Cisco 350 080

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Cisco
Exam 350-080
CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Version: 26.0
[ Total Questions: 375 ]
Cisco 350-080 : Practice Test

Topic break down
Topic
No. of Questions
Topic 1: Cisco Data Center Architecture 4

Topic 2: Cisco Data Center
InfrastructureCisco NX-OS
120
Topic 3: Cisco Storage Networking
68
Topic 4: Cisco Data Center

Virtualization
32
Topic 5: Cisco Unified Computing

System
91
Topic 6: Cisco Application Networking

Services
23
Topic 7: Mix Questions
37
A Composite Solution With Just One Click - Certification Guaranteed

Topic 1, Cisco Data Center Architecture
Question No : 1 - (Topic 1)
FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet
environments. What are the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.)
A. FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning
B. Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field
C. STPl independence
D. 10 Gbps bandwidth
E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers
Answer: A,B,C
Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the
data center core? (Choose three.)
A. virtualization
B. unified I/O
C. support for 48-port Gb/s line card
D. support for Data Center Service Modules
E. high performance
F. high availability
Answer: B,E,F
Which three concepts influenced the evolution of data centers? (Choose three.)
A. Consolidation
B. Expansion
C. Automation
D. Virtualization
E. Commoditization

F. Economics
Answer: A,C,D
Refer to the exhibit.
Which option is valid for connecting the fabric interconnects to the I/O module?
A. A, B, C, and D are valid.
B. A and B are valid.
C. A, B, and D are valid.
D. Only A is valid.
Answer: B
Topic 2, Cisco Data Center InfrastructureCisco NX-OS
Which three statements describe the configuration change management feature in DCNM
LAN? (Choose three.)
A. Switch profiles allow configurations to be synchronized between switches and are
supported with any Cisco NX-OS Software managed device.
B. DCNM LAN can archive configurations from devices even if they are not managed by

the DCNM server, and the administrator can supply the device management IP address
and credentials.
C. You can archive a maximum of 50 configuration versions per managed device.
D. Managed devices must be licensed in DCNM LAN before they can be used with
configuration change management.
E. Device-running configuration will be archived only if it differs from the last archived
version.
Answer: C,D,E
Enabling jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch can be done through which
method?
A. Changing the default policy map from a default MTU of 1500 to 9216
B. Using the command system jumbomtu 9216
C. Using the command interface MTU 9216
D. Configuring the default Ethernet system class to an MTU of 9216 with a new network
QoS policy map
Answer: D
The customer is trying to configure a rendezvous point, but for some reason it is failing.
Which configuration should be applied on both Nexus devices to configure the rendezvous
point?
A. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10
RT-2(config)#interface lo0
B. RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse
RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24
RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse
C. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10
D. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106
E. RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border
RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24
F. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106
G. RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border
RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10
H. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106
RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border
Answer: C
In a configuration with redundant supervisors, how many IP addresses are required to
configure full remote access via management 0?
A. Two IP addresses, one for each supervisor

B. Three IP addresses, one virtual IP and one physical IP for each supervisor
C. One IP address that is shared among supervisors
D. Nonemanagement 0 will use the IP address from the first SVI that is created
Answer: C
Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is
enabled?
A. Cisco AV-pair
B. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attribute
C. DH-CHAP challenge attribute
D. privilege level attribute
Answer: A
By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software?
A. DSA key generated with 512 bits
B. RSA key generated with 768 bits
C. RSA key generated with 1024 bits
D. DSA key generated with 1024 bits
E. RSA key generated with 2048 bits
Answer: C
Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.)
A. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Enabled
B. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Desired
C. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Disabled
D. Receive port: Disabled, Transmit port: Desired
E. Receive port: Desired, Transmit port: Desired
Answer: A,B,E
VLAN configuration using DCNM can be completed by which two supported methods?
(Choose two.)
A. Copy and paste the VLAN, along with its VLAN ID, name, type, admin state, and admin
status, from one device to another.
B. Create a single VLAN or a range of VLANs.
C. A VLAN is created only after choosing File > Deploy to apply changes.
D. After a VLAN is created, it requires the state to be enabled.
E. Modify the existing VLAN by choosing Interface > VLAN > VLAN Settings.
Answer: A,B
: 23
Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range
of message formats are available for compatibility with pager services, standard email, or
XML-based automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call
Home when sending notifications. Which of these are predefined destination profiles
supported by Cisco NX-OS Software? (Choose three.)

A. short-text-destination
B. prerecorded audio alerts
C. CiscoTAC-1
D. dial911
E. full-text-destination
Answer: A,C,E
Which statement about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series
Switches is true?
A. A single SAN port channel can have both Fibre Channel and virtual Fibre Channel
interfaces.
B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces.
C. SAN port channels distribute traffic across all links in the port channel when source ID
and destination ID load balancing are used.
D. The links in SAN port channels can be connected to different sets of switches.
E. The On mode of operation means ports only operate as part of a SAN port channel or
remain inactive.
Answer: E
On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, ACL capture sessions are supported on which two
modules? (Choose two.)
A. M1 modules
B. M2 modules
C. F1 modules
D. F2 modules
E. M3 modules
Answer: A,B

Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120
IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120
IGMP snooping disabled
Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled
IGMP querier none
Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running
IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled
IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled
IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled
IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled
Link Local Groups suppression enabled
Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries
Number of router-ports: 0
Number of groups: 0
Active ports:
Po100 Po111
Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?
A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been
enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command.
B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the
Loopback interface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.
C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.
D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.
E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the
VLAN database.
Answer: D
10

Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series
switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration.
B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created.
C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all
members of the channel group.
D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to
communicate across peer ports in an ISL.
E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same
SAN port channel.
Answer: B,E
Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is
10.0.0.2, which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature pim
!
interface loopback1
ip address 10.0.0.1/32
ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0
ip pim sparse-mode
!
interface loopback2
ip pim sparse-mode
!
ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1
ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4
B. feature pim
!
interface loopback1
ip pim sparse-mode
!
interface loopback2
11

ip pim sparse-mode
!
C. interface loopback1
ip pim sparse-mode
!
interface loopback2
ip pim sparse-mode
!
D. feature pim
feature msdp
!
interface loopback1
ip pim sparse-mode
!
interface loopback2
ip pim sparse-mode
!
ip msdp originator-id loopback1
ip msdp peer 10.0.0.2 connect-source loopback1
ip msdp description 10.0.0.2 To 7010-2
ip msdp password 10.0.0.2 mypassword
!
Answer: A
12

On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which
component?
A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
B. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the
CPU
C. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
D. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic
reaches the CPU
Answer: C
A customer would like to monitor traffic that is being sent to a specific virtual machine
named VM001 using SPAN. The customer has another virtual machine configured as a
sniffer host called VM002. What configuration is required, and what other changes will
need to be made? (Choose two.)
VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 5
Vethernet5 is up
Port description is VM001, Network Adapter 2
HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.001e (bia 0050.56b0.001e)
Owner is VM "VM001", adapter is Network Adapter 2
Active on module 5
VMware DVS port 484
Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10
Port mode is access
VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 6
Vethernet6 is up
Port description is VM002, Network Adapter 1
HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.0020 (bia 0050.56b0.0020)
13

Owner is VM "VM002", adapter is Network Adapter 1
Active on module 5
VMware DVS port 485
Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10
Port mode is access
A. Monitor session 1 type span
Source interface veth5 both
Destination interface veth6
No shut
B. monitor session 1
source vlan 10
destination interface veth6
no shut
C. monitor session 1 type er-span
source interface vlan 10
destination ip 10.1.1.10
no shut
D. VM002 must be removed from the Nk1V
E. Move VM002 to Module 5
F. Restart the VEM on module 5
Answer: A,E
Which statement describes OTV configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
A. The OTV control-plane protocol uses the IS-IS protocol to establish adjacencies and
exchange MAC reachability across the overlay network. You must enable IS-IS with the
feature isis command before OTV adjacencies can be established.
B. OTV uses an SSM group range for neighbor discovery and to exchange MAC
reachability with other OTV edge peers.
C. The OTV join interface is a routed uplink interface on the edge device used to physically
join the overlay network.
D. The OTV internal interface encapsulates the site Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or
multicast packets that are then sent to the other sites.
Answer: C
14
The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface
VLAN 11 is resetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which two actions would
reduce HSRP state changes? (Choose two.)
A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello
message hold time.
B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello
message hold time.
C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from
taking over as the HSRP active router.
D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from
taking over as the HSRP active router.
E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150.
F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50.
Answer: C,E
15
What is the purpose of this command on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. The command enables conversational learning on FabricPath VLANs 1 through 10 for
the F Series module.
B. The command enables the FabricPath protocol on VLANs 1 through 10.
C. There is no need for this command because conversational learning is enabled by
default for all VLANs.
D. The command enables conversational learning on a classic Ethernet VLAN for the F
Series module.
Answer: D
When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed the error that
is shown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for the displayed output?
A. The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP.
B. The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch.
C. The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC.
D. CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.
Answer: C
Which statement best describes ACL configuration using configuration session mode on
Cisco Nexus switches?
16

A. The verify command will validate commands entered for syntax errors.
B. The save command will save the commands entered to the startup configuration.
C. The network administrator can perform a dry-run ACL configuration by verifying the
configuration against the hardware and software resources available before applying it.
D. Configuration sessions can be saved and resumed at any time, even after upgrading
NX-OS Software on the switch with ISSU.
E. Configuration sessions are global for all VDCs on the Nexus 7000.
Answer: C
Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose
two.)
A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices.
B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices.
C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions.
D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the
AAA servers are down.
Answer: A,C
In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree.
Cisco FabricPath switches compares which three parameters to select the root? (Choose
three.)
A. Root priority
B. System ID
C. Bridge ID
D. Switch ID
E. Port ID
F. Subswitch ID
Answer: A,B,D
17

Which three statements best describe HSRP configuration on Cisco Nexus switches?
(Choose three.)
A. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both
HSRP routers will forward data traffic. No additional configuration is required.
B. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both
HSRP routers will forward data traffic if the peer-gateway feature is enabled.
C. You can configure two overlapping HSRP groups to load share traffic from the
connected hosts while providing the default router redundancy.
D. You can use the show standby command to verify HSRP operation and configuration.
E. If you remove the feature hsrp command, all relevant HSRP configuration information is
also removed.
Answer: A,C,E
Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches
is true?
A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the
Nexus 5000 is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX.
B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple
virtual links or channels.
C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source
VIF.
D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Only
active/active is supported.
Answer: B
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) uses the Authoritative Edge Device (AED) to
perform which tasks?
A. The AED is responsible for sending all unicast traffic in a site, while either node in a site
18

can transmit multicast and broadcast.
B. The AED is responsible for load balancing all traffic for all VLANs across the transport
network.
C. The AED is responsible for handling all unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic for a
given VLAN within a site.
D. The AED is responsible for MAC address dispute contention for a given VLAN.
Answer: C
Which of the following is a feature of Fabric Extender?
A. The Fabric Extender provides two user queues for its QoS support, one for all no-drop
classes and one for all drop classes.
B. The class-all-flood and class-ip-multicast class maps are used on the Fabric Extender.
C. The Fabric Extender inherits the CoS configured on the upstream switch.
D. For a Cisco Nexus 2248PQ 10GE Fabric Extender, all fabric interfaces can be bundled
into a single fabric port channel.
Answer: A
OTV is a MAC-in-IP method that extends Layer 2 connectivity across a transport network
infrastructure. Which three options are high-availability features? (Choose three.)
A. OTV fast convergence
B. fast failure detection
C. added the track-adjacency-nexthop command to enable overlay route tracking
D. added support for unicast cores using an adjacency server
E. added support for IPv6 unicast forwarding and multicast flooding across the OTV overlay
Answer: A,B,C
Which statement is true about DHCP snooping on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform?
19

A. DHCP snooping cannot be enabled globally and on a per-VLAN basis.
B. By default, DHCP snooping is disabled globally and on all VLANs.
C. You can enable DHCP snooping on a single VLAN only.
D. For DHCP snooping to function properly, all DHCP servers must be connected to the
device through untrusted interfaces.
Answer: B
Basic zoning changes are accomplished through the use of four SW_ILS frames. Which
option identifies these frames in the correct order?
A. RCA, UFC, SFC, ACA
B. ACA, RCA, SFC, UFC
C. SFC, UFC, ACA, RCA
D. ACA, SFC, UFC, RCA
E. UFC, SFC, RCA, ACA
Answer: D
20
The network topology that is shown in the exhibit has two aggregation switches (SW1 and
SW2). The access layer switch connects to both aggregation switches. On SW1 and SW2,
ports connecting to the access layer switches are configured as vPC member ports. SW1
and SW2 are also connected using a port channel that is configured as a vPC peer link.
Which statement describes the use of the vPC peer-keepalive link in this topology?
A. The peer-keepalive link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between Agg1 and
Agg2.
B. The peer-keepalive link is used for control plane traffic. The peer link is used for the data
plane.
C. The peer-keepalive link is used to resolve dual-active scenarios, where the peer link
connectivity is lost.
D. The peer-keepalive link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.
Answer: C
What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS?
21

A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.
B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures
only the control-plane traffic.
C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.
D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic.
Answer: A
Which PIM mode is supported in Cisco NX-OS?
A. sparse mode
B. dense mode
C. sparse-dense mode
D. dense-sparse mode
Answer: A
With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage,
total processes, and CPU state?
A. show memory detailed
B. show process cpu sorted
C. show system resources
D. show hardware capacity
Answer: C
Which two statements about a "Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check" are true?
A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.
B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer
22

device are suspended.
C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use graceful
consistency-check command under VPC domain configuration mode.
D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the
secondary peer device are suspended.
Answer: A,B
Nexus# conf t
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
Nexus(config)# interface Loopback10
% Permission denied
Nexus(config)# ?
no Negate a command or set its defaults
username Configure user information.
end Go to exec mode
exit Exit from command interpreter
What is the reason why this user is not able to enter configuration commands?
A. The user did not enter enable prior to going into configuration mode.
B. The software license installed on Nexus is Layer 2 only, which does not allow the
creation of Layer 3 interfaces.
C. The user RBAC role is set to network-operator.
D. The user failed authentication and user access defaulted to read-only mode.
E. The AAA server is currently not responding.
Answer: C
Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.)
23

A. The FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
B. The virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under the FabricPath domain.
C. On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.
D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port.
E. The FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
F. There has to be atleast 4 virtual switches in the FabricPath domain.
Answer: A,C,D
In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2
forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is
used to assign the switch ID?
A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.
B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Answer: B
Which three configurations for ACL capture are valid? (Choose three.)
A. on a VLAN interface
B. in the ingress direction on all interfaces
C. in the ingress direction only on the M2 module
D. in the egress direction on all interfaces
E. in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfaces
F. in the ingress direction only on M1 module
Answer: A,B,E
Which three prerequisites must be met before configuring FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus
24

7000 switch? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Enhanced Layer 2 license is installed on the switch.
B. The FabricPath feature set must be installed on the default and non-default VDCs.
C. Spanning tree must be disabled on the switch.
D. Ensure that you are working on the F Series module.
E. Ensure that you are working on the M Series module.
F. The FabricPath feature set must be installed only on the default VDC.
Answer: A,B,D
Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management
engine, and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated?
A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management
information tree is updated.
B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated.
C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is
updated.
D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated.
Answer: A
Question No : 46 DRAG DROP - (Topic 2)
Answer:
25
Which three options describe the key management control parameters that Cisco Prime
DCNM provides? (Choose three.)
A. configuration of change control
B. single shared database for LAN and SAN configuration data
C. single point for integration with third-party test tools
D. ability to manage vPCs
E. autodiscovery of storage controllers
F. host driver management
G. support for script automation
Answer: A,B,D
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 device, on which port type can port security be configured?
A. Access ports
B. SPAN destination port
C. trunk ports
D. public VLAN-enabled ports
Answer: A
Which statement describes the XML management interface in Cisco NX-OS Software?
26

A. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE.
close-session, copy-config, delete-config, and edit-config.
B. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE.
close-session, copy-config, edit-config, and kill-session.
C. NX-OS Software supports up to a maximum of 16 concurrent XML sessions.
D. Only show commands are supported via the XML management interface in NX-OS
Software.
E. The NX-OS implementation of the XML-based NETCONF requires SSH to be used for
communication with the device.
Answer: E
On Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches, where are the virtual output queues implemented,
and what is the main purpose of virtual output queues?
A. on all ingress interfaces; to ensure maximum throughput on a per-egress, per-CoS basis
B. on all ingress interfaces; to provide independent congestion management and 16
queues
C. on all egress interfaces; so that a congested egress port does not affect traffic directed
to other egress ports
D. on all egress interfaces; to prevent head-of-line blocking by utilizing multiple virtual
output queues
E. on all egress interfaces; to be able to use EEE 802.1p CoS
Answer: A
Cisco FabricPath uses what as a common bridge ID to connected Spanning Tree Protocol
bridges?
A. C84C.75FA.6000
B. 0100.5E11.02FD
C. C84C.76FA.6000
D. 4000.0000.0001
Answer: A
27

A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis.
The module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this?
A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type.
B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules.
C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only.
D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to
protect the integrity of the system.
Answer: C
Which four statements about SNMP implementation on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
switch are true? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per virtual device context.
B. By default, Cisco NX-OS uses the default VDC for SNMP.
C. SNMP supports multiple MIB module instances and maps them to logical network
entities.
D. SNMP is VRF aware. You can configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the
SNMP notification host receiver.
E. Only SNMP version 3 is supported on NX-OS.
F. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per switch.
G. Each VDC can have multiple SNMP sessions configured in it.
Answer: A,B,C,D
Which three statements about Cisco FabricPath are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.
B. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree
domain (to switch traffic over the FabricPath domain).
C. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 or F2 ports only.
D. Only M1 or M2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.
28

E. Only F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to
switch traffic over the FabricPath domain).
F. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 ports only.
Answer: A,B,C
What tasks can only be performed in the default or admin VDC?
A. EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling
back a checkpoint
B. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and
ACL capture enablement
C. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and
SNMP configuration
D. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and
write erase
Answer: B
You configured a port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch as a trunk port. Which VLANs are
allowed on the trunk port based on the port configuration in the exhibit?
A. No VLANs are allowed by default. Use the switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-4094
command to allow all VLANs.
B. Only Native VLAN 1 will be allowed.
C. VLANs 1 to 3967, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.
29

D. VLANs 1 to 3900, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.
E. VLANs 1 to 4094 are allowed.
Answer: C
Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco
switches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from a single device and as
part of a single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual
PortChannel system? (Choose four)
A. Two peer devices: the vPC peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are
part of a vPC domain.
B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active
scenarios
C. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one
system to the other when needed
D. vPC member ports forming the PortChannel
E. A dot1q trunk between the vPC peers
F. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active
scenarios.
Answer: A,B,C,D
30

vPC+ is configured between which switches?
A. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23
B. Switch-ID 11 and Switch-ID 12
C. Switch-ID 100 only
D. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 100
Answer: A
Which description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2
communications?
A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain.
B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain.
C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and
associated promiscuous ports.
D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports.
Answer: C
Which statement describes SNMP functionality in Cisco NX-OS Software?
A. NX-OS Software supports one instance of SNMP globally for all VDCs; however, MIB
counters are collected and reported individually per VDC.
B. SNMP must be enabled with the feature snmp command before any SNMP
configuration is possible.
C. SNMP is always enabled by default in NX-OS Software and cannot be disabled.
D. NX-OS Software supports 3DES and AES for SNMPv3 message encryption.
E. SNMP always uses the default VRF on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches.
Answer: D

31
Answer:
Which three statements about FabricPath are true? (Choose three.)
A. Only FabricPath VLANs can cross a FabricPath domain.
B. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F1 or F2 ports only.
C. With FabricPath, vPC must be changed to vPC+.
D. F1 ports must be placed into a separate VDCs.
E. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F2 ports only.
Answer: A,B,C
Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a
data center? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco NX-OS Software does not support PIM dense mode.
B. The command ip multicast-routing must be enabled in Cisco NX-OS Software before
any multicast configuration is possible on the switch.
C. PIM CLI configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the
PIM feature with the feature pim command.
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D. Cisco NX-OS Software supports multicast routing per Layer 3 VRF instance.
E. The default PIM operational mode on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is SSM.
Answer: A,C,D
Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. accounting
B. authentication
C. authorization
D. network monitoring
E. network planning
Answer: A,D,E
When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the
type of operations that a role will allow the user to perform. Which two of these parameters
cannot be applied as a rule? (Choose two.)
A. port-profile
B. command
C. access-list
D. feature-group
E. OID
Answer: A,C
33
A new Nexus device, Router-B, was recently added to the network. The engineer wants to
make Router-B the designated IGMP querier for this network. Which two configurations
should be applied to the devices on the network to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.251 255.255.255.0
B. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.249 255.255.255.0
Router-B(config)# feature igmp
C. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp version 2
Router-B(config)# feature igmp
D. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp querier
Router-B(config)# feature pim
E. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Router-B(config-if)# ip pim sparse-mode
Answer: B,E
Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created.
During a compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other
vPC peer to verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which option is
considered as a Type-2 misconfiguration?
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A. port MTU mismatch
B. native VLAN mismatch
C. STP interface settings
D. VLAN mismatch
Answer: D
Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created.
During a compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other
vPC peer to verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which two
statements about virtual port channel graceful consistency checks are true? (Choose two.)
A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.
B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer
device are suspended.
C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default. To enable this feature, use the
graceful consistency-check command under the vPC domain configuration mode.
D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the
secondary peer device are suspended.
E. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default.
Answer: A,B
If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens
when a module that does not match the resource type is installed?
A. The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an "admin down" state.
B. The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated.
C. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0.
D. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100.
Answer: C
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When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse
the overlay?
A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured
control-group multicast address for transport
B. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the
overlay
C. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured datagroup multicast address for transport
D. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their
multicast IDs
Answer: C
When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels
required?
A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup.
B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command
channel-group <number> mode active.
C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command
channel-group <number> mode passive.
D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink.
E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command
channel-group <number> mode on.
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Answer: E
Which three statements describe the use of the vPC peer link in this topology? (Choose
three.)
A. The peer link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between SW1 and SW2.
B. The peer link is used for control plane traffic only.
C. The peer link provides necessary transport for multicast traffic.
D. The peer link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.
E. The peer link does not prevents the loops in the topology.
F. The peer link always consists of two 10GB ports in a port-channel.
Answer: A,C,D
37

The interface remains in a down state after entering the command that is shown in the
exhibit. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The feature interface-vlan command must be configured.
B. The VDC contains only F1 interfaces.
C. There are IP address conflicts.
D. The VDC is "type OTV."
E. The command copy run start was not entered.
Answer: B
38
During troubleshooting of vPCs, it is observed that virtual port channel 2 is in the down
state. Based on the show command output, what is a possible cause of this issue?
A. The virtual port channel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.
B. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.
C. The virtual port channel is down because of an MTU mismatch.
D. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN and MTU mismatch.
Answer: C
In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to
prevent unnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU?
39

A. GLBP redirect timer
B. GLBP forwarder pre-empt delay minimum timer
C. GLBP hold timer
D. GLBP pre-empt delay minimum timer
E. GLBP extended hold timer
F. GLBP nonstop forwarding timer
Answer: E
When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected?
(Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module.
B. Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module.
C. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module.
D. Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module.
Answer: C,D
Which two options describe devices as they operate in FabricPath topologies? (Choose
two.)
A. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet
devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the
FabricPath cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a MAC address to
the destination switch ID.
B. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices
switch exclusively based on the destination switch ID.
C. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet
devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the
FabricPath cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a source address to
the destination switch ID.
D. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices
switch exclusively based on the source switch ID.
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Answer: A,B
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multi access and
multicast-capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user and where the entire
OTV configuration is applied.
Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.)
A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center
site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet
and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center
site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet
and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
Answer: A,B
The vPC peer-gateway capability allows a vPC switch to act as the active gateway for
packets that are addressed to the router MAC address of the vPC peer. This feature
enables local forwarding of such packets without the need to cross the vPC peer link.
Which statements are true about the vPC peer-gateway? (Choose two.)
A. The vPC peer-gateway feature is enabled by default.
B. The vPC peer-gateway feature can be configured globally under the vPC domain
submode.
C. Enabling the peer-gateway feature automatically disables IP redirects on all interface
VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP redirect messages for packets
switched through the peer gateway router.
D. The vPC peer-gateway feature only works with HSRP protocol.
Answer: B,C
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Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and
SNMPv2c use a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 provides secure access to
devices by a combination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which
security features are provided in Cisco NX-OS SNMPv3? (Choose three.)
A. encryptionscrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by
unauthorized sources
B. passworda password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and
agent for added protection
C. authenticationdetermines that the message is from a valid source
D. message integrityensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in
transit
E. userto determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings
Answer: A,C,D
Cisco DCNM-LAN supports the configuration and monitoring of many Cisco NX-OS
features, including which two of these Ethernet protocols? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
Answer: A,B
A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco
Nexus devices to appear as a single port channel to a third device.
Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.)
A. Enable feature vPC

42

B. Define domains
C. Establish peer keepalive connectivity
D. Create a peer link
E. Configure the peer link as a trunk port
F. Create port channels and vPCs
G. Define port channel load-balancing method
H. Make sure configurations are consistent
Answer: A,B,C,D,F,H
Which capabilities are not supported in DCNM device manager?
A. manage SNMPv3 security access to switches
B. save and copy configuration files and software images
C. configure VLANs and Ethernet port channels
D. manage 2148T FEX, 2232PP FEX, and 2248TP FEX
E. configure FCoE
Answer: C
Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose
three.)
A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch.
B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+
PortChannel on which traffic is to be forwarded.
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C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair.
D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain.
E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0.
Answer: B,C,E
Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true?
(Choose two.)
A. A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs.
B. Use of VACLs requires no special license to be installed.
C. VACLs make use of IP or MAC ACLs.
D. Only options drop and forward are permitted.
Answer: B,C
What is required for proper implementation of jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 2000
Series Fabric Extender?
A. The interface configured as FEX fabric requires the MTU to be set to jumbo.
B. The service policy must be applied to the system QoS.
C. The device defaults to jumbo frame support; no changes are required.
D. The switchport in the FEX interface must be set to MTU 9216.
Answer: B
Which two types of multicast trees are supported by Cisco NX-OS? (Choose two.)
A. private trees
B. shared trees
C. unicast trees
44

D. anycast trees
E. unidirectional trees
F. bidirectional trees
Answer: B,F
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV
encapsulated traffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network.
Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.)
A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be
defined as a physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 port channel, or Layer 3 port
channel subinterface.
B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay.
C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface.
D. Join interface can be a loopback interface.
E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not
as a logical one.
Answer: A,B,C
Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide a
lossless class of Ethernet traffic?
A. LLDP
B. LACP
C. PFC
D. FIP
Answer: C
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The engineer needs to check if keepalive messages between two servers in the address
range 9.9.9.0/24 arrive from the device that is directly connected via the trunk interface.
Which two configurations should be applied on the switch port to achieve displayed output?
(Choose two.)
A. ip access-list LO_FILTER
statistics per-entry
10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any
20 permit ip any any
B. ip access-list LO_FILTER
10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any
20 permit ip any any
C. ip access-list LO_FILTER
10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any
20 deny ip any any
D. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Nexus5K(config-if)# ip access-group LO-FILTER in
E. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-list LO-FILTER in
F. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-group LO-FILTER out
Answer: A,E
What are two benefits of a FabricPath network? (Choose two.)
A. Simplicity of configuration
B. Automatic OSPF routing
46

C. Scalability
D. Dynamic link selection
E. Spanning tree loop prioritization.
Answer: A,C
The hardware and software configurations for vPC+ are similar to that of traditional vPC.
What are the differences in the configuration of vPC+? (Choose three.)
A. FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
B. Virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under FabricPath domain.
C. On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer
links.
D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port (switchport
mode fabricpath).
E. FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
Answer: A,C,D
Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host
B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts
C. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source
D. Destination interface can be a physical port
E. Destination interface cannot be a physical port
Answer: A,D
After configuring FabricPath, the following appears in the syslog:
47

%STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking
port port-channel100 on VLAN0010.
What is the cause of this message?
A. STP must be disabled; message indicates that STP is enabled.
B. STP is misconfigured; root guard must be disabled.
C. An inferior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
D. A superior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
Answer: D
Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose
three.)
A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating,
changing, and removing Cisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect on user accounts on
managed devices.
B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes
to managed devices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on the discovered device
has the network operator role.
C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco
DCNM-LAN server settings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/write privileges on the
discovered devices.
D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device
or use default credentials when you do not configure unique credentials for a device.
E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers
are supported.
Answer: A,C,D
48
Answer:
49
During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vPC), it is observed that Virtual PortChannel

2 is in a down state. What's the cause of this issue?
A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.
B. Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.
C. Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch.
D. Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch.
Answer: C
50
Fabric Interconnect A, operating in end-host mode, receives an ingress frame with source
MAC address 0025.b500.0035 on uplink Eth1/19.
Which statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The frame will be accepted. Fabric Interconnect A will update its MAC address table to
show that 0025.b500.0035 is dynamically learned on Eth1/19 and no longer dynamically
learned on Eth5/1/6.
B. Fabric Interconnect A will transmit a Gratuitous ARP for 0025.b500.0035 since it has
moved ports, and the upstream network needs to be notified of the new location.
C. Fabric Interconnect A will drop the frame.
D. The MAC address table will not be updated as a result of receiving this frame on an
uplink.
E. Reverse Path Forwarding will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric
Interconnect A.
F. Deja vu will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A.
Answer: C,D
What is the default vPC peer-keepalive timeout on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch?
A. 5 seconds
B. 256 milliseconds
C. 500 milliseconds
D. 1 second
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Answer: A

On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the
root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root
switches for each multidestination tree. One of the parameters used to select the root is
system ID.
Which statements are true about system ID? (Choose two.)
A. System ID is a unique 12-bit SID.
B. System ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address.
C. Higher system ID is preferred.
D. Lower system ID is preferred.
Answer: B,C

What is the benefit of using Anycast RP via RFC 4610 for IP multicast RP redundancy?
A. Improves convergence of the multicast network due to enhanced RPF checks
B. Simplifies the number of control plane protocols over other RP redundancy methods
C. Eliminates the use of Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) in the topology
D. Increases the administrative distances in Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)
configuration
Answer: B

What does the command "IP ARP synchronize" do in a vPC configuration?
A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutes
B. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondary
C. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restored
52

D. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency
Answer: C

The following message output was displayed while configuring PIM on Nexus 7000. Which
command should be configured on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch to allow the
desired configuration?
A. feature multicast
B. feature pim
C. ip multicast-routing
D. ip pim routing
Answer: B

Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch?
Flow ID. 44
Initiator VSAN: 200
Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a: cc: 19:12: db
Target VSAN: 200
Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c: de: ad: be: ef
53

Target LUN: ALL LUNs
Flow Verification Status:
------------------------Initiator Verification Status: success
Target Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server
Initiator Linecard Status: success
Target Linecard Status: Status not yet checked
Feature Status:
--------------Write-Acceleration enabled
Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024
Configuration Status: flow verification failed
A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not exist
B. The zone set has not been activated
C. The target is not logged into the fabric
D. The pWWN used for the target is invalid
Answer: C

What is the default Time to Live (TTL) value in Cisco FabricPath?
A. 128
B. 32
C. 64
D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology
Answer: B

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Which statement describes the graceful restart capability in Cisco NX-OS Software?
A. In NX-OS Software, the OSPFv2 graceful restart extension is Cisco proprietary and is
only compatible with other Cisco routers.
B. A graceful restart allows OSPFv2 to remain in the data forwarding path through a
process restart. When OSPFv2 needs to restart, it first sends a type 8 LSA, which includes
a grace period that tells NSF helpers to keep all LSAs that originated from the restarting
interface.
C. Graceful restart helps keep an NX-OS system forwarding traffic transparently even if it
experiences a cold reboot.
D. If the restarting OSPFv2 interface does not come back up before the end of the grace
period, or if the network experiences a topology change, the OSPFv2 neighbors tear down
adjacency with the restarting OSPFv2 interface and treat it as a normal OSPFv2 restart.
E. OSPFv3 graceful restart must be disabled before doing an ISSU.
Answer: D

How are IP multicast IGMP entries synchronized between vPC peers?
A. IGMP is not synchronized between vPC peers
B. Cisco Fabric Service carries IGMP entries across the vPC peer link
C. IP ARP synchronization under the vPC domain configuration also synchronizes IGMP
D. IGMP is flooded to the L2 domain, and there is no need to synchronize it between vPC
peers
Answer: B

On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose
three.)
A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabled
B. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storage
C. FIP negotiation timing
D. Peer does not support LLDP
E. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled
55

Answer: A,B,D

DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which
three of these? (Choose three.)
A. Collecting the running configuration
B. Raising the logging level to meet the minimum requirement
C. Discovering all devices by default
D. Discovering devices using multiple user accounts as long as they are administrator-level
accounts
E. Using LLDP to discover network adaptors
Answer: A,B,E

You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of which two operating systems?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Server
B. Novell SUSE Linux Enterprise Server
C. Oracle Enterprise Linux
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
E. VMware ESX
Answer: A,D

On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, what is the purpose of this command?
switch# config terminal
switch(config)# mac address-table learning-mode conversational vlan 1-10
56

switch(config)#
A. Enable conversational learning on FabricPath vlans 1-10 for F-Series module
B. Enable FabricPath protocol on VLANs 110
C. No need for this command as conversational learning is enabled by default for all
VLANs.
D. Enable conversational learning on Classical Ethernet VLAN for F-Series module
Answer: D

Nexus7000# config t
Nexus700(config)# interface ethernet 2/11
Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host
Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association 14 50
Nexus700(config-if)# exit
Nexus700(config)#
What will this command sequence achieve?
A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50
B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50
C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14
D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50
Answer: D

What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface
configuration?
A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.
B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.
57

C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.
D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.
Answer: C

SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP
messages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NX-OS Software use for SNMPv3?
(Choose two.)
A. NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol
B. HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol
C. Community String Match protocol
D. NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol
E. HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol
Answer: B,E

How many ACL capture sessions can be configured on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. ACL capture is not supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch.
B. Only one ACL capture session can be active at any given time in the system across
virtual device contexts.
C. Only one ACL capture session can be active in each virtual device context.
D. The number of ACL capture sessions depends on the space that is available within the
ACL Ternary Content Addressable Memory.
E. Only one ACL capture session is supported per VLAN.
Answer: B

Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2
connectivity between separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domains independent
and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based
58

interconnection.
Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.)
A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.
B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.
C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register
with the Adjacency Server.
D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as
an Adjacency Server.
Answer: A,C

Which two statements about VDC configuration and limitations are true? (Choose two.)
A. Standard VDCs cannot share interfaces, VLANs, or VRF tables.
B. Any user can create VDCs.
C. Only the network administrator role can use the switchto vdc command.
D. After a network administrator uses the switchto vdc command, the network administrator
becomes a VDC administrator for the new VDC.
E. There is no CLI command to return to the original VDC.
Answer: A,D

2012 Feb 23 23:00:08.676710 pim: [16132] (default-base) Received unauthenticated hellomessage from 10.1.1.2 on Ethernet1/18, message discarded
2012 Feb 23 23:00:12.528763 pim: [16132] (default-base) Send Hello with AH on
Ethernet1/18 from 10.1.1.1, holdtimE. 105 secs, dr-priority: 1
You are troubleshooting a PIM neighbor adjacency that is not coming up. You issued the
command show ip pim neighbor e1/18 and confirmed there is no PIM neighbor on the
interface.
What is the problem based on the debug output?
59

A. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has PIM disabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.
B. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has the wrong PIM password configured on its interface
connecting to Ethernet1/18.
C. The local router 10.1.1.1 has the wrong PIM password configured on Ethernet1/18.
D. The peer router 10.1.1.2 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled on its interface
connecting to Ethernet1/18.
E. The local router 10.1.1.1 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled for
Ethernet1/18.
Answer: D

Which three options are valid SPAN sources? (Choose three.)
A. VLANs, because when a VLAN is specified as a SPAN source, all supported interfaces
in the VLAN are SPAN sources
B. fabric port channels connected to the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
C. Layer 2 subinterfaces
D. satellite ports and host interface port channels on the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric
Extender
E. Layer 3 subinterfaces
F. Remote Span Ethernet Ports
Answer: A,B,D
Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are
true about LACP port priority? (Choose three.)
A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and 65535.
B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP.
C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather
than the hot standby links within the port channel.
D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier.
E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed
Answer: A,C,D
60

You create a service profile within ORG C with two vNICs. Each vNIC is assigned to the
MAC pool named "vmware". Which two possible MAC addresses could be assigned to the
vNICs? (Choose two.)
A. 00:25:B5:FF:00:01
B. 00:25:B5:EE:00:01
C. 00:25:B5:DD:00:01
D. 00:25:B5:BB:00:01
E. 00:25:B5:AA:00:01
Answer: A,D

In a virtual port channel (vPC) configuration, VRRP exhibits which characteristic?
A. VRRP does not work with vPC due to industry standard requirements
61

B. VRRP works with vPC in traditional active/standby modes
C. VRRP works with vPC in an active/active mode
D. VRRP work with vPC as long as vPC peer-gateway is configured to address nonstandard replies to the physical MAC address
Answer: C

Which configuration command (or commands) will produce the output that is shown in the
exhibit?
A. no feature igmp
B. no feature igmp snooping
C. vlan 201
no ip igmp snooping
D. vlan configuration 201
no ip igmp snooping
E. interface vlan 201
no ip igmp snooping
Answer: D
62

Which two statements about authentication settings for DCNM-LAN are true? (Choose
two.)
A. If none of the authentication servers that are configured for the current authentication
mode responds to an authentication request, the DCNM-LAN server falls back to local
authentication.
B. DCNM-LAN only supports TACACS+.
C. Each DCNM-LAN server will have the same device credentials.
D. Administering DCNM-LAN authentication settings require an authentication license.
E. DCNM-LAN server users are local to the DCNM-LAN server.
Answer: A,E
Topic 3, Cisco Storage Networking

Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.)
A. Priority flow control
B. Buffer-to-buffer credits
C. TCP retransmission
D. Ethernet checksum
E. QoS policies
Answer: A,E

63

Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN
(VSAN 10). The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB.
Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from
the host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link?
A. show fspf traffic vsan 10
B. show vsan 10
C. show trunk protocol
D. show fcroute unicast vsan 10
Answer: B

In DCBX feature negotiation, the switch and CNA exchange capability information and
configuration values. Which three capabilities are supported in Cisco Nexus 5000 Series
Switches? (Choose three.)
A. PFC
B. support for logical link up or down
C. FCoE
D. multicast
E. speed
F. duplex
Answer: A,B,C

Given a host with two NICs assigned to an N1k profile, which topologies are suitable for
this type of configuration (Choose three.)
port-profile type Ethernet name VM-Data
vmware port-group
switchport mode trunk
switchport allowed vlan 400-410
64

channel-group auto mode active
no shut
state enabled
A. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects
B. Pair of N5K's in VPC.
C. Standalone N5K
D. Pair of N5K's in non-VPC
E. Cisco Catalyst 6000 Switch in VSS
Answer: B,C,E
Answer:

When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus
5000 Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical
65

links that can exist in the team?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 16
Answer: B

Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol?
A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path.
B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple
Ethernet segments.
C. It is not used to build the FCoE links.
D. It is used to ensure lossless transport.
Answer: B

66

What action must be taken to make fc1/1 capable of being an ISL port channel member
operating at 4 GB?
A. One of the interfaces between fc1/2 and fc1/6 must be placed in out-of-service mode to
free up bandwidth in the port group so that fc1/1 can use that bandwidth.
B. Interface fc1/1 must be placed into dedicated rate mode.
C. The B2B credit value of interface fc1/1 must be raised to a minimum of 100.
D. No action is necessary because shared rate mode ports are fine for ISLs.
E. No action is possible because module 1 is oversubscribed and will only support ISLs if
the ports operate at 2GBs.
Answer: B

Which two statements about Fibre Channel over TCP/IP are true? (Choose two.)
A. A connection request is made to Port 3225 or configured port.
B. A connection request is made to Port 3260 or configured port.
C. Fibre Channel over TCP/IP uses the TCP window management and sliding window for
flow control.
D. A special frame is always used to identify peers.
Answer: A,C
Answer:
67

Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE?
A. It's hard-set and cannot be disabled
B. It's configurable, with an upper limit of 16
C. It's hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre Channel
D. It's hard-set but can disable all but one class
E. It's configurable with an upper limit of eight
Answer: C

What is the most likely reason for the error?

68

A. There are not enough local hard drives to satisfy the local disk configuration policy.
B. One of the resource pools is depleted (WWN, MAC, UUID).
C. The destination blade is equipped with an M61KR-B adapter.
D. The server is not equipped with adequate memory.
E. A User Ack maintenance policy has been applied.
Answer: C

When an NP port becomes operational, the NP switch first logs itself into the core switch by
sending a FLOGI request (using the port WWN of the NP port). What will occur next?
A. The switch registers with the fabric name server.
B. The switch will perform a PLOGI to the port login server.
C. The switch will register parameters using FDISC.
D. The NPV switch will perform a PLOGI using FDISC to register with the fabric name
server.
Answer: A

Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link
endpoints.
B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames.
C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior
is identical to a normal E Port.
D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters.
E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface
of the Cisco MDS switch.
Answer: C,D
69
Answer:

What are the three prerequisites for enabling FCoE on a Cisco Nexus 7000? (Choose
three.)
A. M Series module
B. F Series module
C. no-drop QoS policy
D. NPIV feature
E. FCoE module license
F. Fabric Extender configured
Answer: B,C,E

What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 25 m bus length
B. Only one device per SCSI bus
C. Up to 16 devices per SCSI bus
D. Half-duplex operation
70

E. Full-duplex operation
Answer: A,C

Given an E3 WAN link, which mode of compression would be the most appropriate choice?
A. Mode high
B. Mode medium
C. Mode low
D. Mode 1
E. Mode 2
Answer: D

What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment?
A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command
B. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command
C. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC
D. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command
Answer: A

Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an
FCoE frame from the directly connected FCoE host?
A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port.
B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame
to the fabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port.
C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame
to the Fibre Channel target over its Fibre Channel port.
71

D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN
port.
Answer: A

Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches is correct?
A. The Nexus 5000 family of switches does not support vPC when running in either NPV or
FCoE NPV mode.
B. The MDS 9100 family of switches is an excellent design choice as a Unified Fabric edge
switch.
C. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches can support the NPIV mode of operation, but cannot
function as a complete Fibre Channel Forwarder.
D. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches cannot support advanced Cisco Fibre Channel
features such as IVR.
E. The MDS family of Cisco Unified Fabric switches supports both the Fibre Channel
Forwarder and Fibre Channel Bridge functions.
Answer: E

Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame?
A. Ethernet FCS
B. Source address
C. Destination address
D. EtherType
E. Protocol type
Answer: D

Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible
cause?
72

A. Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated.
B. A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE.
C. The system is running with the default QOS policies.
D. The link is oversubscribed.
Answer: A

Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric?
A. show flogi database
B. show system fc login
C. show npv flogi-table
D. show npv fcns database
E. show interface vfc X flogi
F. show interface flogi
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a Fibre Channel fabric, each host or disk requires an FCID. Use the show flogi database
command to verify if a storage device is displayed in the Fabric login (FLOGI) table as in
the examples below. If the required device is displayed in the FLOGI table, the fabric login
is successful. Examine the FLOGI database on a switch that is directly connected to the
host HBA and connected ports.
Examples
The following example displays details on the FLOGI database.
switch# show flogi database
--------------------------------------------------------------------------INTERFACE VSAN FCID PORT NAME NODE NAME
--------------------------------------------------------------------------sup-fc0 2 0xb30100 10:00:00:05:30:00:49:63 20:00:00:05:30:00:49:5e
fc9/13 1 0xb200e2 21:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c 20:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c
fc9/13 1 0xb200e1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61
fc9/13 1 0xb200d1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64
fc9/13 1 0xb200ce 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb
fc9/13 1 0xb200cd 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7
Total number of flogi = 6.
73

Reference.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_2_x/sanos/command/reference/CR02_sh.html#wp1248139

Which option describes the capability that the FCoE setting allows?
A. configures the FEX to send FCoE traffic only to this switch
B. allows mapped VLAN-VSAN traffic to reach the FEX
C. configures FEX for A-B SAN capabilities
D. allows interface Ethernet 101/1/1 to exchange DCBX information
Answer: A

When a switch that supports enhanced zoning joins a fabric, which SW_ILS command
does it use to determine the enhanced zoning capabilities of the other switches in the
fabric?
A. MR
B. ESS
C. ELP
D. EFP
E. none of the above
Answer: B
74

Which statement about the iSCSI initiator task tag is true?
A. The initiator assigns a task tag to each task it issues.
B. The target assigns a task tag on behalf of the initiator.
C. During the life of the task, this tag does not have to be unique.
D. SCSI may not use this tag as part of the SCSI task identifier.
Answer: A

What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one
link down because of an error?
A. 500
B. 166
C. 250
D. 125
E. 1000
Answer: D

Which three technologies enable lossless Ethernet? (Choose three.)
A. Priority Flow Control
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection
C. Ethernet Credits
D. Congestion Notification
E. VLAN-Aware Transmission
F. IP Type of Server Field
Answer: A,B,D

75

Which three management tools are available with DCNM-SAN Manager, Device Manager,
and Performance Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
B. Cisco Protocol Analyzer
C. Cisco Port Analyzer Adapter 2
D. Cisco Prime LMS
E. Cisco Prime NCS
F. Cisco Prime NMS
Answer: A,B,C

What is the most likely reason that VSAN 88 is initializing?

A. VSAN 88 is not mapped to a FCoE VLAN.
B. No host has logged into the VSAN.
C. The VSAN is shut down.
D. VSAN 88 is not part of the trunk yet.
Answer: B
76

Which three options describe information that can be captured with the show iscsi stats
iscsi x/y detail command? (Choose three.)
A. PDU or frame drop occurrences
B. speed of the iSCSI interface
C. data CRC error
D. buffer credits
E. TMF-REQ and TMF-RESP
F. duplex of the iSCSI interface
Answer: A,C,E

Which two statements about Fibre Channel Class 2 are true? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel Class 2 provides a connection-oriented class of service.
B. The F_BSY frame is part of Class 2.
C. Class 2 acknowledges frame delivery.
D. BB_Credits do not exist in Class 2.
E. Dedicated bandwidth is allocated when using Class 2.
Answer: B,C

77
Which statement about the interface that is connected to the NPV core switch is true?
A. The switch that connects to the hosts is identified in the design as an NPV edge switch,
and the port that connects to the core is an NP port.
B. The interface that is connected to the NPV switch will need to be configured as an NPort.
C. The interface that is connected to the NPV core will become an FP port.
D. The link between the NPV core switch and edge will come up as an E port.
Answer: A

Which statement about the SAN Extension Tuner is true?
A. The SET configuration is persistent across reboots.
B. The virtual N Ports that are created will register the FC4 features that are supported with
the name server.
C. Only SCSI read and write commands are implemented.
D. SET cannot be used if iSCSI is enabled.
E. The data pattern that is used for the data that is generated between the virtual N Ports
can be an all-zero pattern or an all-ones pattern. No other data patterns can be used.
Answer: C

78
Answer:

79

You are setting up a service profile to iSCSI boot using a Cisco UCS VIC 1240. The service
profile returns a configuration error when you attempt to associate it. What is the problem,
based on the exhibit?
A. The iSCSI adapter policy is not set.
B. iSCSI boot will not work with the default VLAN.
C. The default VLAN should not be set as native on the overlay vNIC.
D. The MAC address assignment is invalid.
Answer: D

When a CNA host connects to the virtual interface of the switch, what will happen?
A. The switch will not initialize because it is in the wrong mode.
B. The host will negotiate using DCBX and connect properly.
C. The host will negotiate using DCBX and will change parameters as required, but a
shut/no shut is needed on the interface.
D. The host will not connect. The vFC port number does not match the Ethernet interface.
Answer: A

Given the following output:
San-port-channel 12 is up
Hardware is Fibre Channel
80

Port WWN is 24:0c:00:0d: ec :d3 :5c:00
Admin port mode is NP, trunk mode is on
Port mode is NP
Port vsan is 1
Speed is 8 Gbps
Member [1]: fc2/3
Member [2]: fc2/4
What does "Speed is 8 Gbps" indicate?
A. The speed of the slowest interface in the port channel
B. The combined speed of all interfaces configured in the port channel
C. The combined speed of all interfaces in the port channel that are up
D. The speed that can be achieved if all buffers are used
Answer: C

Which two options describe information that can be determined from this output? (Choose
two.)
A. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated receiver for broadcast traffic
B. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated sender for broadcast traffic
C. the switching mode for which the Fabric Interconnect is configured
D. the uplink interface from which multicast traffic will be sourced
E. whether the last respond code was accepted or not
Answer: A,C
81

NPV and NPIV are features that are used to overcome resource limitations in which Fibre
Channel field?
A. FCID
B. Domain ID
C. WWPN
D. LUN ID
E. VSAN
Answer: B

Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel?
A. Cannot be disabled
B. Cannot have the QoS changed
C. Can have "Packet Drop" enabled
D. Is multicast optimized?
E. Can have the MTU changed
Answer: A

Which two options describe the results of a switch sending an RCF SW_ILS frame to
neighbor switches? (Choose two.)
A. All traffic in all VSANs is suspended.
B. Zone merging is reinitiated.
C. The principal switch remains the same.
D. New Fibre Channel domains can be allocated.
E. The switch name is changed.
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Answer: B,D

A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core
switch. Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason of this issue?
switch# show npv status
npiv is enabled
External Interfaces:
===============
InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other
Number of External Interfaces: 4
A. NPV is not enabled on the core switch?
B. The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down state
C. The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN?
D. The local host interface is not able to login
Answer: B

Which two statements about FCIP Tape Acceleration are true? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP Tape Acceleration enables time stamp control on an FCIP interface.
B. The Cisco MDS switch proxies a transfer ready to signal the host to start receiving data.
C. FCIP Tape Acceleration uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow
control.
D. FCIP Tape Acceleration reduces each I/O processing time by two RTT.
E. FCIP Tape Acceleration only supports the read acceleration.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/g
83

uides/ipsvc/nxos/ipsvc/cfcip.html#pgfId-2465141

Which statement about ESS SW_ILS frames is true?
A. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the management server of a requesting switch
to the Management Server of a responding switch.
B. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the name server of a requesting switch to the
Name Server of a responding switch.
C. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the domain controller of a requesting switch to
the Domain Controller of a responding switch.
D. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the alias server of a requesting switch to the
Alias Server of a responding switch.
E. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the time server of a requesting switch to the
Time Server of a responding switch.
Answer: C

How is the VLAN configuration accomplished in the Device Manager?

A. This configuration is done under the IP selection.
84

B. This configuration is done under Interface selection.
C. This configuration cannot be done in Device Manager.
D. This configuration is done by clicking the VSAN drop-down list and choosing VLAN All.
Answer: C

Which three statements about the exhibit output related to Cisco Fabric Services are true?
(Choose three.)
A. The lock can only be released only by the operations manager user on the 10.1.1.11
switch.
B. The admin user on the 10.1.1.11 switch must clear the lock.
C. The tacacs+ commit command is the only command that can be used to clear the lock.
D. Any network-admin user can release the lock with the command clear tacacs+ session.
E. The operations manager user has started, but not committed, a configuration change for
the feature tacacs+ command.
F. If committed, the changes are automatically saved to the startup configuration on all
switches.
Answer: D,E,F

85
You have associated a newly created service profile to a blade. When you examine the
configured boot order and actual boot order, they do not match. Which two statements
describe reasons for this mismatch? (Choose two.)
A. Having a single iSCSI boot target would prevent the profile from associating, and would
generate a configuration error.
B. The server must complete a POST cycle before Cisco UCS Manager will update this
information.
C. The blade needs to be reacknowledged.
D. The server is in the process of a firmware upgrade.
E. There may be a configuration error in the service profile.
Answer: B,E

Which statement about the FCIP Tape Acceleration feature is true?
A. Cisco MDS SAN-OS provides only tape write acceleration.
B. After receiving all the data, the host-side MDS FCIP Tape Acceleration-enabled switch
86

proxies the successful completion of the SCSI WRITE operation.
C. Cisco SAN-OS provides increased performance of data delivery to the remote FCIP
connected tape drives by using UDP over the WAN.
D. The FCIP Tape Acceleration feature can be used with multilink port channels if the port
channels are constructed with a port channel protocol.
E. WRITE FILEMARKS operations are proxied by the host-side MDS FCIP Tape
Acceleration-enabled switch.
Answer: B

Which two statements about the FCIP Write Acceleration feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. WAN throughput is maximized by minimizing the impact of WAN latency for write
operations.
B. The Write Acceleration feature does not have to be enabled on both sides of the FCIP
link.
C. The FCIP Write Acceleration feature can only be used with multilink port channels if they
are constructed with port channel protocol.
D. The Write Acceleration feature cannot be used across FSPF equal cost paths in FCIP
deployments.
E. The Write Acceleration feature works by immediately returning the SCSI status on the
initiator side of the FCIP link.
Answer: A,D
Answer:
87

You are connecting a Cisco Nexus 2000 to an existing Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
domain for C-Series integration. Which option describes the next Cisco Nexus 2000 that
will be discovered?
A. FEX0101
B. FEX0003
C. FEX0102
D. FEX1000
E. FEX1001
Answer: B

Which three parameters are carried by an iSCSI TCP session? (Choose three.)
A. control messages
B. SCSI commands
C. parameters that specify redundant paths
D. iSCSI PDUs
E. primitive signals
Answer: A,B,D
88

What is the most likely reason for the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit?
A. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC have been deleted from Cisco
UCS Manager.
B. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC are assigned to different
disjoint Layer 2 uplinks.
C. There are no Ethernet uplinks that are enabled.
D. The host to which the vNIC belongs is currently powered off.
E. The vNIC is currently active and uses the fabric failover peer vNIC.
Answer: B

89
Given the displays from N5K-1 and N5K-2, what is the expected result if the zone mode
enhanced vsan 1 command is issued on N5K-1?
A. The mode change will complete with a warning that the zone database from N5K-1 will
be distributed thoughout the fabric.
B. The mode change will not complete due to the mismatch in the default zone mode.
C. The mode change prompts the administrator to override the default zone mismatch and
make them the same.
D. The mode change completes, and the default zone setting remains unchanged in N5K-1
and N5K-2.
E. The default zone setting is set to deny in both switches because it is more secure.
Answer: A

DCNM is capable of monitoring the network performance of a SAN. What are the three
primary areas of this operation?
A. Analyze traffic, device management, and network monitoring
B. DCNM-SAN, DCNM-LAN, and device manager
C. Definition of flows, information collection, and data presentation
D. SNMP poll data, MIB analysis, and report generation
Answer: C
90

Answer:
Answer:
91

Which two options describe possible causes of the failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose
two.)
A. Two switches have the same zone set name, but different zone names and different
zone members.
B. Two switches have the same zone set name and zone name, but different zone
members.
C. The zoneset export interface command is used for the wrong interface.
D. The zoneset merge command can only be executed for VSAN 1.
E. The adjacent switch is down at the point of the zone merge.
Answer: A,B

What is the benefit of the Priority-Based Flow control feature in Data Center Bridging?
A. provides the capability to manage a bursty, single traffic source on a multiprotocol link
B. enables bandwidth management between traffic types for multiprotocol links
C. addresses the problem of sustained congestion by moving corrective action to the
network edge
D. allows autoexchange of Ethernet parameters between switches and endpoints
Answer: A
92

What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?
A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the
other switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.
B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is
executed.
C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.
D. There is no such command.
Answer: B

Which SCSI action returns a list of logical unit numbers to which additional commands may
be issued?
A. Read Capacity
B. Test Unit Read
C. Report LUNs
D. Read
E. Inquiry
Answer: C

Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000
platforms? (Choose two.)
A. port security
B. fabric binding
C. IVR
D. port tracking
E. FICON
Answer: C,E
93

Answer:

You are configuring a UCS C-Series server for SAN boot over FCoE. The server fails to
boot after the HBA option ROM loads. Which option describes the most likely solution for
this problem?
94

A. Decrease the vNIC MTU.
B. Set the vNIC Class of Service to a nonzero value.
C. Set the default VLAN to FCOE VLAN.
D. Set the vHBA Class of Service to 2.
E. Uncheck the PXE Boot option.
F. Disable Persistent LUN Binding.
Answer: C

Which of these technologies is illustrated by the topology in the exhibit?

A. vPC+
B. standard vPC
C. enhanced vPC
D. express vPC
E. fabric vPC
95

Answer: C

Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?
A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.
B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.
C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.
D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.
Answer: B
Topic 4, Cisco Data Center Virtualization

96
An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The administrator adds
a host to the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the module join the VSM.
Given the configuration in the exhibit, which configuration needs to be included?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1
B. vrf context control
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1
C. vrf context management
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1
D. ip route vrf management 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1
Answer: A

DHCP snooping on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches acts like a firewall between
untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers by doing which of these? (Choose three.)
A. validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid
response messages from DHCP servers
B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports
C. builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information
about untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses
D. uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from
untrusted hosts
E. limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address
binding table entry or static IP source entry
Answer: A,C,D

97

An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The administrator adds
a host to the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the module join the VSM.
Given the configuration in the exhibit, which three configuration items must be included in
the configuration? (Choose three.)
A. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability I3control.
B. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VSM l3control.
C. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to System VLAN 1400.
D. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VLAN 1400 in the allowed trunk.
E. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability l3control.
F. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Mode Trunk.
G. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VEM l3control.
Answer: A,C,D

Which of the following is an advanced networking function performed by VEM?
A. QOS.
B. Snooping.
C. VSAN creation.
D. VLAN pruning.
Answer: A
98

Given the following configuration:
port-profile type ethernet DATA-UPLINK
vmware port-group
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-3967,4048-4093
channel-group auto mode on
no shutdown
state enabled
port-profile type ethernet MGMT-UPLINK
vmware port-group
switchport trunk allowed vlan 10-12
channel-group auto mode on
no shutdown
state enabled
VEMs are seen to be joining and then are lost from the Cisco VSM. How would you resolve
this issue?
A. Remove second NIC from each port profile
B. Remove VEM from VSM (no vem X), remove NICs, and reinsert
C. Ensure that VLANs on uplink profiles are not overlapping
D. Reinstall VEM
E. Issue the command "module vem X execute vemcmd set pinning module vsm 1"
Answer: C
99

The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which two
components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. virtual supervisor module
B. virtual Ethernet module
C. virtual machine NICs
D. virtual machine kernel NICs
Answer: A,B

vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath?
(Choose two.)
A. intelligent traffic steering to the VSG
B. offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEM
C. intelligent traffic steering to the VNMC
D. offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow manager
E. deep packet inspection
Answer: A,B

When creating a QoS policy dialog box in Cisco UCSM, which four fields can be modified?
(Choose four.)
A. name
B. best-effort
C. burst
D. rate
E. host control
Answer: A,C,D,E

100

Which two items have an impact on the maximum number of virtual interfaces that can be
created on a virtual interface card? (Choose two.)
A. number of blades in the chassis
B. number of acknowledged links between the Fabric Interconnect and the I/O module
C. number of connected uplinks
D. number of Fabric Interconnect port ASICs used by uplinks
E. number of Fabric Interconnects
F. number of VIC
Answer: B,D

Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical
path that traffic will be sent out upon?
Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-data
Switchport mode trunk
Switchport trunk allowed vlan 200-210
Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning
State enabled
Vmware port-group
No shut
Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200
Switchport mode access
Switchport vlan 200
State enabled
Vmware port-group
No shut
A. module vem X execute vemcmd show trunk
101

B. show module 3 internal pinning
C. module vem X execute vemcmd show port
D. show module vem mapping
E. show interface vethX pinning
Answer: C

Which three statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose three.)
A. The differentiating characteristic of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series is that it does not run
Spanning Tree Protocol. This characteristic may seem to be a significant departure from
other Ethernet switches, which might potentially cause catastrophic network loops.
However, in reality, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implements a simple and effective loopprevention strategy that does not require Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series does not participate in Spanning Tree Protocol,
it does not respond to BPDU packets, nor does it generate them. BPDU packets that are
received by Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped.
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like a
physical Ethernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performs source and
destination MAC address lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loopprevention logic to every incoming packet on Ethernet interfaces.
D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like any
logical Ethernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performs source and
destination MAC address lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop-
102

prevention logic to every incoming packet on Ethernet interfaces.
E. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series participates in Spanning Tree Protocol, it
responds to BPDU packets, and it generate them. BPDU packets that are received by
Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped.
Answer: A,B,C

n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload status
Current Status : Enabled
Running Config Status : Enabled
Saved Config Status : Disabled
What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.)
A. LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v.
B. LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch.
C. LACP will be negotiated to the VM.
D. LACP is negotiated by the VSM.
E. LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances.
Answer: A,E

The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an
intelligent software switch implementation for VMware vSphere environments running the
Cisco NX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the
Nexus 1000V supports Cisco VN-Link server virtualization technology, which provides
mobile virtual machine security and network policy for VMware View components, including
the DHCP snooping feature. DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default.
When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default
trust settings for the vEthernet and uplink ports?
A. All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels
103

are trusted.
B. All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port
channels are not trusted.
C. All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels
are not trusted.
D. All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port
channels are trusted.
Answer: D

How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Answer: D

Which port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS?
A. channel-group auto mode on
B. channel-group auto mode active
C. channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdp
D. channel-group auto mode on sub-group manual
E. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning
Answer: E

Which three statements about the DHCP snooping feature on Cisco Nexus switches are
104

true? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP snooping commands are not available until the feature is enabled with the feature
dhcp-snooping command.
B. When you enable the DHCP snooping feature, the switch begins building and
maintaining the DHCP snooping binding database.
C. The switch will not validate DHCP messages received or use the DHCP snooping
binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts until DHCP
snooping is enabled globally and for each specific VLAN.
D. Globally disabling DHCP snooping removes all DHCP snooping configuration on the
switch.
E. Globally disabling DHCP snooping does not remove any DHCP snooping configuration
or the configuration of other features that are dependent upon the DHCP snooping feature.
Answer: B,C,E

Which statement best describes the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series?
A. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 switching, advanced networking
functions, and a common network management model in a virtualized server environment.
B. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 3 switching, advanced networking
functions, and a common network management model in a virtualized server environment.
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching, advanced
networking functions, and a common network management model in a virtualized server
environment.
D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching but does not
provide advanced networking functions or a common network management model in a
virtualized server environment.
Answer: A

What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.)
A. perform flow lookups
B. intercept packets on service enabled ports
105

C. run packets through the vPath flow manager
D. classify the packets
E. flow manager emits an action for the packets
F. enforce the action determined by the flow manager
Answer: B,C,E,F

A port profile is created in the VSM, but it is not seen in vCenter and cannot be assigned to
a virtual machine. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which VSM command will resolve
this issue?
A. vmware port-group
B. vmware port-active
C. profile-active
D. port-group active
E. shutdown / no shutdown
Answer: A

106
The network administrator is adding a new Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch to vCenter, but does
not see the new switch under the vCenter networking tab. The administrator issues the
command that is shown in the exhibit on VSM to troubleshoot this problem. When the
administrator attempts to fix the issue, the error that is shown in the exhibit is seen. Which
option describes the most correct cause of this error?
A. There is a missing control VLAN in the VSM configuration.
B. There is a missing packet VLAN in the VSM configuration.
C. VSM has no network connection to vCenter.
D. The VSM extension key is not installed on vCenter.
E. The vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM.
Answer: D

Which two methods can be used in communications between the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM
and the VSM? (Choose two.)
A. routed TCP traffic using HTTPS
B. routed UDP traffic using port 4785
C. routed UDP traffic using port 7845
D. Layer 2 direct traffic using MAC addresses
E. Layer 2 broadcast traffic
F. routed TCP traffic using port 4785
G. routed TCP traffic using port 7845
107

Answer: B,D

A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual
NICs and is intended for use with an N1Kv.
Interface fastethernet 1/10
Switchport trunk allowed vlan all
Channel-group 10 mode on
No shut
Interface fastethernet 1/11
Switchport trunk allowed vlan all
Channel-group 10 mode on
No shut
Interface port-channel10
Switchport allowed vlan all
No shut
Which Port Channel configuration must be used on the Nexus 1000v port-profile?
A. MAC pinning
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol pinning
C. Mode On
D. Mode Active
E. No port channel configuration
108

Answer: C

Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose
two.)
A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-group
configuration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-group name for these
interfaces and an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port
group (for example, VSM-Interfaces), that includes all the interfaces that use this port group
and the same VLAN.
B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact,
you can use the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs. The VSM
management VLAN is really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN.
Alternatively, network administrators can designate a special VLAN for network device
management.
C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is
defined as the primary module and the other that is defined as the secondary module on
two separate hosts.
D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server.
Answer: B,C

When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these?
A. Upstream switch
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. VMware distributed switch
D. VMware vSwitch
E. Service virtual machine
Answer: E
109

Where can port profiles be applied to a virtual machine?
A. on the VSM only
B. on vCenter only
C. on VSM and vCenter
D. on VSM and VEM
E. on VSM, VEM, and vCenter
Answer: B

Which two statements about dynamic port binding are true? (Choose two.)
A. The port is connected when the VM is powered on and disconnected when the VM is
powered off.
B. The port is created when the VM is powered on and destroyed when the VM is powered
off.
C. The max-port limits are enforced.
D. The max-port limits are not enforced.
E. The port is always connected.
Answer: A,C

Which two methods can be used to install the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM on an ESXi host?
(Choose two.)
A. Installation using VMware Update Manager
B. Iinstallation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a tar.gz file
C. Installation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a .vib file
D. Copying VEM executable files to ESXi host /bin
E. Installation from the VSM using the vem install host command
F. Installation from the VSM using FTP and the vem auto-install command
Answer: A,C
110

Where can port profiles be created for the Cisco Nexus 1000V?
A. on the VSM only
B. on vCenter only
C. on VSM and vCenter
D. on VSM and VEM
E. on VSM, VEM, and vCenter
Answer: A

The network administrator is adding a new N1Kv to the vCenter, however, the administrator
does not see the new switch under the networking tab of vCenter.
The administrator issues the following command on the VSM to troubleshoot:
VSM# show svs connections
connection VC:
ip address: 10.10.10.30
remote port: 80
protocol: vmware-vim https
certificatE. default
datacenter namE. DC1
DVS uuiD. 67 32 30 50 a6 d2 49 64-9e 1c 5f 49 e3 af 55 99
config status: Disabled
operational status: Disconnected
sync status: version: When attempting to fix the issue, the following error is seen:
111

VSM-PRI-188# conf
VSM-PRI-188(config)# svs connection VC
VSM-PRI-188(config-svs-conn)# connect
ERROR: [VMWARE-VIM] Extension key was not registered before its use
What is the cause of the error?
A. Missing control VLAN in VSM configuration
B. Missing packet VLAN in VSM configuration
C. VSM has no network connection to vCenter
D. VSM extension key is not installed on vCenter
E. vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM
Answer: D

What is the use of ERSPAN on N1kv?
A. Send monitored traffic to a VLAN
B. Send monitored traffic to a remote VEM over L2
C. Receive monitored traffic on a vEthernet interface
D. Send monitored traffic to an IP destination
Answer: D

112
An ESX host is added to a distributed switch but is never seen as a module in VSM. Given
below configuration from VSM, what is the cause of this issue? (Choose two.)
VSM# show svs domain
SVS domain config:
Domain iD. 111
Control vlan: 500
Packet vlan: 501
L2/L3 Control modE. L2
L3 control interfacE. NA
Status: Config push to VC successful.
A. Missing VLAN 500 on Switch1 trunk to Switch2
B. Missing VLAN 501 on Switch1 trunk to Switch 2
C. VLAN 500 is not created on Switch2
D. Interface VLAN 500 is missing on Switch1
E. Interface VLAN 501 is missing on Switch1
F. VLAN 111 is missing on all switches
Answer: A,C

113

A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: D
Topic 5, Cisco Unified Computing System

Which option describes the default roles available to RBAC on Cisco Nexus switches?
A. admin, operator, network-admin, and network-operator
B. admin, read-only, network-admin, and network-operator
C. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator
D. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator (for Nexus 7000) and
network-admin and network-operator (for other Nexus switches)
E. admin and read-only
Answer: D

114

Which option describes the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit?
A. This output represents a standby VIF.
B. This output indicates that fabric failover has been enabled on vNIC 3.
C. This output represents a reserved system VIF.
D. This output represents an unpinned interface.
Answer: A
Answer:

115

What are the two FEX connection modes? (Choose two.)
A. hard-pinning mode
B. soft-pinning mode
C. port channel mode
D. physical-pinning mode
E. vlan pinning mode
Answer: A,C

Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM?
(Choose three.)
A. use summary view in the device manager
B. from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down list
C. for each port channel, select Monitor Continually
D. configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMON
E. set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client for
performance collections
Answer: A,B,E

Where is Cisco UCS vNICs created?
A. In the blade BIOS
B. In the operating system
C. In the service profile
D. In the card option ROM
Answer: C
116
Answer:

Which two options correctly display IOM-to-Fabric Interconnect connectivity? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
117
C)
D)
118
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A,B

How many licenses are provided with the purchase of the Cisco UCS 6296 fabric
interconnect?
A. 18
B. 16
C. 12
D. 8
Answer: A

Which two statements about end-host mode in SAN connectivity in a Cisco UCS
environment are true? (Choose two.)
119

A. End-host mode is synonymous with NPV mode.
B. In end-host mode, only hard pinning of vHBAs to Fibre Channel uplink ports is allowed.
C. Making configuration changes between Fibre Channel switching mode and end-host
mode is nondisruptive.
D. End-host mode is the default Fibre Channel switching mode.
Answer: A,D

From the Cisco UCS CLI, how do you verify which uplink ports a blade server is using for
its network connectivity?
A. UCS-A# show pinning border-interfaces
B. UCS-B# show service-profile circuit
C. UCS-B(nxos)# show pinning server-interfaces
D. You must statically configure which uplink the blades should use, or you will not have
connectivity.
Answer: C

Which type of address-port translation is shown?

120

A. server NAT
B. dual NAT
C. port redirection
D. transparent mode
Answer: B

Which four port types are included in the VLAN port count? (Choose four.)
A. border uplink Ethernet ports
B. border uplink EtherChannel member ports
C. FCoE ports in a SAN cloud
D. static and dynamic vNICs created through service profiles
E. VLANs
F. VSANs
G. Private VSANs
H. Private VLANs
Answer: A,B,C,D

A Cisco UCS fabric interconnects in end-host mode learns MAC addresses on which port
types? (Choose four.)
A. Uplink Ethernet ports or border ports
B. Appliance ports
C. Server ports
D. Fabric ports
E. Backplane ports
F. vEth interfaces
G. A Fabric Interconnect doesn't learn MAC addresses in End Host mode. Pinning is used
instead.
Answer: B,C,E,F
121

Which option describes how you would guarantee 30 percent of available bandwidth on
interface 1/4?
A. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the interface ethernet1/4 command.
B. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class
command.
C. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the policy-map policy1-egress
command.
D. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class
command.
E. Bandwidth guarantees are not permitted on output policies.
Answer: B

What would be the cause for the following fault in UCS Manager?
"ether VIF x / xxx down, reason: ENM source pinning failed"
A. The associated VLANs of a vNIC are not found on an uplink.
B. Overlapping VLAN IDs exist on upstream disjoint networks.
C. The vNIC was not configured for fabric failover.
D. The vNIC is pinned to the wrong fabric.
E. Overlapping VSAN IDs exist on upstream SAN switches.
F. The vHBA was not configured for failover.
Answer: A

Which statement about NPIV is true?
A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port.
B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.
C. NPIV requires a "write erase" and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV
mode.
122

D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.
E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.
Answer: A
Answer:

123
On which of the interfaces can VLANs be configured or modified within this Cisco UCS
domain?
A. VLANs can be configured or modified on all ports.
B. A, D, E, and F. Ports B and C are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect.
C. A, E, and F. Ports B, C, and D are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect.
D. A and F only. No other ports may have their VLAN configurations modified manually.
E. A only. VLANs are configured on uplinks and are automatically available on any other
port with no configuration necessary.
F. F only. VLANs are only modified in the service profile.
Answer: D

Which feature must be enabled on the upstream Fibre Channel switch if the fabric
interconnects is configured in end-host mode?
124

A. NPV
B. NPIV
C. Zoning
D. Smart Zoning
Answer: B

Your company wants Server 1/eth0 (vNIC 1) configured so that it always uses Fabric
Interconnect A Port Channel 1 (Po1) when it communicates with anything outside of the
Cisco UCS domain. However, if vNIC 1 fails over to Fabric Interconnect B using fabric
failover, then vNIC 1 can use any uplink port on Fabric Interconnect B.
A. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode.
B. A pin group must be configured on the server tab in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. In the service profile for Server 1, vNIC 1 must be explicitly assigned to a pin group.
D. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server can only be manually
pinned to a single physical interface and not a port channel because of the LACP loadbalancing algorithm.
E. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server is either manually
pinned to an uplink on both fabric interconnects or the server is automatically pinned, but
not both.
Answer: A,C

Which two actions must occur to disable the LAN traffic on an FCoE link to a host?
(Choose two.)
A. interface Ethernet 1/1
shutdown lan
B. The switch sends a LAN logical link status message to the CNA host.
C. interface vfc11
shutdown lan
D. The switch send a PFC command to the CNA host.
125

E. interface Ethernet 1/1
vlan 10 disable
Answer: A,B

What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Compatibility with third-party Fibre Channel switches
B. Faster throughput
C. Reduce domain IDs in a Fibre Channel environment
D. Support for increased number of VSANs
E. Support for SAN port channels
Answer: A,C

Which statement is true about "full state backup" in a Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. An XML file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details
B. A binary file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after
initial configuration
C. A binary file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details
D. An XML file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after
initial configuration
E. A text file with the NX-OS running configuration
Answer: C

How many virtual interfaces do the Cisco UCS 1280, 1240, and 1225 Virtual Interface
Cards support?
A. 128
126

B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 100
Answer: C

Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series
integration with Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2 server
B. Cisco UCS C250 M2 server
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2 server
D. Cisco UCS C240 M3 server
E. Cisco UCS C240 M2 server
Answer: C,D

While attempting to modify a management firmware package, you receive the error that is
127

shown in the exhibit. Which two statements explain this error? (Choose two.)
A. The management firmware package that is referenced by the service profile has been
deleted.
B. The Cisco UCS Manager version is 2.1 or later.
C. Cisco Integrated Management Controller firmware should be managed via the host
firmware policy.
D. You cannot modify the management firmware directly when a policy has been assigned.
E. The user that is logged into Cisco UCS Manager does not have sufficient privileges.
Answer: B,C

On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer
are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet
B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet
C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3
D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4
Answer: A,C
Answer:
128

An administrator creates a vNIC and assigns it to Fabric A with the fabric failover feature
enabled. Which statement is true?
A. A unique vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B
B. A vEthernet interface will be created only on Fabric A
C. A vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A, and move across to Fabric B in the
event of failure
D. Fabric B will learn the vEthernet interface from Fabric A through a GARP
E. The same vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B
Answer: A

Which two FEX connection modes are correct? (Choose two.)
A. hard-pinning mode
B. soft-pinning mode
C. port channel mode
D. physical-pinning mode
E. vlan pinning mode
Answer: A,C

Which two statements about NPIV are true? (Choose two.)
129

A. After enabling NPIV, switch interfaces can only be placed into NP, F, or SD modes of
operation.
B. NPV devices log in to NPIV devices.
C. NPIV requires the Enterprise License Package.
D. NPIV is supported on the Cisco MDS, N7K, and N5K families of switches.
E. A director class switch should not be placed into NPIV mode.
Answer: B,D

When will an "all configuration" backup be imported into the Cisco UCS Manager?
A. During the initial configuration from the console
B. Once the basic configuration has been applied
C. To restore the configuration on a secondary fabric interconnect
D. To upgrade the firmware on a replacement fabric interconnect
Answer: B

Why is a Cisco UCS B250 server unable to support 16-GB DIMMs?
A. Dual-rank DIMMs are not supported.
B. 16-GB DIMMs are too slow.
C. The largest DIMM an Intel 55xx or 56xx CPU can address is 32 GB.
D. The memory bus would be too long.
E. The blade would run too hot.
Answer: C

What is required for Cisco UCS C-Series rack server integration with Cisco UCS Manager?
(Choose three.)
130

A. Cisco UCS Manager 1.3(xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2248 FEXes
B. Cisco UCS Manager 2.0(2xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2232 FEXes
C. Two Cisco UCS 6100 Series or 6200 Series fabric interconnects
D. Two RJ45 Ethernet cables
E. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode
Answer: B,C,D

What is the purpose of the management interface monitoring policy?
A. to monitor the management interface counters for errors and drops
B. to prevent VM traffic from being black-holed during a cluster switchover
C. to sync MAC address tables between peer fabric interconnects
D. to ensure that the management interface of the managing fabric interconnect can reach
the gateway
Answer: D

131
All Ethernet ports are trunked with VLANs 2 thru 10. The Cisco UCS domain is in end-host
mode. Host A transmits a single broadcast frame on VLAN 4.
A. Nexus 5548 A and Nexus 5548 B send a copy of the broadcast frame down all six ports
to Fabric Interconnect A and Fabric Interconnect B.
B. The deja vu mechanism on the fabric interconnects prevents the fabric interconnects
from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame.
C. All four vNICs receive a single copy of the broadcast frame.
D. All four vNICs receive multiple copies of the broadcast frame on VLAN 4 but no
broadcasts on any other VLAN.
E. The spanning tree process prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the
broadcast frame.
F. The Reverse Path Forwarding mechanism prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple
copies of the broadcast frame.
Answer: A,C

132
Assume that there is no disjoint Layer 2 configuration. Based on the output, what will
happen if uplink eth1/7 on FI-A fails?
A. The host will lose Ethernet uplink connectivity on FI-A.
B. Fabric failover will force the vNIC that is bound to FI-A to use uplink eth1/7 on FI-B.
C. Cisco UCS Manager will disable the host vNIC that is connected to FI-A.
D. Traffic from any hosts using this pin group will use e1/8 on FI-A.
Answer: D

Which statement is true regarding Backup tasks in Cisco UCS?
A. They are created automatically and stored on the FI
B. They are created manually and exported to a remote server
C. They are automatically scheduled to run every 24 hours
D. They are manually scheduled and stored on the FI
Answer: B

Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer
allocated to each QoS group?
A. show interface priority-flow-control
133

B. show interface queuing
C. show queuing interface
D. show policy-map system type queuing
E. show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing
Answer: C

Where SAN Port Channel is created in UCS Manager?
A. Under the Admin tab on the FI
B. Under the Server tab in the service profile
C. Under the SAN tab on each VSAN
D. Under the Admin tab on the chassis
E. Under the SAN tab on the Fabric Interconnect
Answer: E

Cisco UCS Manager provides the ability to manage power utilization to the blades. Which
two statements about UCS Manager power policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. Power capping helps mainly in reducing data center footprint.
B. Power capping helps reduce data center cooling.
C. A single power cap group policy allows you to set power limits across multiple UCS
domains.
D. You can have multiple power cap groups per UCS domain.
E. Each blade within a UCS 5108 chassis can belong to a separate power cap group.
Answer: B,D

134
How many additional chassis equipped with Cisco UCS 2204XP I/O Modules could be
connected at maximum bandwidth without exceeding the existing port licenses?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.)
A. B200
B. C210
C. B250
D. C260
E. C460
Answer: C,D

Which three statements are possible causes for the "fltAdaptorHostIfLink-down" fault in
UCS Manager? (Choose three.)
A. The fabric interconnect is in the end-host mode, and all uplink ports have failed.
B. The server port to which the adapter is pinned has failed.
C. A transient error has caused the link to fail.
135

D. The fabric interconnect is in the switch mode, and all uplink ports have failed.
E. The link for a network-facing host interface is missing.
Answer: A,B,C

Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?
A. Server
B. End device
C. Node
D. Host
E. Virtual
Answer: A

How are unified port expansion modules for Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects
licensed?
A. All ports are fully licensed by default.
B. The first eight ports on the module are licensed by default.
C. The expansion modules contribute eight licenses to the global pool by default.
D. The expansion modules contribute six licenses to the global pool by default.
E. The first six ports on the module are licensed by default.
Answer: D

What is the appliance port used to connect to in a Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. Fibre Channel storage
B. UCS C-Series servers
C. NFS storage
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D. UCS chassis
E. Other fabric interconnect
Answer: C

You are about to assign a static UUID to a service profile. This particular UUID is also
defined within the range of a UUID pool. The duplicate UUID in the pool has not yet been
allocated. What will be the result of applying the static UUID?
A. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID exists within a
defined resource pool.
B. Applying the static UUID will succeed with no warnings.
C. Applying the static UUID will succeed and a minor fault will be raised.
D. Applying the static UUID will succeed and an information fault will be raised.
E. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID is a duplicate UUID.
Answer: B

What is the default burst in a LAN QoS policy?
A. 10240
B. 9216
C. 20480
D. 1548
Answer: A
137
Answer:

An administrator is creating a service profile but receives an error when applying to a
blade. The administrator checks the faults tab of the service profile and finds the following
error (Refer to the exhibit).
What is the cause of this error?

A. vNIC has a Fibre Channel QoS policy assigned
B. vHBA is assigned to a "best-effort" QoS policy
C. vHBA has no QoS policy assigned
D. vHBA is assigned to an incorrect VSAN
E. vNIC has been assigned to an FCoE VLAN
Answer: B
138

Which policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server
during the discovery process and when the server is disassociated from a service profile?
A. boot policy and BIOS policy
B. disk scrub and boot policy
C. BIOS setting scrub, boot policy, and BIOS policy
D. disk scrub and BIOS setting scrub
Answer: D

Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data
center environments and supports standard monitoring and event notification systems,
providing data to standard enterprise-management tools.
Which two of these lists the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based
read-only interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI
B. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML
C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt
D. SoL and NX-OS
E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI
Answer: A,B

When it comes to creating pooled WWN objects, it is important to understand that a Cisco
UCS WWN pool can include only WWNNs or WWPNs from which value of ranges?
A. from 10:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 10:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
139

B. from 20:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 20:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
C. from 30:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 30:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
D. from 40:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 40:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
Answer: B

Which two statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)
A. The domain ID for SAN A is 0x64.
B. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as E Ports.
C. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as TE Ports.
D. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as F Ports.
E. FC trunking is enabled on the Fabric Interconnect.
F. The domain ID for SAN A is 0x640.
Answer: A,D
140

In the event of a catastrophic disaster, after which you need to replace the entire UCS
blade system (that is, new fabric interconnects, new IOMs, new chassis, and new blades),
what type of backup would provide the most complete set of information?
A. logical configuration
B. all configuration
C. full state
D. system configuration
Answer: C

Your organization is purchasing Cisco devices as well as non-Cisco devices for switching.
Which three statements are correct about connecting Cisco devices to a non-Cisco 802.1Q
cloud? (Choose three.)
A. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs to the SSTP multicast MAC address on VLANs
other than the native VLAN of the trunk, non-Cisco devices do not recognize these frames
as BPDUs and flood them on all ports in the corresponding VLAN.
B. Cisco devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud receive these flooded BPDUs.
This BPDU reception allows Cisco switches to maintain a per-VLAN spanning tree topology
across a cloud of non-Cisco 802.1Q devices.
C. The non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud that separates the Cisco devices is treated as a single
broadcast segment between all devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud through
802.1Q trunks.
D. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs using the industry standard IEEE 802.1D
spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-00-00-00), the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud
will seamlessly participate in spanning tree protocol.
E. Only layer 3 connections will work between Cisco devices and non-Cisco 802.1 cloud.
F. Additional equipment will be needed to transmit traffic between Cisco devices and nonCisco 802.1Q cloud direct connectivity is not possible
Answer: A,B,C

The FCoE VLAN is used to carry FIP and FCoE traffic for the corresponding VSAN. Which
141

two statements about this mapping are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VLAN-VSAN mapping must be configured consistently in the entire fabric.
B. This mapping can only carry Fibre Channel control and data traffic.
C. There must be same VLANs on the A and B SANs.
D. IP traffic is allowed if the interface is set to Shared.
E. The VLAN must match the CNA setting.
Answer: A,B

Assume that the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects are equipped with 16 port
expansion modules. What is the impact of the last command in the exhibit?
A. Fabric interconnect B will reboot.
B. The expansion module on fabric interconnect B will reload.
C. The command will generate an error.
D. Both fabric A and B expansion modules will reload.
E. The expansion module on fabric interconnect B will reload according to the maintenance
policy that is set by Cisco UCS Manager.
Answer: C

142
Given the displays from MDS-1 and MDS-2, which two options describe what will happen
when they attempt a zone merge for VSAN 120? (Choose two.)
A. The zone merge will complete with no warnings and each switch will contain three
zones.
B. The zone merge will fail because the zone set members are not identical.
C. The zone merge will prompt the administrator to add zones ucs-1 and ucs-2 to the
switches where they are missing.
D. Zone merges are not permitted when running enhanced mode zoning.
E. The zone merge will fail because the active zone set names are not identical.
F. The zone merge will complete, but the administrator will be prompted to choose which
zone set to make active.
Answer: B,E
143

Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? (Choose three.)
A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect
after a server interface failover.
B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover.
C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs.
D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile.
E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to
provide redundancy on uplink ports.
Answer: A,B,D

Regarding disk scrub, which two of these occur to the data on any local drives upon
disassociation? (Choose two.)
A. If disk scrub is enabled, all BIOS settings for the server are erased.
B. If disk scrub is enabled, all the data access on any local drives is destroyed.
C. If disk scrub is enabled, the LSI active RAID is destroyed but data is still preserved.
D. If disk scrub is disabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local
storage configuration.
E. If disk scrub is enabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local
storage configuration.
Answer: B,D

You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the
default maintenance policy is configured, which statement about applying this change is
true?
A. The change will be applied immediately once the blade is rebooted.
B. The change will be deferred until the user acknowledges.
C. The change will be applied immediately with no disruption to any bound service profiles.
D. The change will generate an impact summary message.
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E. The change will require all bound service profiles to be unbound.
Answer: C

According to the equipment tab in Cisco UCS Manager, which is true?

A. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a server port, D is a backplane port, E is a
DCE interface, and F is a vNIC
B. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a backplane port, E is a
C. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a backplane port, D is a server port, E is a
D. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a DCE interface, E is a
145

backplane port, and F is a vNIC
E. A is an fabric port, B is a downlink port, C is an uplink port, D is a server port, E is a VIC
interface, and F is a vNIC
Answer: B
Answer:

How many traffic monitoring sessions can you create on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: A
146

How many concurrent GUI logins are possible per user account on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. 128
B. 96
C. 64
D. 32
Answer: D

Which switch is not a valid Cisco Nexus 7000 Series model?
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 4-slot switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 8-slot switch
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 9-slot switch
D. Cisco Nexus 7000 10-slot switch
E. Cisco Nexus 7000 18-slot switch
Answer: B

Which two statements about QoS options in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose
two.)
A. The QoS policy assigns a system class to the outgoing traffic for a vNIC or vHBA.
B. Flow-control policies determine whether the uplink Ethernet ports in a Cisco UCS
environment send and receive IEEE 802.3x pause frames when the send buffer for a port
fills.
C. If no system class is configured as CoS 0, the Fibre Channel system class is used.
D. The user can configure QoS for these system classes: platinum, gold, silver, best effort,
Fibre Channel.
E. When configuring a system class, the type of adapter in a server may limit the maximum
147

MTU supported.
Answer: A,E
Answer:

Which of these commands will allow you to set end-host mode for SAN connectivity?
A. UCS-A # scope fc-uplink
UCS-A /fc-uplink # set mode end-host
UCS-A /fc-uplink* # commit-buffer
B. UCS-A# scope eth-uplink
UCS-A /eth-uplink # set mode end-host
WarninG. When committed, this change will cause the switch to reboot
UCS-A /eth-uplink* # commit-buffer
C. UCS-A# scope fabric-interconnect a
UCS-A /fabric-interconnect # set mode end-host
UCS-A /fabric-interconnect* # commit-buffer
D. UCS-A# scope system
148

UCS-A /system* # set mode end-host
UCS-A /system* # commit-buffer
Answer: A

In a Cisco Unified Computing System, where are SAN port channels connected to?
A. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches
B. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches in NPIV mode
C. To any Fibre Channel switch
D. Directly to storage arrays
E. Only to Nexus Switches
Answer: A

149
Your company requires a Cisco UCS configuration that will, at a minimum, allow the
configuration in the provided exhibit.
Which Cisco UCS components will meet the requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco UCS 6148, Cisco UCS 6248UP, or the Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnects
B. Cisco UCS 2104XP Fabric Extender
C. Cisco UCS 2204XP or 2208XP Fabric Extenders
D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card
E. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280
F. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1240 with a port expander
Answer: A,E,F

On a Cisco UCS B250 M2 server that is fully populated with 1333-MHz memory and an
E5640 CPU, what is the fastest speed the memory can run at?
A. 800 MHz
150

B. 900 MHz
C. 1066 MHz
D. 1333 MHz
E. 1666 MHz
Answer: C

Which are valid statements about Cisco Virtual Interface Card (VIC)? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco VIC can create an unlimited number of Virtual NICs.
B. The number of vNICs on the Cisco VIC that can be created is determined by the number
of chassis uplinks.
C. vNICs are created using software on the host operating system.
D. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a physical PCIe device.
E. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a sub-interface of a primary NIC.
F. The Cisco VIC can create 1024 vNICs.
Answer: B,D

Which two statements about disjoint Layer 2 networks are true? (Choose two.)
A. Ethernet Switching mode must be end-host mode.
B. Overlapping vlans are supported.
C. Each vNIC can communicate with all the disjoint Layer 2 networks.
D. Symmetrical configuration is recommended for high availability.
E. Default VLAN 1 can be configured explicitly on an Uplink Ethernet Port or Port Channel
F. Appliance port cannot be configured with the same VLAN as Uplink Ethernet Port or Port
Channel.
Answer: A,D

151
Which two statements about the output and diagram are true? (Choose two.)
A. FI-A is configured in FC switch mode.
B. VSAN trunking is enabled on FI-A.
C. The native VSAN should be VSAN 1.
D. Cisco UCS will allow all VSANs by default when FC trunking is enabled.
E. FI-A requires VSAN pruning.
F. Interface fc1/8 on MDS-A should be configured as a TE Port.
Answer: B,D

You have a customer with an MDS fabric that is experiencing a performance problem. You
suspect that the problem is due to a BB credit starvation issue with a host HBA. The
customer has both a DS-PAA-2 and a Fibre Channel Analyzer on location. You want to
collect a trace and look at the R_RDY flows between the MDS and the host. Which of the
following actions is the best way to start troubleshooting this problem?
A. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local brief trace on the MDS and look for missing
R_RDYs.
B. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local trace with full detail on the MDS, because the
detail is needed to examine the R_RDY flow.
C. Use the DS-PAA-2 and the MDS span feature to capture a trace and examine the
R_RDY flow between the host and MDS.
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D. Use the Finisar and the MDS span feature to capture a trace because the DS-PAA-2
cannot decode R_RDYs.
E. Break the physical connection between the host and MDS and insert the Fibre Channel
Analyzer inline.
Answer: E
Answer:

Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?
A. Trunk
B. Physical
C. Uplink
D. Switch
E. End host
Answer: C
153

When you connect two Cisco devices through 802.1Q trunks, the devices exchange
spanning tree BPDUs on each VLAN that is allowed on the trunks. Which two statements
are correct about the BPDUs that are sent on the native VLAN of the trunk? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1D spanning tree multicast MAC address (0180-C2-00-00-00).
B. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1q spanning tree multicast MAC address (0180-C2-00-00-00).
C. BPDUs are sent to the reserved SSTP multicast MAC address (01-00-0c-cc-cc-cd).
D. BPDUs are tagged with the VLAN number when they are sent.
E. BPDUs are untagged when they are sent.
Answer: A,E

On a Cisco UCS B250 server, how many physical DIMM slots make up one logical DIMM?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 12
Answer: A

What is the use of an "all configurations" backup in Cisco UCS?
A. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to a 6140 and retain the same service profiles
B. Can only be used on the fabric interconnect on which it was created
C. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to 6140 and retain system IP addresses and cluster
information
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D. Can be used to match firmware versions between 6120 and 6140 during a migration
Answer: A

If uplink 1 fails, to which addresses will Fabric Interconnect B transmit a GARP on Uplink
2?
A. AA and BB only
B. C1 and C2 only
C. A1, B1, AA, and BB
D. AA, BB, C1, and C2
E. No GARPs will be transmitted
155

Answer: D
Answer:

In a Cisco Unified Computing System, What is the "designated receiver" port in end-host
mode used for?
A. Sending all broadcasts
B. Receiving all traffic from upstream switches
C. Receiving broadcast traffic
D. Negotiating spanning tree with upstream switches
E. Learning MAC addres?ses from upstream switch?es
Answer: C

156

The Cisco UCS domain is operating in switching mode. A network administrator notices
that no traffic is traversing the uplinks on Fabric Interconnect B (Path C).
Which actions might be used to change this behavior?
A. Fix the port channel configuration between Fabric Interconnect B and Nexus 5548 B as
the port channel IDs do not match.
B. Modify the bridge priority on the fabric interconnects so that one of the Nexus 5548s will
always be the root bridge.
C. Modify the bridge priority on the Nexus 5548s so that one of them will always be the root
bridge.
D. Modify the port priorities on the fabric interconnect uplinks (Paths B and C) so that they
are a higher priority than ports Eth1/4 and Eth1/9 (Path D).
E. This is an invalid configuration as Cisco UCS fabric interconnects cannot be directly
connected.
Answer: C

What is the default MTU for Fibre Channel on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. 2112
B. 2240
C. 2000
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D. 9216
Answer: B

Fault suppression allows you to suppress SNMP trap and Call Home notifications during a
planned maintenance period. Which three commands are necessary to activate this
suppression polices in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)
A. default-chassis-all-maint
B. default-chassis-phys-maint
C. default-fex-all-maint
D. default-FI-phys-maint
E. default-blade-phys-maint
F. default-vic-phys-maint
Answer: A,B,C

You have configured a Cisco UCS C460 M2 Rack-Mount Server with two VIC 1225
adapters for single-wire management with Cisco UCS Manager. Which statement correctly
describes the operation of these adapters?
A. One VIC is designated to carry management, and the other VIC is designated to carry
data traffic.
B. Both VICs will be used for management and data traffic.
C. One VIC will carry management, and both VICs will carry data traffic.
D. The Cisco UCS C460 M2 does not support two VIC 1225 adapters simultaneously.
Answer: C
Topic 6, Cisco Application Networking Services
158

What is the purpose of this command in a Cisco Application Control Engine?
switch/Admin# show np 1 me-stats "-F0 v"
A. It displays the status of the internal SSL proxy structure associated with a vserver.
B. It displays the crypto-related statistics for a single NP.
C. It is the same output of a "show stats crypto" client/server.
D. It shows details on HTTP session entries.
Answer: A

In the event of a GSS failure in a GSS cluster, which is true?
A. The current connections are rerouted via the backup GSS
B. Secondary GSS cannot be used to configure the GSS cluster
C. All remaining GSSs in the cluster continue responding to any new queries
D. All records in the GSS database are flushed and reconstructed again using a new
master GSS
Answer: C

A load balancer performs an operation on a predefined parameter, such as the IP address,
HTTP cookie, or URL, when a new connection is made so that another connection with the
same parameter will always reach the same server. Which load-balancing predictor does
this statement describe?
A. round robin
B. least-connections
C. hashing
D. least-loaded
Answer: C

159

Which is true when describing a connection replication in Cisco ACE?
A. It is not supported for SSL connections.
B. It is not supported for non-SSL connections.
C. It can only be configured manually.
D. It has a maximum limit of 50,000 replicated connections.
Answer: A

Application Control Engine (ACE) can check the health of servers and server farms by
configuring health probes (which are sometimes referred to as keepalives). A probe can be
one of many types. Which are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. Java scripting
C. TCL scripting
D. RADIUS
E. TACACS
Answer: A,C,D

What are the three benefits of SSL offload? (Choose three.)
A. total offload of encryption from the servers
B. partial offload of encryption from the servers
C. Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 7 switching
D. Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 5 to 7 switching
E. public certificates required on both load balancer and the real server
F. public certificate required only on load balancer
Answer: A,C,F

160

Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a
client request?
A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a
cookie name
B. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network
traffic
C. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers
D. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN
Answer: C

ACE can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes
(sometimes referred to as keepalives). There are several types of probes. Which three
options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A. TCP
B. ICMP
C. HTTP
D. IPsec
Answer: A,B,C

Which option is a benefit of virtualized Application Networking Manager?
A. Static workload scaling
B. Local authorization
C. High availability
D. Health monitor probe
E. Distributed backup
Answer: D

161

Which of the following are supported in Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose three.)
A. Full DNS functionality as a replacement of a DNS
B. Responds to a DNS query with A-record
C. Forwards queries to a name server
D. Multiple A-records
E. DHCP functionality for the local hosts
Answer: B,C,D

In the figure, the load balancer acts a transparent TCP proxy, and establishes the
connection with the client on behalf of the real server. What is this type of spoofing called?
A. delayed binding
B. software-based load balancing
C. transport proxy
D. application binding
162

Answer: A

Which four options describe benefits of the global load-balancing solution? (Choose four.)
A. device status within the data center
B. performance granularity
C. centralized client access
D. intelligent traffic management
E. reacts quickly for availability only
F. server monitoring statistics
G. round robin support only for load-balancing
Answer: A,B,D,F

When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the
reason of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is shut down
B. An access list is denying ICMP
C. Routing is not configured properly
D. vip icmp-reply is inactive
Answer: B,D

Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. Telnet
C. Java scripting
D. TCL scripting
E. XML scripting
163

F. SSH
Answer: A,B,D

Which type of SSL offload configuration is shown in the output?
164

A. SSL termination
B. SSL initiation
C. end-to-end SSL
D. SSL testing
Answer: B

Which GSS "source access list" is used to allow access to GSS by clients when GSS is
being used as the DNS?
A. Client IP
B. Proxy IP
C. Client and proxy IP
D. Neither client nor proxy IP
Answer: A

KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to
report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP?
A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.
B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.
C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.
D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers
Answer: A

165
Which command would produce this output?

A. show stats HTTP
B. show stats load balance
C. show stats probe type
D. show parameter map
Answer: B

Server load balancing (SLB) is the process of deciding to which server a load-balancing
device should send a client request for service.
Which predictors are supported on ACE in order to select the best server to fulfill a client
request? (Choose three.)
A. Hash address: Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or
destination IP address, or both
B. Hash URL: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the requested URL
C. Hash MAC. Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or
destination MAC address, or both
D. Hash header: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the HTTP header
name
E. Hash IP: Selects the server using a hash value based on the IP address
Answer: A,B,D
166

Which protocol message does the Cisco ACE module use to insert or withdraw all RHI
routes?
A. ICMP
B. SCP
C. IPv4
D. SCTP
Answer: B

A Cisco Application Control Engine Appliance (ACE) non-admin context does not support
"sticky" configuration. What is the reason for this issue?
A. ACE sticky license is not installed
B. ACE stickiness is not supported in a non-admin context
C. ACE stickiness resources are not defined in an admin context
D. Stickiness is configured properly in the CCIE virtual context
Answer: C

In the basic DNS resolution process, which component receives the query and sends it to
the location that knows the IP address for the destination?
A. DNS resolver
B. D-proxy
C. root server
D. intermediate server
E. authoritative server
Answer: B
167
Answer:
Topic 7, Mix Questions

Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose
two.)
A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-group
configuration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-group name for these
interfaces and an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port
group (for example, VSM-Interfaces), that includes all the interfaces that use this port group
and the same VLAN.
B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact,
you can use the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs. The VSM
168

management VLAN is really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN.
Alternatively, network administrators can designate a special VLAN for network device
management.
C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is
defined as the primary module and the other that is defined as the secondary module on
two separate hosts.
D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server.
E. mgmt 0 interface on the VSM always use VLAN 1 for communication with VEM modules.
Answer: B,C
Drag and drop the call home severity on the left to the correct description on the right.
Answer:
169

In a FabricPath network, known unicast traffic is sent with the outer destination address
populated with the destination SID, SSID, and local ID. Which statement describes the
outer destination address in the case of unknown unicast?
A. The outer destination address is a reserved multicast MAC address known as MC1
(010F.FFC2.02C0).
B. The outer destination address is a broadcast address (FFFF.FFFF.FFFF).
C. The outer destination address is not required because FabricPath uses the FTag to
forward unknown unicast.
D. The outer destination address is a reserved multicast MAC address known as MC1
(010F.FFC1.01C0).
Answer: D

Which protocol is used in the exchange of DCB capabilities?
A. DCBX
B. 802.1Qaz
C. LLDP
D. LACP
E. FCoE
Answer: C

A load balancer can be defined as a network device that makes forwarding decisions that
are based on parameters in Layers 4 to 7 of the OSI model. Which three parameters are
involved in forwarding decisions? (Choose three.)
A. TCP Destination Port
B. DNS Record
170

C. HTTP Session Cookie
D. SNMP GET
E. String recognized in the connection data
F. Uniform Resource Locater
Answer: A,C,E

Which two things can be determined from the SEL log output? (Choose two.)
A. The server experienced a crash.
171

B. The server experienced correctable memory errors.
C. DIMMs in channel 2 are experiencing memory errors.
D. DIMMs in channel 0 are experiencing memory errors.
E. Memory errors have crossed two thresholds.
Answer: B,E

Which three statements about IPv4 ACLs and the IPsec feature are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco SAN-OS software allows only name-based IPv4 ACLs.
B. The IPsec feature considers source and destination IPv4 and IPv6 addresses.
C. IKE traffic (UDP port 500) is encrypted.
D. The IPsec feature does not support port number ranges.
E. Inbound and outbound traffic is evaluated against the same outbound IPv4 ACL.
Answer: A,D,E

A vPC allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices to
appear as a single port channel by a third device. Which five options describe mandatory
steps to configure vPC? (Choose five.)
A. Enable the vPC feature.
B. Define domains.
C. Establish peer-keepalive connectivity.
D. Create a peer link.
E. Configure a peer link as a trunk port.
F. Create port channels and vPCs.
G. Define the port channel load-balancing method.
H. Copy ALL configurations from Primary Switch to the secondary switch.
Answer: A,B,C,D,F
172

FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet
environments. Which thee options describe advantages of using FabricPath technology?
(Choose three.)
A. MAC address scalability with conversational learning
B. loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field
C. Spanning Tree Protocol independence
D. 10-Gb/s bandwidth
E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers
Answer: A,B,C

Which statement about the exhibit is true?

A. OTV does not extend STP across sites. Each site runs its own STP, rather than
including all sites in a large STP domain. This topology also allows the use of different STP
modes, such as PVRST+ or MST, in each site.
B. OTV extends STP across sites. Each site runs its own STP, which includes all sites in a
large STP domain. This topology also allows the use of different STP modes, such as
PVRST+ or MST in each site.
C. OTV does not extend STP across sites. Each site runs multiple STPs that include all
sites in a large STP domain. This topology also allows the use of different STP modes,
such as PerPVRST+ or MST, in each site.
D. OTV extends STP across sites. Each site runs its own STP, which includes all sites in a
large STP domain. This topology does not allow the use of different STP modes, such as
PVRST+ or MST, in each site.
Answer: A
173

Which two statements about enhanced zoning are true? (Choose two.)
A. Enhanced zoning is a mode that shows much more detail for the SAN choices when it is
viewed in Fabric Manager.
B. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled per VSAN. It is a chassis-wide setting.
C. Enhanced zoning sets the default zone to the same state in all switches.
D. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled in an FCoE environment.
E. Enhanced zoning sends ACA to lock the fabric when the administrator starts a zone
change.
Answer: C,E

Which three functions are performed by the iSCSI login? (Choose three.)
A. Enable a TCP connection for iSCSI use.
B. Negotiate redundant path information between the target and the initiator.
C. Negotiate the session's parameters.
D. Mark the connection as belonging to an iSCSI session.
E. Enable a UDP connection for iSCSI use.
Answer: A,C,D

174
When you assign this disk policy to Server 1/1, it fails. Which option describes the reason
for this failure?
A. The RAID controller does not support single disk configurations.
B. Only RAID0 and RAID1 are supported.
C. The server is equipped with a local disk.
D. Protection is enabled on the existing disk.
Answer: C

Which three statements about Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect fiber channel end-host mode
are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect sends BPDUs northbound.
B. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect never learns northbound dynamic MAC addresses.
C. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns dynamic MAC addresses from direct
attached storage fiber channel ports.
D. vNIC fabric failover is never available in end-host mode.
E. Link status changes on uplink ports are propagated to host vNICs.
F. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns southbound dynamic MAC addresses.
G. vHBA fabric failover is enabled by default.
175

Answer: C,E,F

Cisco FabricPath switches support ECMP forwarding for known unicast frames. If the
destination switch ID can be reached through more than one output interface with equal
cost, the forwarding engine uses a hash function to pick one of the interfaces. Which three
options are valid for hash input for unicast frames? (Choose three.)
A. Use only the source parameters (layer-3, layer-4, or mixed).
B. Use the FabricPath switch ID in the FabricPath header.
C. Use only the destination parameters (layer-3, layer-4, or mixed).
D. Use both the source and the destination parameters (layer-3, layer-4, or mixed).
E. Include only Layer 2 input (source or destination MAC address).
Answer: A,C,D

You are integrating a UCS C-Series server with a UCS Fabric Interconnect running version
2.0 software. Which two options describe the hardware that is required for this integration?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2148T Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS P81E adapter
B. Cisco Nexus 2248 Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS P81E adapter
C. Cisco Nexus 2248 Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS M81KR adapter
D. Cisco Nexus 2232 Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS P81E adapter
E. Cisco Nexus 2232 Fabric Extender and Cisco N2XX-AIPCI02 adapter
F. only the Cisco UCS P81E adapter
G. Cisco Nexus 5548 switch and Cisco UCS VIC 1225 adapter
Answer: B,D

176
The customer has a one-switch fabric, and is connecting another switch. From the Fibre
Channel Analyzer output in the exhibit, identify who is the principal switch in this two-switch
fabric?
A. The principle switch is the switch that sent the first EFP in the trace.
B. The principle switch is the switch that sent the second EFP in the trace.
C. The EFP frame is not used to determine principal switch selection. Principal switch
selection is decided earlier in the ISL link initialization process.
D. The principle switch cannot be identified from the information given in the exhibit.
Answer: A

In the Cisco Nexus 7000 FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the
multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for each
multidestination tree. One of the parameters that is used to select the root is the system ID.
Which two statements are true about the system ID? (Choose two.)
A. The system ID is a unique 12-bit value.
B. The system ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address.
177

C. A higher system ID is preferred.
D. A lower system ID is preferred.
Answer: B,C

Which three options are valid ACE health probes? (Choose three.)
A. SIP
B. ECHO
C. Finger
D. IPsec
E. TFTP
F. SSH
Answer: A,B,C

Which three statements about OTV are true? (Choose three.)
A. An internal interface is a Layer 2 interface on the edge device that connects to the
VLANs that are to be extended. These VLANs typically form a Layer 2 domain known as a
site and can contain site-based switches or site-based routers. The internal interface is a
Layer 2 access or trunk interface regardless of whether the internal interface connects to a
switch or a router.
B. An external interface is a Layer 2 interface on the edge device that connects to the
VLANs that are to be extended. These VLANs typically form a Layer 2 domain known as a
site and can contain site-based switches or site-based routers. The external interface is a
Layer 2 access or trunk interface regardless of whether the external interface connects to a
switch or a router.
C. An overlay interface is a logical multiaccess multicast-capable interface. The overlay
interface encapsulates Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast headers.
D. An overlay interface is a logical multiaccess multicast-capable interface. The overlay
interface encapsulates Layer 3 frames in IP unicast or multicast headers.
E. The join interface is one of the uplink interfaces of the edge device. The join interface is
a point-to-point routed interface. The edge device joins an overlay network through this
interface. The IP address of this interface is used to advertise reachability of a MAC
address that is present in this site.
178

F. The join interface is one of the uplink interfaces of the edge device. The join interface is
a point-to-point routed interface. The edge device joins an overlay VLAN through this
interface. The IP address of this interface is used to advertise reachability of a MAC
address that is present in this VLAN.
Answer: A,C,E

Which three statements about ERSPAN are correct? (Choose three.)
A. All ERSPAN replication is performed in the hardware. The supervisor CPU is not
involved.
B. ERSPAN and ERSPAN ACLs are supported for packets generated by the supervisor.
C. You can configure a port as both a source and destination port.
D. ERSPAN is not supported for management ports.
E. A destination port can be configured in only one ERSPAN session at a time.
F. Management ports support ERSPAN.
Answer: A,D,E

You find that a vFC interface is down. Although the switch sent a VLAN response, the
response was not received by the CNA, which caused the vFC interface to go down. Which
statement describes the most probable cause of this problem?
A. DCBX is misconfigured.
B. CNA does not support FCoE.
C. CoS settings are mismatched between the switch and the host.
D. The VLAN ID of the bound interface to the vFC is a non-FCoE VLAN ID.
E. There is a firmware issue on the FCoE driver.
Answer: D

179
Which two statements about the diagram are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS Manager is set to FC switching mode.
B. Cisco UCS Manager is set to FC end-host mode.
C. The topology is not supported.
D. The uplinks from each FI can carry multiple VSANs.
E. The uplinks from each FI can carry a single VSAN only.
Answer: B,D

Which two actions must be done before configuring iSCSI boot for a server? (Choose two.)
180

A. The storage array must be licensed for iSCSI boot.
B. The operating system must be iBFT-compatible.
C. Zoning must be configured.
D. Boot parameters must be configured in the global group policy.
E. IP subnet of iSCSI initiator has to be in the same subnet as that of storage array.
Answer: A,B

Which four statements about NetFlow configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch
are true? (Choose four.)
A. You must configure a source interface. If you do not configure a source interface, the
exporter will remain in a disabled state.
B. You must configure a valid record name for every flow monitor.
C. If you add a member to a port channel that is already configured for Layer 2 NetFlow, its
NetFlow configuration is removed and the Layer 2 configuration of the port channel is
added to it.
D. If you change a Layer 2 interface to a Layer 3 interface, NetFlow configuration on the
interface will automatically switch to Layer 3 mode.
E. Use v9 export to see the full 32-bit SNMP ifIndex values at the NetFlow connector.
F. NetFlow is a licensed feature and is available only in the
LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
Answer: A,B,C,E

Which two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose
two.)
A. virtual supervisor module
B. virtual Ethernet module
C. virtual machine NICs
D. virtual machine kernel NICs
E. virtual interface card
Answer: A,B
181

The servers in this network are connected to an A-B SAN design. What is required for
hosts to support a high-availability Fibre Channel connection to a storage controller?
A. Multipath drivers should be installed on all the servers.
B. Multipath drivers should be installed on the CNA of S1 and S3.
C. High availability for Fibre Channel is controlled by the storage controller, and there is no
need to add or make changes on the server side.
D. S1 and S3 require that multipath drivers are installed, but S2 does not.
E. Multipath drivers should be installed on all CNAs of all servers.
Answer: A

182
Which two options describe information that can be determined from this output? (Choose
two.)
A. Interface eth1/5 is configured as an uplink.
B. Jumbo frames have been configured on the best-effort class.
C. Packets are being dropped on the interface.
D. PFC is disabled on the system.
E. The default CoS configuration is being used.
Answer: B,E
Drag and drop the DIMM bank color on the left in the correct order of population for a B230
server on the right.
183

Answer:

Drag and drop the actions on the left to the correct order for a step-by-step FCIP link
configuration on the right.
Answer:
184

What is the maximum combination of static vNICs and vHBAs for Cisco UCS Manager
version 2.1 when using ESX 5.1?
A. 18 eNICs and 8 fNICs
B. 24 eNICs and 8 fNICs
C. 12 eNICs and 8 fNICs
D. 18 eNICs and 9 fNICs
Answer: A

Which three predictors are supported on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client
request? (Choose three.)
A. Hash Address, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the
source IP address, the destination IP address, or both
B. Hash URL, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the
requested URL
C. Hash MAC, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the source
MAC address, the destination MAC address, or both
D. Hash Header, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the HTTP
header name
E. Highest bandwidth, selects the server that processed the highest amount of network
traffic based on the average bandwidth that the server used over a specified number of
samples
F. First Come First Server, always selects the first server in the list of real servers.
Answer: A,B,D

185
Assuming that all blades are equipped with Cisco UCS VIC 1280 adapters, which two
statements can be confirmed from the output? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IOM model is a 2104XP.
B. The Cisco IOM model is a 2204XP.
C. The Cisco IOM model is a 2208XP.
D. Blades 3, 4, 5, and 8 are missing.
E. Blades 3, 4, 5, and 8 are not associated with a service profile.
F. Link Group Preference is set to Port Channel.
Answer: B,D

In one-armed design, which method must be used to achieve symmetric load balancing in
ACE?
A. Dual NAT
B. Round Robin
C. Dynamic Routing Protocol
D. MAC Probe
Answer: A
186

In a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch with both M1 and F1 modules, which two topologies are valid
vPC topologies? (Choose two)
A)
B)
187
C)
188
D)
189
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: A,C

After configuring FabricPath, the following message appears in the syslog:
%STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking
port port-channel100 on VLAN0010.
What is a possible reason for this message?
A. Spanning tree must be disabled, and the message indicates that STP is enabled.
190

B. STP is misconfigured. The root guard must be disabled.
C. An inferior BPDU was received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
D. A superior BPDU was received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
Answer: D

The OTV overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface that
must be explicitly defined by the user, and is the location where the entire OTV
configuration is applied. Which two statements about the OTV overlay interface are true?
(Choose two.)
A. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data
center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet
and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data
center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet
and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
E. The OTV edge device performs the static OTV encapsulation on the Layer 3 packet and
sends it to the join interface toward the switching domain.
Answer: A,B
191

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[ Total Questions: 375 ]

Cisco 350-080 : Practice Test

Topic 1: Cisco Data Center Architecture 4

Topic 3: Cisco Storage Networking

Topic 4: Cisco Data Center

Topic 5: Cisco Unified Computing

Topic 6: Cisco Application Networking

Topic 7: Mix Questions

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Topic 2, Cisco Data Center InfrastructureCisco NX-OS

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A. Two IP addresses, one for each supervisor

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Question No : 46 DRAG DROP - (Topic 2)

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Question No : 61 DRAG DROP - (Topic 2)

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