Cisco 200-301 v2020-11-17 q75

Cisco.200-301.v2020-11-17.
q75
Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: CCNA Exam
Certification Provider: Cisco
Free Question Number: 75
Version: v2020-11-17
# of views: 109
# of Questions views: 750
https://www.freecram.com/torrent/Cisco.200-301.v2020-11-17.q75.html
NEW QUESTION: 1
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose
two)
A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again
B. when the cable length limits are exceeded
C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
D. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used
E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted
Answer: B,C
Explanation
The usual possible causes are full-duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable length
limits, or defective hardware such as incorrect cabling, non-compliant number of hubs in the
network, or a bad NIC.
NEW QUESTION: 2
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch
and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be
configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
A. R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)#ip helper-address 198.51.100.100
B. R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)#ip address dhcp
C. R1(config)# interface fa0/0
D. R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)#ip address dhcp
R1(config-if)# no shutsown
E. R1(config)# interface fa0/0
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION: 3
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1
and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this
interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
A. port-to-multipoint
B. nonbroadcast
C. broadcast
D. point-to-point
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 4
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC
address is received?
A. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
B. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC
address table
C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 5
Which function docs an SNMP agent perform?
A. it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS
server
B. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS
C. it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.
D. it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 6
What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding
decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
A. policy plane
B. control plane
C. management plane
D. data plane
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 7
A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP
All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to
switch A accomplishes this task?
A. Option A
B. Option C
C. Option B
D. Option D
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 8
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths Which parameter
does the router use to select the best path?
A. as-path
B. adminstrative distance
C. metric
D. cost
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 9
Which switch becomes the root bridge?
A. S4
B. S3
C. S1
D. S2
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 10
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
is true?
A. When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps
B. The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"
C. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic
D. To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 11
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ
in regards to deployment?
A. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with
Cisco DNA Center device management
B. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most
traditional campus device management options
C. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional
campus device management
D. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates
more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 12
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
A. Integrated Services Digital Network switching.
B. dedicated point-to-point leased line
C. broadband cable access
D. frame-relay packet switching
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 13
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which
type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
A. point-to-multipoint
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. nonbroadcast
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 14
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit
collisions?
A. 1,5,10
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,6.11
D. 5,6,7
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 15
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

A. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.
B. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.
D. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 16
What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?
A. register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.
B. monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs
C. send LWAPP packets to access points.
D. use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.
Answer: D
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NEW QUESTION: 17
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Answer:
Explanation
NIC vendor OUI -> 00:0C:22NIC MAC address -> 00:0C:22:83:79:A3default gateway ->
192.168.1.193host IP address -> 192.168.1.200subnet mask -> 255.255.255.192 The "ip route"
and "ip addr show eth1" are Linux commands.+ "ip route": display the routing table+ "ip addr
show eth1": get depth information (only on eth1 interface) about your network interfaces like IP
Address, MAC Address information
NEW QUESTION: 18
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
A. WSA
B. ASA
C. Firepower
D. FireSIGHT
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 19
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
A. IKEv2
B. MD5
C. IPsec
D. IKEv1
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 20
What is the effect of this configuration?

A. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch
B. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.
C. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted
D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.
Answer: D
Explanation
Dynamic ARP inspection is an ingress security feature; it does not perform any egress checking.
NEW QUESTION: 21
An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored
in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to
manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these
requirements?
A. SW1
B. SW2
C. SW4
D. SW3
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 22
Which output displays a JSON data representation?
A. Option C
B. Option B
C. Option A
D. Option D
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 23
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0005.3711.0975
C. 0000.0C07.AC99
D. 0007.C070/AB01
Answer: A
Explanation
With VRRP, the virtual router's MAC address is 0000.5E00.01xx , in which xx is the VRRP group.
NEW QUESTION: 24
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the
packet?
A. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1
B. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1
C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
D. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 25
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 1729.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Answer: B
Explanation
The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below:
Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Class B private IP address
ranges from
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to
192.168.255.255 Only the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).
NEW QUESTION: 26
What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?
A. lowest path cost to the toot bridge
B. lowest neighbor's bridge ID
C. local port ID
D. lowest neighbor's port ID
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 27
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure VTY access.
B. Assign a DNS domain name
C. Configure the version of SSH
D. Create a user with a password.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 28
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for
the interface conditions?(choose two)
A. The interface is error-disabled
B. There is a speed mismatch
C. There is a protocol mismatch
D. There is a duplex mismatch
E. The interface is shut down
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION: 29
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this
configuration?
A. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords
B. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch
C. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established
D. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 30
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
A. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.
B. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party
SDKs.
C. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.
D. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 31
which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?
A. unique local
B. link-local
C. global unicast
D. multicast
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 32
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
A. overlay
B. underlay
C. northbound
D. southbound
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 33
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops
B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
C. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.
D. It provides variable latency
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 34
How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.
B. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
C. The EthernetChannel must be configured in "mode active".
D. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 35
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
A. ip address dhcp
B. ip helper-address
C. ip dhcp pool
D. ip dhcp client
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 36
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
A. auto
B. mode on
C. passive
D. active
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 37
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic
redundancy checks only.
B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP
uses retransmissions only.
C. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements
only.
D. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 38
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security
organization.
The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious
code. Which type of security program is in place?
A. Social engineering attack
B. user awareness
C. brute force attack
D. Physical access control
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 39
What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

A. 172.16.15.10
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 10.10.10.20
D. 10.10.1.10
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 40
What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?
A. FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC
B. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP
C. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC
D. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is
configured
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 41
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
A. YAML
B. JSON
C. EBCDIC
D. SGML
E. XML
Answer: B,E
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-
x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST
NEW QUESTION: 42
Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
A. default route
B. host route
C. floating static route
D. network route
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 43
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
A. It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that
have the same link metric.
B. It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single
destination.
C. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default
gateway of a network.
D. It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 44
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
A. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload
B. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them
C. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple
types of authentication
D. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only
start, stop, and interim commands
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 45
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
A. 2000::/3
B. FF00::/12
C. FE80::/10
D. FC00::/7
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 46
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic
Desirable What is the result of this configuration?
A. The link becomes a trunk port.
B. The link is in an error disables state
C. The link is in a down state.
D. The link is becomes an access port.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 47
Refer to exhibit.
Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

A. It belongs to a private IP address range.
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. IT is a network IP address.
D. It is a broadcast IP address
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 48
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
B. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value
C. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
D. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 49
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is
derived from the MAC address of that interface?
A. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
B. enable SLAAC on an interface
C. explicitly assign a link-local address
D. disable the EUI-64 bit process
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 50
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )
A. OpenFlow
B. NETCONF
C. Thrift
D. CORBA
E. DSC
Answer: A,B
Explanation
OpenFlow is a well-known southbound API. OpenFlow defines the way the SDN Controller should
interact with the forwarding plane to make adjustments to the network, so it can better adapt to
changing business requirements.
The Network Configuration Protocol (NetConf) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) to
install, manipulate and delete configuration to network devices.
NEW QUESTION: 51
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct
security mechanism categories on the right.
Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 52
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco
Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
A. SSID
B. Ip address of one or more access points
C. QoS settings
D. management interface settings
E. Profile name
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION: 53
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
A. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send
data to the controller
B. Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller
C. Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller.
D. The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to
the controller.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 54
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
A. Telnet must be disabled on the switch
B. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image
C. A console password must be configured on the switch
D. The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch
E. IP routing must be enabled on the switch
Answer: B,D
NEW QUESTION: 55
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)
A. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address
B. encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default
C. builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations
D. improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
E. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION: 56
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are
incremented?
(Choose two)
A. runts
B. giants
C. frame
D. CRC
E. input errors
Answer: D,E
Explanation
Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame
whose bits have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as
implemented in the FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and
counts it as some kind of input error.
Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to
how the FCS math detects an error.
The "input errors" includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts.
The output below show the interface counters with the "show interface s0/0/0" command:
NEW QUESTION: 57
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources
B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage
C. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is
separate from the hypervisor
D. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 58
which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?
A. 10.10.10.0/28
B. 209.165.200.0/27
C. 0.0.0.0/0
D. 10.10.13.0/24
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 59
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they
mitigate on the right.
Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 60
Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established
between the two routers?
A. R2 should have its network command in area 1
B. R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0
C. R2 is using the passive-interface default command
D. R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 61
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
A. 192.168.16.0/27
B. 192.168 26.0/26
C. 192.168.16.0/24
D. 192.168.16.0/21
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 62
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer
environment.
Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 63
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding
decisions
C. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI
D. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION: 64
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be
configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224
C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 65
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
A. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them
B. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses
C. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP
addresses
D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.
E. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION: 66
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

A. 3184439
B. 38443
C. 0
D. 110
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 67
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three
addresses
192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?
A. Option B
B. Option C
C. Option A
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 68
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a
single network device? (Choose two)
A. Verify the time zone.
B. Disable NTP broadcasts
C. Enable NTP authentication.
D. Set the NTP server private key
E. Specify the IP address of the NTP server
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION: 69
What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20,
with IP address
10.20.20.1/24?
A. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
C. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
D. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 70
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which
configuration accomplishes this task?
A. Option C
B. Option D
C. Option A
D. Option B
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 71
If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to
interface FastEthernet 0/1?
A. access point
B. DHCP client
C. router
D. PC
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 72
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
A. Silver
B. Platinum
C. Bronze
D. Gold
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 73
Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685
B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0
C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary
D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 74
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum
number of characters that in ASCll format?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 18
D. 6
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 75
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
A. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is
generated
B. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it
assumes the device has failed and disconnects
C. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown
and err-disabled
D. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is
temporarily paused
Answer: C

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Cisco.200-301.v2020-11-17.

Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

What is the effect of this configuration?

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

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