organizational phenomena.
-18)
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
54. (p. 17 The systematic research anchor relies mainly on qualitative data and subjective procedures to test hypothesis.
-18)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
55. (p. 18) The contingency anchor in organizational behavior suggests that we need to diagnose the situation to identify the most appropriate
action under those specific circumstances.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
56. (p. 18) Most organizational events may be studied from all three levels of analysis: individual, team and organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
57. (p. 4) _____ is the study of what people think, feel, and do in and around organizations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
OB
Marketing
Sociology
Psychology
Communication
Difficulty: Easy
58. (p. 4) Which of these statements about the field of organizational behavior is FALSE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Organizational behavior scholars study individual, team and structural characteristics that influence behavior within organizations.
Given the specific utility of the field, OB is useful for the managers in the organizations and not the employees.
Organizational behavior emerged as a distinct field around the 1940s.
The field of OB has adopted concepts and theories from other fields of inquiry.
OB scholars study what people think, feel and do in and around organizations.
Difficulty: Medium
59. (p. 4) Which of these statements about the field of organizational behavior is TRUE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Organizational behavior emerged as a distinct field during the 1940s.

The origins of some organizational behavior concepts date back to Taylor and Mayo.
Information technology has almost no effect on organizational behavior.
The field of organizational behavior relies exclusively on ideas generated within the field by organizational behavior scholars.
The origins of organizational behavior are traced mainly to the field of economics.
Difficulty: Medium
ch2 KEY
1. (p. 25) One person-job matching strategy is to select applicants whose existing competencies best fit the required task.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
2. (p. 26) According to the MARS model of individual behavior and performance, employee performance will remain high even if one of the
four factors significantly weakens.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
3. (p. 26) The MARS model identifies the four main factors that influence individual behavior: motivation, ability, role perceptions, and
situational factors.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
4. (p. 26) Motivation is an external force on the person that causes him or her to engage in specific behaviors.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
5. (p. 26) Intensity refers to the fact that motivation is goal-directed, not random.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 27) Aptitudes are natural talents that help individuals to learn specific tasks more quickly and perform them better than other people.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
7. (p. 27) Ability is the most important factor in the MARS model to explain why people quit their jobs.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
8. (p. 27) The forces within a person affect the employee's motivation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 28) Learned capabilities refer to the skills and knowledge that you have actually acquired.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
10. (p. 28) Competencies refer to the complete set of motivations, abilities, role perceptions, and situational factors that contribute to job
performance.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
11. (p. 28) Companies can improve employee role perceptions by describing the employee's assigned tasks clearly and providing meaningful
performance feedback.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
12. (p. 28) Situational factors are working conditions within the employee's control.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 28) Competencies refer to goal-directed behaviors under the individual's control that support organizational objectives.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
14. (p. 28) Research has found that absenteeism is rarely, if ever, caused by situational factors.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
15. (p. 29) Personality is a relatively stable pattern of behaviors and internal states that explains a person's behavioral tendencies.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
16. (p. 29) Personality traits are more evident in situations where social norms and reward systems constrain behavior.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
17. (p. 30) The Big Five' personality dimensions represent five clusters that represent most personality traits.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
18. (p. 30) Conscientiousness refers to the extent that people are sensitive, flexible, creative, and curious.
FALSE
19. (p. 30) People with a high score on the neuroticism personality dimension tend to be more relaxed, secure and calm.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
20. (p. 30) Agreeableness, extroversion, and conscientiousness are three of the Big Five' personality dimensions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
21. (p. 30) Sensing, feeling, and judging are three of the Big Five' personality traits.
FALSE
22. (p. 31) Conscientiousness is one of the best personality traits for predicting job performance in most job groups.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 29,35) Two of the most stable individual differences are values and personality.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
24. (p. 35) Values are stable, evaluative beliefs about what is important in a variety of situations.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
25. (p. 35) People arrange values into a needs hierarchy.

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
26. (p. 35) Espoused values represent the values that you and your spouse have in common.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
27. (p. 35) Corporate leaders have a strong influence on the moral conduct of employees in that organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
28. (p. 36) One dimension of Schwartz's values model has openness to change at one extreme and conservation at the other extreme.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
29. (p. 36 Our habitual behavior tends to be consistent with our values, but our everyday conscious decisions and actions apply our values much
less consistently.
-37)
TRUE
Difficulty: Hard
30. (p. 37) Perfect person-organization value congruence is possible but not desirable.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
31. (p. 37) The ideal situation in organizations is to have employees whose values are perfectly congruent with the organization's values.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
32. (p. 38) Cultures with high collectivism must also have low individualism.
FALSE
AACSB: Multicultural and diversity understanding
Difficulty: Medium
33. (p. 38) Two countries with low collectivism are Japan and the United States.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 38) People with high power distance expect relatively equal power sharing.
FALSE
Difficulty: Hard
35. (p. 38) In terms of cross-cultural values, Americans tend to have relatively high individualism with an achievement orientation and low
power distance.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
36. (p. 39) People from cultures with a short-term orientation tend to value assertiveness, competitiveness and materialism.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
37. (p. 39) One limitation with information about cross-cultural values is that it incorrectly assumes that everyone within a specific country
holds similar values.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
38. (p. 39) Utilitarianism judges morality by the consequences of our actions, not the means to attaining those consequences.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
39. (p. 39) Three personality traits are care, utilitarianism, and distributive justice.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
40. (p. 39) One problem with applying the individual rights principle of ethical decision making is that one individual right may conflict with
another.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
41. (p. 40) The distributive justice principle of ethical decision making people who are similar in relevant ways should receive dissimilar
benefits and burdens based on their individual rights.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
42. (p. 40) Ethical sensitivity is the degree to which an issue demands the application of ethical principles.
FALSE
43. (p. 40) Ethically sensitive people recognize the presence and determine the relative importance of an ethical issue.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
44. (p. 40) Ethics experts say that the most effective way to ensure that employees engage in ethical behavior is to introduce ethical codes of
conduct.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
45. (p. 26) All of these factors directly influence an employee's voluntary behavior and performance EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
motivation.
role perceptions.
situational factors.
moral intensity.
ability.
Difficulty: Easy
46. (p. 26) Which of the following identifies the four factors that directly influence individual behavior and performance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Utilitarianism
MARS model
Schwartz's model
Holland's model
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 26) Which of these factors directly influences an employee's voluntary behavior and performance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Motivation
Role perceptions
Uncertainty avoidance
All of the above
Only A' and B'
Difficulty: Easy
48. (p. 26) _______ represents the forces within a person that affect the direction, intensity, and persistence of voluntary behavior.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Motivation
Personality
Values
Ethics
Ability
Difficulty: Easy
ch3 KEY
1. (p. 47) The perceptual process begins by attributing behavior to internal or external causes.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
2. (p. 47) Selective attention occurs after incoming information is organized and interpreted.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
3. (p. 47) We are more likely to notice objects with features that are repetitive, intense and in motion.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
4. (p. 47) Our emotions influence what we recognize or screen out.

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
5. (p. 48) Grouping people and objects into recognizable patterns is part of the selective attention process.
FALSE
6. (p. 48) Most categorical thinking occurs without our awareness.

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 49) Social identity explains why we are unable to perceive ourselves.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
8. (p. 49) Social identity theory states that the observer's expectation of others causes the observed person to act in ways consistent with the
observer's expectations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 49) A person's social identity is a complex combination of his or her memberships in many groups.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
10. (p. 49) Social identity is a comparative process, and that comparison begins with categorical thinking.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
11. (p. 49) Social perception is influenced by three activities in the process of forming and maintaining our social identity: learning,
stereotyping, and reinforcement.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
12. (p. 49) Social identity theory explains why we see unique characteristics in everyone else but not in ourselves.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 49) Stereotyping is an extension of the social identity process.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
14. (p. 49) The three steps in stereotyping, in order, are: (a) identify negative information, (b) behave in ways consistent with previous
expectations and (c) watch the employee form a positive or negative opinion of you.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
15. (p. 49) One problem with stereotyping is that few traits assigned to a particular social category accurately describe every person identified
with that group.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
16. (p. 50) Stereotyping helps us avoid discriminatory behavior.

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
17. (p. 50) While it is very difficult to prevent the activation of stereotypes, we can minimize the application of stereotypic information.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
18. (p. 50) Someone who believes that their successful completion of a project is due to their skill and hard work is making an internal
attribution.
TRUE
Blooms taxonomy: Application
Difficulty: Easy
19. (p. 50) Attribution theory mainly explains the selective attention process.
FALSE
20. (p. 51) Fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of other people to internal factors more than external
factors.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
21. (p. 51) Fundamental attribution error would cause a supervisor to believe that an employee's lateness is due to factors beyond the employee's
control rather than to a lack of motivation to attend work.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
22. (p. 51 Fundamental attribution error occurs because observers can't easily see the external factors that constrain the person's behavior.
-52)
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 52) Self-serving bias is the tendency to take credit for our successes and blame others or the situation for our mistakes.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
24. (p. 52) Self-fulfilling prophecy occurs whenever supervisors accurately predict the future performance of recently hired employees.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
25. (p. 52) The first step in self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when the observer acts differently towards people with whom he or she has high
expectations than towards those with whom he or she has low expectations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
26. (p. 52) Self-fulfilling prophecy may result in either better or worse performance than if the employee is not exposed to the self-fulfilling
prophecy effect.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
27. (p. 55) The Johari Window is a training program that teaches employees how to change their personality.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
28. (p. 55) The four areas of the Johari Window are open, closed, internal and external.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
29. (p. 55) The main objective of the Johari Window process is to maintain the same amount of information about yourself in each of the four
quadrants.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
30. (p. 55 According to the Johari Window, the hidden area is reduced through disclosure.
-56)
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
31. (p. 55) The hidden area, in the Johari Window, refers to information that is known to others but not to you.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
32. (p. 55) The more interaction we have with someone in a meaningful way, the more we rely on stereotypes and other perceptual shortcuts to
understand that person.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
33. (p. 57) The only way to know whether an employee has learned something is if there is a relatively permanent change in the employee's
behavior.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 57) When demonstrating how to perform a task, you are transferring explicit knowledge (rather than tacit knowledge).
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
35. (p. 57) Tacit knowledge is best learned through formal classroom instruction.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
36. (p. 57) Most knowledge in organizations is tacit rather than explicit.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
37. (p. 57) Tacit knowledge is mainly learning through observation and experience.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
38. (p. 57) Behavior modification is also called reinforcement theory.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
39. (p. 57) Behavior modification emphasizes human thoughts rather than the environment as the source of all learning.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
40. (p. 57) In behavior modification, antecedents refer to environmental cues, informing employees that certain behaviors will have particular
consequences.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
41. (p. 57 According to behavior modification theory, people learn to anticipate consequences by observing the experiences of other people.
-58)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
42. (p. 58) Negative reinforcement occurs when the introduction of a consequence increases or maintains the frequency or future probability of
a behavior.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 58) Punishment decreases the frequency of future behavior whereas negative reinforcement increases or maintains the frequency of
future behavior.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
44. (p. 58) Research has concluded that punishment and negative reinforcement should never be used in organizational settings.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
45. (p. 58) If you praise an employee every time after he or she has performed the job well, then extinction of the desired behaviors is less likely
to occur after you stop giving any more praise.
FALSE
46. (p. 59) Continuous reinforcement provides the most rapid learning of the targeted behavior.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 59) The fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement produces more rapid learning than any other reinforcement schedule.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
48. (p. 59 According to social learning theory, people can reinforce their own behavior.
-60)
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
49. (p. 60) One problem with experiential learning is that it captures explicit knowledge, but overlooks tacit knowledge.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
50. (p. 60) Kolb's experiential learning model is an eight-stage process where people first learn explicit and later tacit knowledge.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
51. (p. 60) Reflective observation and abstract conceptualization are two stages in Kolb's experiential learning model.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
52. (p. 61) Companies with a strong learning orientation warn employees that mistakes will not be tolerated.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
53. (p. 47) Which of these refers to the process of receiving information about and making sense of the world around us?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Personality
Stereotyping
Reinforcement theory
Perception
Social identity
Difficulty: Easy
54. (p. 47) Selective attention is a component of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
attribution theory.
the perceptual process.
the Johari Window.
social learning theory.
the self-fulfilling prophecy model.
Difficulty: Easy
55. (p. 47) ________ is the process of filtering information received by our senses.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Personal identity
Social learning
Projection
Stereotyping
Selective attention
Difficulty: Easy
56. (p. 47) Our likelihood of noticing a person or object depends on its:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
novelty
intensity
motion
size
all of the above
Difficulty: Easy
57. (p. 47) Which of the following is an example of selective attention?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
You notice that two employees are arguing in the company's quiet library.
You conclude that the person near the cash register is a sales clerk.
You assume that an employee is lazy because she works in a department with lazy people.
All of the above are examples of selective attention.
None of the above.
Difficulty: Medium
ch4 KEY
1. (p. 68) Emotions represent the cluster of beliefs, assessed feelings, and behavioral intentions towards something or someone.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
2. (p. 68) Emotions are brief events or "episodes."

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
3. (p. 68) Moods represent our reaction to specific people or events, whereas emotions are not directed toward anything in particular.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
4. (p. 68) Emotions are communications to ourselves and put us in a state of readiness.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
5. (p. 68) Scholars have concluded that emotions fall into just two categories ethical emotions and unethical emotions.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
6. (p. 68) Attitudes are fleeting physiological experiences we have in response to an attitude object.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 68) Attitudes have three components: emotions, beliefs and behaviors.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
8. (p. 69) Beliefs represent our perceptions about the attitude object.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 69) In the model of emotions, attitudes, and behavior, feelings represent the motivation to act towards the attitude object.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
10. (p. 69) In the model of emotions, attitudes, and behavior, feelings lead to beliefs which, in turn, lead to behaviors.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
11. (p. 70) Cognitive dissonance occurs when we perceive an inconsistency between our beliefs, feelings, and behavior.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
12. (p. 70) Emotional labor refers to any physical work that makes employees feel angry that they must perform this kind of work.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
13. (p. 70) Display rules are norms that require employees to show certain emotions and to withhold others.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
14. (p. 70) Jobs require more emotional labor when employees must display a variety of emotions, rather than just one or two.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
15. (p. 71) The norms and expectations governing emotional display rules are similar around the world.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
16. (p. 71) Compared to Americans, Italians are less likely to accept or tolerate people who display their true emotions at work.
FALSE
17. (p. 72) Emotional dissonance occurs when we use our emotional intelligence on others but other people do not use their emotional
intelligence on us.
FALSE
18. (p. 72) Emotional dissonance refers to the conflict experienced between the emotions we are required to display and our true emotions in
that situation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
19. (p. 72) Emotional labor may result in stress and job burnout when the prescribed emotions for a job conflict with the employee's true
emotions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
20. (p. 72) Emotional dissonance is most common where emotional display rules are highly regulated and employees must display emotions
quite different from their true emotions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
21. (p. 72) Employees experience less stress from emotional labor when they practice surface acting rather than deep acting.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
22. (p. 72) Conflict between required and true emotions is called emotional intelligence.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 72) Employees minimize the stress from emotional labor by actually changing their emotions to match the job requirements (deep
acting), rather than displaying emotions contrary to their true emotions (surface acting).
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
24. (p. 72) Emotional intelligence refers to the ability to perceive and express emotion, assimilate emotion in thought, understand and reason
with emotion, and regulate emotion in oneself and others.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
25. (p. 72) Scholars have concluded that cognitive intelligence and emotional intelligence are synonymous.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
26. (p. 72) Emotional intelligence represents a set of abilities.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
27. (p. 72 Four dimensions of emotional intelligence are cognitive dissonance, continuance commitment, cognitive intelligence, and emotional
labor.
-73)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
28. (p. 72 Self-management represents the highest level of emotional intelligence.

-73)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
29. (p. 73) Social awareness is mainly about empathy.

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
30. (p. 74) Emotional intelligence can be learned to some extent.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
31. (p. 74) Coaching, practice and feedback help to develop emotional intelligence.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
32. (p. 74) Job satisfaction represents a person's evaluation of his or her job and work context.
TRUE
AACSB: Use of information technology
Difficulty: Easy
33. (p. 74) It is reasonable to conclude from recent surveys that nearly all employees in the United States are very satisfied with their jobs.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
34. (p. 74) Compared with other countries, American employees have above average levels of job satisfaction.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
35. (p. 75) The exit-voice-loyalty-neglect model states that some employees respond to their job dissatisfaction by patiently waiting for the
problem to work itself out or get resolved by others.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
36. (p. 75) According to the exit-voice-loyalty-neglect model, some dissatisfied employees engage in "voice" by constructively recommending
solutions to the source of their dissatisfaction.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
37. (p. 76) Researchers have found a consistently strong positive association between job satisfaction and job performance.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
38. (p. 76) The latest organizational behavior evidence concludes that happy workers are more productive workers to some extent.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
39. (p. 76) Research indicates that employees with higher job satisfaction tend to provide better customer service.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
40. (p. 77) Organizational commitment refers to an employee's contractual obligation to provide a minimum amount of time and effort to the
organization in return for a fair day's pay from the organization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
41. (p. 77) The two types of organizational commitment are affective and ineffective.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
42. (p. 77) Continuance commitment is a calculative decision to remain with the organization, rather than an emotional attachment to the firm.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 77) Employees with high levels of affective commitment tend to engage in more organizational citizenship behaviors.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
44. (p. 77) Continuance commitment motivates employees to increase their work effort beyond expectations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
45. (p. 77) Financial incentives to stay with the organization (i.e., golden handcuffs) usually reduce continuance commitment.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
46. (p. 77) Employees have lower affective commitment when they are offered stable, long-term employment.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
47. (p. 78) Trust, employee involvement, and organizational comprehension tend to increase organizational commitment.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
48. (p. 78) Employees experience more continuance commitment when the organization provides opportunities for employee involvement.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
49. (p. 78) Trust is a reciprocal activity; to receive trust from employees, corporate leaders must demonstrate their trust in those employees.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
50. (p. 79) Stress is an adaptive response to a situation that is perceived as challenging or threatening to the person's wellbeing.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
51. (p. 79) Stress refers to any environmental conditions that cause someone to suffer or experience fear.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
52. (p. 79) Everyone needs some level of stress to survive.

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
53. (p. 79) The general adaptation syndrome describes the consequences of stress.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
54. (p. 79) The individual's energy level and ability to cope with stress decrease at the beginning of the general adaptation syndrome.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
55. (p. 79) Resistance is the final stage of the stress experience (i.e. the general adaptation syndrome).
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
56. (p. 79) Employees can build up a resistance to stress by frequently experiencing the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 80) Stressors include any environmental conditions that place a physical or emotional demand on the person.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
58. (p. 80) Work-related stress is a psychological phenomenon has that has almost no effect on the employee's physical health.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
59. (p. 81) Quid pro quo is a form of sexual harassment.

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
60. (p. 81) Sexual harassment includes both unwanted sexual relations as well as a hostile work environment.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
61. (p. 81) Death from overwork (karoshi), which plagued Japan in the 1970s during the country's booming economy, is much less of a concern
during Japan's current recession.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
62. (p. 82) Employees are more likely to experience stress when they lack control over their work activities.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
63. (p. 82) Two employees in the same job might experience different stress levels because they perceive the situation differently.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
64. (p. 83) Companies can reduce employee stress by transferring them to jobs for which they are better qualified.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
65. (p. 83) Job sharing and telecommuting are usually responsible for increasing stress through work-life initiatives.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
66. (p. 83) Some firms offer sabbaticals to give employees a temporary withdrawal from the stressors of work.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
67. (p. 83) Research finds that personal goal setting, self-reinforcement, and other self-leadership practices reduce stress by changing stress
perceptions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
68. (p. 83) According to the field studies, corporate fitness and wellness programs have almost no effect on the consequences of work-related
stress.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
69. (p. 83) Employees can control the consequences of excessive stress by learning relaxation and meditation techniques.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
70. (p. 83) Wellness programs manage stress by temporarily removing employees from the stressful environment.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
71. (p. 83) Social support helps employees to manage stress by increasing their self-esteem.
ch5 KEY
1. (p. 91) Motivation refers to the forces external to a person that affect the direction, intensity, and persistence of voluntary behavior.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
2. (p. 92) The stronger your needs, the less motivated you are to fulfill them.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
3. (p. 92) A satisfied need creates a tension that makes us want to find ways to enhance those needs.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
4. (p. 92) Needs hierarchy theory explains how people develop perceptions of fairness in the distribution and exchange of resources.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
5. (p. 92) Being so basic, physiological needs are at the bottom of the hierarchy in Maslow's Need Hierarchy.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
6. (p. 92) In Maslow's Need Hierarchy, self-esteem represents the need for self-fulfillment a sense that a person's potential has been realized.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 92) According to needs hierarchy theory, the satisfaction-progression process does not apply to the fulfillment of self-actualization needs.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
8. (p. 92) Growth needs consist of a person's safety through personal achievement as well as self-actualization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 94) There is increasing evidence that due to individual values, need hierarchies are unique, not universal.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
10. (p. 95) The four-drive theory states that people have a hierarchy of needs that they progress through as lower level needs are fulfilled.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
11. (p. 95) Two drives identified in the four drives theory are the drive to acquire and the drive to bond.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
12. (p. 95) The four-drive theory states that drives are hard-wired in our brains through evolution and are found in everyone.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 95) In four-drive theory, the drive to bond does not produce any emotional markers.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
14. (p. 95) In four-drive theory, only the drive to acquire is reactive (i.e. triggered by environmental conditions) rather than proactive.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
15. (p. 95 An important implication of needs/drives-based theories of motivation is that employees should be offered a choice of rewards rather
than give everyone the same specific reward.
-96)
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
16. (p. 98) Expectancy theory of motivation states that people naturally direct their effort towards desired outcomes.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
17. (p. 98) In expectancy theory, the performance-to-outcome expectancy represents the anticipated satisfaction or dissatisfaction that an
individual places on an outcome.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
18. (p. 98) According to expectancy theory, communicating the existence of a performance-based reward system motivates employees by
increasing their outcome valences.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
19. (p. 98 Expectancy theory identifies emotions as a key component of employee motivation.
-99)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
20. (p. 99) Employee motivation is explained reasonably well by the expectancy theory model.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
21. (p. 99) According to expectancy theory, employee motivation will remain high even when the P-to-O expectancy falls to zero.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
22. (p. 99) One way to increase an employee's E-to-P expectancy regarding a specific task is to increase the person's self-confidence through
counseling and coaching.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 99) One way to increase a person's P-to-O expectancy is to measure his or her job performance more accurately.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
24. (p. 99) Goal setting potentially improves employee performance by increasing motivation and clarifying role perceptions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
25. (p. 100) Goal setting tends to be less effective when the goals are specific rather than general.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
26. (p. 100) Goal setting is more effective when employees can easily complete the goals assigned to them.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
27. (p. 100) The optimal level of goal difficulty occurs where the goal has more than a low level but less than a moderate level of goal
difficulty.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
28. (p. 100) Goal setting is usually, but not always, more effective when employees participate in setting goals.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
29. (p. 100) Feedback is a source of motivation as well as learning.

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
30. (p. 100) Feedback to employees is most effective when it is frequent, credible, and general.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
31. (p. 101) When goals are tied to financial rewards, employees are motivated to choose very difficult rather than easy goals.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
32. (p. 101) According to equity theory, employees feel inequity only when other people receive higher salaries than they do.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
33. (p. 101) According to the equity theory, outcomes are the things employees receive from the organization in exchange for the inputs.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 102) In the equity theory model, a comparison other' is an individual or group of people against whom the person compares his or her
outcome/input ratio.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
35. (p. 102) Feelings of inequity occur when employees receive less than others, but not when they receive more than others.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
36. (p. 102) Underreward inequity occurs when your outcome/input ratio is lower than the outcome/input ratio of a comparison other.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
37. (p. 102) Overreward inequity occurs whenever other people receive less money than you do.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
38. (p. 102) Equity theory research has found that employees who feel overrewarded tend to alter their perceptions of inputs and outcomes rather
than attempt to actually change them.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
39. (p. 102) One of the most common consequences of overreward inequity is that overpaid employees try to increase their inputs by working
harder.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
40. (p. 102) One advantage of equity theory is that it captures the employees' feeling of fairness to the fullest extent.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
41. (p. 103) Unfortunately, job specialization reduces work efficiency.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
42. (p. 104) Job specialization increases work efficiency, but it tends to reduce employee motivation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 104) The level of work quality tends to increase with the level of job specialization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
44. (p. 104) Task identity is the degree to which the job has a substantial impact on the organization and/or larger society.
FALSE
45. (p. 104) Employees assembling complete computer modems would have higher task identity than those assembling only one component and
passing it along to others for further assembly.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
46. (p. 104) Jobs with high level of task significance provide freedom, independence, and discretion in scheduling the work and determining the
procedures to be used to complete the work.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 104

105)
The job characteristics model identifies five core job characteristics and three psychological states.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
48. (p. 104

105)
According to the job characteristics model, experienced meaningfulness increases with the level of job feedback.
FALSE
49. (p. 105) Increasing the core job characteristic will not increase employee motivation for those with low growth need strength.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
50. (p. 105) Increasing the core job characteristic, increases employee motivation only when employees have the required skills and knowledge
to master the more challenging work.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
51. (p. 105) Forming natural work units tends to increase task identity and task significance.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
52. (p. 106) Job enrichment tends to increase the quality of products or services.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
53. (p. 106) Two ways to enrich jobs are by clustering jobs into natural groups and by establishing client relationships.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
54. (p. 106) By making employees directly responsible for specific customers and having them communicate directly with those customers,
companies are applying job specialization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
55. (p. 106) Task identity is the main job characteristic related to job enrichment.
FALSE
56. (p. 106) Empowerment is the process of putting employees in situations involving job rotation and job enlargement.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 106) People are empowered when they feel self-determination, meaning, competence, and impact regarding their role in the
organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
58. (p. 106) One of the most important characteristics of empowerment is that it is a personality trait.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
59. (p. 107) Employees are more likely to feel empowered in jobs with a high degree of autonomy, task identity, and task significance.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
60. (p. 107) Empowerment flourishes in organizations with a learning orientation.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
ch6 KEY
1. (p. 115) Decision making is an unconscious process of moving away from a desirable state of affairs.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
2. (p. 115) The rational decision-making model states that effective decision makers begin at any step in the model.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
3. (p. 116) The last step in the rational decision-making model is to evaluate the decision outcomes.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
4. (p. 116) The textbook argues that the first step in the rational decision-making model is probably the least important step in the process.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
5. (p. 117) The decision maker's emotions play an important role in his or her identification of a problem or opportunity.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 117) One problem with problem identification is that people with vested interests try to influence perceptions that there is or is not a
problem or opportunity.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 118) The decision-making process is more effective when problems are defined in terms of their solutions.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
8. (p. 117) Decision makers can discover blind spots in problem identification by discussing the situation with other people.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
9. (p. 117) The rational decision-making model assumes that decision makers have limited information-processing capabilities and engage in a
limited search for alternatives.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
10. (p. 119) Organizational behavior scholars claim that decision makers typically look at alternatives sequentially and compare each alternative
to an implicit favorite.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
11. (p. 120) Satisficing occurs when people continue on a failing course of action.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
12. (p. 120) The rational choice paradigm completely ignores the effect of emotions in human decision making.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 121) In making choices, we pay more attention to details when in a good mood than when in a negative mood.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
14. (p. 121) According to almost all organizational behavior research, intuitive decision making is a myth that should not be taken seriously.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
15. (p. 121) Decisions tend to have a higher failure rate when leaders are decisive rather than contemplative.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
16. (p. 121) Intuition is the main strategy to minimize escalation of commitment.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
17. (p. 121) Scenario planning is a structured process that helps decision makers to explore potential problems and choose the best solutions
under different future conditions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
18. (p. 122) Escalation of commitment occurs when employees increase their support for a decision because most of their colleagues also
support that decision.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
19. (p. 122) Prospect theory and self-justification are the main causes of satisficing.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
20. (p. 122) Escalation of commitment is more likely to occur when the perceived costs of terminating the project are high or unknown.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
21. (p. 124) Escalation of commitment may be corrected by ensuring that those involved in choosing decision alternatives are also responsible
for evaluating the implemented solution.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
22. (p. 124) Escalation of commitment may be corrected by publicly establishing a preset level at which the decision is abandoned or
reevaluated.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
23. (p. 124) Employee involvement mainly refers to controlling resources for one's own job.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
24. (p. 124) The higher the level of employee involvement, the more employees influence a larger portion of the decision process.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
25. (p. 124) The highest level of employee involvement occurs when employees are asked to make recommendations to managers, who then
decide whether to implement them.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
26. (p. 124) Involving employees in decision making improves problem identification.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
27. (p. 124) Teams are less likely to select the best decision alternative compared to the typical individual working alone.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
28. (p. 124) Employees are more likely to be committed to implementing a solution when they are involved in making the decision.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
29. (p. 125) The number of employees participating in the decision is one of the four contingencies determining best level of employee
involvement.
FALSE
30. (p. 125) Two contingencies of employee involvement are decision structure and risk of conflict.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
31. (p. 126) Employees should not make the final decision alone when conflict is likely among employees.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
32. (p. 126) Employee involvement potentially improves the decision-making process.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
33. (p. 126) Creativity is a unique phenomenon that occurs only in a few types of decisions.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 126) The incubation stage of creativity is more effective when the decision maker sets aside all other activities and focuses attention on
the issue or problem.
FALSE
35. (p. 126) Incubation is the stage of creativity in which the problem is simmering at the back of your mind while you are doing something
else.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
36. (p. 126) Divergent thinking occurs when the individual has a fleeting inspiration that is usually forgotten before it can be written down.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
37. (p. 126) The ideas that appear during the insight stage of creativity are quickly forgotten unless documented.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
38. (p. 126) The ideas that form during the insight stage of creativity need to be verified through conscious evaluation and experimentation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
39. (p. 127) Creativity is related to both the characteristics of creative people and the situation in which they work.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
40. (p. 127) Two characteristics of creative people are intelligence and age.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
41. (p. 127) People are creative because they work in creative environments, not because of any differences in their ability or personality.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
42. (p. 127) Creative people tend to have a high need for social approval.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 127) Creative people have a low need for achievement and a strong need to follow rules.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
44. (p. 127) Creative people are risk-takers and have less concern about social approval.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
45. (p. 127) Employees tend to be less creative in organizations that punish failure.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
46. (p. 127) Task significance and autonomy are two important conditions for creativity in organizations.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
47. (p. 127) People tend to be more creative when corporate executives assign tight deadlines and other performance goals along with
performance bonuses.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
48. (p. 127) Creativity occurs by redefining the problem, not just by finding a unique solution to the existing problem.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
49. (p. 127) Art classes and impromptu storytelling are two creative activities of associative play.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
50. (p. 127) Morphological analysis is mainly used as a test to identify people with a creative personality.
FALSE
51. (p. 128) Cross-pollination is recommended in the textbook as a way to encourage creativity in organizations.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
52. (p. 128) In organizational settings, creativity usually occurs alone rather than with other people.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
53. (p. 115) _______ is a conscious process of making choices among one or more alternatives with the intention of moving toward some
desired state of affairs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Decision making
Bounded rationality
Divergent thinking
Prospect theory
Scenario planning
Difficulty: Easy
54. (p. 116) The rational decision making model begins with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
evaluating alternatives.
recognizing and defining the problem.
searching for alternatives.
implementing the solution.
searching for information about outcomes to each alternative.
Difficulty: Easy
55. (p. 117) The purely rational model of decision making is rarely practiced in reality because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
it ignores the fact that problems must be defined before alternatives are chosen.
it assumes that human beings make decisions based on their emotions.
it assumes that people are efficient and logical information processing machines.
it ignores the fact that people evaluate their decision after an alternative has been chosen and implemented.
None of the above.
Difficulty: Medium
56. (p. 117) Which of these represent the final step in the rational choice decision making process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Identifying problems
Implement the selected alternative
Choose the best alternative
Evaluate decision outcomes
None of the above.
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 117) In what stage of the decision-making process do emotions influence human decision making?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Identifying problems
Identifying alternatives
Choosing alternatives
All of the above
None of the above; emotions do not influence decision making.
Difficulty: Medium
58. (p. 117) Which of the following best describes how emotions influence the problem identification process?
A. Emotions have no effect on how people identify problems.
B. The emotional brain center classifies incoming perceptual information as bad or good, which then influences the rational brain center's
evaluation about whether that situation is a problem.
ch7 KEY
1. (p. 145) Teams are groups of two or more people who have equal influence over each other regarding the team's goals and means of achieving
those goals.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
2. (p. 145
146)
All teams exist to fulfill some purpose, either for the organization or for its members.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
3. (p. 146) Team members are held together by their interdependence and need for collaboration to achieve common goals.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
4. (p. 146) Virtual and advisory are two types of formal teams in organizations.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
5. (p. 146) All groups are teams, but some types of teams are not groups.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 146) All teams are groups, but some types of groups are not teams.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
7. (p. 146
147)
Informal groups are initiated by the organization to satisfy the social needs of their employees.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
8. (p. 146) Task forces are temporary entities that typically investigate a particular problem and disband when the decision is made.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 146) Skunkworks are informal groups that attempt to influence people outside the group by pooling the resources and power of their
members.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
10. (p. 146) Communities of practice are informal groups bound together by shared expertise and passion for a particular activity or interest.
TRUE

Difficulty: Medium
11. (p. 146) Informal groups that share expertise, usually through information technology, on a specific area of knowledge are called
skunkworks.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
12. (p. 146) Virtual teams are entities that provide recommendations to decision makers, often temporary but can be permanent, and extend
beyond the organizational hierarchy to create a product or develop a new service.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 146

147)
Informal groups exist primarily to complete tasks for the organization that management doesn't know about.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
14. (p. 146) Self-directed work teams have very high autonomy and usually control inputs, flow, and outputs.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
15. (p. 147) Teams are generally better than individuals working alone at making decisions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
16. (p. 147) One reason why people belong to informal group is that human beings are social animals.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
17. (p. 147) Social identity theory explains why people congregate near each other, when in danger, even though it serves no apparent purpose.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
18. (p. 148) Process losses are the resources expended to develop and maintain an effective team.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
19. (p. 148) Social loafing is least common in situations where team members work alone towards a common output.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
20. (p. 148) Social loafing is more common among people with collectivist values.
FALSE

Difficulty: Easy
21. (p. 148) Companies can minimize social loafing by dividing the team's work into distinct units and assigning those unique tasks to each team
member.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
22. (p. 149) A team's effectiveness is partly measured by how well its members' needs are fulfilled.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
23. (p. 149) Team effectiveness refers to how well a team accomplishes its objectives for the organization, even if this undermines the team's
ability to survive for future tasks.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
24. (p. 149) Team members tend to work together more effectively when they are at least partly rewarded for team performance.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
25. (p. 149) Communication systems are least important when team members are geographically dispersed.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
26. (p. 149) Office layout and other physical space characteristics influence the team's ability to accomplish tasks as well as shape team member
perceptions about being part of a team.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
27. (p. 149) Teams work better when there are several layers of management and team members are encouraged to communicate mainly through
their immediate supervisor.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
28. (p. 149) Reward systems, communication systems, and physical space are three elements of the organizational and team environment.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
29. (p. 149) Two important elements of the team's environment are the team's size and composition.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
30. (p. 150) The three elements of team design include communication systems, organizational environment, and reward systems.
FALSE
31. (p. 150) Teams are generally more effective when the task is complex and lacks structure.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
32. (p. 150) Teams are best suited for highly interdependent tasks where team members have the same ultimate goals.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
33. (p. 150) Team members tend to most satisfied and productive when they are highly dependent on each other to accomplish their tasks and
each team member has unique goals (such as serving different clients).
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 150) The higher the level of task interdependence, the greater the need for individuals working alone rather than as team members
working together.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
35. (p. 150) Larger teams are typically more effective because of the larger input from larger number of members, and less time and effort
necessary in coordinating their roles and resolving differences.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
36. (p. 150) The optimal team size exists when the team is as small as possible, yet has enough people to accomplish the task.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
37. (p. 151) Research suggests that high performing team members demonstrate more cooperative behaviors towards others even though they
have less emotional intelligence.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
38. (p. 151) In effective teams, members must be motivated and able to work together, as well as contribute to the team's task.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
39. (p. 151) Homogeneous teams experience more interpersonal conflict and take longer to develop than do heterogeneous teams.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
40. (p. 151) Heterogeneous teams tend to be more effective than homogeneous teams on simple tasks requiring a high degree of cooperation and
coordination.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
41. (p. 153) The norming stage of team development is marked by interpersonal conflict as team members compete for leadership and other
positions on the team.
FALSE
42. (p. 153) Teams develop their first real sense of cohesion during the norming stage of team development.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 153) During the adjourning stage of team development, team members shift their attention away from relationships and instead focus
mainly on completing the task.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
44. (p. 154) Norms are the informal rules and standards established by a team to regulate the behavior of its members.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
45. (p. 154) Team members rarely conform to team norms unless other team members apply reinforcement or punishment.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
46. (p. 154) Team members typically hold one or more formal roles in the team as well as roles that they informally fulfill at various times.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 155) The only way to alter team norms is to disband the group.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
48. (p. 155) One way to change team norms in existing teams is to explicitly discuss the counterproductive norms with team members using
persuasive communication strategies.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
49. (p. 155) Team norms usually remain the same even when the group is disbanded and replaced with people with different values and
experiences.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
50. (p. 155) To maximize cohesiveness, the team should be as small as possible without jeopardizing its ability to accomplish the task.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
51. (p. 155) Homogeneous teams with relatively few members and a high level of interaction tend to have high cohesiveness.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
52. (p. 155) Team cohesiveness increases when entry into the group is very difficult and humiliates the new team member.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
53. (p. 156) Highly cohesive teams invariably perform organizational objectives better than teams with moderate or low cohesiveness.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
54. (p. 158) Self-directed teams control most work inputs, work processes, and output quality.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
55. (p. 158) In most self-directed work teams, the supervisor assigns tasks that individual team members perform.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
56. (p. 158) Self-directed teams are designed for production processes but not for administrative or service activities.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 158) Most self-directed teams fail because they are not as productive as employees working in traditional departmental teams.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
58. (p. 158) When companies introduce self-directed teams, supervisors must change from hands-on controller to hands-off facilitators.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
59. (p. 158) Self-directed work teams tend to work better in cultures with low power distance and high collectivism.
TRUE
60. (p. 158) Self-directed work teams are more difficult to implement in high power distance cultures.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
61. (p. 158) Employees with low collectivist values tend be more satisfied than those with high collectivist values working in self-directed work
teams.
FALSE
62. (p. 159) Virtual teams are usually permanent functional groups that communicate mainly through weekly face-to-face meetings.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
63. (p. 159) Virtual team members are mutually accountable for achieving common goals associated with organizational objectives.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
64. (p. 159) Unlike traditional teams, virtual team members do not influence each other.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
65. (p. 159) Virtual teams are becoming more common because companies are encouraging employees in distant parts of the organization to
share knowledge with each other.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
66. (p. 159) The shift towards knowledge-based rather than production-based work has made virtual teamwork possible.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
67. (p. 159) The shift from production to knowledge-based work has resulted in fewer virtual teams than in the past.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
68. (p. 159) One problem with virtual teams is that they create more silos of knowledge.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
69. (p. 159) Due to globalization, companies are usually unable to form virtual teams.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
70. (p. 159) Compared with conventional teams, virtual teams experience fewer problems as the number of team members increases.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
71. (p. 160) Some virtual teams include members from several organizations.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
72. (p. 160) A team member's ability to use communication systems is more important in virtual teams than in conventional teams.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
73. (p. 160) Virtual teams have more cohesiveness when they are able to meet face-to-face.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
74. (p. 160) Production blocking occurs when employees are unable to complete their tasks because they spend too much time in meetings.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
75. (p. 161) Evaluation apprehension causes employees to present ideas to the group even though the ideas are silly and a waste of the group's
time.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
76. (p. 161) Many potentially valuable ideas never get presented to the group because individuals think they are silly and would make them look
equally silly to the team.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
77. (p. 161) Evaluation apprehension is most common in meetings attended by people with different levels of status or expertise.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
78. (p. 161) Groupthink and evaluation apprehension are two characteristics of effective decision-making teams.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
79. (p. 161) A symptom of groupthink is that the team feels comfortable with risky decisions because possible weaknesses are suppressed or
glossed over.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
80. (p. 161) "Self-censorship" is another name for "groupthink."

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
81. (p. 162) Constructive conflict occurs when team members hold different opinions and assumptions and debate the issues through an open,
healthy dialogue.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
82. (p. 163) An important rule in brainstorming is that no one is allowed to evaluate or criticize another team member's ideas.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
83. (p. 163) One of the rules of brainstorming is that no one is allowed to piggyback or build on the ideas of other team members.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
84. (p. 163) One of the main advantages of brainstorming is that this process removes most production blocking.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
85. (p. 163) Electronic brainstorming is any situation in which team members communicate through email and other computer technologies to
make decisions.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
86. (p. 163) Electronic brainstorming relies mainly on email and electronic chat rooms to make decisions.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
87. (p. 163) Electronic brainstorming significantly reduces the problem of production blocking.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
88. (p. 163) The nominal group technique tends to produce more and better ideas than do traditional interacting groups.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
89. (p. 163) The nominal group technique removes the problems of evaluation apprehension and production blocking.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
ch8 KEY
1. (p. 169) Communication exists whenever someone sends a message to someone else, even when the person receiving the message does not
understand it.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
2. (p. 169) Communication refers to the process by which information is transmitted and understood between two or more people.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
3. (p. 170) Effective communication potentially improves knowledge management and decision making.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
4. (p. 170) One reason that people communicate with each other is to fulfill their drive to bond.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
5. (p. 170) According to research, employees' paycheck value goes up by 7 percent when they improve their communication integrity.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 170) In the communication process model, encoding the message refers to selecting the appropriate medium and sending your ideas
through that medium.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 170) According to the communication process model, communication begins with forming the message, then encoding it.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
8. (p. 171) Intended feedback is encoded, transmitted, received, and decoded from the receiver to the sender of the original message.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 172) There are two main types of channels or mediums through which informational is transmitted: personal and organizational.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
10. (p. 172) People tend to understand technical information better through aural rather than written communication media.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
11. (p. 172) One limitation of e-mail is that both sender and receiver need to coordinate the communication session.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
12. (p. 172) E-mail tends to reduce some face-to-face and telephone communication but increase the flow of information to higher levels in the
organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 172) E-mail is the best medium for communicating emotions.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
14. (p. 172

173)
One advantage of e-mail is that it is very easy to interpret the emotional tone of the sender's message.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
15. (p. 173) Employees use emoticons' in electronic mail messages to clarify the emotional meaning of their messages.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
16. (p. 173) E-mail is usually developed and sent so quickly that it increases the risk of transmitting an emotionally charged message before the
sender has time to reconsider sending the message.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
17. (p. 173) Flaming refers to the capacity of an organization to transmit information more quickly through computer networks than through
traditional paper media.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
18. (p. 173) One consequence of e-mail is that it tends to increase the amount of communication across the organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
19. (p. 173) E-mail tends to offer more warmth and social support compared with face-to-face communication.
FALSE
20. (p. 174) Nonverbal communication is less rule-bound than is verbal communication.
TRUE

Difficulty: Medium
21. (p. 174) Nonverbal communication is typically conscious, whereas most verbal communication is automatic, reactive, and unconscious.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
22. (p. 175) Media richness refers to the financial cost of using the medium relative to its frequency of use in the organization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
23. (p. 175 A communication channel with high media richness should be used in routine situations where the sender and receiver have
common understanding and expectations.
176)
FALSE
24. (p. 175) Face-to-face interaction has higher media richness than a telephone conversation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
25. (p. 176) When sending a message, the choice of medium also communicates information from the sender to receiver.
TRUE
26. (p. 177) Perceptions, filtering, and jargon are three types of noise in the communication process.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
27. (p. 177) Jargon improves communication efficiency when both the sender and receiver understand this specialized language.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
28. (p. 177) Information overload occurs when a person's information-processing capacity exceeds the job's information load.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
29. (p. 178) Employees increase their information-processing capacity by reading abstracts and other summaries.
FALSE
30. (p. 178) Omitting and buffering strategies help employees to reduce the amount of information they must process (i.e. information load).
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
31. (p. 178) Language differences represent one of the most obvious cross-cultural barriers.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
32. (p. 178) When having a conversation with someone from Japan, it is polite to allow some silence after the person has spoken before
beginning your reply.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
33. (p. 178) Maintaining eye contact to show interest in someone's conversation is one of the few forms of nonverbal communication that
transmits common meaning across all cultures.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 178) In Brazil, silence in conversation demonstrates respect and empathy between people.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
35. (p. 178) When working in Brazil, colleagues expect you to be silent for several seconds after the other person has spoken before beginning
your reply.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
36. (p. 179) Men are more likely than women to view conversations as negotiations of relative status and power.
TRUE
37. (p. 179) The problem with men and women communicating with each other is that most women don't know how to engage in report talk'.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
38. (p. 179) Women sometimes expect empathy when describing a problem whereas men are more likely to provide a solution to the problem
without providing empathy.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
39. (p. 179) Research has found that women are generally more sensitive than men to nonverbal cues in face-to-face meetings.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
40. (p. 179) When communicating with another person, you should avoid repeating your message.
FALSE

Difficulty: Easy
41. (p. 179) Active listeners empathize with the speakerthey try to understand and be sensitive to the speaker's feelings, thoughts, and
situation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
42. (p. 180) One of the most important features of active listening is to engage yourself by interrupting the speaker whenever he or she says
something that you want to discuss further.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 180) The three components of listening are encoding, decoding and interpreting.
FALSE
44. (p. 180) Active listeners constantly cycle through the three components of listening: sensing, evaluating, and responding.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
45. (p. 181) One way active listeners empathize is by clarifying the messagerephrasing the speaker's ideas at appropriate breaks.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
46. (p. 181

182)
To encourage communication within the team, organizations are more and more isolating individuals in walled offices.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 181

182)
Open offices - replacing walled offices with open work areas tend to improve communication among employees.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
48. (p. 182) One dilemma in workspace design is the requirement to balance the need to encourage social interaction with the employee's need
for privacy.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
49. (p. 182) Wikis are a collaborative variation of nonverbal messages complied by employees in the organization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
50. (p. 182) Management by walking around occurs whenever senior executives get out of their offices and communicate face-to-face with
employees.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
51. (p. 182) Unfortunately, management by walking around enhances the problem of filtering in the communication process.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
52. (p. 183) E-mail, instant messaging, and public web sites are changing characteristics of the corporate grapevine.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
53. (p. 183) In times of uncertainty, a company newsletter or similar formal communication activity can effectively replace the informal
grapevine.
FALSE
54. (p. 183) The grapevine is an important social process that bonds employees together and fulfills their need for affiliation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
55. (p. 184) Corporate leaders should view grapevine as a competitor and eventually win the challenge to inform employees before they receive
the news through the grapevine.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
56. (p. 169) Effective communication occurs when:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
information is sent through informal rather than formal channels.

information is transmitted between two or more people.
the sender convinces the receiver to accept the information sent.
information is transmitted and understood between two or more people.
the sender transmits information that is received by someone other than the intended receiver.
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 169) ________ refers to the process by which information is transmitted and understood between two or more people.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Communication
Jargon
Flaming
Grapevine
MBWA
Difficulty: Easy
58. (p. 169

170)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Effective communication plays an important role in:
knowledge management.
decision making.
coordinating work activities.
fulfilling employee needs.
all of the above.
ch9 KEY
1. (p. 190) Power is the act of changing another person's attitudes and behavior.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
2. (p. 190) Power is defined as influence in motion.

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
3. (p. 190) Power does not exist until the power holder actually applies power to influence someone else.
FALSE
4. (p. 190) People might gain power by convincing others that they have something of value.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
5. (p. 190) Countervailing power is the power that the dominant person in a relationship uses as a backup when the primary source of power
fails to work as planned on the dependent person.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 190) In any relationship, both parties have some degree of power over the other.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 191) Expert power is created whenever the organization assigns a supervisor formal authority over subordinates.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
8. (p. 191) Reward and coercive power originate from the powerholder's own characteristics.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 191) Legitimate power is an agreement between people that one person has the right to request specific behaviors from the other person.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
10. (p. 191) Employees with low power distance are more likely to comply with legitimate power.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
11. (p. 191) Legitimate power operates outside of a "zone of indifference," the range outside of which people are willing to accept someone
else's authority.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
12. (p. 191) Subordinates have reward power over their bosses through 360-degree feedback systems.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
13. (p. 191) Coercive power is derived from the person's ability to control the allocation of rewards valued by others and to remove negative
sanctions.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
14. (p. 191) Peer pressure typically represents a form of coercive power.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
15. (p. 192) Employees are losing their expert power as society moves from an industrial to a knowledge-based economy.
FALSE
16. (p. 192) Referent power is largely developed through a person's interpersonal skills.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
17. (p. 192) Information is power.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
18. (p. 192) Some employees and departments gain power by forecasting uncertainties in the organization's environment.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
19. (p. 192

193)
Prevention, forecasting, and absorption are three contingencies of power in organizations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
20. (p. 192

193)
Three general strategies to help organizations to cope with uncertainty are prevention, creation, and deception.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
21. (p. 193) An employee's ability to influence others increases as the source of his or her power becomes more substitutable.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
22. (p. 193) Non-substitutability is strengthened by controlling access to the resources.

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 193) By avoiding written documentation of special procedures, maintenance workers in the French tobacco-processing industry were
maximizing their expert power through non-substitutability.
TRUE
24. (p. 193) An employee or department has more power when its actions quickly affect many other people throughout the organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
25. (p. 193) The four contingencies of power include substitutability, visibility, referent, and utilitarian.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
26. (p. 194 First-line supervisors may have legitimate, reward, and coercive sources of power, but their actual power is often limited by a lack
of discretion.
195)
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
27. (p. 195) Even though you should be visiting clients most of the time, you make a point of stopping by the office each day so your boss sees
that you are working. This increases your power mainly through the contingency of centrality.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
28. (p. 195) Networking helps to increase a person's expert power and centrality.
TRUE
29. (p. 195) Networking is a form of influence that tends to increase the individual's expert and referent power.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
30. (p. 195) Networking can potentially leverage a person's power by increasing the person's visibility and centrality.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
31. (p. 196) Influence is an essential process in organizations through which people coordinate their effort.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
32. (p. 196) A unique feature of influence is that it operates down the corporate hierarchy but not up or across that hierarchy.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
33. (p. 197) Persuasion is the most common form of influence in high power distance cultures.
FALSE
34. (p. 197) Silent authority, assertiveness, and exchange are three sources of power.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
35. (p. 197) Exchange and ingratiation are two types of hard influence tactics.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
36. (p. 197) Coalition formation, information control, and silent authority represent three forms of hard influence tactics.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
37. (p. 197) Exchange, coalition formation, and ingratiation represent three forms of influence.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
38. (p. 198) A coalition gains power by symbolizing the legitimacy of the issue supported by the coalition.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
39. (p. 198) A coalition attempts to influence people outside the group by pooling the resources and power of its members.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
40. (p. 198) Coalition formation includes relying on the authority of the firm as an entity without approaching anyone further up the hierarchy.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
41. (p. 198) Upward appeal is considered a more forceful influence strategy than ingratiation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
42. (p. 198

199)
How we dress and the way we behave politely towards others represents a type of influence strategy.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
43. (p. 199) People are more persuasive when they rely on logical arguments and avoid emotional appeals.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
44. (p. 199) When the issue is extremely important to listeners, the speaker's personal characteristics are more important than the message
content in persuading listeners.
FALSE
45. (p. 199) In persuasive communication, the inoculation effect involves warning listeners that others will try to influence them in the future
and that they should watch out for the opponent's arguments.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
46. (p. 199) Persuasion generally works better in face-to-face interaction than through e-mail or written letters.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 200) Negotiation and networking are forms of exchange as an influence strategy.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
48. (p. 200) Soft' influence tactics such as persuasion tend to build compliance rather than commitment to the influencer's request.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
49. (p. 200) The most appropriate influence tactic depends in part on the influencer's power base and position in the organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
50. (p. 200) The general trend in North America is toward hard influence tactics because younger employees tend to have more egalitarian
values compared with those near retirement.
FALSE
51. (p. 202) Organizational politics refers to any use of power to influence others.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
52. (p. 202) Organizational politics occurs when someone attempts to influence others for the purpose of promoting personal interests.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
53. (p. 202) Organizational politics flourish when resource allocation decisions are ambiguous and complex with no formal rules.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
54. (p. 202) Machiavellian values help employees to recognize and avoid using political tactics in organizational settings.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
55. (p. 202) People with an internal locus of control and strong Machiavellian values are less likely to engage in organizational politics.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
56. (p. 202) Organizational leaders can minimize organizational politics by making decision rules more complex and ambiguous.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 202) Establishing a free flow of information and using effective change management practices help to minimize organizational politics.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
58. (p. 190) In organizational settings, power is defined as:

A.
B.
C.
D.
the practice of trying to influence another person.

the capacity to influence others.
the act of changing another person's attitudes and behaviors.
the extent to which one person is required to follow another person's commands even though he or she does not want to follow those
commands.
E. any situation where one person is dependent on another person, who is not at all dependent on the first person.
Difficulty: Medium
59. (p. 190, Power is _____, whereas influence is _______.

196)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
good, bad
weak, strong
potential, behavior
apparent, hidden
intended, unintended
Difficulty: Medium
ch10 KEY
1. (p. 209) Conflict begins whenever both parties realize that they have opposing interests.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
2. (p. 209) Conflict occurs when one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another party.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
3. (p. 209) Conflict begins when two parties experience manifest conflict.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
4. (p. 209) Conflict perceptions and emotions lead to conflict sources.

FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
5. (p. 209) Conflict may occur when one party obstructs or plans to obstruct another's goals in some way.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 209) Conflict is manifested by cohesiveness, turnover, and politics.

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 209) Conflict is a process.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
8. (p. 209) If conflict remains focused on perceptions, parties cannot resolve it through logical analysis.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 210) One benefit of moderate conflict is improved decision making.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
10. (p. 210) At the intragroup level, conflict between people inside the team causes the team to become more insularincreasing their
cohesiveness.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
11. (p. 210) Conflict with people outside the team potentially increases cohesion within the team.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
12. (p. 211) Cognitive conflict occurs when people focus their discussion on the issue while maintaining respectfulness for people having other
points of view.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
13. (p. 211) Socioemotional conflict refers to conflict between individuals, whereas constructive conflict refers to conflict between departments
and organizations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
14. (p. 211) When people experience socioemotional conflict, they tend to view differences as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve an
issue.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
15. (p. 211) Constructive conflict is one of the more serious forms of socioemotional conflict.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
16. (p. 211) Constructive conflict helps people to recognize problems, identify a variety of solutions, and better understand the issues involved.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
17. (p. 211) Socioemotional conflict is more likely to occur when team members have high levels of emotional intelligence.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
18. (p. 211 Cohesion produces a stronger social identity with the group, so team members are motivated to avoid escalating socioemotional
conflict during otherwise emotionally turbulent discussions.
212)
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
19. (p. 212) Conflict perceptions and emotions manifest themselves in the decisions and behaviors of one party toward the other.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
20. (p. 212

213)
The conflict process is really a series of episodes that potentially cycle into conflict escalation.
TRUE

Difficulty: Medium
21. (p. 213) Goal incompatibility occurs when personal or work goals seem to interfere with another person's or department's goals.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
22. (p. 213

214)
Mergers and acquisitions tend to increase conflict due to different values and beliefs.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 214) Conflict tends to increase with the lack of task interdependence.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
24. (p. 214) Higher resource scarcity increases the ability of each person to fulfill his or her goals without undermining others.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
25. (p. 215) Conflict may occur because the conflicting parties lack the opportunity, ability, and/or motivation to communicate with each other.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
26. (p. 215) "Communication problems" is one structural condition why conflict occurs.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
27. (p. 215) Conflict tends to escalate more with a win-lose than with a win-win orientation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
28. (p. 215) The five interpersonal conflict management styles are distinguished by their level of interdependence on the other party.
FALSE
29. (p. 215) The problem-solving conflict management style involves a high degree of assertiveness and cooperativeness.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
30. (p. 215) The compromising conflict management style has the highest win-win orientation and should be applied wherever the parties seem
to have mutual interests.
FALSE

Difficulty: Medium
31. (p. 215) Although forcing is one of five interpersonal styles of conflict management, it should never actually be used to manage conflict.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
32. (p. 215) Avoiding is usually the best interpersonal conflict management style where conflict has become socioemotional.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
33. (p. 215) The yielding conflict management style is preferred when both parties have equal power and enough trust to share information.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 216) The preferred conflict management style tends to depend partly on the situation and an individual's cultural background.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
35. (p. 218) Focusing employees on superordinate goals is particularly useful where conflict is caused by goal incompatibility and
differentiation.
TRUE
36. (p. 219) A logical strategy for minimizing conflict due to different values and beliefs is to have employees move through different
departments, regions, and occupations of the company throughout their careers.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
37. (p. 219) Communication only enhances conflict when it takes the form of structured meetings and dialogue sessions such as talking circles.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
38. (p. 219) Dialogue reduces conflict by lowering task interdependence.

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
39. (p. 219) People from collectivist cultures tend to apply a forcing style of conflict with colleagues more than do people from individualist
cultures.
FALSE
40. (p. 219) Drum circles help minimize conflict by reducing differentiation.
TRUE

Difficulty: Easy
41. (p. 220) Buffers tend to resolve conflict by reducing the level of interdependence between the conflicting parties.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
42. (p. 220) Increasing resources and creating more precise rules for allocation of those resources represent two ways to increase conflict.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 220) Third-party conflict resolution involves resolving conflict without resorting to arbitration or mediation.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
44. (p. 220) Arbitration has a high level of process control but a low level of decision control.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
45. (p. 221) Mediation has a high level of process control but a low level of decision control.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
46. (p. 220) Research suggests that managers tend to avoid the inquisitional approach to third-party conflict resolution.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 221) The preference for arbitration or mediation in work disputes partly depends on cross-cultural values.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
48. (p. 209) Conflict is defined as:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
any event where two parties demonstrate their dislike of each other.
any occasion where both parties perceive each other as a threat to achieving the other party's goals.
a process in which one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another party.
any event where one party acts in a way that prevents another party from achieving its goals.
a process in which each party tries to learn the resistance point of the other party.
Difficulty: Medium
49. (p. 209) The process in which one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another party is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
mediation.
conflict.
negotiation.
dialogue.
conflict management.
Difficulty: Easy
ch11 KEY
1. (p. 231) Leadership is the ability to influence, motivate, and enable others to contribute to organizational effectiveness.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
2. (p. 231) According to the authors, leaders are people in management and other leadership' positions in the organization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
3. (p. 231) Effective leaders teach and empower their employees to take leadership roles.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
4. (p. 231) Leaders do not exist in self-directed work teams.

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
5. (p. 231
232)
Leadership is one of the most studied and most agreed upon concepts in organizational behavior.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 232) Currently, the most popular leadership perspective is about examining leadership behaviors.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 232) The competency perspective of leadership has been discussed since the beginning of recorded civilization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
8. (p. 232) Recent literature has confirmed that there are no universal leadership competencies.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 232
233)
Integrity, drive, and cohesiveness are three of the characteristics of effective leaders, according to the recent leadership literature.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
10. (p. 232) Effective leaders are able to perceive and express emotions, as well as regulate emotions in themselves and others.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
11. (p. 232 Research on the competency perspective of leadership has concluded that four traits are consistently strong predictors of effective
leadership across most situations and industries.
233)
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
12. (p. 232) Several large-scale studies have identified integrity as the most important leadership trait.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 232

233)
Integrity, intelligence, and self-confidence are competencies that are characteristics of effective leaders.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
14. (p. 233) Leadership competencies identify leadership potential, not leadership performance.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
15. (p. 233) One implication of the leadership competency approach is that leadership is found among senior executives rather than people in
lower-level positions.
FALSE
16. (p. 234) Leaders with a strong task-oriented style, according to the behavioral perspective of leadership, listen to employee suggestions and
support their interests when required.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
17. (p. 234) The behavioral perspective of leadership says that task-oriented leaders clarify duties and procedures, ensure that employees follow
company rules, and push them to reach their performance capacity.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
18. (p. 234) Research indicates that employees of task-oriented leaders have better performance.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
19. (p. 234) One problem with the behavioral leadership perspective is that it assumes that high levels of either style are not good in all
situations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
20. (p. 235) Path-goal theory has its roots in the expectancy theory of motivation.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
21. (p. 235) Path-goal theory states that effective leaders have high emotional intelligence, integrity and motivation to become a leader.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
22. (p. 235

236)
Path-goal leadership theory includes directive, supervisory, and integrity leadership styles.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 236) Directive leadership from path-goal leadership theory is the same as task-oriented leadership from behavioral perspective.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
24. (p. 236) Directive leadership from path-goal leadership theory is the same as people-oriented leadership from behavioral perspective.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
25. (p. 236) The achievement-oriented leadership style applies the goal-setting and self-fulfilling prophecy concepts.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
26. (p. 236

237)
A unique feature of path-goal theory is that all of the contingencies are employee characteristics.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
27. (p. 235) According to path-goal leadership theory, directive leadership should never be applied to inexperienced employees.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
28. (p. 236) One limitation of path-goal theory of leadership is that it ignores the possibility that the best leadership style depends on the
situation.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
29. (p. 236 According to path-goal theory, directive leadership should be applied where the task is complex and the team norms are opposing
the team's formal objectives.
237)
TRUE
30. (p. 236 According to path-goal theory, participative leadership should be applied where employees work in routine tasks and the team norms
are opposing the team's formal objectives.
237)
FALSE
31. (p. 237) According to path-goal theory, supportive leadership is desirable for employees who work in teams with low cohesiveness.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
32. (p. 237) One problem with path-goal theory is that it is an extremely simple model of leadership relative to other leadership theories because
the theory cannot be expanded.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
33. (p. 237) The leadership substitutes model identifies ways to neutralize or replace transformational leaders in specific conditions.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 237) Reward systems and employees' skills are substitutes for task-oriented leadership.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
35. (p. 237) Self-leadership replaces the need for formal leadership in self-directed work teams.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
36. (p. 238) Transactional leaders are mainly change agents.

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
37. (p. 238) Scholars recommend that transformational leadership should be used instead of transactional leadership.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
38. (p. 238) Charismatic leadership refers more to leader behaviors whereas transformational leadership refers mainly to personal traits that
provide referent power over followers.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
39. (p. 238) According to the textbook, charismatic leadership differs from transformational leadership.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
40. (p. 238) Charismatic leadership is a characteristic found mainly in transactional leaders.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
41. (p. 239) Transformational leaders shape a strategic vision of the future that focuses employees on a superordinate organizational goal.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
42. (p. 239) Transformational leaders frame their vision by setting it aside until the time is right to introduce it again.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 240) Transformational leaders talk about a vision, whereas transactional leaders enact it.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
44. (p. 240) Effective transformational leaders build commitment towards the strategic vision by using words, symbols and stories that inspire
and energize employees to adopt the vision as their own.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
45. (p. 241) Transformational leadership is currently the most popular leadership perspective.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
46. (p. 241) The implicit leadership perspective explains how perceptual processes cause people to inflate the importance of leadership in
explaining organizational events.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 241) The implicit leadership perspective encourages potential leaders to act differently than what employees expect.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
48. (p. 241) Self-fulfilling prophecy and expectancy theory are the two main concepts behind the implicit leadership perspective of leadership.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
49. (p. 242) Cultural values shape the expectations that followers have of their leaders.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
50. (p. 242) Recent studies reveal that the concept and features of leadership are similar around the world.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
51. (p. 242) Research indicates that male and female leaders do not differ in their levels of task-oriented and people-oriented leadership.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
52. (p. 242) Women tend to use the participative leadership style less often than do men.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
53. (p. 242) The emerging expectations of effective leaders are the opposite of how many women prefer to lead.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
54. (p. 231) Effective leaders:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
influences, motivates, and enables others to contribute towards the success.

use power and persuasion to ensure that followers have the motivation and role clarity to achieve specified goals.
arrange the work environment so that employees can achieve corporate objectives more easily.
do all of the above.
do only A' and B'.
Difficulty: Easy
55. (p. 231) Which of these statements about leadership is TRUE?

A. Leadership includes the process of influencing others.
B. Leadership includes actions that change the work environment so that employees are better able to achieve team or organizational
objectives.
C. Leadership applies to people in any position in the organization, not just those in executive positions.
D. All of the above are true.
E. Only A' and C' are true.
Difficulty: Easy
56. (p. 231

232)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of these statements about leadership is FALSE?
Anyone may be a leader at an appropriate time and place.

Leaders use power and persuasion to get others to achieve organizational objectives.
Scholars began studying leadership after World War II.
Effective leaders provide an environment for followers to achieve team or organizational objectives.
Organizational behavior scholars have studied leadership from several different perspectives.
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 232) Competency, contingency, implicit, and transformational represent four of the main:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
sources of organizational power.

perspectives of leadership.
forms of employee involvement.
process theories of motivation.
levels of media richness in communication.
Difficulty: Easy
ch12 KEY
1. (p. 255) An organization's structure is mainly its organizational chart.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
2. (p. 255) The two fundamental requirements of all organizational structures are divisionalization and decentralization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
3. (p. 256) Division of labor leads to increased job specialization.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
4. (p. 256) When work is divided among people, a coordinating mechanism is needed to ensure that everyone works in concert.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
5. (p. 256) Informal communication is a coordination mechanism in small and entrepreneurial organizations, whereas formal communication is a
coordination mechanism in large organizations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 257) Large organizations encourage informal communication as a coordinating mechanism by moving team members into a common
physical area.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 257) Informal communication is the most flexible form of coordination.

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
8. (p. 257) One problem with informal communication as a coordinating mechanism is that it reduces organizational flexibility.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
9. (p. 256
257)
Formal hierarchy is the most effective coordinating mechanism where employees work in non-routine and ambiguous situations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
10. (p. 257) Formal hierarchy is usually the most efficient coordinating mechanism in small organizations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
11. (p. 257) One of the main benefits of formal hierarchy as a coordinating mechanism is that it coordinates work without relying on direct
supervision.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
12. (p. 257) Coordination through standardization takes three distinct forms: standardized processes, standardized hierarchy, and standardized
communication.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 257) Standardized outputs involve ensuring that individuals and work units have clearly defined goals and output measures.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
14. (p. 257) Job descriptions and training are examples of coordination through standardization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
15. (p. 258) Traditional management theorists set the maximum span of control at 20 people, but this number may be higher where work
activities are routine and standardized.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
16. (p. 258) A narrower span of control is consistent with the trend towards employee involvement and self-directed work teams.
FALSE
17. (p. 258) Span of control can increase without adverse consequences by introducing informal communication and other coordinating
mechanisms.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
18. (p. 258) The number of layers in an organization's hierarchy depends on the number of people employed and the average span of control.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
19. (p. 259) Most organizations begin with centralized structures and become more decentralized as they grow larger and divide work into more
specialized functions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
20. (p. 259) Organizations tend to centralize as their external environment becomes more complex.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
21. (p. 259) Companies can be centralized in some parts of the organization and decentralized in other parts.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
22. (p. 259

260)
Organizations tend to become less formalized as they age and grow in number of employees.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
23. (p. 259) Formalization represents the establishment of standardization as a coordinating mechanism.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
24. (p. 260) A mechanistic structure is decentralized, has a narrow span of control and little formalization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
25. (p. 261) Mechanistic structures operate best in stable environments.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
26. (p. 261) In organic structure, communication flows in all directions with little concern for the formal hierarchy.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
27. (p. 261) As external environments become more complex and dynamic, organizational structures should become more mechanistic and less
organic.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
28. (p. 261) Departmentalization specifies how employees and their activities are grouped together.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
29. (p. 261

262)
Departmentalization establishes interdependencies and coordination through informal communication within each work unit.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
30. (p. 262) One problem with departmentalization is that it discourages coordination through informal communication.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
31. (p. 262) A simple structure is one of the best structures in which to accommodate organizational growth and diversification.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
32. (p. 262) Functional structures foster professional identity and permit greater specialization than most other forms of departmentalization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
33. (p. 262) Functional structures tend to have higher dysfunctional conflict and poorer coordination across units than other forms of
departmentalization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
34. (p. 262) Divisional structures may be formed around products, geography, or functional specializations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
35. (p. 263) The product/service structure organizes work around distinct outputs.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
36. (p. 263) Companies with divisionalized structures are increasingly adopting the geographically-based structure.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
37. (p. 263) A problem with the divisional organizational structure is that it does not allow the organization to grow within that structure.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
38. (p. 263

264)
Two disadvantages of divisional structures are: they tend to duplicate resources and create silos of knowledge.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
39. (p. 264) Organizations move towards a team-based structure by flattening the hierarchy, reducing formalization, and making extensive use
of self-directed teams.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
40. (p. 264) Team-based organizational structures are usually found within divisionalized structures.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
41. (p. 264) One problem with the team-based organizational structure is that employees may experience more stress due to ambiguity of their
roles.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
42. (p. 265) Some matrix structures typically overlay a divisional structure with a functional structure to gain the benefits of both.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
43. (p. 266) People who feel comfortable working in structured bureaucracies tend to experience greater satisfaction working in a matrix
structure.
FALSE
44. (p. 266) Four characteristics of external environments influence the type of organizational structure best suited to a particular situation:
complexity, centralization, formalization, and hostility.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
45. (p. 267) The more diversified the environment, the more the firm would benefit from a divisionalized form of departmentalization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
46. (p. 267) Organic structures are better suited to dynamic environments than to stable environments.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
47. (p. 267) Decentralization is the preferred strategy for organizations in simple, integrated (one market) and hostile environments.
FALSE
Difficulty: Hard
48. (p. 267) Mechanistic structures tend to be best in hostile environments.

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
49. (p. 268) Larger firms tend to be more centralized and make greater use of direct supervision than do smaller firms.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
50. (p. 268

-
The best organizational structure depends on the variety and analyzability of the tasks.
269)
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
51. (p. 269) Organizations that follow a cost leadership strategy should apply an organic organizational structure.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
52. (p. 269) A widely accepted scholarly view of an organization's structure and its environment is that organizational decision makers can
choose the environments in which they want to operate.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
53. (p. 255) All organizational structures have the following two fundamental requirements:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
flatter span of control and decentralization

division of labor and coordination
decentralization and divisionalization
coordination and decentralization
centralization and outsourcing
Difficulty: Medium
54. (p. 256) All organizations have:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a formal hierarchy that includes supervisors and non-supervisory employees.

a divisionalized structure.
some form of coordinating mechanism.
a mechanistic structure.
both A' and C'
Difficulty: Medium
55. (p. 256) As soon as people divide work among themselves, they need to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
centralize.
decentralize.
form a team-based organizational structure.
rely increasingly on a simple structure.
rely on one or more coordinating mechanisms.
Difficulty: Easy
56. (p. 256) Dividing work into more specialized jobs tends to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
increase training costs.

reduce work efficiency.
reduce the opportunity to match people with appropriate jobs.
do all of the above.
do none of the above.
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 256) To increase work efficiency and make it easier to match employee competencies with job requirements, companies tend to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
divide work into more specialized jobs.

rely on formal hierarchy as a coordinating mechanism.
rely on a narrow span of control.
centralize decision making.
do both B' and C'.
Difficulty: Medium
ch13 KEY
1. (p. 275) Organizational culture is the basic pattern of shared assumptions and artifacts considered to be the correct way of thinking about and
acting on problems and opportunities facing the organization specifically and the industry in general.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
2. (p. 276) The values espoused by an organization's senior executives represent one of the best indicators of an organization's culture.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
3. (p. 276) Assumptions are the shared mental models that people rely on to guide their perceptions and behaviors.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
4. (p. 275) Values represent the individual's perception of reality.

FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
5. (p. 277) Subcultures are groups of employees whose values are opposed to the organization's dominant values.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
6. (p. 277) Organizational countercultures further strengthen the organization's dominant culture.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
7. (p. 277) Organizational countercultures potentially create conflict and dissension among employees.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
8. (p. 277) Organizational countercultures help the organization to maintain its ethical conduct.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
9. (p. 277 Artifacts of organizational culture may include the building's design, the way people are greeted and the food served in the company's
cafeteria.
278)
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
10. (p. 277

278)
Artifacts refer mainly to the paintings and other art objects that appear throughout the organization.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
11. (p. 277) Organizational culture is not directly observable, but it may be indirectly interpreted through visible artifacts.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
12. (p. 277

278)
Researchers have found that an organization's culture may be identified very easily and quickly by surveying the employees.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
13. (p. 278) Organizational stories support organizational culture by providing social prescriptions of the ways things should or should not be
done around the organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
14. (p. 278) Organizational stories are most effective at communicating corporate culture when they describe real people and seem to represent
true past events.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
15. (p. 278) Rituals represent the organization's deliberate and usually dramatic displays of its dominant culture.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
16. (p. 278) A ritual would include how visitors are greeted as they enter the company's offices.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
17. (p. 278

279)
Language reflects an organization's dominant values but not the values of its subcultures.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
18. (p. 279) The organization's physical structure and use of space often communicates its dominant cultural values.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
19. (p. 279) Office space and paintings hung on walls can be artifacts that symbolize the organization's culture.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
20. (p. 279) Organizational culture is a deeply embedded form of social control that subconsciously directs the thoughts and actions of
organizational members.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
21. (p. 279) A strong organizational culture exists when most employees understand and accept the dominant values.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
22. (p. 280) A strong corporate culture bonds employees together and makes them feel part of the organization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 280) The stronger the corporate culture, the more difficult it is for employees to bond together.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
24. (p. 279) A strong corporate culture exists only when employees are forced to abide by a particular set of organizational values whether or not
they believe in those values.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
25. (p. 279) Organizational culture tends to be weaker in organizations where employees have many years of service.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
26. (p. 280) A strong organizational culture improves the firm's effectiveness only if the cultural values are aligned with the external
environment.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
27. (p. 280) Companies with strong corporate cultures invariably have much higher performance than companies with weak cultures.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
28. (p. 280) One problem with a strong corporate culture is that it focuses employees so much on one mental model that they may fail to see
issues from different perspectives.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
29. (p. 280) Organizations with adaptive cultures are unable to maintain a stable value system and, consequently, tend to perform poorly in the
long run.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
30. (p. 280) Adaptive cultures focus employees on the changing needs of customers and other stakeholders and support initiative and leadership
to keep pace with these changes.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
31. (p. 280) An adaptive organizational culture is one where employees have an internal focus and they pass on the responsibility for the
organization's performance to senior management.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
32. (p. 283) Most studies have found that reward systems have little or no effect on strengthening corporate culture.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
33. (p. 283) Companies strengthen corporate culture by selecting applicants whose values are compatible with the company's dominant values.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
34. (p. 283) New employees learn corporate culture through the process of organizational socialization.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
35. (p. 283) Organizational socialization is a process of both learning and adjustment.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
36. (p. 283) Ideally, newcomers should adopt a level of creative individualism in which they accept the essential elements of the organization's
culture, yet maintain a healthy individualism that challenges some elements of organizational life.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
37. (p. 284) The three stages of organizational socialization are psychological contract, confirmation and role management.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
38. (p. 284) Nearly all of the socialization adjustment process occurs during and after the first day of work.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
39. (p. 284) Reality shock improves the organizational socialization process by forcing newcomers to pay more attention to work activities.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
40. (p. 284) Reality shock occurs when you perceive a discrepancy between your pre-employment expectations and on-the-job reality.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
41. (p. 284) Reality shock usually occurs on or before the first day of work.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
42. (p. 284) During the role management stage of organizational socialization, employees are newcomers who test their pre-employment
expectations with the perceived realities.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
43. (p. 284) Realistic job previews improve organizational socialization by ensuring that applicants develop more accurate pre-employment
expectations.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
44. (p. 284) Co-workers are important organizational socialization agents.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
45. (p. 285) Clashing corporate cultures after a merger of two firms has very little effect on the success of the merger.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
46. (p. 285) The bicultural audit process begins by identifying cultural differences between the merging companies.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
47. (p. 285) Two companies should not merge if a bicultural audit determines that they have substantially different cultures.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
48. (p. 285) Compared to other strategies for merging two organizations, assimilation is most likely to result in a culture clash.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
49. (p. 285) The assimilation strategy of merging corporate cultures should be applied when the acquired firm has a weak culture and is willing
to embrace the acquiring company's culture.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
50. (p. 286) Deculturation is the best strategy for combining corporate cultures in most mergers.
FALSE
51. (p. 286) The integration strategy for combining corporate cultures usually creates the most conflict as employees from the acquired firm
resist the cultural intrusions.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
52. (p. 286) The separation strategy is most appropriate when the merging companies are unrelated industries.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
53. (p. 275) Organizational culture is best described as the basic pattern of shared:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
assumptions, beliefs and behaviors that subconsciously guide employee thoughts and actions.
Behaviors that employees enact to demonstrate their support for corporate goals.
Decisions routinely occurring throughout the organization that support corporate strategies.
assumptions, beliefs and values that subconsciously guide employee thoughts and actions.
Rituals and ceremonies that employees enact to consummate their relationship with the organization.
Difficulty: Medium
54. (p. 275) The definition of organizational culture refers to all of these EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Assumptions.
Artifacts
Values
Beliefs
Both A' and C'
Difficulty: Easy
55. (p. 275) The assumptions, beliefs and values that subconsciously guide employee thoughts and actions are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Organizational culture.
Organizational structure.
Organizational socialization.
Organizational politics.
Transformational leadership.
Difficulty: Easy
56. (p. 276) The deepest element of organizational culture is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Values
Artifacts
Language
Beliefs
Assumptions
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 276) Which part of organizational culture is closest to the surface' (i.e.observable indicators)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Assumptions
Artifacts
Values
Beliefs
Mental models
ch14 KEY
1. (p. 291) Since it was developed more than 50 years ago, given today's technological advancements, Levin's force field analysis model is
practically useless in understanding the change process.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
2. (p. 291) Force field analysis determines the level of psychological compatibility among participants in team-building programs.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
3. (p. 291
292)
In force field analysis, one side represents driving forces and the other side represents restraining forces.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
4. (p. 292) In force field analysis, stability occurs when the driving forces and restraining forces are roughly of equal strength in opposite
directions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
5. (p. 292) In Lewin's force field analysis model, refreezing involves producing a disequilibrium between the current and future state.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
6. (p. 292) In Lewin's force field analysis model, refreezing occurs when the organization's systems and structures are aligned with the desired
behaviors.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
7. (p. 292) Economist John Kenneth Galbraith once quipped that when faced with the prospect of changing the status quo or proving why
change isn't needed, most people get busy changing the status quo.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
8. (p. 292
293)
Employee resistance to change' represents symptoms of underlying restraining forces that need to be removed.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
9. (p. 293) Resistance to change occurs when employees are worried about the consequences of change, not with the change process itself.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
10. (p. 293) People sometimes resist change to prove that the change agent is incompetent.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
11. (p. 293) Fear of the unknown usually motivates employees to support organizational change.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
12. (p. 293) Direct costs, fear of the unknown and incongruent organizational systems are all sources of resistance to change.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
13. (p. 293) One reason why employees resist change is that they dislike predictable role patterns.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
14. (p. 293) Unfreezing occurs by making the driving forces stronger, weakening the restraining forces or a combination of both.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
15. (p. 293 To minimize resistance to change, change agents need to reduce the restraining forces rather than pushing harder on the driving
forces.
294)
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
16. (p. 294) The preferred strategy for unfreezing the current situation is to increase the restraining forces and reduce or remove the driving
forces.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
17. (p. 294) By creating an urgency for change, change agents are motivating employees to change towards the new conditions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
18. (p. 294) Customer feedback provides a human element that energizes employees to change their current behavior patterns.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
19. (p. 294) To bring about effective change, leaders must create an urgency to change rather than rely on forces outside the organization to
create that urgency.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
20. (p. 295)
Negotiation, communication, coercion and employee involvement try to reduce the restraining force and should be attempted first to
unfreeze the organization.

FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
21. (p. 295) Communication should be applied to reduce resistance to change where the change must occur quickly with little financial cost.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
22. (p. 296) Coaching reduces resistance to change mainly by helping employees to break previous routines and develop new role patterns.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
23. (p. 296) Future search conferences are meetings among a small task force of senior executives who have been given the mandate to look for
a change agent on a particular corporate strategy.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
24. (p. 296) Future search conferences are large group sessions, usually lasting a few days, in which participants identify the environmental
trends and establish strategic solutions for those conditions.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
25. (p. 296) Future search conferences minimize resistance to change mainly as a form of employee involvement.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
26. (p. 296) One of the main advantages of future search conferences is that they require little or no involvement from employees.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
27. (p. 296) Stress management can minimize resistance by removing some of the direct costs and fear of the unknown of the change process.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
28. (p. 296) One problem with negotiation is that it tends to produce compliance rather than commitment to the change process.
TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
29. (p. 296) Negotiation is the highest priority and first strategy required for any organizational change.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
30. (p. 297) The best way to manage resistance to change among those who will clearly lose out from the change is to introduce coercion
practices.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
31. (p. 297) Coercion should never be used to manage change in organizations.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
32. (p. 297) Refreezing requires the establishment of organizational systems that are compatible with the desired change.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
33. (p. 297) Most change agents are external consultants rather than corporate executives.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
34. (p. 297) Given that they lack organization-specific knowledge and understanding, external consultants should never be used as change
agents.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
35. (p. 298) Successful change requires a clear, well-articulated vision of the desired future state.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
36. (p. 298) Transformational leaders are effective change agents.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
37. (p. 298) Action research is the process of determining whether the change process is ethical or not.
FALSE
Difficulty: Easy
38. (p. 298) Action research is a problem-oriented process of organizational change.

TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
39. (p. 298) Action research takes the view that organizational change is all about bringing about real change, not testing theory.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
40. (p. 298) Action research is a highly participative process.

TRUE
Difficulty: Medium
41. (p. 298) Consultants involved in organizational change should first determine the client's readiness for change.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
42. (p. 299) Quantum change is most commonly recommended and applied in conjunction with employee involvement.
FALSE
43. (p. 299) Change experts recommend introducing quantum change when the organization wants to overhaul the system quickly and
decisively.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
44. (p. 299) Compared with quantum change, incremental change interventions are less traumatic and tend to produce less resistance among
affected employees.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
45. (p. 299) One of the main advantages of quantum change is that it is less traumatic to employees than incremental change.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
46. (p. 299) A unique feature of appreciative inquiry is that it breaks away from the problem-solving mentality by reframing relationships
around what is positive and possible.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
47. (p. 299) Change agents should apply the action research model if they want to help people to break out of a problem-solving mentality and,
instead, reframe relationships around the positive and possible.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
48. (p. 300) The first step in appreciative inquiry is dreaming, in which participants envision what might be possible in an ideal organization.
FALSE
49. (p. 300) In the Four-D model, as participants identify the positive elements of the observed events in the discovery stage, they move into the
designing stage engaging in dialogue about "what should be."
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
50. (p. 301) A parallel learning structure is an organizational change intervention in which a social structure is constructed alongside the formal
hierarchy to increase the organization's learning.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
51. (p. 301) An important feature of parallel learning structures is that they operate within the existing organizational hierarchy.
FALSE
52. (p. 301) Parallel learning structures are structures that primarily help employees learn on the job rather than in the classroom.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
53. (p. 302) An ethical problem with many organizational change programs is that management tends to lose power in the process.
FALSE
Difficulty: Medium
54. (p. 302) One ethical concern with some organizational change programs is that they may threaten the employee's self-esteem.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
55. (p. 302) Organizations are human entities, full of life, sometimes fragile, always exciting.
TRUE
Difficulty: Easy
56. (p. 291) The main objective of force field analysis is to help change agents to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Identify ways to force employees to change their behavior.

Find ways to increase the driving forces for change.
Diagnose the situation better by understanding the driving and constraining forces for change.
Determine whether change is necessary at all.
Do A' and B' only.
Difficulty: Medium
57. (p. 291) The force field analysis model includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Process forces.
Driving forces.
Unfreezing.
Refreezing.
Restraining forces.
Difficulty: Medium
58. (p. 291) Which of these forces pushes organizations toward a new state of affairs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Process forces
Driving forces
Parallel learning structures
Restraining forces
None of the above

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What are some of the emerging trends in organizational behavior discussed in the text?

What are some of the emerging trends in organizational behavior discussed in the text?

What are the two perspectives on how organizations function according to the reading?

What are the two perspectives on how organizations function according to the reading?

ch1 KEY

7. (p. 4 Everyone is a manager.

32. (p. 12) Counterproductive work behaviors are voluntary.

36. (p. 13) Joining the organization is a type of work-related behavior.

38. (p. 13) Job satisfaction is a positive work evaluation.

Organizational behavior emerged as a distinct field during the 1940s.

25. (p. 35) People arrange values into a needs hierarchy.

4. (p. 47) Our emotions influence what we recognize or screen out.

6. (p. 48) Most categorical thinking occurs without our awareness.

13. (p. 49) Stereotyping is an extension of the social identity process.

16. (p. 50) Stereotyping helps us avoid discriminatory behavior.

38. (p. 57) Behavior modification is also called reinforcement theory.

54. (p. 47) Selective attention is a component of:

57. (p. 47) Which of the following is an example of selective attention?

2. (p. 68) Emotions are brief events or "episodes."

26. (p. 72) Emotional intelligence represents a set of abilities.

28. (p. 72 Self-management represents the highest level of emotional intelligence.

29. (p. 73) Social awareness is mainly about empathy.

30. (p. 74) Emotional intelligence can be learned to some extent.

McShane - Chapter 04 #30

52. (p. 79) Everyone needs some level of stress to survive.

59. (p. 81) Quid pro quo is a form of sexual harassment.

29. (p. 100) Feedback is a source of motivation as well as learning.

41. (p. 103) Unfortunately, job specialization reduces work efficiency.

47. (p. 104

48. (p. 104

McShane - Chapter 05 #50

60. (p. 107) Empowerment flourishes in organizations with a learning orientation.

McShane - Chapter 06 #20

AACSB: Analytical Skills

13. (p. 146

AACSB: Analytical Skills

80. (p. 161) "Self-censorship" is another name for "groupthink."

McShane - Chapter 08 #10

14. (p. 172

Blooms taxonomy: Comprehension

Blooms taxonomy: Comprehension

46. (p. 181

47. (p. 181

56. (p. 169) Effective communication occurs when:

information is sent through informal rather than formal channels.

58. (p. 169

Effective communication plays an important role in:

2. (p. 190) Power is defined as influence in motion.

17. (p. 192) Information is power.

19. (p. 192

Prevention, forecasting, and absorption are three contingencies of power in organizations.

20. (p. 192

22. (p. 193) Non-substitutability is strengthened by controlling access to the resources.

42. (p. 198

58. (p. 190) In organizational settings, power is defined as:

the practice of trying to influence another person.

59. (p. 190, Power is _____, whereas influence is _______.

4. (p. 209) Conflict perceptions and emotions lead to conflict sources.

59. (p. 190, Power is _, whereas influence is ___.