In networking world, "Rack unit" is the term used to express the thickness or

height of a switch.
Select one:
True
False
Which network design solution below in the current technology today will extend
access layer connectivity to user devices?
Select one:
a. Redundancy implementation
b. Routing protocol implementation
c. Wireless connectivity implementation
d. Implementing etherChannel
implementation

A newly hired certified network engineer of RMS Industries is troubleshooting a

switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. Which of the following listed
below is the right command to display the correct information?
Select one:
a. show running-config
b. show startup-config
c. show spanning-
tree
d. show vlan

In network troubleshooting, which command is used to display the bandwidth of

an interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?
Select one:
a. show ip route
b. show ip interface brief
c. show ip
protocols
d. show interfaces

In this chapter, which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause sub-
optimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for
the entire bridged network?
 Select one:
a. Rapid PVST+ & RSTP
b. STP & MSTP
c. PVST+ & VRRP
d. STP &
RSTP
A network administrator of Genesis Airlines issue a command of show cdp
neigbors on a router, what do you think is the reason?

b. To display device ID and other information about directly connected

Cisco devices

Select one:
a. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

c. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
d. To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices

In this chapter, what is the function of PoE pass-through?

Select one:
a. Allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer
2 switching
by bypassing the CPU
b. Allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a
single
logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links
c. Allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent
Layer 2
loops
d. Allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over
existing Ethernet cables from an upstream switch

The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to

enable Rapid PVST+.
Select one:
True
False
A network administrator is overseeing the implementation of first hop
redundancy protocols. Which two protocols will not be able to function with
multivendor devices?
Select one:
a. HSRP & PVST
b. VRRP & GLBP
c. IRDP & HSRP
d. GLBP &
HSRP

Rack Unit is the networking term used to express the thickness or height of a
switch.
Select one:
True
False
Observe the given output below. A certified network engineer is troubleshooting
host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which
IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?
a.
Select one:
192.168.2.100
b. 192.168.2.2
c. 192.168.2.1
d. 192.168.2.0

You want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following
command syntax would
a. Switch(config)Switch(config)# spanning-tree enable this protocol?
mode 802.1w
Select one:

b. Switch(config)# mode span rapid-pvst

c. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
d. Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

In network troubleshooting, which command can be issued on a router to verify

that automatic summarization is enabled?
Select one:
a. show ip eigrp neighbors
 b. show ip
protocols
c. show ip eigrp interfaces
 d. show ip interface brief

As discussed in this chapter, what is an advantage of PVST+?

Select one:
a. PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
b. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of
the root bridge.
c. PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional
implementations of STP that use CST.
d. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load
sharing.

In this chapter, which is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

Select one:
a. Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
b. The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
c. A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
d. Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the
sending switch.

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root

bridge. What command can be used to do this?
Select one:
a. show cdp neigh
b. show running-config
c. show spanning-
tree
d. show startup-config

What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN as discussed

in this chapter?
Select one:
a. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched
environments
b. To manage the VLAN database across multiple switches
 c. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant
switched paths
d. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths

As discussed in LAN Redundancy chapter, What is the purpose of HSRP?

Select one:
a. It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding
state.
b. It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
c. It provides a continuous network connection when a
router fails.
d. It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.

Among the listed below, what are the distinct functions of layer 2 switching
that increase available bandwidth on the network?
1.Address learning
2.Routing
3.Forwarding and filtering
4.Creating network loops
5.Loop avoidance
6.IP addressing
Select one:
a. 2, 4 and 6
b. 2 and 6
c. 1, 3
and 5
d. 3 and 5

Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?

Select one:
a. MST
b. MSTP
c. PVST+
d. RSTP

Among the listed below, how can an enterprise network be designed to

optimize bandwidth?
 Select one:
a. by limiting the size of failure domains
b. by installing devices with failover capabilities
c. by deploying a collapsed core model
d. by organizing the network to control traffic
patterns
What protocol defined by IEEE standard 802.1D. Allows switches and bridges to
create a redundant LAN, with the protocol dynamically causing some ports to
block traffic so that the bridge/ switch forwarding logic will not cause frames to
loop indefinitely around the LAN. SSID See service set identifier?
Select one:
a. Etherchannel
b. PAgP
c. STP
d. LACP

ou want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following would
enable this protocol?
a. Switch# spanning-tree mode
Select one:
rapid-pvst
b. Switch# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
c. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
d. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network

administrator of Gilas Telecoms wants to check the routers configuration. From
privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator
use for this purpose?
Select one:
a. show flash &show startup-config
b. show NVRAM &show running-config
c. show version &show running-config
d. show startup-config & show running-
config

Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free

network?
 Select one:
a. STP
b. CDP
c. VTP
d. PORTFAST

A certified network expert is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to

make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the
engineer implement?
Select one:
a. HSRP
b. VRRP
c. FHRP
d. GLBP

During the wireless implementation planning what type of wireless antenna is

best suited for providing coverage in large open spaces, such as hallways or
large conference rooms?
Select one:
a. Yagi
b. omnidirectional
c. parabolic dish
d. directional

In wireless LAN technology and standards what classification do Bluetooth

belongs?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. WWAN
c. WLAN
d. WPAN

Referring to the diagram below of Chooks-to-Go office. Which switching

technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to
provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

Select one:
a. EtherChannel
b. PortFast
c. HSRP
d. trunking
Using 2 switches, which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?
Select one:
a. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
b. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
c. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.
d. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.

As describe in wireless lan technology standard which three Wi-Fi standards

operate in the
2.4GHz range of frequencies?
Select one:
a. 802.11b, 812.11g & 802.11n
b. 802.11b, 802.11ac & 802.11a
c. 802.11n, 802.11g & 802.11ac
d. 802.11ac, 802.11a & 802.11d

When a home wireless AP is being configured, _____ is used to identify the

wireless network name?
 Select one:
a. BESS
b. ESS
c. SSID
d. ad hoc

Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is
configured. It is also the first security mode used for wireless?
Select one:
a. WPA
b. WEP
c. TKIP
d. WPA2-Personal
n deploying wireless LAN which parameter is commonly used to identify a
wireless network name when a home wireless AP is being configured?
Select one:
a. AP hostname
b. ESS
c. SSID
d. BESS

Referring to the diagram below. Which switching technology would allow each
access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between
each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

Select one:
a. EtherChannel
b. trunking
c. PortFast
d. HSRP
In specific 802.11 wireless lan standard what maximum speed can 802.11n
reached?
Select one:
a. 1Gps
b. 600Mbps
c. 54Mbps
d. 128Mbps

In troubleshooting EtherChannels as shown in the diagram below. An

EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do
not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?

Select one:
a. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
b. The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having
a VLAN
assigned.
c. The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.
d. The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs
on each
interface.

In the understanding of wireless LAN technology and standards, what is the

frequency range of the IEEE 802.11a standard?
Select one:
a. 5Gbps
b. 5GHz
c. 2.4Gbps
d. 2.4GHz

In understanding wireless security which type of security threat best describes

this situation? An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a
cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless
access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network.
Select one:
a. cracking
b. rogue access
 point
c. denial of service
d. spoofing

Understanding scaling networks, which feature supports higher throughput in

switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?
Select one:
a. Redundant links
b. Link aggregation
c. Network diameter
d. Convergence

ferring to the lab diagram shown below. The senior network administrator of
ABC merchandize tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two
switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the
problem?

Select one:
a. Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different
devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.
b. Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is
implemented on Layer 3 switches.
c. Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is
implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
d. Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same
EtherChannel link.
s discussed in wireless LAN security, an employee connects wirelessly to the
company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell
phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to
connect to the company network.
Which type of security threat best describes this situation?
Select one:
a. rogue access point
b. Man in the middle
c. cracking
d. denial of service

Using PagP as range of ports to be configured as etherchannel, which mode will

form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another
device?
Select one:
a. auto
b. desirable
c. pasive
d. active

In wireless topologies, Yagi is a type of directional antenna that can be used in

long distance Wi-Fi networking.
Select one:
True
False
The trunk link between two 2960 switches has reached its capacity. How can
solve this problem in the most economical way?
Select one:
a. Increase the speed of the ports.
b. Decrease the size of the inter-switch collision domain by configuring
additional VLANs.
c. Replace the two 2960 switches with highier port capacity switches.
d. Combine physical ports into a high-speed logical link by configuring
EtherChannel.

An airline company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network.

Some users are complaining that the wireless network is too slow. Which
solution is the best method to enhance the performance of the wireless
network?
 Select one:
b. Split the traffic between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz
a. Upgrade the
frequency bands
firmware on the
wireless access point.

c. Replace the wireless NICs on the computers that are experiencing slow
connections.
d. Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless
clients.

Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a
home or small business?
Select one:
b. Ethernet switch & access
a. RADIUS authentication server & access point
point
c. Repeater & switch
d. Access point & firewall

During etherchannel range of port configuration, which mode will configure

LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?
Select one:
a. passive
b. desirable
c. auto
d. active

A certified network engineer of a new startup company is configuring an

EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command
SW2(config-if-range)# channelgroup 1 mode passive. Which command must be
used on SW1 to enable this EtherChannel?
Select one:
a. SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive
b. SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
c. SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode
active
d. SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto
An architect needs wireless access in the construction office during the
construction of a new building. The construction office is in the new building and
directly across the road from headquarters. What could be used to satisfy this
requirement of needing a narrow area of coverage?
Select one:
a. satellite
b. omnidirectional
c. Yagi
d. multiple MIMO antennas

What is the maximum data rate specified for IEEE 802.11b WLANs as described
in wireless standards?
Select one:
a. 10 Mbps
b. 11 Mbps
c. 100 Mbps
d. 54 Mbps
In the course of Scaling Networks among the listed below which two protocols
are link aggregation protocols?
Select one:
a. STP & rstp
b. PAgP & 802.3ad
c. EtherChannel & stp
d. 802.3ad & stp
Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?
Select one:
a. EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
b. PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
c. EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
d. A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.

It is known as WiGig and operates using a tri-band solution in the 2.4, 5, and 60
GHz ranges in IEEE wireless standard?
Select one:
a. 802.11ac
b. 802.11g
c. 802.11ad
d. 802.11n
In wireless LAN standards what wireless LAN technology that is an IEEE 802.15
WPAN standard; uses a device pairing process to communicate over distance up
to .05 mile (100m)?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. None of the choices
c.
Bluetooth
d. WLAN

In wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that operates in the
range of a few hundred feet?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. WIMAX
c. Bluetooth
d. WLAN

Which statement is correct as discussed in this chapter regarding the use of

PAgP to create EtherChannels?
Select one:
b. It is Cisco
a. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
proprietary.
c. It increases the number of ports that are participating in
spanning tree. d. It requires full duplex.

If a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP,

which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets
from another device?
Select one:
a. passive
b. auto
c. desirable

A network engineer connected 2 switches together with two crossover cables for
redundancy, and STP is disabled. Which of the following will happen between
the switches?
 Select one:
a. The routing tables on the switches will not update.
b. The MAC forward/filter table will not update on the switch.
c. The switches will
d. Broadcast storms will occur on the switched automatically load-
network. balance between the two
links.

d. onIn implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination

will
establish an EtherChannel?

Understanding EtherChannel technology, what is an advantage of using LACP?

Select one:
a. allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
b. decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
c. provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
d. increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices

Among the 802.11 standards what is the frequency assigned for 802.11g?
Select one:
a. 900Mhz
b. 2.4Ghz
c. 3Ghz
d. 5Ghz

In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will

establish an EtherChannel?
Select one:
a. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
b. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.

c. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.

d. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to
desirable.
Based on the discussion in this chapter, which command syntax will initiate
EtherChannel interface configuration mode?
Select one:
a. interface port-channel interface-identifier
b. interface range interface-identifier
c. interface interface-identifier
d. channel-group group-identifier

Whichamong the listed below describes an EtherChannel implementation as

mentioned in Link Aggregation chapter?
Select one:
a. PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
b. EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
c. A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel
bundle.
d. EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP,
which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets
from another device?
Select one:
a. active
b. passive
c. desirable
d. auto

A newly hired network engineer has been instructed to implement EtherChannel

in a corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
Select one:
a. providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device
failure
b. providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
c. grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
d. grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between
two switches
As discussed in wireless LAN technologies and standards, what wireless LAN
technology that is an IEEE 802.16 WWAN standard that provides wireless
broadband access of up to 30mi (50km)?
Select one:
a. Cellular broadband
b. WIMAX
c. WLAN
d. Satellite broadband
Clear my choice

Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical

network?
a. Access and
distribution Select one:

b. Distribution and core

c. Network layer
d. Access, distribution, and core

Divides the network into functional components while still maintaining the core,
distribution, and access layers of the three-layer model as discussed in chapter
2 LAN Redundancy?
Select one:
a. Cisco Enterprise Architecture
b. Enterprise edge
c. Hierarchical
network
d. Collapsed Core

In managing Cisco devices, what are two ways to access a Cisco switch for out-
of-band management?
Select one:
a. A connection that uses the AUX and and Telnet
b. A connection that uses HTTP and HTTPs
c. A connection that uses the console and AUX port
d. A connection that uses Telnet and SSH
How much traffic for a 24port Gbit switch at hand capable of generating when
operating at full wire speed?
Select one:

a. 48 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements

b. 12 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements

c. 48 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches

d. 24 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port

As per our discussion in this module LAN Redundancy, what is the outcome of a
Layer 2 broadcast storm?
Select one:
a. ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
b. Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become
congested.
c. New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be
processed.
d. CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.

How many switches in a network must be running STP or RSTP in order to avoid
broadcast storms?
Select one:
b. At least one in each
a. All of them.
loop.
c. At least the switch that is chosen as the root bridge.
d. At least one.

Among the choices listed below, which port state will switch ports immediately
transition to when configured for PortFast?
Select one:
a. Blocking
b. Learning
c. Forwarding
d. Listening
If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when
electing the root bridge?
Select one:
a. highest IP address
b. highest MAC address
c. lowest IP address
d. lowest MAC
address

As discussed in initial stages of Scaling Networks, which two features of

enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999
percent up-time?
Select one:
a. failure domains & failover capabilities
b. redundant power supplies & collapsed core
c. redundant power supplies & failover capabilities
d. services module & failover capabilities

A network problem occurs suddenly, what is the initial approach that should be
used to troubleshoot a broadcast storm in a switched network?
Select one:
a. Replace the cables on failed STP links.
b. Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.
c. Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.
d. Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.
Access Layer is a design model layer that provides connectivity for the users.
Select one:
True
False

During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted
by the network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election
process?
Select one:
a. Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic.
b. Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring.
c. All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge.
d. Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs.

As per our current module discussion, which non-proprietary protocol provides

router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?
Select one:
a. VRRPv2
b. GLBP
c. SLB
d. HSRP
As discussed in this chapter, which of the following listed below is a layer 2
protocol used to maintain a loop-free network and this refers to the IEEE 802.1D
standard?
Select one:
a. VTP
b. CDP
c. STP
d. RIP

In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single ______ router.
Select one:
a. Core
b. Perimeter
c. Virtual
d. Switch
As shown in the exhibit below, which protocol information is being displayed in
the output?
 Select one:
a. FHRP
b. HSRP
c. GLBP
d. VRRP

In Genesis Research Lab, a network administrator is reviewing a network design

that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and
WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have
enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of
device should be used as a replacement?
Select one:
a. a PoE device
b. another fixed configuration router
c. a modular
router
d. a Layer 3 switch

In managing cisco devices, which two requirements must always be met to use
in-band management to configure a network device?
Select one:
a. a direct connection to the console port & at least one network interface that
is connected
and operational
b. a direct connection to the auxiliary port & Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the

c. at least one network interface that is connected and operational & Telnet,
SSH, or HTTP
device
access to the device
d. a terminal emulation client & a direct connection to the console port

If you are a network design engineer, which type of router would an enterprise
use to allow customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of
whether they are at home or work?
Select one:
 a. Branch routers
b. Modular routers
c. Network edge
routers
d. Service provider routers
Which among the listed below are the 2 functional parts of the network that can
be combined to form a collapsed core design in Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
Select one:
b. Distribution and core
a. Enterprise edge and access layer
layer
c. Access and distribution layer
d. Provider edge and access layer
What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a
wireless medium?
Select one:
a. increased bandwidth availability & increased flexibility
b. increased network management options & reduced costs
c. reduced costs & increased flexibility
d. reduced costs & decreased number of critical points of failure
 Why would a network administrator of RMS Defence Contractor company issue
the show cdp neigbors command on a router especially if a network problem
occurs?
Select one:

a. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

b. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices

c. To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco

devices

d. To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices

Clear my choice

As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel

on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
Select one:
a. providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic.
b. grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address.
c. grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between
two switches.
d. providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device
failure.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of

PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives
PAgP packets from another device?
Select one:
a. active
b. auto
c. desirable
d. passive
As discussed in link aggregation chapter, what are two advantages of using
LACP?
Select one:
 a. decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for
EtherChannel & increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices

b. eliminates the need for the spanning-tree protocol & allows automatic
formation of
EtherChannel links
c.allows use of multivendor devices & allows automatic formation of
EtherChannel links
d. provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation & increases
redundancy to Layer 3 devices

The senior network administrator discovers a rogue AP in the network. The

rogue AP is capturing traffic and then forwarding it on to the legitimate AP. What
type of attack is this?
Select one:
a. WEP/WPA attacks
b. Jamming
c. Ninja moves
d. Man in the
middle

Based on the discussion in this chapter, which command syntax will initiate
EtherChannel interface configuration mode?
Select one:
a. interface interface-identifier
b. channel-group group-identifier
c. interface port-channel interface-
identifier
d. interface range interface-identifier
Among the types of wireless attacks, which one captures wireless traffic that
can be read, stole passwords or leaks sensitive informations?
Select one:
a. Bluetooth Attacks
b.
c. War Driving
d. Jamming
In wireless LAN standards what wireless LAN technology that is an IEEE 802.15
WPAN standard; uses a device pairing process to communicate over distance up
to .05 mile (100m)?
Select one:
b.
a. None of the choices
Bluetooth
c. WLAN
d. Wi-Fi

In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will

establish an EtherChannel?
Select one:
a. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
b. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
c. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
d. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.

In configuring Etherchannels which mode configuration setting would allow

formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without
sending negotiation traffic?
Select one:
a. SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches
b. SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable
c. SW1: auto SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both
switches
d. SW1: on
SW2: on

Which certificating body certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11

standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?
Select one:
a. IEEE
b. EE
 c. Wi-Fi
Alliance
d. FCC
Among the 802.11 standards what is the maximum speed of 802.11a?
Select one:
a. 600Mb/s
b. 2Mb/s
c. 54Mb/s
d. 64Mb/s

As discussed in link aggregation what are two requirements to be able to

configure an EtherChannel between two switches?

a. All the interfaces need to work at the same speed & need to be working
in the same
duplex
mode.
Select one:

b. All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs & need to be working in

the same
duplex mode.
c. Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end & need to be
working in the
same duplex mode.
d. The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch & All
interfaces
need to be assigned to different VLANs

This wireless attack comes from an old term called war dialing, where people
would dial random phone numbers in search of modems. It is basically people
driving around looking for vulnerable APs to attack. What wireless attack is this?
Select one:
a. Jamming
b. Password theft
c. Bluetooth
 d. War
driving

Which statement is correct as discussed in this chapter regarding the use of

PAgP to create EtherChannels?
Select one:
 a. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
b. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
c. It is Cisco
proprietary.
d. It requires full duplex.
In deploying wireless LAN, you have finished physically installing an access
point on the ceiling at your office. At a minimum, which parameter must be
configured on the access point in order to allow a wireless client to operate on
it?
Select one:
a. PSK
b. WEP
c. SSID
d. AES

What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11b standard as discussed in

wireless LAN standards?
Select one:
a. 5Gbps
b. 2.4GHz
c. 5GHz
d. 2.4Gbps
Which command listed below will initiate etherchannel interface configuration
mode?
Select one:
a. interface range interface-identifier
b. interface interface-identifier
c. interface port-channel interface-
identifier
d. channel-group group-identifier

Among the 802.11 standards what is the maximum speed of 802.11g?

Select one:
a. 11Mb/s
b. 64Mb/s
 c. 600Mb/s
d. 54Mb/s

Among the listed below what organization that set or influence WLAN
standards?
Select one:
a. APEC
b. IEEE
c. FBI
d. AWG

A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which

wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the
campus access point?
Select one:
a. data frame
b. ssid frame
c. management
frame
d. beacon frame

Among the listed below what organization that set or influence WLAN
standards?
Select one:
a. AWG
b. APEC
c. FBI
d. IEEE

Which IEEE wireless standard is known as WiGig and operates using a tri-band
solution in the 2, 4, 5, and 60 GHz ranges?
Select one:
a. 802.11ac
b. 802.11n
c.
802.11ad
d. 802.11g

In understanding wireless LAN technology and standards, what is the

maximum data rate specified for IEEE 802.11g WLANs?
Select one:
a. 100Mbps
b. 2Mbps
c. 600Mbps
d. 54Mbps

Whichamong the listed below describes an EtherChannel implementation as

mentioned in Link Aggregation chapter?
Select one:
a. A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
b. EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
c. PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
d. EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

What type of wireless attack that uses the method by flooding an AP with
deauthentication frames?
Select one:
a. War Driving
b. Packet Sniffing
c. Jamming
d. Man in the middle
In wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that operates in the
range of a few hundred feet?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. WLAN
c. Bluetooth
d. WIMAX
 In AP technology which type of management frame may regularly be
broadcast by an AP?
Select one:
a. beacon
b. probe response
c. authentication
d. probe request
What Cisco switch feature supports higher capacity throughput in switched
networks by combining multiple switch ports in 1 switch?
Select one:
a. Network diameter
b. Redundant links
c. Port upgrade
d. Link aggregation

In Scaling Networks course, link aggregation should be implemented at which

layer of the hierarchical network?
Select one:
a. Core only
b. Access, distribution, and core
c. Distribution and core
d. Access and distribution

In specific 802.11 wireless lan standard what frequency band is assigned for
802.11a?
Select one:
a. 2.4Ghz
b. 2.4Mhz
c. 5Ghz
d. 5Mhz

Which wireless network topology is being configured by a IT technician who is

installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses
Bluetooth?
Select one:

a. hotspot
 b. ad hoc
mode
c. infrastructure mode
d. Bluetooth mode

A remote class room can successfully access video-intensive streaming

lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point
is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor
audio and video quality is experienced.
Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?
Select one:

b. Add another access a. Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to

point. operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.

c. Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.

d. Upgrade the access point to one that can route.

In specific 802.11 wireless lan standard what maximum speed can 802.11ac
reach?
Select one:
a. 11Mbps
b. 54Mbps
c. 600Mbps
d.
1300Mbps

During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an

AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?
Select one:
a. encryption
b. association
c. discovery
d. authentication

Which type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage in large
open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?
Select one:
a. VHF antenna
b. Yagi
c. Omnidirectional
d. Space satellite

Among the types of wireless attacks, which one basically driving around
looking for vulnerable APs to attack. Sometimes unauthorized person will even
use drones to try and hack APs on higher floors of a building?
Select one:
a. Jamming
b. Packet Sniffing
c. War Driving
d. Man in the Middle

As explain in wireless lan security what is an advantage of SSID cloaking?

Select one:
a. It is the best way to secure a wireless network.
b. It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the
SSID is of no
concern.
c. Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the
network.
d. SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.

During a Cisco certification exam, a network engineer is configuring a small

network as shown below, an etherChannel was configured between switches
S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the
problem?

Select one:
a. The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having
a VLAN
assigned.
b. The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs
on each
interface.
c. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
d. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
The use of PAgP to create EtherChannels is discussed in link aggregation
chapter as part of Scaling Network. Which statement below as discussed in this
course is true about PagP?
Select one:
a. It is a Cisco Proprietary
b. It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used
c. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
d. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
9/7/2020 Pre-Final Exam: Attempt review

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9/7/2020 Pre-Final Exam: Attempt review

3
Question

Refer to the network topology diagram above. A certified network expert has configured
the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of
having those manually configured timers?

Select one:
a. The neighbor adjacency has formed.

b. The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2. 

c. The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
d. R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.

The correct answer is: The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.

In link state advertisement the type 1 LSAs are also refered to as:
Question4

Correct
Select one:
Mark 1.00 out of a. Summary link entries
1.00
b. IP link entries

c. Router link entries 

d. Network link entries

The correct answer is: Router link entries

What does an O routing table entry mean?

Question5

Incorrect Select one:

Mark 0.00 out of a. Inter-area route 

1.00
b. Intra-area route
c. External route
d. internal route

The correct answer is: Intra-area route

If you planning to built a large network composed of datacenters, nationwide branches

office, stores, remote overseas offices which of these works better for larger network
Question6 such as this?
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of Select one:

1.00 a. Rip v2
b. Rip v1

c. Single-area OSPF 
d. Multi-area OSPF

The correct answer is: Multi-area OSPF

An ASBR generates type 5 LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the 
area that it is connected to.
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7
Question Select one:
Correct True 
Mark 1.00 out of False
1.00

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00

Refer to the exhibit shown. What command statement must be issued to complete the
configuration at R1 for multiarea OSPF.

Select one:
a. network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 0

b. network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1 

c. network 192.168.0 .0 0.0.127.255 area
d. network 192.168.1.128 255.255.255.128 area 1

The correct answer is: network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1

In OSPF configuration understanding which parameter would you tune to affect the
selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

Select one:
a. administrative distance 
Question9
b. link bandwidth
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of

c. link delay
1.00 d. hop count

The correct answer is: administrative distance

A network specialist of Avengers Corporation is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and

discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not
establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID
are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the
cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful.
What is most likely the problem?

Select one:
a. Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict
b. The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.

c. The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match. 
d. A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.

The correct answer is: The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not 
match.

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9/7/2020 Pre-Final Exam: Attempt review

10
Question In RMS University, the network admin is trying to add a new router into an established
OSPF network.
The network attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other
OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what
configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

Select one:
a. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
b. The process id is configured improperly.
c. The network number is configured improperly.

d. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly. 

The correct answer is: The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

Question11

Correct
OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the DR router to advertise routes in
Mark 1.00 out of multiaccess networks.
1.00

Select one:
True 
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

Select one:
True 
False

Question12

Correct The correct answer is 'True'.

Mark 1.00 out of
1.00

In implementation of OSPF network what command pertains to propagating a default

route?

Select one:
a. Ip route 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 Serial0

b. Ip route 192.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 

c. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.200.1.2
Question13 d. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 The correct answer is: Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.200.1.2

Observe the exhibit shown above. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but
they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

Select one:
a. The routers have both been elected as the DR.
b. The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0
interfaces. 

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14
Question c. The routers are configured with the same router ID. 
Incorrect d. The routers have the same priority.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00

The correct answer is: The routers are configured with the same router ID.

Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a
signature?

Select one:
a. Secret key & OSPF message 
b. OSPF router ID & loopback interface
Question15
c. Router hostname & mac-address
Correct
d. Interface ip address & secret key
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00

The correct answer is: Secret key & OSPF message

What happens when a router has two network statements in different areas?

Select one:
a. It becomes BDR

b. It becomes ASBR 
c. It becomes ABR
Question16 d. It becomes DR
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 The correct answer is: It becomes ABR

In OSPF networks discussion what router that has at least one interface that is attached
to a non-OSPF network?

Select one:
a. ASBR 
b. ABR
c. Backbone Router
Question17
d. Internal Router
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of

1.00
The correct answer is: ASBR

Refer to the show command test result shown above. What is indicated by the O IA in
the router output?

Select one:
a. The route was learned from within the area. 
b. The route was learned from outside the internetwork. 

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9/7/2020 Pre-Final Exam: Attempt review

18
Question c. The route was manually configured.
d. The route was learned from another area.

The correct answer is: The route was learned from another area.

Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?

Select one:
a. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table. 
b. Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.
c. Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link.

Question19
d. All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.

Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of

1.00
The correct answer is: OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing
table.

In troubleshooting OSPF issues why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual
bandwidth configuration?

Select one:
a. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute the router IDs

b. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table. 
c. All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.
d. Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.

Question20

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00

Question21

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00

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9/5/2020 Prelims
The correct answer is: OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.If all OSPF
routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF
router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?

22
Select one:
a. the highest IP address among its active interfaces 
b. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces
c. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface
d. the IP address of the console management interface

The correct answer is: the highest IP address among its active interfaces

A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and must ensure that only
specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network statement would configure the OSPF process for
networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now located in the backbone area, and
inject Question23 them into the OSPF domain?
Correct
Select one:
Mark 1.00 out of
a. 1.00 c
b. w
c. w
d. w

The correct answer is: c

The ABC Mining company network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF
area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of
255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the
summary route for area 15 into area 0?
Question24
Select Incorrect
one:
a. Mark 0.00 out of network 172.16.8.0 0.0.0.7 area 15 
b. 1.00 network 172.16.8.0 0.0.7.255 area 0
c. network 172.16.8.0 0.0.7.255 area 15
d. network 172.16.8.0 0.0.0.7 area 0

The correct answer is: network 172.16.8.0 0.0.7.255 area 15

In understanding of multiarea OSPF where do inter-area route summarization be performed in an OSPF

network?

Select one:
a. any router
Question25
b. ASBR 
Incorrect
c. Mark 0.00 out of
ABR
d. 1.00 DR

The correct answer is: ABR

Which show command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

Select one:
a. show ip ospf lsa database

b. show ip ospf link-state

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9/29/2020
c. show ip ospf database 
d. show ip ospf neighbors

26
The correct answer is: show ip ospf database

A network administrator of an international herbal company is verifying a multi-area OSPF

configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to
a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing
table within area 1?

Select one:
a. O E2
b. C

c. O IA 
Question27
d. O
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00
The correct answer is: O IA

In understanding in OSPF networks what does an O E1 or E2 routing table entry mean?

Select one:
a. Inter-area route

b. External route 
c. Intra-area route
d. Static route

The Question28 correct answer is: External route

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00
Which command statement below will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead
timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?

Select one:
a. show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0

b. show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0 

c. show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1
d. show ip ospf neighbor

The Question29 correct answer is: show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00
As discussed in Scaling Network course when OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which
state do they elect a DR and BDR router?

Select one:
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State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 8 September 2020, 1:47 PM
Time taken 9 mins 38 secs
Grade Not yet graded

Question1 Instruction: Attached file .doc format only

Complete
List the Jobs in Information Security
Marked out of
1.00

Information Security Analyst

Software Developer
Computer Network Architects
Computer and Information Systems Managers

Jobs In Information Security.docx

Question2 Instruction: Attached file format .doc only

Complete
The Importance of Information Security (20 points)
Marked out of
1.00
Feeling confident about their organization’s security level
The need for skilled workers and allocation of funds for security within their budget
Disruptions in their day-to-day business

The Importance of Information Securit

y.docx

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p security/ Prelim Quiz 2

Started on Monday, 31 August 2020, 10:08 AM

State Finished
Completed on Monday, 31 August 2020, 10:12 AM
Time taken 3 mins 51 secs
Marks 18.00/18.00
Grade 20.00out of 20.00100%)
(

Question1 Fourth Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Founded hackers and wide availability of hacking tools

Question2 First Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Rising cost of breaches

Question3
Feeling confident about their organization's security level
: When information security community
Complete members participated in the Cybersecurity Trends Report, they were asked how positive they felt about
Mark 1.00 out of their security stance.
1.00

Select one:
True

False

Question4 Second Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Increasing sophisticated attackers

Question5 What jobs in information security is this?

Complete
Salary: $104,000
Mark 1.00 out of
Responsibilities: Create an in-office network for a small business or a cloud infrastructure for a business
1.00
with corporate locations in cities on opposite coasts.

Answer: Computer Network Architects

20 different risk markers grouped under five main categories

Select one:
a. Security, Medical, Political, Environmental and Infrastructural Risks

b. Security, Government, Political, Environmental and Infrastructural Risks

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c. System , Medical, Political, Environmental and Infrastructural Risks

d. Security, Medical, Political, Island and Infrastructural Risks

Question6

Complete

Mark 5.00 out of Fifth Reason why investing in information security is significant Answer:
5.00

Regulatory compliances

What jobs in information security is this?

Question7
Salary: $139,000
Complete Responsibilities: Information systems managers work toward ensuring a company's
Mark 1.00 out of tech is capable of meeting their IT goals.
1.00

Answer:
Computer and Information Systems Managers

Question8

Complete Information is one of the most

Mark 1.00 out of significant non-substantial
1.00
resources.

What jobs in information security is this?

Question9 Salary: $103,560
Complete Responsibilities: Software developers can be tasked with a wide range of
responsibilities that may include designing parts of computer programs and
Mark 1.00 out of
applications and designing how those pieces work together.
1.00

Answer:
Software Developer

Question10

Complete

Mark 1.00 out of Confidential Information was stored in servers in

1.00 multiple areas, leaving us open to risk.

Third Reason why investing in information security is significant

Question11
Answer:
Complete
Proliferation of IoT devices
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00

Question12
Complete

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00

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Question13 What jobs in information security is this?

Complete
Salary: $95,510
Mark 1.00 out of
Responsibilities: Information security analysts monitor their companies' computer networks to combat
1.00
hackers and compile reports of security breaches.

Answer: Information Security Analyst

Question14 Fifth Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete

Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Regulatory compliances

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9/29/2020
Pr

◄ Information Security Strategic

Jump to... Prelim Exam ►
Roadmap

elim Exam: Attempt review


9/29/2020

Home / My courses / UGRD-IT6206-2016S / Prelim Exam / Prelim Exam

Started on Tuesday, 8 September 2020, 1:37 PM

State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 8 September 2020, 1:47 PM
Time taken 9 mins 38 secs
Grade Not yet graded

Question1 Instruction: Attached file .doc format only

Complete
List the Jobs in Information Security
Marked out of
1.00

Information Security Analyst

Software Developer
Computer Network Architects
Computer and Information Systems Managers

Jobs In Information Security.docx

Question2 Instruction: Attached file format .doc only

Complete
The Importance of Information Security (20 points)
Marked out of
1.00
Feeling confident about their organization’s security level
The need for skilled workers and allocation of funds for security within their budget
Disruptions in their day-to-day business

The Importance of Information Securit

y.docx

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
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
 Started on Tuesday, 29 September 2020, 8:08 PM
State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 29 September 2020, 9:02 PM
Time taken 54 mins 7 secs
Grade 46.00 out of 50.00 (92%)
Question 1
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question
Question text

Is to model the procedural flow of actions that are part of a larger activity

Select one:

a. Activity Diagram
b. Scenario Diagram
c. Constraints
d. Sequence Diagram

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

Question 2
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question
Question text

Is an interaction diagram that emphasizes the time ordering of messages

 Select one:
a. Sequence Diagram
b. Scenarios Diagram
c. Style
d. Use Case Model

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

Question 3
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question
Question text

An architectural style represents a family of related systems

Select one:
a. Style
b. System
c. Connectors
d. Properties

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

Question 4
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question
 Question text

An operational concept is a shared vision from the perspective of the system’s

stakeholders of how the system will be:
Select one:
a. System, Produced, Deployed, Trained, Used and maintained, Refined,
Retired
b. Developed, Produced, Style, Trained, Used and maintained, Refined, Retired
c. Developed, Produced, Deployed, Trained, Used and maintained, Refined, Retired
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Question 5
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Conditions that must be true once the use case is run e.g. <order is
modified and consistent>; Select one:

a. System
b. Style
c. Post
d. Constraints

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Question 6
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Measures of performance (MOP) and measures of effectiveness (MOE) are obtained

Select one:
a. Evaluation Phase
b. Contraints
c. Requirements
d. Use Case Model
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Question 7
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Sequence diagram to depict the workflow – as above but graphically

portrayed Select one:

a. Use Case Model

b. Style
c. Scenarios Diagram
d. Sequence Diagram

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Question 8
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These are the formal rules an limitations that a use case operates under, and
includes prepost and invariant conditions.

Select one:

a. Post
b. Activity Diagram
c. Sequence Diagram
d. Contraints

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Question 9
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The static constructs are used, together with descriptions of the dynamic
behavior of the architecture to obtain the executable operational X-architecture
(X = executable property) Select one:

a. Analysis Phase
b. Synthesis Phase
c. Evaluation Phase
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Question 10
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The fundamental and unifying system structure defined in terms of system

elements, interfaces, processes, constraints, and behaviors
Select one:
a. Components
b. Architecture
c. System
d. System

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Question 11
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The fundamental organization of a system embodied in its components, their

relationships to each other and to the environment and the principles guiding
its design and evolution Select one:
 a. System Architecture
b. Components

c. Architecture
d. Connectors
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Question 12
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A variety of segments intended to achieve a specific goal as indicated by plan.

Select one:
a. System Thingking
b. System
c. System Integration
d. System Architecture

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Question 13
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The organizational structure of a system of CSCIs, identifying its components,

their interfaces and a concept of execution among them
 Select one:

a. Connectors

b. Architecture
c. Systems
d. Properties

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Question 14
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Represent the non-structural information about the parts of an architecture

description Select one:

a. Connectors
b. Components
c. Properties
d. System

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Question 15
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Is a method for understanding an element as far as its motivation, as three
stages

Select one:
a. System Architecture
b. System Thinking
c. System
d. System Integration

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Question 16
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Model interactions among components

Select one:
a. System
b. Connectors
c. Properties
d. Components

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Question 17
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Are the people involved in or affected by project activities

Select one:
a. Stakeholders
b. Web Designer
c. Analysis
d. Programmer

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Question 18
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The architecture of a framework characterizes its elevated level structure,

uncovering its gross association as an accumulation of cooperating parts.
Select one:
a. System Thinking
b. System Integration
c. System
d. System Architecture

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Question 19
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The static representatives of the functional and

physical Select one:

a. System
b. Evaluation Phase
c. Analysis Phase
d. Synthesis Phase

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Question 20
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text
se: Processes exist that need to take place in order that the system
Is it true or accomplish
fal
its unctions

intended f
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
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1.00

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Is it true or false that distinguish a containing entire (framework), of which the

thing to be clarified is a section.
Select one:

True
False

Question 22
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Is it true or false that clarify the conduct or properties of the thing to be clarified
as far as its role(s)or function(s) inside its containing entirety
Select one:

True
False

Question 23
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 Question text

What is the Three Basic Organizational Structures

Select one:
a. Efficient, Project and Matrix
b. Functional, Accurate and Matrix
c. Functional, Project and Matrix
d. Flexible, Project and Matrix

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Question 24
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Team members are given more autonomy and expected to take more
responsibility for their work.
Select one:
a. Functional Structure
b. Project Organization Structure
c. Matrix Structure
d. Divisional Structure

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Question 25
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 Flag question
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Advantages of Object-Oriented approach: Allows flexibility in the design as it

evolves over time

Select one:

True
False

Question 26
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Question
text
C
Acronym: are Development Life Cycle
SDL

Softw
Answer
:
Question 27 1.00
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of
 Flag question
Question
text
se: The individual processes transform either data or materials that
Is it true or“flow”
fal
between
them
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
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The advantages of this kind of structure include quick decision making because
the group members are able to communicate easily with each other.
Select one:

a. Functional Structure
b. Divisional Structure
c. Project Organization Structure
d. Matrix Structure

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Question 29
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People who do similar tasks, have similar skills and/or jobs in an

organization Select one:

a. Functional Stucture
b. Divisional Structure
c. Matrix Structure
d. Project Organization Structure

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Question 30
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This kind of structure will ensure greater output of varieties of similar products.
Select one:

a. Matrix Structure
b. Project Organization Structure
c. Functional Structure
d. Divisional Structure

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Question 31
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text
s of Object-Oriented approach: Requires some early elimination of
Disadvanta technology
ge
alternatives the absence of reliable information
in
Select
one:
True
False
Question 32
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The teams are put together based on the number of members needed to
produce the product or complete the project.
Select one:

a. Divisional Structure
b. Matrix Structure
c. Functional Structure
d. Project Organization Structure
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Question 33
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Repetitions of iterative development are referred to as sprints, which normally

last thirty days.
Select one:
a. SDLC
b. Extreme Programming
c. SLDC
d. Scrum

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Question 34
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In a divisional structure, the company will coordinate inter-group relationships

to create a work team that can readily meet the needs of a certain customer or
group of customers Select one:
a. Divisional Structure

b. Matrix Structure
c. Project Organization Structure
d. Functional Structure
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Question 35
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text
se that clarify the conduct or properties of the containing entirety.
Is it true or
fal
Select
one:
True
False
Question 36 1.00
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 Question text

Developers program in pairs and must write the tests for their own code.

Select one:
a. Scrum
b. SDLC
c. Extreme Programming
d. SLDC
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Question 37
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Are more complex in that they group people in two different ways: by the
function they perform and by the product team they are working with.

Select one:

a. Divisional Structure
b. Matrix Structure
c. Functional Structure
d. Project Organization Structure

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Question 38
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The computational elements and data stores of the system

Select one:
 a. System
b. Style
c. Connectors
d. Components

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Question 39
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Description of the steps taken to carry out the use case

Select one:
a. Scenarios Diagram
b. Constraint
c. Activity Diagram
d. Scenarios

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Question 40
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Components expected to demonstrate a product engineering include

Select one:
a. Segments, Connectors, Systems, Properties, Styles
b. Segments, Connectors, Systems, Properties, Structure
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Question 41
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Architecture
The wordAnsweris derived from the Greek word
“architecton”, which means master mason or master builder

Question 42
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Graphs of components and connectors

Select one:
a. Connectors
b. System
c. Components
d. Properties

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Question 43
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Things that the use case must allow the user to do, such as
Select one:
a. Requirements
b. Style
c. Activity Diagram
d. System

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Question 44
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Is the mix of between related components to accomplish a typical goal.

Select one:
a. System Integration
b. System Architecture
c. System Thinking
d. System

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Question 45
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Describes the proposed functionality of the new system

Select one:
a. Properties
b. System
c. Use Case
d. Style

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Question 46
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Is a framework for describing the phases involved in developing and

maintaining information systems

Select one:

a. SDLC
b. SLDC
c. Scrum
d. Extreme Programming

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Question 47
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The teams are put together based on the number of members needed to
produce the product or complete the project.

Select one:

a. Functional Structure
b. Divisional Structure
c. Project Organization Structure
d. Matrix Structure

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Question 48
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Repetitions of iterative development are referred to as sprints, which normally

last thirty days
Select one:
a. SDLC
b. System
c. Program
d. SCRUM

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