300 101
300 101
300 101
QUESTION NO: 1
Refer to the exhibit.
QUESTION NO: 2
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the
incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Answer: A
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer
3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
No ARP Entry
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU
for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/express-forwarding-cef/17812-cefincomp.html#t4
QUESTION NO: 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and
decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
QUESTION NO: 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network
with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially
streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the behaviors of these protocols
during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops
have been detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow
control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops
and thus never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with
QUESTION NO: 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single
connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to
simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible coexistence strategy. For
sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4
only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks
Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other
Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/strategy/docs/gov/IPV6at_a_glance_c45-625859.pdf
QUESTION NO: 6
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
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QUESTION NO: 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this
command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode:
Command
Purpose
clear ip route {* | {route |
prefix/length}[next-hop interface]}
[vrf vrf-name]
Example:
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*All routes.
prefix/lengthAny IP prefix.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip
cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fast switching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial
packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses are stored in the high-speed cache
to expedite forwarding. Routers offer better packet-transfer performance when fast switching is
enabled. Fast switching is enabled by default on all interfaces that support fast switching.
To display the routing table cache used to fast switch IP traffic, use the show ip cache EXEC
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7
command.
Reference:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to "enabled" on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The TCP Window Scaling feature adds support for the Window Scaling option in RFC 1323, TCP
Extensions for High Performance . A larger window size is recommended to improve TCP
performance in network paths with large bandwidth-delay product characteristics that are called
Long Fat Networks (LFNs). The TCP Window Scaling enhancement provides that support.
The window scaling extension in Cisco IOS software expands the definition of the TCP window to
32 bits and then uses a scale factor to carry this 32-bit value in the 16-bit window field of the TCP
header. The window size can increase to a scale factor of 14. Typical applications use a scale
factor of 3 when deployed in LFNs.
The TCP Window Scaling feature complies with RFC 1323. The larger scalable window size will
allow TCP to perform better over LFNs. Use the ip tcp window-size command in global
configuration mode to configure the TCP window size. In order for this to work, the remote host
must also support this feature and its window size must be increased.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp/configuration/12-4t/iap-12-4tbook/iap-tcp.html#GUID-BD998AC6-F128-47DD-B5F7-B226546D4B08
QUESTION NO: 10
Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose
three.)
A. header compression
B. explicit congestion notification
C. keepalive
D. time stamps
E. TCP path discovery
F. MTU window
QUESTION NO: 11
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on
one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP
characteristic does this scenario describe?
A. latency
B. starvation
C. connectionless communication
D. nonsequencing unordered packets
E. jitter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco IOS IP SLAs provides a proactive notification feature with an SNMP trap. Each
measurement operation can monitor against a pre-set performance threshold. Cisco IOS IP SLAs
generates an SNMP trap to alert management applications if this threshold is crossed. Several
SNMP traps are available: round trip time, average jitter, one-way latency, jitter, packet loss,
MOS, and connectivity tests.
Here is a partial sample output from the IP SLA statistics that can be seen:
router#show ip sla statistics 1
Round Trip Time (RTT) for Index 55
Latest RTT: 1 ms
Latest operation start time: *23:43:31.845 UTC Thu Feb 3 2005
Latest operation return code: OK
RTT Values:
Number Of RTT: 10 RTT Min/Avg/Max: 1/1/1 milliseconds
Latency one-way time:
Number of Latency one-way Samples: 0
Source to Destination Latency one way Min/Avg/Max: 0/0/0 milliseconds
Destination to Source Latency one way Min/Avg/Max: 0/0/0 milliseconds
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk648/tk362/tk920/technologies_white_paper09186a008
02d5efe.html
10
QUESTION NO: 12
Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?
A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mixing TCP with UDP
It is a general best practice to not mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially
Streaming-Video) within a single service-provider class because of the behaviors of these
protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters throttle back flows when
drops are detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow
control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops
and, thus, never lower transmission rates because of dropping.
When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows within a single service-provider class and the class
experiences congestion, TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates, potentially giving up
their bandwidth to UDP flows that are oblivious to drops. This effect is called TCP starvation/UDP
dominance.
TCP starvation/UDP dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) Mission-Critical Data is
assigned to the same service-provider class as (UDP-based) Streaming-Video and the class
experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service-provider class, the
same behavior would be observed because WRED (for the most part) manages congestion only
on TCP-based flows.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/QoSSRND-Book/VPNQoS.html
QUESTION NO: 13
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?
11
12
QUESTION NO: 14
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and
authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can
be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Answer: D
Explanation:
With PPPoE, the two authentication options are PAP and CHAP. When CHAP is enabled on an
interface and a remote device attempts to connect to it, the access server sends a CHAP packet
to the remote device. The CHAP packet requests or "challenges" the remote device to respond.
The challenge packet consists of an ID, a random number, and the host name of the local router.
When the remote device receives the challenge packet, it concatenates the ID, the remote
device's password, and the random number, and then encrypts all of it using the remote device's
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13
QUESTION NO: 15
A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even
if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
Answer: B
Explanation:
A new interface configuration command, dialer persistent, allows a dial-on-demand routing
(DDR) dialer profile connection to be brought up without being triggered by interesting traffic.
When configured, the dialer persistent command starts a timer when the dialer interface starts up
and starts the connection when the timer expires. If interesting traffic arrives before the timer
expires, the connection is still brought up and set as persistent. The command provides a default
timer interval, or you can set a custom timer interval.
To configure a dialer interface as persistent, use the following commands beginning in global
configuration mode:
Command
Purpose
Step 1
Router(config)# interface dialer number
Creates a dialer interface and enters interface configuration mode.
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14
QUESTION NO: 16
Which PPP authentication method sends authentication information in cleartext?
15
QUESTION NO: 17
Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a
specific connection?
A. Frame Relay inverse ARP
B. static DLCI mapping
C. Frame Relay broadcast queue
D. dynamic DLCI mapping
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic address mapping uses Frame Relay Inverse ARP to request the next-hop protocol
address for a specific connection, given its known DLCI. Responses to Inverse ARP requests are
entered in an address-to-DLCI mapping table on the router or access server; the table is then
used to supply the next-hop protocol address or the DLCI for outgoing traffic.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/wan/configuration/guide/fwan_c/wcffrely.html
16
QUESTION NO: 19
PPPoE is composed of which two phases?
A. Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase
B. Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
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QUESTION NO: 20
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is
completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred
over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is
completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred
over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is
completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted
over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed,
PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the
PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/vpn/asa-vpncli/vpn-pppoe.html
QUESTION NO: 21
Refer to the exhibit.
18
QUESTION NO: 22
A router with an interface that is configured with ipv6 address autoconfig also has a link-local
address assigned. Which message is required to obtain a global unicast address when a router is
present?
A. DHCPv6 request
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19
QUESTION NO: 23
An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address
of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:
20
Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit
identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is
locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI
portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas
the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its
original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for
inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/100566/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bitaddress
QUESTION NO: 24
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21
QUESTION NO: 25
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
(EIGRP) routing process to run within a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the
autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the
autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no
form of this command.
autonomous-system autonomous-system-number
no autonomous-system autonomous-system-number
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/iproute_eigrp/command/reference/ire_book/ire_a1.html#
wp1062796
22
QUESTION NO: 26
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Answer: B
Explanation:
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP
snooping enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions
occur (in which case the packet is dropped):
The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and
the DHCP client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP
snooping MAC address verification option is turned on.
The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with
an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table
does not match the interface on which the message was received.
The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0.
To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you
can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregationswitch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the
edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted port.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/122SX/configuration/guide/book/snoodhcp.html
QUESTION NO: 27
Refer to the exhibit.
23
Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?
A. distribute list 1 out
B. distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C. distribute list 2 out
D. distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0
Answer: D
Explanation:
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8
networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of
the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.
QUESTION NO: 28
Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit 10.8.0.0/16 ge 24 le 24?
A. 10.9.1.0/24
B. 10.8.0.0/24
C. 10.8.0.0/16
D. 10.8.0.0/23
Answer: B
Explanation:
With prefix lists, the ge 24 term means greater than or equal to a /24 and the le 24 means less
than or equal to /24, so only a /24 is both greater than or equal to 24 and less than or equal to 24.
This translate to any prefix in the 10.8.x.0/24 network, where X is any value in the 0-255 range.
Only the choice of 10.8.0.0.24 matches this.
24
QUESTION NO: 29
Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using
OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B's routing
table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message "not a router" is found in the output. Why is the
routing information not being learned by Router B?
A. OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B. The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C. An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that
is connected to Router A.
D. IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.
Answer: D
Explanation:
show ipv6 traffic Field Descriptions
Field
Description
source-routed
Number of source-routed packets.
truncated
Number of truncated packets.
format errors
Errors that can result from checks performed on header fields, the version number, and packet
length.
not a router
Message sent when IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/command/reference/ipv6_book/ipv6_16.html
QUESTION NO: 30
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6
addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of "FFFE" inserted into the address. Based on this
information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
25
Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit
identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is
locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI
portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas
the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its
original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for
inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
26
Once the above is done, we have a fully functional EUI-64 format address.
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/100566/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bitaddress
QUESTION NO: 31
A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local
host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?
A. Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will
allocate addresses to the local host.
B. Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path
from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C. Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6
address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D. All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is
statically defined by the network administrator.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router
solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are
sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to
wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent
by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source
address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified IPv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If
the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router
solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in
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27
One or more onlink IPv6 prefixes that nodes on the local link can use to automatically configure
their IPv6 addresses
Sets of flags that indicate the type of autoconfiguration (stateless or stateful) that can be
completed
Default router information (whether the router sending the advertisement should be used as a
default router and, if so, the amount of time (in seconds) the router should be used as a default
router)
Additional information for hosts, such as the hop limit and MTU a host should use in packets that it
originates
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/ip6addrg_bsc_con.html
29
30
31
Now we configure OSPF using process ID 10 (note the process ID may change to something else
in real exam).
Seattle>enable
Password:
Seattle#conf t
Seattle(config)#router ospf 10
Seattle(config-router)#network 192.168.16.4 0.0.0.3 area 21
One of the tasks states that area 21 should not receive any external or inter-area routes (except
the default route).
Seattle(config-router)#area 21 stub
Seattle(config-router)#end
32
33
34
35
Notice that R3 is configured as a stub receive-only router. The receive-only keyword will restrict
the router from sharing any of its routes with any other router in that EIGRP autonomous system.
This keyword will also prevent any type of route from being sent. Therefore we will remove this
command and replace it with the eigrp stub command:
R3# configure terminal R3(config)# router eigrp 123 R3(config-router)# no eigrp stub receive-only
R3(config-router)# eigrp stub
R3(config-router)# end
Now R3 will send updates containing its connected and summary routes to other routers. Notice
that the eigrp stub command equals to the eigrp stub connected summary because the connected
and summary options are enabled by default.
Next we will configure router R3 so that it has only 2 subnets of 10.0.0.0 network. Use the show ip
route command on R3 to view its routing table:
36
Note: Please notice that the IP addresses and the subnet masks in your real exam might be
different so you might use different ones to solve this question.
Just for your information, notice that if you use another network than 10.0.0.0/8 to summary, for
example, if you use the command ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.2.0.0 255.255.0.0 you will
leave a /16 network in the output of the show ip route command.
37
But in your real exam, if you dont see the line "10.0.0.0/8 is a summary, Null0" then you can
summarize using the network 10.2.0.0/16. This summarization is better because all the pings can
work well.
Finally dont forget to use the copy run start command on routers R3 and R4 to save the
configurations.
R3(config-if)# end
R3# copy run start
R4(config-if)# end
R4# copy run start
If the copy run start command doesnt work then use write memory.
38
39
40
41
42
Answer: We need to configure policy based routing to send specific traffic along a path that is
different from the best path in the routing table.
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43
44
Answer: First we need to find out 5 parameters (Bandwidth, Delay, Reliability, Load, MTU) of the
s0/0/0 interface (the interface of R2 connected to R4) for redistribution:
R2#show interface s0/0/0
Write down these 5 parameters, notice that we have to divide the Delay by 10 because the metric
unit is in tens of microsecond. For example, we get Bandwidth=1544 Kbit, Delay=20000 us,
Reliability=255, Load=1, MTU=1500 bytes then we would redistribute as follows:
R2#config terminal
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 100 metric-type 1 subnets
R2(config-router)#exit
R2(config-router)#router eigrp 100
R2(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 metric 1544 2000 255 1 1500
Note: In fact, these parameters are just used for reference and we can use other parameters with
no problem.
If the delay is 20000us then we need to divide it by 10, that is 20000 / 10 = 2000)
For R3 we use the show interface fa0/0 to get 5 parameters too
R3#show interface fa0/0
For example we get Bandwidth=10000 Kbit, Delay=1000 us, Reliability=255, Load=1, MTU=1500
bytes
R3#config terminal
R3(config)#router ospf 1
R3(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 metric-type 1 subnets
R3(config)#exit
R3(config-router)#router eigrp 100
R3(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 metric 10000 100 255 1 1500
Finally you should try to show ip route to see the 172.16.100.1 network (the network behind R4)
in the routing table of R1 and make a ping from R1 to this network.
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QUESTION NO: 37
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
46
47
48
Traffic from R1 to R61 s Loopback address is load shared between R1-R2-R4-R6 and R1-R3-R5R6 paths. What is the ratio of traffic over each path?
A. 1:1
B. 1:5
C. 6:8
D. 19:80
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49
We see that it is 150.1.6.6, so we issue the show ip route 150.1.6.6 command from R1 and see
this:
50
Notice the traffic share count shows 19 for the first path, and 80 for the second path.
QUESTION NO: 38
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
51
52
53
54
QUESTION NO: 39
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
55
56
57
58
Which key chain is being used for authentication of EIGRP adjacency between R4 and R2?
A. CISCO
B. EIGRP
C. key
D. MD5
Answer: A
Explanation: R4 and R2 configs are as shown below:
59
QUESTION NO: 40
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
60
61
62
63
A. 333056
B. 1938688
C. 1810944
D. 307456
Answer: C
Explanation:
R1s routing table is as follows
64
The numbers after the route specify the administrative distance of the route (90 for EIGRP) and
the distance metric of that particular route, which is shows as 1810944 for the 192.168.46.0 route.
QUESTION NO: 41
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
65
66
67
68
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: B
Explanation:
The relevant configuration of R1 is shown below:
69
ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 20
1 = the EIGRP AS
20 = 20% of the bandwidth
QUESTION NO: 42
Scenario:
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a
customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show running"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com
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71
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73
How old is the Type 4 LSA from Router 3 for area 1 on the router R5 based on the output you
have examined?
A. 1858
B. 1601
C. 600
D. 1569
Answer: A
Explanation:
Part of the show ip ospf topology command on R5 shows this:
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QUESTION NO: 43
Scenario:
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a
customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show runningconfig command.
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Which of the following statements is true about the serial links that terminate in R3
A. The R1-R3 link needs the neighbor command for the adjacency to stay up
B. The R2-R3 link OSPF timer values are 30, 120, 120
C. The R1-R3 link OSPF timer values should be 10,40,40
D. R3 is responsible for flooding LSUs to all the routers on the network.
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QUESTION NO: 44
Scenario:
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a
customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show runningconfig command.
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A. 1
B. 5
C. 9
D. 20
E. 54
F. 224
Answer: C
Explanation:
This can be found using the show ip ospf command on R4. Look for the Area 1 stats which
shows this:
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QUESTION NO: 45
Scenario:
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a
customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show runningconfig command.
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85
86
87
Areas of Router 5 and 6 are not normal areas, inspect their routing tables and determine which
statement is true?
A. R5's Loopback and R6's Loopback are both present in R5's Routing table
B. R5's Loopback and R6's Loopback are both present in R6's Routing table
C. Only R5's loopback is present in R5's Routing table
D. Only R6's loopback is present in R5's Routing table
E. Only R5's loopback is present in R6's Routing table
Answer: A
Explanation:
Here are the routing tables of R5 and R6:
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QUESTION NO: 47
A network engineer executes the show crypto ipsec sa command. Which three pieces of
information are displayed in the output? (Choose three.)
A. inbound crypto map
B. remaining key lifetime
C. path MTU
D. tagged packets
E. untagged packets
F. invalid identity packets
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
show crypto ipsec sa
This command shows IPsec SAs built between peers. The encrypted tunnel is built between
12.1.1.1 and 12.1.1.2 for traffic that goes between networks 20.1.1.0 and 10.1.1.0. You can see
the two Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) SAs built inbound and outbound. Authentication
Header (AH) is not used since there are no AH SAs.
This output shows an example of the show crypto ipsec sa command (bolded ones found in
answers for this question).
interface: FastEthernet0
Crypto map tag: test, local addr. 12.1.1.1
local ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (20.1.1.0/255.255.255.0/0/0)
remote ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (10.1.1.0/255.255.255.0/0/0)
current_peer: 12.1.1.2
PERMIT, flags={origin_is_acl,}
#pkts encaps: 7767918, #pkts encrypt: 7767918, #pkts digest 7767918
#pkts decaps: 7760382, #pkts decrypt: 7760382, #pkts verify 7760382
#pkts compressed: 0, #pkts decompressed: 0
#pkts not compressed: 0, #pkts compr. failed: 0,
#pkts decompress failed: 0, #send errors 1, #recv errors 0
local crypto endpt.: 12.1.1.1, remote crypto endpt.: 12.1.1.2
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QUESTION NO: 48
Refer to the following output:
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The IP address and its network mask in the IP-to-NBMA address cache. The mask is always
255.255.255.255 because Cisco does not support aggregation of NBMA information through
NHRP.
The interface type and number and how long ago it was created (hours:minutes:seconds).
The time in which the positive and negative authoritative NBMA address will expire
(hours:minutes:seconds). This value is based on the ip nhrp holdtime command.
Type of interface:
Flags:
authoritativeIndicates
thatAny
theExam.
NHRPAny
information
was obtained from the Next Hop Server
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or router that maintains the NBMA-to-IP address mapping for a particular destination.
QUESTION NO: 50
Which encapsulation supports an interface that is configured for an EVN trunk?
A. 802.1Q
B. ISL
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay
E. MPLS
F. HDLC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Restrictions for EVN
An EVN trunk is allowed on any interface that supports 802.1q encapsulation, such as
Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, and port channels.
A single IP infrastructure can be virtualized to provide up to 32 virtual networks end-to-end.
If an EVN trunk is configured on an interface, you cannot configure VRF-Lite on the same
interface.
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QUESTION NO: 51
Which three characteristics are shared by subinterfaces and associated EVNs? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. routing table
C. forwarding table
D. access control lists
E. NetFlow configuration
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
A trunk interface can carry traffic for multiple EVNs. To simplify the configuration process, all the
subinterfaces and associated EVNs have the same IP address assigned. In other words, the trunk
interface is identified by the same IP address in different EVN contexts. This is accomplished as a
result of each EVN having a unique routing and forwarding table, thereby enabling support for
overlapping IP addresses across multiple EVNs.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/evn/configuration/xe-3sg/evnoverview.pdf
QUESTION NO: 52
A user is having issues accessing file shares on a network. The network engineer advises the user
to open a web browser, input a prescribed IP address, and follow the instructions. After doing this,
the user is able to access company shares. Which type of remote access did the engineer enable?
A. EZVPN
B. IPsec VPN client access
C. VPDN client access
D. SSL VPN client access
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client provides secure SSL connections to the security appliance for
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QUESTION NO: 53
Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and
Cisco Express Forwarding?
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. GETVPN
D. Cisco Easy VPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a dynamic tunneling form of a virtual
private network (VPN) supported on Cisco IOS-based routers and Unix-like Operating Systems
based on the standard protocols, GRE, NHRP and IPsec. This DMVPN provides the capability for
creating a dynamic-mesh VPN network without having to pre-configure (static) all possible tunnel
end-point peers, including IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) and ISAKMP (Internet Security
Association and Key Management Protocol) peers. DMVPN is initially configured to build out a
hub-and-spoke network by statically configuring the hubs (VPN headends) on the spokes, no
change in the configuration on the hub is required to accept new spokes. Using this initial huband-spoke network, tunnels between spokes can be dynamically built on demand (dynamic-mesh)
without additional configuration on the hubs or spokes. This dynamic-mesh capability alleviates
the need for any load on the hub to route data between the spoke networks.
DMVPN is combination of the following technologies:
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Multipoint_Virtual_Private_Network
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QUESTION NO: 54
Which traffic does the following configuration allow?
QUESTION NO: 55
For troubleshooting purposes, which method can you use in combination with the debug ip
packet command to limit the amount of output data?
A. You can disable the IP route cache globally.
B. You can use the KRON scheduler.
C. You can use an extended access list.
D. You can use an IOS parser.
E. You can use the RITE traffic exporter.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 56
Refer to the following access list.
After applying the access list on a Cisco router, the network engineer notices that the router CPU
utilization has risen to 99 percent. What is the reason for this?
A. A packet that matches access-list with the "log" keyword is Cisco Express Forwarding switched.
B. A packet that matches access-list with the "log" keyword is fast switched.
C. A packet that matches access-list with the "log" keyword is process switched.
D. A large amount of IP traffic is being permitted on the router.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Logging-enabled access control lists (ACLs) provide insight into traffic as it traverses the network
or is dropped by network devices. Unfortunately, ACL logging can be CPU intensive and can
negatively affect other functions of the network device. There are two primary factors that
contribute to the CPU load increase from ACL logging: process switching of packets that match
log-enabled access control entries (ACEs) and the generation and transmission of log messages.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/acl-logging.html#4
QUESTION NO: 57
Which address is used by the Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding protocol to validate a packet
against the routing table?
A. source address
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QUESTION NO: 58
What are the three modes of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. strict mode, loose mode, and VRF mode
B. strict mode, loose mode, and broadcast mode
C. strict mode, broadcast mode, and VRF mode
D. broadcast mode, loose mode, and VRF mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network administrators can use Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (Unicast RPF) to help limit the
malicious traffic on an enterprise network. This security feature works by enabling a router to verify
the reachability of the source address in packets being forwarded. This capability can limit the
appearance of spoofed addresses on a network. If the source IP address is not valid, the packet is
discarded. Unicast RPF works in one of three different modes: strict mode, loose mode, or
VRF mode. Note that not all network devices support all three modes of operation. Unicast RPF in
VRF mode will not be covered in this document.
When administrators use Unicast RPF in strict mode, the packet must be received on the interface
that the router would use to forward the return packet. Unicast RPF configured in strict mode may
drop legitimate traffic that is received on an interface that was not the router's choice for sending
return traffic. Dropping this legitimate traffic could occur when asymmetric routing paths are
present in the network.
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QUESTION NO: 59
What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of
the perimeter router, accomplish?
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QUESTION NO: 60
Refer to the following command:
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QUESTION NO: 62
A network engineer is configuring SNMP on network devices to utilize one-way SNMP
notifications. However, the engineer is not concerned with authentication or encryption. Which
command satisfies the requirements of this scenario?
A. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 2c CISCORO
B. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 2c CISCORO
C. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 3 auth CISCORO
D. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 3 auth CISCORO
Answer: A
Explanation:
Most network admins and engineers are familiar with SNMPv2c which has become the dominant
SNMP version of the past decade. Its simple to configure on both the router/switch-side and just
as easy on the network monitoring server. The problem of course is that the SNMP statistical
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QUESTION NO: 63
When using SNMPv3 with NoAuthNoPriv, which string is matched for authentication?
A. username
B. password
C. community-string
D. encryption-key
Answer: A
Explanation:
The following security models exist: SNMPv1, SNMPv2, SNMPv3. The following security levels
exits: noAuthNoPriv (no authentiation and no encryption noauth keyword in CLI), AuthNoPriv
(messages are authenticated but not encrypted auth keyword in CLI), AuthPriv (messages are
authenticated and encrypted priv keyword in CLI). SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 models only support
the noAuthNoPriv model since they use plain community string to match the incoming packets.
The SNMPv3 implementations could be configured to use either of the models on per-group basis
(in case if noAuthNoPriv is configured, username serves as a replacement for community
string).
Reference: http://blog.ine.com/2008/07/19/snmpv3-tutorial/
QUESTION NO: 64
After a recent DoS attack on a network, senior management asks you to implement better logging
functionality on all IOS-based devices. Which two actions can you take to provide enhanced
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QUESTION NO: 65
A network engineer finds that a core router has crashed without warning. In this situation, which
feature can the engineer use to create a crash collection?
A. secure copy protocol
B. core dumps
C. warm reloads
D. SNMP
E. NetFlow
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a router crashes, it is sometimes useful to obtain a full copy of the memory image (called a
core dump) to identify the cause of the crash. Core dumps are generally very useful to your
technical support representative.
Four basic ways exist for setting up the router to generate a core dump:
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QUESTION NO: 66
A network engineer is trying to implement broadcast-based NTP in a network and executes the ntp
broadcast client command. Assuming that an NTP server is already set up, what is the result of
the command?
A. It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on the interface where the command was executed.
B. It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on all interfaces globally.
C. It enables a device to be an NTP peer to another device.
D. It enables a device to receive NTP broadcast and unicast packets.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The NTP service can be activated by entering any ntp command. When you use the ntp broadcast
client command, the NTP service is activated (if it has not already been activated) and the device
is configured to receive NTP broadcast packets on a specified interface simultaneously.
Command
Description
ntp broadcast client
Allows the system to receive NTP broadcast packets on an interface.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/bsm/command/bsm-xe-3se-3850-crbook/bsm-xe-3se-3850-cr-book_chapter_00.html
QUESTION NO: 67
What is a function of NPTv6?
A. It interferes with encryption of the full IP payload.
B. It maintains a per-node state.
C. It is checksum-neutral.
D. It rewrites transport layer headers.
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 68
IPv6 has just been deployed to all of the hosts within a network, but not to the servers. Which
feature allows IPv6 devices to communicate with IPv4 servers?
A. NAT
B. NATng
C. NAT64
D. dual-stack NAT
E. DNS64
Answer: C
Explanation:
NAT64 is a mechanism to allow IPv6 hosts to communicate with IPv4 servers. The NAT64 server
is the endpoint for at least one IPv4 address and an IPv6 network segment of 32-bits (for instance
64:ff9b::/96, see RFC 6052, RFC 6146). The IPv6 client embeds the IPv4 address it wishes to
communicate with using these bits, and sends its packets to the resulting address. The NAT64
server then creates a NAT-mapping between the IPv6 and the IPv4 address, allowing them to
communicate.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NAT64
QUESTION NO: 69
A network engineer initiates the ip sla responder tcp-connect command in order to gather statistics
for performance gauging. Which type of statistics does the engineer see?
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QUESTION NO: 70
A network engineer executes the ipv6 flowset command. What is the result?
A. Flow-label marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
B. Flow-set marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
C. IPv6 PMTU is enabled on the router.
D. IPv6 flow control is enabled on the router.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Enabling Flow-Label Marking in Packets that Originate from the Device
This feature allows the device to track destinations to which the device has sent packets that are
1280 bytes or larger.
SUMMARY STEPS
1. enable
2. configure terminal
3. ipv6 flowset
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Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_basic/configuration/15-mt/ip6b15-mt-book/ip6-mtu-path-disc.html
QUESTION NO: 71
A network engineer executes the show ip flow export command. Which line in the output indicates
that the send queue is full and export packets are not being sent?
A. output drops
B. enqueuing for the RP
C. fragmentation failures
D. adjacency issues
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 72
A network engineer is asked to configure a "site-to-site" IPsec VPN tunnel. One of the last things
that the engineer does is to configure an access list (access-list 1 permit any) along with the
command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload. Which functions do the two commands
serve in this scenario?
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interface ethernet 1
ip address 10.10.20.1 255.255.255.0
ip nat inside
!--- Defines Ethernet 1 with an IP address and as a NAT inside interface.
interface serial 0
ip address 172.16.10.64 255.255.255.0
ip nat outside
!--- Defines serial 0 with an IP address and as a NAT outside interface.
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QUESTION NO: 73
A network engineer is configuring a solution to allow failover of HSRP nodes during maintenance
windows, as an alternative to powering down the active router and letting the network respond
accordingly. Which action will allow for manual switching of HSRP nodes?
A. Track the up/down state of a loopback interface and shut down this interface during
maintenance.
B. Adjust the HSRP priority without the use of preemption.
C. Disable and enable all active interfaces on the active HSRP node.
D. Enable HSRPv2 under global configuration, which allows for maintenance mode.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The standby track command allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP
process to monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group. If the line protocol of the
specified interface goes down, the HSRP priority is reduced. This means that another HSRP
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QUESTION NO: 74
A network engineer is notified that several employees are experiencing network performance
related issues, and bandwidth-intensive applications are identified as the root cause. In order to
identify which specific type of traffic is causing this slowness, information such as the
source/destination IP and Layer 4 port numbers is required. Which feature should the engineer
use to gather the required information?
A. SNMP
B. Cisco IOS EEM
C. NetFlow
D. Syslog
E. WCCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
NetFlow Flows Key Fields
A network flow is identified as a unidirectional stream of packets between a given source and
destination--both are defined by a network-layer IP address and transport-layer source and
destination port numbers. Specifically, a flow is identified as the combination of the following key
fields:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/netflow/configuration/12-4t/cfg-nflowdata-expt.html
QUESTION NO: 75
An organization decides to implement NetFlow on its network to monitor the fluctuation of traffic
that is disrupting core services. After reviewing the output of NetFlow, the network engineer is
unable to see OUT traffic on the interfaces. What can you determine based on this information?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding has not been configured globally.
B. NetFlow output has been filtered by default.
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QUESTION NO: 76
A network engineer has left a NetFlow capture enabled over the weekend to gather information
regarding excessive bandwidth utilization. The following command is entered:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/fnetflow/configuration/15-mt/cfg-defnflow-exprts.html
QUESTION NO: 77
A company's corporate policy has been updated to require that stateless, 1-to-1, and IPv6 to IPv6
translations at the Internet edge are performed. What is the best solution to ensure compliance
with this new policy?
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QUESTION NO: 78
Which two functions are completely independent when implementing NAT64 over NAT-PT?
(Choose two.)
A. DNS
B. NAT
C. port redirection
D. stateless translation
E. session handling
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Network Address Translation IPv6 to IPv4, or NAT64, technology facilitates communication
between IPv6-only and IPv4-only hosts and networks (whether in a transit, an access, or an edge
network). This solution allows both enterprises and ISPs to accelerate IPv6 adoption while
simultaneously handling IPv4 address depletion. The DNS64 and NAT64 functions are completely
separated, which is essential to the superiority of NAT64 over NAT-PT.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enterprise-ipv6solution/white_paper_c11-676278.html
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QUESTION NO: 80
Which NetFlow component is applied to an interface and collects information about flows?
A. flow monitor
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QUESTION NO: 81
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the output of the show flow-sampler command is true?
A. The sampler matched 10 packets, each packet randomly chosen from every group of 100
packets.
B. The sampler matched 10 packets, one packet every 100 packets.
C. The sampler matched 10 packets, each one randomly chosen from every 100-second interval.
D. The sampler matched 10 packets, one packet every 100 seconds.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The sampling mode determines the algorithm that selects a subset of traffic for NetFlow
processing. In the random sampling mode that Random Sampled NetFlow uses, incoming packets
are randomly selected so that one out of each n sequential packets is selected on average for
NetFlow processing. For example, if you set the sampling rate to 1 out of 100 packets, then
NetFlow might sample the 5th, 120th, 199th, 302nd, and so on packets. This sample configuration
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QUESTION NO: 82
What is the result of the command ip flow-export destination 10.10.10.1 5858?
A. It configures the router to export cache flow information to IP 10.10.10.1 on port UDP/5858.
B. It configures the router to export cache flow information about flows with destination IP
10.10.10.1 and port UDP/5858.
C. It configures the router to receive cache flow information from IP 10.10.10.1 on port UDP/5858.
D. It configures the router to receive cache flow information about flows with destination IP
10.10.10.1 and port UDP/5858.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To enable the exporting of information in NetFlow cache entries, use the ip flow-export
destination command in global configuration mode.
Syntax Description
ip-address
IP address of the workstation to which you want to send the NetFlow information.
udp-port
UDP protocol-specific port number.
Reference:
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