ELECTRONIC ENGG.

46. Permeability is the inverse equivalent of which electrical term? (1) Conductance (3) Impedance 47. (2) Admittance (4) None of these

The component that produces power in an electromagnetic generator is called the: (1) Armature (3) Field winding (2) Pole (4) Brush

48.

Electromagnetism is the: (1) (2) (3) (4) Action between a permanent and artificial magnet Magnetic field action with a current carrying wire Magnetic field caused by a permanent magnet None of these

49.

Which two values are plotted on a BH Curve? (1) (2) (3) (4) Reluctance and flux density Permeabilty and magnetising force Flux density and magnetising force Permeability and reluctance

50.

Lag between flux density and magnetising force is known as: (1) Magnetic saturation (3) Hysteresis (2) Core saturation (4) None of These

51.

Light may be propagated along a fiber optic cable in which of the following modes? (1) (2) (3) (4) Single mode step index Multimode graded index Multimode step index All of the above

52.

Which one of the following is one of the example of Active Device: (1) TRIAC (3) Microphone (2) Transformer (4) Speaker

53.

A non inverting closed loop opamp circuit generally has a gain factor: (1) Less than one (3) Of zero (2) Equal to one (4) Greater than one

54.

OP AMP used as high and low pass filter circuits employ which configuration? (1) Non inverting (3) Open loop (2) Inverting (4) None of the above

55.

The major difference between ground and virtual ground is only: (1) Current reference (3) Power reference (2) Voltage reference (4) None of the above

56.

The Schmitt trigger is used for: (1) (2) (3) (4) Input noise reduction Bandwidth detection Gain enhancing Pulse shaping

57.

The value of VGS that makes ID approximate zero is the: (1) Cut off voltage (3) Saturation voltage (2) Pinchoff voltage (4) Breakdown voltage
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58.

Which of the following is subject to damage from electrostatic discharge: (1) JFET (3) SCR (2) BJT (4) MOSFET

59.

High input resistance for a JFET is due to: (1) (2) (3) (4) Large input resistor to the device A metal oxide layer Intrinsic semiconductor The gatesource junction being reversebiased

60.

What is the typical value for the input impedance Z i for JFETs? (1) 100 ohms (3) 100 mega Ohms (2) 100 Kilo ohms (4) 1000 Mega Ohms

61.

MOSFETs make better power switches than BJTs because they have: (1) (2) (3) (4) Lower turn off times A positive temperature coefficient Lower on state resistance All of the above

62.

Which of the following instruments allows more precise measurement of the harmonic components of a distorted signal? (1) Spectrum Analyser (3) XY Recorder (2) CRO (4) Wave analyzer

63.

Schottky diodes are also known as: (1) Tunnel diodes (3) Zener diodes (2) PIN diodes (4) Hot carrier diodes

64.

How many transistors must be used in a class B power amplifier to obtain the output for the full cycle of the signal? (1) 1 (3) 3 (2) 2 (4) 4

65.

A laser diode normally emits: (1) (2) (3) (4) Normal light Ultraviolet Coherent and monochromatic light Infrared

66.

What diode operates only with majority carriers? (1) Tunnel (3) Schottky (2) Laser (4) Step recovery

67.

Which amplifier is commonly used as a frequency multiplier? (1) Class A (3) Class C (2) Class B (4) None of the above

68.

What metal(s) is (are) used in the construction of Schottky diodes? (1) Silicon (3) Platinum (2) Tungston (4) Any one of the above

69.

What causes the piezoelectric effect? (1) (2) (3) (4) A magnetic field Pressure on crystal An electric field None of the above

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70.

The gate that assumes the 1 state, if and only if the input does not take a 1 state is called _____? (1) AND gate (3) NOR gate (2) NOT gate (4) Both (2) & (3)

71.

A phase shift oscillator uses _________? (1) (2) (3) (4) LC tuning Piezoelectric crystal Balanced bridge Variable frequency operation

72.

Transistor is a: (1) (2) (3) (4) Current controlled current device. Current controlled voltage device. Voltage controlled current device. Voltage controlled voltage device.

73.

A bistable multivibrator is a: (1) (3) (2) (4) Free running oscillator. Saw tooth wave generator. Triggered oscillator. Crystal oscillator.

74.

For a JFET, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch off voltage, the drain current: (1) (2) (3) (4) Increases Decreases Remains constant. First decreases and then increases.

75.

The type of power amplifier which exhibits crossover distortion in its output is: (1) Class A (3) Class AB (2) Class B (4) Class C

76.

The main advantage of a crystal oscillator is that its output is: (1) (2) (3) (4) 50Hz to 60Hz Variable frequency A constant frequency D.C

77.

Fermi energy level for ntype extrinsic semiconductors lies: (1) (3) (2) (4) At middle of the band gap Close to valence band Close to conduction band None of these

78.

In a bistable multivibrator circuit, commutating capacitor is used: (1) (2) (3) (4) To increase the base storage charge To provide ac coupling To increase the speed of response To provide the speed of oscillations

79.

The term "hex inverter" refers to: (1) (2) (3) (4) An inverter that has six inputs Six inverters in a single package A sixinput symbolic logic device An inverter that has a history of failure

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80.

When reading a Boolean expression, what does the word "NOT" indicate? (1) The same as (3) High (2) INVERSION (4) Low

81.

What type of circuit is used at the interface point of an output port? (1) Decoder (3) Tristate buffer (2) Latch (4) None of the above

82.

The register in the 8085A that is used to keep track of the memory address of the next opcode to be run in the program is the: (1) Stack pointer (3) Instruction pointer (2) Program counter (4) Accumulator

83.

Which statement below best describes a Karnaugh map? (1) (2) (3) (4) A Karnaugh map can be used to replace Boolean rules. The Karnaugh map eliminates the need for using NAND and NOR gates. Variable complements can be eliminated by using Karnaugh maps. Karnaugh maps provide a cookbook approach to simplifying Boolean expressions.

84.

You have a lightdimmer circuit using an SCR. In testing the circuit, you find that IG = 0 mA and the light is still on. You conclude that the trouble might be one of the following: (1) (2) (3) (4) The SCR is open. The switch is faulty. The gate circuit is shorted. This is normal; nothing is wrong.

85.

Your boss has asked you to recommend a thyristor that will enable you to turn it on with a pulse and also turn it off with a pulse. Which of the following should you recommend? (1) An SCR (3) A PUT (2) An SCS (4) A triac

86.

Calculate the input voltage if R1 = 100, Rf = 1 k, and Vout = 550 mV: (1) 50 mV (3) 550 mV (2) 5 mV (4) None of these

87.

The output stage of an opamp is usually a: (1) (2) (3) (4) Complementary emitter follower. Transformer coupled class B amplifier. Class A power amplifier. Class B amplifier.

88.

High Level modulation best suited Amplifier is: (1) Class A (3) Class C (2) Class B (4) Class AB

89.

Primary component of uplink section of satellite is: (1) (2) (3) (4) Transformer Transistor Earth station transmitter Power station transmitter

90.

Bandwidth of FM signal is than AM signal: (1) (2) (3) (4) Lesser Either lesser or larger Larger None of these
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91.

In AM modulation, when the modulation index increases, transmitted power is: (1) Constant (3) Decreased (2) Increased (4) None of these

92.

Video signals in TV are: (1) (2) (3) (4) Amplitude modulated de modulated Frequency modulated None of these

93.

Just as a voltage amplifier amplifies signalvoltage, a power amplifier: (1) (2) (3) (4) Amplifies power Amplifies signal current Merely converts the signal ac power into the dc power Merely converts the dc power into useful ac power

94.

A radio frequency signal contains three frequency components, 870 KHz, 875 KHz and 880 KHz. The signal needs to be amplified. The amplifier used should be: (1) (2) (3) (4) Audio frequency amplifier Wide band amplifier Tuned voltage amplifier Pushpull amplifier

95.

When a sinusoidal voltage wave is fed to a Schmitt trigger, the output will be: (1) (2) (3) (4) Triangular wave Asymmetric square wave Rectangular wave Trapezoidal wave

96.

On an ideally matched transmission line VSWR is: (1) 0 (3) 1 dB (2) 1 (4) None of these

97.

The DSB-SC signal can be detected by: (1) An envelope detector (3) Both the above (2) A synchronous detector (4) None of these

98.

Normal TV transmission uses following modulations for Video and Audio respectively: (1) FM and AM (3) VSB and FM (2) SSB and AM (4) None of these

99.

The power in the FM signal is: (1) (2) (3) (4) Always constant Varies linearly with amplitude of the modulating signal Varies as square of the amplitude of the modulating signal None of these

100. Choose the correct statement: (1) (2) (3) (4) FM is always better than AM AM is always better than FM AM is better than FM if input carrier-to-noise ratio is very low at the receiver None of these

101. A power supply has a no load voltage of 12V. If its voltage regulation is 100%, its full load voltage will be: (1) 3 V (3) 9 V (2) 6 V (4) 12 V

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102. The regulation of an ideal rectifier should be: (1) Infinity (3) Negative (2) Zero (4) Positive

103. If two identical diodes are connected in parallel in a circuit, then the total output current for the diodes will be: (1) Half (3) Double (2) Same (4) Four times

104. Harmonic distortion in an amplifier is caused due to: (1) (2) (3) (4) Feed back from o/p to input Presence of white noise Active device non-linearity Shot noise

105. Application of negative feedback in an amplifier increases its: (1) Voltage gain (3) Bandwidth (2) Harmonic Distortion (4) Phase Distortion

106. Which microwave device uses buncher and catcher cavities: (1) (2) (3) (4) Magnetron Klystron Reflex klystron TW T

107. Contrast in TV is controlled by: (1) (2) (3) (4) AC voltage in the video signal DC voltage in the video signal Both AC and DC voltage in the video signal None of these

108. The gain of a radar transmitting antenna is: (1) (2) (3) (4) Less than that of radar receiving antenna Almost equal to that of radar receiving antenna Slightly higher than that of a radar receiving antenna Much higher than that of radar receiving antenna

109. The fastest logic gate is: (1) ECL (3) DCIL (2) MoS (4) RIL

110. The op-amplifier circuit shown in the figure is a:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Current amplifier Current to voltage converter Voltage amplifier Voltage to current converter

111. Which of the following is not the property of ideal op-amp: (1) (2) (3) (4) Infinite gain Infinite bandwidth Infinite input impedance Infinite output impedance

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112. Counters can be used for the measurement of: (1) Frequency and time (3) Frequency only (2) Time only (4) None of these

113. In a SR flip-flop, when both S & R is 1, then o/p: (1) (2) (3) (4) Is 1 Is 0 Oscillates between 1 & 0 Is indeterminate or ambiguous

114. In order to separate channels in time division multiplexing receiver, it is necessary to use: (1) AND gate (3) Differentiator (2) Band pass filter (4) Integrator

115. Which of the following material is NOT a semiconductor? (1) Silica (3) Selenium (2) Germanium (4) GalliumArsenide

116. A MOSFET can be used as: (1) Resistor (3) Switch (2) Capacitor (4) All the above

117. For operation of Depletion type MOSFET the gate voltage is kept.: (1) Positive (3) Zero (2) Highly positive (4) Negative

118. The purpose of capacitor in a transistor amplifier is to: (1) (2) (3) (4) To protect the transistor Cool the transistor Couple or bypass a.c component Provide biasing

119. Negative feedback in an amplifier: (1) (2) (3) (4) Decreases distortion and noise level Increases gain stability Increases input impedance and decreases output impedance All the above

120. An ideal OpAmp draws: (1) (2) (3) (4) Zero current Sum of the two input currents Difference of the two input currents Infinite current

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