Gate by RK Kanodia

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
Electronics & Communication Engineering

Fifth Edition
R. K. Kanodia
B.Tech.
NODIA & COMAPNY

JAIPUR
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CHAPTER
1.1
BASIC CONCEPTS
1. A solid copper sphere, 10 cm in diameter is deprived of 10
20
(A) 1 A (C) 3 A
(B) 2 A (D) 4 A
electrons by a charging scheme. The charge on (B) -160.2 C (D) -16.02 C
the sphere is (A) 160.2 C (C) 16.02 C
6. In the circuit of fig P1.1.6 a charge of 600 C is delivered to the 100 V source in a 1 minute. The value of v1 must be
v1
2. A lightning bolt carrying 15,000 A lasts for 100 m s. If the lightning strikes an airplane flying at 2 km, the charge deposited on the plane is (A) 13.33 m C (C) 1500 m C (B) 75 C (D) 1.5 C
20 W
60 V
3. If 120 C of charge passes through an electric conductor in 60 sec, the current in the conductor is (A) 0.5 A (C) 3.33 mA (B) 2 A (D) 0.3 mA (A) 240 V (C) 60 V 4. The energy required to move 120 coulomb through 3 V is (A) 25 mJ (C) 40 J 5. i = ?
1A 5A
100 V
Fig. P.1.1.6
(B) 120 V (D) 30 V
7. In the circuit of the fig P1.1.7, the value of the (B) 360 J (D) 2.78 mJ
+ +
voltage source E is
0V 2V 1V
E
+
i 2A 3A
4V
5V 10 V
Fig. P.1.1.7
4A
(A) -16 V
Fig. P.1.1.5
(b) 4 V (D) 16 V
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Networks
8. Consider the circuit graph shown in fig. P1.1.8. Each branch of circuit graph represent a circuit element. The value of voltage v1 is
+ 105 V + 65 V 100 V
30 V
12. v1 = ?
+ v1 1 kW 7V
kW
15 V +
10 V + + 55 V + 35 V
+ 30 V
8V 5V
+ v1
kW
4 kW
6V
Fig. P1.1.12 Fig. P.1.1.8
(A) -30 V (C) -20 V
(B) 25 V (D) 15 V
(A) -11 V (C) 8 V
(B) 5 V (D) 18 V
9. For the circuit shown in fig P.1.1.9 the value of voltage vo is

5W
+ vo
13. The voltage vo in fig. P1.1.11 is always equal to

1A + vo 5V 4W
15 V
1A
Fig. P1.1.11 Fig. P.1.1.9
(A) 1 V (C) 9 V
(B) 5 V (D) None of the above
(A) 10 V (C) 20 V 10. R1 = ?

60 W
(B) 15 V (D) None of the above
14. Req = ?
5W 10 W 10 W 10 W
Req
+ R1 100 V R2 + 20 V 70 V
10 W
10 W
10 W
up to
Fig. P1.1.14
(A) 11.86 W (C) 25 W 15. vs = ?
(B) 10 W (D) 11.18 W
Fig. P.1.1.10
(A) 25 W (C) 100 W
(B) 50 W (D) 2000 W

vs
180 W + 60 W 40 W 90 W 20 V
11. Twelve 6 W resistor are used as edge to form a cube. The resistance between two diagonally opposite corner of the cube is 5 (A) W 6 (C) 5 W
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180 W
(B)
6 W 5 (A) 320 V (C) 240 V
Fig. P.1.1.15
(D) 6 W
(B) 280 V (D) 200 V

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Networks
24. Let i( t) = 3te-100 t A and v( t) = 0.6(0.01 - t) e -100 t V for the network of fig. P.1.1.24. The power being absorbed by the network element at t = 5 ms is
i + v N
28. vab = ?
R 2 8 A
i1 b 0.3i1
W
0.2i1
A 2
W
Fig. P.1.1.24
(A) 18.4 m W (C) 16.6 m W
(B) 9.2 m W (D) 8.3 m W (A) 15.4 V (C) -2.6 V
Fig. P.1.1.28
(B) 2.6 V (D) 15.4 V
25. In the circuit of fig. P.1.1.25 bulb A uses 36 W when lit, bulb B uses 24 W when lit, and bulb C uses 14.4 W when lit. The additional A bulbs in parallel to this circuit, that would be required to blow the fuse is
20 A
29. In the circuit of fig. P.1.1.29 power is delivered by

500 W ix 40 V 2ix 200 W 400 W
12 V A B C
Fig. P.1.1.29
Fig. P.1.1.25
(A) dependent source of 192 W (B) dependent source of 368 W (C) independent source of 16 W (D) independent source of 40 W 30. The dependent source in fig. P.1.1.30
5W
(A) 4 (C) 6
(B) 5 (D) 7
26. In the circuit of fig. P.1.1.26, the power absorbed by the load RL is
i1
1V
1W
2i1
RL = 2 W
20 V
v1
5W
v1 5
Fig. P.1.1.26
(A) 2 W (C) 6 W 27. vo = ?

+ v1 0.3v1
(B) 4 W (D) 8 W (A) delivers 80 W (C) absorbs 40 W
Fig. P.1.1.30
(B) delivers 40 W (D) absorbs 80 W
31. In the circuit of fig. P.1.1.31 dependent source

0.2 A 5W 8W + v2 5v2 18 W + vo
ix + 8V
Fig. P.1.1.27
4A
2ix
(A) 6 V (C) -12 V

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(B) -6 V (D) 12 V (A) supplies 16 W (C) supplies 32 W

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Fig. P.1.1.31
(B) absorbs 16 W (D) absorbs 32 W

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Basic Concepts
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Chap 1.1
32. A capacitor is charged by a constant current of 2 mA and results in a voltage increase of 12 V in a 10 sec interval. The value of capacitance is (A) 0.75 mF (C) 0.6 mF (B) 1.33 mF (D) 1.67 mF
36. The waveform for the current in a 200 m F capacitor is shown in fig. P.1.1.36 The waveform for the capacitor voltage is
i(mA) 5
33. The energy required to charge a 10 m F capacitor to 100 V is (A) 0.10 J (C) 5 10
-9
t(ms)
Fig. P. 1.1.36
(B) 0.05 J J (D) 10 10

-9
v 50m
34. The current in a 100 m F capacitor is shown in fig. P.1.1.34. If capacitor is initially uncharged, then the waveform for the voltage across it is
i(mA)
v 250m
t(ms)
t(ms)
(A)
v 50m
(B)
t(ms)
t(ms)
t(ms)
(C)
(D)
Fig. P. 1.1.34
v 10 10 v
37. Ceq = ?
2.5 mF
2 v 0.2 2
t(ms)
2 v 0.2
t(ms)
1.5 mF Ceq 1 mF 2 mF
(A)
t(ms)
(B)
t(ms)
(C)
(D)
Fig. P.1.1.37
35. The voltage across a 100 m F capacitor is shown in fig. P.1.1.35. The waveform for the current in the capacitor is
v 6 t(ms)
(A) 3.5 m F (C) 2.4 m F
(B) 1.2 m F (D) 2.6 m F
38. In the circuit shown in fig. P.1.1.38

1 2 3
iin ( t) = 300 sin 20 t mA, for t 0.

C2 + vin C1 C1 C1 C1 60 mF C2 C2 C2
Fig. P.1.1.35
i(mA) 6 t(ms) i(mA) 600
iin
1 2 3 1 2 3 t(ms)
(A)
i(mA) 6 2 1 3 t(ms) i(mA) 600
(B)
Fig. P. 1.1.38
2 1
t(ms)
Let C1 = 40 m F and C2 = 30 m F. All capacitors are initially uncharged. The vin ( t) would be (A) -0.25cos 20t V (C) -36cos 20t mV (B) 0.25cos 20t V (D) 36cos 20t mV
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Chap 1.1
SOLUTIONS
1. (C) n = 10 20 , Q = ne = e10 20 = 16.02 C Charge on sphere will be positive. 2. (D) DQ = i D t = 15000 100m = 15 . C 3. (B) i = dQ 120 = =2 A dt 60
v3 - 30 = v2
v3 = 65 V v4 = 25 V
105 + v4 - v3 - 65 = 0
v4 + 15 - 55 + v1 = 0 v1 = 15 V 9. (B) Voltage is constant because of 15 V source. 10. (C) Voltage across 60 W resistor = 30 V 30 Current = = 0.5 A 60 Voltage across R1 is = 70 - 20 = 50 V 50 = 100 W R1 = 0.5 11. (C) The current i will be distributed in the cube branches symmetrically
4. (B) W = Qv = 360 J 6. (A)

1A 5A i=1A 2A 3A 1A 2A
i i 3 i 3
i 3
4A
6A
Fig. S 1.1.5
i 6
6. (A) In order for 600 C charge to be delivered to the 100 V source, the current must be anticlockwise. dQ 600 i= = = 10 A dt 60 Applying KVL we get v1 + 60 - 100 = 10 20 or v1 = 240 V 7. (A) Going from 10 V to 0 V
0V
+ +
i 3
Fig. S. 1.1.11
vab =
6i 6i 6i + + = 5 i, 3 6 3 v Req = ab = 5 W i
2V
1V
12. (C) If we go from +side of 1 kW through 7 V, 6 V and 5 V, we get v1 = 7 + 6 - 5 = 8 V
+ 4V
+ +
E 5V 10 V
13. (D) It is not possible to determine the voltage across 1 A source. 14. (D) Req = 5 + 10 ( Req + 5) 10 + 5 + Req
5W 5W
Fig. S 1.1.7
10 + 5 + E + 1 = 0 or E = -16 V 8. (D) 100 = 65 + v2

+ 65 V 100 V + v2
+ 105 V
v2 = 35 V
+ v4
15 V +
10 V + + 55 V
Req 10 W Req
+ v3
V 30
+ v1
+ 30 V
Fig. S 1.1.14
2 Req + 15 Req = 5 Req + 75 + 10 Req + 50
Fig. S 1.1.8
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Chap 1.1
vo - 20 vo 20 + = 5 5 5 Power is P = vo
vo = 20 V
20 v1 = 20 = 80 W 5 5
We can say Cd = 20 mF, Ceq = 20 + 40 = 60 mF 1 1 300 cos 20 t 10 -3 = - 0.25 cos 20 t V vC = idt= 60m 20 C 39. (C) iC1 = iin C1 = 0.8 sin 600 t mA C1 + C2
2 31. (D) Power P = vi = 2 ix ix = 2 ix
ix = 4 A, P = 32 W (absorb) 32. (D) vt 2 - vt1 = 1 C

t2
At t = 2 ms, iC1 = 0.75 mA 12 = 1 2m ( t2 - t1 ) C 40. (B) vC1 = 4 vin vin C2 = C1 + C2 6 + 4 vc1 = 0.4 vin Q = 0.1 F V L = 2 mH
t1
idt
12 C = 2m 10
C = 1.67 mF 41. (D) V = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10, Q = 1 C, C = di dt 200m 4m
1 33. (B) E = Cv 2 = 5 10 -6 100 2 = 0.05 J 2 1 34. (D) vc = c

2m
10 10 idt = (2 10 -3) = 0.2 V 10 -6 100 0
-3
42. (A) vL = L
100m = L
This 0.2 V increases linearly from 0 to 0.2 V. Then current is zero. So capacitor hold this voltage. 35. (D) i = C dv dt dv 6 -0 = 100 10 -6 = 600 mA dt 10 -3 - 0
43. (B) vL = L
di = 0.01 2( 377 cos 377 t) V dt
= 7.54 cos 377 t V 1 1 12000 120 cos 3t dt = vdt = sin 377 t 0.01 L 377 12000 120 P = vi = (sin 377 t)(cos 377 t) 377 44. (A) i = = 1910 sin 754 t W 45. (D) vL = L vC = 3vL diL dv , iC = C C dt dt d 2 iL = - 9.6 sin 4 t A dt
For 0 < t < 1 , C
For 1 ms < t < 2 ms, dv 0-6 C = 100 10 -6 = - 600 mA ( 3 - 2)m dt 36. (B) For 0 t 4, vC = 1 1 idt = 200 10 -6 C
4m tdt = 3125 t
5m
iC = 3 LC diL dt
At t = 4 ms, vc = 0.05 V It will be parabolic path. at t = 0 t-axis will be tangent. 37. (A) 2 m F is in parallel with 1 m F and this combination is in series with 1.5 m F. 15 . (2 + 1) = 1m F, C1 is in parallel with 2.5 m F C1 = 15 . +2+1 . mF Ceq = 1 + 2.5 = 35 30 60 30(20 + 40) 38. (A) Ca = = 20 mF, Cb = = 20 mF 30 + 60 30 + 20 + 0
Cd + iin vin C1 C1 C1 C1 60 mF C2 Cc C2 Cb C2 Ca C2
46. (B) vL = L For 2 < t 4, For 4 < t 8, For 8 < t 10,
-100 - 0 vL = (0.05) = - 2.5 V 2 100 + 100 vL = (0.05) = 2.5 V 4 0 - 100 vL = (0.05) = - 2.5 V 2
Thus (B) is correct option. 47. (C) Algebraic sum of the current entering or leaving a cutset is equal to 0. 6 16 i2 + i4 + i3 = 0 + + i3 = 0 2 4 i3 = - 7 A, v3 = - 7 3 = - 21 V
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CHAPTER
1.2
GRAPH THEORY
1. Consider the following circuits : Non-planner graphs are (A) 1 and 3 (C) 3 only (B) 4 only (D) 3 and 4
3. A graph of an electrical network has 4 nodes and 7 branches. The number of links l, with respect to the
(1) (2)
chosen tree, would be (A) 2 (C) 4 (B) 3 (D) 5
4. For the graph shown in fig. P.1.1.4 correct set is
(3)
(4)
Fig. P.1.1.4
The planner circuits are (A) 1 and 2 (C) 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (D) 4 and 1 (A) (B) 2. Consider the following graphs (C) (D) Node 4 4 5 5 6 6 6 5
Branch
Twigs 4 3 4 4
Link 2 3 2 1
5. A tree of the graph shown in fig. P.1.2.5 is

c a b d 2 e f g
(1)
(2)
Fig. P.1.2.5
(A) a d e h
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(C) a f h g
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Networks
1 -1 0 (A) -1 0 1 1 -1 0 -1 -1 0 (C) 0 1 1 1 0 -1
1 0 -1 (B) -1 -1 0 1 1 0 1 -1 0 (D) 0 1 -1 1 -1 0
13. The incidence matrix of a graph is as given below -1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 -1 1 1 0 A = 0 -1 0 -1 0 -1 1 0 0 0 -1 -1 The graph is

2 2
(C)
(D)
15. The incidence matrix of a graph is as given below -1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 -1 1 1 0 A = 0 -1 0 -1 0 0 1 0 0 0 -1 -1 The graph is
4 1 3 1
4 3
(A)
2
(B)
2
(A)
4 1 3 1 4 3
(B)
(C)
(D)
14. The incidence matrix of a graph is as given below - 1 0 0 - 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 A = 0 0 1 0 0 0 -1 0 1 0 0 -1 -1 0 1 -1 -1 0 0 0 0 The graph is

2 2
(C)
(D)
16. The graph of a network is shown in fig. P.1.1.16. The number of possible tree are
Fig. P.1.1.16
(A) 8
5 5
(B) 12 (D) 20
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Networks
22. The fundamental cut-set matrix of a graph is 1 -1 0 0 0 0 -1 1 0 1 QF = 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 -1 0 0 1 0 (C)

2 3 5 6 4 6 5
The oriented graph of the network is
(D)
1 3 4
24. A graph is shown in fig. P.1.2.24 in which twigs are solid line and links are dotted line. For this tree fundamental loop matrix is given as below 1 1 1 0 BF = 1 0 1 1
1
(A)
(B)
1 3 4 6
1 3 5 4 6
Fig. P.1.2.24
(C)
(D)
The oriented graph will be
23. A graph is shown in fig. P.1.2.23 in which twigs are solid line and links are dotted line. For this chosen tree fundamental set matrix is given below. 1 1 BF = 0 -1 0 0 0 1 0
3 2 4
0 1 1
1 0 1
0 0 1
(A)
(B)
Fig. P. 1.2.23
(C)
(D)
25. Consider the graph shown in fig. P.1.2.25 in which twigs are solid line and links are dotted line.
4 5 3
(A)
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Chap 1.2
A fundamental loop matrix for this tree is given as below 1 BF = 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 -1 -1 0 1 0 1 -1 0 1 0
1 0 (D) 0 -1
1 0 0
0 0 1
0 1 1 0
0 0 1 1
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 -1
0 0 0 1
27. Branch current and loop current relation are expressed in matrix form as i1 0 i 0 2 i3 1 i -1 4 = i5 1 i 0 6 i 7 0 0 i8 1 -1 0 -1 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 -1 I1 0 I 2 0 I 3 0 I 4 0 1
(A)
(B)
where i j represent branch current and I k loop current. The number of independent node equation are (A) 4 (C) 6 (C) (D) (B) 5 (D) 7
28. If the number of branch in a network is b, the number of nodes is n and the number of dependent loop is l, then the number of independent node equations will be (A) n + l - 1 (B) b - 1 (D) n - 1
26. In the graph shown in fig. P.1.2.26 solid lines are twigs and dotted line are link. The fundamental loop matrix is
i a c e
(C) b - n + 1 Statement for Q.2930:
Branch current and loop current relation are expressed in matrix form as 1 0 i1 0 0 i - 1 - 1 - 1 0 2 1 0 0 I1 i3 0 i 1 0 0 0 I 4 = 2 i 0 0 1 1 5 I 3 i 1 1 0 -1 I 4 6 i7 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 i8 where i j represent branch current and I k loop current. 29. The rank of incidence matrix is (A) 4 (C) 6 (B) 5 (D) 8
Fig. P.1.2.26
1 0 (A) 0 -1
1 0 0 0 1 -1 -1 0 0 0 1 -1 0 -1 0 -1
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
-1 1 0 0 0 -1 -1 -1 (B) 0 0 0 -1 1 0 1 0 (C) 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1
0 0 0 0 1 -1 1 0 0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0 1 -1 0 -1
0 -1 1 0 0 0 0 0
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Networks
30. The directed graph will be

8 5 6 5 8 6
33. The oriented graph for this network is

1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
2 1 4
2 1 4
1 8 5 6 5 8 6
(C)
2 1 4 3 7 2 1 4 3 7
(D)
(C)
(D)
************
31. A network has 8 nodes and 5 independent loops. The number of branches in the network is (A) 11 (C) 8 (B) 12 (D) 6
32. A branch has 6 node and 9 branch. The independent loops are (A) 3 (C) 5 Statement for Q.3334: For a network branch voltage and node voltage relation are expressed in matrix form as follows: 1 v1 1 0 0 v 0 1 0 0 2 1 0 V1 v3 0 0 v 0 0 0 1 V2 4 = v5 1 -1 0 0 V3 v 0 1 -1 0 V4 6 1 -1 v7 0 0 v 1 0 1 0 8 where vi is the branch voltage and Vk is the node voltage with respect to datum node. 33. The independent mesh equation for this network are (A) 4 (C) 6
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(B) 5 (D 7
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Graph Theory
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Chap 1.2
SOLUTIONS
1. (A) The circuit 1 and 2 are redrawn as below. 3 and 4 can not be redrawn on a plane without crossing other branch.
7. (D) D is not a tree
(A) (1)
Fig. S1.2.1
(B)
(2)
2. (B) Other three circuits can be drawn on plane without crossing
(C) (1) (2)

Fig. S .1.2.7
(D)
8. (D) it is obvious from the following figure that 1, 3, and 4 are tree
2 2 b c d e f 4 4 3 1 d a c e f b 3
(3)
Fig. S1.2.1
a 1
3. (C) l = b - ( n - 1) = 4. 4. (B) There are 4 node and 6 branches. t = n - 1 = 3, l=b-n+1=3
(1)
2 a
f
(2)
2
5. (C) From fig. it can be seen that a f h g is a tree of given graph

a b d e c
b c d e f 3 1
a c d e
b 3
1
g
f 4
Fig. S 1.2.5
(3)
2 a b c d e f 4 3
(4)
6. (B) From fig. it can be seen that a d f is a tree.

c b e
1 f
(5) Fig. S. 1.2.6 Fig. S. 1.2.8
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Networks
i a c l2 h b l3 d l4 f l1 e
So independent mesh equation =Number of link. 34. (D) We know that [ vb ] = ArT [ Vn ] So reduced 1 0 0 1 Ar = 0 0 0 0 incidence matrix is 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 -1 1 0 0 1 0 0 -1 1 -1 0 1 0 0 -1 0
Fig. S 1.2.26
At node-1, three branch leaves so the only option is (D).
This in similar to matrix in (A). Only place of rows has been changed. 27. (A) Number of branch =8 Number of link =4 Number of twigs =8 - 4 = 4 Number of twigs =number of independent node equation. 28. (D) The number of independent node equation are n - 1. 29. (A) Number of branch b = 8 Number of link l = 4 Number of twigs t = b - l = 4 rank of matrix = n - 1 = t = 4 30. (B) We know the branch current and loop current are related as [ ib ] = [ B T ] [ I L ] So fundamental loop matrix is 1 1 0 0 -1 0 1 0 0 -1 1 0 0 1 0 0 Bf = 1 -1 0 0 -1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 -1 -1 0 1 f-loop 1 include branch (2, 4, 6, 7) and direction of branch2 is opposite to other (B only). 31. (B) Independent loops =link l = b - ( n - 1) 5 = b - 7, b = 12
***********
32. (B) Independent loop =link l = b - ( n - 1) = 4 33. (A) There are 8 branches and 4 + 1 = 5 node Number of link = 8 - 5 + 1 = 4
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CHAPTER
1.3
METHODS OF ANALYSIS
1. v1 = ? (A) 120 V (C) 90 V
vs
6R
3R
(B) -120 V (D) -90 V

10 W 4W va 1W 4A 2W
4vs
6R
+ v1
4. va = ?
12 V
10 V
Fig. P1.3.1
(A) 0.4vs (C) 0.67vs 2. va = ?

3A
(B) 1.5vs (D) 2.5vs
Fig. P1.3.4
(A) 4.33 V (C) 8.67 V

2W 3W va 1A
(B) 4.09 V (D) 8.18 V
5. v2 = ?
+ 30 W
20 W v2
60 W
0.5 A
10 V
30 W
Fig. P1.3.2
(A) -11 V (C) 3 V 3. v1 = ?

10 W 30 V 20 W
(B) 11 V (D) -3 V (A) 0.5 V (C) 1.5 V 6. ib = ?

3A 30 W
Fig. P1.3.5
(B) 1.0 V (D) 2.0 V
64 W ib 10 V
37 W
0.5 A 36 W 69 W
60 W v1 + 9A 6A 60 W
Fig. P1.3.6
Fig. P1.3.3
(A) 0.6 A (C) 0.4 A

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Networks
7. i1 = ?
6A
(A) 20 mA (C) 10 mA 11. i1 = ?

10 W
(B) 15 mA (D) 5 mA
8W
i1
2W
50 W
75 V
4W
3W
5W
100 W 6.6 V i1 40 W 60W
0.1 A
Fig. P1.3.7
(A) 3.3 A (C) 1.7 A 8. i1 = ?
(B) 2.1 A (D) 1.1 A
0.06 A
0.1A
90 kW 7.5mA 10 kW i1 90 kW i2 75 V 10 kW
Fig. P1.3.11
(A) 0.01 A (C) 0.03 A
(B) -0.01 A (D) 0.02 A
12. The value of the current measured by the ammeter

Fig. P1.3.8
in Fig. P1.3.12 is
2A
(A) 1 mA (C) 2 mA 9. i1 = ?
2A
(B) 1.5 mA (D) 2.5 mA

7W
4W
Ammeter
3A
4W 3V
6W 5W 2W
Fig. P1.3.12
4A 3W 2W i1
(A)
2 A 3 5 A 6
(B) (D)
5 A 3 2 A 9
Fig. P1.3.9
(C) -
(A) 4 A (C) 6 A 10. i1 = ?

2 kW
(B) 3 A (D) 5 A
13. i1 = ?
200 W
40 mA
100 W
i1
50 W
10 mA
45 V
i1
500 W
15 mA
Fig. 1.3.13
(A) 10 mA
Fig. P1.3.10
(B) -10 mA (D) -0.4 mA

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(C) 0.4 mA
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Chap 1.3
4W 8W 5W
14. The values of node voltage are va = 12 V, vb = 9.88 V and vc = 5.29 V. The power supplied by the voltage source is
6W
12 V
i1
2W
i2 8V
2W
i3
20 V
va
4W
vb
3W
vc
Fig. 1.3.17
12 V
1A
2W
0 i1 12 4 -2 (A) -2 8 -2 i2 = -8 5 0 -2 20 i3 -2 0 i1 12 6 (B) 2 -12 2 i2 = 8 2 -7 0 20 i3 0 i1 12 6 -2 (C) -2 12 -2 i2 = 8 7 0 -2 20 i3 0 i1 12 4 -2 (D) 2 -8 2 i2 = 8 2 -5 0 20 i3
Fig. 1.3.14
(A) 19.8 W (C) 46.9 W 15. i1 , i2 , i3 = ?

2W
(B) 27.3 W (D) 54.6 W
3W
i1
9W
15 V
i2
6W
i3
21 V
18. For the circuit shown in Fig. P1.3.18 the mesh equation are
6 kW
Fig. P1.3.15
(A) 3 A, 2 A, and 4 A (C) 1 A, 3 A, and 4 A 16. vo = ?
(B) 3 A, 3 A, and 8 A (D) 1 A, 2 A, and 8 A

6V
6 kW i1
i3
6 kW i2 5 mA 6 kW
Fig. 1.3.18
4 mA 1 kW 2 kW 1 kW + 1 kW 1 mA 2 kW vo 2 mA
6 k -12 k -12 k i1 -6 (A) -6 k 6 k -18 k i2 = 0 -1k 0 k i3 -1k 5 6 k 12 k -12 k i1 -6 (B) -6 k -6 k 18 k i2 = 0 1k 0 k -1k 5 i3 -6 k -12 k 12 k i1 -6 (C) 6 k -6 k 18 k i2 = 0 1k 0 k 1k 5 i3 -6 k 12 k -12 k i1 -6 (D) -6 k 6 k -18 k i2 = 0 1k 0 k -1k 5 i3
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Fig. P1.3.16
(A) (C)
6 V 5 6 V 7
(B) (D)
8 V 5 5 V 7
17. The mesh current equation for the circuit in Fig. P1.3.17 are
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Chap 1.3
R1
(A) 66.67 mA (C) 23.12 mA

R3
(B) 46.24 mA (D) 33.33 mA
R2
i3
i1 v1
29. va = ?
R4 25i2 i2 v2
10 W 4A
50 W
va
40 W
Fig. P1.3.25
10 A
The value of R4 is (A) 40 (C) 5 26. va = ?

2.5 kW 10 kW 10 kW va
200 W
5A
100 W
20 W
20 A
(B) 15 (D) 20 (A) 342 V (C) 198 V 30. ia = ?

50 W 150 W
Fig. P1.3.29
(B) 171 V (D) 396 V
20 V
10 kW
5 kW
4 mA
225 W ia
100 W
200 W
Fig. P1.3.26
2V 75 W
4V 50 W
8V
(A) 26 V (C) 13 V 27. v = ?

2A
(B) 19 V (D) 18 V (A) 14 mA (C) 7 mA

20 W
Fig. P1.3.30
(B) -6.5 mA (D) -21 mA
10 W
31. v2 = ?
50 W v2 +
4A
10 V
100 W
0.04v2
15 W
5W
Fig. P.3.1.27
Fig. P1.3.31
(A) 60 V (C) 30 V 28. i1 = ?

300 W
(B) -60 V (D) -30 V
(A) 5 V (C) 3 V 32. i1 = ?

2W
(B) 75 V (D) 10 V
0.5i1
4W
40 V
i1
500 W
0.4i1
8V i1
4A
6V
Fig. P1.3.28
Fig. P1.3.32
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(A) -1.636 A (C) -2.314 A 33. vx = ?
(B) -3.273 A (D) -4.628 A
37. va = ?
0.8va
16 A
va
2W
+ 1.6 A 100 W 0.02vx 50 W vx
2.5 W
5W
10 A
Fig. P1.3.37 Fig. P1.3.33
(A) 32 V (C) 12 V 34. ib = ?

1 kW va
(B) -32 V (D) -12 V
(A) 25.91 V (C) 51.82 V
(B) -25.91 V (D) -51.82 V
38. For the circuit of Fig. P1.3.38 the value of vs , that will result in v1 = 0, is
3 kW ib
3A
2A
0.1v1
6V 2 kW 4va
10 W + vs 40 W v1
20 W 48 V
Fig. P1.3.34
(A) 4 mA (C) 12 mA 35. vb = ?

ia 4 kW vb
(B) -4 mA (D) -12 mA (A) 28 V (C) 14 V 39. i1 , i2 = ?

4W
2V 2 kW 5ia
Fig. P1.3.38
(B) -28 V (D) -14 V
2ix ix
2W
15 V
i1
6W
i2
18 V
Fig. P1.3.35
(A) 1 V (C) 4 V 36. vx = ?
(B) 1.5 V (D) 6 V (A) 2.6 A, 1.4 A (C) 1.6 A, 1.35 A

50 W iy +
Fig. P1.3.39
(B) 2.6 A, -1.4 A (D) 1.2 A, -1.35 A
40. v1 = ?
3W + vy 14 V + v1
2A
100 W
25iy
50 W
vx
0.2vx
3W 6W
2A
Fig. P1.3.36
7A 2W
2vy
(A) -3 V (C) 10 V
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Fig. P1.3.40
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Chap 1.3
(A) 10 V (C) 7 V 41. vx = ?

vx +
(B) -10 V (D) -7 V
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) Applying the nodal analysis v 4 vs + s R R 6 3 v1 = = 15 . vs 1 1 1 + + 6 R 3R 6 R 2. (C) va = 2( 3 + 1) + 3 (1) = 11 V 3. (D) v1 -v + 1 + 6 =9 60 60 v1 = - 90 V
0.5vx
500 W
500 W 0.6 A 600 W 900 W 0.3 A
Fig. P1.3.41
(A) 9 V (C) 10 V
(B) -9 V (D) -10 V
4. (C)
va - 10 va + =4 4 2 v2 v2 + 10 + = 0.5 20 30
va = 8.67 V
42. The power being dissipated in the 2 W resistor in the circuit of Fig. P1.3.42 is
5W ia 2W 2A 2.5 A 4W 6ia 30 V
5. (D)
v2 = 2 V
6. (B) Using Thevenin equivalent and source transform

8W 3 i1 2W va 10 W 60 V
3W
25 V
3W
5W
Fig. P1.3.42
Fig. S.1.3.6
(A) 76.4 W (C) 52.5 W 43. i1 = ?

500 W + vx 100 W
(B) 305.6 W (D) 210.0 W
25 60 + + 2 15 va = = 15.23 V 3 1 1 + + 14 3 15 25 - 15.23 = 2.09 A i1 = 14 3

8 3
0.6 A
180 V 400 W
+ vy
7. (A) ib =
0.001vy
10 + 0.5 = 0.6 A 64 + 36
100 W
8. (B) 75 = 90 ki1 + 10 k( i1 - 7.5m) 150 = 100 ki1 i1 = 15 . mA i1 = 3 A
0.005vy
9. (B) 3 = 2 i1 + 3( i1 - 4)
Fig. P1.3.43
10. (B) 45 = 2 ki1 + 500 ( i1 + 15m) (A) 0.12 A (C) 0.36 A (B) 0.24 A (D) 0.48 A i1 = 15 mA
11. (D) 6.6 = 50 i1 + 100( i1 + 0.1) + 40( i1 - 0.06) + 60( i1 - 0.1) i1 = 0.02 A
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Networks
38. (D) If v1 = 0, the dependent source is a short circuit v1 v - vs v1 - 48 + 1 + =2 - 3 40 10 20 48 v - s = - 1 vs = - 14 V 10 20

3A 2A
ia =
v1 = 0
30 + 7.5 + 2 = 329 . A 12
6 ia = 19.75 V
voltage across 2 W resistor 30 - 19.75 = 10.25 V, P= (10.25) 2 = 52.53 W 2
43. (A) vx = 500 i1

10 W vs 40 W + v1 20 W 48 V
v y = 400( i1 - 0.001vx ) = 400 ( i1 - 0.5 i1 ) = 200 i1 180 = 500 i1 + 100( i1 - 0.6) + 200 i1 + 100( i1 + 0.005 v y) 180 = 900 i1 - 60 + 100 0.005 200 i1 i1 = 0.12 A
Fig. S1.3.38 ************
39. (D) ix = i1 - i2 15 = 4 i1 - 2( i1 - i2 ) + 6( i1 - i2 ) 8 i1 - 4 i2 = 15 3i1 - 4 i2 = 9 K(i) K(ii) -18 = 2 i2 + 6( i2 - i1 ) . A, i2 = -1.35 A i1 = 12 40. (B) 14 = 3i1 + v y + 6( i1 - 2 - 7) + 2 v y + 2( i1 - 7) v y = 3( i1 - 2) 14 = 3i1 + 9( i1 - 2) + 6( i1 - 9) + 2( i1 - 7) 14 = 20 i1 - 18 - 54 - 14
3W + vy 14 V + v1 7A 2vy
i1 = 5 A
v1 = 6(5 - 2 - 7) + 2 3(5 - 2) + 2(5 - 7) = -10 V
3W 6W
2A
i1
2W
Fig. S1.3.40
41. (D) Let i1 and i2 be two loop current 0.5 vx = 500 i1 + 500( i1 - i2 ), vx = -500 i1 5 i1 - 2 i2 = 0 K(i) K(ii) 500( i2 - i1 ) + 900( i2 + 0.3) + 600( i2 - 0.6) = 0 -5 i1 + 20 i2 = 0.9 i1 = 20 mA, vx = -500 20m = -10 V 42. (C) 30 = 5 ia + 3( ia - 2.5) + 4( ia - 2.5 + 2)
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CHAPTER
1.4
NETWORKS THEOREM
1. vTH , RTH = ? 4. A simple equivalent circuit of the 2 terminal network shown in fig. P1.4.4 is
R
3W
2W
6V
6W
vTH, RTH
Fig. P.1.4.1
(A) 2 V, 4 W (C) 4 V, 5 W 2. i N , R N = ?
2W
(B) 4 V, 4 W (D) 2 V, 5 W
2W
Fig. P.1.4.4
R R v
15 V
4W
iN, RN
(A)
(B)
Fig. P.1.4.2
R R i i
(A) 3 A,
10 W 3
(B) 10 A, 4 W (D) 1.5 A, 4 W

2W
(C) 1,5 A, 6 W 3. vTH , RTH = ?
(C)
(D)
5. i N , R N = ?
1W vTH, RTH 6A 4W
2W
2A
3W
3W
iN RN
Fig. P.1.4.3
(A) -2 V,
6 W 5
(B) 2 V,
5 W 6
Fig. P.1.4.5
5 (C) 1 V, W 6
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Networks
6. vTH , RTH = ?
30 W 20 W 5V 5A 25 W
The value of the parameter are vTH (A)

vTH, RTH
RTH 2 W 2 W 1.2 W 5 W
iN 2 A 2 A
30 3 8 5
RN 2 W 3 W 1.2 W 5 W
4 V 4 V 8 V 8 V
(B) (C) (D)
A A
Fig. P.1.4.6
10. v1 = ? (A) -100 V, 75 W (C) 155 V, 37 W 7. RTH = ?

6W
(B) 155 V, 55 W (D) 145 V, 75 W

8V
2W
1W
1W
3W
2W
6W
+ v1
6W
18 V
2A
6W RTH 5V
Fig. P.1.4.10
(A) 6 V (C) 8 V
Fig. P.1.4.7
(B) 7 V (D) 10 V
11. i1 = ?
4 kW i1 4 kW 20 V 6 kW
(A) 3 W (C) 6 W
(B) 12 W (D)
12 V
8. The Thevenin impedance across the terminals ab of the network shown in fig. P.1.4.8 is
a 3W
4 kW
3 kW
24 V
Fig. P.1.4.11
(A) 3 A
2A 6W 8W b 2V 8W
(B) 0.75 mA (D) 1.75 mA
(C) 2 mA Statement for Q.1213:
Fig. P.1.4.8
A circuit is given in fig. P.1.4.1213. Find the Thevenin equivalent as given in question..
10 W x 16 W y
(A) 2 W (C) 6.16 W
(B) 6 W 4 (D) W 3
5V
40 W
8W
1A
9. For In the the circuit shown in fig. P.1.4.9 a network and its Thevenin and Norton equivalent are given
2W 3W RTH 4V 2A vTH iN RN
Fig. P.1.4.1213
12. As viewed from terminal x and x is (A) 8 V, 6 W (C) 5 V, 32 W (B) 5 V, 6 W (D) 8 V, 32 W
Fig. P.1.4.9
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Chap 1.4
13. As viewed from terminal y and y is (A) 8 V, 32 W (C) 5 V, 6 W (B) 4 V, 32 W (D) 7 V, 6 W
19. vTH , RTH = ?

6W i1
14. A practical DC current source provide 20 kW to a 50 W load and 20 kW to a 200 W load. The maximum power, that can drawn from it, is (A) 22.5 kW (C) 30.3 kW Statement for Q.1516: In the circuit of fig. P.1.4.1516 when R = 0 W , the current iR equals 10 A.
4W 2W 2W
3i1
4W
iN,
RN
Fig. P1.4.19
(B) 45 kW (D) 40 kW (A) 0 W (C) 2.4 W 20. vTH , RTH = ?

4V + 0.1v1 5W v1 vTH RTH
(B) 1.2 W (D) 3.6 W
4W
R iR
2W
4A
Fig. P.1.4.1516.
Fig. P.1.4.20
15. The value of R, for which it absorbs maximum power, is (A) 4 W (C) 2 W (B) 3 W (D) None of the above
(A) 8 V, 5 W (C) 4 V, 5 W 21. RTH = ?

2W
(B) 8 V, 10 W (D) 4 V, 10 W
3W + vx 4 vx RTH
16. The maximum power will be (A) 50 W (C) 200 W (B) 100 W (D) value of E is required
4V
17. Consider a 24 V battery of internal resistance r = 4 W connected to a variable resistance RL . The rate of heat dissipated in the resistor is maximum when the current drawn from the battery is i . The current drawn form the battery will be i 2 when RL is equal to (A) 2 W (C) 8 W 18. i N , R N = ?
10 W i1 20i1 30 W iN, RN
Fig. P.1.4.21
(A) 3 W (C) 5 W
(B) 1.2 W (D) 10 W
(B) 4 W (D) 12 W
5W
22. In the circuit shown in fig. P.1.4.22 the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is
4W
vs
i 4
Fig. P.1.4.22 Fig. P.1.4.18
(A) 2 A, 20 W (C) 0 A, 20 W
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Networks
23. In the circuit of fig. P1.4.23 the value of RTH at terminal ab is

0.75va
26. The value of RL will be

ix
16 V
0.9 A 2W
3W
RL
8W 9V 4W va + b a
Fig. P.1.4.2627
(A) 2 W (C) 1 W 27. The maximum power is (A) 0.75 W (C) 2.25 W 28. RTH = ?
(B) 3 W (D) None of the above
Fig. P.1.4.23
(A) -3 W (C) 8 W 3
(B)
9 W 8
(B) 1.5 W (D) 1.125 W
(D) None of the above
24. RTH = ?
200 W va 100 va + 100 W 50 W RTH
-2ix
0.01vx 100 W
100 W 300 W ix 800 W
+ vx RTH
Fig. P.1.4.24
(A) (C) 3 W 125
(B) 0 (D) 125 W 3 (A) 100 W (C) 200 W
Fig. P.1.4.28
(B) 136.4 W (D) 272.8 W
25. In the circuit of fig. P.1.4.25, the RL will absorb maximum power if RL is equal to
40 W i 6V 200 W 3i 100 W
29. Consider the circuits shown in fig. P.1.4.29

ia 2W 6W 2W 6W 2W 12 V 12 V 8V 6W
RL
Fig. P.1.4.25
(A) (C)
400 W 3 800 W 3
(B) (D)
2 kW 9 4 kW 9
2W
ib
2W 6W 6W 2W
Statement for Q.2627: In the circuit shown in fig. P1.4.2627 the maximum power transfer condition is met for the load RL .
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18 V
6W
3A
12 V
Fig. P.1.4.29a & b
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Chap 1.4
The relation between ia and ib is (A) ib = ia + 6 (C) ib = 15 . ia 30. Req = ?

12 W 4W
33. If vs1 = 6 V and vs 2 = - 6 V then the value of va is (A) 4 V (C) 6 V (B) -4 V (D) -6 V
(B) ib = ia + 2 (D) ib = ia
34. A network N feeds a resistance R as shown in fig. P1.4.34. Let the power consumed by R be P . If an identical network is added as shown in figure, the
Req 6W 18 W 9W
N
2W 6W
power consumed by R will be
Fig. P.1.4.30 Fig. P.1.4.34
(A) 18 W 36 (C) W 13
72 (B) W 13 (D) 9 W
(A) equal to P (C) between P and 4 P
(B) less than P (D) more than 4 P
31. In the lattice network the value of RL for the maximum power transfer to it is
7W
6 W
35. A certain network consists of a large number of ideal linear resistors, one of which is R and two constant ideal source. The power consumed by R is P1 when only the first source is active, and P2 when only the second source is active. If both sources are active
RL
W 5
simultaneously, then the power consumed by R is (A) P1 P2 (B) P1 P2
9W
(C) ( P1 P2 ) 2 (B) 9 W (D) 8 W
(D) ( P1 P2 ) 2
Fig. P.1.4.31
(A) 6.67 W (C) 6.52 W Statement for Q.3233:
36. A battery has a short-circuit current of 30 A and an open circuit voltage of 24 V. If the battery is connected to an electric bulb of resistance 2 W, the power dissipated by the bulb is (A) 80 W (C) 112.5 W (B) 1800 W (D) 228 W results were obtained from
A circuit is shown in fig. P.1.4.3233.

12 W 1W 3W 3W + vs1 1W va vs2 1W
37.
The
following
measurements taken between the two terminal of a resistive network Terminal voltage Terminal current 32. If vs1 = vs 2 = 6 V then the value of va is (A) 3 V (C) 6 V
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0V 1.5 A
Fig. P.1.4.3233
(B) 4 V (D) 5 V (C) 0

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The Thevenin resistance of the network is (A) 16 W (B) 8 W (D)

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Networks
38. A DC voltmeter with a sensitivity of 20 kW/V is used to find the Thevenin equivalent of a linear network. Reading on two scales are as follows (a) 0 - 10 V scale : 4 V (b) 0 -15 V scale : 5 V The Thevenin voltage and the Thevenin resistance of the network is 16 200 (A) V, kW 3 3 (C) 18 V, 2 MW 15 32 V, 3 1 MW 15 200 kW 3
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) vTH = ( 6)( 6) = 4 V, 3+ 6 |6) + 2 = 4 W RTH = ( 3| 2. (A)
2W 2W isc 15 V 4W
v1
(B)
(D) 36 V,
39. Consider the network shown in fig. P.1.4.39. RN = 2 | |4 + 2 =

+ Linear Network RL vab
Fig. S.1.4.2
10 W, 3
Fig. P.1.4.39
15 2 v1 = =6 V 1 1 1 + + 2 2 4 v isc = i N = 1 = 3 A 2 3. (C) vTH = (2)( 3)(1) = 1 V, 3+ 3 5 = 1| |5 = W 6
The power absorbed by load resistance RL is shown in table : RL P 10 kW 3.6 MW 30 kW 4.8 MW 4. (B) After killing all source equivalent resistance is R The value of RL , that would absorb maximum power, is (A) 60 kW (C) 300 W (B) 100 W (D) 30 kW
6A 4W
RTH
Open circuit voltage = v1 5. (D) The short circuit current across the terminal is
2W isc
40. Measurement made on terminal ab of a circuit of fig.P.1.4.40 yield the current-voltage characteristics shown in fig. P.1.4.40. The Thevenin resistance is
i(mA)
3W
Fig. S1.4.5
+ Resistive Network v a
30 20 10
-4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2
vab b
isc =
6 4 = 4 A = iN , 4+2
|3 = 2 W RN = 6 | 6. (B) For the calculation of RTH if we kill the sources then 20 W resistance is inactive because 5 A source will be open circuit RTH = 30 + 25 = 55 W, vTH = 5 + 5 30 = 155 V
Fig. P.1.4.40
(A) 300 W (C) 100 W
(B) -300 W (D) -100 W
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Chap 1.4
7. (C) After killing the source, RTH = 6 W

6W
12. (B) We Thevenized the left side of xx and source transformed right side of yy
8W x 16 W y 8W
6W RTH
4V 8V
Fig. S.1.4.7
Fig. S1.4.12
8. (B) After killing all source, |6 + 8 | |8 = 6 W RTH = 3| 9. (D) voc = 2 2 + 4 = 8 V = vTH RTH = 2 + 3 = 5 W = R N , iN = vTH 8 = A RTH 5 vxx = vTH
4 8 + = 8 24 = 5 V, 1 1 + 8 24
RTH = 8 | |(16 + 8) = 6 W 13. (D) Thevenin equivalent seen from terminal yy is v yy = vTH 4 8 + 24 8 = 7 V, = 1 1 + 24 8
10. (A) If we solve this circuit direct, we have to deal with three variable. But by simple manipulation variable can be reduced to one. By changing the LHS and RHS in Thevenin equivalent
1W 1W 1W 2W
|8 = 6 W RTH = ( 8 + 16)| 14. (A)

12 V
i r RL
+ 4V 6W v1
Fig. S1.4.10
4 12 + v1 = 1 + 1 1 + 2 = 6 V 1 1 1 + + 1+1 6 1+2 11. (B) If we solve this circuit direct, we have to deal with three variable. But by simple manipulation variable can be reduced to one. By changing the LHS and RHS in Thevenin equivalent
2 kW i1 4 kW 20 V 2 kW
Fig. S1.4.14
ir 50 = 20 k, r + 50 r = 100 W Pmax =
ir 200 = 20 k r + 200
( r + 200) 2 = 4( r + 50) 2 i = 30 A, ( 30) 2 100 = 22.5 kW 4
15. (C) Thevenized the circuit across R, RTH = 2 W

4W 2W 2W
6V
8V
4W
2W
Fig. S1.4.15 Fig. S1.4.11
i1 =
20 - 6 - 8 = 0.75 mA 2k + 4k + 2k
16. (A) isc = 10 A, RTH = 2 W, 10 Pmax = 2 = 50 W 2

2
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Now in this circuit all straight-through connection have been cut as shown in fig. S1.4.32b
6W 1W 3W 2W + va 6V
i 2 R = ( P1 P2 ) 2 36. (C) r = P= voc = 1. 2 W isc
24 2 2 = 112.5 W (1. 2 + 2) 2 voc 12 = =8W isc 15 .
37. (B) RTH =
Fig. S.1.4.32b
va =
6 (2 + 3) =5 V 2 + 3+1
38. (A) Let
1 1 = = 50 m A sensitivity 20 k
33. (B) Since both source have opposite polarity, hence short circuit the all straight-through connection as shown in fig. S.1.4.33
6W 1W 3W 2W + va 6V
For 0 -10 V scale Rm = 10 20 k = 200 kW For 0 -50 V scale Rm = 50 20 k = 1 MW 4 For 4 V reading i = 50 = 20 m A 10 vTH = 20mRTH + 20m 200 k = 4 + 20mRTH 5 For 5 V reading i = 50m = 5 m A 50 vTH = 5m RTH + 5m 1M = 5 + 5mRTH Solving (i) and (ii) 16 200 V, RTH = vTH = kW 3 3 39. (D) v10 k = 10 k 3.6m = 6 v30 k = 30 k 4.8m = 12 V 6 = 12 = 10 vTH 10 + RTH 30 vTH 30 + RTH 10 vTH = 6 RTH + 60 ...(i)
...(ii)
Fig. S1.4.33
6 (6| | 3) va = = -4 V 2 +1 34. (C) Let Thevenin equivalent of both network

RTH RTH RTH
5 vTH = 2 RTH + 60
vTH
vTH
vTH
RTH = 30 kW 40. (D) At v = 0 , isc = 30 mA
Fig. S1.4.34
VTH P = R R + R TH V TH P = RTH R+ 2 VTH R = 4 2R + R TH

2
At i = 0, voc = - 3 V v -3 RTH = oc = = - 100 W isc 30m

2
************
Thus P < P < 4 P 35. (C) i1 = P1 P2 and i2 = R R P1 R P2 R

using superposition i = i1 + i2 =
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CHAPTER
1.6
THE RLC CIRCUITS
1. The natural response of an RLC circuit is described by the differential equation d 2v dv dv(0) +2 + v = 0, v(0) = 10, = 0. dt 2 dt dt The v( t) is (A) 10(1 + t) e - t V (C) 10 e - t V (B) 10(1 - t) e - t V (D) 10 te - t V
8 8 ( t) + 1100 i (A) iL L ( t) + 11 10 iL ( t) = 10 is ( t) 8 8 (B) i L ( t) + 1100 iL ( t) + 11 10 iL ( t) = 10 is ( t)
(C) (D)
( t) 11 . i iL L ( t) . iL ( t) = is ( t) + + 11 108 10 4 11i i L ( t) L ( t) + + 11iL ( t) = is ( t) 108 10 4
4. In the circuit of fig. P.1.6.4 vs = 0 for t > 0. The initial condition are v(0) = 6 V and dv(0) dt = -3000 V s. The v( t) for t > 0 is
1H
2. The differential equation for the circuit shown in fig. P1.6.2. is

2W 1 mH v
vs
100 W
10 mF
vs
80 W
25 mF
+ vC
Fig. P1.6.2
(A) v( t) + 3000 v( t) + 102 . 108 v( t) = 108 vs ( t) (B) v( t) + 1000 v ( t) + 102 . 10 v( t) = 10 vs ( t)

8 8
Fig. P1.6.4
(C) (D)
2 v ( t) v( t) . v( t) = vs ( t) + + 102 108 10 5 2 v ( t) v( t) . v( t) = vs ( t) + + 198 8 10 10 5
(A) -2 e -100 t + 8 e -400 t V (C) 6 e -100 t - 8 e -400 t V
(B) 6 e -100 t + 8 e -400 t V (D) None of the above
5. The circuit shown in fig. P1.6.5 has been open for a long time before closing at t = 0. The initial condition is v(0) = 2 V. The v( t) for t > is
t=0
3. The differential equation for the circuit shown in fig. P1.6.3 is

10 W is 100 W 10 mF
1H
3 4W
1 3F
+ vC
Fig. P.1.6.5
iL
(A) 5 e - 7 e
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-t
-3t
(B) 7 e - t - 5 e -3t V (D) 3e - t - e -3t V

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Fig. P.1.6.3
(C) - e - t + 3e -3t V
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Chap 1.6
Statement for Q.67: Circuit is shown in fig. P.1.6. Initial conditions are i1 (0) = i2 (0) = 11 A
i1 2H i2
10. The switch of the circuit shown in fig. P1.6.10 is opened at t = 0 after long time. The v( t) , for t > 0 is
3W t=0
6V
1W
1 2H
1 4F
+ vC
1W
3H
2W
Fig. P1.6.10 Fig. P1.6.67
(A) 4 e -2 t sin 2 t V (C) 4 e -2 t cos 2 t V
(B) -4 e -2 t sin 2 t V (D) -4 e -2 t cos 2 t V
6. i1 (1 s) = ? (A) 0.78 A (C) 2.56 A 7. i2 (1 s) = ? (A) 0.78 A (C) 2.56 A 8. vC ( t) = ? for t > 0
25 mH
(B) 1.46 A (D) 3.62 A
11. In the circuit of fig. P1.6.23 the switch is opened at t = 0 after long time. The current iL ( t) for t > 0 is
iL 4H
(B) 1.46 A (D) 3.62 A

2W 1 4F
t=0 8W 4W 7A
Fig. P1.6.11
(A) e -2 t (2 cos t + 4 sin t) A

30u(-t) mA 100 W 10 mF + vC
(B) e -2 t ( 3 sin t - 4 cos t) A (D)e -2 t (2 sin t - 4 cos t) A
(C) e -2 t ( -4 sin t + 2 cos t) A Statement for Q.1214:
Fig. P1.6.8
In the circuit shown in fig. P1.6.1214 all initial condition are zero.
iL isu(t) A 100 W 65 1 mF 10 mH + vL
(A) 4 e -1000 t - e -2000 t V (C) 2 e -1000 t + e -2000 t V
(B) ( 3 + 6000 t) e -2000 t V (D) ( 3 - 6000 t) e -2000 t V
9. The circuit shown in fig. P1.6.9 is in steady state with switch open. At t = 0 the switch is closed. The output voltage vC ( t) for t > 0 is
Fig. P1.5.12-14
12. If is ( t) = 1 A, then the inductor current iL ( t) is (A) 1 A (B) t A (D) 0 A then iL ( t) is A A (B) 2 t - 3250 A (D) 2 t + 3250 A (C) t + 1 A 13. If is ( t) = 0.5 t A, (A) 0.5 t + 3. 25 10 (C) 0.5 t - 0. 25 10
-3 -3
0.8 H + vC
250 W t=0
500 W
5 mF
9V
Fig. P1.6.9
(A) -9 e (B) e (C) e
-400 t
+ 12 e
-300 t
-400 t -300 t
[ 3 cos 300 t + 4 sin 300 t ] [ 3 cos 400 t + 4 sin 300 t ]
14. If is ( t) = 2 e -250 t A then iL ( t) is 4000 -250 t 4000 -250 t (A) A (B) A te e 3 3 (C) 200 -250 t A e 7 (D) 200 -250 t A te 7
(D) e -300 t [ 3 cos 400 t + 2. 25 sin 300 t ]

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15. The forced response for the capacitor voltage v f ( t) is

100 W
vx +
19. In the circuit shown in fig. P 1.5.19 v( t) for t > 0 is

2u(-t) A
iL 20 mH
avx
50 W
1H
0.04 F + vC
Fig. P1.6.15
4W
2W
(A) 0. 2 t + 117 . 10 -3 V (C) 117 . 10 -3 t - 0. 2 V
(B) 0. 2 t - 117 . 10 -3 V (D) 117 . 10 -3 t + 0. 2 V

50u(t) V
Fig. P1.6.19
16. For a RLC series circuit R = 20 W , L = 0.6 H, the value of C will be [CD =critically damped, OD =over damped, UD =under damped]. CD (A) C = 6 mF (B) C = 6 mF (C) C > 6 mF (D) C < 6 mF OD C > 6 mF C < 6 mF C = 6 mF C = 6 mF UD C < 6 mF C > 6 mF C < 6 mF C > 6 mF
(A) 50 - ( 46.5 sin 3t + 62 cos 3t) e -4 t V (B) 50 + ( 46.5 sin 3t + 62 cos 3t) e -4 t V (C) 50 + ( 62 cos 4 t + 46.5 sin 4 t) e -3t V (D) 50 - ( 62 cos 4 t + 46.5 sin 4 t) e -3t V 20. In the circuit of fig. P1.6.20 the switch is closed at t = 0 after long time. The current i( t) for t > 0 is
1 16 F + vC 20 V 5W iL 1 4H
17. The circuit shown in fig. P1.6.17 is critically damped. The value of R is
t=0
120 W
Fig. P1.6.20
10 mF 4H
(A) -10 sin 8 t A (C) -10 cos 8 t A
(B) 10 sin 8 t A (D) 10 cos 8 t A
21. In the circuit of fig. P1.6.21 switch is moved from 8

Fig. P1.6.17
V to 12 V at t = 0. The voltage v( t) for t > 0 is

2W t=0 8V 12 V 1H 1 F 6 + vC
(A) 40 W (C) 120 W
(B) 60 W (D) 180 W
18. The step response of an RLC series circuit is given by d 2 i( t) 2 di( t) di(0 + ) = 4. + + 5 i( t) = 10, i(0 + ) = 2, dt dt dt The i( t) is (A) 1 + e - t cos 4 t A (C) 2 + e - t sin 4 t A (B) 4 - 2 e - t cos 4 t A (D) 10 + e - t sin 4 t A
Fig. P1.6.21
(A) 12 - ( 4 cos 2 t + 2 sin 2 t) e - t V (B) 12 - ( 4 cos 2 t + 8 sin 2 t) e - t V (C) 12 + ( 4 cos 2 t + 8 sin 2 t) e - t V (D) 12 + ( 4 cos 2 t + 2 sin 2 t) e - t V
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Chap 1.6
22. In the circuit of fig. P1.5.22 the voltage v( t) is

5H 1W
25. In the circuit shown in fig. P1.6.25 a steady state has been established before switch closed. The i( t) for t > 0 is
5W 20 W t=0 100 V 5W 1H i 1 F 25
3u(t) A
5W 20 V
0.2 F 2W
+ vC
Fig. P1.6.22
(A) 40 - (20 cos 0.6 t + 15 sin 0.6 t) e -0 .8 t V (B) 35 + (15 cos 0.6 t + 20 sin 0.6 t) e (D) 35 - 15 cos 0.6 t e
-0 .8 t -0 .8 t -0 .8 t
Fig. P1.6.25
V V
(A) 0.73e -2 t sin 4.58 t A (B) 0.89 e -2 t sin 6.38 t A (C) 0.73e -4 t sin 4.58 t A (D) 0.89 e -4 t sin 6.38 t A 26. The switch is closed after long time in the circuit of fig. P1.6.26. The v( t) for t > 0 is
2A
(C) 35 - (15 cos 0.6 t + 20 sin 0.6 t) e V
23. In the circuit of fig. P1.6.23 the switch is opened at t = 0 after long time. The current i( t) for t > 0 is
2A
3 4H 1 3F 5W 10 W
t=0
1W 6W
10 W
1H
4V
t=0
1 25 F
+ vC
Fig. P1.6.23
(A) e-2 .306 t + e-0 . 869t A (B) -e -2 .306 t + 2 e -0 . 869t A (C) e -4 .431 t + e -0 .903t A (D) 2 e -4 .431 t - e -0 .903t A 24. In the circuit of fig. P1.6.24 switch is moved from position a to b at t = 0. The iL ( t) for t > 0 is
0.02 F b 2 H t=0 2W a iL 6W 12 V 14 W
Fig. P1.6.26
(A) -8 + 6 e -3t sin 4 t V (B) -12 + 4 e -3t cos 4 t V (C) -12 + ( 4 cos 4 t + 3 sin 4 t) e -3t V (D) -12 + ( 4 cos 4 t + 6 sin 4 t) e -3t V 27. i( t) = ?
2 kW i 12u(t) V 5 mF 8 mH
Fig. P1.6.27
(A) 6 - ( 6 cos 500 t + 6 sin 5000 t) e -50 t mA

4A
(B) 8 - ( 8 cos 500 t + 0.06 sin 5000 t) e -50 t mA (C) 6 - ( 6 cos 5000 t + 0.06 sin 5000 t) e -50 t mA (D) 6 e -50 t sin 5000 t mA
Fig. P1.6.24
(A) ( 4 - 6 t) e 4 t A (C) ( 3 - 9 t) e -5t A

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(B) ( 3 - 6 t) e -4 t A (D) ( 3 - 8 t) e -5t A
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28. In the circuit of fig. P1.6.28 i(0) = 1 A and v(0) = 0. The current i( t) for t > 0 is
i 4u(t) A 1H 2W 0.5 F
SOLUTIONS
1. (A) s 2 + 2 s + 1 = 0
-t
s = -1, - 1,
v( t) = ( A1 + A2 t) e dv(0) v(0) = 10 V, = 0 = - 1 A1 + A2 dt A1 = A2 = 10 2. (A) iL = v dv + 10 10 -6 100 dt

iL 2W 1 mH v
Fig. P1.6.28
(A) 4 + 6.38 e -0 .5t A
(B) 4 - 6.38 e -0 .5t A
(C) 4 + ( 3 cos 1.32 t + 113 . sin 1.32 t) e -0 .5t A (D) 4 - ( 3 cos 1.32 t + 113 . sin 1.32 t) e -0 .5t A 29. In the circuit of fig. P1.6.29 a steady state has been established before switch closed. The vo( t) for t > 0 is
10 W
vs
100 W
10 mF
t=0 3A 5W 10 mF 1H
+ vo
Fig. S1.6.2
vs = 2 iL + 10 -3
diL +v dt
Fig. P1.6.29
(A) 100 te -10 t V (C) 400 te -50 t V
(B) 200 te -10 t V (D) 800 te -50 t V
1 dv dv d2 v v + v + 10 -3 = 2 + 10 -6 10 - t + 10 10 -6 dt dt 2 100 100 dt
108 vs ( t) = v( t) + 3000 v( t) + 102 . v( t) t > 0 is vC dvC + iL + 10m 100 dt di vC = 10 iL + 10 -3 L dt di d di is = 0.1iL + 10 -5 L + iL + 10 -5 (10 iL + 10 -3 L ) dt dt dt 3. (C) is = = 0.1iL + 10 -5 diL di d 2 iL + iL + 10 -4 L + 10 -8 dt dt dt 2 11 . i L ( t) ( t) + 11 . iL ( t) = is ( t) + iL 108 10 4 v dv + 25m + ( v - vs ) dt = 0 80 dt
30. In the circuit of fig. P1.6.30 a steady state has been established before switch closed. The i( t) for
i 1H 1 4F
1W t=0
2W
6V
Fig. P1.6.30
(A) 2 e
-2 t
sin 2 t A
-2 t
(B) -e
-2 t
sin 2 t A
(C) -2(1 - t) e
(D) 2(1 - t) e -2 t A
4. (A)
31. In the circuit of fig. P1.6.31 a steady state has been established. The i( t) for t > 0 is
i 3A 10 W 6u(t) A 10 mF 40 W 4H
d 2v dv + 500 + 40000 = 0 2 dt dt s = -100, - 400, B = 8, A = -2 1 s + =0 RC LC
s 2 + 500 s + 40000 = 0 v( t) = Ae -100 t + Be -400 t
Fig. P1.6.31
A + B = 6, -100 A - 400 B = -3000

10 t
(A) 9 + 2 e
-10 t
- 8e
-2 .5t
A
-2 .5t
(B) 9 - 8 e A
+ 2e
-2 .5t
A 5. (C) The characteristic equation is s 2 + After putting the values, v( t) = Ae - t + Be -3t ,

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(C) 9 + (2 cos 10 t + sin 10 t) e
(D) 9 + (cos 10 t + 2 sin 10 t) e -2 .5t A

***************
s2 + 4 s + 3 = 0
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Chap 1.6
v(0 + ) = 2 V iL (0 + ) = 0 -C
A + B =2 2 8 = , 34 3 dv(0 + ) = - 8, dt
9. (B) vC (0 + ) = 3 V , iL (0 + ) = -12 mA vC dvC + iL + 5 10 -6 =0 250 dt dvC (0 + ) 3 dvC (0 + ) - 12m + 5 10 -6 =0 =0 dt 250 dt 1 s + =0 s2 + -6 250 5 10 0.8 5 10 -6 s 2 + 800 s + 25 10 4 = 0 s = -400 j 300
iR (0) =
dv(0 + ) 8 = dt 3
- A - 3B = -8, B = 3, A = -1 di1 di - 3 2 = 0, dt dt 3di2 di 2 i2 + - 3 1 =0 dt dt 6. (D) i1 + 5 (1 + 5 s) i1 - 3si2 = 0, -3si1 + (2 + 3s) i2 = 0 ( 3s)( 3s) i1 (1 + 5 s) i1 =0 2 + 3s 6 s 2 + 13s + 2 = 0 1 s = - , -2 6
1 - t 6
vC ( t) = e-400 t ( A1 cos 300 t + A2 sin 300 t) dvC (0) A1 = 3, = -400 A1 + 300 A2 , A2 = 4 dt 10. (B) v(0 + ) = 0, s2 + 4 s + 8 = 0
-2 t
iL (0 + ) = 2 A, s = - 2 j2
1 dvC (0 + ) = -2 4 xdt
vC ( t) = e ( A1 cos 2 t + A2 sin 2 t) A1 = 0, dvC (0 + ) = -8 = -2 (0 + 0) + (0 + 2 A2 ), A2 = -4 dt vC (0 + ) = 8 V

iL 4H
i1 = A e
+ Be
-2 t
, i(0) = A + B = 11
In differential equation putting t = 0 and solving di1 (0 + ) 33 di2 (0 + ) 143 ==, dt 2 dt 6 A 33 - 2 B = - , A = 3, B = 8, 6 2 i1 = 3e

t 6
11. (D) iL (0 + ) = -4,
2W
1 4F
+ 8e ,
1 6
-2 t
+ vC
8W
i1 (1 s) = 3e
+ 8 e -2 = 3.62 A
t 6
Fig. S1.6.11
7. (A) i2 = Ce
+ De
-2 t
i2 (0) = 11 = C + D, C = -1 i2 = - e
t 6
di2 (0) -143 C = = - - 2D dt 6 6

1 6
diL (0 + ) diL (0 + ) = 8 - ( -4) 8 = 10 dt dt 1 s vC + vC + iL = 0, vC = 4 siL + 8 iL 4 2
and D = 12 + 12 e
-2 t
s 2 iL + 4 siL + 5 = 0, s = -2 j
-
A, i2 (1 s) = e
+ 12 e
-2
= 0.78 A
iL ( t) = e-2 t ( A1 cos t + A2 sin t) A1 = -4, diL (0 + ) = 10 = -2 ( A1 + 0) + A2 , A2 = 2 dt v dv di + 10 -3 + iL , v = 10 10 -3 L 100 65 dt dt
8. (B) vC (0 + ) = 30m 100 = 3 V dvC (0 - ) dvC (0 + ) = iL (0 - ) = 0 = iL (0 + ) = C dt dt 100 1 s2 + s+ 25 10 -3 25 10 -3 10 10 -6 C s = -2000, -2000 vC ( t) = ( A1 + A2 t) e -2000 t dvC ( t) = A2 e -2000 t + ( A1 + A2 t) e -2000 t ( -2000) dt dvC (0) = A2 - 2000 3 = 0 vC (0 + ) = A1 = 3, dt A2 = 6000
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12. (A) is = is =
di d 2 iL 65 (10 10 -3) L + 10 -3(10 10 -3) + iL = 0 dt dt 100
d 2 iL di + 650 L + 10 5 iL = 10 5 is dt dt Trying iL ( t) = B 0 + 0 + 10 5 B = 10 5, B = 1, iL = 1 A
13. (A) Trying iL ( t) = At + B, 0 + 650 A + ( At + B)10 5 = 10 5(0.5 t), A = 0.5

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Chap 1.6
di(0 + ) -16 = = -4.431 A - 0.903B dt 3 A = 1, B = 1 4 6 =3 6 +2 dvC (0) dv (0) = 150 0.02 C = iL (0) = 3 dt dt 6 + 14 1 a= = 5, wo = =5 22 2 0.02 24. (C) vC (0) = 0, iL (0) = a = wo critically damped v( t) = 12 + ( A + Bt) e 0 = 12 + A,
-5t
28.(D) i(0 + ) = 1 A, v(0 + ) = a= 1 = 0.5, 2 2 0.5
Ldi(0 + ) dt Wo = 1 1 - 0.5 = 2
s = -0.5 0.5 2 - 2 = 0.5 j1.323 i( t) = 4 + ( A cos 1.32 t + B sin 1.32 t) e -0 .5t 1 = 4 + A, A = -3 di(0) = 0 = 0.5 A + 1.32 B, dt B = -113 .
29. (B) Vo(0 + ) = 0 ,iL (0 + ) = 1 A A = -12,

-5t
150 = -5 A + B
-5t -5t
B = 90
-5t
v( t) = 12 + (90 t - 12) e
iL ( t) = 0.02( -5) e (90 t - 12) + 0.02(90) e 100 5 50 , 25. (A) v(0 ) = = 5 + 5 + 20 3

+
= ( 3 - 9 t) e
diL (0 + ) = v1 (0) = 0 dt 1 a= = 10, 2 5 0.01 s = -10, - 10 i( t) = 3( A + Bt) e -10 t , di(0 ) = -10 A + B dt iL ( t) = 3 - (2 + 20 t) e -10 t ,
+
Wo =
1 1 0.01
= 10
a = Wo, so critically damped response iL (0 ) = 0

+
if = 0 A diL (0 + ) 50 10 = 20 = dt 3 3 4 1 a= = 2, wo = =5 21 1 1 25 s = -2 4 - 25 = -2 j 4.58 i( t) = ( A cos 4.58 t + B sin 4.58 t) e -2 t 26.(A) iL (0 + ) = 0, vL (0 + ) = 4 - 12 = -8 1 dvL (0 ) = iL (0 + ) = 0 25 dt 6 1 a = = 3, Wo = =5 2 1 1 / 25 b = -3 9 - 25 = -3 j 4 v1 ( t) = -12 + ( A cos 4 t + B sin 4 t) e
-3t +
i(0) = 1 = 3 + A
vo =
LdiL ( t) = 200 te -10 t dt
di(0 + ) -6 vc (0 + ) = 2 1 = 2 = = -2 A, dt 1+2 1 1 1 a= = = 2, Wo = =2 2 RC 2 1 0.25 LC 30. (C) i(0 + ) = a = Wo, critically damped response s = -2 , -2 A = -2 i( t) = ( A + Bt) e -2 t , di( t) = ( -2 + Bt) e 2 t ( -2) + (0 + B) e -2 t dt At t = 0, B = -2 31. (A) i(0 + ) = 3 A, vC (0 + ) = 0 V = is = 9 A, R = 10| | 40 = 8 W 1 1 a= = = 6.25 2 RC 2 8 0.01 1 1 Wo = = =5 LC 4 0.01 a > Wo, so overdamped response s = -6.25 6.25 2 - 25 = -10, -2.5 i( t) = 9 + Ae -10 t + Be -2 .5t 3 = 9 + A + B, 0 = -10 A - 2.5 B On solving, A = 2, B = -8 ************
vL (0) = -8 = 12 + A, A =4 dvL (0) = 0 = -3 A + 4 B, B=3 dt 27. (C) a = Wo = 1 1 = = 50 2 RC 2 2 k 54 1 1 = = 5000 LC 8 m 5m
4 di(0 + ) dt
a < Wo, underdamped response. s = -50 50 2 - 5000 2 = -50 j5000 i( t) = 6 + ( A cos 5000 t + B sin 5000 t) e -50 t mA i(0) = 6 = 6 + A, A = -6 di(0) = -50 A + 5000 B = 0, B = -0.06 dt
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CHAPTER
1.7
SINUSOIDAL STEADY STATE ANALYSIS
1. i( t) = ? (A) (C)
25 mH
1 2 1 2
3W
cos (2 t - 45 ) V sin (2 t - 45 ) V
(B) (D)
1 2 1 2
cos (2 t + 45 ) V sin (2 t + 45 ) V
20cos 300t V
~
Fig. P1.7.1
4. vC ( t) = ?
3H
(A) 20 cos ( 300 t + 68. 2 ) A (B) 20 cos( 300 t - 68. 2 ) A (C) 2.48 cos( 300 t + 68. 2 ) A (D) 2.48 cos( 300 t - 68. 2 ) A 2. vC ( t) = ? (A) 2. 25 cos (5 t + 150 ) V
cos 10 t A
3
8cos 5t V
50 mF 9W
+ vC
Fig. P1.7.4
2W
1 mF
+ vC
(B) 2. 25 cos (5 t - 150 ) V (C) 2. 25 cos (5 t + 140.71 ) V (D) 2. 25 cos (5 t - 140.71 ) V 5. i( t) = ?

1W 4W i 10cos 2t V
Fig. P1.7.2
(A) 0.89 cos (10 3 t - 63.43 ) V (B) 0.89 cos (10 3 t + 63.43 ) V (C) 0.45 cos (10 t + 26.57 ) V
3
(D) 0.45 cos (10 t - 26.57 ) V

3
~
Fig. P1.7.5
0.25 F
4H
3. vC ( t) = ?
5W
cos 2t V
0.1 F
+ vC
(A) 2 sin (2 t + 5.77 ) A (C) 2 sin (2 t - 5.77 ) A
(B) cos (2 t - 84. 23 ) A (D) cos (2 t + 84. 23 ) A
Fig. P1.7.3
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Networks
13. In the bridge shown in fig. P1.7.13, Z1 = 300 W, Z 2 = ( 300 - j 600) W, Z 3 = (200 + j 100)W. The Z 4 balance is
1 3
Statement for Q.17-18: The circuit is as shown in fig. P1.7.17-18

1H 1W 1W 1H
at
5cos 4t V
2
1W i1 1F i2
10cos (4t-30 ) V
Fig. P1.7.1718
17. i1 ( t) = ? (A) 2.36 cos ( 4 t - 4107 . ) A (B) 2.36 cos ( 4 t + 4107 . ) A (C) 1.37 cos ( 4 t - 4107 . ) A (D) 2.36 cos ( 4 t + 4107 . ) A 18. i2 ( t) = ? (A) 2.04 sin ( 4 t + 92.13 ) A (B) -2.04 sin ( 4 t + 2.13 ) A (C) 2.04 cos ( 4 t + 2.13 ) A (D) -2.04 cos ( 4 t + 92.13 ) A 19. I x = ?
Fig. P1.7.13
(A) 400 + j 300 W (C) j100 W
~
(B) 400 - j 300 W (D) - j900 W 14. In a two element series circuit, the applied voltage and the resulting current are v( t) = 60 + 66 sin (10 3 t) V, i( t) = 2.3 sin (10 3 t + 68.3 ) A. The nature of the elements would be (A) R - C (C) R - L 15. Vo = ?
j20 40 W Vo
(B) L - C (D) R - R
4W
0.5Ix Ix
120-15o V
-j30
50 W
630 A
o
1030 V
o
-j2 W
j3 W
Fig. P1.7.15
Fig. P1.7.19
(A) 223 - 56 V (C) 124 - 154 V 16. vo( t) = ?

1H
(B) 22356 V (D) 124 154 V
(A) 394 . 46. 28 A (C) 7.42 92.49 A 20. Vx = ?

20 W
(B) 4.62 97.38 A (D) 6.78 49. 27 A
3W
j10 W
10sin (t+30o) V
1F
+ vo
20cos (t-45 ) V
4Vx
30 A
o
20 W
+ Vx
Fig. P1.7.16 Fig. P1.7.20
(A) 315 . cos ( t + 112 ) V (B) 43. 2 cos ( t + 23 ) V (C) 315 . cos ( t - 112 ) V (D) 43. 2 cos ( t - 23 ) V
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(A) 29.11166 V (C) 43. 24 124 V
(B) 29.11 - 166 V (D) 43. 24 - 124 V
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Networks
Statement for Q.2732: Determine the complex power for hte given values in question. 27. P = 269 W, Q = 150 VAR (capacitive) (A) 150 - j269 VA (C) 269 - j150 VA (B) 150 + j269 VA (D) 269 + j150 VA
35. In the circuit shown in fig. P1.7.35 power factor is

4W -j2
-j2
j5
Fig. P1.7.35
28. Q = 2000 VAR, pf = 0.9 (leading) (A) 4129.8 + j2000 VA (C) 2000 - j 4129 . .8 VA (B) 2000 + j 4129.8 VA (D) 4129.8 - j2000 VA
(A) 56.31 (leading) (C) 0.555 (lagging)
(B) 56.31 (lagging) (D) 0.555 (leading)
36. The power factor seen by the voltage source is 29. S = 60 VA, Q = 45 VAR (inductive) (A) 39.69 + j 45 VA (C) 45 + j 39.69 VA (B) 39.69 - j 45 VA (D) 45 - j 39.69 VA
10cos 2t V 4W + v1 1W
30. Vrms = 220 V, P = 1 kW, |Z |= 40 W (inductive) (A) 1000 - j 68125 . VA (C) 68125 . + j1000 VA (B) 1000 + j 68125 . VA (D) 68125 . - j1000 VA (A) 0.8 (leading) 31. Vrms = 2120 V, Vrms = 2120 V, I rms = 8.5 - 50 A (A) 154.6 + j 89.3 VA (C) 61 + j167.7 VA (B) 154.6 - j 89.3 VA (D) 61 - j167.7 VA
~
Fig. P1.7.36
3v 4 1
1 3F
(B) 0.8 (lagging) (D) 39.6 (lagging)
(C) 36.9 (leading)
37. The average power supplied by the dependent source is

Ix j1.92
32. Vrms = 120 30 V, Z = 40 + j 80 W (A) 72 + j144 VA (C) 144 + j72 VA 33. Vo = ?

+
(B) 72 - j144 VA (D) 144 - j72 VA

290 A
o
4.8 W
1.6Ix
8W
Fig. P1.7.37
20 kW 0.8 pf lagging
60 A
o
16 kW 0.9 pf lagging
VO
(A) 96 W (C) 92 W
(B) -96 W (D) -192 W
Fig. P1.7.33
38. In the circuit of fig. P1.7.38 the maximum power absorbed by Z L is

10 W j15
(A) 7.132. 29 kV (C) 38.49 24.39 kV
(B) 42.59 32.29 kV (D) 38.49 32. 29 kV

1200o V
34. A relay coil is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz supply. If it has resistance of 30 W and an inductance of 0.5 H, the apparent power is (A) 30 VA (C) 157 VA
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-j10
ZL
Fig. P1.7.38
(B) 275.6 VA (D) 187 VA (A) 180 W (C) 140 W (B) 90 W (D) 700 W
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Sinusoidal Steady State Analysis
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Chap 1.7
39. The value of the load impedance, that would absorbs the maximum average power is
j100
The line impedance connecting the source to load is 0.3 + j0.2 W. If the current in a phase of load 1 is I = 10 20 A rms , the current in source in ab branch is (A) 15 - 122 A rms (B) 8.67 - 122 A rms (D) 8.67 - 57.9 A rms sequence 3-phase balanced (C) 15 27.9 A rms 45. An abc phase
320o A
80 W
-j40
ZL
Fig. P1.7.39
Y-connected source supplies power to a balanced D connected load. The impedance per phase in the load is 10 + j 8 W. If the line current in a phase is I aA = 28.10 - 28.66 A rms and the line impedance is zero, the load voltage V AB is (A) 207.8 - 140 Vrms (C) 148.3 - 40 Vrms (B) 148.340 Vrms (D) 207.8 40 Vrms
(A) 12.8 - j 49.6 W (C) 339 . - j 86.3 W Statement for Q.4041:
(B) 12.8 + j 49.6 W (D) 339 . + j 86.3 W
In a balanced Yconnected three phase generator Vab = 400 Vrms 40. If phase sequence is abc then phase voltage Va , Vb , and Vc are respectively (A) 2310 , 231120 , 231240 (B) 231 - 30 , 231 - 150 , 23190 (C) 23130 , 231150 , 231 - 90 (D) 23160 , 231180 , 231 - 60 41. If phase sequence is acb then phase voltage are (A) 2310 , 231120 , 231240 (B) 231 - 30 , 231 - 150 , 23190 (C) 23130 , 231150 , 231 - 90 (D) 23160 , 231180 , 231 - 60 42. A balanced three-phase Y-connected load has one phase voltage Vc = 277 45 V. The phase sequence is abc. The line to line voltage V AB is (A) 480 45 V (C) 339 45 V (B) 480 - 45 V (D) 339 - 45 V
46. The magnitude of the complex power supplied by a 3-phase balanced Y-Y system is 3600 VA. The line voltage is 208 Vrms . If the line impedance is negligible and the power factor angle of the load is 25 , the load impedance is (A) 5.07 + j10.88 W (C) 432 . + j14.6 W (B) 10.88 + j5.07 W (D) 14.6 + j 432 . W
***********
43. A three-phase circuit has two parallel balanced D loads, one of the 6 W resistor and one of 12 W resistors. The magnitude of the total line current, when the line-to-line voltage is 480 Vrms , is (A) 120 A rms (C) 208 A rms (B) 360 A rms (D) 470 A rms
44. In a balanced three-phase system, the source has an abc phase sequence and is connected in delta. There are two parallel Y-connected load. The phase impedance of load 1 and load 2 is 4 + j 4 W and 10 + j 4 W respectively.
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Networks
SOLUTIONS
1. (D) Z = 3 + j(25m)( 300) = 3 + j7.5 W = 8.08 68. 2 I= 20 0 = 2.48 - 68. 2 A 8.08 68. 2 i( t) = 2.48 cos ( 300 t - 68. 2 ) A 1 + j(1m)(10 3) = 0.5 + j = 112 . 63.43 2 (10) VC = = 0.89 - 63.43 V 112 . 63.43 2. (A) Y = vC ( t) = 0.89 cos (10 3 t - 63.43 ) V -j 3. (A) Z = 5 + = 5 - j5 = 5 5 - 45 (0.1)(2) VC = (10) (5 - 90 ) 5 2 - 45 1 2 = 1 2 - 45 V
-j 7. (C) Z = |( 6 + j(27m) w) w(22m ) | 27 10 3 j 6 106 - j106 ( 6 + j27 10 -3 w) 22 22 w = 22 w = 6 10 106 6 + j(27mw ) 6 + jw 27m 22 w 22 w2

j27 10 3 - j 36 106 22 w22 106 w 27m - 22 w2 =0
w = 1278 1278 w Hz = = 203 Hz f = 2p 2p 8. (C) Vs = 7.68 47 V, V2 = 7.5135 V1 = Vs - V2 = 7.68 47 - 7.5135 = 159 . 125 9. (B) vin = 32 + (14 - 10) 2 = 5 10. (C) I1 = 744 - 118 mA, I 2 = 540 100 mA I = I1 + I 2 = 744 - 118 + 540.5 100 = 460 - 164 i( t) = 460 cos ( 3t - 164 ) mA 11. (A) 2 45 = VC V - 20 0 + C - j4 j5 + 10
j50 10 W
vC ( t) =
cos (2 t - 45 ) V -j = 9 + j11 (50m) (5)
4. (D) Z = 9 + j( 3)(5) +
Z = 14.2150.71 W ( 8 0)( 4 - 90 ) VC = = 2. 25 140.71 V 14. 2150.71
vC ( t) = 2. 25 cos (5 t - 140.71 ) V 10 0 10 0 1 5. (B) Va = V = 1 1 1 105 . + j0.4 + + 1 - j2 4 + j 8 I= Va 10 0 = = 1 - 84. 23 A 4 + j 8 1 + j10

1W Va 4W I 100 V
o
245 A
o
+ -j4 VC
200 V
o
Fig. S1.7.11
(1 + j)( - j 4)(10 + j5) = VC (10 + j5 - j 4) + j 8 60 - j100 = VC (10 + j) VC = 11.6 - 64.7
-j2
j8
12. (D) X = X L + X C = 0
Fig. S1.7.5
So reactive power drawn from the source is zero. 13. (B) Z1 Z 4 = Z 3Z 2 300 Z 4 = ( 300 - j 600)(200 + j100) Z 4 = 400 - j 300 14. (A) R - C causes a positive phase shift in voltage Z =|Z |q , -90 < q < 0 , I=
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i( t) = cos (2 t - 84.23 ) A 6. (D) w = 2 p 10 10 3 = 2 p 10 4 -j 1 Y = j(1m )(2 p 10 4 ) + + 4 (160m )(2 p 10 ) 36 = 0.0278 - j0.0366 S 1 Z= = 1316 . + j17.33 W Y
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Chap 1.7
120 15 - 6 30 40 + j20 15. (C) Vo = = 124 - 154 1 1 1 + + 40 + j20 - j 30 50 16. (C) 10 sin ( t + 30 ) = 10 cos ( t - 60 ) 10 - 60 20 - 45 + j 3 Vo = 1 1 1 + + j -j 3 = 30 - 150 +20 - 45 . - 112 V Vo = 315
j1 3W
20. (B) Let Vo be the voltage across current source Vo - 4 Vx Vo - Vx + =3 20 j10 Vo(20 + j10) - (20 + j 40) Vx = j 600 Vo(20) V Vx = Vo = x (2 + j) 20 + j10 2 (2 + j)(20 + j10) Vx = - 20(1 + j2) = j 600 2 j 600 Vx = = 29. 22 - 166 -5 - j20 j V - V2 21. (A) I1 = V3 + 3 = j0.1V2 + j0.4 V3 j10 2
10-60 V
o
+ -j1 W Vo
= (0.190 )(0.757 66.7 ) + (0.4 90 )(0.606 - 69.8 )

20-45 V
o
I1 = 0.196 35.6 Vo Vo - 3Vo + = 4 - 30 2 j4 Vo = 5.65 - 75
22. (A)
Fig. S.1.7.16
j j 17. (C) 5 0 = I1 j 4 + 1 + 1 - - I 2 1 - 4 4
j4 1W 1W j4
Vo(0.5 + j0.5) = 3.46 - j2
23. (D) I 2 = 4 90 , I 3 = 2 0
-j3 j4
50 V
o
1W I1 I2 -j0.25 W
10-30 V
o
120 V
o
+ I1 2W Vo I2
490 V
o
Fig. S.1.7.17
2W
2W
( 8 + j15) I1 - ( 4 - j) I 2 = 20 0 j j -10 - 30 = I 2 (1 + j 4 + 1 - ) - I1 (1 - ) 4 4 ( 4 - j) I1 - ( 8 + j15) I 2 = 40 - 30

2 2
...(i)
20o A
Fig. P1.7.23
...(ii) 12 0 = I1 ( - j 3 + 2 + 2) + 8 90 -4 0 . + j0.64 I1 = 352 . + j0.64 + j 4) = 11.65 52.82 V Vo = 2( 352 24. (D) I 2 = 30 A , I 4 - I 3 = 6 0 A

Io
I1 [( 8 + j15) - ( 4 - j) ] = (20 0)( 8 + j15) - ( 40 - 30 )( 4 - j) I1 ( -176 + j248) = 41.43 + j 414.64 . - j0.9 = 1.37 - 4107 . I1 = 103
( 8 + j15)(103 . - j0.9) - 20 0 18. (B) I 2 = 4-j = -0.076 + j2.04 I 2 = 2.04 92.13

1590o V
2W -j4
I2 j2
30o A
19. (B) 10 30 = 4 I1 - 0.5 I x + ( - j2) I x ( - j2) I x = ( I1 - I x ) j 3, I1 = 4 10 30 = - 0.5 - j2 I x 3

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1W
I3
60 A I4
o
1W
Fig. S.1.7.24
I 3(1) + ( I 3 - I o)( - j 4) + ( I 4 + I 2 )( j2) + I 4 = 0

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I 3 + ( I 3 - I o)( - j 4) + ( I 3 + 6 0 +30 )( j2) + I 3 + 60 = 0 I 3(2 - j2) + I o( j 4) = -18 j - 6 -I ( j2) - 3 - 9 j I3 = o (1 - j) I3 = Io + 3 - j6 j15 = 2 I o + 6 + ( j 4)( 3 - j 6) ( j10)( 8 - j5) = = 9 + j 4.4 8 + j10 - j5 15 90 = ( I o + 30 )(2) + ( I o - I 3)( - j 4)
32. (A) S =
2 |V | (120) 2 = = 72 + j144 VA Z* 40 - j 80
33. (A) S1 = 16 + j S2 = 20 + j
16 sin (cos -1 (0.9)) = 16 + j7.75 0.9
20 sin (cos -1 (0.8)) = 20 + j15 0.8 Vo = 7.132.29
S = S1 + S2 = 36 + j2.75 = 42.59 32.29 S = VoI * = 6 Vo
25. (A) Z TH VTH =
34. (B) Z = 30 + j(0.5)(2 p)(50) = 30 + j157, S=

2 |V | (210) 2 = * Z 30 - j157
( 32 0 )( j10) = 339 . 58 V 8 + j10 - j5 ...(i)
26 (D) ( 600 - j 300) I1 + j 300 I 2 = 9 300 I 2 = 3V1 , V1 = ( - j 300)( I1 - I 2 ) I 2 = - j 3( I1 - I 2 ) 3I1 = ( 3 + j) I 2
Apparent power =|S |=
(210) 2 30 2 + 152 2
= 275.6 VA
...(ii)
35. (D) Z = 4 +
Solving (i) and (ii) I 2 = 12.36 - 16 mA . - 16 Voc = 300 I 2 = 371 -2 V1 - V1 = 0 V1 = 0 9 0 I sc = = 15 0 mA 600 311 . - 16 V Z TH = oc = = 247 - 16 W I sc 15 0 10 -3 27. (C) S = P - jQ = 269 - j150 VA
( - j2)( j5 - j2) - j2 + j5 - j2
= 4 - j 6 = 7.21 - 56.31, pf = cos 56.31 = 0.555 leading 36. (A) 10 - V1 V1 3 + V1 = 4 4 1 - j15 .

4W I1 100 V
o
V1 = 4 36.9 ,
1W
+ V1
28. (D) pf = cos q = 0.9 Q = S sin q S=
q = 25.84
3V 4 1
-j1.5
Q 2000 = = 4588.6 VA sin q sin 25.84
Fig. S.1.7.36
P = S cos q = 4129.8, S = 4129.8 - j2000 29. (A) Q = S sin q q = 48.59 , sin q = Q 45 or = S 60
I1 = 136.9 (136.9 )(10 0 ) S= = 5 - 36.9 2 pf = cos 36.9 = 0.8 leading 37. (A) (2 - 90 ) 4.8 = - I x ( 4.8 + j192 . ) + 0.6 I x ( 8)
Ix j1.92 Va
P = S cos q = 39.69, S = 39.69 + j 45 VA

2 |V | (220 2 ) 30. (B) S = rms = = 1210 |Z | 40
4.8 W 1.6Ix (290o)4.8 V 8W
P 1000 cos q = = = 0.8264 or q = 34.26 , S 1210 Q = S sin q = 68125, . S = 1000 + j 68125 . VA

* 31. (C) S = Vrms I rms = (2120 )( 8.5 50 )
~
Fig. S.1.7.37
I x = 5 0 , Va = 0.6 5 8 = 24 0 , 1 Pave = 24 1.6 5 = 96 2

= 61 + j167.7 VA
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Chap 1.7
38. (A) Z TH = VTH =
( - j10)(10 + j15) = 8 - j14 W 10 + j15 - j10
45. (D) I AB =
I aA 3
( q + 30 ) = 16.22 1.34 A rms
120( - j10) = 107.3 - 116.6 V 10 + j5
V AB = I AB Z D = (16. 22 1.340 )(10 + j 8) = 207.8 40 Vrms 46. (B) |S |= 3VL I L ZY = 208 10 3 IL = 3600 208 3 = 10 A rms
107.3 - 116.6 IL = = 6.7 - 116.6 16 1 PLmax = ( 6.7) 2 8 = 180 W 2 39. (B) Z TH = ( - j 40)( 80 + j100) = 12.8 - j 49.6 W 80 + j 60 - 30 = 231 - 30 V
25 = 12 25 = 10.88 + j5.07 W
40. (B) Va =
400 3
********
Vb = 231 - 150 V, Vc = 231 - 270 V 41. (C) For the acb sequence Vab = Va - Vb = Vp 0 - Vp 120 1 3 400 = Vp 1 + 2 - j 2 400 Vp = 30 3 = Vp 3 - 30
Va = Vp 0 = 23130 V, Vb = Vp 120 = 231150 V Vc = Vp 240 = 231 - 90 V 42. (B) V A = 277 ( 45 -120 ) = 277 - 75 V VB = 277 ( 45 + 120 ) = 277 165 V V AB = V A - VB = 480 - 45 V 43. (C) Z A = 6 | |12 = 4, IP = 480 = 120 A rms 4
I L = 3I P = 208 A rms 44 (B) I = I aA (10 + j 4) = 10 20 (10 + j 4) + ( 4 + j 4)

a IaA
Iac Ibc
Iab IbB b icC
Fig. S.1.7.44
I aA = 15 - 27.9 A rms |I | I ab = - aA ( q + 30 ) = 8.67 - 122.1 A rms 3

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CHAPTER
1.8
CIRCUIT ANALYSIS IN THE S-DOMAIN
1. Z ( s) = ?
1F 2H
(A)
s2 + 1 s2 + 2 s + 1 2 s2 + 1 (C) 2 s + 2s + 2
(B)
2( s 2 + 1) ( s + 1) 2 s2 + 1 (D) 3s + 2
Z(s)
1W
1W
4. Z ( s) = ?
1W
Fig. P1.8.1
s 2 + 15 . s+1 (A) s( s + 1) 2 s 2 + 3s + 2 (C) s( s + 1) 2. Z ( s) = ?

1F Z(s) 1W
s 2 + 3s + 1 s( s + 1) 2 s 2 + 3s + 1 (D) 2 s( s + 1) (B) (A)
Z(s)
1H
1W
0.5 F
Fig. P1.8.4
1W
1H
3s 2 + 8 s + 7 s(5 s + 6) 3s 2 + 7 s + 6 (C) s(5 s + 6)
s(5 s + 6) 3s 2 + 8 s + 7 s(5 s + 6) (D) 3s 2 + 7 s + 6 (B)
5. The s-domain equivalent of the circuit of Fig.P1.8.5. is

Fig. P1.8.2
t=0
2
3W
s + s+1 s( s + 1) s( s + 1) (C) 2 s2 + s + 1
2
(A)
(B)
2s + s + 1 s( s + 1) s( s + 1) (D) 2 s + s+1
3W
6V
3F
+ vC
3. Z ( s) = ?
Fig. P1.8.5
3W +
1H Z(s) 1F 2W
1 3s
VC(s)
1 3s
6 V s
+ VC(s) -
2A
Fig. P1.8.3
(A) (C) Both A and B

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Chap 1.8
6. The sdomain equivalent of the circuit shown in Fig. P1.8.6 is

t=0
9. For the network shown in fig. P1.8.9 voltage ratio transfer function G12 is
1H 1H
+ 2A 12 W 2H vL
v1 1F
1F
1F + v2 -
1F
1F
Fig. P1.8.6 Fig. P1.8.9
(A)
+ 2s 12 W VL 4V -
(B)
+ 2A s
(A) (C)
( s 2 + 2) 5 s + 5 s2 + 1
4
(B) (D)
s2 + 1 5 s + 5 s2 + 1
4
12 W
2s
VL -
( s 2 + 2) 2 5 s4 + 5 s2 + 1
( s 2 + 1) 2 5 s4 + 5 s2 + 1
10. For the network shown in fig. P1.8.10, the admittance transfer function is Y12 = K ( s + 1) ( s + 2)( s + 4)
(C) Both A and B Statement for Q.7-8:
(D) None of these
The circuit is as shown in fig. P1.8.78. Solve the problem and choose correct option.
+
3 W 2
i1
1W
i2 +
is
1W
1H
io +
v1 -
2F
3
2F
1W
v2 -
vs
1F
1F
1W
vo
Fig. P1.8.10
Fig. P1.8.78
The value of K is (A) -3 (C) 1 3 (B) 3 (D) 1 3
V ( s) 7. H1 ( s) = o =? Vs ( s) (A) s( s3 + 2 s2 + 3s + 1) -1 (B) ( s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1) -1 (C) ( s 3 + 2 s 2 + 3s + 2) -1 (D) s( s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s2 + 2) -1 8. H 2 ( s) = (A) I o( s) =? Vs ( s)

2
11. In the circuit of fig. P1.8.11 the switch is in position 1 for a long time and thrown to position 2 at t = 0. The equation for the loop currents I1 ( s) and I 2 ( s) are
1 2 12 V t=0 i1 3H 2W i2 1F 1F
-s ( s + 3s + 2 s + 1)
3
(B) -( s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1) -1 (D) ( s 3 + 2 s 2 + 3s + 2) -1
(C)
-s 3 2 ( s + 2 s + 3s + 1)
Fig. P1.8.11
1 2 + 3s + s (A) -3s
- 3s 1 2+ s
12 I1 ( s) s I ( s) = 2 0
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1 2 + 3s + s (B) -3s
- 3s 1 2+ s
12 I1 ( s) - s I ( s) = 2 0
S1 10 V
3F 5V + 2F
Va + + 6V -
4F 1V -
S2
5V
1 -3s 2 + 3s + s (C) 2 + 3s + -3s 1 -3s 2 + 3s + s (D) 2 + 3s + -3s
12 I1 ( s) - s = 1 I ( s) 2 0 s 12 I1 ( s) s = 1 I ( s) 2 0 s
Fig. P1.8.14
(A)
9 t
(B) 9 e - t V (D) 0 V
(C) 9 V
15. A unit step current of 1 A is applied to a network whose driving point impedance is V ( s) ( s + 3) = I ( s) ( s + 2) 2
12. In the circuit of fig. P1.8.12 at terminal ab Thevenin equivalent is

1
s a + Vo(s) -
Z ( s) =
The steady state and initial values of the voltage developed across the source would be respectively (A)
2Vo(s)
3 4 3 4
(s+1)
4 A
V, I V V, 0 V
(B)
2W
1 4
V,
3 4 3 4
V V
(C)
b
(D) 1 V,
16. In the circuit of Fig. P1.8.16 i(0) = 1 A, vC (0) = 8 V and v1 = 2 e -2 10 t u( t). The i( t) is
i 50 W 1m H
4
Fig. P1.8.12
(A) VTH ( s) = (B) VTH ( s) = (C) VTH ( s) =
-8( s + 2) -(2 s + 1) , Z TH ( s) = 3s( s + 1) 3s 8( s + 2) (2 s + 1) , Z TH ( s) = 3s( s + 1) 3s 4( s + 3) (2 s + 1) , Z TH ( s) = 3s( s + 1) 6s (A) (B)

1 15 1 15
v1
2.5 mF
+ vC
Fig. P1.8.16
-4( s + 3) -(2 s + 1) (D) VTH ( s) = , Z TH ( s) = 3s( s + 1) 6s 13. In the circuit of fig. P1.8.13 just before the closing of switch at t = 0, the initial conditions are known to be vC1 (0 ) = 1 V, vC 2 (0 ) = 0. The voltage vC1 ( t) is
t=0 1F 1F + vC2 -
[10 e-10
t
4
- 3e-2 10
t
- 22 e-4 10 t ]u( t) A
4
[ -10 e -10
4
+ 3e -2 10
4
+ 22 e -4 10 t ]u( t) A
4
(C) 1 [10 e-10 3
t
4
+ 3e-2 10
t
t
4
+ 22 e-4 10 t ]u( t) A
t
(D) 1 [ -10 e -10 3
+ 3e -2 10
- 22 e -4 10 t ]u( t) A
17. In the circuit shown in Fig. P1.8.18 v(0 - ) = 8 V and

+ vC1 -
iin ( t) = 4 d( t). The vC ( t) for t 0 is
iin
50 W
20 mF
Fig. P1.8.13
+ vC
(A) u( t) V (C) 0.5 e

-t
(B) 0.5 u( t) V V (D) e - t V

-
Fig. P1.8.17
(A) 164 e- t V (C) 208(1 - e -3t ) V
(B) 208 e- t V (D) 164 e -3t V
14. The initial condition at t = 0 of a switched capacitor circuit are shown in Fig. P1.8.14. Switch S1 and S2 are closed at t = 0. The voltage va ( t) for t > 0 is
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Chap 1.8
18. The driving point impedance Z ( s) of a network has the pole zero location as shown in Fig. P1.8.18. If Z (0) = 3, the Z ( s) is
jw 1
The steady state voltage across capacitor is (A) 6 V (C) 23. The transformed (B) 0 V (D) 2 V voltage across the 60 m F
-3
-1 -1
capacitor is given by VC ( s) = 20 s + 6 (10 s + 3)( s + 4) (B) - 0.12 mA (D) - 0.48 mA
Fig. P1.8.18
The initial current through capacitor is 2( s + 3) 2 s + 2s + 2 (A) 0.12 mA (C) 0.48 mA
(A)
4( s + 3) s2 + s + 1
(B)
2( s + 3) (C) 2 s + 2s + 2 Statement for Q.19-21:
4( s + 3) (D) 2 s + s+2
24. The current through an 4 H inductor is given by I L ( s) = 10 s( s + 2)
The circuit is as shown in the fig. P1.8.1921. All initial conditions are zero.
io
The initial voltage across inductor is (A) 40 V (C) 10 V (B) 20 V (D) 5 V
iin
1H
1W
1F
1W
25. The amplifier network shown in fig. P1.8.25 is stable if

4W 1F 1H
Fig. P1.8.1921
19. (A)
I o( s) =? I in ( s) ( s + 1) 2s (B) 2 s( s + 1) -1 (D) s( s + 1) -1 (A) K 3 (C) K 1 3
2W
+ + v1 Amplifier v 2 gain=K -
(C) ( s + 1) s -1
Fig.P1.8.25
(B) K 3 (D) K 1 3
20. If iin ( t) = 4 d( t) then io( t) will be (A) 4 d( t) - e- t u( t) A (B) 4 d( t) - 4 e- t u( t) A (C) 4 e - t u( t) - 4 d( t) A (D) e - t u( t) - d( t) A 21. If iin ( t) = tu( t) then io( t) will be (A) e - t u( t) A (C) u( t) A (B) (1 - e - t ) u( t) A (D) (2 - e - t ) u( t) A
26. The network shown in fig. P1.8.26 is stable if

1W 2F + Kv2 1F 1W v2 -
Fig.P1.8.26
22. The voltage across 200 mF capacitor is given by VC ( s) = 2s + 6 s( s + 3)
5 2 2 (C) K 5 (A) K
5 2 2 (D) K 5 (B) K
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27. A circuit has a transfer function with a pole s = - 4 and a zero which may be adjusted in position as s = - a The response of this system to a step input has a term of form Ke -4 t . The K will be a (A) H 1 - 4 a (C) H 4 - 4 (H= scale factor) a (B) H 1 + 4 a (D) H 4 + 4
31. The current ratio transfer function (A) s( s + 4) s + 3s + 4

2
Io is Is
(B)
s( s + 4) ( s + 1)( s + 3) ( s + 1)( s + 3) s( s + 4)
(C)
s 2 + 3s + 4 s( s + 4)
(D)
32. The response is (A) Over damped (C) Critically damped (B) Under damped (D) cant be determined
28. A circuit has input vin ( t) = cos 2 t u( t) V and output io( t) = 2 sin 2 t u( t) A. The circuit had no internal stored energy at t = 0. The admittance transfer function is 2 s (A) (B) s 2 (C) s (D) 1 s
33. If input is is 2 u( t) A, the output current io is (A) (2 e - t - 3te -3t ) u( t) A (C) ( 3e - t - e -3t ) u( t) A (B) ( 3te - t - e -3t ) u( t) A (D) ( e -3t - 3e - t ) u( t) A
34. In the network of Fig. P1.8.34, all initial condition are zero. The damping exhibited by the network is
29. A two terminal network consists of a coil having an inductance L and resistance R shunted by a capacitor C. The poles of the driving point impedance function Z of this network are at - 1 j 2 Z (0) = 1 the value of R, L, C are 1 (A) 3 W, 3 H, F 3 1 (C) 1 W, 2 H, F 2 1 (B) 2 W, 2 H, F 2
Fig. P1.8.34
3 2
1F
4
2H
and zero at -1. If

vs 2W
+ vo -
(D) 1 W, 1 H, 1 F
(A) Over damped (B) Under damped
30. The current response of a network to a unit step input is 10( s + 2) Io = 2 s ( s + 11s + 30) The response is (A) Under damped (C) Critically damped (B) Over damped (D) None of the above
(C) Critically damped (D) value of voltage is requires 35. The voltage response of a network to a unit step input is Vo( s) = The response is 10 s( s 2 + 8 s + 16)
Statement for Q.31-33: The circuit is shown in fig. P1.8.31-33.
(A) under damped (C) critically damped
(B) over damped (D) cant be determined
36. The response of an initially relaxed circuit to a

1H is 4W io
signal vs is e -2 t u( t). If the signal is changed to vs + , the response would be
2 dvs dt
1F
3
(A) 5 e -2 t u( t) (C) 4 e -2 t u( t)
(B) -3e -2 t u( t) (D) -4 e -2 t u( t)

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Chap 1.8
37. Consider the following statements in the circuit shown in fig. P1.8.37
i 2H 4W
42. The network function
s2 + 7 s + 6 is a s+2 (B) RL admittance (D) LC admittance
(A) RL impedance function (C) LC impedance function
10 V
1W
1F
+ vC
43. A valid immittance function is ( s + 4)( s + 8) s( s + 1) (A) (B) ( s + 2)( s - 5) ( s + 2)( s + 5) (C) s( s + 2)( s + 3) ( s + 1)( s + 4) (D) s( s + 2)( s + 6) ( s + 1)( s + 4)
Fig. P1.8.37
1. It is a first order circuit with steady state value of 10 5 , i= A vC = 3 3 2. It is a second order circuit with steady state of vC = 2 V , i = 2 A 3. The network function 4. The network function V ( s) has one pole. I ( s) V ( s) has two poles. I ( s)
44. The network function (A) RLadmittance (C) LC admittance
s 2 + 8 s + 15 is a s2 + 6 s + 8 (B) RC admittance (D) Above all
45. A impedance function is given as Z ( s) = 3( s + 2)( s + 4) s( s + 3)
The true statements are (A) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 38. The network function (A) RC admittance (C) LC impedance 39. The network function an (A) RC impedance (C) LC impedance (B) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4 s 2 + 10 s + 24 represent a s 2 + 8 s + 15 (B) RL impedance (D) None of the above s( s + 4) represents ( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 3) (B) RL impedance (D) None of these
3 1F
3W
The network for this function is

1F
3
1W
3W 8F
1W
1F
1F
(A)
(B)
1H 3
1W
1F
3W
1W
1H
3W
s( 3s + 8) 40. The network function represents an ( s + 1)( s + 3) (A) RL admittance (C) RC admittance 41. The network function (B) RC impedance (D) None of the above ( s + 1)( s + 4) is a s( s + 2)( s + 5) (C)
(D)
************
(A) RL impedance function (B) RC impedance function (C) LC impedance function (D) Above all
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18. (B) Z ( s) = 3K Z (0) = =3 2
K ( s + 3) K ( s + 3) = 2 ( s - ( -1 + j))( s - (1 - j)) s + 2 s + 2 K =2 s s+1
26. (B) Let v1 be the node voltage of middle node V1 ( s) = KV2 ( s) + 2 sV2 ( s) 1 + 2s + s
I ( s) 19. (D) o = I in ( s)
s 1 + s+1 s+1
s s+1
( 3s + 1) V1 ( s) = (2 s + K ) V2 ( s) 2 sV1 ( s) V2 ( s) = 2s + 1 (2 s + 1) V2 ( s) = 2 sV1 ( s) ( 3s + 1)(2 s + 1) = 2 s(2 s + K ) 2 s 2 + (5 - 2 K ) s + 1 = 0, 5 5 - 2 K > 0, K < 2 27. (A) H ( s) = H ( s + a) s+4
20. (B) I in ( s) = 4 I o( s) = 4s 4 =4s+1 s+1 io( t) = 4 d( t) - 4 e - t u( t)
1 , s2 1 1 1 I o( s) = = s( s + 1) s s + 1 21. (B) I in ( s) = io( t) = u( t) - e - t u( t) = (1 - e - t ) u( t) 22. (D) vC ( ) = lim sVC ( s) = lim

s 0 s 0
a H 1 - H ( s + a) Ha 4 R( s) = = + s( s + 4) 4s s+4 r ( t) = Ha a u( t) + H 1 - e - 4 t 4 4 I o( s) 2 s 2 , I o( s) = 2 , = s2 + 1 s + 1 Vin ( s) s
2s + 6 =2 V s+3
28. (A) Vin ( s) = 23. (D) vC (0 + ) = lim sVC ( s)=

s
s(20 s + 6) =2 V (10 s + 3)( s + 4)

+
CdvC iC = dt
I C ( s) = C[ sVC ( s) - vC (0 )]
s(20 s + 6) -480 10 -6 (10 s + 3) = 60 10 -6 (10 s + 3)( s + 4) - 2 = 10 s 2 + 43s + 12 iC (0 + ) = lim sI C ( s) = - 480 10 -6 = - 0.48 mA

s
R 1 1 s + C L sC = 29. (D) Z ( s) = R 1 1 s2 + sL + R + + L LC sC K ( s + 1) K ( s + 1) Z ( s) = = 2 ( s + s + 1) 1 3 1 3 s + + j s + - j 2 2 2 2 ( sL + R)
24. (A) vL = L
d iL VL ( s) = L [ sI L ( s) - iL (0 + )] dt 10 iL (0 + ) = lim sI L ( s) = =0 s s+2 VL ( s) = 40 s 40 = s( s + 2) s + 2
s
sL Z(s) R
1
Cs
vL (0 + ) = lim sVL ( s) =
s 40 = 40 s+2
Fig. S1.8.29
25. (A) V2 ( s) = KV1 ( s) V1 ( s) V1 ( s) - KV1 ( s) + =0 1 2 4+s+ s 1 4 + s + + 2 - 2K = 0 s s2 + ( 6 - 2 K ) s + 1 = 0 K <3 (6 - 2K ) > 0
Since Z (0) = 1, thus K = 1 1 R 1 = 1, = 1, =1 C L LC C = 1, L = 1, R = 1
30. (B) The characteristic equation is s 2 ( s 2 + 11s + 30) = 0 s 2 ( s + 6) ( s + 5) =0 s = -6, - 5, Being real and unequal, it is overdamped.
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Chap 1.8
31. (B)
Io s+4 s( s + 4) = = 3 Is s + 4 + ( s + 1)( s + 3) s
39. (D) Poles and zero does not interlace on negative real axis so it is not a immittance function. 40. (C) The singularity nearest to origin is a zero. So it may be RL impedance or RC valid RC admittance function. Because of (D) option it is required to check that it is a admittance function. The poles and zeros interlace along the negative real axis. The residues of YRC ( s) are real and positive. s 41. (B) The singularity nearest to origin is a pole. So it may be RC impedance or RL admittance function. 42. (A) s 2 + 7 s + 6 ( s + 1)( s + 6) = s+2 ( s + 2)
32. (A) The characteristic equation is ( s + 1) ( s + 3) = 0. Being real and unequal root, it is overdamped response. 33. (C) is = 2 u( t) I o ( s) = 2 I s ( s) = s
2( s + 4) 3 1 = ( s + 1)( s + 3) s+1 s+ 3
io = ( 3e- t - e-3t ) u( t) A V ( s) 2 1 34. (B) o = = 2 4 Vs ( s) + 2s + 2 s + s + 2 s The roots are imaginary so network is underdamped. 35. (C) The characteristic equation is s( s 2 + 8 s + 16) = 0, ( s + 4) 2 = 0, s = -4, - 4 Being real and repeated root, it is critically damped. 36. (B) vo = e -2 t u( t) v s = vs + 2 dvs dt Vo( s) = H ( s) Vs ( s) = 1 s+2
The singularity nearest to origin is at zero. So it may be RC admittance or RL impedance function. 43. (D) (A) pole lie on positive real axis (B) poles and zero does not interlace on axis. (C) poles and zero does not interlace on axis. (D) is a valid immittance function. 44. (A) s 2 + 8 s + 15 ( s + 3) ( s + 5) = s 2 + 6 s + 8 ( s + 2) ( s + 4)
Vs( s) = (1 + 2 s) Vs ( s)
Vo( s) = H ( s) Vs( s) = (1 + 2 s) Vs ( s) H ( s) Vo( s) = 1 + 2s 3 =2 s+2 s+2

-2 t v u( t) o = 2 d( s) - 3e
The singularity nearest to origin is a pole. So it may be a RL admittance or RC impedance function. 45. (A) The singularity nearest to origin is a pole. So this is RC impedance function. 8 1 8 13 Z ( s) = 3 + + =3+ + s s+3 s 1+ s 3
**************
37. (C) It is a second order circuit. In steady state i= 10 =2 A , v =2 1 =2 V 4+1 10 2s + 4 + 1 1 1+ s 2 = 5( s + 2) ( s + 2) 2 + 1
I ( s) =
V ( s) =
10 1 1+ s 2 1 (2 s + 4) + 1 1+ s 2
10 ( s + 2) 2 + 1
V ( s) 2 , It has one pole at s = -2 = I ( s) s + 2 38. (D) s 2 + 10 s + 24 ( s + 4)( s + 6) = s 2 + 8 s + 15 ( s + 3)( s + 5)
The singularity near to origin is pole. So it may be RC impedance or RL admittance function.

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CHAPTER
1.9
MAGNETICALLY COUPLED CIRCUITS
Statement for Q.1-2: In the circuit of fig. P1.9.1-2 i1 = 4 sin 2 t A, and i2 = 0.
i1 + v1 2H 1H i2 + 1H v2 +
4. If i1 = e -2 t V and i2 = 0, the voltage v2 is (A) -6 e -2 t V (C) 15 . e -2 t V Statement for Q.5-6: Consider the circuit shown in fig. P19.5-6
i1 2H i2 + 3H v2 -
(B) 6 e -2 t V (D) -15 . e -2 t V
Fig. P1.9.1-2
v1 2H
1. v1 = ? (A) -16 cos 2 t V (C) 4 cos 2 t V 2. v2 = ? (A) 2 cos 2 t V (C) 8 cos 2 t V Statement for Q.3-4: Consider the circuit shown in Fig. P1.9.3-4
i1 + v1 3H 3H i2 + 4H v2 -
(B) 16 cos 2 t V (D) -4 cos 2 t V
Fig. P1.9.5-6
5. If current i1 = 3 cos 4 t A and i2 = 0, then voltage v1 and (B) -2 cos 2 t V (D) -8 cos 2 t V v2 are (A) v1 = -24 sin 4 t V, (B) v1 = 24 sin 4 t V, (C) v1 = 15 . sin 4 t V, (D) v1 = -15 . sin 4 t V, v2 = -24 sin 4 t V v2 = -36 sin 4 t V v2 = sin 4 t V v2 = - sin 4 t V
6. If current i1 = 0 and i2 = 4 sin 3t A, then voltage v1 and v2 are (A) v1 = 24 cos 3t V, (B) v1 = 24 cos 3t V, (C) v1 = -24 cos 3t V, (D) v1 = -24 cos 3t V,
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v2 = 36 cos 3t V v2 = -36 cos 3t V v2 = 36 cos 3t V v2 = -36 cos 3t V

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Fig. P1.9.5-6
3. If i1 = 0 and i2 = 2 sin 4 t A, the voltage v1 is (A) 24 cos 4 t V (C) 15 . cos 4 t V

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(B) -24 cos 4 t V (D) -15 . cos 4 t V
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Statement for Q.7-8: In the circuit shown in fig. P1.9.7-8, i1 = 3 cos 3t A and i2 = 4 sin 3t A.
i1 + v1 2H 1H i2 + 2H v2 -
12. Leq = ?
3.6 H Leq 1H 1.4 H
Fig. P1.9.12
(A) 4 H (C) 7 H
(B) 6 H (D) 0 H
Fig. P1.9.7-8
7. v1 = ? (A) 6( -2 cos t + 3 sin t) V (C) -6(2 cos t + 3 sin t) V 8. v2 = ? (A) 3( 8 cos 3t - 3 sin t) V (C) 3( 8 cos 3t + 3 sin 3t) V Statement for Q.9-10: In the circuit shown in fig. P1.9.9-10, i1 = 5 sin 3t A and i2 = 3 cos 3t A
i1 + v1 3H 3H i2 +
(B) 6( 2 cos t + 3 sin t) V (D) 6(2 cos t - 3 sin t) V
13. Leq = ?
4H Leq 2H 2H
(B) 6(2 cos t + 3 sin t) V (D) 6(2 cos t - 3 sin t) V (A) 2 H (C) 6 H 14. Leq = ?
4H Leq
Fig. P1.9.13
(B) 4 H (D) 8 H
4H
v2 -
4H
6H
Fig. P1.9.9-10
Fig. P1.9.14
9. v1 =? (A) 9(5 cos 3t + 3 sin 3t) V (C) 9( 4 cos 3t + 5 sin 3t) V 10. v2 = ? (A) 9( -4 sin 3t + 5 cos 3t) V (C) 9( -4 sin 3t - 5 cos 3t) V (B) 9( 4 sin 3t - 5 cos 3t) V (D) 9( 4 sin 3t + 5 cos 3t) V (B) 9(5 cos 3t - 3 sin 3t) V (D) 9(5 cos 3t - 3 sin 3t) V
(A) 8 H (C) 4 H 15. Leq = ?
(B) 6 H (D) 2 H
2H Leq
4H
2H
11. In the circuit shown in fig. P1.9.11 if current i1 = 5 cos (500 t - 20 ) mA and i2 = 20 cos (500 t - 20 ) mA, the total energy stored in system at t = 0 is
i1 + v1 2.5 H
k=0.6
Fig. P1.9.15
(A) 0.4 H (C) 1.2 H
(B) 2 H (D) 6 H
i2 +
16. The equivalent inductance of a pair of a coupled

0.4 H v2 -
inductor in various configuration are (a) 7 H after series adding connection (b) 1.8 H after series opposing connection (c) 0.5 H after parallel connection with dotted terminal connected together.
Fig. P1.9.11
(A) 151.14 m J (C) 249.44 m J

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The value of L1 , L2 and M are (A) 3 H, 1.6 H, 1.2 H (C) 3.7 H, 0.7 H, 1.3 H 17. Leq = ?
2H
20. Leq = ?
1H 1H Leq 2H 2H 3H
(B) 1.6 H, 3 H, 1.4 H (D) 2 H, 3 H, 3 H
Leq
4H
2H
Fig. P1.9.20
(A) 1 H
Fig. P1.9.17
(B) 2 H (D) 4 H
(C) 3 H 21. Leq = ?
(A) 0.2 H (C) 0.4 H 18. Leq = ?

3H Leq
(B) 1 H (D) 2 H
4H Leq 3H 2H
3H 2H
5H
3H
Fig. P1.9.21
Fig. P1.9.18
41 (A) H 5 (C) 51 H 5
(B) (D)
49 H 5 39 H 5
(A) 1 H (C) 3 H
(B) 2 H (D) 4 H
Statement for Q.22-24: 19. In the network of fig. P1.9.19 following terminal are connected together (i) none (iii) B to C
a 2H 3H 5H 1H b C
Consider the circuit shown in fig. P1.9.2224.

A
(ii) A to B (iv) A to C
2H A 6t A 20 H 5H 4H B 3H 15t A
B 4H 6H C
Fig. P1.9.2224
22. The voltage V AG of terminal AD is (A) 60 V (C) 180 V (B) -60 V (D) 240 V
Fig. P1.9.19
The correct match for equivalent induction seen at terminal a - b is (i) (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 H 13 H 13 H 1 H (ii) 0.875 H 0.875 H 7.375 H 7.375 H (iii) 0.6 H 0.6 H 6.6 H 6.6 H (iv) 0.75 H 0.75 H 2.4375 H 2.4375 H 23. The voltage vBG of terminal BD is (A) 45 V (C) 69 V (B) 33 V (D) 105 V
24. The voltage vCG of terminal CD is (A) 30 V (C) -36 V

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33. In the circuit of fig. P1.9.33 the w = 2 rad s. The resonance occurs when C is
C 2H Zin 4W
37. In the circuit of fig. P1.9.37 the maximum power delivered to RL is

10 W
1 : 4
2H
2H
100 Vrms
~
Fig. P1.9.37
RL
Fig. P1.9.33
(A) 1 F (C)
1 3
(B) (D)
1 2 1 6
F F (A) 250 W (C) 150 W (B) 200 W (D) 100 W
34. In the circuit of fig. P1.9.34, the voltage gain is zero at w = 333.33 rad s. The value of C is
20 W 0.09 H 40 W
38. The average power delivered to the 8 W load in the circuit of fig. P1.9.38 is
300 W I1 + 50 Vrms
5 : 1
I2 + 8W V2 -
vin
0.12 H
0.27 H 2F C
+ vout -
-0.04V2
V1 -
Fig. P1.9.34
Fig. P1.9.38
(A) 100 m F (C) 50 m F
(B) 75 m F (D) 25 m F
(A) 8 W (C) 625 kW
(B) 1.25 kW (D) 2.50 kW
35. In the circuit of fig. P1.9.35 at w = 333.33 rad s, the voltage gain vout vin is zero. The value of C is
C 20 W
k=0.5
39. In the circuit of fig. P1.9.39 the ideal source supplies 1000 W, half of which is delivered to the 100 W load. The value of a and b are
4W
1 : a
40 W + 0.12 H 0.27 H 20 W vout -
25 W
1 : b
vin
100 Vrms
~
Fig. P1.9.39
100 W
Fig. P1.9.35
(A) 6, 0.47 (A) 3.33 mF (C) 3.33 m F (B) 33.33 mF (D) 33.33 m F (C) 0.89, 5 40. I 2 = ?
25 W
3 : 1
(B) 5, 0.89 (D) 0.47, 6
36. The Thevenin equivalent at terminal ab for the network shown in fig. P1.9.36 is
a
1 : 4
I2
2W
4 : 3
60 W
50 Vrms
~
Fig. P1.9.40
3W
20 W Ix b
20Ix
Fig. P1.9.36
(A) 6 V, 10 W (C) 0 V, 4 W
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(B) 6 V, 4 W (D) 0 V, 10 W
(A) 1.65 A rms (C) 0.66 A rms
(B) 0.18 A rms (D) 5.90 A rms
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Chap 1.9
41. V2 = ?
50 W 40 W
5 : 2
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) v1 = 2
+ 10 W V2 -
di1 di di + 1 2 = 2 1 = 16 cos 2 t V dt dt dt di2 di di + (1) 1 = 1 = 8 cos 2 t V dt dt dt
80 Vrms
~
Fig. P1.9.41
2. (C) v2 = (1)
3. (B) v1 = 3
(A) -12.31 V (C) -9.231 V
(B) 12.31 V (D) 9.231 V 4. (C) v2 = 4
di1 di di - 3 2 = - 3 2 = - 24 cos 4 t V dt dt dt di di2 di - 3 1 = - 3 1 = 6 e -2 t V dt dt dt
42. The power being dissipated in 400 W resistor is

1W
1 : 2
4W
1 : 5
10 Vrms
48 W
400 W
di1 di di - 2 2 = 2 1 = -24 sin 4 t V dt dt dt di2 di1 di1 v2 = -3 +2 =2 = -24 sin 4 t V dt dt dt 5. (A) v1 = 2 di1 di di - 2 2 = - 2 2 = - 24 cos 3t V dt dt dt di di di v2 = 3 2 + 2 1 = -3 2 = -36 cos 3t V dt dt dt 6. (D) v1 = 2 7. (A) v1 = 2 di1 di +1 2 dt dt
Fig. P1.9.42
(A) 3 W (C) 9 W 43. I x = ?

8W
(B) 6 W (D) 12 W
10 W
2 : 1
= -18 sin t + 12 cos t = 6 (2 cos t - 3 sin t) V 8. (A) v2 = 2

j6
1000 V
o
~
Ix
di2 di +1 1 dt dt
-j4
= 24 cos 3t - 9 sin 3t = 3 ( 8 cos 3t - 3 sin 3t) V 9. (A) v1 = 3 di1 di -3 2 dt dt
Fig. P1.9.43
(A) 1921 . 57.4 A (C) 1.68 43.6 A 44. Z in = ?

j16 6W
1 : 5
(B) 2.93159.4 A (D) 179 . 43.6 A
= 45 cos 3t + 27 sin 3t = 9 (5 cos 3t + 3 sin 3t) V 10. (D) v2 = -4 di2 di +3 1 dt dt
24 W
4 : 1
6W
= 36 sin 3t + 45 cos 3t = 9 ( 4 sin 3t + 5 cos 3t) V 11. (A) W =

-j10
Zin
1 1 2 L1 i12 + L2 i2 + Mi1 i2 2 2
At t = 0, i1 = 4 cos ( -20 ) = 4.7 mA i2 = 20 cos ( -20 ) = 18.8 mA , M = 0.6 2.5 0.4 = 0.6 W = 1 1 (2.5)( 4.7) 2 + (0.4)(18.8) 2 + 0.6( 4.7)(18.8) 2 2
Fig. P1.9.44
(A) 46.3 + j 6.8 W (C) 10.8 + j9.6 W
(B) 432.1 + j0.96 W (D) 615.4 + j0.38 W
= 151.3 mJ 12. (C) Leq = L1 + L2 + 2 M = 7 H

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Networks
13. (A) Leq = L1 + L2 - 2 M = 4 + 2 - 2 2 = 2 H 14. (C) Leq = L1 L2 - M 2 24 - 16 = =4 H L1 + L2 - 2 M 6 + 4 - 8 L1 L2 - M 2 8 -4 = = 0.4 H L1 + L2 + 2 M 6 + 4
22. (C) v AG = 20
d( 6 t) d(15 t) +4 = 180 V dt dt
23. (B) vBG = 3
d(15 t) d 6( t) d ( 6 t) +4 -6 = 33 V dt dt dt d( 6 t) = -36 V dt w2 M 2 Z 22
2
15. (A) Leq =
24. (C) vCG = -6
16. (C) L1 + L2 + 2 M = 7, L1 + L2 - 2 M = 1.8 L1 + L2 = 4.4, M = 1.3 L1 L2 - M 2 = 0.5, L1 L2 - 1.32 = 0.5 1.8 L1 + L2 - 2 M L1 L2 = 2.59, ( L1 - L2 ) 2 = 4.4 2 - 4 2.59 = 9 . , L2 = 0.7 L1 - L2 = 3, L1 = 37 17. (D) Leq = L1 M 4 = 4 - =2 H L2 2 M 9 =5 - =2 H L2 3
2 2
25. (B) Z = Z11 +
1 (50) 2 1 5 = 4 + j (50) + 10 5 + j (50) 1 2 = 4.77 + j 115 . W 26. (B) Vs = j (0.8)10(12 . 0) - j (0.2)(10)(2 0) +[ 3 + j(0.5)(10)] (12 . 0 + 2 0) = 9.6 + j21.6 = 26.64 66.04 V 27. (A) [ j(100 p) (2) + 10 ]I 2 + j(100 p)(0.4) (2 0) = 0
18. (B) Leq = L1 19. (A)
2H -1 H 3H 5H 2H
I 2 = -0.4 - j0.0064,
Vo = 10 I 2 = -4 - j0.064 = 4 - 179.1 vo = 4 cos (100 pt - 179.1 ) V
28. (B) 30 30 = I ( - j 6 + j 8 - j 4 + j12 - j 4 + 10)

Fig. S.1.9.19
20. (D) VL1 = 1sI + 1sI = 2 sI VL 2 = 2 sI + 1sI - 2 sI = sI , VL 3 = 3sI - 2 sI = sI VL = VL1 + VL 2 + VL 3 = 4 sI Leq = 4 H
I=
30 30 = 2.57 - j0.043 (10 + j 6)
Vo = I ( j12 - j 4 + 10) = (2.57 - j0.043)(10 + 8 j) = 26.067 + j20.14 = 32.9 37.7 V 29. (A)
-j 2W - Vx + 3-90o A 2W
21. (B) Let I1 be the current through 4 H inductor and I 2 and I 3 be the current through 3 H, and 2 H inductor respectively I1 = I 2 + I 3 , V2 = V3 3sI 2 + 3sI1 = 2 sI 3 + 2 sI1 3I 2 + I1 = 2 I 3 4 I1 I 2 = , I 3 = I1 5 5 4I2 = I3
I1
j4 j
j4
I2
1230 V
o
Fig. S1.9.29
V = 4 sI1 + 3sI 2 + 2 sI 3 + 3sI 2 + 3s I1 6s 2 4s = 7 sI1 + I1 + I3 5 5 49 49 H V = sI1 , Leq = 5 5
( - j + 2 + j 4) I1 - jI 2 = - j 3 ( j 4 + 2) I 2 - jI1 = -12 30 V I1 = -1.45 - j0.56, . Vx = -2 I1 = 2.9 + j112 = 311 . 2112 . V
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Chap 1.9
20 W 40 W
30. (D)
j10 j8 j10
0.03 H Vin
0.18 H + 2F Vout -
j18
j20
j10
0.09 H -j3 1000C
j30
Fig. S.1.9.30
Fig. P1.9.34
Z eq
( j14) ( j10 + 2 - j 6) = 10 + j 8 + j14 + j10 + 2 - j 6
35. (D) The p equivalent circuit of coupled coil is shown in fig. S1.9.35
M L1L2 - M L2 - M
2
= 112 . + j112 . W 31. (C) Z in = ( - j 6)| |( Z o) (12) 2 Z o = j20 + = 0.52 + j15.7 ( j 30 + j5 - j2 + 4) Z in = ( - j 6)(0.52 + j15.7) = 0.20 - j9.7 W ( - j 6 + 0.52 + j15.7) M 2 = 160 10 -12
L 1L2 - M M L2
L1
L1L2 - M 2 L1 - M
Fig. S1.9.35
32. (D) M = k L1 L2 , Z in = jwL1 + w2 M 2 Z L + jwL2
L1 L2 - M 2 = M
L1 L2 (1 - k2 ) 0.12 0.27 (10 . .5 2 ) = = 0.27 0.5 k -j + jCw = 0 0.27 w
Output is zero if
(250 10 3)2 160 10 -12 2 + j10 + j 250 10 3 80 10 -6
= j250 10 3 2 10 -6 +
C=
Z in = 0.02 + j0.17 W 33. (D)

-j 2C j2 2 V1
1 = 33.33 m F 0.27 w2
36. (C) Applying 1 V test source at ab terminal,

60 W
1 : 4
I1
j4
j4
I2
4W
1V
20 W Ix
20Ix
Fig. S.1.9.33
Fig. S1.9.36
V1 = -
jI1 + j 4 I1 + j2 2 I 2 2C - j 2 I1 2 (1 + j)
0 = ( 4 + 4 j) I 2 + j2 2 I1 I2 =
Vab = 1 V, I x =
1 = 0.05 A, V2 = 4 V , 20 I 2 = 0.05 A
4 = 60 I 2 + 20 0.05
2 V1 - j - j + j 8 C + 2 C - j2 C = + j4 + = 1+ j I1 2 C 2C Z in = - j + j8C + 2C - j 2C 2C 1 6 3j = 0, C = 100 m F 1000 C - j + j 8 C - j2 C = 0 C=
I in = I x + I1 = I x + 4 I 2 = 0.25 A 1 RTH = =4W , VTH = 0 I in 37. (A) Impedance seen by RL = 10 4 2 = 160 W For maximum power RL = 160 W, Z o = 10 W 100 PLmax = 10 = 250 W 10 + 10 38. (B) I 2 =
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2
Im ( Z in ) = 0
34. (A) j 30 -
V2 I V , I1 = 2 = 2 , V1 = 5 V2 8 5 40
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CHAPTER
1.10
TWO PORT NETWORK
Statement for Q.1-4: The circuit is given in fig. P.1.10.14
I1 + V1 1W 3W 2W 2W I2 + V2 -
3. [ h] = ? 3 6 17 17 (A) 24 3 17 17 6 (C) 17 - 3 17 3 17 24 17
8 (B) 3 - 1 3 8 (D) 3 1 3
1 3 2 3 1 - 3 2 3
Fig. P.1.10.14
1. [ z ] = ? 1 (A) 2 - 17 6 17 (C) 6 -1 6
3 2 1 2 1 2 3 2
1 (B) 2 17 6 17 (D) 6 1 6
3 2 1 2 1 2 3 2
4. [ T ] = ? 17 8 (A) 3 3 2 17 - 8 (C) 3 2 - 3 5. [ z ] = ?
I1 + V1 1W
17 (B) 3 -2 17 (D) 3 2
- 8 3 - 8 - 3
2W
2W
I2 +
2. [ y ] = ? 1 3 8 8 (A) 1 17 8 24 17 (C) 6 1 2 1 2 3 2
2W
3W
V2 -
3 (B) 8 - 1 8 17 (D) 6 - 1 8
1 8 17 24
Fig. P.1.10.5
1 - 2 3 2
(A)
21 16 1 8
1 8 7 12 1 8 7 12
(B) (D)
7 9 1 6 7 9 1 3
1 6 7 4 1 3 7 4
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6. [ y ] = ?
I1 + V1 2W 1W 1W 2W 3W I2 + V2 -
11. [ y ] = ?
I1 + V1 2W 1W I1 1W I2 + V2 -
Fig. P.1.10.6
Fig. P.1.10.11
11 (A) 41 2 41 19 (C) 41 2 41
2 41 19 41 2 41 11 41
11 (B) 41 - 2 41 19 (D) 41 - 2 41
2 41 19 41 2 41 11 41
(A)
1 2 3 2
1 -1 1 2 3 4
(B)
3 2 1 2
-1 1
1 (C) 2 - 1 4 12. [ z ] = ?
I1
1 (D) 4 1 2
3 4 1 2
Statement for Q.7-10:
2W
2V1
I2 +
A two
port
is
described
by
V1 = I1 + 2 V2 ,
+ V1 1W 2W
I 2 = - 2 I1 + 0.4 V2 7. [ z ] = ? 11 (A) -5 1 (C) 5 8. [ y ] = ? 11 5 (A) 5 2.5 -2 4.4 (C) 4 -2 9. [ h] = ? 3 (A) 4 1 (C) -2 10. [ T ] = ? 2. 2 (A) 0. 2 1 (C) -2
Page 92
-
V2 -
-5 2.5 -2 0.4
11 5 (B) 5 2.5 1 (D) -2 2 0.4
Fig. P.1.10.12
4 (A) 3 - 2 3 2 (C) 3 4 3 13. [ y ] = ?

I1 + V1 -
2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3
(B) (D)
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
1 - 2 1 1
1 (B) -2 11 (D) - 5
-2 4.4 -5 2.5
1 - 2
2W
2W
I2 +
- 6 - 4 2 0.4
4 (B) -2 11 (D) 5
-2 4.4 5 2.5 (A) (C)

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2W
2V1
1W
V2 -
Fig. P.1.10.13
7 4 1 2 10 19 6 19
1 - 4 5 4 2 19 14 19
(B) (D)
7 4 3 4 6 19 10 19
1 4 5 4 14 19 2 19
0.5 0.5 2 0.4
2. 2 - 0.5 (B) 0. 2 - 0.5 -2 1 (D) -2 - 0.4
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Chap 1.10
14. [ z ] = ?
4V3
17. [ z ] = ?
I1 + I1 I2 2W 2I2 1W + V3 1W + V2 V1 2W 2W V2 2W I1 2W I2 +
+ V1
Fig. P.1.10.17
Fig. P.1.10.14
2 (A) 3 3 (C) 3 15. [ z ] = ?

I1 + V1 -
3 3 3 2
-3 (B) 3 3 (D) -3
- 2 3 3 -2
3 (A) 6 (C)
I2 +
2 1 7 1 3
6 (B) 3 (D) 1 2 7 4
1 7 2 3 1
7 4 1 2
2W
2V1
18. [ T ] = ?
I1 + V1 1V 10 2 4W 4W 1V 5 1 I2 + V2 -
2W
3V 2 2
2W 3
V2 -
Fig. P.1.1.15
2 (A) 3 2 2 (C) 2
2 2 3 2 2
-2 (B) 2
3 2 -2
Fig. P.1.10.18
0.35 - 1 (A) 2 - 3.33 2 (C) 0.35 19. [ h] = ? 3.33 1
- 3.33 2 (B) 0 . 35 -1 0.35 (D) 2 1 3.33
2 -2 (D) 3 2 2
16. [ y ] = ?
I1 + 3W V1 V2 V2 2W 1W I2 +
I1 + V1 -
V2
2W
I2 +
1 2 I2
4W
V2 -
Fig. P.1.10.19
Fig. P.1.10.16
1 -1 (A) -1 - 2 1 2 - 3 3 (C) - 1 - 1 3 3
1 - 1 (B) 1 - 2 1 2 - 3 - 3 (D) 1 - 1 3 3
4 (A) -2
3 2 1 2
-2 (B) 4 2 (D) 4
1 2 3 2 1 2 3 - 2
3 4 - 2 (C) 1 2 2
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Chap 1.10
Z ab Z + Z ab (A) a Z b + Z ab Z ab Z + Z ab (C) a - Z ab 27. [ y ] = ?

Yab
Z - Z ab (B) a Z ab Z - Z a (D) ab Z ab
Z b - Z ab Z ab Z ab Z ab - Zb (A) (C)
The value of 3 32 2 33
Vo is Vs (B) (D) 1 16 1 17
Z b + Z ab
- Z ab
30. The T-parameters of a 2-port network are

Yb
Ya
2 [T ] = 1
1 . 1
If such two 2-port network are cascaded, the

Fig. P.1.10.27
Y + Yab (A) a - Yab Y - Ya (C) ab Yab
- Yab Yb + Yab Yab Yab - Ya
Y - Yab (B) a Yab Y - Yab (D) a - Yab
Yab Yb - Yab - Yab Yb - Yab
z parameter for the cascaded network is 1 5 - 2 - 2 3 3 (A) 1 (B) 1 2 1 2 3 3 (C) 5 3 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 (D) 1 2 2 1
28. The y-parameters of a 2-port network are 5 [ y] = 1 3 S 2
31. [ y ] = ?
2W 1W
A resistor of 1 ohm is connected across as shown in fig. P.1.10.2 8. The new y parameter would be
1W
1W
2W 1W
1W 2
[ y] = 5 3 1 2
Fig. P.1.10.31
Fig. P.1.10.28
6 (A) 2 5 (C) 2
4 S 3 4 S 2
6 (B) 0 4 (D) 2
2 S 3 4 S 1
19 (A) 10 - 9 10 (C) 19 10 9 10
-9 10 31 10 9 10 31 10
19 (B) 10 - 7 10 (D) 19 10 7 10
-7 10 31 10 7 10 31 10
2 0 29. For the 2-port of fig. P.1.10.29, [ ya ] = mS 0 10

60 W
32. [ y ] = ?
I1(s) + 2F I2(s) + 1W 3 2F 2V1(s) 1W 4 V2(s) -
[ ya] Vs 100 W + Vo 300 W

V1(s) 2F
Fig. P.1.10.32 Fig. P.1.10.29
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s+3 (A) 2 s + 2
2 s 4
s+3 (B) -2 s - 2
- 2s 4s + 4
37. The circuit shown in fig. P.1.10.37 is reciprocal if a is

I1 + 2W V1 V2 aI1 0.5V1 1W I2 +
s + 3 - 2 s (C) -2 s - 2 4 33. h21 = ?

I1 + V1 R R
3s + 3 - 2 s (D) - 2 s - 2 4 s + 4
I2 + V2 -
Fig. P.1.10.37
(A) 2 (C) 1
(B) -2 (D) -1
Fig. P.1.10.33
(A) (C) -
3 2 1 2
(B) (D)
1 2 3 2
38. Z in = ?
Zin 1 kW + I1
I2
+ [ y] = 4 -0.1 mS 50 1 V2 1 kW
34. In the circuit shown in fig. P.1.10.34, when the voltage V1 is 10 V, the current I is 1 A. If the applied voltage at port-2 is 100 V, the short circuit current flowing through at port 1 will be
Vs
V1 -
Fig. P.1.10.38
(A) 86.4 W
Linear Resistive Network I
(B) 64.3 W (D) 94.3 W
(C) 153.8 W 39. V1 , V2 = ?

25 W
V1
Fig. P.1.10.34
+ 100 V V1 [ y] = 10 -5 mS 50 20
+ V2 100 W
(A) 0.1 A (C) 10 A
(B) 1 A (D) 100 A
Fig. P.1.10.39
35. For a 2-port symmetrical bilateral network, if transmission parameters A = 3 and B = 1 W, the value of parameter C is (A) 3 (C) 8 W (B) 8 S (D) 9
(A) -68.6 V, (C) 114.3 V,
114.3 V - 68.6 V
(B) 68.6 V, - 114.3 V (D) -114.3 V, 68.6 V
40. A 2-port network is driven by a source Vs = 100 V in series with 5 W, and terminated in a 25 W resistor. The impedance parameters are 20 [z ] = 40 25 W resistor is (A) 80 V, 2.8 W (C) 100 V, 2.4 W (B) 160 V, 6.8 W (D) 120 V, 6.4 W 2 W 10
36. A 2-port resistive network satisfy the condition 3 4 A = D = B = C. The z11 of the network is 2 3 4 3 (A) (B) 3 4 2 (C) 3 3 (D) 2
The Thevenin equivalent circuit presented to the
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Chap 1.10
[z ] =
7 4 1 2
1 3
2 Z R = n 4 = 36
I1=0 + + V1 4W V2 1 : 3
ZR
I2
+ V1 9W V2
18. (D) Let I 3 be the clockwise loop current in center loop I1 = V2 + I 3, 10 V2 = 4( I 2 + I 3) I 3 = 0.25 V2 - I 2 ...(i)
Fig. S1.10.23b
I1 = 0.35 V2 - I 2
V2 = ( 36 | | 9) I 2 = 7.2 I 2 z12 = z 21 = 2.4
z 22 =
V1 = 4 I1 - 0.2 V1 + V2 . V1 = 4(0.35 V2 - I 2 ) + V2 = 2.4 V2 - 4 I 2 12 V1 = 2 V2 - 3.33I 2 I 1 19. (A) V2 = 4 I 2 + I1 - 2 I 2 = -2 I1 + V2 2 2 ( V - V2 ) - V2 I V V = -I1 + 2 + 1 - V2 I1 = 2 + 1 2 2 4 2 3 V1 = 4 I1 + V2 2 20. (B) I1 = -V2 + V1 V1 - V2 3 3 + = V1 - V2 1 2 2 2 V V - V1 3 3 I 2 = 2 V1 + 2 + 2 = V1 + V2 1 2 2 2 ...(ii) ...(ii)
V2 = 7.2, I2
24. (C) V1 = 3sI1 + 3sI1 - 3sI1 + 3sI1 + 2 sI 2 V1 = 6 sI1 + 2 sI 2 V2 = 2 sI1 + 3sI 2 I1 = (0) V2 + 5( -I 2 ) ...(i) ....(ii) ...(i) ...(ii) V2 = 3sI 2 + 2 sI1 25. (C) V1 =
V2 + 0( -I 2 ), 5
...(i) 26. (A) V1 = ( Z a + Z ab ) I1 + Z ab I 2 ...(i) ...(ii) V2 = ( Z a + Z ab ) I 2 + Z ab I1 = Z ab I1 + ( Z a + Z ab ) I 2 27. (A) I1 = ( V1 - V2 ) Yab + V1 Ya I1 = V1 ( Ya + Yab ) - V2 Yab ...(i) ...(ii) I 2 = ( V2 - V1 ) Yab + V2 Yb = -V1 Yab + V2 ( Yb + Yab ) ...(i) ...(ii)
21. (D) I1 = 2 V1 + jV1 + j( V1 - V2 ) I1 = (2 + j2) V1 - jV2 V2 + V1 + j( V2 - V1 ) = (1 - j) V1 + (1 + j) V2 I2 = 1 I1 1 + sI1 + sI 2 = + s I1 + sI 2 s s V2 = sI1 + (2 + 2 s) I 2
28. (B) y-parameter of 1 W resistor network are 1 -1 - 1 1 3 1 - 1 6 + = 0 2 1 1

-1
22. (B) V1 =
...(i) ...(ii)
5 New y-parameter = 1
2 . 3
V2 = 2 I 2 + 2 s I 2 + sI1 23. (D) Z R = 9 9 = =1 n2 9

I1
0 5000 0 2 mS 29. (A) [ z a ] = = 0 100 mS 0 10 5000 [z ] = 0 0 100 + 100 100 100 600 = 100 100 100 200
ZR
1 : 3
I2=0 + + V2 9 W V2 +
V1 = 600 I1 + 100 I 2 , V2 = 100 I1 + 200 I 2 Vs = 60 I1 + V1 = 660 I1 + 100 I 2 , V2 = Vo = -300 I 2 2 V Vo = 100 I1 - Vo I1 = o 60 3 Vo 3 V = Vs = 11Vo - o V5 32 3 2 30. (C) [ TN ] = 1
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V1
4W
V1 -
Fig. S1.10.23a
V1 = ( 4| |1) I1 =
4 I1 5
z11 =
V1 = 0.8 I1 z 21 = V2 = 2.4, I1
4 V2 = V2 = nV1 = 3 I1 5
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1 1
2 1
1 5 = 1 3
3 2
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V1 = 5 V2 - 3I 2 , I1 = 3V2 - 2 I 2
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Networks
3V1 - 5 I1 = I 2 V2 = 1 2 I1 + I 2 3 3
V1 =
5 1 I1 + I 2 3 3
...(i) ...(ii)
Interchanging the port
I 2 = 100 0.1 = 10 = 0.1, I 2 V1
35. (B) For symmetrical network A = D = 3 For bilateral AD - BC = 1, 9 - C = 1, C=8 S
31. (B)
2W
1W
2W
36. (A) z11 =

1W 1W 1W 2
A 4 = C 3
37. (A) V1 = 0.5 V1 + I1 + 2( I1 + I 2 ) + aI1

Fig. S.1.10.31a & b
3 [ za ] = 1
1 2 3 5 - 5 2 1 , [ ya ] = , [ yb ] = 2 3 - 1 - 1 5 2 5 7 10 31 10 0 4
1 - 2 5 2
V1 = ( 6 + 2 a) I1 + 4 I 2 V2 = (2 + a) I1 + 2 I 2 a =2
...(i) ...(ii)
V2 = 2( I1 + I 2 ) + aI1 z12 = z 21 , 4 = 2 + a
For reciprocal network
19 [ y ] = [ ya ] + [ yb ] = 10 - 7 10 3s 32. (D) [ ya ] = -2 s
38. (C) I1 = 4 10 3 V1 - 0.1 10 -3 V2 I 2 = 50 10 -3 V1 + 10 -3 V2 , V2 = -10 3 I 2 -10 -3 V2 = 50 10 -3 V1 + 10 -3 V2 , V2 = -25 V1 10 3 I1 = 4 V1 + 2.5 V1 , V1 10 3 = = 153.8 I1 6.5
- 2s 3 , [ yb ] = 4 s -2
2F
39. (B) I1 = 10 10 -3 V1 - 5 10 -3 V2 , 100 = 25 I1 + V1 100 - V1 = 0. 25 V1 - 0.125 V2

-3 -3
2F
2F
800 = 10 V1 - V2
...(i) ...(ii)
I 2 = 50 10 V1 + 20 10 V2 , V2 = -100 I 2
Fig. S.1.10.32a
V2 = -5 V1 - 2 V2
3V2 + 5 V1 = 0 V2 = -114.3 V.
From (i) and (ii) V1 = 68.6 V, 40. (B) 100 = 5 I1 + V1 , 800 - 5 V2 = -34 I 2
1W 3
2V1
1W 4
V1 = 20 I1 + 2 I 2 V2 = 160 + 6.8 I 2
100 = 25 I1 + 2 I 2 , V2 = 40 I1 + 10 I 2
Fig. S.1.10.32b
VTH = 160 V, RTH = 6.8 W 41. (B) V1 = z11 I1 , V2 = z 21 I1 , V2 z 21 = V1 z11
3s + 3 [ y ] = [ ya ] = [ yb ] = -2 s - 2 33. (C) h21 = I2 I1

I1 + V1 R
- 2s 4s + 4 I 1 I1 R , 2 =2 R + R I1
R I2
, -I 2 =
V2 = 0
42. (B) I 2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 , I 2 = -V2 YL y21 V1 + ( y22 + YL ) V2 = 0 , V2 - y21 = V1 ( y22 + yL ) V2 = -Z L I 2
43. (A) V2 = z 21 I1 + z 22 I 2 , V2 V2 = z 21 I1 + z 22 - Z L V2 ( Z L + z 22 ) = z 21 Z L I1 ,
Fig. S.1.10.33
34. (C)
I2 V1
= y21 =
V2 = 0
1 = 0.1 10
V2 z Z = 21 L I1 z 22 + Z L
**********
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CHAPTER
1.11
FREQUENCY RESPONSE
Statement for Q.1-3: A parallel resonant circuit has a resistance of 2 kW and half power frequencies of 86 kHz and 90 kHz. 1. The value of capacitor is (A) 6 mF (C) 2 nF 2. The value of inductor is (A) 4.3 mH (C) 0.16 mH 3. The quality factor is (A) 22 (C) 48 Statement for Q.4-5: A parallel resonant
-3
7. A parallel circuit has R = 1 kW , C = 50 mF and L = 10 mH. The quality factor at resonance is (A) 100 (C) 70.7 (B) 90.86 (D) None of the above
(B) 20 nF (D) 60 mF
8. A series resonant circuit has an inductor L = 10 mH. The resonant frequency wo = 106 rad s and bandwidth is BW = 10 3 rad/s. The value of R and C will be (A) 100 mF, 10 W (C) 100 pF, 10 MW (B) 100 pF, 10 W (D) 100 mF, 10 MW
(B) 43 mH (D) 1.6 mH
9. A series resonant circuit has L = 1 mH and C = 10 mF. The required R for the BW 15.9 Hz is (A) 0.1 W (C) 15.9 mW (B) 0.2 W (D) 500 W
(B) 100 (D) 200
10. For the RLC parallel resonant circuit when circuit has a midband R = 8 kW, L = 40 mH and C = 0. 25 mF, the quality factor Q is (A) 40 (C) 30 (B) 20 (D) 10 S, quality factor of 80 and a
admittance of 25 10
resonant frequency of 200 krad s. 4. The value of R is (A) 40 W (C) 80 W 5. The value of C is (A) 2 mF (C) 10 mF (B) 28.1 mF (D) 14.14 mF (B) 56.57 W (D) 28. 28 W
11. The maximum voltage across capacitor would be

0.105v1
v1 25 W
10 W 4H 1 mF 4 + vC
3V
6. A parallel RLC circuit has R = 1 kW and C = 1 mF. The quality factor at resonance is 200. The value of inductor is (A) 35.4 mH (C) 17.7 mH
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~
Fig. P1.11.11
(B) 25 mH (D) 50 mH
(A) 3200 V (C) -3 V

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Networks
12. For the circuit shown in fig. P1.1.11 resonant frequency fo is

+ Zin 10 W v1 50 nF v1 2 1 mH
16. H ( w) =
Vo =? Vi
40 W +
vs
0.5 F
10 W
vO
Fig. P1.11.12
Fig. P1.11.16
(A) 346 kHz (C) 196 kHz
(B) 55 kHz (D) 286 kHz
(A) (5 + j20 w) -1 (C) (5 + j 30 w) -1
(B) (5 + j 4 w) -1 (D) 5(1 + j 6 w) -1
13. For the circuit shown in fig. P1.11.13 the resonant frequency fo is
10 mH 600 pF 1.8 W 22 kW
17. The value of input frequency is required to cause a gain equal to 1.5. The value is
2 kW
vs
60 mF
+ vO
Fig. P1.11.13
Fig. P1.11.17
(A) 20 rad s (C) 10 rad s
(B) 20 Hz (D) No such value exists.
(A) 12.9 kHz (C) 2.05 MHz 14. The network function
(B) 12.9 MHz (D) 2.05 kHz of circuit shown in
18. In the circuit of fig. P1.11.18 phase shift equal to -45 is required at frequency w = 20 rad s . The value of R is
10 W
fig.P1.11.14 is 4 V H ( w) = o = V1 1 + j0.01w
2 kW 15 kW + vi
Vs
+ vC
1 mF
+ vO
AvC
vo
Fig. P1.11.18 Fig. P1.11.14
(A) 200 kW (C) 100 kW
(B) 150 kW (D) 50 kW
The value of the C and A is (A) 10 mF, 6 (C) 5 mF, 6 15. H ( w) =

ia
(B) 5 mF, 10 (D) 10 mF, 10
19. For the circuit of fig. P1.11.19 the input frequency is adjusted until the gain is equal to 0.6. The value of the frequency is
Vo =? Vi
20 W +
2H
vi
4H
3ia
0.25 F
vO
vs
30 W
+ vO
Fig. P1.11.15
0.6 (A) jw(1 + j0. 2 w) 3 (C) jw(1 + jw)

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0.6 jw(5 + jw) 3 (D) jw(20 + j 4 w) (B)
Fig. P1.11.19
(A) 20 rad s (C) 40 rad s

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(B) 20 Hz (D) 40 Hz
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Networks
31. Bode diagram of the network function Vo Vs for the circuit of fig. P1.11.30 is
4W + vs
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) BW = w2 - w1 = 2 p(90 - 86)k = 8 p krad s BW= 1 RC C = 1 1 = RBW 8 p 10 3 2 10 3 = 19.89 nF 2. (C) wo = wo = 1 LC ( w1 + w2 ) 2 p(90 + 86)k = = 176 p krad s 2 2 1 L= 2 C wo
3 2
2W 30 mF
vo
Fig.P1.11.30
dB
dB /de c.
dB
40
dB /d e
c.
5.56 16.7
log w
5.56 16.7
log w
1 = 0.16 mH (176 p 10 ) (20 10 -9) wo 176 pk = = 22 8 pk B 1 R
20
(A)
0 dB 5.56 16.7
c. /de
(B)
3. (A) Q =
B 0d /d ec
log w
0 dB
5.56 16.7
.
log w
-40
-2
4. (A) At mid-band frequency Z = R , Y = R= 1 = 40 W 25 10 -3
dB
(C)
(D)
5. (C) Q = wo RC Q 80 C= = = 10 m F wo R 200 10 3 40
***************
6. (B) Qo = R L = 25 m H
C L
200 = 10 3
10 -6 L
7. (C) Qo = R 1
C 50 10 -6 = 10 3 = 70.7 L 10 10 -3
8. (B) wo = C=
LC 1
-3
10 10 (106 ) 2 R L
= 100 pF
BW =
R L
R = 10 10 -3 10 3 = 10
9. (A) BW =
R = 15.9 2 p = 0.1 W 1 10 -3 C L
10. (B) Q = R
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Frequency Response
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Chap 1.11
= 8 10 3
0. 25 10 -6 = 20 40 10 -3
15. (A) I a =
Vi , 20 + j 4 w
Vo =
3I a 0. 25 jw
11. (A) Thevenin equivalent seen by L-C combination v - 0.105 v1 3 = v1 + 10 1 125 I sc = 1100 = 0.8 V 125 3 = 375 . W, wo = 0.8 1 LC v1 = 100
Vo 3 0.6 = = V1 jw(5 + jw) jw(1 + j0.2 w) 10 10 jw(0.51) 16. (A) Z1 = = 1 + 10 1 + j 3w jw0.5

Vo Z1 = = Vi 40 + Z1 10 1 + j5 w 10 + 40 1 + j5 w
Open Circuit : v1 = 0, voc = 3 V RTH = = 1000
w L 1000 4 = 1066.67 Qo = o = 375 . R |vC| max = Qo vTH = 1066.67 3 = 3200 V 12. (B) Applying 1 A at input port V1 = 10 V voltage across 1 A source Vtest = 10 + jw10 Z in = Vtest At resonance Im { Z in } = 0 wo 10 -3 = 6 wo 50 10 -9 wo = 346 kHz
-3
10 = (5 + j20 w) -1 50 + j200 w Vo 1 = Vi 1 + jwRC
17. (D) H ( w) = gain = 1
j (5 + 1) w50 10 -9
(1 + w2 RC)
For any value of w, R, C gain 1. Thus (D) is correct option. 18. (D) H ( w) = phase shift Vo 1 = Vs 1 + jwCR
fo = 55 kHz 13. (C) Y = jw600 10 -12 + = jw6 10 -10 + 45.45 + 1 1 + 2 10 3 1.8 + jw10 -5
= - tan -1 wCR = - 450 R = 50 kW.
wCR = 1, 20 1 10 -6 R = 1 19. (A) H ( w) = gain = R R +w L

2 2 2
1.8 - jw10 -5 3. 24 + w2 10 -50
At resonance Im { Y } = 0
-10 wo 6 10 -10 ( 324 . + w2 ) - wo 10 -5 = 0 o 10
Vo R = Vs 1 + jwL = 30 900 + 4 w2 + 0.6

2
3. 24 + w 10
2 o
-10
= 16.67 10 wo = 12.9 Mrad s

3
w fo = o = 2.05 MHz 2p Vi jCw 1 2 10 3 + jCw
w=
50 2 - 30 2 = 20 rad s 2 Vo 1 1 = = Vs 1 + jwCR 1 + j
20. (A) H ( w) = = Vi 1 + j2 10 3 Cw
14. (C) VC =
Phase shift = - tan -1 wCR = - 45 gain = 1 1 = = 0.707 |j + 1 | 2
Vo = AVc
(15 k) 2 AVc 2 AVi = = 16 k + 30 k 3 3(1 + j2 10 3 Cw)
2A Vo 3 = Vi 1 + j2 p 10 3 Cw A = 6, 2 10 3 C = 0.01
21. (B) BW= w2 - w1 = 2 p( 456 - 434) = 44 p wo = 2 pfo = QBW = 20 44 p fo = 440 Hz 22. (C) fo =
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1 2 p LC
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C = 5 mF
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Networks
1 2 p 360 10
-12
240 10 1
-6
= 541 kHz = 1.45 MHz
R=
1 . kW = 106 2 p 15 10 10 -6 1 = -40 log w w2
fo =
2 p 50 10 1 2p
-12
240 10 -6
30. (B) 20 log H = 20 log
23. (B) fo =
1 R2 - 2 LC L
R 400 10 7 = = -6 L 240 10 6 1 1 1016 = = LC 240 10 -6 120 10 -12 288 R 1 1 < , fo = = 938 kHz L LC 2 p LC 24. (B) wo = 1 , R and C should be as small as possible. RC (1.8) R = ( 3.3) = 1165 . kW 3.3.+1.8 ( 30) C = (10) = 7.5 pF (10 + 30) w= 1 = 114.5 106 rad s . 1165 7.5 10 -9
1 jw 1+ Vo jw30 10 -3 .67 16 31. (D) = = jw 1 Vs 6 + 1+ . jw30 10 -3 356 2+ -20 dB/decade line starting from w = 5.56 rad s 20 dB/decade line starting from w = 16.67 rad s Hence -20 dB/decade line for 5.56 < w < 16.67 parallel to w axis to w > 16.67
***********
25. (D) R = K m R = 800 12 10 3 = 9.6 MW L = C = 800 Km 40 10 -6 = 32 m F = K f L 1000 C 10 -9 K F = 30 1000 = 0.375 pF Km 80 LC K2 f K2 f = 4 20 10 -3 10 -6 1 6
26. (A) LC =
K f = 2 10 -4 (1)(20 10 -6 ) L L 2 2 Km = = Km (2) ( 4 10 -3) C C K m = 0.05 1 RC 1 = 15.9 W R= 2 p 20 10 3 0.5 10 -6
27. (D) wc = 2 pfc =
28. (A) RTH across the capacitor is RTH = (1k + 4 k)| |5 k = 2.5 kW 1 . kHz fc = = 106 2 p 2.5 10 3 40 10 -9 29. (B) wc = 2 pfc =
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CHAPTER
2.1
SEMICONDUCTOR PHYSICS
In the problems assume the parameter given in following table. Use the temperature T = 300 K unless otherwise stated. Property Bandgap Energy Dielectric Constant Si 1.12 11.7 Ga As 1.42 13.1 4.7 1017 Ge 0.66 16.0 104 . 1019 3. Two semiconductor material have exactly the same properties except that material A has a bandgap of 1.0 eV and material B has a bandgap energy of 1.2 eV. The ratio of intrinsic concentration of material A to that of material B is (A) 2016 (C) 58.23 (B) 47.5 (D) 1048
Effective density of 2.8 1019 states in conduction band N c (cm -3) Effective density of 104 . 1019 states in valence band N v(cm -3) Intrinsic carrier concertration ni (cm -3) Mobility Electron Hole 15 . 1010
4. In silicon at T = 300 K the thermal-equilibrium concentration of electron is n0 = 5 10 4 cm -3. The hole concentration is (A) 4.5 1015 cm -3 (C) 0.3 10 -6 cm -3 (B) 4.5 1015 m -3 (D) 0.3 10 -6 m -3
7.0 1018
6.0 1018
1.8 106
2.4 1013
5. In silicon at T = 300 K if the Fermi energy is 0.22 eV above the valence band energy, the value of p0 is (A) 2 1015 cm -3 (B) 1015 cm -3 (D) 4 1015 cm -3 (C) 3 1015 cm -3
1350 480
8500 400
3900 1900
6. The thermal-equilibrium concentration of hole p0 in 1. In germanium semiconductor material at T = 400 K the intrinsic concentration is (A) 26.8 1014 cm -3 (C) 8.5 1014 cm -3 (B) 18.4 1014 cm -3 (D) 3.6 1014 cm -3 silicon at T = 300 K is 1015 cm -3. The value of n0 is (A) 3.8 108 cm -3 (C) 2.6 10 4 cm -3 (B) 4.4 10 4 cm -3 (D) 4.3 108 cm -3
7. In germanium semiconductor at T = 300 K, the acceptor concentrations is N a = 1013 cm -3 and donor concentration is concentration p0 is (A) 2.97 10 9 cm -3
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2. The intrinsic carrier concentration in silicon is to be no greater than ni = 1 1012 cm -3. The maximum temperature allowed for the silicon is ( E g = 112 . eV) (A) 300 K (C) 382 K
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N d = 0. The thermal equilibrium (B) 2.68 1012 cm -3 (D) 2.4 cm -3

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(B) 360 K (D) 364 K
(C) 2.95 1013 cm -3
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Electronics Devices
Statement for Q.8-9: In germanium semiconductor at T = 300 K, the impurity concentration are N d = 5 1015 cm -3 and N a = 0 8. The thermal equilibrium electron concentration n0 is (A) 5 1015 cm -3 (C) 115 . 10 cm
9 -3
15. For a particular semiconductor at T = 300 K E g = 15 .

* * and ni = 1 1015 cm -3. The position of eV, mp = 10 mn
Fermi level with respect to the center of the bandgap is (A) +0.045 eV (C) +0.039 eV (B) - 0.046 eV (D) - 0.039 eV
(B) 115 . 1011 cm -3 (D) 5 10 cm

6 -3
16. A silicon sample contains acceptor atoms at a concentration of N a = 5 1015 cm -3. Donor atoms are added forming and n - type compensated semiconductor such that the Fermi level is 0.215 eV below the conduction band edge. The concentration of donors atoms added are (A) 12 . 1016 cm -3 (C) 39 . 1012 cm -3 (B) 4.6 1016 cm -3 (D) 2.4 1012 cm -3
9. The thermal equilibrium hole concentration p0 is (A) 396 . 1013 (C) 4.36 1012 cm -3 (B) 195 . 1013 cm -3 (D) 396 . 1013 cm -3
10. A sample of silicon at T = 300 K is doped with boron at a concentration of 2.5 1013 cm -3 and with arsenic at a concentration of 1 1013 cm -3. The material is (A) p - type with p0 = 15 . 1013 cm -3 (B) p - type with p0 = 15 . 10 7 cm -3 (C) n - type with n0 = 15 . 10 cm
13 -3
17. A silicon semiconductor sample at T = 300 K is doped with phosphorus atoms at a concentrations of 1015 cm -3. The position of the Fermi level with respect to the intrinsic Fermi level is (A) 0.3 eV (C) 0.1 eV (B) 0.2 eV (D) 0.4 eV
(D) n - type with n0 = 15 . 10 7 cm -3 11. In a sample of gallium arsenide at T = 200 K, n0 = 5 p0 and N a = 0. The value of n0 is (A) 9.86 10 9 cm -3 (C) 4.86 10 3 cm -3 (B) 7 cm -3 (D) 3 cm -3
18. A silicon crystal having a cross-sectional area of 0.001 cm 2 and a length of 20 m m is connected to its ends to a 20 V battery. At T = 300 K, we want a current of 100 mA in crystal. The concentration of donor atoms to be added is (A) 2.4 1013 cm -3 (C) 7.8 1014 cm -3 (B) 4.6 1013 cm -3 (D) 8.4 1014 cm -3
12. Germanium at T = 300 K is uniformly doped with an acceptor concentration of N a = 10 cm

15 -3
and a donor
concentration of N d = 0. The position of fermi energy with respect to intrinsic Fermi level is (A) 0.02 eV (C) 0.06 eV (B) 0.04 eV (D)0.08 eV
19. The cross sectional area of silicon bar is 100 mm 2 . The length of bar is 1 mm. The bar is doped with arsenic atoms. The resistance of bar is (A) 2.58 mW (C) 1.36 mW (B) 11.36 kW (D) 24.8 kW
13. In germanium at T = 300 K, the donor concentration are N d = 1014 cm -3 and N a = 0. The Fermi energy level with respect to intrinsic Fermi level is (A) 0.04 eV (C) 0.42 eV (B) 0.08 eV (D) 0.86 eV
20. A thin film resistor is to be made from a GaAs film doped n - type. The resistor is to have a value of 2 kW. The resistor length is to be 200 m m and area is to be 10 -6 cm 2 . The doping efficiency is known to be 90%. The mobility of electrons is 8000 needed is (A) 8.7 1015 cm -3
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14. A GaAs device is doped with a donor concentration of 3 1015 cm -3. For the device to operate properly, the intrinsic carrier concentration must remain less than 5% of the total concentration. The maximum temperature on that the device may operate is (A) 763 K (C) 486 K
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cm 2 V - s. The doping (B) 8.7 10 21 cm -3 (D) 4.6 10 21 cm -3

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(B) 942 K (D) 243 K
(C) 4.6 1015 cm -3
Semiconductor Physics
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Chap 2.1
21. A silicon sample doped n - type at 1018 cm -3 have a resistance of 10 W . The sample has an area of 10 sample is (m n = 800 cm V - s)
2 -6
27. For a sample of GaAs scattering time is t sc = 10 -13 s

* and electrons effective mass is me = 0.067 mo . If an
cm
and a length of 10 m m . The doping efficiency of the (A) 43.2% (C) 96.3% 22. Six volts is applied (B) 78.1% (D) 54.3% across a 2 cm long
electric field of 1 kV cm is applied, the drift velocity produced is (A) 2.6 106 cm s (C) 14.8 106 cm s (B) 263 cm s (D) 482
semiconductor bar. The average drift velocity is 10 4 cm s. The electron mobility is (A) 4396 cm 2 V - s (C) 6 10 4 cm 2 V - s (B) 3 10 4 cm 2 V - s (D) 3333 cm 2 V - s
28. A gallium arsenide semiconductor at T = 300 K is doped with impurity concentration N d = 1016 cm -3. The mobility m n is 7500 cm 2 V - s. For an applied field of 10 V cm the drift current density is (A) 120 A cm 2 (C) 12 10 4 A cm 2 (B) 120 A cm 2 (D) 12 10 4 A cm 2
23. For a particular semiconductor material following parameters are observed: m n = 1000 cm 2 V - s , m p = 600 cm V - s ,
2
29. In a particular semiconductor the donor impurity concentration is N d = 1014 cm -3. Assume the following parameters, m n = 1000 cm 2 V - s, T N c = 2 1019 300 T N v = 1 1019 300 . eV. E g = 11 An electric field of E = 10 V cm is applied. The electric current density at 300 K is (A) 2.3 A cm 2 (C) 9.6 A cm 2 Statement for Q.30-31: A semiconductor has following parameter m n = 7500 cm 2 V - s, m p = 300 cm 2 V - s, ni = 3.6 1012 cm -3 30. When conductivity is minimum, the hole (B) 1.6 A cm 2 (D) 3.4 A cm 2
32
N c = N v = 10 cm
19
-3
These parameters are independent of temperature. The measured conductivity of the intrinsic material is s = 10 -6 (W - cm) -1 at T = 300 K. The conductivity at T = 500 K is (A) 2 10 (C) 2 10
-4 -5
cm -3,
32
cm -3,
(W - cm) (W - cm)
-1
(B) 4 10 (D) 6 10
-5 -3
(W - cm)
-1
-1
(W - cm) -1
24. An n - type silicon sample has a resistivity of 5 W - cm at T = 300 K. The mobility is m n = 1350 cm 2 V - s. The donor impurity concentration is (A) 2.86 10 -14 cm -3 (C) 11.46 1015 cm -3 25. (B) 9.25 1014 cm -3 (D) 11 . 10 -15 cm -3
In a silicon sample the electron concentration

18
drops linearly from 10
cm
-3
to 10
16
cm
-3
over a length
of 2.0 m m. The current density due to the electron diffusion current is ( Dn = 35 cm 2 s). (A) 9.3 10 4 A cm 2 (C) 9.3 10 9A cm 2 (B) 2.8 10 4 A cm 2 (D) 2.8 10 9 A cm 2
26. In a GaAs sample the electrons are moving under an electric field of 5 kV cm and
7
concentration is (A) 7.2 1011 cm -3 (C) 1.44 1011 cm -3 (B) 1.8 1013 cm -3 (D) 9 1013 cm -3
the
carrier
concentration is uniform at 1016 cm -3. The electron velocity is the saturated velocity of 10 current density is (A) 1.6 10 A cm
4 2
cm s. The drift 31. The minimum conductivity is

4 2
(B) 2.4 10 A cm
(A) 0.6 10 -3 (W - cm) -1 (C) 2.4 10 -3 (W - cm) -1

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(B) 17 . 10 -3 (W - cm) -1 (D) 6.8 10 -3 (W - cm) -1

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(C) 1.6 108 A cm 2

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(D) 2.4 108 A cm 2
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Electronics Devices
32.
particular
intrinsic
semiconductor
has
resistivity of 50 (W - cm) at T = 300 K and 5 (W - cm) at T = 330 K. If change in mobility with temperature is neglected, the bandgap energy of the semiconductor is (A) 1.9 eV (C) 2.6 eV 33. Three scattering (B) 1.3 eV (D) 0.64 eV mechanism
2
Hole concentration p0 = 10 e
-x 15 L p
cm -3, x 0
-x
Electron concentration n0 = 5 1014 e L n cm -3, x 0 Hole diffusion coefficient Dp = 10 cm 2 s Electron diffusion coefficients Dn = 25 cm 2 s
exist
in
Hole diffusion length Lp = 5 10 -4 cm, Electron diffusion length Ln = 10 -3 cm The total current density at x = 0 is (A) 1.2 A cm 2 (C) 3.8 A cm 2 (B) 5.2 A cm 2 (D) 2 A cm 2
semiconductor. If only the first mechanism were present, the mobility would be 500 cm V - s. If only the second mechanism were present, the mobility would be 750 cm 2 V - s. If only third mechanism were present, the mobility would be 1500 cm 2 V - s. The net mobility is (A) 2750 cm 2 V - s (C) 818 cm 2 V - s (B) 1114 cm 2 V - s (D) 250 cm 2 V - s
37. A germanium Hall device is doped with 5 1015 donor atoms per cm 3 at T = 300 K. The device has the geometry d = 5 10 -3 cm, W = 2 10 -2 cm and L = 0.1 cm. The current is I x = 250 m A, the applied voltage is Vx = 100 mV, and the magnetic flux is Bz = 5 10 -2 (B) 0.31 mV (D) -3.26 mV tesla. The Hall voltage is (A) -0.31mV (C) 3.26 mV Statement for Q.38-39: A silicon Hall device at T = 300 K has the geometry d = 10 -3 cm , W = 10 -2 cm, L = 10 -1 cm. The following parameters are measured: I x = 0.75 mA, Vx = 15 V, V H = +5.8 mV, tesla 38. The majority carrier concentration is
34. In a sample of silicon at T = 300 K, the electron concentration varies linearly with distance, as shown in fig. P2.1.34. The diffusion current density is found to be J n = 0.19 A cm 2 . If the electron diffusion coefficient is Dn = 25 cm 2 s, The electron concentration at is
51014
n(cm-3)
n(0) 0 0.010 x(cm)
Fig. P2.1.34
(A) 4.86 10 cm
8
-3
(B) 2.5 10 cm
13
-3
(A) 8 1015 cm -3, n - type (B) 8 1015 cm -3, p - type (C) 4 1015 cm -3, n - type (D) 4 1015 cm -3, p - type 39. The majority carrier mobility is (A) 430 cm 2 V - s (C) 390 cm 2 V - s (B) 215 cm 2 V - s (D) 195 cm 2 V - s
(C) 9.8 10 26 cm -3
(D) 5.4 1015 cm -3
35. The hole concentration in p - type GaAs is given by x p = 10 1 - cm -3 for 0 x L L

16
where L = 10 m m. The hole diffusion coefficient is 10 cm s. The hole diffusion current density at x = 5 mm
2
is (A) 20 A cm 2 (C) 24 A cm 2 (B) 16 A cm 2 (D) 30 A cm 2 40. In a semiconductor n0 = 1015 cm -3 and ni = 1010 cm -3. The excess-carrier life time is 10 -6 s. The excess hole concentration is dp = 4 1013 cm -3. The electron-hole recombination rate is (A) 4 1019 cm -3s -1 (C) 4 10 24 cm -3s -1
Page 112
36. For a particular semiconductor sample consider following parameters:
(B) 4 1014 cm -3s -1 (D) 4 1011 cm -3s -1

At 20 % Discount
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Chap 2.1
41. A semiconductor in thermal equilibrium, has a hole concentration time is of p0 = 1016

10 -3
cm -3
and
an
intrinsic
concentration of ni = 10 cm . The minority carrier life 4 10 -7s. The thermal equilibrium recombination rate of electrons is (A) 2.5 10 22 cm -3 s -1 (C) 2.5 1010 cm -3 s -1 Statement for Q.42-43: A n-type silicon sample contains a donor concentration of N d = 106 cm -3. The minority carrier hole lifetime is t p 0 = 10 m s. 42. The thermal equilibrium generation rate of hole is (A) 5 10 cm s
8 9 -3 -1 -3 -1
SOLUTIONS
1. (C) ni2 = N c N v e
-Eg - kT
(B) 5 1010 cm -3 s -1 (D) 5 10 22 cm -3 s -1
400 Vt = 0.0259 = 0.0345 300 For Ge at 300 K, . 1019, N v = 6.0 1018 , E g = 0.66 eV N c = 104
- 400 0 .0345 ni2 = 104 . 1019 6.0 1018 e 300 3 0 .66
ni = 8.5 1014 cm -3
2 i -Eg - kT 3 1 .12 e kT
(B) 10 cm s (D) 10 cm s
3 -3
-3
-1 -1
2. (C) n = N c N v e
(C) 2. 25 10 cm s
43. The thermal equilibrium generation rate for electron is (A) 1125 . 10 cm s
9 -3 -1
T - (1012 ) 2 = 2.8 1019 104 . 1019 e 300 3 -1310 3 T
T e (B) 2.25 10 cm s
9 -3 -1 -10
= 9.28 10 -8 , By trial T = 382 K

E gA E - E gB gA kT
(C) 8.9 10 44.
cm s
-3
-1
(D) 4 10 9 cm -3 s -1 sample
16 -3
A n -type
silicon
contains
donor
- n2 e kT 3. (B) iA = E gB = e 2 niB e kT
= 2257.5
niA = 47.5 niB
concentration of N d = 10
cm . The minority carrier 4. (A) p0 = ni2 (15 . 1010 ) 2 = = 4.5 1015 cm -3 n0 5 10 4

( EF - Ev ) kT
hole lifetime is t p 0 = 20 m s. The lifetime of the majority carrier is ( ni = 15 . 1010 cm -3) (A) 8.9 106 s (C) 4.5 10 -17 s (B) 8.9 10 -6 s (D) 113 . 10 -7 s
5. (A) p0 = N v e 6. (B) p0 = N v e
= 104 . 1019 e 0 .0259 = 2 1015 cm -3 Nv EF - Ev = kT ln p 0
-0 .22
45. In a silicon semiconductor material the doping concentration are N a = 10

16
( EF - Ev ) kT
cm
-3
and N a = 0. The
equilibrium recombination rate is Rp 0 = 1011 cm -3s -1 . A uniform generation rate produces an excess- carrier concentration of dn = dp = 10 cm . The factor, by which
14 -3
At 300 K, N v = 10 . 1019 cm -3 104 . 1019 EF - Ev = 0.0259 ln = 0. 239 eV 1015 n0 = N c e

( Ec - EF ) kT
the total recombination rate increase is (A) 2.3 1013 (C) 2.3 10 9 (B) 4.4 1013 (D) 4.4 10 9
***********
At 300 K, N c = 2.8 1019 cm -3 Ec - EF = 112 . - 0. 239 = 0.881 eV n0 = 4.4 10 4 cm -3 7. (C) p0 = Na - Nd N + N a - d + ni2 2 2

2
For Ge ni = 2.4 10 3 1013 1013 13 -3 13 2 p0 = + + (2.4 10 ) = 2.95 10 cm 2 2

2
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Chap 2.1
(1.6 10
-19
0.1 = 11.36 kW )(1100)(5 1016 )(100 10 -8 ) L , sA s e m n n0 , R= L em n n0 A
26. (A) J = evn = (1.6 10 -19)(10 7)(1016 ) = 1.6 10 4 A cm 2 27. (A) vd = et sc E (1.6 10 -19)(10 -13)(10 5) = * (0.067)(9.1 10 -31 ) me
20. (A) R = n0 =
L em n AR
-4
= 26.2 10 3 m s = 2.6 106 cm s 28. (A) N d >> ni n0 = N d

-19
n0 = 0.9 N d = 20 10 = 8.7 1015 cm -3 (0.9)(1.6 10 -19)( 8000)(10 -6 )(2 10 3) L L , n0 = sA em n AR
J = em n n0 E = (1.6 10 29. (D) ni2 = N c N v e
)(7500)(1016 )(10) = 120 A cm 2
-Eg - kT 1 .1 - 0 .0259
21. (B) s e m n n0 , R =
= (2 1019)(1 1019) e N d >> ni
= 7.18 1019
10 10 -4 = 7.81 1017 cm -3 = (1.6 10 -19)( 800)(10 -6 )(10) Efficiency = n0 7.8 1017 100 = 100 = 78.1 % Nd 1018 V 6 = = 3 V/cm, vd = m n E, L 2
ni = 8.47 10 9 cm -3 N d = n0
J = sE = em n n0 E = (1.6 10 -19)(1000)(1014 )(100) = 1.6 A cm 2 30. (A) s = em n n0 + em p p0 and n0 = s = em n ni2 + em p p0 , p0 ni2 p0
22. (D) E = mn =
vd 10 4 = 3333 cm 2 V - s = E 3
23. (D) s1 = eni (m n + m p ) 10 -6 = (1.6 10 -19)(1000 + 600) ni At T = 300 K, ni = 391 . 10 cm

9 -3
( -1) em n ni2 ds =0 = + em p 2 dp0 p0

1
ni2 = N c N v e
Eg - kT
Nc Nv E g = kT ln n2 i
m p0 = ni n m p
2 7500 2 = 3.6 1012 300
= 7. 2 1011 cm -3 31. (B) smin = 2 s i m pm n mp + mn = 2 en i m pm n
1019 eV = 1122 E g = 2(0.0259) ln . 9 391 . 10 500 At T = 500 K , kT = 0.0259 = 0.0432 eV, 300 ni2 = (1019) 2 e
1 .122 - 0 .0432
= 2 1.6 10 -19( 3.6 1012 ) (7500)( 300) = 17 . 10 -3(W - cm) -1 32. (B) s = 1 = emni , r
cm -3,
ni = 2.29 1013 cm -3
= (1.6 10 -19)(2.29 1013)(1000 + 600) = 5.86 10 -3(W - cm) -1 24. (B) r = Nd = 1 1 = s em n N d
Eg 1 ni1 e 2 kT1 r1 = = Eg 1 ni 2 2 kT2 e r2 Eg 1 1 T2 2k T1
1 1 = 9.25 1014 cm -3 = 5(1.6 10 -19)(1350) rem n dn dx 4 2 = 2.8 10 A cm
0.1 = e
E g 330 - 300 = ln 10 2k 330 300 E g = 22( k300) ln 10 = 1.31 eV 33. (D)

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25. (B) J n = eDn
1018 - 1016 = (1.6 10 -19)( 35) 2 10 -4

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1 1 1 1 = + + m m1 m 2 m 3
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CHAPTER
2.2
THE PN JUNCTION
In this chapter, N d and N a denotes the net donor and acceptor concentration in the individual n and p-region. 1. An abrupt silicon in thermal equilibrium at T = 300 K is doped such that Ec - EF = 0.21 eV in the n - region and EF - Ev = 0.18 eV in the p - region. The built-in potential barrier Vbi is (A) 0.69 V (C) 0.61 V (B) 0.83 V (D) 0.88 V 5. The Fermi level on p - side is (A) 0.2 eV (C) 0.4 eV Statement for Q.68: A silicon pn junction at T = 300 K with zero applied bias has doping concentrations of N d = 5 1016 cm -3 and N a = 5 1015 cm -3. 6. The width of depletion region extending into the n-region is (A) 4 10 -6 cm (C) 4 10 -5 cm 7. The space charge width is (A) 32 . 10 -5 cm (C) 4.5 10 -4 cm (B) 4.5 10 -5 cm (D) 32 . 10 -4 cm (B) 3 10 -6 cm (D)3 10 -5 cm (B) 0.1 eV (D) 0.3 eV
2. A silicon pn junction at T = 300 K has N d = 1014 cm and N a = 10 cm . The built-in voltage is

17 -3 -3
(A) 0.63 V (C) 0.026 V
(B) 0.93 V (D) 0.038 V
3. In a uniformly doped GaAs junction at T = 300 K, at zero bias, only 20% of the total space charge region is to be in the p-region. The built in potential barrier is Vbi = 1.20 V. The majority carrier concentration in n-region is (A) 1 1016 cm -3 (C) 1 10
22
8. In depletion region maximum electric field | Emax | is (A) 1 10 4 V cm (C) 3 10 4 V cm (B) 2 10 4 V cm (D) 4 10 4 V cm
(B) 4 10 16 cm -3 (D) 4 10
22
9. An n n isotype doping profile is shown in fig. P2.2.9. The built-in potential barrier is
Nd(cm-3) 10 10
15 16
cm
-3
cm
-3
(ni = 15 . 1010 cm -3 )
Statement for Q.45: An abrupt silicon pn junction at zero bias and T = 300 K has dopant concentration of N a = 1017 cm -3 and N d = 5 1015 cm -3.
4. The Fermi level on n - side is (A) 0.1 eV (C) 0.3 eV

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Fig. P2.2.9
(B) 0.2 eV (D) 0.4 eV
(A) 0.66 V (C) 0.03 V

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(B) 0.06 V (D) 0.33 V

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UNIT 2
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Electronics Devices
Statement for Q.1011: A silicon abrupt junction has dopant concentration N a = 2 1016 cm -3 and N d = 2 10 15 cm -3. The applied reverse bias voltage is VR = 8 V. 10. The maximum electric field | Emax | in depletion region is (A) 15 10 V cm
4
concentration are N d = 4 1016 cm -3 and N a = 4 1017 cm -3. The magnitude of the reverse bias voltage is (A) 3.6 V (C) 7.2 V (B) 9.8 V (D) 12.3 V
17. An abrupt silicon pn junction has an applied reverse bias voltage of VR = 10 V. it has dopant concentration of N a = 1018 cm -3 and N d = 1015 cm -3. The pn junction area is 6 10 -4 cm 2 . An inductance of 2.2 mH is placed in parallel with the pn junction. The resonant frequency is (A) 1.7 MHz (C) 3.6 MHz (B) 2.6 MHz (D) 4.3 MHz
(B) 7 10 V cm
4
(C) 35 . 10 4 V cm
(D) 5 10 4 V cm
11. The space charge region is (A) 2.5 m m (C) 50 m m 12. A uniformly doped (B) 25 m m (D) 100 m m silicon pn junction has
N a = 5 1017 cm -3 and N d = 10 17 cm -3. The junction has a cross-sectional area of 10 -4 cm -3 and has an applied reverse-bias voltage of VR = 5 V. The total junction capacitance is (A) 10 pF (C) 7 pF Statement for Q.1314: An ideal one-sided silicon n+ p junction has uniform doping on both sides of the abrupt junction. The doping relation is N d = 50 N a . The built-in potential barrier is Vbi = 0.75 V. The applied reverse bias voltage is V R = 10. 13. The space charge width is (A) 1.8 m m (C) 1.8 cm (B) 1.8 mm (D) 1.8 m (B) 5 pF (D) 3.5 pF
18. A uniformly doped silicon p+ n junction is to be designed such that at a reverse bais voltage of V R = 10 V the maximum electric field is limited to Emax = 106 V cm. The maximum doping concentration in the n-region is (A) 32 . 1019 cm -3 (C) 6.4 1017 cm -3 (B) 32 . 1017 cm -3 (D) 6.4 1019 cm -3
19. A diode has reverse saturation current I s = 10 -10 A and non ideality factor h = 2. If diode voltage is 0.9 V, then diode current is (A) 11 mA (C) 83 mA (B) 35 mA (D) 143 mA
20. A diode has reverse saturation current I s = 10 -18 A and nonideality factor h = 105 . . If diode has current of 70 m A, then diode voltage is (A) 0.63 V (B) 0.87 V (D) 0.93 V (C) 0.54 V
14. The junction capacitance is (A) 3.8 10 -9 F cm 2 (C) 2.4 10 -9 F cm 2

+
(B) 9.8 10 -9 F cm 2 (D) 5.7 10 -9 F cm 2 21. An ideal pn junction diode is operating in the forward bais region. The change in diode voltage, that will cause a factor of 9 increase in current, is (A) 83 mV (C) 43 mV (B) 59 mV (D) 31 mV
15. Two p n silicon junction is reverse biased at VR = 5 V. The impurity doping concentration in junction A are N a = 10 cm
18 -3
and N d = 10
-15
cm , and those in junction
-3
B are N a = 1018 cm -3 and N d = 1016 cm -3. The ratio of the space charge width is (A) 4.36 (C) 19 (B) 9.8 (D) 3.13 22. An pn junction diode is operating in reverse bias region. The applied reverse voltage, at which the ideal reverse current reaches 90% of its reverse saturation current, is 16. The maximum electric field in reverse-biased silicon pn junction
Page 118
(A) 59.6 mV (C) 4.8 mV
(B) 2.7 mV (D) 42.3 mV

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is
| Emax | = 3 10
V cm.
The
doping
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The pn Junction
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Chap 2.2
23. For a silicon
p+ n junction diode the doping

18
cross-sectional area is 10 -3 cm 2 . The minority carrier lifetimes are t n 0 = 1 m s and t p 0 = 0.1 m s. The minority carrier diffusion coefficients are Dn = 35 cm 2 s and Dp = 10 cm 2 s. The total number of excess electron in the p - region, if applied forward bias is Va = 0.5 V, is (A) 4 10 7 cm -3 (B) 6 1010 cm -3 (D) 6 10 7 cm -3 (C) 4 1010 cm -3
concentrations are N a = 10
cm
-3
and N d = 10
16
cm .
-3
The minority carrier hole diffusion coefficient is Dp = 12 cm 2 s and the minority carrier hole life time is t p 0 = 10 -7 s. The cross sectional area is A = 10 -4 cm 2 . The reverse saturation current is (A) 4 10
-12
(B) 4 10
-15
(C) 4 10 -11 A
(D) 4 10 -7 A
28. Two ideal pn junction have exactly the same electrical and physical parameters except for the band gap of the semiconductor materials. The first has a bandgap energy of 0.525 eV and a forward-bias current of 10 mA with Va = 0.255 V. The second pn junction diode is to be designed such that the diode current I = 10 m A at a forward-bias voltage of Va = 0.32 V. The bandgap energy of second diode would be (A) 0.77 eV (C) 0.57 eV (B) 0.67 eV (D) 0.47 eV
24. For an ideal silicon pn junction diode t no = t po = 10 -7 s , Dn = 25 cm 2 s , Dp = 10 cm 2 s The ratio of N a N d , so that 95% of the current in the depletion region is carried by electrons, is (A) 0.34 (C) 0.83 Statement for Q.2526: A ideal long silicon pn junction diode is shown in fig. P2.2.2526. The n - region is doped with 10 5 10
16 16
(B) 0.034 (D) 0.083
29. A pn junction biased at Va = 0.72 V has DC bias current I DQ = 2 mA. The minority carrier lifetime is 1 m s is both the n and p regions. The diffusion capacitance is in (A) 49.3 nF (C) 77.4 nF (B) 38.7 nF (D) 98.6 nF
organic atoms per cm 3 and the p - region is doped with boron atoms per
2
cm . The minority carrier

2
lifetimes are D n = 23 cm s and Dp = 8 cm s. The forward-bias voltage is Va = 0.61 V.

W p n
30. A p+ n silicon diode is forward biased at a current of 1 mA. The hole life time in the n - region is 0.1 m s. Neglecting the depletion capacitance the diode impedance at 1 MHz is (A) 38.7 + j12.1 W (C) 38.7 - j12.1 mW (B) 235 . + j7.5 W (D) 235 . - j7.5 W
Va
x=0
Fig. P.2.2.25-26
25. The excess hole concentration is (A) 6.8 1012 e -246 x cm -3, x 0 (B) 6.8 1012 e -246 x cm -3, x 0 (C) 3.8 1014 e -3534 x cm -3, x 0 (D) 3.8 10 e
14 +3534 x
31. The slope of the diffusion capacitance verses forward-bias current of a p+ n diode is 2.5 10 -6 F A. The hole lifetime is (A) 1.3 10 -7 s (C) 6.5 10 -8 s (B) 1.3 10 -4 s (D) 6.5 10 -4 s
cm , x 0
-3
32. A silicon pn junction with doping profile of N a = 1016 cm -3 and N d = 10 15 cm -3 has a cross sectional area of 10 -2 cm 2 . The length of the p - region is 2 mm and length of the n - region is 1 mm. The approximately series resistance of the diode is (A) 62 W (C) 72 W (B) 43 W (D) 81 W
At 20 % Discount
26. The hole diffusion current density at x = 3 mm is (A) 0.6 A cm 2 (C) 0.4 A cm 2 (B) 0.6 10 -3 A cm 2 (D) 0.4 10 -3 A cm 2
27. The doping concentrations of a silicon pn junction are N d = 10

16
cm
-3
and
N a = 8 10
15
cm .
-3
The
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Electronics Devices
33. A gallium arsenide pn junction is operating in reverse-bias voltage VR = 5 V. The doping profile are N a = N d = 10
16
39. A GaAs laser has a threshold density of 500 A cm 2 . The laser has dimensions of 10 mm 200 mm. The active region is dLas = 100 A . The electron-hole recombination time at threshold is 1.5 ns. The current density of 5J th is injected into the laser. The optical power emitted, if emitted photons have an energy of 1.43 eV, is (A) 143 mW (C) 62.3 mW (B) 71.5 mW (D) 124.6 mW
cm . The minority carrier lifetime are

-8
-3
t p 0 = t n 0 = t 0 = 10 (A) 19 . 10
-8 -8
s. The reverse-biased generation ( e r = 131 . , ni = 1.8 10 )

6 2 2
current density is A cm (C) 1.4 10
(B) 19 . 10
-9 -9
A cm
2 2
A cm
(D) 1.4 10
A cm
34. For silicon the critical electric field at breakdown is approximately Ecrit = 4 10 5 V cm. For the breakdown voltage of 25 V, the maximum n - type
+
doping
***************
concentration in an abrupt p n-junction is (A) 2 1016 cm -3 (C) 2 1018 cm -3 (B) 4 10 16 cm -3 (D) 4 10 18 cm -3
35. A uniformly doped silicon pn junction has dopant profile of N a = N d = 5 1016 cm -3. If the peak electric field in the junction at breakdown is E = 4 10 5 V cm, the breakdown voltage of this junction is (A) 35 V (C) 25 V (B) 30 V (D) 20 V
36. An abrupt silicon p+ n junction has an n - region doping concentration n - region of N d = 5 10 15 such that cm -3. The minimum width, avalanche
breakdown occurs before the depletion region reaches an ohmic contact, is (VB 100 V) (A) 5.1 m m (C) 7.3 m m (B) 3.6 m m (D) 6.4 m m
37. A silicon pn junction diode has doping profile N a = N d = 5 1019 cm -3. The space charge width at a forward bias voltage of Va = 0.4 V is (A) 102 A (C) 153 A 38. A GaAs pn+ (B) 44 A (D) 62 A junction LED has following
parameters Dn = 25 cm 2 s, Dp = 12 cm 2 s N d = 5 1017 cm -3, N a = 1016 cm -3 t n 0 = 10 ns , t p 0 = 10 ns The injection efficiency of the LED is (A) 0.83 (C) 0.64
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(B) 0.99 (D) 0.46

UNIT 2
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Electronics Devices
= 301 . 10 -5 cm, CT = . 8.85 10 10 eA 117 = 301 . 10 -5 W

-14 -4
= 35 . 10 -12 F
4 1016 4 10 17 = 0.0259 ln = 0.826 V 2. 25 10 20

1
Na Nd 13. (A) Vbi = Vt ln n2 i

2 50 N a 0.751 = 0.0259 ln 2.25 10 20
2 e( Vbi + VR ) Na Nd 2 | Emax | = e ( N a + N d) Vbi + VR = =

2 eEmax 2e
1 1 N + N a d
N a = 4. 2 1015 cm -3, N d = 2.1 1017 cm -3

1
(117 . 8.85 10 -14 )( 3 10 5) 2 1 1 V + 17 16 2 1.6 10 -19 4 10 4 10
= 8.008 V VR = 8.008 - 0.826 = 7.18 V

1
2 e ( V + VR ) 1 1 2 W = s bi + , e Na Na Nd > > Na 2 e( Vbi + VR ) 1 2 W N e a

1 2
Na Nd 17. (B) Vbi = Vt ln n2 i 1018 1015 = 0.0259 ln 2.25 10 20 = 0.754 V

1
2 (117 . 8.85 10 -4 )(10.752) -4 = = 1.8 10 cm 1.6 10 -19 4.2 1015 = 1.8 m m ee N a N d 14. (D) C = 2( Vbi + VR )( N a + N d ) ee N a For N d >> N a , C = 2( Vbi + VR ) 1.6 10 =
-19 1 2 1 2
2 eeN a N d C = 2 ( Vi + VR )( N a + N d )
1
2 eeN d For N a >> N d , C = 2 ( Vbi + VR )

1
1.6 10 -19 117 . 8.85 10 -4 1015 2 = 2 (10 + 0.754)

15 1 2
. 8.85 10 117 2 (10 + 0.754)
-4
4.2 10
= 2.77 10 -9 F cm 2 C = AC = 6 10 -4 2.77 10 -9 = 1.66 10 -12 F 1 1 fo = = = 2.6 MHz. 2 p LC 2 p 2. 2 10 -3 1.66 10 -12 18. (B) | Emax | = eN a xn e
= 5.7 10 -9 F cm 2
1
2 e ( V + VR ) 1 1 2 15. (D) W = s bi + N e a Na W A ( Vbia + V R ) ( N aA + N dA ) N aB N dB 2 = WB ( Vbib + R ) ( N aB + N dB ) N aA N dB Na Nd Vbi = Vt ln n2 i VbiA 1018 1015 = 0.0259 ln 2.25 10 20 = 0.754 V = 0.814 V
1 1
2 e( Vbi + VR ) For a p+ n junction, xn eN d

1
2 eN d 2 So that | Emax | = ( Vbi + VR ) es Assuming Vbi << VR , Nd =

2 eEmax (117 . 8.85 10 -14 )(10 6 ) 2 = 2 eVR 2(1.6 10 -14 )(10)
1018 1016 VbiB = 0.0259 ln 2.25 10 20 W A 5.754 1018 + 1015 = 18 16 WB 5.814 10 + 10 Na Nd 16. (C) Vbi = Vt ln n2 i
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= 3. 24 1017 cm -3
0 .9 VD 19. (B) I D = I s e hVt - 1 = 10 -10 ( e 2 ( 0 .0259) - 1 ) = 35 mA
1016 2 . = 313 15 10
VD 20. (B) I D = I s e hVt - 1

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ID VD = hVt ln 1 + I s
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The pn Junction
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Chap 2.2
70 10 -6 = (105 . )(0.0259) ln 1 + 10 -18

V V t
= 0.87 V
V1 Vt ( V1 - V2 ) Vt
eVa 27. (A) N p = ALn np 0 e kT -1
21. (B) I d I s e
I d1 e = V2 = e I d2 e Vt
np 0 =
ni2 (15 . 1010 ) 2 = = 2.8 10 4 cm -3 Na 8 1015
Ln = Dn t no = 35 10 -6 = 5.9 10 -3 Cm
0 .5 N p = 10 -3 5.9 10 -3 2.8 10 4 e 0 .0259 - 1
I d2 V1 - V2 = Vt ln I d1
= 0.0259 ln 10 = 59.6 mV I V = Vt ln I + 1 s
V V 22. (A) I = I s e t - 1
= 4 10 7 cm -3
Vt e 28. (A) I ni2 e V -Eg a V t Va -Eg V t Va V t
I = -0.90 (ive due to reverse current) Is V = 0.0259 ln (1 - 0.9) = -59.6 mV 1 23. (B) I s = Aen Nd
2 i
I e
D t po 12 = 394 . 10 -15 A 10 -7
(10 -4 )(1.6 10 -19)(15 . 10 10 ) 2 1016 Jn = 0.95, Jn + Jp

2 i
t ( Va1 - Va2 - E g1 + E g2 ) I1 e = V - E = e Vt a2 g2 I2 Vt e
V a - E g1 V
10 10 -3 =e 10 10 -6 10 = e
3
( 0 .255- 0 .32 - 0 .525+ E g2 ) ( 0 .0259)
24. (D)
E g2 - 0 .59 0 .0259
1 J n = en Na Dn N Dn + a Nd
Dn , t no = 0.95, Dp
1 J p = en Nd
2 i
Dp t po
E g 2 = 0.59 + 0.0259 ln 10 3 = 0.769 EV I p 0 t p 0 + I n 0 tn 0 29. (B) Cd = 2 Vt t n 0 = t p 0 = 10 -6 s, Cd = 2 10 10 2( 0.0259) I dQ Vt

-3 -6
5 = 0.95 Na 5+ 10 Nd
I p 0 + I n 0 = I dQ = 2 mA
Na = 0.083 Nd
x eVa L = pn 0 e kt - 1 e p
= 3.86 10 -8 F
25. (C) dpn = pn - pn 0
30. (D) g d = Cd = Z= I dQt p 0 2 Vt
10 -3 = 3.86 10 -2 S 0.0259
pn 0 =
ni2 (15 . 1010 ) 2 = = 2. 25 10 4 cm -3 Nd 1016
10 -3 10 -7 = 193 . 10 -9 F 2 (0.0259)
Lp = Dp t p 0 = ( 8)(1 10 -8 ) = 2.83 10 -4 cm
0 .61 - x -4 0 .0259 - 1 e dpn = 2.25 10 4 e 2 .8310
1 1 = = 235 . - j7.5 W Y g d + jwCd
31. (A) For a p+ n diode I p 0 >> I n 0 1 Cd = ( I pot po), 2V t tp 0 2 Vt = 2.5 10 -6
= 3.8 10 e
14
-3534 x
cm
-3
( dpn ) 26. (A) J p = - eDp = eDp ( 3.8 1014 )( 3534) e -3534 x x x = 3 mm = 3 10 -4 cm J p = (1.6 10 -19)(18)( 3.8 1014 )( 3534) e - ( 3534 )( 310 = 0.6 A cm 2
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-4
t p 0 = 2 0.0259 2.5 10 -6 = 1.3 10 -7 s rp L A = L A( em p N a )
32. (C) RP =
)
0.2 = 26 W (10 -2 )(1.6 10 -19)( 480)(10 16 )

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Electronics Devices
Rn = =
rn L L = A Ae(m n N d )
-3
5 1019 = 2(0.0259) ln 10 15 . 10
. V = 114
1
0.10 = 46.3 W (10 )(1.6 10 -19)(1350)(1015)
R = Rp + Rn = 72.3 W Na Nd 33. (B) Vbi = Vt ln n2 i 10 = 2(0.0259) ln 1.8 10 6

16
2 e ( V + VR ) 1 1 2 W = s bi + N e a Na
1
2 (117 . 8.85 10 -14 )(114 . - 0.4) 2 2 = -14 19 1.6 10 5 10 = 6.19 10 -7 cm = 62 A 38. (B) Ln = Dn t n 0 , Lp = Dp t p 0 Dn np 0 hinj =
1 2
=1.16 V
1
2 e ( V + VR ) W = s bi e
1 1 2 N + N a a
Ln Dn np 0 Ln + Dp pn 0 Lp
np 0 = np 0
Dn tn 0
2 (131 . 8.85 10 -14 )( 6.16) 2 -4 = 16 = 1.34 10 cm -19 1 . 6 10 10 J gen = = eniW 2 to
Dp Dn + pn 0 tn 0 tp 0
np 0 = pn 0 =
ni2 (1.8 106 ) 2 = = 324 . 10 -4 cm -3 Na 1016 ni2 (1.8 106 ) 2 = = 6.48 106 cm -3 Nd 5 1017 25 = 5 10 4 , 10 10 -9 12 . 10 4 = 35 10 10 -9 (5 10 4 )( 3. 24 10 -4 ) (5 10 )( 3. 24 10 -4 ) + ( 35 . 10 4 )( 6.48 10 -6 )
4
1.6 10 -19 1.8 106 1.34 10 -4 = 193 . 10 -9 A cm 2 2 10 -8

2 eEcrit 2 eN B
Dn = tn 0 Dp tp 0 =
34. (A) VB = 25 =
(117 . 8.85 10 -4 )( 4 10 5) 2 2 1.6 10 -19 N B
hinj =
N B = N d = 2 1016 cm -3 35. (D) Emax = eN d xn e xn = eEmax eN d
= 0.986 39. (B) The areal density at threshold is n2 D = . 10 -9) J th t r (500)(15 = = 4.69 1012 cm -3 1.6 10 -19 e n2 D 4.69 1012 = = 4.69 1018 cm -3 dLas 10 -6 change. When J > J th the electron hole
(117 . 8.85 10 -14 )( 4 10 5) = = 5.18 10 -5 cm (1.6 10 -19)(5 1016 ) Na Nd 5 106 2 0 0259 Vbi = Vt ln = ( . ) ln 10 15 n2 . 10 i
1
= 0.778 V
The carrier density is nth =
2 e V N a 2 1 xn = s bi e N d N a + N d 2(117 . 8.85 10 -4 )( Vbi + VR ) (5.18 10 ) = -19 6 (1.6 10 )(2 5 10 )

-5 2
Once the threshold is reached, the carrier density does not recombination is 15 . 10 -9 J th = 3 10 -10 s t r ( J th ) = 5 J JA The optical power produced is p = hw e tr ( J ) = = (5 500)(2 10 -5)(1.43 1.6 10 -19) = 715 . MW 1.6 10 -19
Vbi + VR = 20.7,
VR = 19.9 V,
VR = VB
36. (A) For a p+ n diode, Neglecting Vi compared to VB ,

1 1
xn
2 eVB 2 2(117 . 8.85 10 -14 )(100) 2 = -19 15 = 5.1 m m eN d (1.6 10 )(5 10 )
****************
Na Nd 37. (D) Vbi = Vt ln n2 i

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CHAPTER
2.3
THE BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTOR
Statement for Q.1-2: The parameters in the base region of an npn bipolar transistor are as follows Dn = 20 cm 2 s, nB 0 = 10 4 cm -3, xB = 1 m m, ABE = 10 -4 cm 2 . 1. If VBE = 0.5 V, then collector current I C is (A) 7.75 m A (C) 0.16 m A (B) 1.6 m A (D) 77.5 m A 5. A uniformly doped npn bipolar transistor is biased in the forward-active region. The transistor doping concentration are N E = 5 1017 cm -3, N B = 10 16 cm -3 and N C = 1015 cm -3. The minority carrier concentration pE 0 , nB 0 and pC 0 are (A) 4.5 10 2 , 2. 25 10 4 , 2. 25 10 5 cm -3 (B) 2. 25 10 4 , 2. 25 10 5, 4.5 10 2 cm -3 (C) 2. 25 10 4 , 2. 25 10 5, 4.5 10 4 cm -3 (D) 4.5 10 4 , 2.25 10 4 , 2. 25 10 5 cm -3 2. If VBE = 0.7 V, then collector current I C is (A) 418 m A (C) 17.5 m A (B) 210 m A (D) 98 m A 6. A uniformly doped silicon pnp transistor is biased in the forward-active mode. The doping profile is N E = 10 18 cm -3, N B = 5 1016 cm -3 and N C = 1015 cm -3. For VEB = 0.6 V, the pB at x = 0 is 3. In bipolar transistor biased in the forward-active region the base current is I B = 50 m A and the collector currents is I C = 2.7 mA. The a is (A) 0.949 (C) 0.982 (B) 54 (D) 0.018 (A) 5.2 10 cm
19 -3
(See fig. P2.3.7-8) (B) 5.2 10 13 cm -3 (D) 5.2 10 11 cm -3
(C) 5.2 1016 cm -3 Statement for Q.7-8:
An npn bipolar transistor having uniform doping of N E = 10 18 cm -3 N B = 1016 cm -3 and N C = 6 10 15 cm -3 is operating in the inverse-active mode with VBE = - 2 V and VBC = 0.6 V. The geometry of transistor is shown in fig P2.3.7-8.
Emitter -nBase -pCollector -n-
4. A uniformly doped silicon npn bipolar transistor is to be biased in the forward active mode with the B-C junction reverse biased by 3 V. The transistor doping are N E = 1017 cm -3, N B = 1016 cm -3 and N C = 10 15 cm -3. The BE voltage, at which the minority carrier electron concentration at x = 0 is 10% of the majority carrier hole concentration, is (A) 0.94 V (C) 0.48 V
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xE
xB
xC
(B) 0.64 V (D) 0.24 V

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x' = xE
x'=0 x'
x=0 x
x = xB x'' = 0 x''
x'' = xC
Fig. P2.3.7-8
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Electronics Devices
7. The minority carrier concentration at x = x B is (A) 4.5 1014 cm -3 (C) 2.6 1014 cm -3 (B) 2.6 10 12 cm -3 (D) 39 . 10 14 cm -3
N E = 1018 cm -3, N B = 5 1016 cm -3, N C = 2 1019 cm -3, DE = 8 cm 2 s , DB = 15 cm 2 s , DC = 14 cm 2 s xE = 0.8 m m, xB = 0.7 m m The emitter injection efficiency g is (A) 0.999 (C) 0.982 (B) 0.977 (D) 0.934
8. The minority carrier concentration at x = 0 is (A) 39 . 1014 cm -3 (C) 2.7 10

14
(B) 2.7 10 12 cm -3 (D) 4.5 10

14
cm
-3
cm
-3
9. An pnp bipolar transistor has uniform doping of N E = 6 1017 cm -3, N B = 2 10 16 cm -3 and N C = 5 1014 cm . The transistor is operating is inverse-active mode. The maximum V CB voltage, so that the low injection condition applies, is (A) 0.86 V (C) 0.32 V Statement for Q.10-12: The following currents are measured in a 16. A silicon npn transistor has a doping concentration of N B = 1017 cm -3 and N C = 7 10 15 cm -3. The metallurgical base width is 0.5 m m. Let VBE = 0.6 V. Neglecting the BE junction depletion width the VCE at punch-through is (A) 146 V (B) 0.733 (D) 0.8 17. A uniformly doped silicon pnp transistor is to (B) 0.44 (D) 8.39 designed with N E = 1019 cm -3 and N C = 10 16 cm -3. The metallurgical base width is to be 0.75 m m. The minimum base doping, so that the minimum punch-through voltage is Vpt = 25 V, is (B) 0.923 (D) 0.440 (A) 4.46 1015 cm -3 (C) 195 . 1015 cm -3 (B) 4.46 10 16 cm -3 (D) 195 . 1016 cm -3 (C) 295 V (B) 70 V (D) 204 V (B) 0.48 V (D) 0.60 V
-3
15. A uniformly doped silicon epitaxial npn bipolar transistor N B = 3 10 xB = 0.7 m m (A) 26.3 V (C) 12.2 V is
16
fabricated
-3 17
with
base
doping
of
cm
and a heavily doped collector region cm -3. The neutral base width is VBE = VBC = 0. The VBC at
with N C = 5 10 punch-through is
when
(B) 18.3 V (D) 6.3 V
uniformly doped npn bipolar transistor: I nE = 120 . mA, I pE = 0.10 mA, I nC = 118 . mA I R = 0.20 mA, I G = 1 m A, I pC 0 = 1 m A 10. The a is (A) 0.667 (C) 0.787 11. The b is (A) 3.69 (C) 2.27 12. The g is (A) 0.816 (C) 1.083
13. A silicon npn bipolar transistor has doping concentration of N E = 2 1018 cm -3, N B = 10 17 cm -3 and . 1016 cm -3. The area is 10 -3 cm 2 and neutral N C = 15 base width is 1 m m. The transistor is biased in the active region at VBE = 0.5 V. The collector current is (DB = 20 cm 2 s) (A) 9 m A (C) 22 m A (B) 17 m A (D) 11 m A
18. For a silicon npn transistor assume the following parameters: I E = 0.5 mA, b = 48 xB = 0.7 m A, xdc = 2 m m Cs = Cm = 0.08 pF, C je = 0.8 pF Dn = 25 cm 2 s, rc = 30 W The carrier cross the space charge region at a speed of 10 7 cm s. The total delay time t ec is (A) 164.2 ps (C) 144.2 ps (B) 234.4 ps (D) 298.4 ps
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14. A uniformly doped npn bipolar transistor has following parameters:

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Chap 2.3
19. In a bipolar transistor, the base transit time is 25% of the total delay time. The base width is 0.5 m m and base diffusion coefficient is DB = 20 cm 2 s. The cut-off frequency is (A) 637 MHz (C) 12.8 GHz (B) 436 MHz (D) 46.3 GHz
Statement for Q.24-26: For the transistor in circuit of fig. P2.3.24-26. The parameters are bR = 1 , bF = 100 , and I s = 1 fA .
5V
20. The base transit time of a bipolar transistor is 100 ps and carriers cross the 1.2 m m BC space charge at a speed of 10 7 cm s . The emitter-base junction charging time is 25 ps and the collector capacitance and resistance are 0.10 pF and 10 W, respectively. The cutoff frequency is (A) 43.8 GHz (C) 3.26 GHz Statement for Q.21-22: Consider the circuit shown in fig. P2.3.21-22. If voltage Vs = 0.63 V, the currents are I C = 275 m A and IB = 5 mA . (B) 32.6 GHz (D) 1.15 GHz 25. The current I E is (A) 1 fA (C) 2 fA 26. The current I B is (A) 2 fA (C) 1 fA (B) -2 fA (D) -1 fA (B) -1 fA (D) -2 fA 24. The current I C is (A) 1 fA (C) 1.384 fA (B) 2 fA (D) 0 A
Fig. P2.3.24-26
27. For the transistor in fig. P2.3.27, I S = 10 -15 A, bF = 100 , bR = 1. The current I CBO is
Vs
5V
Fig.P2.3.21-22
21. The forward common-emitter gain bF is (A) 56 (C) 0.9821 (B) 55 (D) 0.9818 (A) 101 . 10 -14 A (C) 101 . 10 -15 A Statement for Q.28-31: Determine 23. Consider the circuit shown in fig P2.3.23. If Vs = 0.63 V, I1 = 275 m A and I 2 = 125 m A, then the value of I 3 is
I1 I2
Fig.P2.3.27
22. The forward current gain a F is (A) 0.9821 (C) 55 (B) 0.9818 (D) 56
(B) 2 10 -14 A (D) 2 10 -15 A
the
region
of
operation
for
the
transistor shown in circuit in question. 28.

6V
Vs
I3
Fig. P2.3.23
Fig.P2.3.28
(A) - 400 m A (C) - 600 m A

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(B) 400 m A (D) 600 m A
(A) Forward-Active (C) Saturation

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(B) Reverse-Active (D) Cutoff

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Electronics Devices
29.
33. The current I1 is (A) -12.75 mA (C) 12.5 mA Statement for Q.3435: The leakage current of a transistor are I CBO = 5 m
Fig. P2.3.29
(B) 12.75 mA (D) - 12.5 mA
6V
A and I CEO = 0.4 mA, and I B = 30 m A. 34. The value of b is (A) 79 (C) 80 35. The value of I C is (A) 2.4 mA (C) 2.34 mA (B) 2.77 mA (D) 1.97 mA (B) 81 (D) None of the above
(A) Forward-Active (C) Saturation 30.
6V
Statement for Q.3637:

Fig.P2.3.30
(A) Forward-Active (C) Saturation 31.

3V
For a BJT, I C = 5 mA, I B = 50 m A and I CBO = 0.5 m A. 36. The value of b is (A) 103 (C) 83 37. The value of I E is (A) 5.25 mA (B) 5.4 mA (D) 5.1 mA (C) 5.65 mA (B) 91 (D) 51
6V
Fig.P2.3.31
(A) Forward-Active (C) Saturation Statement for Q.32-33:
********
For the circuit shown in fig. P2.3.32-33, let the value of b R = 0.5 and bF = 50. The saturation current is 10 -16 A.
+3 V
250 mA
I1
Fig. P2.3.32-33
32. The base-emitter voltage is (A) 0.53 V (C) 0.84 V

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(B) 0.7 V (D) 0.98 V

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Chap 2.3
SOLUTIONS
1. (A) I C = I s e
VBE V b
8. (D) pC 0 =
ni2 (15 . 1010 ) 2 = = 375 . 10 4 cm -3 NC 6 1015

VBC V t
pC ( x = 0) = pC 0 e
0 .6
eDn ABE nB 0 Is = xB = (1.6 10 -19)(20)(10 -4 )(10 4 ) = 32 . 10 -14 A 10 -4

0 .5
= 375 . 10 4 e 0 .0259 = 4.31 1014 cm -3 9. (B) Low injection limit is reached when pC (0) = 0.10 N C = 5 1013 cm -3, pC 0 = ni2 (15 . 1010 ) 2 = = 4.5 10 5 NC 5 1014
VCB V t
I C = 3. 2 10 -14 e 0 .0259 = 7.75 m A 2. (C) I C = 32 . 10

-14 0 .7 0 .0259
= 17.5 mA
pC (0) = pC 0 e
pC (0) VCB = Vt ln p C0
I bF 3. (C) bF = C , a F = IB 1 + bF aF = IC 2.7m = = 0.982 I C + I B 2.7m + 50m ni2 (15 . 1010 ) 2 = = 2. 25 10 4 cm -3 NB 1016

VBE V t
5 1013 = 0.0259 ln = 0.48 V 4.5 10 5 10. (C) a = = J nC I nC = + J R + J pE I nE + I R + I pE
J nE
4. (B) np 0 =
118 . = 0.787 12 . + 0.2 + 0.1 a 0.787 == = 3.69 1-a 1 - 0.787 J nE I nE 1. 2 = = = 0.923 J nE + J pE I nE + I pE 1. 2 + 0.1 ni2 (15 . 10 10 ) 2 = = 2.25 10 3 cm -3 NB 1017 = 2.25 10 3 e 0 .0259 = 5.45 1011 cm -3
0 .5
At x = 0, np (0) = np 0 e
11. (A) b =
np (0) VBE = VT ln n p0 10 1016 NB = = 10 15 100 10 = 0.635 V
12. (B) g =
np (0) = VBE
1015 = 0.0259 ln 2.25 10 4
13. (B) nB 0 = nB (0) = nB 0 e IC = =
5. (A) pE 0 = nB 0 = pC 0 =
ni2 (15 . 10 10 ) 2 = = 450 cm -3 NE 5 1017
VBE V t
ni2 (15 . 10 10 ) 2 = = 2. 25 10 4 cm -3 NB 5 1016 ni2 (15 . 10 10 ) 2 = = 2. 25 10 5 cm -3 NE 5 1015 ni2 (15 . 1010 ) 2 = = 4.5 10 3 cm -3 NB 5 1016

eDB AnB (0) xB
(1.6 10 -19)(20)(10 -3)(5.45 10 11 ) = 17.4 m A 10 -4 1 N B D E xB 1+ N E D B xE
14. (B) g =
6. (B) pB 0 = pB (0) = pB 0 e 7. (C) nB 0 =
VEB V t
= 4.5 10 e
0 .6 3 0 .0259
= 5. 2 1013 cm -3
1 = 0.977 5 1016 8 0.7 1+ 1018 15 0.8
ni2 (15 . 10 10 ) 2 = = 2. 25 10 4 cm -3 NB 1016

VBC V t
NB N C 15. (B) Vbi = Vt ln n2 i 3 1016 5 1017 = 0.0259 ln (15 . 1010 ) 2 At punch-through

nB ( x = xB ) = nB 0 e
0 .6
= 0.824 V
= 2. 25 10 4 e 0 .0259 = 2.6 10 14 cm -3
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Chap 2.3
VBE VBE VBC I 27. (C) I E = I S e Vt - e Vt + S e Vt - 1 = 0 bF VBE V t 1 bR + e 1 + bF 1 + BF VBC Vt
33. (A) I E = (bF + 1) I B = 12.75 mA I1 = - I E = - 12.75 mA. 34. (A) I CEO = (b + 1) I CBO b+1= 0.4m = 80 5m b = 79
VBC VBC VBE V I I C = I S e Vt - e t - S e Vt - 1 bR
35. (B) I C = bI B + I CEO = 79( 30m ) + 0.4m =2.77 mA 36. (A) I C = bI B + I CEO = b I B + (b + 1) I CBO b= I C - I CBO 5.2m - 0.5m = 10396 . I B + I CBO 50m + 0.5m b = 0.9904 b+1
I CBO =
IS 1 - e 1 + bF
VBC V t
I - S e bR
VBC V t
- 1
VBC = - 5 V, Vt = 0.0259 V I CBO = Is I (1 - 0) - S (0 - 1) = 101 . I S = 101 . 10 -15 A 101 1
37. (A) a = IE =
28. (D) B-C Junction VBC Reverse Bias Forward bias Reverse Bias Forward-Active Cut-off Forward bias Saturation
I C - I CBO 5.2m - 0.5m = = 5.25 MA a 0.9904
B-E junction VBE
*******
Reverse-Active
VBE = 0 , VBC < 0, Thus both junction are in reverse bias. Hence cutoff region. 29.(A) VBE > 0 , VBC = 0, Base-Emitter junction forward bais, Base-collector junction reverse bias, Hence forward-active region. 30. (B) VBE = 0 , VBC > 0, Base-Emitter junction reverse bais , Base-collector junction forward bias, Hence reverse-active region. 31. (C) VBE = 6 V, VBC = 3 V, Both junction are forward biase, Hence saturation region. 32. (C) The current source will forward bias the base-emitter junction and the collector base junction will then be reverse biased. Therefore the transistor is in the forward active region IC = ISe
VBE V t
I C = bF I B = 50 250 10 -6 = 12.5 10 -3 A 12.5 10 -3 IC = 0.84 V = VBE = Vt ln 0 . 0259 ln 10 -16 I S

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electronics Devices
11. In n-well CMOS fabrication substrate is (A) lightly doped n - type (B) lightly doped p - type (C) heavily doped n - type (D) heavily doped p - type 12. The chemical reaction involved in epitaxial growth in IC chips takes place at a temperature of about (A) 500 C (C) 1200 C (B) 800 C (D) 2000 C
18. Monolithic integrated circuit system offer greater reliability than discrete-component systems because (A) there are fewer interconnections (B) high-temperature metalizing is used (C) electric voltage are low (D) electric elements are closely matched 19. Silicon dioxide is used in integrated circuits (A) because of its high heat conduction (B) because it facilitates the penetration of diffusants (C) to control the location of diffusion and to protect and insulate the silicon surface. (D) to control the concentration of diffusants. 20. Increasing the yield of an IC (A) reduces individual circuit cost (B) increases the cost of each good circuit (C) results in a lower number of good chips per wafer (D) means that more transistor can be fabricated on the same size wafer. 21. The main purpose of the metalization process is
13. A single monolithic IC chip occupies area of about (A) 20 mm 2 (C) 2000 mm 2 (B) 200 mm 2 (D) 20,000 mm 2 s
14. Silicon dioxide layer is used in IC chips for (A) providing mechanical strength to the chip (B) diffusing elements (C) providing contacts (D) providing mask against diffusion 15. The p-type substrate in a monolithic circuit should be connected to (A) any dc ground point (B) the most negative voltage available in the circuit (C) the most positive voltage available in the circuit (D) no where, i.e. be floating 16. The collector-substrate junction in the epitaxial collector structure is, approximately (A) a step-graded junction (B) a linearly graded junction (C) an exponential junction (D) None of the above
(A) to act as a heat sink (B) to interconnect the various circuit elements (C) to protect the chip from oxidation (D) to supply a bonding surface for mounting the chip 22. In a monolithic-type IC (A) each transistor is diffused into a separate isolation region (B) all components are fabricated into a single crystal of silicon (C) resistors and capacitors of any value may be made (D) all isolation problems are eliminated 23. Isolation in ICs is required
17. The sheet resistance of a semiconductor is (A) an important characteristic of a diffused region especially when used to form diffused resistors (B) an undesirable parasitic element (C) a characteristic whose value determines the required area for a given value of integrated capacitance (D) a parameter whose value is important in a thin-film resistance
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(A) to make it simpler to test circuits (B) to protect the transistor from possible ``thermal run away (C) to protect the components mechanical damage (D) to minimize electrical interaction between circuit components 24. Almost all resistor are made in a monolithic IC (A) during the base diffusion
Integrated Circuits
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Chapc2.5
(B) during the collector diffusion (C) during the emitter diffusion (D) while growing the epitaxial layer 25. The equation governing the diffusion of neutral atom is (A) (C) N 2 N =D t x 2 N N =D 2 t x
2
30. For the circuit shown in fig. P2.5.30, the minimum number and the maximum number of isolation regions are respectively
R2
R1 Q1 Q2 Vo2
(B) (D)
N 2 N =D x t 2 N N =D 2 x t
2
Fig. P2.5.32
26. The true statement is (A) thick film components are vacuum deposited (B) thin film component are made by screen-and- fire process (C) thin film resistor have greater precision and are more stable (D) thin film resistor are cheaper than the thin film resistor 27. The False statement is (A) Capacitor of thin film capacitor made with proper dielectric is not voltage dependent (B) Thin film resistors and capacitor need to be biased for isolation purpose (C) Thin film resistors and capacitor have smaller stray capacitances and leakage currents. (D) None of the above 28. Consider the following two statements S1 : The dielectric isolation method is superior to junction isolation method. S2 : The beam lead isolation method is inferior to junction isolation method. The true statements is (are) (A) S1 , S2 (C) only (B) only (D) Neither nor S2
(A) 2, 6 (C) 2, 4
(B) 3, 6 (D) 3, 4
31. For the circuit shown in fig. P2.5.31, the minimum number of isolation regions are
Fig. P2.5.31
(A) 2 (C) 4
(B) 3 (D) 7
*******
29. If P is passivation, Q is n-well implant, R is metallization and S is source/drain diffusion, then the order in which they are carried out in a standard n-well CMOS fabrication process is (A) S - R - Q - P (C) Q - S - R - P (B) R - P - S - Q (D) P - Q - R - S
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SOLUTIONS
1. (D) 7. (C) 13. (C) 19. (C) 25. (A) 2. (D) 8. (B) 14. (D) 20. (A) 26. (C) 3. (B) 9. (C) 15. (B) 21. (B) 27. (B) 4. (B) 10. (D) 16. (A) 22. (B) 28. (B) 5. (C) 11. (B) 17. (A) 23. (D) 29. (C) 6. (B) 12. (C) 18. (A) 24. (A)
30. (D) The minimum number of isolation region is 3 one containing Q1 , one containing and one containing both and . The maximum number of isolation region is 4, or one per component. 31. (A) The minimum number of isolation region is two. One for transistor and one for resistor.
*******
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CHAPTER
3.1
DIODE CIRCUITS
Statement for Q.14: In the question a circuit and a waveform for the input voltage is given. The diode in circuit has cutin voltage Vg = 0. Choose the option for the waveform of output voltage vo .
-3
vo
18 22
vo
(A)
vo t
-7
(B)
vo t
1.
+ 2.2 kW vi 5V _
-5 20
vi
(C) 3.
t
(D)
vo
2 kW + vi
16
Fig.3.1.1
20 15
vi 4V
vo _
2 T
-16
t
-10
-5
vo
12
Fig. P3.1.3
16
vo
(A)
vo
20
(B)
vo
20
4
T 2
4
T 2
(A)
vo vo
16
(B)
12 -4
T 2
(A) 2.
2V +
20
(D)
4
T 2
(C)
vi
(D)
vi +
10
4.
R D1
t
vi
10 kW
vo _
-5
6V vo
t
-10
vi 8V D2
Fig.3.1.2
Fig.3.1.4
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8 10
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Analog Electronics
vo 9.42 4.3 5.7 15 vi 4.3 15 vi
vo
vo 9.42 5.7
t
-6 -10
(C) (A)
vo vo
6
(D)
(B)
7. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.1.7, each diode has Vg = 0.7 V. The vo for -10 vs +10 V is
+10 V
t
t
-6 -8
10 kW D1 D2 vo D3 D4 10 kW -10 V 10 kW
(C)
(D)
vs
5. For the circuit in fig. P.3.1.5, let cutin voltage Vg = 0.7 V. The plot of vo verses vi for -10 vi 10 V is
+ 20 kW vi 10 V 10 V _
vo 8.43
10 kW vo
Fig. P3.1.7.
vo 7.48 vs vs
Fig. P3.1.5
vo 9.3 vo 9.3
-10 -8.43 10 -10 -7.48 10
3.33 -10 3.33 10 vi -10
3.33 4.03 10 vi
(A)
vo 5.68 -10 -6.8 -5.68 6.8 10 vs -10
(B)
vo 4.65 4.65 -4.65 4.65 10 vs
(A)
vo 10
(B)
vo 10
(C)
3.33 -10 3.33 10 vi -10 3.33 4.33 10 vi
(D)
8. A symmetrical 5 kHz square wave whose output varies between +10 V and -10 V is impressed upon the clipping circuit shown in fig. P3.1.8. If diode has rf = 0 and rr = 2 MW and Vg = 0, the output waveform is
+ + 1 MW vi vo 2.5 V _ vo
(C) is Vg = 0.7 V. The plot of vo versus vi is

2 kW 1 kW 15 V vi 1 kW
(D)
6. For the circuit in fig. P3.1.6 the cutin voltage of diode
Fig. P3.1.8
vo vo 5 -10 10 -5 t t
Fig. P3.1.6
vo 19.6 19.6 vo
(A)
5.7 5.7 15 vi 4.3 4.3 15 vi
-5 vo 5 t vo
(B)
(A)
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9. In the circuit of fig. P3.1.9, the three signals of fig are impressed on the input terminals. If diode are ideal then the voltage vo is
D1 + + v1 + v2 v3 D2 D3 vo 10 kW v v3 v2
vi
C + vo 5V _ -20
vi
10
t
v1 t
35
Fig. P.3.1.11
vo vo
25
vo
Fig. P.3.1.9
5 vo
t
-5
(A)
vo t t 15
t
(B)
(A)
vo vo
(B)
-15
(C)
t t
(D)
12. In the circuit of fig. P3.1.12, D1 and D2 are ideal diodes. The current i1 and i2 are
(C)
(D)
D1 i1 i2 D2
10. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.1.10 the input voltage vi is as shown in fig. Assume the RC time constant large and cutin voltage of diode Vg = 0. The output voltage vo is
C + vi vo -10 _ vi 10 R t
5V
500 W 3V 5V
Fig. P3.1.12
(A) 0, 4 mA (C) 0, 8 mA
(B) 4 mA, 0 (D) 8 mA, 0
vo
Fig. P.3.1.10
vo
20 10 t t
13. In the circuit of Fig. P3.1.13 diodes has cutin voltage of 0.6 V. The diode in ON state are
D1 12 W 6W D2
(A)
vo t -10 -20 vo
(B)
t
5.4 V
18 W
5V
(C)
(D) (A) only D1 (C) both D1 and D2
Fig. P3.1.13
11. For the circuit shown in fig. P.3.1.11, the input voltage vi is as shown in fig. Assume the RC time constant large and cutin voltage Vg = 0. The output voltage vo is
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22. The diodes in the circuit in fig. P3.1.22 has parameters Vg = 0.6 V and rf = 0. The current iD2 is
+10 V 9.5 kW 0.5 kW 0V iD2 +5 V 0.5 kW D1 D3 +5 V vo D2
26. If v2 = 0, then output voltage vo is (A) 6.43 V (C) 7.69 V 27. If v2 = 5 V, then vo is (A) 8.93 V (C) 18.24 V 28. If v2 = 10 V, then vo is (A) 10 V (C) 8.43 V Statement for Q.2930: The diode in the circuit of fig. P3.1.2930 has the non linear terminal characteristic as shown in fig. Let the voltage be vs = cos wt V.
100 W vi a iD 100 W + vD b vD(V) 4 iD(mA)
(B) 9.43 V (D) 8.93 V
(B) 12.63 V (D) 10.56 V
(B) 9.16 V (D) 12.13 V
Fig. P3.1.22
(A) 8.4 mA (C) 7.6 mA Statement for Q.2325:
(B) 10 mA (D) 0 mA
The diodes in the circuit in fig. P3.1.23-25 have linear parameter of Vg = 0.6 V and rf = 0.
+10 V
9.5 kW 0.5 kW v2 v1 0.5 kW D1 D2 vo 2V
0.5 0.7
Fig. P3.1.2930
Fig. P3.1.2325
23. If v1 = 10 V and v2 = 0 V, then vo is (A) 8.93 V (C) 1.07 V (B) 7.82 V (D) 2.18 V
29. The current iD is (A) 2.5(1 + cos wt) mA (C) 5(1 + cos wt) mA 30. The voltage vD is (A) 0.25( 3 + cos wt) V (C) 0.5( 3 + 1 cos wt) V (B) 0.25(1 + 3 cos wt) V (D) 0.5(2 + 3 cos wt) V (B) 5(0.5 + cos wt) mA (D) 5(1 + 0.5 cos wt) mA
24. If v1 = 10 V and v2 = 5 V, then vo is (A) 9.13 V (C) 5.82 V (B) 0.842 V (D) 1.07 V
25. If v1 = v2 = 0, then output voltage vo is (A) 0.964 V (C) 10 V Statement for Q.2628: The diodes in the circuit of fig. P3.1.2628 have linear parameters of Vg = 0.6 V and rf = 0.
500 W v2 +10 V 500 W D1 9.5 kW vo D2
31. The circuit inside the box in fig. P3.1.31. contains only resistor and diodes. The terminal voltage vo is connected to some point in the circuit inside the box. The largest and smallest possible value of vo most nearly to is respectively
+15 V
(B) 1.07 V (D) 0.842 V
-9 V
Circuit Containing Diode and Resistor
vo
Fig. 3.1.31
(A) 15 V, 6 V (C) 24 V, 6 V
Fig. P3.1.2628
(B) 24 V, 0 V (D) 15 V, -9 V
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32. In the voltage regulator circuit in fig. P3.1.32 the maximum load current iL that can be drawn is
15 kW iL 30 V Vz = 9 V Rz = 0 RL
Statement for Q.3638: In the voltage regulator circuit in fig. P3.1.3638 the Zener diode current is to be limited to the range 5 iz 100 mA.
12 W iz 6.3 V Vz = 4.8 V Rz = 0 iL RL
Fig. 3.1.32
(A) 1.4 mA (C) 1.8 mA
(B) 2.3 mA (D) 2.5 mA

Fig. P3.1.3638
33. In the voltage regulator shown in fig. P3.1.33 the power dissipation in the Zener diode is
150 W
36. The range of possible load current is (A) 5 iL 130 mA (C) 10 iL 110 mA (B) 25 iL 120 mA (D) None of the above
50 V
Vz = 15 V Rz = 0
75 W
37. The range of possible load resistance is (A) 60 RL 372 W (C) 40 RL 192 W (B) 60 RL 200 W (D) 40 RL 360 W
Fig. P3.1.33
(A) 1 W (C) 2 W
(B) 1.5 W (D) 0.5 W
38. The power rating required for the load resistor is (A) 576 mW (C) 480 mW (B) 360 m W (D) 75 m W
34. The Q-point for the Zener diode in fig. P3.1.34 is

11 kW
39. The secondary transformer voltage of the rectifier

20 V Vz = 4 V Rz = 0 3.6 kW
circuit shown in fig. P3.1.39 is vs = 60 sin 2 p60 t V. Each diode has a cut in voltage of Vg = 0.6 V. The ripple voltage is to be no more than Vrip = 2 V. The value of filter capacitor will be
+ + vo 10 kW
Fig. P3.1.34
(A) (0.34 mA, 4 V) (C) (0.94 mA, 4 V)
(B) (0.34 mA, 4.93 V) (D) (0.94 mA, 4.93 V)
35. In the voltage regulator circuit in fig. P3.1.35 the power rating of Zener diode is 400 mW. The value of RL that will establish maximum power in Zener diode is
222 W
vi
+ vs -
C -
Fig. P3.1.39
(A) 48.8 m F
20 V Vz = 10 V Rz = 0 RL
(B) 24.4 m F (D) 16.1 m F
(C) 32.2 m F
40. The input to full-wave rectifier in fig. P3.1.40 is

Fig. P3.1.35
(A) 5 kW (C) 10 kW
(B) 2 kW (D) 8 kW
vi = 120 sin 2 p60 t V. The diode cutin voltage is 0.7 V. If the output voltage cannot drop below 100 V, the required value of the capacitor is
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Chap 3.1
1 : 1
+ + vs + vs 2.5 kW C vo -
SOLUTIONS
1. (D) Diode is off for vi < 5 V. Hence vo = 5 V. For vi > 5 V, vo = vi , Therefore (D) is correct option. 2. (C) Diode will be off if vi + 2 > 0.Thus vo = 0 For vi + 2 < 0 V, vi < - 2, vo = vi + 2 = -3 V Thus (C) is correct option. 3. (D) For vi < 4 V the diode is ON and output vo = 4 V. For vi > 4 V diode is off and output vo = vi . Thus (D) is correct option. 4. (C) During positive cycle when vs < 8 V, both diode
vi
Fig. P3.1.40
(A) 61.2 m F (C) 20.6 m F
(B) 41.2 m F (D) 30.6 m F
41. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.1.41 diode cutin voltage is Vin = 0. The ripple voltage is to be no more than vrip = 4 V. The minimum load resistance, that can be connected to the output is
+ 75sin 2p60t V
50 mF
vo -
RL
are OFF vo = vs . For vs > 8 V , vo = 8 V, D1 is ON. During
negative cycle when |vs | < 6 V, both diode are OFF,
vo = vs . For vs > 6 V, D2 is on vo = -6 V. Therefore (C) is correct. 10 10 5. (B) For D off , vo = 20 20 = 3.33 V. 1 1 + 20 10 For vi 3.33 + 0.7 = 4.03 V, vo = 3.33 V For vi > 4.03 V , vo = vi - 0.7 For vi = 10 V, vo = 9.3 V 6. (C) Let v1 be the voltage at n-terminal of diode, v1 = 15 1 =5 V 2 +1 3v1 + 2 vo - 2 vi = 15
Fig. P3.1.41
(A) 6.25 kW (C) 30 kW
(B) 12.50 kW (D) None of the above
****************
For vi 5.7 V, vo = vi v1 - 15 v1 v - vi + + o =0 2k 1k 1k vo = v1 + 0.7 5 vo - 2 v1 = 15 + 2.1 = 17.9
vo = 0.4 vi + 3.42
7. (D) For vs > 0, when D1 is OFF, Current through D2 is i= 10 - 0.7 = 0.465 mA, vo = 10 ki = 4.65 V 10 + 10
vo = vs for 0 < vs < 4.65 V. For negative values of vs , the output is negative of positive part. Thus (D) is correct option. 8. (B) The diode conducts (zero resistance) when vi < 2.5 V and vo = vi . Diode is open (2 MW resistance) when v - 2.5 vi > 2.5 V and vo = 2.5 + i = 5 V. 3
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= 50 5 (1 + cos wt) 10 -3 + 0.5 = 0.75 + 0. 25 cos wt = 0. 25( 3 + cos wt) V 31. (D) The output voltage cannot exceed the positive power supply voltage and cannot be lower than the negative power supply voltage. 32. (A) At regulated power supply is = will remain less than 1.4 mA. 33. (D) vTH = 75(50) 50 V = 75 + 150 3 30 - 9 = 1.4 mA iL 15 k
C=
vmax 2 fkVrip
119.3 = 20.6 m F 2( 60)2.5 10 3 14.4
41. (A) Vrip = RL =
vmax fRL C
75 vmax = 6.25 kW = fCVrip 60 50 10 -5 4

***************
50 |75 = 50 W > VZ , RTH = 150 | 3 1 50 iZ = - 15 = 33 mA, P = 15 iZ = 0.5 W 50 3 34. (A) vTH = RTH 3.6(20) = 4.93 V > VZ , 11 + 3.6 4.93 - 4 = 11 | | 3.6 = 2.71 kW, iZ = = 0.34 mA 2.71k 400m = 40 mA 10
35. (B) iZ ( max ) = iL + iZ =
20 - 10 = 45 mA 222 10 = 2 kW 5m
iL ( min ) = 45 - 40 = 5 mA, RL =
36. (B) Current through 12 W resistor is 6.3 - 4.8 i= = 125 mA 12 iL = i - iZ = 125 - iZ 25 iL 120 mA
37. (C) 25 iL 120 mA, iL RL = 4.8 V 25 4.8 120 mA RL 40 RL 192 W
38. (A) PL = iL VZ = (120m)( 4.8) = 576 mV 39. (B) vs = 60 sin 2 p60 t V vmax = 60 - 1.4 = 58.6 V 58.6 vmax C= = = 24.4 m F 2 fRVrip 2( 60)10 10 3 2 40. (C) Full wave rectifier vs = vi = 120 sin 2 p60 t V vmax = 120 - 0.7 = 119.3 V Vrip = 119.3 - 100 = 19.3 V
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CHAPTER
3.2
BASIC BJT CIRCUITS
Use VBE ( ON ) = 0.7 V, VCE ( Sat ) = 0.2 V for npn (A) 8.4 V (C) 4.1 V 3. I C , RC = ?
+5 V
(B) 6.2 V (D) None of the above
transistor if not given in problem. Statement for Q.1-4: The common-emitter current gain of the transistor is b =75. The voltage VBE in ON state is 0.7 V. 1. I E , RC = ?
RC 50 kW VC = 2 V
+12 V 10 kW + VEC = 6 V RC
IQ = 1 mA
-5 V
Fig. P3.3.3
(A) 0.987 mA, 3.04 kW (B) 1.013 mA, 2.96 kW (D) 0.946 mA, 4.18 kW (D) 1.057 mA, 3.96 kW 4. VC = ?
+5 V
-12 V
Fig. P3.3.1
(A) 1.46 mA, 6.74 kW (C) 1.13 mA,, 5.98 kW 2. VEC = ?
(B) 0.987 mA, 3.04 kW (D) None of the above
+8 V
20 kW 10 kW VC
10 kW 10 kW -2 V
2 kW
3 kW
-8 V
Fig. P3.3.4
Fig. P3.3.2
(A) 1.49 V (C) 1.78 V

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Statement for Q.5-6: In the circuit of fig.P3.3.5-6 VB = - 1 V

+3 V
9. VB = 1 V (A) 4 V (C) 1 V 10. VB = 2 V (A) -7 V (B) 1.5 V (D) None of the above (B) 3 V (D) 1.9 V
500 kW
4.8 kW
(C) 2.6 V Statement for Q.11-12:
-3 V
Fig. P3.3.5-6
5. b = ? (A) 103.4 (C) 134.5 6. VCE = ? (A) 6.4 V (C) 1.3 V (B) 4.7 V (D) 4.2 V (B) 135.5 (D) 102.4
The transistor in circuit shown in fig. P3.3.11-12 has b = 200. Determine the value of voltage Vo for given value of VBB .
+5 V
5 kW 50 kW Vo 10 kW VBB
7. In the circuit shown in fig. P3.3.7 voltage VE = 4 V. The value of a and b are respectively
+5 V 2 kW VE
Fig. P3.3.11-12
11. VBB = 0 (A) 2.46 V (C) 3.33 V 12. VBB = 1 V (B) 1.83 V (D) 4.04 V
100 kW
8 kW
(A) 4.11 V (C) 2.46 V 13. VBB = 2 V (A) 3.18 V (C) 0.2 V Statement for Q.14-16:
(B) 1.83 V (D) 3.44 V
-5 V
Fig. P3.3.7
(A) 0.943, 17.54 (C) 0.914, 11.63 Statement for Q.8-10:
(B) 0.914, 17.54 (D) 0.914, 11.63
For the transistor in circuit shown in fig. P3.3.8-10, b = 200. Determine the value of I E and I C for given value of VB in question.
+6 V
The transistor shown in the circuit of fig. P3.3.14-16 has b = 150. Determine Vo for given value of I Q in question.
+5 V 5 kW
10 kW VC VB
Vo
1 kW
IQ
-5 V
Fig. P3.3.8-10
Fig. P3.3.14-16
8. VB = 0 V (A) 6.43 mA, 2.4 V (C) 0 A, 6 V

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14. I Q = 0.1 mA (B) 2.18 mA, 3.4 V (D) None of the above (A) 1.4 V (C) 3.2 V (B) 4.5 V (D) None of the above
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15. I Q = 0.5 mA (A) 3.16 V (C) 2.14 V 16. I Q = 2 mA (A) 4.9 V (C) 0.5 V (B) -4.9 V (D) -0.5 V (B) 2.52 V (D) 394 . V
(A) 0.991 (C) 0.968
(B) 0.939 (D) 0.914
20. For the transistor in fig. P3.3.20 , b = 50. The value of voltage VEC is
+9 V
1 mA
17. For the circuit in fig. P3.3.17 VB = VC and b = 50. The value of VB is
+6 V
50 kW 4.7 kW
10 kW VC VB
-9 V
Fig. P3.3.20
1 kW
(A) 3.13 V (C) 5.18 V
(B) 4.24 V (D) 6.07 V
Fig. P3.317
(A) 0.9 V (C) 2.14 V
(B) 1.19 V (D) 1.84 V
21. In the circuit shown in fig. P3.3.21 if b = 50, the power dissipated in the transistor is
+9 V
18. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.3.18, VCB = 0.5 V and b = 100. The value of I Q is
+5 V
0.5 mA
5 kW Vo
50 kW
4.7 kW
IQ
-9 V
Fig. P3.3.21
-5 V
(A) 3.87 mW (C) 7.49 mW
(B) 10.46 mW (D) 18.74 mW
Fig. P3.3.18
(A) 1.68 mA (C) 0.134 mA
(B) 0.909 mA (D) None of the above
22. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.3.22 the Q-point is VCEQ = 12 V and I CQ = 2 A when b = 60. The value of resistor RC and RB are
+24 V
19. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.3.19 the emitter voltage is VE = 2 V. The value of a is
+10 V
10 kW VE
RB
RC
50 kW
10 kW
Fig. P3.3.22
(A) 10 kW, 241 kW

-10 V
(B) 10 kW, 699 kW (D) 6 kW, 241 kW

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Fig. P3.3.19
(C) 6 kW, 699 kW

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29. For the transistor in the circuit of fig. P3.3.29, b = 100. The voltage VB is
+10 V
32. The current gain of the transistor shown in the circuit of fig.P3.3.32 is b = 100. The values of Q-point ( I CQ , VCEQ) is
+5 V
20 kW
1 kW
12 kW 5 kW
15 kW
2 kW 0.5 kW
Fig. P3.3.29
-5 V
(A) 3.6 V (C) 3.9 V
(B) 4.29 V (D) 4.69 V (A) (1.8 mA, 2.1 V)
Fig. P3.3.32
(B) (1.4 mA, 2.3 V) (D) (1.8 mA, 1.4 V)
30. The current gain of the transistor shown in the circuit of fig. P3.3.30 is b = 125. The Q-point values ( I CQ , VCEQ) are
+24 V
(C) (1.4 mA , 1.8 V)
33. For the circuit in fig. P3.3.33, let b = 60. The value of VECQ is
+5 V +10 V
58 kW
10 kW 2 kW
42 kW
10 kW
20 kW 2.2 kW
Fig. P3.3.30
-5 V
-10 V
(A) (0.418 mA, 20.4 V) (C) (0 .915 mA, 16.23 V)
(B) (0.915 mA, 14.8 V) (D) (0.418 mA, 18.43 V) (A) 2.68 V (C) 3.73 V
Fig.P3.3.33
(B) 4.94 V (D) 5.69 V
31. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.3.31, let b = 75. The Q-point (I CQ , VCEQ) is
+24 V
34. In the circuit of fig. P3.3.34 Zener voltage is VZ = 5 V and b = 100. The value of I CQ and VCEQ are
+12 V
25 kW
3 kW
500 W
8 kW
1 kW
Fig. P3.3.34 Fig. P3.3.31
(A) ( 4.68 mA, 16.46 V) (C) ( 312 . mA, 8.46 V)

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(B) ( 312 . mA , 1.86 V) (D) ( 4.68 mA , 5.22 V)
(A) 12.47 mA, 4.3 V (C) 10.43 A, 5.7 V
(B) 12.47 mA, 5.7 V (D) 10.43 A , 4.3 V
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35. The two transistor in fig. P3.2.35 are identical. If b = 25, the current I C 2 is
+5 V IC2 25 mA
(A) 36.63 mA (C) 49.32 mA
(B) 36.17 mA (D) 49.78 mA
39. In the bipolar current source of fig. P3.2.39 the diode voltage and transistor BE voltage are equal. If base current is neglected then collector current is
Fig. P3.2.35
(A) 28 m A (C) 26 m A
(B) 23.2 m A (D) 24 m A

4.7 kW
10 kW
36. In the shunt regulator of fig. P3.2.26, the VZ = 8.2 V and VBE = 0.7 V. The regulated output voltage Vo is
120 W +22 V Vo
10 kW
-20 V
Fig. P3.2.39
100 W
(A) 6.43 mA (C) 1.48 mA
(B) 2.13 mA (D) 9.19 mA
40. In the current mirror circuit of fig. P3.2.40. the transistor parameters are VBE = 0.7 V, b = 50 and the
Fig. P3.2.36
Early voltage is infinite.

+5 V
Assume transistor are
(A) 11.8 V (C) 12.5 V
(B) 7.5 V (D) 8.9 V
matched. The output current I o is
37. In the series voltage regulator circuit of fig. P3.2.37 VBE = 0.7 V, b = 50, VZ = 8.3 V. The output voltage Vo is
+25 V 220 W Vo
1 mA Io
20 kW
50 kW
Fig. P3.2.40
50 kW 30 kW
(A) 1.04 mA (C) 962 m A
(B) 1.68 mA (D) 432 m A
41. All transistor in the N output mirror in fig. P3.2.41

Fig. P3.2.37
are matched with a finite gain b and early voltage V A = . The expression for each load current is
V
+
(A) 25 V (C) 15 V
(B) 25.7 V (D) 15.7 V
38. In the regulator circuit of fig. P3.2.38 VZ = 12 V, b = 50, VBE = 0.7 V. The Zener current is
+20 V 220 W 1 kW Vo
Io1 Iref R1 QS QR Q1
Io2
Io3
Q2
QN
Fig. P32.41 Fig. P3.2.38
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(A)
I ref (1 + N ) 1 + b (b + 1) b I ref (1 + N ) 1 + (b + 1)
(B)
I ref N 1 + (b + 1) b I ref N 1 + b + 1
SOLUTIONS
1. (C) I E = 12 - 0.7 10 k . mA I E = 113 75 IC = . ) = 112 . mA 75 + 1 (113 VCE = 12 - 1.13 10 - 1.12 RC - ( -12) = 6 V RC = 5.98 kW 2. (C) 8 = 10 (75 + 1) I B + 0.7 + 10 I B - 2 IB = 9.3 = 12.08 m A, 10 + 760
(C)
(D)
42. Consider the basic three transistor current source in fig. P3.2.42. Assume all transistor are matched with finite gain and early voltage V A = . The expression for I o is
V
+
Io Iref R1
I C = bI B = 0.906 mA, I E = (b + 1) I B = 0.918 mA 8 = 10(0.918) + VEC + 3(0.906) - 8 VEC = 4.1 V
75 75 3. (A) I C = (1m) = 0.987 mA IE = 76 75 + 1

V
-
Fig. P3.2.42
RC = I ref 1 1 + (2 + b) I ref 1 1 + b(2 + b)
5.2 = 304 . kW 0.987m
(A)
I ref 2 1 + (1 + b) I ref 2 1 + b(1 + b)
(B)
4. (A) 5 = (1 + b)10 kI B + 20 kI B + 0.7 + b2 kI B 5 = (760 k + 20 k + 150 k) I B + 0.7 I B = 4.62 m A, I C = bI B = 0.347 mA VC = 5 - (b + 1) I B RC = 5 - 760 4.62 10 -3 = 1.49 V 5. (C) VB = - I B RB IB = -VB 1 = = 2.0 m A RB 500k
(C)
(D)
43. Consider the wilder current source of fig. P3.2.43. Both of transistor are identical and b >> 1 and VBE1 = 0.7 V. The value of resistance R1 and RE to produce I ref = 1 mA and I o = 12 m A is ( Vt = 0.026)
+5 V R1 Iref Io Q1 Q2 RE
VE = -1 - 0.7 = - 17 . V V - ( -3) -17 . +3 IE = E = = 0.271 mA 4.8 k 4.8 k IE 0.271m = (b + 1) = IB 2m b = 134.5
6. (B) VCE = 3 - VE = 3 - ( -17 . ) = 4.7 V 7. (C) I E = 5.4 = 0.5 mA 2k
-5 V
Fig. P3.2.43
(A) 9.3 kW, 18.23 kW (C) 15.4 kW , 16.2 kW
(B) 9.3 kW , 9.58 kW (D) 15.4 kW , 32.4 kW
4 = 0.7 + I B RB + I C RC - 5, I C I E , 8.3 = 100 I B + 0.5 8 I B = 43 m A , IE 0.5m =1 + b = = 11.63 IB 43m

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b = 10.63, a =
b a = 0.914 1+b
Vo = VCE ( sat ) - VBE = 0.2 - 0.7 = - 0.5 V 17. (B) I E = VB - 0.7 1k
8. (C) VB = 0 Transistor is in cut-off region. I E = 0, VC = 6 V 9. (B) VB = 1 V , I E = I C I E = 0.3 mA VC = 6 - I C RC = 6 - (0.3)(10) = 3 V 2 - 0.7 10. (B) VB = 2 V, I E = = 1.3 mA, 1 I C I E = 1.3 mA VC = 6 - (1.3)(10) = - 7 V Transistor is in saturation. The saturation voltage VCE = 0.2 V . V VE = (1.3)(1) = 1.3 V , VC = VCE + VE = 15 11. (C) VBB = 0, Transistor is in cutoff region RL 10(5) Vo = VCC = + 5 = 3.33 V RC + RL 10 12. (B) I B = 1 - 0.7 = 6 mA 50 k 1 - 0.7 = 0.3 mA 1k
b 50 IC = b + 1 I E = 51 ( VB - 0.7) mA IC = 6 - VC mA, VC = VB 10
50 6 - VB ( VB - 0.7) = 51 10 10.8 VB = 12.86 , VB = 119 . V 18. (B) VCB = 0.5 V , VC = 0.5 V IC = 5 - 0.5 101 =0.9 mA, I Q = 0.9 = 0.909 mA 5k 100 10 - VE = 0.8 mA 10k
19. (C) I E =
VB = VE - 0.7 = 1.3 V IB = VB 1.3 = = 26 mA RB 50 k I E 0.8m = = 30.77 I B 26m b = 29.77
b+1= a=
I C = bI B = 75 6m = 0.45 mA 5 - Vo V = IC + o 5k 10 k Vo Vo Vo = 1.83 V (1 - 0.45) = + , 5 10 13. (C) I B = 2 - 0.7 = 26 mA 50 k
b 29.77 = = 0.968 b + 1 30.77
b 50 20. (D) I C = b + 1 IE = 51 mA = 0.98 mA VC = I C RC - 9 = (0.98)( 4.7) - 9 = - 4.394 V IB = IE 1 = mA = 19.6 mA (b + 1) 51
I C = b I B = 75 26 mA =1.95 mA . = -4.75 V VC = 5 - I C RC = 5 - 5 195 Transistor is in saturation, VCE = 0.2 V = VC = Vo 14. (B) I E = 0.1 mA IC = b 150 IE = (0.1) = 0.099 mA (b + 1) 151
VE = I B RB + VEB = 50(0.0196) + 0.7 = 1.68 V VEC = 1.68 - ( -4.394) = 6.074 V b 50 21. (A) I C = b + 1 I E = 51 (0.5) = 0.49 mA IB = 0.5 = 9.8 m A 51
Vo = 5 - RC I C = 5 - 5(0.099) = 4.50 V 15. (B) I E = I Q = 0.5 mA 150 IC = (0.5m) = 0.497 mA 150 + 1 Vo = 5 - RC I C = 2.517 V 16. (D) Transistor is in saturation
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VE = I B RB + VEB = (0.0098)(50) + 0.7 = 1.19 V VC = I C RC - 9 = (0.49)( 4.7) - 9 = - 6.7 V VEC = 119 . - ( -6.7) = 7.89 V PQ = I C VEC + I B VEB = (0.49)(7.89) + (0.0098)(0.7) mW = 3.87 mW
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R2 VTH = R +R 2 1
15 VCC = 20 + 15 (10) = 4.29 V IE ( 8.57 k) + 4.29 b+1
5.82 - 0.7 = ( 6.06 k + 76 k) I BQ I BQ = 62.4 mA I EQ = (b + 1) I BQ = 4.74 mA I CQ = bI BQ = 4.68 mA VCEQ = 24 - I CQ RC - I EQ RE = 24 - ( 4.68)( 3) - ( 4.74)(1) = 5.22 V 32. (B) R1 = 12 kW, R2 = 2 kW RTH = R1| |R2 = 12 | |2 = 171 . kW 2 VTH = . V (10) - 5 = - 357 12 + 2
+5 V
10 = I E (1k) + VEB + 10 = I E + 0.7 + IB =
IE ( 8.57 k) + 4.29 101
I E = 4.62 MA
IE = 0.046 mA b+1
VB = ( 8.57)(0.046) + 4.29 = 4.69 V 30. (B) R1 = 58 kW, R2 = 42 kW

+24 V
5 kW 1.71 kW
24.36 kW +10.1 V
-3.57 V
0.5 kW
10 kW
-5 V
Fig. S3.3.32 Fig. S3.3.30
RTH = 58 | |42 = 24.36 kW VTH 42 = (24) = 10.1 V 42 + 58
-357 . = I BQ(171 . k) + VBE + (b + 1) I BQ(0.5 k) - 5 5 - 357 . - 0.7 = (171 . + 50.5) I BQ I BQ = 14 mA I EQ = (100 + 1) I BQ = 1.412 mA I CQ = 100 I BQ = 1.4 mA VCEQ = 5 - RC I CQ - RE I EQ + 5 = 5 - (5)(1.4) - (0.5)(1.412) + 5 = 2.3 V 33. (B) RTH = 20 | |10 = 6.67 kW 20 VTH = 10 - 5 = 1.67 V 10 + 20
+10 V +24 V 2 kW 6.67 kW +1.67 V
10.1 = I BQ(24.36 k) + VBE + (b + 1) I BQ(10 k) 10.1 - 0.7 = I BQ(24.36 k + 1260 k) I BQ = 7.32 mA I CQ = bI BQ = 0.915 mA I EQ = (b + 1) I BQ = 0.922 mA VCEQ = 24 - (0.922)(10) = 14.8 V 31. (D) R1 = 25 kW, R2 = 8 kW
3 kW 6.06 kW +5.82 V
1 kW
2.2 kW
-10 V
Fig. S3.3.31
Fig. S3.3.33
|8 = 6.06 kW, VTH RTH = 25 |
8 = (24) = 5.82 V 25 + 8
10 = (1 + b) I BQ(2) + VEB + I BQ( 6.67) + 1.67 10 - 1.67 - 0.7 = I BQ( 6.67 + 122)
5.82 = ( 6.06 k)( I BQ) + VBE + (b + 1) I B (1k)

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41. (A) I ref = I CR + I BS = I CR +
I ES 1+b
I ref I o RE = Vt ln I o RE = R1 =
= 9.58 kW
I ES = I BR + I B1 + I B 2 + ....... I BN I BR = I Bi , I CR = I Ci = I oi (1 + N ) I CR I ES = (1 + N ) I BR = b Then I ref = I CR + (1 + N ) I CR I ES = I CR + b (b + 1) b+1
1 10 -3 0.026 ln -6 12 10 -6 12 10
V + - VBE1 - V - 5 - 7 - ( -5) = = 9.3 kW I ref 1m
(1 + N ) = I Oi 1 + b(b + 1) I ref I oi = (1 + N ) 1 + b(b + 1) 42. (C) I ref = I C1 + I B 3 , I B1 = I B 2 , I E 3 = 2 I B 2

V
+
***********
Iref IC1 Q1 Q3 IE3
Io = IC2
Q2 IB1 IB2
Fig. S3.2.42
I E 3 = (1 + b) I B 3 2 IB2 IE3 I ref = I C1 + = I C1 + (1 + b) (1 + b) I C1 = I C 2 = bI B 2 I ref = I C 2 + IC2 = Io = 2 IC2 2 = IC2 1 + b(1 + b) b(1 + b) I ref
2 1 + b(1 + b)
43. (B) If b >> 1 and transistor are identical

VBE1 VBE2
I ref I C1 = I S e I ref VBE1 = Vt ln I S
Vt
, Io = IC2 = IS e
Vt
Io I , VBE 2 = Vt ln S
I ref VBE1 - VBE 2 = Vt ln I o From the circuit,
VBE1 - VBE 2 = I E 2 RE I o RE
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CHAPTER
3.3
BASIC FET CIRCUITS
Statement for Q.13: In the circuit shown in fig. P3.3.13 the transistor parameters are as follows: Threshold voltage VTN = 2 V
2
Statement for Q.46: In the circuit shown in fig. P3.3.46 the transistor parameter are as follows:
2 VTN = 2 V, k n = 60 mA / V ,
Conduction parameter K n = 0.5 mA / V

+10 V
W = 60 L
+10 V
32 kW
4 kW
14 kW
1.2 kW
18 kW
2 kW
6 kW
0.5 kW
Fig. P3.3.13
-10 V
Fig. P3.3.46
1. VGS = ? (A) 2.05 V (C) 4.86 V 2. I D = ? (A) 1.863 mA (C) 0.775 mA 3. VDS =? (A) 4.59 V (C) 5.35 V
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4. VGS = ? (B) 6.43 V (D) 3.91 V (A) -3.62 V (C) -0.74 V 5. I D = ? (B) 1.485 mA (D) None of the above (A) 13.5 mA (C) 19.24 mA 6. VDS = ? (B) 3.43 V (D) 6.48 V (A) 2.95 V (C) 3 V
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(B) 3.62 V (D) 0.74 V
(B) 10 mA (D) 4.76 mA
(B) 11.9 V (D) 12.7 V

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Chap 3.3
16. The parameter of the transistor in fig. P3.3.16 are VTN = 1.2 V, K n = 0.5 mA / V 2 and l = 0. The voltage VDS is
+5 V 50 mA
19. In the circuit of fig. P.3.3.19 the PMOS transistor = 25 mA / V 2 , L = 4 m m has parameter VTP = -1.5 V, kp and l = 0. If I D = 0.1 mA and VSD = 2.5 V, then value of W will be
+9 V
Fig. P3.3.16
(A) 1.69 V (C) 1.84 V
(B) 1.52 V (D) 0

Fig. P3.3.19
(A) 15 m m (C) 32 m m
(B) 1.6 m m (D) 3.2 m m
17. The parameter of the transistor in fig. P3.3.17 are VTN = 0.6 V and K n = 0. 2 mA / V 2 . The voltage VS is
+9 V
20. The PMOS transistor in fig. P3.3.20 has parameters VTP = -1.2 V, W 2 = 20, and k p = 30 mA / V . L
+5 V
24 kW
Rs
0.25 mA
-9 V
RD
Fig. P3.3.17
-5 V
(A) 1.72 V (C) 7.28 V
(B) -1.72 V (D) -7.28 V If I D = 0.5 and RD are (A) 4 kW, 5.8 kW (C) 5.8 kW, 4 kW
Fig. P3.3.20
mA and VD = -3 V, then value of RS (B) 4 kW, 5 kW (D) 5 kW, 4 kW
18. In the circuit of fig. P3.3.18 the transistor parameters are VTN = 17 . V and K n = 0.4 mA / V 2 .
+5 V
RD
21. The parameters for the transistor in circuit of fig. P3.3.21 are VTN = 2 V and K n = 0.2 mA / V 2 . The power dissipated in the transistor is
+10 V
50 kW
RS
-5 V
Fig. P3.3.18
10 kW
If I D = 0.8 mA and VD = 1 V, then value of resistor RS and RD are respectively (A) 2.36 kW, 5 kW (C) 6.43 kW, 8.4 kW
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Fig. P3.3.21
(B) 5 kW, 2.36 kW (D) 8.4 kW, 6.43 kW
(A) 5.84 mW (C) 0.26 mW

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(B) 2.34 mW (D) 58.4 mW

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Analog Electronics
Statement for Q.2223: Consider the circuit shown in fig. P3.2.2233.

+5 V
25. The transistors in the circuit of fig. P3.3.25 have = 40 mA / V 2 and l = 0. The parameter VTN = 0.8 V, kn width-to-length ratio of M 2 when Vi = 5 V, then
Vo M2 Vi M1 Vo
is
+5 V
( )
= 1. (W L )2
If Vo = 0.10 V
W L 1
for M1 is
M1
Fig. P3.3.22-23
M2
The both transistor have parameter as follows VTN = 0.8 V,

2 k n = 30 mA / V
Fig. P3.3.25
22. If the width-to-length ratios of M1 and M 2 are W W = = 40 L 1 L 2 The output Vo is (A) -2.5 V (C) 5 V (B) 2.5 V (D) 0 V
(A) 47.5 (C) 40.5 Statement for Q.2627:
(B) 28.4 (D) 20.3
All transistors in the circuit in fig. P3.3.2627 have parameter VTN = 1 V and l = 0.
+5 V RD M1 ID1 RG M4 ID4 M3
W W 23. If the ratio is = 40 and = 15, then Vo is L 1 L 2 (A) 2.91 V (C) 3.41 V (B) 2.09 V (D) 1.59 V
24. In the circuit of fig. P3.324. the transistor

2 parameters are VTN = 1 V and k 5 n = 36 mA / V . If I D = 0.
M2
mA, V1 = 5 V and V2 = 2 V then the width to-length ratio required in each transistor is
+5 V
-5 V
Fig. P3.3.2627
The conduction parameter are as follows:

M1 V1 M2 V2 M3
K n 1 = 400 mA / V 2 K n 2 = 200 mA / V 2 K n 3 = 100 mA / V 2 K n 4 = 80 mA / V 2 26. I D1 = ? (A) 0.23 mA (B) 0.62 mA (D) 0.31 mA
Fig. P3.3.24
W L 1 (A) (B) (C) (D)

Page 170
W L 2 6.94 10.56 22.4 38.21
W L 3 27.8 50.43 8.53 12.56
(C) 0.46 mA 27. I D4 = ? (A) 0.62 mA (C) 0.46 mA
1.75 4.93 35.5 56.4
(B) 0.31 mA (D) 0.92 mA
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Chap 3.3
28. For the circuit in fig. P3.3.28 the transistor = 30 mA / V 2 . If output parameter are VTN = 0.8 V and kn voltage is Vo = 0.1 V, when input voltage is Vi = 4.2 V, the required transistor width-to length ratio is
+5 V 10 kW Vo Vi
(A) 7.43 V (C) -1.17 V
(B) 8.6 V (D) 1.17 V
32. A p-channel JFET biased in the saturation region with VSD = 5 V has a drain current of I D = 2.8 mA, and I D = 0.3 mA at VGS = 3 V. The value of I DSS is (A) 10 mA (C) 7 mA Statement for Q.3334: (B) 5 mA (D) 2 mA
Fig. P3.3.28
For the p-channel transistor in the circuit of fig. P3.3.3334 the parameters are I DSS = 6 mA, VP = 4 V and l = 0.
1 kW
(A) 1.568 (C) 0.731
(B) 0.986 (D) 1.843
29. For the transistor in fig. P3.3.29 parameters are VTN = 1 V and K n = 12.5 mA / V 2 . The Q-point ( I D , VDS ) is
+10 V 20 kW
0.4 kW
-5 V
10 kW
Fig. P3.3.3334
33. The value of I DQ is (A) 8.86 mA

Fig. P3.3.29.
(B) 6.39 mA (D) 1.81 mA
(C) 4.32 mA 34. The value of VSD is (A) -4.28 V (C) 4.28 V
(A) (1 mA, 8 V) (C) (1.17 mA, 8 V)
(B) (0.2 mA, 4 V) (D) (0.23 mA, 3.1V)
(B) 2.47 V (D) 2.19 V
30. For an n-channel JFET, the parameters are I DSS = 6 mA and VP = -3 V. If VDS > VDS ( sat ) and VGS = -2 V, then I D is (A) 16.67 mA (C) 5.55 mA (B) 0.67 mA (D) 1.67 mA
35. The transistor in the circuit of fig. P3.3.35 has parameters I DSS = 8 mA and VP = -4 V. The value of VDSQ is
+20 V
31. For the circuit in fig. P3.3.32 the transistor parameters are Vp = - 35 . V, I DSS = 18 mA, and l = 0. The value of VDS is
+15 V
140 kW
2.7 kW
0.8 kW
60 kW
2 kW
Fig. P3.3.35
IQ = 8 mA
(A) 2.7 V (C) -1.30 V
(B) 2.85 V (D) 1.30 V
-15 V
Fig. P3.3.32
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SOLUTIONS
1. (A) R1 = 32 kW, R2 VG = R +R 2 1 R2 = 18 kW, VDD = 10 V 18 VDD = 18 + 32 10 = 3.6 V Assume that transistor in saturation region V V - VGS ID = S = G = K n ( VGS - VTN ) 2 RS RS RS = 2 kW, K n = 0.5 mA / V 2 VGS = 2.05 V 3.6 - VGS = (2)(0.5)( VGS - 0.8) 2
10 - ( 4.67 + VSG) = (0.5)(1)( VGS ) VSG = 377 . V, - 177 . V, VSG is positive voltage. 10 - VS 10 - ( VG + VGS ) = RS RS
8. (A) I D = =
10 - ( 4.67 + 377 . ) = 312 . mA 0.5
9. (C) 10 = I D( RS + RD) + VSD - 10 VSD = 20 - I D ( RS + RD)= 20 - 2.12(2 + 0.5) = 12.2 V 10. (C) Assume transistor in saturation. I D = 0.4 mA, VG = 0, 0.4 = K P ( VGS + VTP ) 2 VSG = 2 + 0.8 = 2.21 V 0.4 = (0.2)( VSG - 0.8) 2
V - VGS 3.6 - 2.05 2. (C) I D = G = = 0.775 mA RS 2k 3. (C) VDS = VDD - I D( RD + RS ) = 10 - 0.775( 4 + 2) = 5.35 V VDS ( sat ) = VGS - VTN = (2.05 - 0.8) = 1. 25 V VDS > VDS ( sat ) as assumed. 4. (B) R1 = 14 kW, R2 = 6 kW, RS = 0.5 kW, RD = 1.2 kW RL VG = R +R 2 1 6 (20) - 10 = 14 + 6 (20) - 10 = -4 V
VSG = VS - VG = VS
11. (A) VD = I D RD - 5 = (0.4)(5) - 5 = -3 V VSD = VS - VD = 2. 21 - ( -3) = 5. 21 V 12. (C) R1 = 14.5 kW, R2 = 5.5 kW, RS = 0.6 kW, RD = 0.8 kW, RL VG = R +R 2 1 5.5 (10) - 5 = 14.5 + 5.5 (10) - 5 = -2.25 V
Assume transistor in saturation V - ( -10) VG - VGS + 10 ID = S = = K n ( VGS - VTN ) 2 RS RS Kn = W kn ( 60)( 60 10 -6 ) = = 1.8 mA / V 2 2 L 2
Assume transistor in saturation. V - ( -5) ID = S = K n ( VGS - VTN ) 2 RS VS = VG - VGS -2.25 - VGS + 5 = (0.6)(0.5) ( VGS - ( -1)) 2 VGS = 124 . , - 6.58 V VGS is positive. Thus (D) is correct option. 13. (D) I D = VS + 5 VG - VGS + 5 -2.25 - 124 . +5 = = RS RS 0.6 k
- 4 - VGS + 10 = (0.5)(1.8)( VGS - 2) 2 VGS = 3.62, - 0.74 V, VGS will be positive. VG - VGS + 10 -4 - 3.62 + 10 = = 4.76 mA RS 0.5 k
5. (D) I D =
6. (B) 10 = I D( RS + RD) + VDS - 10 VDS = 20 - 4.76(12 . + 0.5) = 119 . V VDS ( sat ) = VGS - VTN = 3.62 - 2 = 1.62 V . V > VDS ( sat ) , Assumption is correct. VDS = 119 7. (B) R1 = 8 kW, RL = 22 kW, RS = 0.5 kW, RD = 2 kW R2 VG = R +R 2 1 22 (20) - 10 = 8 + 22 (20) - 10 = 4.67 V
= 2.52 mA, Therefore (D) is correct option. 14. (B) 5 = I D( RS + RD) + VDS - 5 VDS = 10 - I D( RS + RD) = 10 - 2.52(0.8 + 0.6) = 6.47 V VDS ( sat ) = VGS - VTH = 124 . - ( -1) =2.24 VDS > VDS ( sat ) ,Assumption is correct. 15. (B) I S = 50 mA = I D ,I D = K n ( VGS - VTN ) 2 50 10 -6 = 0.5 10 -3( VGS - 12 . )2 V, VGS = 1516 . V VG = 0, VS = VG - VGS = -1516 . VDS = VD - VS = 5 - ( -1516 . ) = 6.516 V 16. (B) I D = 50m = K n ( VGS - VTN ) 2 50 10 -6 = 0.5 10 -3( VGS - 12 . )2
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Assume transistor in saturation 10 - VS ID = = K P ( VSG + VTP ) 2 RS VS = VG + VSG

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Chap 3.3
VGS = 152 . V,
VGS = VDS
17. (B) I D = K n ( VGS - VTN ) 2 0.25 = 0.2( VGS - 0.6) VG = 0,

2
W W 23. (A) > thus VGS1 < VGS 2 L 1 L 2 V, VGS = 172 . 40( VGS1 - 0.8) 2 = 15( VGS 2 - 0.8) 2 VGS 2 = 5 - VGS1 1.63( VGS1 - 0.8) = (5 - VGS1 - 0.8) VGS1 = 2.09, VGS 2 = 2.91 V, Vo = VGS 2 = 2.91 V 24. (A) Each transistor is biased in saturation because VDS = VGS and VDS > VGS - VTN For M 3 , V2 = 2 V = VGS 3 36 10 -3 W 2 I D = 0.5 = L (2 - 1) 2 3 36 10 -3 W 2 I D = 0.5 = L ( 3 - 1) 2 2 W = 27.8 L 3 W = 6.94 L 2
VGS = VG - VS , 18. (A) I D =
V VS = -172 . RD = 6 -1 = 5 kW 0.8m
5 - VD = 0.8 mA, RD
I D = K n ( VGS - VTN ) 2 0.8 = (0.4)( VGS - 17 . )2 VGS = 311 . V VGS = VG - VS , VG = 0, VS = -311 . V -311 . - ( -5) I D = 0.8 mA = RS = 2.36 kW RS 19. (C) VSD = VSG, I D = 25 W 10 -4 = 2 4 k p W ( VGS + VTP ) 2 2 L W = 32 m m
For M 2 , VGS 2 = V1 - V2 = 5 - 2 = 3 V
. )2 (2.5 - 15
For M1 , VGS1 = 10 - V1 = 10 - 5 = 5 V 36 W W I D = 0.5 = 10 -5 (5 - 1) 2 = 174 . 2 L 1 L 1 25. (D) M 2 is in saturation because VGS 2 = VDS 2 > VGS 2 - VTN M1 is in non saturation because VGS1 = Vi = 5 V, VDS1 = VD = 0 V VDS1 < VGS1 - VTN , I D1 = I D2 W W 2 2 [2( VGS1 - VTN1 ) VDS1 - VDS 2 ]= ( VGS 2 - VTN 2 ) L L 1 2 W [2(5 - 0.8)(0.1) - (0.1) 2 ] = (1)(5 - 0.1 - 0.8) 2 L 1 W (0.83) = 16.81 L 1 W =20.3 L 1
30 10 -6 20. (D) K p = 2 I D = K p ( VSG + VTP ) 2
2 (20) = 0.3 mA / V 0.5 = 0.3( VSG - 12 . )2
VSG = 2.49 V, VG = 0
VS = VSG = 2.49 V 5 - VS 5 - 2.49 ID = RS = = 5.02 kW RS 0.5m ID = VD - ( -5) RD RD = -3 + 5 = 4 kW 0.5m
21. (B) Assume transistor in saturation 10 - VGS ID = = K n ( VGS - VTN ) 2 10 k 10 - VGS = (10)(0.2)( VGS - 2) 2 . V, - 0.27 V, VGS will be 3.77 V VGS = 377 . V VGS = VDS = 377 10 - 377 . ID = = 0.623 mA 10 k Power = I DVDS = 2.35 mW VDS > VGS - VTN assumption is correct. 22. (B) For both transistor VDS = VGS , VDS > VGS - VTN saturation. I D1 = I D2 K n 1 ( VGS1 - VTN1 ) = K n 2 ( VGS 2 - VTN 2 )
2 2
26. (B) I D1 = K n 1 ( VGS1 - VTN ) 2 = K n 2 ( VGS 2 - VTN ) 2 VGS1 = 5 - VGS 2 I D1 = 400 10

-6
(5 - VGS 2 - 1) 2 = 200 ( VGS 2 - 1) 2 VGS1 = 2.24 V
VGS 2 = 2.76 V,
(2.24 - 1) 2 =0.62 mA
27. (B) VGS 2 = VGS 3 = 2.76 V I D4 = K n 4 ( VGS 4 - VTN ) 2 = K n 3 ( VGS 3 - VTN ) 2 are in = 100 10 -6 (2.76 - 1) 2 = 0.31 mA 28. (C) VGS = 4.2 V, VDS = 0.1 V
Therefore
both
transistor
K n 1 = K n 2 , VTN1 = VTN 2 5 VGS1 = VGS 2 = V 2 Vo = VGS 2 = 2.5 V

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VDS < VGS - VTN , Thus transistor is in non saturation. 5 - 0.1 ID = = 0.49 mA 10 k k W 2 ID = n {2 ( VGS - VTN ) VDS - VDS } 2 L
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CHAPTER
3.4
AMPLIFIERS
1. If the transistor parameter are b = 180 and Early voltage V A = 140 V and it is biased at I CQ = 2 mA, the values of hybrid-p parameter g m , rp and ro are respectively (A) 14 A V, 2.33 kW, 90 kW (B) 14 A V, 90 kW , 2.33 kW (C) 77 mA V, 2.33 kW , 70 kW (D) 77.2 A V, 70 kW, 2.33 kW Statement for Q.23. Consider the circuit of fig. P3.4.23. The transistor parameters are b = 120 and V A = . Statement for Q.56:
+5 V
3. The small signal votlage gain Av = vo vs is (A) -4.38 (C) -1.88 (B) 4.38 (D) 1.88
4. The nominal quiescent collector current of a transistor is 1.2 mA. If the range of b for this transistor is 80 b 120 and if the quiescent collector current changes by 10 percent, the range in value for rp is (A) 1.73 kW < rp < 2.59 kW (B) 1.93 kW < rp < 2.59 kW (C) 1.73 kW < rp < 2.59 kW (D) 1.56 kW < rp < 2.88 kW
Consider the circuit in fig. P3.4.5.6. The transistor

4 kW 250 kW vs 2V vo
parameter are b = 100 and V A = .

+10 V
~
50 kW vs
RC
Fig. P3.4.23
vBB
~
Fig. P3.4.56
2. The hybrid-p parameter values of g m , rp and ro are (A) 24 mA V, , 5 kW (B) 24 mA V, 5 kW , (C) 48 mA V, 10 kW , 18.4 kW (D) 48 mA V, 18.4 kW, 10 kW
5. If Q-point is in the center of the load line and I CQ = 0.5 mA, the values of VBB and RC are (A) 10 kW , 0.95 V (C) 48 kW , 0.95 V
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Chap 3.4
Statement for Q.1415: Consider the common Base amplifier shown in fig. P3.4.1415. The parameters are resistance RL .
Thevenin equivalent 270 W vi
19. For an n-channel MOSFET biased in the saturation region, the parameters are VTN = 1 V, 1 m n Cox = 18 mA V 2 2 and l = 0.015 V -1 and I DQ = 2 mA. If transconductance is g m = 3.4 mA V, the width-to-length ratio is (A) 80.6 (C) 190 (B) 43.2 (D) 110 g m = 2 mS
and
ro = 250 kW. Find the Thevenin equivalent faced by load
20. In the circuit of fig. P3.4.20, the parameters are

RL
~
Fig. P3.4.1415
g m = 1mA / V, ro = 50 kW. The gain Av = vo vs is

VDD
60 kW 2 kW
10 kW
14. The Thevenin voltage vTH is (A) 263vi (C) 346vi (B) 132vi (D) 498vi
vs
300 kW
15. The Thevenin equivalent resistance RTH is (A) 384 kW (C) 408 kW Statement for Q.1617: The common-base amplifier is drawn as a two-port in fig. P3.4.1617. The parameters are b = 100, g m = 3 mS, and ro = 800 kW.
i1 + v1 _ 3.9 kW 18 kW i2 + v2 _
(B) 697 kW (D) 915 kW
Fig. P3.4.20
(A) -8.01 (C) 14.16 Statement for Q.2123:
(B) 8.01 (D) -14.16
For the circuit shown in fig. P3.4.2123 transistor parameters are VTN = 2 V, K n = 0.5 mA / V 2 and l = 0. The transistor is in saturation.
+10 V
10 kW vo vi VGG
Fig. P3.4.1617
16. The h-parameter h21 is (A) 2.46 (C) 0.5 17. The h-parameter h12 is (A) 3.8 10 -4 (C) 3.8 10 4 (B) 4.83 10 -3 (D) 4.83 10 3 (B) 0.9 (D) 0.67 (A) 5.14 V (C) 2.89 V
~
Fig. P3.4.2123
21. If I DQ is to be 0.4 mA, the value of VGSQ is (B) 4.36 V (D) 1.83 V
18. For an n-channel MOSFET biased in the saturation region, the parameters are K n = 0.5 mA V 2 , VTN = 0.8 V and l = 0.01 V -1 , and I DQ = 0.75 mA. The value of g m and ro are (A) 0.68 mS, 603 kW (C) 1.22 mS, 133 kW
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22. The values of g m and ro are (A) 0.89 mS, (C) 1.48 mS, 0 (B) 0.89 mS, 0 (D) 1.48 mS,
23. The small signal voltage gain Av is (B) 1.22 mS, 603 kW (D) 0.68 mS, 133 kW (A) 14.3
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Chap 3.4
(A) 4.44 (C) 2.22 Statement for Q.3334: Consider ro = 100 kW. the
(B) -4.44 (D) -2.22
SOLUTIONS
1. (C) g m = I CQ Vt = 2m = 77.2 mA V 0.0259 in fig. rp = ro =
Ro
source-follower
circuit
P3.4.33-34. The values of parameter are g m = 2 mS and

+5 V
bVt b 180 = = = 2.33 kW I CQ g m 77.2m V A 140 = = 70 kW I CQ 2m 2 - 0.7 = 5.2 m A 250 k
vs
vo 500 kW IQ 4 kW
2. (B) I BQ =
I CQ = bI B = (120)(5.2m ) = 0.642 mA gm = rp = I CQ Vt = 0.624 = 24 mA V 0.0259
-5 V
Fig. P3.4.33-34
33. The voltage gain Av is (A) 0.89 (C) 2.79 (B) -0.89 (D) -2.79
bVt b 120 = = = 5 kW, ro = I CQ g m 24m
rp bRC 3. (C) Av = - g m RC = r + R r + R B B p p 5k = - (24m)( 4 k) 5 k + 250 k = -1.88 4. (D) rp = rp( max ) = bVT , I CQ
34. The output resistance Ro is (A) 100 kW (C) 1.33 kW (B) 0.498 kW (D) None of the above
(120)(0.0259) = 2.88 kW, 108 . m ( 80)(0.0259) = 156 . kW 1.32m 1 VCC = 5 V 2
*******************
rp(min) =
5. (A) VECQ =
VECQ = 10 - I CQ RC = 5 10 - (0.5m) RC = 5 I CQ b 0.5 =5 mA 100 RC = 10 kW, I BQ = =
VEB ( ON ) + I BQ RB = VBB 0.7 + (5m ) (50 k) = 0.95 V I CQ Vt = 0.5 = 19.3 mA V 0.0259
6. (D) g m = rp =
bVt (100)(0.0259) = = 5.18 kW , ro = 0.5m I CQ
100 7. (B) I CQ = (0.35) = 0.347 mA 1001

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Analog Electronics
The small-signal equivalent circuit is as shown in fig. S3.4.7

500 W B C vo + 10 kW rp Vp _ gmVp E ro 7 kW
9. (A) DC Analysis: VTH =
50 (12) = 10 V 10 + 50
|50 = 8.33 kW RTH = 11| 12 - 0.7 - 10 I BQ = = 119 . mA 8.33k + (101)1k . mA, I EQ = 12 . mA I CQ = bI BQ = 119 . )2 = 8.42 V VECQ = 12 - (1. 20)1 - (119 AC Analysis:
Ib B _ rp vs bIb E (b+1)Ib 2 kW Ic C vo
vs
Fig. S3.4.7
Vp =
rp | |10 k |7k) ( vs ), vo = - g m Vp( ro | 500 + rp | |10 k
rp | vo |10 k |7 k) = - gm ( ro | 500 + r | vs | 10 k p I CQ 0.347m gm = = = 1313 . mA V Vt 0.0259 b bV 100 = t = = 7.6 kW rp = . m g m I CQ 1313 ro = VA 100 = = 288 kW I CQ 0.347m 288 7 7.6 10 |10k = = 6.83 kW, rp | = 4.32 kW 288 + 7 7.6 + 10
Vp +
10||50 kW 1 kW
Fig. S3.4.9
rp =
bVt (100)(0.0259 = = 2.18 kW 119 . m I CQ
vo = bI b (2k) , vs = - (b + 1) I b (1k) + I b ( rp) v -b(2 k) -(100)(2 k) Av = o = = = -196 . vs rp + (b + 1)1k 2.18 k + (100)(1k) 10. (B) VECQ = 8.42 V, For 1 vEC 11 V, DvEC = 11 - 8.42 = 2.58 V Output voltage swing = 5.16 V peak to peak. 11. (B) Since the BC junction is not reverse biased, the transistor continues to operate in the forward-active
|7k = ro |
4.32 k Av = -1313 . m ( 6.83k) = - 80 500 + 4.32 k 8. (C) DC Analysis: I CQ = I EQ VCEQ = 5 = 10 - I CQ ( RC + RE ) 5 = 10 - I CQ(1. 2 k + 0. 2 k) 3.57 I BQ = = 23.8 m A 150 AC Analysis:
Ib B + rp vs Vp bIb _ E 0.2 kW C vo
I CQ = 3.57 mA
-mode
Ie + vce _ + vce _ rp gmvce ro
Fig. S 3.4.11
1.2 kW
R1 || R2
Fig. S3.4.8
rp =
bVt (0.0259) = (150) = 109 . kW , ro = 357 . m I CQ vo -(b I b ) RC , vs = I b rp + (b + 1) RE I b = vs vs -bRC -(150)(12 . )k = = -5.75 rp + (1 + b) RE 109 . k + (151)(0.2 k)
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1 vce 1 , So rp | = | | ro | g g m Vce g m m (100)(0.0259) rp = = 2.33 kW 2m I CQ 2m gm = = = 77.2 mA V Vt 0.0259 r= 1 V 150 = 12.95 , ro = A = = 75 kW gm I CQ 2m |(12.95)| |(75 k) =12.87 W re = (2.33k)|
Av = Av =
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Chap 3.4
12. (C) ro =
VA I CQ
I CQ =
VA 75 = = 0.375 mA ro 200 k
Vp Vp v + Vpi + + g m Vp + i =0 rp ro 270 vi + Vpi Vp Vp + + 2mVp + =0 50 k 250 k 270 . mvi I sc = 1297 vTH 498 vi RTH = = = 384 kW I SC 1297 . mvi Vp = -0.647 vi ,
bV 75(0.0259) 13. (B) rp = t = = 194 . kW I CQ 1m

E Ie Ib vi rp B 1.5 kW 2.7 kW + vo _ bIb C
16. (B) The equivalent small-signal circuit is shown in fig. S3.4.16

ro i1 E gmVp 18 kW v2 = 0 C
Fig. S 3.4.13
vi = I b ( rp + 15k . ), I in = I e = (b + 1) I b Vi ( rp + 15 . k) 194 . + 15 . k Rin = = = = 45 W Ie (b + 1) 76 14. (D) The equivalent circuit is shown below
ro 270 W _ rp Vp + gmVp
vs
_ 3.9 kW rp Vp + B
Fig. S 3.4.16
rp =
b 100 = = 33.3 kW gm 3m i2 i1 , i2 =
v2 = 0
vi
h21 = i1 = -
Vp + g m Vp r0 Vp can be neglected ro
Vp V V - p - p - g m Vp , 39 . k rp ro i2 = i1
Fig. S 3.4.14
vi rp Removing the RL , -Vp = 270 + rp vTH = -ro g m Vp - Vp = rp = vi rp(1 + g m ro) 270 + rp
h21 =
. k - g m rp 39 - gm = = 0.91 1 1 39 . k . k r + + g p m rp 39 + + gm 39 . k rp v1 v v - v2 + 1 + 1 = g m Vp 39 . k rp ro
ro
b 100 = = 50 kW g m 2m vi 50 k(1 + (2m)(250 k)) = 498 vi 270 + 50 k
17. (A) v1 = -Vp ,
vTH =
i1 = 0
E gmVp
i2
15. (A) The equivalent small-signal circuit is shown in fig. S3.4.15

ro 270 W _ rp Vp + gmVp Isc
_ 3.9 kW rp Vp + B
18 kW
v2
Fig. S 3.4.17
vi
Fig. S 3.4.15
I sc = g m Vp +
Vp Vp = 2.004 mVp = 2mVp + ro 250 k
1 1 1 v2 = - g m v1 + + v1 39 . k r ro ro p 1 1 v1 ro 800 k = = 1 1 1 1 1 1 v2 + + + 3m + + + gm 39 . k 33.3k 800 k 39 . k rp ro = 3.8 10 -4

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Chap 3.4
RS = 4 kW, v gs = 0.84 vi , |RD) vo = - g m v gs ( ro | = -(1.41m)(0.84 vi )(100 k | | 5 k) vo = Av = - 5.6 vi 28. (A) Ro = RD | |ro | | 100k =4.76 kW 29. (A) As shown in fig. S3.4.27, Ri = R1 | | R2 = 20.6 kW 30. (C) From the DC analysis: . V, I DQ = 0.5 mA VGSQ = 15 g m = 2 K n ( VGS - VTN ) = 2(1m) (15 . - 0.8) = 1.4 mA V ro = [ lI DQ ]
-1
v gs = vi ,
vo = Av = - g m (7k) vi
g m = 2 K n ( VGS - VTN ) = 2 (1m)(151 . - 0.8) = 1.42 mS Av = -(1.42m) (7 k) = - 9.9 32. (A) The small-signal equivalent circuit is shown in fig. S.3.4.34
S _ vi gmvgs D vo
10 kW
vgs RS + G
5 kW
RD
RL
4 kW
=
Fig. S3.4.32
The resulting small-signal equivalent circuit is shown in fig. S5.4.30

G + vi D vo 7 kW
RTH
vgs gmvgs _ S RS
RD
| RL ), vi = -v gs vo = - g m v gs ( RD | v Av = o = g m ( RD | | RL ) = (2m)(5 k | |4 k) = 4.44 vi 33. (A) The small-signal equivalent circuit is shown in fig. S3.4.33
0.5 kW G + D
Fig. S 3.4.30
vo = - g m v gs RD, vi = v gs + g m v gs RS vo - g m RD (7 k) = = - (1.4m) = -5.76 vi 1 + g m RS 1 + (1.4m) (0.5 k) 31. (B) Since the DC gate current is zero, VS = -VGSQ I DQ = I Q = K n ( VGSQ - VTN ) 2 0.5 = 1( VGSQ - 0.8) 2 VGSQ = 151 . V = -VS . ) = 301 . V VDSQ = 5 - (0.5m)(7 k) - ( -151 The transistor is therefore biased in the saturation region. The small-signal equivalent circuit is shown in fig.S3.4.31.
G + vs D vo
vi
500 kW
vgs gmvgs _ S vo 4 kW
ro
Fig. S3.4.33
| ro) vo = g m v gs ( RL | vi = v gs + vo = v gs + g m v gs ( RL | | ro) 1 v gs = 1 + g m ( RL | | ro) vo g m ( RL | | ro) = Av = vi 1 + g m ( RL | | ro) RL | |ro = 4 k | |100 k = Av = 100 k = 3.86 kW 26
vgs _
gmvgs S
7 kW
(2m)( 3.85 k) = 0.89 1 + (2m)( 3.85 k) 1 | |ro gm
34. (B) Ro =
Fig. S3.4.31
vo = - g m v gs (7k)
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1 = |(100) 0.498 k W | 2
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CHAPTER
3.5
OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIERS
1. Av = vo =? vi
vi 40 kW vo
(A) -2 sin wt m A
400 kW
(B) -7 sin wt m A (D) 0
(C) -5 sin wt m A
4. In circuit shown in fig. P3.5.4, the input voltage vi is 0.2 V. The output voltage vo is
50 kW vi 10 kW 25 kW vo 150 kW
Fig. P3.5.1
(A) -10 (C) -11 2. Av = vo =? vi

vi 40 kW
(B) 10 (D) 11
Fig. P3.5.4
400 kW
(A) 6 V (C) 8 V
vo
(B) -6 V (D) -8 V
60 kW
5. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.5.5 gain is Av = vo vi = -10. The value of R is
R 100 kW 100 kW vi 100 kW vo
Fig. P3.5.2
(A) -10 (C) 13.46 3. The input to the
(B) 10 (D) -13.46 circuit

10 kW vi 1 kW io vo 4 kW
in
fig.
P3.5.3
is
vi = 2 sin wt mV. The current io is

Fig. P3.5.5
(A) 600 kW (C) 4.5 MW
(B) 450 kW (D) 6 MW
Fig. P3.5.3
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Chap 3.5
6. For the op-amp circuit shown in fig. P3.5.6 the voltage gain Av = vo vi is
R R R
10. In the circuit of fig. P3.5.10 the output voltage vo is

20 kW +0.5 V 40 kW -1 V 60 kW +2 V vo 20 kW
R vi R
vo
Fig. P3.5.10
(A) 2.67 V
Fig. P3.5.6
(B) -2.67 V (D) 6.67 V
(A) -8 (C) -10
(B) 8 (D) 10
(C) -6.67 V
11. In the circuit of fig. P3.5.11 the voltage vi1 is (1 + 2 sin wt) mV and vi 2 = -10 mV. The output voltage vo is
20 kW vi1 2 kW 1 kW vi2 vo 1 kW 20 kW
7. For the op-amp shown in fig. P3.5.7 open loop differential gain is Aod = 10 3. The output voltage vo for vi = 2 V is
vi 100 kW vo 100 kW
Fig. P3.5.7
Fig. P3.5.11
(A) -1.996 (C) -2.004
(B) -1.998 (D) -2.006
(A) -0.4(1 + sin wt) mV (C) 0.4(1 + 2 sin wt) mV
(B) 0.4(1 + sin wt) mV (D) -0.4(1 + 2 sin wt) mV
8. The op-amp of fig. P3.5.8 has a very poor open-loop voltage gain of 45 but is otherwise ideal. The closed-loop gain of amplifier is
2 kW vo vi 100 kW
12. For the circuit in fig. P3.5.12 the output voltage is vo = 2.5 V in response to input voltage vi = 5 V. The finite open-loop differential gain of the op-amp is
vi 500 kW 1 kW vo
Fig. P3.5.8
(A) 20 (C) 4
(B) 4.5 (D) 5 (A) 5 10 4 (C) 2 10

4
Fig. P3.5.12
(B) 250.5 (D) 501
9. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.5.9 the input voltage vi is 1.5 V. The current io is
6 kW 8 kW io vo
+18 V
13. vo = ?
10 kW
100 kW 20 kW 40 kW +15 V vo 100 kW
vi
5 kW
Fig. P3.5.13 Fig. P3.5.9
(A) -1.5 mA (C) -0.75 mA

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(B) 1.5 mA (D) 0.75 mA
(A) 34 V (C) 32 V
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28. For the circuit shown in fig. P3.5.28 the input resistance is
31. io = ?
6 kW
io 6A
4 kW
2 kW
vo
2 kW
is 2 kW
Fig. S3.5.31
10 kW
(A) -18 A (C) -36 A
(B) 18 A (D) 36 A
Fig. P3.5.28
(A) 38 kW (C) 25 kW
(B) 17 kW (D) 47 kW
Statement for Q.3233: Consider the circuit shown below

3 kW 6 kW vi 2 kW vo D1 D2
29. In the circuit of fig. P3.5.29 the op-amp slew rate is SR = 0.5 V ms. If the amplitude of input signal is 0.02 V, then the maximum frequency that may be used is
240 kW vi 10 kW vo
Fig. P3.5.3233
Fig. P3.5.29
32. If vi = 2 V, then output vo is (A) 4 V (C) 3 V (B) -4 V (D) -3 V
(A) 0.55 106 rad/s (C) 1.1 106 rad/s
(B) 0.55 rad/s (D) 1.1 rad/s
33. If vi = -2 V, then output vo is (A) -6 V (C) -3 V 34. vo( t) = ? (B) 6 V (D) 3 V
30. In the circuit of fig. P3.5.30 the input offset voltage and input offset current are Vio = 4 mV and I io = 150 nA. The total output offset voltage is
500 kW vi 5 kW vo
8 mF
vo 50 W
5u(t) mA
250 W
1 kW
5 kW
Fig. P3.5.34 Fig. P3.5.30

t 10
(A) e (A) 479 mV (C) 168 mV

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u( t) V u( t) V
(B) -e
t 10
u( t) V u( t) V
(B) 234 mV (D) 116 mV (C) e
t 1 .6
(D) -e
t 1 .6
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Chap 3.5
35. The circuit shown in fig. P3.5.35 is at steady state before the switch opens at t = 0. The vC ( t) for t > 0 is
t=0
(A) vs vss v (C) - s vss
(B) -vs vss (D) vs vss
20 kW 20 kW 20 kW + 5V 4 mF vC -
39. If the input to the ideal comparator shown in fig. P3.5.39 is a sinusoidal signal of 8 V (peak to peak) without any DC component, then the output of the comparator has a duty cycle of
Input Output Vref = 2 V
Fig. P3.5.35
(A) 10 - 5 e -12 .5t V (C) 5 + 5 e

t 12 .5
(B) 5 + 5 e -12 .5t V (D) 10 - 5 e

t 12 .5
Fig. P3.5.39
V (A) (C) 1 2 1 6 (B) (D) 1 3 1 12
36. The LED in the circuit of fig. P3.5.36 will be on if vi is

+10 V 10 kW vi 10 kW 470W
40. In the op-amp circuit given in fig. P3.5.40 the load current iL is
R1 R1 vs
Fig. P3.5.36
(A) > 10 V (C) > 5 V
(B) < 10 V (D) < 5 V
37. In the circuit of fig. P3.5.37 the CMRR of the op-amp is 60 dB. The magnitude of the vo is
2V 100 kW 1 kW
R2 IL RL R2
Fig. P3.5.40
R R 1 kW vo
(A) 100 kW
vs R2 vs RL
(B) (D)
vs R2 vs RL
(C) Fig. P3.5.37
(A) 1 mV (C) 200 mV
(B) 100 mV (D) 2 mV
V for a certain set of w, R, an C. The |vo| will be 2 V if

R1 R1 vi = sin wt V vo R C
vo
41. In the circuit of fig. P3.5.41 output voltage is |vo| = 1
38. The analog multiplier X of fig. P.3.5.38 has the characteristics vp = v1 v2 . The output of this circuit is
vss 10 kW X vs R
Fig. P3.5.41
(A) w is doubled
Fig. P3.5.38
(B) w is halved (D) None of the above

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(C) R is doubled
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42. In the circuit of fig. P3.5.42. the 3 dB cutoff frequency is

50 nF 6 kW
+15 V
47 kW
3 kW vi
vo vo
Fig. P3.5.42
(A) 10 kHz (C) 354 Hz
(B) 1.59 kHz (D) 689 Hz
Vz = 5 V
100 W
Fig. P3.5.45
43. The phase shift oscillator of fig. P3.5.43 operate at f = 80 kHz. The value of resistance RF is
RF 100 pF 100 pF 100 pF R vo
46. In the circuit in fig. P3.5.46 both transistor Q1 and Q2 are identical. The output voltage at T = 300 K is
R1 v1 R2 v2
333 kW 20 kW
Fig. P3.5.43
(A) 148 kW (C) 438 kW
(B) 236 kW (D) 814 kW
20 kW 333 kW
vo
44. The value of C required for sinusoidal oscillation of frequency 1 kHz in the circuit of fig. P3.5.44 is
1 kW 2.1 kW
Fig. P3.5.46
v2 R1 (A) 2 log10 v R 1 2
C 1 kW
v2 R1 (B) log10 v R 1 2 v2 R1 (D) 4.605 log10 v R 1 2
v2 R1 (C) 2.303 log10 v R 1 2
47. In the op-amp series regulator circuit of fig. P8.3.47 Vz = 6.2 V, VBE = 0.7 V and b = 60. The output voltage vo is
+36 V 1 kW vo
1 kW
Fig. P3.5.44
(A) (C)
1 mF 2p 1 2p 6 mF
(B) 2 p m F (D) 2 p 6 m F
30 kW
10 kW
45. In the circuit shown in fig. P3.5.45 the op-amp is ideal. If bF = 60, then the total current supplied by the 15 V source is (A) 123.1 mA (C) 49.4 mA (B) 98.3 mA (D) 168 mA (A) 35.8 V (C) 29.8 V
Fig. P3.5.47
*******
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26. (C) v2 + = v2 - = 0 V, current through 6 V source i= 6 = 2 mA, vo = -2m( 3k + 2 k) = -10 V 3k
33. (D) If vi < 0, then vo > 0, D2 blocks and D1 conduct Av = 3k . )=3 V = -15 . , vo = ( -2)( -15 2k
vo(1) vo v (2) vo(1) = , v- = i + 1+ 3 4 2+1 2 +1 2v v v v v+ = v- , o = o + i , o = -8 4 3 3 vi 27. (D) v+ = 28. (B) Since op-amp is ideal
34. (A) Voltage follower vo = v- = v+ v+ (0 + ) = 5m(250 | |1000) = 1 V, v+ ( ) = 0 t = 8m(1000 + 250) = 10 s 35. (A) vc (0 - ) = 5 V = vc (0 + ) = 5 V For t > 0 the equivalent circuit is shown in fig. S3.5.35
20 kW
i1 is 2 kW 4 kW is i2
10 V 4 mF
+ vC
Fig. S3.5.35
10 kW
t = 20 k 4m = 0.08 s vc = 10 + (5 - 10) e 36. (C) v- =

t 0 .08
Fig. S3.5.28
= 10 - 5 e -12 .5t V for t > 0
v- = v+ , 2 kis = 4 ki1 vs = 2 kis + 10 ki2
is = 2 i1 is 2
i2 = is + i1 , vs = 2 kis + 10 k( is + i1 ), i1 = i vs = 2 kis + 10 k is + s 2
(10)(10 k) =5 V 10 k + 10 k
When v+ > 5 V, output will be positive and LED will be on. Hence (C) is correct. 37. (B) v+ = (2) R R = 1 V, v- = (2) = 1 V, vd = 0 2R 2R v + vR VCM VCM = + = 1, vo = F 2 1 CMRR 100 1 CMRR = 60 dB = 10 3 , vo = = 100 mV 1 10 3 38. (C) v+ = 0 = v- , Let output of analog multiplier be vp . vp vs = vs = -vp , vp = vss vo R R v vs = -vss vo , vo = - s vss 39. (B) When vi > 2 V, output is positive. When vi < 2 V, output is negative.
V 4V 2V
vs = 17k = Rin is
R 240 k 29. (C) Closed loop gain A = F = = 24 R1 10 k The maximum output voltage vom = 24 0.02 = 0.48 V w 0.5 / m SR . 106 rad/s = = 11 0.48 vom
R1 30. (A) The offset due to Vio is vo = Vio 1 + R 1 500 = 1 + 4m = 404 mV 5 Due to I io, vo = RF I io = (500 k)(150n) = 75 mV Total offset voltage vo = 404 + 75 = 479 mV 31. (A) 6 = -vo v , io = - 6 + o 6k 3k -6( 6 k) io = - 6 + = -18 A. 3k 32. (B) If vi > 0, then vo < 0, D1 blocks and D2 conducts Av = 6k = -2 3k vo = ( -2)(2) = -4 V
p
6
5p 6
2p
Fig. S3.5.39
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5p p TON 1 Duty cycle = = 6 6 = 2p T 3 40.(A) vs - v- v- - vo = R1 R1 2 v1 = vs + vo R2 vo = v+ 2 + R L
44. (A) This is Wien-bridge oscillator. The ratio R2 2.1k = = 2.1 is greater than 2. So there will be R1 1k oscillation
R1 R2
v+ v v - vo + + + + =0 R2 RL R2
R2 2 v- = vs + v+ , v- = v+ 2 + R L R 0 = vs + 2 v+ RL v+ = RL vs , R2 iL = v+ , RL iL = vs R2
R R C
Fig. S3.5.44
Frequency = C= 1 mF 2p
41. (D) This is a all pass circuit vo 1 - jwRC , = H ( jw) = vi 1 + jwRC
1 2 pRC
1 10 3 =
1 2 p(1k) C
| H( jw)| =
1 + ( wR 2 C) 2 1 + ( wRC) 2
=1
Thus when w and R is changed, the transfer function is unchanged. 42. (B) Let R1 = 3 kW , R2 = 6 kW , C = 50 nF vi v - vo + i =0 1 R2 R1 | | sC vi v v + i = o R2 R2 R1 1 + sR C 1
45. (C) v+ = 5 V = v- = vE , The input current to the op-amp is zero. i+15V = iZ + iC = iZ + a F iE = 15 - 5 60 5 + = 49.4 mA 47 k 61 100 333 ( vo1 - vo2 ) 20 ic 2 , vo2 = -vBE 2 - Vt ln i s
R vi 2 (1 + sR1 C) + 1 = vo R 1 vi [R2 + R1 + sR1 R2 C ] = vo R1 vo R + R1 = 2 vi R1 f3dB = sR1 R2 C 1 + R + R 1 2
46. (B) vo =
ic1 vo1 = -vBE1 - Vt ln i s ic1 vo1 - vo2 = -Vt ln i c2 ic1 = v1 , R1 ic 2 = v2 R2
ic 2 i = Vt ln c1
vo R = 1 + 2 | R2 ) C) (1 + s( R1 | vi R1 1 = 2 p( R1 | | R2 ) C
v2 R1 , Vt = 0.0259 V vo1 - vo2 = Vt ln R v 2 1 vo = v2 R1 333 333 ( vo1 - vo2 ) = (0.0259) ln v R 20 20 1 2
1 1 = = 159 . kHz 2 p( 3k | |6 k)50n 2 p(2 k)50n
43. (B) The oscillation frequency is 1 1 f = 80 k = 2 p 6 RC 2 p 6 R(100 p) R= 1 ( 80 k)(2 p 6 )(100 p) = 8.12 kW
v2 R1 v2 R1 = 0.4329 ln = 0.4329(2.3026) log10 v R v R 1 2 1 2 v2 R1 = log10 v R 1 2 47. (B) v+ = v- , vZ = 10 vo v = o 10 + 30 4
RF = 29 R
RF = ( 8.12 k)(29) = 236 kW
vo = 4 vz = 6.2 4 = 24.8 V
************
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CHAPTER
4.1
NUMBER SYSTEMS & BOOLEAN ALGEBRA
1. The 100110 2 is numerically equivalent to 1. 2616 2. 3610 3. 468 4. 212 4 5. A computer has the following negative numbers stored in binary form as shown. The wrongly stored number is (A) -37 as 1101 1011 (B) 2, 3, and 4 (D) 1, 3, and 4 (C) -48 as 1110 1000 (B) -89 as 1010 0111 (D) -32 as 1110 0000
The correct answer are (A) 1, 2, and 3 (C) 1, 2, and 4
2. If (211) x = (152)8 , then the value of base x is (A) 6 (C) 7 (B) 5 (D) 9
6. Consider the signed binary number A = 01010110 and B = 1110 1100 where B is the 1s complement and MSB is the sign bit. In list-I operation is given, and in list-II resultant binary number is given.
3. 11001, 1001 and 111001 correspond to the 2s complement representation of the following set of numbers (A) 25, 9 and 57 respectively (B) -6, -6 and -6 respectively (C) -7, -7 and -7 respectively (D) -25, -9 and -57 respectively 4. A signed integer has been stored in a byte using 2s complement format. We wish to store the same integer in 16-bit word. We should copy the original byte to the less significant byte of the word and fill the more significant byte with (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) equal to the MSB of the original byte (D) complement of the MSB of the original byte.
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ListI P. A + B Q. B - A R. A - B S. - A - B
List-II 1. 0 1 0 0 2. 0 1 1 0 3. 0 1 0 0 4. 1 0 0 1 5. 1 0 1 1 6. 1 0 0 1 7. 1 0 1 1 8. 0 1 1 0 0011 1001 0010 0101 1100 0110 1101 1010
The correct match is P (A) (B) (C) (D) 3 3 1 1 Q 4 6 4 6 R 2 8 8 2 S 5 7 7 5

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28.
The
simplified
form
of
logic
function
A B C Z
A B C D Z
Y = A( B + C( AB + AC)) is (A) A B (C) AB (B) AB (D) AB
(A)
A B C D Z A B C D
(B)
29. The reduced form of the Boolean expression of Y = ( AB ) ( AB) is (A) A + B (C) AB + AB (B) A + B (D) A B + AB
(C)
(D)
30. If X Y + XY = Z then XZ + XZ is equal to (A) Y (C) 0 (B) Y (D) 1
35. In fig. P.4.1.35 the input condition, needed to produce X = 1, is

A B
31. If XY = 0 then X Y is equal to (A) X + Y (C) XY (B) X + Y (D) X Y
Fig. P4.1.34
(A) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 32. From a four-input OR gate the number of input condition, that will produce HIGH output are (A) 1 (C) 15 (B) 3 (D) 0 (C) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1
(B) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1 (D) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
36. Consider the statements below: 1. If the output waveform from an OR gate is the same as the waveform at one of its inputs, the other input is being held permanently LOW. 2. If the output waveform from an OR gate is always HIGH, one of its input is being held permanently HIGH. The statement, which is always true, is (A) Both 1 and 2 (C) Only 2 (B) Only 1 (D) None of the above
33. A logic circuit control the passage of a signal according to the following requirements : 1. Output X will equal A when control input B and C are the same. 2. X will remain HIGH when B and C are different. The logic circuit would be
A B C X A B C X
37. To implement y = ABCD using only two-input NAND gates, minimum number of requirement of gate is (A) 3 (B) (C) 5
X
(B) 4 (D) 6
(A)
A B C X A B C
38. If the X and Y logic inputs are available and their complements X and Y are not available, the minimum number of two-input NAND required to implement X Y is (A) 4 (C) 6 (B) 5 (D) 7
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(C)
(D)
34. The output of logic circuit is HIGH whenever A and B are both HIGH as long as C and D are either both LOW or both HIGH. The logic circuit is
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Chap 4.1
Statement for Q.3940: A Boolean function Z = ABC is to be implement using NAND and NOR gate. Each gate has unit cost. Only A, B and C are available. 39. If both gate are available then minimum cost is (A) 2 units (C) 4 units (B) 3 units (D) 6 units
Assuming complements of x and y are not available, a minimum cost solution for realizing f using 2-input NOR gates and 2-input OR gates (each having unit cost) would have a total cost of (A) 1 units (C) 3 units (B) 2 units (D) 4 units
44. The gates G1 and G2 in Fig. P.4.2.44 have propagation delays of 10 ns and 20 ns respectively.
1 Vi 0 Vi G1 G2 Vo
40. If NAND gate are available then minimum cost is (A) 2 units (C) 4 units (B) 3 units (D) 6 units
to
Fig. P4.1.44
41. In fig. P4.1.41 the LED emits light when

VCC = 5 V
If the input Vi makes an abrupt change from logic 0 to 1 at t = t0 then the output waveform Vo is [t1 = t0 + 10 ns, t2 = t1 + 10 ns, t3 = t2 + 10 ns] (A)
1 kW
t0 t1 t2 t3
1 kW
1 kW
1 kW
(B)
t0 t1 t2 t3
(C)
Fig. P4.1.41
t0 t1 t2 t3
(D)
t0 t1 t2 t3
(A) both switch are closed (B) both switch are open (C) only one switch is closed (D) LED does not emit light irrespective of the switch positions 42. If the input to the digital circuit shown in fig. P.4.1.42 consisting of a cascade of 20 XOR gates is X , then the output Y is equal to
1
45. In the network of fig. P4.1.45 f can be written as

X0 X1 X2 1 2 3 n-1 X3 Xn-1 Xn n F
Fig. P4.1.45
(A) X 0 X1 X 3 X 5 + X 2 X 4 X 5 .... X n -1 + .... X n -1 X n (B) X 0 X1 X 3 X 5 + X 2 X 3 X 4 .... X n + .... X n -1 X n (C) X 0 X1 X 3 X 5 .... X n + X 2 X 3 X 5 K X n + .... + X n -1 X n (D) X 0 X1 X 3 X 5... X n -1 + X 2 X 3 X 5 K X n +..+ X n -1 X n - 2 + X n
Y X
Fig. P4.1.42
(A) X (C) 0
(B) X (D) 1
*******
43. A Boolean function of two variables x and y is defined as follows : f (0, 0) = f (0, 1) = f (1, 1) = 1; f (1, 0) = 0
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SOLUTIONS
1. (D) 100110 2 = 2 5 + 2 2 + 21 = 3810 2616 = 2 16 + 6 = 3810 468 = 4 8 + 6 = 3810 212 4 = 2 4 2 + 41 = 3810 So 3610 is not equivalent. 2. (C) 2 x 2 + x + 1 = 64 + 5 8 + 2 3. (C) All are 2s complement of 7 11001 00110 + 1001 1 = 710 00111 0110 + 1 0111 111001 000110 + 1 = 710 000111 4. (C) See a example 42 in a byte 42in a word -42 in a byte -42 in a word Therefore (C) is correct. 5. (C) 4810 = -4810 = 00110000 2 1100 1111 + 1 00101010 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 11010110 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 = 710 x =7
A - B = A + B,
A B
010 10110 + 00010011 0110 1001 1010 1001 + 00010011 10111100
- A - B = A + B,
A B
7. (B) Here A , B are 2s complement A + B, A B 0100 0110 + 1101 0011 1 0001 1001 Discard the carry 1 A - B = A + B, A B 010 0 0110 + 0010 1101 0111 0011 B - A, B A 1101 0011 + 1011 1010 1 1000 1101 Discard the carry 1 - A - B = A + B, A B 1011 1010 + 0010 1101 1110 0111
8. (B) 1110 = 10112

0.3 2 Fi -1 0.6 1.2 0.4 0.8 1.6 Bi 0 1 0 0 1
2
Fi 0.6 0.2 0.4 0.8 0.6
11010000 6. (D) Here A , B are 1s complement A + B, A 01010110 B + 1110 1100 10100 0010 , + 1 0100 0011 B - A = B + A, B A 1110 1100 + 1010 1001 110010101 1 + 10010110
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Repeat from the second line 0.310 = 0.01001 9. (C)

b4 Received 1 b3 1 b2 0 p3 1 b1 1
p2 0
p1 0
C1* = b4 b2 b1 p1 = 0
* = b4 b3 b1 p2 = 1 C2 * = b4 b3 b2 p3 = 1 C3
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Chap 4.1
* * C3 C2 C1* = 110 which indicate position 6 in error
= ( AA + AB)( A + B + C) = A( A + B + C) = A Therefore No gate is required to implement this function. 23. (A)

A 0 B 0 0 1 1 0 0 C 0 1 0 1 0 1 ( A + BC) 0 0 0 1 1 1
Fig. S 4.1.23
Transmitted code 1001100. 10. (D) X = MNQ + M NQ + M NQ = MQ + M NQ = Q( M + M N ) = Q( M + N ) 11. (A) The logic circuit can be modified as shown in fig. S. 4.1.11
A B C+D E Z
( A + B)( A + C) 0 0 0 1 1 1
0 0 0
Fig. S4.1.11
1 1
Now Z = AB + ( C + D) E 12. (D) You can see that input to last XNOR gate is same. So output will be HIGH. 13. (D) Z = A + ( AB + BC) + C = A + ( A + B + B + C) + C = A + B + C ABC = A + B + C AB + BC + AC = A + B + B + C + A + C = A + B + C 14. (C) ( X + Y )( X + Y ) = XY + X Y ( X + Y )( X + Y )( X + Y ) = ( X + Y )( XY + X Y ) = XY + XY = XY 15. (B) Using duality ( A + B)( A + C)( B + C) = ( A + B)( A + C) Thus (B) is correct option. 16. (B) Z = ( AB)( CD)( EF ) = AB + CD + EF 17. (A) X = ( A B + AB)( A + B) = ( AB + A B)( AB) = AB 18. (B) Y = ( A B) C = ( AB + AC) C = ( AB + AB) + C = A B + AB + C 19. (C) Z = A( A + A) BC = ABC 20. (A) Z = AB( B + C) = ABC 21. (A) Z = ( A + B ) BC = ( AB) BC = ABC 22. (A) A( A + B)( A + B + C)
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24. (B) X = ABC + ABC + ABC = BC + ABC 25. (B) ( A + B)( B + C ) = ( AB)( BC) = ABC ( A + B)( B + C ) = ( A + B) + ( B + C) = A + B + C ( A + B)( B + C) = ( A + B) + ( B + C) = AB + B + C = A + B + C From truth table Z = A + B + C Thus (B) is correct. 26. (D) AC + BC = AC( B + B) + ( A + A) BC = ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC 27. (D) F = A + AB + A BC + A B C( D + DE) = A + AB + A B( C + C( D + E)) = A + A( B + B( C + D + E)) = A + B + C + D + E 28. (B) A( B + C ( AB + AC)) = AB + AC ( AB AC) = AB + AC[( A + B)( A + C)] = AB + AC ( A + AC + AB + B C) = AB 29. (C) ( AB ) ( AB) = AB + AB = AB + AB 30. (B) X Z + XZ = X ( XY + XY ) + X ( X Y + XY ) = X ( XY + X Y ) + XY = XY + XY = Y 31. (A) X Y = X Y + XY = ( XY + XY ) = ( XY ) = X + Y
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(A) ( w + y)( x + y + z)( w + x + z) (B) ( w + x)( w + z )( x + y)( y + z ) (C) ( x + z)( w + y) (D) ( x + z )( w + y) 7. A function with dont care condition is as follows f ( a, b, c, d) = Sm(0, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11) + Sdc ( 4, 15) The minimized expression for this function is (A) ab + b d + cd + abc (C) ab + b d + b c + abd (B) ab + b d + cd + abd (D) Above all
(A) AC + AB (C) AB + BC + ABC
(B) AC + AB + BC (D) Above all
12. In the logic circuit of fig. P4.2.12 the redundant gate is

x y z w x z w y z
Fig. P4.2.12
8. A function with dont cares is as follows : g( X , Y , Z ) = Sm(5, 6) + Sdc (1, 2, 4) For above function consider following expression 1. XYZ + XYZ 3. XZ + XZ + YZ The solution for g are (A) 1, 2, and 3 (C) 1, and 4 (B) 1, 2, and 4 (D) 1, and 3 2. XY + XZ 4. YZ + YZ
(A) 1 (C) 3
(B) 2 (D) 4
13. If function W, X, Y, and Z are as follow W = R + PQ + RS X = PQRS + P Q RS + PQ R S Y = RS + PR + PQ + P Q Z = R + S + PQ + P Q R + PQ S Then (A) W = Z , X = Z (C) W = Y (B) W = Z , X = Y (D) W = Y = Z
9. A logical function of four variable is given as f ( A, B, C, D) = ( A + B C)( B + CD) The function as a sum of product is (A) A + BC + ACD + BCD (B) A + BC + ACD + BCD (C) AB + BC + ACD + BCD (D) AB + AB + ACD + BCD 10. A combinational circuit has input A, B, and C and its K-map is as shown in fig. P4.2.10. The output of the circuit is given by CD 00 00 A 01 1 01 1 1 11 10 1
14. In a certain application four inputs A, B, C, D are fed to logic circuit, producing an output which operates a relay. The relay turns on when f(A, B, C, D) =1 for the following states of the inputs (ABCD) : 0000, 0010, 0101, 0110, 1101 and 1110. States 1000 and 1001 do not occur, and for the remaining states the relay is off. The minimized Boolean expression f is (A) ACD + BCD + BCD (C) ABD + BCD + BCD (B) BCD + BCD + ACD (D) ABD + BCD + BCD
15. There are four Boolean variables x1 , x2 , x3 and x4 . The following function are defined on sets of them f ( x3 , x2 , x1 ) = Sm( 3, 4, 5) g( x4 , x3 , x2 ) = Sm(1, 6, 7) h( x4 , x3 , x2 , x1 ) = fg Then h( x4 , x3 , x2 , x1 ) is (A) Sm(3, 12, 13) (C) Sm(3, 12) (B) Sm(3, 6) (D) 0
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Fig. P4.2.1
(A) ( AB + AB ) C (C) ABC
(B) ( AB + AB ) C (D) A B C
11. The Boolean Expression Y = ( A + B)( A + C) is equal to

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Chap 4.2
Statement for Q.1617: A switching function of four variable, f ( w, x y, z) is to equal the product of two other function f1 and f2 , of the same variable f = f1 f2 . The function f and f1 are as follows : f = Sm( 4, 7, 15) f1 = Sm(0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 15)
21. For a binary half subtractor having two input A and B, the correct set of logical expressions for the outputs D = ( A - B) and X (borrow) are (A) D = AB + AB , X = AB (B) D = AB + AB , X = AB (C) D = AB + AB , X = AB (D) D = AB + AB , X = AB 22. f1 f2 = ?
16. The number of full specified function, that will satisfy the given condition, is (A) 32 (C) 4 (B) 16 (D) 1
x0 x1 x2 I0 I1 I2 D0 3-to-8 Decoder D1 D2 D3 D4 D5 D6 D7 f1
17. The simplest function for f2 is (A) x (C) y (B) x (D) y (A) x0 x1 x2 (C) 1
f2
Fig. P4.2.22
18. A four-variable switching function has minterms m6 and m9. If the literals in these minterms are complemented, the corresponding minterm numbers are (A) m3 and m0 (C) m2 and m0 (B) m9 and m6 (D) m6 and m9
(B) x0 x1 x2 (D) 0
23. The logic circuit shown in fig. P4.2.23 implements

D0 3-to-8 D Decoder 1 D2 D3 D4 D5 D6 D7 EN
19. The minimum function that can detect a divisible by 3 8421 BCD code digit (representation D8 D4 D2 D1 ) is given by (A) D8 D1 + D4 D2 + D8 D2 D1 (B) D8 D1 + D4 D2 D1 + D4 D2 D1 + D8 D4 D2 D1 (C) D4 D1 + D4 D2 + D8 D1 D2 D1 (D) D4 D2 D1 + D4 D2 D1 + D8 D4 D2 D1 20. f ( x2 , x1 , x0 ) = ?
D0 3-to-8 D Decoder 1 D2 D3 D4 D5 D6 D7
I0 I1 I2
B C
Fig. P4.2.23
(A) D( A
u C + AC )
(B) D( B C + AC ) (D) D( B
(C) D( B C + AB ) Statement for Q.2425:
u C + AB )
x0 x1 x2
I0 I1 I2
The building block shown in fig. P4.2.2425 is a

f
active high output decoder.

D0 3-to-8 Decoder D1 D2 D3 D4 D5 D6 D7 X
A B C
I0 I1 I2
Fig. P4.2.21
(A) P(1, 2, 4, 5, 7) (C) S(0, 3, 6)

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Fig. P4.2.24-25
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24. The output X is (A) AB + BC + CA (C) ABC 25. The output Y is (A) A + B (C) C + A (B) B + C (D) None of the above (B) A + B + C (D) None of the above
28. Z 2 = ? (A) ab + bc + ca (C) abc 29. This circuit act as a (A) Full adder (C) Full subtractor (B) Half adder (D) Half subtractor (B) a + b + c (D) a u b u c
26. A logic circuit consist of two 2 4 decoder as shown in fig. P4.2.26.

x A0 D0 D1 D2 y A1 D3 A1 D0 D1 D2 z A0 D3 f
30. The network shown in fig. P4.2.30 implements

A 1 MUX f 1 0 S0
1 MUX 0
S0 C
Fig. P4.2.26
Fig. P4.2.30
The output of decoder are as follow D0 = 1 when A0 = 0, D1 = 1 when A0 = 1, D2 = 1 when A0 = 0, D3 = 1 when A0 = 1, The value of f ( x, y, z) is (A) 0 (C) z Statement for Q.27-29: A MUX network is shown in fig. P4.2.27-29. (A) ABC
c 1 MUX S0 Z1
A1 = 0 A1 = 0 A1 = 1 A1 = 1
(A) NOR gate (C) XOR gate
(B) NAND gate (D) XNOR gate
31. The MUX shown in fig. P4.2.31 is 4 1 multiplexer. The output Z is

C I3 I2 I1 I0 +5 V S 1 S0 A B MUX Z
(B) z (D) 1
Fig. P4.2.31
B) A B C
(C) A u B
uC
(D) A + B + C
32. The output of the 4 1 multiplexer shown in fig. P4.2.32 is
MUX Z0 S0 b c 1 S0 MUX
Y +5 V
I3 I2 I1 I0 S 1 S0 Y MUX Z
Z2
Fig. P4.2.27-29
Fig. P4.2.32
27. Z1 = ? (A) a + b + c (C) a u b u c

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Chap 4.2
33. The MUX shown in fig. P4.2.33 is a 4 1 multiplexer. The output Z is

C C I3 I2 I1 I0 S1 S0 A B MUX Z
36. The 4to1 multiplexer shown in fig. P4.2.36 implements the Boolean expression
I3 z 0 I2 I1 I0 S1 S0 w x MUX f
Fig. P4.2.33
(A) A C (C) B C 34. f = ?

0 1 1 0 1 I0 I1 MUX I2 I3 EN S 1 S0 w 0 1 0 1 1 x
(B) A
uC (D) B u C
Fig. P4.2.36
f ( w, x, y, z) = Sm( 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 12, 15) The input to I1 and I 3 will be (A) yz , y + z (C) y + z, y z (B) y + z, y u z (D) x + y , y z
37. The 8-to-1 multiplexer shown in fig. P4.2.37 realize

0 1 1 I0 I1 MUX I2 I3 EN S1 S0 y z
the following Boolean expression

f
1 z z 0 z 0 1 z
I0 I1 MUX I2 I3 EN S 1 S0 w x
I0 I1 I2 I3 I4 I5 I6 I7
MUX
EN S2 S1 S0 0 w x y
Fig. P4.2.34
Fig. P4.2.37
(A) wxyz + wx yz + xy + yz (B) wxyz + wxyz + x y + yz (C) wx yz + w x yz + yz + zx (D) wxyz + wxyz + gz + zx 35. For the logic circuit shown in fig. P4.2.35 the output Y is
(A) wxz + w x z + wyz + xy z (B) wxz + wyz + wyz + w x y (C) w x z + wy z + w yz + wxz (D) MUX is not enable Statement for Q.38-40: A PLA realization is shown in fig. P4.2.3840
x0
1 0 I 0 I1 I 2 I 3 I 4 I 5 I 6 I 7 C B A EN S2 S1 S0 MUX
x1 x2
Fig. P4.2.35
X X X X X
X X
f1 f2 f3
(A) A B (C) A B C
(B) A B (D) A B C
Fig. P.4.2.38-40
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38. f1 ( x2 , x1 , x0 ) = ? (A) x2 x0 + x1 x0 (C) x2 x0 39. f2 ( x2 , x1 , x0 ) = ? (A) Sm(1, 2, 5, 6) (C) Sm(2, 3, 4) 40. f3( x2 , x1 , x0 ) = ? (A) P M(0, 4, 6, 7) (C) P M(1, 2, 3, 5) (B) P M(2, 4, 5,7) (D) P M(2, 3, 4, 7) (B) Sm(1, 2, 6, 7) (D) None of the above (B) x2 x0 + x1 x2 (D) x2
The terms P1 , P2 , P3 , P4 and P5 are
ux
(A) ab, ac, bc, bc, ab (C) ac, ab, bc, ab , bc
(B) ab , bc, ac, ab , bc (D) Above all
43. The circuit shown in fig. P.4.2.43 has 4 boxes each described by input P , Q, R and output Y , Z with Y = P Q R and Z = RQ + PR + QP .
Q
P
P Q P Q P Q P Q
41. If the input X 3 X 2 X1 X 0 to the ROM in fig. P4.2.41 are 8421 BCD numbers, then output Y3Y2 Y1 Y0 are
X3 X2 X1 X0
Output
Fig. P4.2.43
BCD to Decimal Decoder D0 D1 D2 D3 D4 D5 D6 D7 D8 D9
The circuit act as a 4 bit (A) adder giving P + Q (B) subtractor giving P - Q (C) subtractor giving Q - P (D) adder giving P + Q + R 44. The circuit shown in fig. P4.2.44 converts
MSB
X X X X Y3 X X X X X X Y2 X X X X X X X X Y1 X Y0
Fig. P4.2.41
(A) 2421 BCD number (C) excess 3 code converter
(B) gray code number (D) none of the above

+ + +
42. It is desired to generate the following three Boolean function f1 = ab c + abc + bc f2 = ab c + ab + abc, f3 = ab c + abc + ac by using an OR gate array as shown in fig. P4.2.42 where P1 and P5 are the product terms in one or more of the variable a, a , b, b , c and c.
P1 P2 P3 P4 P5 F1 F2 MSB
Fig. P4.2.44
(A) BCD to binary code (B) Binary to excess (C) Excess3 to Gray Code (D) Gray to Binary code
X X X X X X
F3
*******
Fig. P4.2.42
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Chap 4.2
RS 00 00 PQ 01 11 10 1 1 1 1 01 11 1 1 1 1 1 10
16. (A) f = Sm(4, 7, 15), f1 = Sm(0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 15) f2 = Sm(4, 7, 15) + Sdc(5, 6, 12, 13, 14) There are 5 don't care condition. So 2 5 = 32 different functions f2 . 17. (A) f2 = Sm(4, 7, 15) + Sdc(5, 6, 12, 13, 14), f2 = x yz 00 01 0 0 11 0 1 1 0 10 0 0
Fig. S 4.2.13c
00 Z = R + S + PQ + P Q R + PQ S= R + S + PQP Q R PQ S = R + S + ( P + Q )( P + Q + R)( P + Q + S) = R + S + ( PQ + PR + Q P + Q R)( P + Q + S)

= R + S + PQ + PQS + PR + PRQ + PRS + Q PS + Q PR + Q RS
0 1 0
01 wx 11 10
Fig. S 4.2.17
RS 00 00 PQ 01 11 10 1 01 1 1 1 1 11 1 1 1 1 10 1 1 1 1
18. (B) m6 = ABCD , = ABCD = m9 , m6
m9 = ABCD m 9 = ABCD = m6
After complementing literal
19. (B) 0, 3, 6 and 9 are divisible by 3 D2 D1 00 01 11 1 1 1 10 00 D8 D4 01 11 10 1
Fig. S 4.2.13d
= R + S + PQ We can see that W = Z , X = Z 14. (D) ABD + BCD + BCD
Fig. S 4.2.19
CD 00 00 01 AB 11 10 1 1 1
Fig. S 4.2.14
01
11
10 1 1 1
f = D8 D1 + D4 D2 D1 + D4 D2 D1 + D8 D4 D2 D1 20. (B) f = Sm(0, 3, 6) = Sm(1, 2, 4, 5, 7) 21. (C) D = AB + AB, A 0 0 B 0 1 0 1 X = AB D 0 1 1 0 X 0 1 0 0
15. (A) f = x3 x2 x1 + x3 x2 x1 + x3 x2 x1 = x3 x2 x1 + x3 x2 g = x4 x3 x2 + x4 x3 x2 + x4 x3 x2 = x4 x3 x2 + x4 x3 fg = x4 x3 x2 x1 + x4 x3 x2 = x4 x3 x2 x1 + x4 x3 x2 x1 + x4 x3 x2 x1 h = Sm(3, 12, 13)

1 1
Fig. S 4.2.20
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22. (D) f1 = Sm(0, 2, 4, 6), f2 = Sm(1, 3, 5, 7), f1 f2 = 0 23. (D) Z = D( ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC) = D( AB ( C + C) + BC( A + A) + ABC ) = D( AB + BC + ABC ) = D( B ( A + AC ) + BC) = D( BA + BC + BC) = D( B
29. (A) The equation of Z1 is the equation of sum of A and B with carry and equation of 2 is the resultant carry. Thus, it is a full adder. 30. (B) f1 = CD + CB = CB , = C + B + A = ABC 31. (D) Z = ABC + AB + AB + AB = A ( BC + B) + A( B + B) = A ( B + C) + A = A + B + C S = F1
f = f 1 + f1 A = CB + CBA = CB + A
u C + AB )
X = AB + BC + CA Y =C
24. (A) X = Sm(3, 5, 6, 7), 25. (D) Y = Sm(1, 3, 5, 7),
32. (A) Z = XY + XY + XY , BC 00 A 00 01 1 01 11 1 1 1 10
Z=X +Y
33. (A) Z = ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC = AC + AC = A C 34. (A) The output from the upper first level multiplexer is fa and from the lower first level multiplexer is fb fa = wx + wx, fb = wx + wx = x f = fa yz + fb yz + yz = ( wx + wx) yz + xyz + yz = wxyz + wx yz + xy + yz
Fig. S4.2.24
26. (D) D0 = A1 A0 , D1 = A1 A0 ,
D2 = A1 A0 , BC
00 00 A 01
01 1 1
11 1 1
10
35. (D) Output is 1 when even parity BA 00 00 1 1 C 01 11 1 1 10
Fig. S4.2.25
01
D3 = A1 A0 For first decoder A0 = x , A1 = y, D2 = yx , D3 = xy For second decoder A1 = D2 D3 = yxxy = 0, f = D0 + D1 = A1 A0 + A1 A0 = A1 = 1 27. (D) The output of first MUX is Z o = ab + ab = ( a b) This is input to select S0 of both second-level MUX Z1 = CS0 + CS0 = C S0 = a b c 28. (A) Z 2 = bS0 + cS0 = b( ab + ab ) + c( ab + ab ) = ab + ab c + abc = a( b + b c) + abc = ab + ac + abc = ab + ac + bc
Fig. S 4.2.36 Fig. S4.2.35
A0 = z
Therefore Y = A B C 36. (B) I1 = y + z , yz 00 00 S1 S0 bb wx 01 11 10 0 1 1 1 01 0 1 0 0 11 0 1 1 0 10 0 0 0 1 I0 = 0 I1 = y + z I 3 = yz + yz = y u z I2 = z I3 = y z
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Chap 4.2
37. (C) Let z = 0, Then f = w x y + w xy + wx y + wxy = w x + w y If we put z = 0 in given option then (A) = w x + xy (B) = wy + w x y (C) = w x + wy Since MUX is enable so option (C) is correct. 38. (C) f = x0 x2 + x0 x1 x2 + x0 x2 = x0 x2 (1 + x1 ) + x0 x2 = x0 x2 + x0 x2 39. (B) f2 = x0 x1 + x1 x2 + x0 x1 x2 = x0 x1 x2 + x0 x1 x2 + x1 x2 x0 + x1 x2 x0 + x0 x1 x2 = x2 x1 x0 + x2 x1 x0 + x2 x1 x0 + x2 x1 x0 f2 ( x2 , x1 , x0 ) = Sm(1, 2, 6, 7) 40. (C) f3 = x0 x1 + x1 x2 = x2 x1 x0 + x2 x1 x0 + x2 x1 x0 + x2 x1 x0 f3( x2 , x1 , x0 ) = Sm(0, 4, 6, 7) f3( x2 , x1 , x0 ) = PM(1, 2, 3, 5) 41. (A) Let X 3 X 2 X1 X 0 be 1001 then Y3Y2 Y1 Y0 will be 1111. Let X 3 X 2 X1 X 0 be 1000 then Y3Y2 Y1 Y0 will be 1110 Let X 3 X 2 X1 X 0 be 0110 then Y3Y2 Y1 Y0 will be 1100 bc 00 00 a 01 1 01 11 1 1 10 1
42. (A) f1 = ab c + abc + bc = ac + ab f2 = ab c + ab + abc = ac + b c f3 = ab c + abc + ac = ab + bc Thus P1 = ab, P2 = ac, P3 = bc, P4 = bc, P5 = ab
43. (B) Let P = 1001 and Q = 1010 then Yn = Pn Qn Rn , Z n = Rn Qn + Pn Rn + Qn Pn P = 1101 and Q = 0110
output is 1111 which is 2s complement of 1. So it gives P - Q . Let another example So (B) is correct. Pn n =1 n =2 n=3 n=4 1 0 0 1 Qn 0 1 0 1 Rn 0 0 1 1 Zn 0 1 1 1 Yn 1 1 1 1 1
Fig. S4.2.43a
then output is 00111. It gives PQ.
Pn n =1 n =2 n=3 n=4 1 0 1 1
Qn 0 1 1 0
Rn 0 0 1 1
Zn 0 1 1 0
Yn 1 1 1 0 0
Fig. S4.2.42a
Fig. S4.2.43b
bc 00 00 a 01 1
Fig. S4.2.42b
44. (D) Let input be 11 10 1 1 1 output will be Let input be
1010 1101 0110
01
output will be 0100 This convert gray to Binary code.
bc 00 00 a 01
Fig. S4.2.42b
01 1
11 1 1
10
*******
So this converts 2421 BCD numbers.

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Sequential Logic Circuits
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Chap 4.3
D1
Q1
D2
Q2
13. The counter shown in fig. P4.3.13 counts from

C J B J A J
(B)
X Q1 Q2
C CLR K
B CLR K
A CLR K
D1
Q1
D2
Q2
(C)
X Q1 Q2
A B C
Fig.P4.3.13
(A) 0 0 0 to 1 1 1
1 D1 Q1 1 D2 Q2 Y
(B) 1 1 1 to 0 0 0 (D) 0 0 0 to 1 0 0
(C) 1 0 0 to 0 0 0
(D)
X Q1 Q2
14. The mod-number of the asynchronous counter shown in fig. P4.2.13 is

J Q0 J Q1 J Q2 J Q3 J Q4
11. The circuit shown in fig. P4.3.11 is

K CLR K CLR K CLR K CLR K CLR
T CLK A
Q CLK Q
T B
Q
All J.K. input are HIGH
Fig.P4.3.14
Fig.P4.3.11
(A) 24 (A) a MOD2 counter (B) a MOD3 counter (C) generate sequence 00, 10, 01, 00..... (D) generate sequence 00, 10, 00, 10, 00 ...... 12. The counter shown in fig. P4.3.12 is a (C) 25
(B) 48 (D) 36
15. The frequency of the pulse at z in the network shown in fig. P4.3.15. is
160 kHZ
10-Bit Ring Counter
w 4-Bit Parallel
Counter
Mod-25 Ripple Counter
4-Bit Johnson Counter
Fig.P4.3.15
(A) 10 Hz (C) 40 Hz
Q C Q K Q J Q B K Q J Q A K 1 CLK J 1
(B) 160 Hz (D) 5 Hz
16. The three-stage Johnson counter as shown in fig. P4.2.16 is clocked at a constant frequency of fc from the starting state of Q2Q1Q0 = 101. The frequency of output Q2Q1Q0 will be
Q1 Q0
Fig.P4.3.12
(A) MOD8 up counter (B) MOD8 down counter (C) MOD6 up counter (D) MOD6 down counter
J2
Q2
J1
J0
K2 CLK
Q2
K1
Q1
K0
Q0
Fig.P4.3.16
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(A)
fc 8
(B)
fc 6
21. In the circuit shown in fig. P4.3.21 is PIPO 4-bit register, which loads at the rising edge of the clock. The input lines are connected to a 4 bit bus. Its output acts as the input to a 16 4 ROM whose output is floating when the enable input E is 0. A partial table of the contents of the ROM is as follows
Address Data
f (C) c 3
f (D) c 2
17. The counter shown in the fig. P4.3.17 has initially Q2Q1Q0 = 000. The status of Q2Q1Q0 after the first pulse is
0
0011
2
1111
4
0100
6
1010
8
1011
10
1000
12
0010
J2
Q2
J1
Q1
J0
Q0
The clock to the register is shown below, and the data on the bus at time t1 is 0110.
K2 CLK
Q2
K1
Q1
K0
Q0
MSB
Fig.P4.3.17
(A) 0 0 1 (C) 1 0 0
(B) 0 1 0 (D) 1 0 1
CLK
18. A 4 bit ripple counter and a 4 bit synchronous counter are made by flips flops having a propagation delay of 10 ns each. If the worst case delay in the ripple counter and the synchronous counter be R and S respectively, then (A) R = 10 ns, S = 40 ns (C) R = 10 ns, S = 30 ns (B) R = 40 ns, S = 10 ns (D) R = 30 ns, S = 10 ns
1 E ROM
19. A 4 bit modulo6 ripple counter uses JK flip-flop. If the propagation delay of each FF is 50 ns, the maximum clock frequency that can be used is equal to (A) 5 MHz (C) 4 MHz (B) 10 MHz (D) 20 Mhz
CLK t1 t2 t
Fig. P4.3.21
20. The initial contents of the 4-bit serial-in-parallel-out right-shift, register shown in fig. P4.3.20 is 0 1 1 0. After three clock pulses are applied, the contents of the shift register will be
CLK 0 1 1 0
The data on the bus at time t2 is (A) 1 1 1 1 (C) 1 0 0 0 (B) 1 0 1 1 (D) 0 0 1 0
22. A 4-bit right shift register is initialized to value 1000 for (Q3 , Q2 , Q1 , Q0 ). The D input is derived from Q0 , Q2 and Q3 through two XOR gates as shown in fig. P4.2.22. The pattern 1000 will appear at
Fig.P4.3.20
(A) 0 0 0 0 (C) 1 1 1 1
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Q0
Q1
Q2
Q3
Fig.P4.3.22
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Chap 4.3
(A) 3rd pulse (C) 6th pulse Statement for Q.2324:
(B) 7th pulse (D) 4th pulse
28. To count from 0 to 1024 the number of required flip-flop is (A) 10 (C) 12 (B) 11 (D) 13
The 8-bit left shift register and D-flip-flop shown in fig. P4.3.2223 is synchronized with same clock. The
b7 b 6 b 5 b4 b 3 b 2 b 1 b0
29. Four memory chips of 16 4 size have their address buses connected together. This system will be of size (A) 64 4 (C) 16 16 (B) 32 8 (D) 256 1
D CLK
30. The address bus width of a memory of size 1024 8 bits is

Q
(A) 10 bits (C) 8 bits
(B) 13 bits (D) 18 bits
Fig.P4.3.23-24
D flip-flop is initially cleared. 23. The circuit act as (A) Binary to 2s complement converter (B) Binary to Gray code converter (C) Binary to 1s complement converter (D) Binary to Excess3 code converter 24. If initially register contains byte B7, then after 4 clock pulse contents of register will be (A) 73 (C) 7E Statement for Q.2526: A Mealy system produces a 1 output if the input has been 0 for at least two consecutive clocks followed immediately by two or more consecutive 1s. 25. The minimum state for this system is (A) 4 (C) 8 (B) 5 (D) 9 (B) 72 (D) 74
31. For the circuit of Fig. P4.3.31 consider the statement: Assertion (A) : The circuit is sequential Reason (R) : There is a loop in circuit
d a b c z0 b e
z1
Fig.P4.3.131
Choose correct option (A) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A (B) Both A and R true but R is not a correct explanation on of A (C) A is true but R is false (D) A is false
*****************
26. The flip-flop required to implement this system are (A) 2 (C) 4 (B) 3 (D) 5
27. The output of a Mealy system is 1 if there has been a pattern of 11000, otherwise 0. The minimum state for this system is (A) 4 (C) 6
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SOLUTIONS
1. (C) Given FF is a negative edge triggered T flip-flop. So at the negative edge of clock Vi FF will invert the output if there is 1 at input. 2. (A) At first rising edge of clock, D is HIGH. So Q will be high till 2nd rising edge of clock. At 2nd rising edge, D is low so Q will be LOW till 3rd rising edge of clock. At 3rd rising edge, D is HIGH, so Q will be HIGH till 4th rising edge. At 4th rising edge D is HIGH so Q will be HIGH till 5th rising. edge. At 5th rising edge, D is LOW, so Q will be LOW till 6th rising edge. 3. (C) x 0 0 1 1 Q 0 1 0 1 S 0 1 1 0
Fig. S4.3.3
6. (D) Q + = LM + LMQ = L( M + MQ ) = L M + LQ L 0 0 1 1 M 0 1 0 1
Fig. S4.3.6
Q+ 0 0 1 Q1
7. (D) Initially J K 1 Q 0 0 1 0 1 0 Q 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 Qn + 1 Qn +1
R 1 0 0 1
Q+ 0 1 1 0
Clock 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th
1 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1
Fig. S4.3.7
4. (D) Q + = x Q Q1+ = x1 Q0 = x1 0 + x1 0 = x1
+ Q2 = x2 x1 , + Q3 = x3 x2 x1 + Q4 = x4 x3 x2 x1
Therefore sequence is 010101. 8. (A) A 1 1 B 1 0 X 0 0 Y 1 1
So this generate the even parity and check odd parity. 5. (C) A 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 B 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 S 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 R 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 Q 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 Q+ 1 1 0 0 0 1
X and Y are fixed at 0 and 1. 9. (D) Z = XQ + YQ X 0 0 1 1 Y 0 1 0 1

Fig. S4.3.9
Z Q 0 1 Q1
Comparing from the truth table of JK FF Y = J, X = K
Fig. S4.3.5
Q + = AB + AQ = AB + BQ
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Chap 4.3
10. (C)
t2
14. (A) It is a 5 bit ripple counter. At 11000 the output of NAND gate is LOW. This will clear all FF. So it is a
t0 Q1 0 1 t1 t3
Mod24 counter. Note that when 11000 occur, the CLR input is activated and all FF are immediately cleared. So it is a MOD 24 counter not MOD 25. 15. (D) 10-bit ring counter is a MOD10, so it divides the 160 kHz input by 10. therefore, w = 16 kHz. The
D2=Q1 Q2 t0 t1
four-bit parallel counter is a MOD16. Thus, the frequency at x = 1 kHz. The MOD25 ripple counter produces a frequency at y = 40 Hz. (1 kHz/25 = 40 Hz). The four-bit Johnson Counter is a MOD-8. This, the FF Input TA TB 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 Next State
+ Q+ A QB
Fig.S4.3.10
11. (B) Present State Q A QB 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1
frequency at z = 5 Hz. 16. (D) Q0 Q0 J2 K2 Q2 Q2 J1 K 1 Q1 Q1 J0 K0

+ + Q2 Q1+ Q0
0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1
Fig. S4.3.16
0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0
0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
Fig. S4.3.11
From table it is clear that it is a MOD3 counter. 12. (B) It is a down counter because 0 state of previous FFs change the state of next FF. You may trace the following sequence, let initial state be 0 0 0 FF C JK C 111 000 000 000 111 001 001 000 FF B JK B 111 000 110 001 111 000 110 001 FF A JK A 111 110 111 110 111 110 111 110 C+ B+ A+ 111 110 101 100 011 010 001 000
1 0 0 1 1 0
We see that 1 0 1 repeat after every two cycles, hence frequency will be fc / 2 . 17. (C) At first cycle J 2K 2 = 1 0 J1 K 1 = 0 0 J 0K 0 = 0 0 Q2 = 1, Q1 = 1, Q0 = 0
18. (B) In ripple counter delay 4Td = 40 ns. The synchronous counter are clocked simultaneously, then its worst delay will be equal to 10 ns. 19. (A) 4 bit uses 4 FF Total delay Ntd = 4 50 ns = 200 10 -9 1 f = = 5 Mhz 200 10 -9 20. (D) At pulse 1 input, So contents are 1 0 1 1, At pules 2 input 1 1 = 0 So contents are 0 1 0 1,
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Fig. S4.3.12
13. (C) It is a down counter because the inverted FF output drive the clock inputs. The NAND gate will clear FFs A and B when the count tries to recycle to 111. This will produce as result of 100. Thus the counting sequence will be 100, 011, 010, 001, 000, 100 etc.
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1 0 =1
At pules 3 input 0 1 = 1, contents are 1 0 1 0
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CHAPTER
4.4
DIGITAL LOGIC FAMILIES
Statement for Q.12: Consider the DL circuit of fig. P4.4.12.
+5 V
+5 V A B C Z
4. In the circuit shown in fig. P.4.4.4. the output Z is

+5 V +5 V
+ + V2 + Vo -
V1
Fig. P4.4.4
(A) AB + C (C) ABC Statement for Q.57:
(B) ABC (D) ABC
Fig. P4.4.1-2
1. For positive logic the circuit is a (A) AND (C) NAND (B) OR (D) NOR
Consider the AND circuit shown in fig. P4.4.57. The binary input levels are V (0) = 0 V and V (1) = 25 V. Assume ideal diodes. If V1 = V (0) and V2 = V (1), then Vo is to be at 5 V. However, if V1 = V2 = V (1), then Vo is to rise above 5 V.
Vss 20 kW V1 V2 1 kW D2 +5 V D0 1 kW D1 Vo
2. For negative logic the circuit is a (A) AND (C) NAND (B) OR (D) NOR
3. The diode logic circuit of fig. P4.4.3 is a

D2 V1 V2 D1 Vo
Fig. P4.4.5-7 Fig. P4.4.3
5. If Vss = 20 V
and V1 = V2 = V (1), the diode current (B) 1 mA, 1 mA, 5 mA (D) 0, 0, 0
I D1 , I D2 , and I D0 are (A) AND (C) NAND

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(B) OR (D) NOR
(A) 1 mA, 1 mA, 4 mA (C) 5 mA, 5mA, 1 mA

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6. If Vss = 40 V and both input are at HIGH level then, diode current I D1 , I D2 and I D0 are respectively (A) 0.4 mA, 0.4 mA, 0 (C) 0.4 mA, 0.4 mA, 1 mA (B) 0, 0, 1 mA (D) 0, 0, 0
RB1 V1 Q1 V2
+VCC RC Vo RB2 Q2
7. The maximum value of Vss which may be used is (A) 30 V (C) 125 V (B) 25 V (D) 20 V
Fig. P4.4.10-11
10. For positive logic the gate is (A) AND (C) NAND (B) OR (D) NOR
8. The ideal inverter in fig. P4.4.8 has a reference voltage of 2.5 V. The forward voltage of the diode is 0.75 V. The maximum number of diode logic circuit, that may be cascaded ahead of the inverter without producing logic error, is
+5 V +5 V +5 V
11. For negative logic the gate is (A) AND (C) NAND Statement for Q.1213: (B) OR (D) NOR
+5 V A B C D Z
Consider the RTL circuit of fig. P4.4.1213.

+VCC RC RB1 V1 Q1 V2 Q2 Q3 RB2
Vo1 RB3
Vo2
n Stages of Diode Logic
Fig. P4.4.8
(A) 3 (C) 5
(B) 4 (D) 9
Fig. P4.4.12-13
9. Consider the TTL circuit in fig. P4.4.9. The value of V H and VL are respectively
+5 V
12. If Vo1 is taken as the output, then circuit is a (A) AND (C) NAND (B) OR (D) NOR
13. If Vo2 is taken as output, then circuit is a

4 kW 2 kW Vo Vi
(A) AND (C) NAND Statement for Q.1415:
(B) OR (D) NOR
Fig. P4.4.9
Consider the TTL circuit of fig. P4.4.14. If either or both V1 and V2 are logic LOW, Q1
+VCC
(A) 5 V, 0 V (C) 4.8 V, 0.2 V Statement Q.1011:
(B) 4.8 V, 0 V (D) 5 V, 0.2 V
is driven to
saturation.
R1 R3 V1 V2 Q1 Vo1
R2 Vo2 Q2
Consider the resistor transistor logic gate of fig. P4.4.10-11.
Fig. P4.4.14-15
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22. The circuit shown in fig. P4.4.22 is

+VDD
25. The circuit shown in fig. P4.4.25. implements the function

+VDD
Y A M2 M1
D Y
Fig. P4.4.22
(A) NAND (C) AND
(B) NOR (D) OR (A) ( A + B) C + D (C) ( A + B) C + D
Fig. P4.4.25
23. The circuit shown in fig. P4.4.23 acts as a

+VDD M3 Y A M1 M2 B
(B) ( AB + C) D (D) ( AB + C) D
26. Consider the CMOS circuit shown in fig. P4.4.26. The output Y is
+VDD
Fig. P4.4.23
B
(A) NAND (C) AND
(B) NOR
C
(D) OR
A B
24. The circuit shown in fig. P4.4.24 implements the function

+VDD A B C C Y A A +VDD
Fig. P4.4.26
(A) ( A + C) B (C) AB + C
(B) ( A + B) C (D) AB + C
27. The CMOS circuit shown in fig. P4.4.27 implement

+5 V Logic Input A to E PMOS Network Y
A
C C
Fig. P4.4.24
E
(A) ABC + ABC (C) ABC + ( A + B + C)
(B ABC + ( A + B + C) (D) None of the above

Fig. P4.4.27
(A) AB + CD + E (C) AB + CD + E
(B) ( A + B)( C + D) E (D) ( A + B)( C + D) E

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V1 Actual VH VL VH VL Logic 1 0 1 0 Actual VH VL VL VH
V2 Logic 1 0 0 1 Actual VCE ( sat ) VCE VCE ( sat ) VCE ( sat )
Vo Logic 0 1 0 0
For n attached gate I o = nI B ( sat ) . To assure no logic error Vo = VCC - I o RC > V H = 35 . V V - 35 . 5 - 35 . n CC = = 15.6 n 15 RC I B ( sat ) 640(0.15m) 19. (A) Let V1 = V2 = 0 V, then M 3 will be ON, M1 and M 2 OFF and M 4 ON, hence Vo = -VDD . Let V1 = 0 V and V2 = -VDD then M 3 will be ON, M1 OFF M 4 OFF, M 2 ON, hence Vo = -VDD. Let V1 = -VDD and V2 = 0 V, then M 3 OFF, M 4 ON, M 2 OFF hence Vo = -VDD. Finally if V1 = V2 = -VDD, M 3 and M 4 will be OFF and M1 , M 2 will be ON, hence Vo = 0 V. Thus the given CMOS gate satisfies the function of a negative NAND gate. 20. (C) If V A = -VDD then M1 is ON and VY = 0 V. If
13. (B) The Q3 stage is simply an inverter (a NOT gate). Thus output Vo2 is the logic complement of Vo1 . Therefore this is a OR gate. 14. (A) When Q1 shows AND logic V1 1 0 1 0 V2 1 1 0 0 Vo1 1 0 0 0 is saturated, Vo1 is logic LOW
otherwise Vo1 is logic HIGH. The following truth table
VB = VC = -VDD and V A = 0 V then M 3 and M 2 are ON but M1 is OFF hence VY = 0 V. If V A = 0 V and either or both VB , VC are 0 V then M1 is OFF and either or both M2 and M 3 will be OFF, which implies no current hence VY = -VDD . Thus given flowing through M 4
circuit satisfies the logic equation A + BC . 21. (A) Let V1 = V2 = 0 V = V (0) then M 4 and M 3 will be
15. (C) The Q2 stage is simply an inverter. Thus output Vo2 is the logic complement of Vo1 . 16. (C) If V1 = V2 VL , Vo1 VCC . If V1 ( V2 ) > V H , while V2 ( V1 ) VL , Q1 (Q2 ) is ON and Q2 (Q1 ) is OFF and Vo1 VCC . If V1 = V2 > V H , both Q1 and Q2 are ON and Vo1 2 VCE ( sat ) . The truth table shows NAND logic V1 Actual VL VH VL VH Logic 0 1 0 1 Actual VL VL VH VH V2 Logic 0 0 1 1 Actual VCC VCC VCC 2VCE ( sat ) Vo Logic 1 1 1 0
ON and M 2 , M1 and M1 will be
OFF hence Vo = VDD = V (1). Let OFF hence Vo = 0 = V (0). Let
V1 = 0 V, V2 = VDD then M 4 and M 2 will be ON but M 3 V1 = VDD , V2 = 0 V , then M 4 and M 3 will be OFF and M1 ON hence Vo = 0 V = V (0). Finally if V1 = V2 = VDD , M1 and M 2 will be ON but M 4 will be OFF hence Vo = 0 V = V (0). Thus the given CMOS satisfy the function of a positive NOR gate. 22. (A) If either one or both the inputs are V (0) = 0 V the corresponding FET will be OFF, the voltage across the load FET will be 0 V, hence the output is VDD . If boths inputs are V (1) = VDD , both M1 and M 2 are ON and the output is V (0) = 0 V. It satisfy NAND gate. 23. (B) If both the inputs are at V (0) = 0 V, transistor M1 the
17. (A) The Q3 stage is simple an inverter. Hence AND logic. 18. (C) For each successive gate, that has a transistor in saturation, the current required is I B ( sat ) =
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and M 2 are OFF, hence the output is
V (1) = VDD . If either one or both of the inputs are at V (1) = VDD , the corresponding FET will be ON and the output will be V (0) = 0 V. Hence it is a NOR gate.
I C ( sat ) VCC - VCE ( sat ) 5 - 0. 2 = = = 0.15 mA b bRC 50( 640)

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24. (B) If all inputs A, B and C are HIGH, then input to invertor is LOW and output Y is HIGH. If all inputs are LOW, then input to inverter is also LOW and output Y is HIGH. In all other case the input to inverter is HIGH and output Y is LOW. Hence Y = ABC + ABC = ABC + ( A + B + C)
30. (A) When an output is LOW, it may be as high as VOL ( max ) = 0.4 V. The maximum voltage that an input will respond to as a LOW is V IL ( max ) = 0.8 V. A positive noise spike can drive the actual voltage above the 0.8 V level if its amplitude is greater than V NL = V IL ( max ) - VOL ( max ) = 0.8 - 0.4 = 0.4 V 31. (B) A positive noise spike can drive the voltage above 1.0 V level if the amplitude is greater than
25. (C) The operation of circuit is given below

ABCD PA PB PC PD NA NB NC ND Y LOW HIGH HIGH LOW LOW LOW
V NL = V IL ( max ) - VOL ( max ) = 1 - 0.1 = 0.9 V, A negative noise spike can drive the voltage below 3.5 V if the amplitude is greater than V NH = VOH ( min ) - V IH ( min ) = 4.9 - 35 . = 1.4 V 32. (B) V IH ( min ) = VOH ( min ) - V NH = - 0.8 - 0.5 = - 1.3 V V IL ( max ) = VOL ( max ) + V NL = 0.5 + ( -2) = -15 . V 33. (C) V NH = VOH ( min ) - V IH ( min ) , V NL = V IL ( max ) - VOL ( max ) V NH = 2.7 (for LS) -2.0 (for ALS) = 0.7 V V NL = 0.8 (for ALS) -0.5 (for LS) = 0.3 V 34. (B) V NH = 2.5 (for ALS) - 2.0 (for LS) = 0.5 V
1
0 0 0010 0110 1010 1110
OFF
ON ON
ON
OFF OFF
ON ON OFF ON ON OFF OFF ON OFF ON OFF ON OFF OFF OFF ON
OFF OFF ON OFF OFF ON ON OFF ON OFF ON OFF ON ON ON OFF
Y = ( A + B)C + D
26. (B) The operation of this circuit is given below : A B C 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 PA PB PC ON N A NB NC ON OFF Y HIGH HIGH LOW LOW
V NL = 0.8 (for LS) - 0.4 (for ALS) = 0.4 V 35. (D) V NH ( min ) = 0.5 V , 36. (B) fanout (LOW) = fanout (HIGH) = V NL ( min ) = 0.3 V I OL ( max ) 8m = = 80 I IL ( max ) 0.1m
ON ON OFF OFF OFF OFF
OFF OFF ON ON ON ON
OFF
Y = ( A + B) C 27. (B) If input E is LOW, output will not be LOW. It must be HIGH. Option (B) satisfy this condition. 28. (A) In this circuit parallel combination are OR gate and series combination are AND gate. Hence Y = ( A + B)( C + D)( E + F ) 29. (A) When an output is HIGH, it may be as low as VOH ( min ) = 2.4 V. The minimum voltage that an input will respond to as a HIGH is V IH ( min ) = 2.0 V. A negative noise spike that can drive the actual voltage below 2.0 V if its amplitude is greater than V NH = VOH ( min ) - V IH ( min ) = 2.4 - 2.0 = 0.4 V
I OH ( max ) 400m = = 20 I IH ( max ) 20m
The fanout is chosen the smaller of the two. 37. (B) In HIGH state the loading on the output of gate 1 is equivalent to six 74LS input load. Hence load = 6 I IH = 6 20m = 120 m A 38. (C) The NAND gate represent only a single input load in the LOW state. Hence only five loads in the LOW state. load = 5 I IL = 5 0.4 = 2 mA
*******
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CHAPTER
4.6
MICROPROCESSOR
1. After an arithmetic operation, the flag register of 8085 m P has the following contents D7 1 D6 0 D5 D4 1 D3 D2 0 D1 D0 1
HLT DSPLY : XRA OUT HLT
A PORT1
The output at PORT1 is (A) 00 (C) 01H (B) FEH (D) 11H
The contents of accumulator after operation may be (A) 75 (C) DB (B) 6C (D) B6 5. Consider the following 8085 assembly program
MVI A, DATA1 MOV B, A SUI 51H JC DLT MOV A, B SUI 82H JC DSPLY DLT : XRA A OUT PORT1 HLT DSPLY : MOV A, B OUT PORT2 HLT
2. In an 8085 microprocessor, the instruction CMP B has been executed while the contents of accumulator is less than that of register B. As a result carry flag and zero flag will be respectively (A) set, reset (C) reset, reset (B) reset, set (D) set, set
3. Consider the following 8085 instruction

MVI MVI ADD ORA A, A9H B, 57H B A
This program will display (A) the bytes from 51H to 82H at PORT2 (B) 00H AT PORT1 (C) all byte at PORT1 (D) the bytes from 52H to 81H at PORT 2 (B) (0, 1, 0) (D) (1, 0, 1) 6. It is desired to mask is the high order bits ( D7 - D4 ) of the data bytes in register C. Consider the following set of instruction
(a) MOV ANI MOV HLT A, C F0H C, A
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The flag status (S, Z, CY) after the instruction ORA A is executed, is (A) (0, 1, 1) (C) (1, 0, 0)
4. Consider the following set of 8085 instructions

MVI ADI JC OUT A, 8EH 73H DSPLY PORT1
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(b)
MOV MVI ANA MOV HLT MOV MVI ANA MOV HLT MOV ANI MOV HLT
A, C B, F0H B C, A A, C B, 0FH B C, A A, C 0FH C, A
(C) 8529H are complemented and stored at location 529H (D) 5829H are complemented and stored at location 85892H 10. Consider the sequence of 8085 instruction
MVI ADI MOV HLT A, 5EH A2H C, A
(c)
(d)
The initial contents of resistor and flag are as follows
The instruction set, which execute the desired operation are (A) a and b (C) only a (B) c and d (D) only d
A C S 0 Z 0 CY 0
After execution of the instructions the contents of register and flags are
A (A) 10H (B) 10H (C) 00H (D) 00H C 10H 10H 00H 00H S 0 1 1 0 Z 0 0 1 1 CY 1 0 0 1
7. Consider the following 8085 instruction

XRA MVI SUI ANA HLT A B, 4AH 4FH B
The contents of register A and B are respectively (A) 05, 4A (C) B1, 4A (B) 4F, 00 (D) None of the above
11. It is desired to multiply the number 0AH by 0BH and store the result in the accumulator. The numbers are available in register B and C respectively. A part of the 8085 program for this purpose is given below :
A, 00H MVI LOOP : ----------------------------------------------------------------------HLT END
8. Consider the following 8085 assembly program :

MVI MOV MOV MVI OUT HLT B, 89H A, B C, A D, 37H PORT1
The output at PORT1 is (A) 89 (C) 00 (B) 37 (D) None of the above
The sequence of instruction to complete the program would be
9. Consider the sequence of 8085 instruction given below

LXI MOV CMA MOV H, 9258H A, M M, A
(A)
JNZ ADD DCR ADD JNZ DCR DCR JNZ ADD ADD DCR JNZ
LOOP B C B LOOP C C LOOP B B C LOOP

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(B)
By this sequence of instruction the contents of memory location (A) 9258H are moved to the accumulator (B) 9258H are compared with the contents of the accumulator
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(D)
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12. Consider the following assembly language program:

MVI MOV START : JMP MVI XRA OUT HLT NEXT : XRA JP OUT HLT B, 87H A, B NEXT B, 00H B PORT1 B START1 PORT2
(A) A7H (C) 47H
(B) 98H (D) None of the above
15. The memory requirement for this program is (A) 20 Byte (C) 23 Byte (B) 21 Byte (D) 18 Byte
16. The instruction, that does not clear the accumulator of 8085, is (A) XRA A (C) MVI A, 00H (B) ANI 00H (D) None of the above
The execution of the above program in an 8085 will result in (A) an output of 87H at PORT1 (B) an output of 87H at PORT2 (C) infinite looping of the program execution with accumulator data remaining at 00H (D) infinite looping of the program execution with accumulator data alternating between 00H and 87H. 13. Consider the following 8085 program
MVI ORA JM OUT CMA DSPLY : ADI OUT HLT A, DATA1 A, DSPLY PORT1 01H PORT1
17. The contents of some memory location of an 8085 m P based system are shown Address Hex. 3000 3001 3002 3003 Contents (Hex.) 02 30 00 30
Fig. P4.6.17
The program is as follows (B) 58H (D) None of the above

LHLD MOV INX MOV LDAX MOV INX LDAX MOV 3000H E, M H D, M D L, A D D H, A
If DATA1 = A7H, the output at PORT1 is (A) 47H (C) 00 Statement for Q.1415: Consider the following program of 8085 assembly language:
LXI LDA MOV LDA CMP JZ JC MOV JMP MOV FNSH : HLT H 4A02H 4A00H B, A 4A01H B FNSH GRT M, A FNSH M, B
The contents if HL pair after the execution of the program will be (A) 0030 H (C) 3002 H (B) 3000 H (D) 0230H
18. Consider the following loop

XRA LXI LOOP : DCX JNZ A B, 0007H B LOOP
14. If the contents of memory location 4A00H, 4A01H and 4A02H, are respectively A7H, 98H and 47H, then after the execution of program contents of memory location 4A02H will be respectively
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This loop will be executed (A) 1 times (C) 7 times (B) 8 times (D) infinite times
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19. Consider the following loop

LXI LOOP : DCX MOV ORA JNZ H, 000AH B A, B C LOOP
24. Consider the following program

MVI RRC RRC A, BYTE1
If BYTE1 = 32H, the contents of A after the execution of program will be (A) 08H (C) 12H (B) 8CH (D) None of the above
This loop will be executed (A) 1 time (C) 11 times (B) 10 times (D) infinite times
25. Consider the following program

MVI MVI MVI CMP JC CMP JNC OUT HLT SUB A OUT HLT A, DATA B, 64H C, C8H B RJCT C RJCT PORT1
20. The contents of accumulator after the execution of following instruction will be
MVI ORA RLC A, A7H A
(A) CFH (C) 4EH
(B) 4FH (D) CEH

RJCT :
PORT1
21. The contents of accumulator after the execution of following instructions will be
MVI ORA RAL A, B7H A
If the following sequence of byte is loaded in accumulator, DATA (H) 58 64 73 B4 C8 FA
(A) 6EH (C) EEH
(B) 6FH (D) EFH
then sequence of output will be (A) 00, 00, 73, B4, 00, FA (B) 58, 64, 00, 00, C8, FA (C) 58, 00, 00, 00, C8, FA (D) 00, 64, 73, B4, 00, FA 26. Consider the following instruction to be executed by a 8085 m p. The input port has an address of 01H and
22. The contents of the accumulator after the execution of the following program will be
MVI ORA RAL A, C5H A
(A) 45H (C) C4H
(B) C5H (D) None of the above
has a data 05H to input:

IN ANI 01H 80H
23. Consider the following set of instruction

MVI RLC MOV RLC RLC ADD A, BYTE1 B, A
After execution of the two instruction the contents of flag register are (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0
If BYTE1 = 07H, then content of A, after the execution of program will be (A) 46H (C) 38H
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ORA JM OUT DSPLY : CMA ADI OUT HLT
A DSPLY PORT1 01H PORT1
;Set flag ;If negative jump to ;DSPLY ;A PORT1 ;Complement A ;A+1 A ;A PORT1
18. (A) The instruction XRA will set the Z flag. LXI and DCX does not alter the flag. Hence this loop will be executed 1 times.
19. (B) LXI LOOP : DCX MOV ORA JNZ B, 000AH B A, B C LOOP ;00 C, 0AH B ; CB 1 B, ;flag not affected ;B A ;A OR C A, set flag
This program displays the absolute value of DATA1. If DATA1 is negative, it determine the 2s complements and display at PORT1.
14. (A) LXI LDA MOV LDA CMA JZ JC MOV JMP GRT : MOV FNSH : HLT H, 4A02H 4A00H B, A 4A01H B FNSH GRT M, A FNSH M, B ;Store destination address ;in HL pair ;Load A with contents of ;memory location A00H ;A B ;Load A with contents of ;memory location 4A01H ;Compare A and B ;Jump to FNSH if two ;number are equal ;If CY = 1, (A <B) jump ;to GRT ;Otherwise A (4A02H) 20. (B)
Hence this loop will be executed 0AH or ten times.

MVI ORA RLC A, B7H A ;B7H A ;Set Flags, CY = 1 ;Rotate accumulator left
The contents of bit D7 are placed in bit D0 . Accumulator Before RLC After RLC 10100111 01001111
21. (A) RAL instruction rotate the accumulator left through carry. D7 CY , Before RAL After RAL CY D0 , ORA reset the carry. Accumulator 10110111 01101110 CY 0 1
This program find the larger of the two number stored in location 4A00H and 4A01H and store it in memory location 4A002. A7H > 98H Thus A7H will be stored at 4A02H.
22. (A) RRC instruction rotate the accumulator right and D0 is placed in D7 .
MVI ORA RAL RRC A, C5H A ;C5H A ;Reset Carry flag ;Rotate A left through ;carry, A = 8AH ;Rotate A right, A = 45H
15. (C) Operand R, M or implied : 1Byte instruction Operand 8bit Operand 16bit : 2Byte instruction : 3Byte instruction
3Byte instruction are: LXI, LDA, JZ, JC, JMP PByte instruction are : MOV, CMP, HLT Hence memory = 3 6 + 1 5 = 23 Byte.
23. (A) This program multiply BYTE1 by 10. Hence content of A will be 46H. 07H = 0710 ,7 10 = 70, 7010 = 46H 24. (B) Contents of Accumulator A = 0011 0010 After First RRC After second RRC = 0001 1001 = 1000 1100
16. (D) All instruction clear the accumulator

XRA ANI MVI 17. (C) LHLD MOV INX MOV LDAX MOV INX LDAX MOV A 00H A 3000H E, M H D, M D L, A D D H, A ;A A ;A AND 00 ;00 A ;(3000A) HL = 3002H ;(3002H) E = 00 ;HL +1 HL = 3003H ;M D=(3003H) = 30H ;(DE) A=(3000H) = 02H ;A L = 02H ;DE +1 DE = 3001H ;(DE) A = (3001) = 30H ;A H = 30H
25. (D) This program will display the number between 64H to C8H including 64H. C8H will not be displayed. Thus (D) is correct option. 26. (C) 05H AND 80H =00
Hence HL pair contain 3002H.
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Digital Electronics
After the ANI instruction S, Z and P are modified to reflect the result of operation. CY is reset and AC is set . Thus, S = 0, Z = 1, AC = 1, P =1, CY = 0
27. (B) ACI 56H ;A + 56H + CY A
37H + 56H + 1 =8EH 28. (C) Instruction load the register pairs HL with 01FFH. SHLD instruction store the contents of L in the memory location 2050H and content of H in the memory location 2051H. Contents of HL are not altered. 29. (B) At a time 8085 can drive only a digit. In a second each digit is refreshed 500 times. Thus time given to 1 each digit = = 0.4 ms. (5 500) 30. (C) The stack pointer register SP point to the upper memory location of stack. When data is pushed on stack, it stores above this memory location. 31. (B) Line 5 push the content of HL register pair on stack. The contents of L will go to 03FFH and contents of H will go to 03FEH. Hence memory location 03FEH contain 22H. 32. (C) Contents of register pair B lie on the top of stack when POP H is executed, HL pair will be loaded with the contents of register pair B. 33. (C) The instruction PUSH B store the contents of BC at stack. The POP PSW instruction copy the contents of BC in to PSW. The contents of register C will be copied into flag register. D0 = 1 = carry flag, D6 = 0 = zero flag. Hence zero flag will be reset and carry will be set.
34. (A) MVI A DATA1 ORA A JP DSPLY A PORT1 ;DATA1 A ; Set flag ;If A is positive, then ;jump to DSPLY ; Clear A ; A PORT2
XRA DSPLY OUT HLT
If DATA1 is positive, it will be displayed at port1 otherwise 00.

********************
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e2 t, t < 0 30. y( t) = u( t) * h( t) , where h( t) = -3t e , t >0 1 5 1 (A) e -2 t u( - t - 1) + - e -3t u( -t) 2 6 3 (B) (C) (D) 1 2t 5 1 e u( -t - 1) + - e-3t u( -t) 2 6 3 1 2t 1 e + [5 - 3e 2 t - 2 e -3t ]u( t) 2 6 1 2t 1 e + [5 - 3e 2 t - 2 e -3t ]u( -t) 2 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 3 1 13 -4 t sin t + cos t + e - t e , t 0 34 34 6 61 5 3 13 -4 t 1 - t sin t + cos t e + e , t 0 34 34 51 6 3 5 13 -4 t 1 - t sin t + cos t e + e , t 0 34 34 51 6 3 5 1 13 -4 t sin t + cos t + e -4 t e , t 0 34 34 6 51 d 2 y ( t) dy ( t) +6 + 8 y( t) = 2 x( t), dt 2 dt y (0 - ) = -1, dy( t) = 1, x( t) = e - t u( t) dt 0 -
37.
Statement for Q.31-34: The impulse response of LTI system is given. Determine the step response. 31. h( t) = e - |t | (A) 2 + e t - e - t (C) e t u( -t + 1) + [2 - e - t ]u( t) 32. h( t) = d( 2 ) ( t) (A) 1 (C) d( 3) ( t) 33. h( t) = u( t) - u( t - 4) (A) tu( t) + (1 - t) u( t - 4) (C) 1 + t 34. h( t) = y( t) (A) u( t) (C) 1 Statement for Q.35-38: The system described by the differential equations has been specified with initial condition. Determine the output of the system and choose correct option. 35. dy( t) + 10 y( t) = 2 x( t), y(0 - ) = 1, x( t) = u( t) dx (B) 1 (1 + 4 e -10 t ) 5 (D) - 1 (1 + 4 e -10 t ) 5 (B) t (D) tu( t) (B) tu( t) + (1 - t) u( t - 4) (D) (1 + t) u( t) (B) u( t) (D) d( t) 38. (B) e t u( -t + 1) + 2 - e - t (D) e t + [2 - e - t - e t ]u( t) (A) (B)
2 - t 5 -2 t 5 -4 t e - e + e , t 0 3 2 6 2 5 -2 t 5 -4 t + e + e , t 0 3 2 6
(C) 4 + 5( 3e -2 t + e -4 t ) , t 0 (D) 4 - 5( 3e -2 t + e -4 t ), t 0 d 2 y( t) 3dx( t) , + y( t) = dt 2 dt y (0 - ) = -1, dy( t) = 1, x( t) = 2 te- t u( t) dt 0 -
(A) sin t + 4 cos t - 3te -3t + t, t 0 (B) 4 sin t - cos t - 3te - t , t 0 (C) sin t - 4 cos t + 3te -3t + t, t 0 (D) 4 sin t + cos t - 3te - t , t 0 39. The raised cosine pulse x( t) is defined as 1 (cos wt + 1) , x ( t) = 2 0, p p t w w otherwise
The total energy of x ( t) is 3p 3p (B) (A) 4w 8w (C) 3p w (D) 3p 2w
(A) 1 (1 + 4 e -10 t ) u( t) 5 (C) - 1 (1 + 4 e -10 t ) u( t) 5
40. The sinusoidal signal x( t) = 4 cos (200 t + p 6) is passed through a square law device defined by the input output relation y ( t) = x 2 ( t). The DC component in the signal is (A) 3.46 (C) 2.83 (B) 4 (D) 8
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d 2 y( t) dy( t) dx( t) , 36. +5 + 4 y( t) = 2 dt dt dt dy( t) = 1, x( t) = sin t u( t) y (0 - ) = 0, dt 0 -
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Chap 5.1
41. The impulse response of a system is h( t) = d( t - 0.5). If two such systems are cascaded, the impulse response of the overall system will be (A) 0.58( t - 0.25) (C) d( t - 1) (B) d( t - 0.25) (D) 0.5 d( t - 1)
46. The y( t) = x( t) * h( t) is
y(t) y(t)
1+a
1-a
42. Fig. P5.1.40 show the input x( t) to a LTI system and impulse response h( t) of the system.
x(t) h(t)
(A)
y(t) y(t)
(B)
a
1 5 t 3 t
1+a 2
1+a
1-a
(C)
(D)
Fig P5.1.42
The output of the system is zero every where except for the (A) 0 < t < 5 (C) 1 < t < 5 (B) 0 < t < 8 (D) 1 < t < 8
47. If dy( t) dt contains only three discontinuities, the value of a is (A) 1 (C) 3 (B) 2 (D) 0
43. Consider the impulse response of two LTI system S1 : h1 ( t) = e - (1 - 2 j ) t u( t) S2 : h2 ( t) = e cos 2 t u( t) The stable system is (A) S1 (C) Both S1 and S2 (B) S2 (D) None
-t
48. Consider the signal x( t) = d( t + 2) - d( t - 2).The value of E for the signal y( t) = (A) 4 (C) 1 49. The
x( t) dt
(B) 2 (D)
is
response of a system S to a complex input
44. The non-invertible system is (A) y( t) = x( t - 4) (C) y( t) = dx( t) dt (B) y( t) =

-
x( t) = e j 5t is specified as y( t) = te j 5t . The system
(A) is definitely LTI x( t) dt (B) is definitely not LTI (C) may be LTI (D) information is insufficient 50. The response of a system S to a complex input
45. A continuous-time linear system with input x( t) and output y( t) yields the following input-output pairs: x( t) = e j 2 t y( t) = e j 5t x( t) = e - j 2 t y( t) = e - j 5t If x1 ( t) = cos (2 t - 1), the corresponding y1 ( t) is (A) cos (5 t - 1) (C) cos 5( t - 1) Statement for Q.4647: Suppose that 1, x( t) = 0, 0 t 1 elsewhere and (B) e- j cos (5 t - 1) (D) e j cos (5 t - 1)
x( t) = e j8 t is specified as y( t) = cos 8 t. The system (A) is definitely LTI (B) is definitely not LTI (C) may be LTI (D) information is insufficient. 51. The auto-correlation of the signal x( t) = e - t u( t) is (A) (C) 1 t 1 e u( -t) + e - t u( t) 2 2 1 -t 1 e u( -t) + e - t u( t) 2 2 (B) (D) et 1 - t + ( e - e t ) u( t) 2 2 1 t 1 e u( -t) - e - t u( t) 2 2
t h( t) = x , where 0 < a 1. a
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SOLUTIONS
1. (A) 2p = 60 p T T= p 30
11. (C)
x(10t)
1 x(10t-5) 1
-0.5 -0.4
0.4 0.5
0.1
0.9
Fig S5.1.11
2. (C) T1 =
2p 2p 2p 2p s, T2 = s, LCM , = 2p 5 7 7 5
12. (D) Multiplication by 5 will bring contraction on time scale. It may be checked by x(5 0.8) = x( 4). 13. (A) Division by 5 will bring expansion on time scale. 20 It may be checked by y( t) = x = x( 4). 5 1, 14. (C) y( t) = -1, 0,
-4 5
3. (D) Not periodic because of t. 4. (D) Not periodic because least common multiple is infinite. 5. (C) y( t) is not periodic although sin t and 6 cos 2 pt are independently periodic. The fundamental frequency cant be determined. 6. (C) This is energy signal because E =
for - 5 < t < - 4 for 4 < t <5 otherwise
E = (1) 2 dt + ( -1) 2 dt = 2
-5 4
| x ( t)|dt <
-4 t -4 t e u( t) dt = e dt = 0
1 4
15. (D) E = 2 x 2 ( t) dt = 2 (1)1 dt + 2 (5 - t) 2 dt

0 0 4
7. (A) | x( t)| = 1, E =
| x( t)| dt
2
=8+ =
2 26 = 3 3
So this is a power signal not a energy. P = lim 1 T 2T

T
16. (B) Let x1 ( t) = v( t) then y1 ( t) = u{v( t)} Let x2 ( t) = kv( t) then y2 ( t) = u{kv( t)} ky1 ( t) (Not homogeneous not linear) y1 ( t) = u{v( t)}, y2 ( t) = u{v( t - to)} = y1 ( t - to) (Time invariant)
-T
| x( t)| dt
2
=1
8. (D) v( t) is sum of 3 unit step signal starting from, 1, 2, and 3, all signal ends at 4. 9. (A) The function 1 does not describe the given pulse. It can be shown as follows :
u(a-t) u(t-b) u(a-t) - u(t-b)
The response at any time depends only on the excitation at time t = to and not on any future value. (Causal) 17. (C) y1 ( t) = v( t - 5) - v( 3 - t) y2 ( t) = kv( t - 5) - kv( 3 - t) = ky1 ( t) (Homogeneous) Let x1 ( t) = v( t) then y1 ( t) = v( t - 5) - v( 3 - t) Let x2 ( t) = 2 w( t) then y2 ( t) = w( t - 5) - w( 3 - t) Let x3( t) = x( t) + w( t) Then y3( t) = v( t - 5) + w( t - 5) - v( 3 - t) - w( 3 - t) (Additive)
Fig S5.1.3.9
10. (B)
r(t-4)
2
r(t-6)
2
r(t-4) - r(t-6)
2
= y1 ( t) + y2 ( t) linear.
Since it is both homogeneous and additive, it is also y1 ( t) = v( t - 5) - v( 3 - t) y2 ( t) = v( t - to - 5) - v( 3 - t + to) = y1 ( t - to) (Time invariant)
Fig S5.1.10
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Chap 5.1
At
time,
t = 0, y(0) = x( -5) - x( 3).
Therefore
the
21. (C) All option are linear. So it is not required to check linearity. d y1 ( t) - 8 y1 ( t) = v( t) dt d Let x2 ( t) = v( t - to) then t y2 ( t) - 8 y2 ( t) = v( t - to) dt Let x1 ( t) = v( t) then t The first equation can be written as d ( t - to) y( t - to) - 8 y( t - to) = v( t - to) dt This equation is not satisfied if y2 ( t) = y1 ( t - to) therefore y2 ( t) y1 ( t - to) x( l) y( l) dl + 8 dl l - - l (Time Variant)
t
response at time, t = 0 depends on the excitation at a later time t = 3. and so is y( t). t t 18. (D) y1 ( t) = v , y2 ( t) = kv = ky1 ( t) 2 2 (Homogeneous) x3 = v( t) + w( t) then t t y3( t) = v + w = y1 ( y) + y2 ( t) 2 2 linear t t t - to y1 ( t) = v , y2 - to y( t - to) = v 2 2 2 (Time variant) At time t = -2, y( -2) = x( -1), therefore, the response at time t = -2, depends on the excitation at a later time, t = -1. It x( t) is bounded then y( t) is bounded. 19. (C) y1 ( t) = cos 2 pt v( t) y2 ( t) k cos 2 pt v( t) = ky1 ( t) x3( t) = v( t) + w( t) y3( t) = cos 2 pt [ v( t) + w( t)] = y1 ( t) + y2 ( t) linear. y1 ( t) = cos 2 pt v( t) y2 ( t) = cos 2 pt ( t - to) y( t - to) = cos [2 p( t - to)]v( t - to) (Time Variant) The response at any time t = to depends only on the excitation at that time and not on the excitation at any later time. If x( t) is bounded then y( t) is bounded. 20. (C) y1 ( t) = |v( t)|, y2 ( t) = |kv( t)| = k y1 ( t) If k is negative k y1 ( t) ky1 ( t) (Not Homogeneous Not linear). y1 ( t) = |v( t)|, y2 ( t) = | y( t - to)| = y1 ( t - to) (Time Invariant) The response at any time t = to depends only on the excitation at that time and not on the excitation at any later time. If x( t) is bounded then y( t) is bounded.
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(Not causal) (Stable)
If x( t) is bounded then x( t - 5) and x( 3 - t) are bounded
(Additive)
The system can be written as y( t) =
Since it is both homogeneous and additive, it is also
So the response at any time, t = to depends on the excitation at t to , and not on any future values. (Causal) The Homogeneous solution to the differential equation is of the form y( t) = kt8 . If there is no excitation but the zero excitation, response is not zero. The response will increases without bound as time increases. (Unstable)
(Not causal) (Stable)
(Homogeneous) (Additive)
22. (C) y1 ( t) = y2 ( t) =
t+ 3
t+ 3
v(l)dl
t+ 3
Since it is both homogeneous and additive. It is also y3( t) =
kv(l)dl = k v(l)dl = ky1 ( t)

- t+ 3
(Homogeneous)
x3( t) = v( t) + w( t)
t+ 3 -
[ v( l) + w( l)]dl =
v( l)dl +
t+ 3
w( l)dl
(Additive)
= y1 (t) + y2 (t)
Since it is Homogeneous and additive, it is also linear. y1 ( t) = y2 ( t) =

t+ 3
(Causal) (Stable)
v(l)dl v(l - to )dl =

t - to + 3 -
t+ 3
v(l)dl = y (t - t )
1 o
(Time invariant) The response at any time, t = to , depends partially on the excitation at time to to < t < ( to + 3) which are in future. If x( t) is a constant k, then y ( t) =
t+ 3
(Not causal)
kdl = k dl and as
-
t+ 3
(Causal) (Stable)
t , y ( t) increases without bound.
(unstable)
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11. x[ n + 2 ] y[ n - 2 ]
x[n] 3
pn pn pn p 14. x[ n] = cos + - sin + 3 cos 3 2 8 4 (A) periodic with period 16 (B) periodic with period 4
1 2 3 4 5 6 n
(A)
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0
2 1
(C) periodic with period 2 (D) Not periodic

n j - p 6
x[n] 3
(B)
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0
2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 n
15. x[ n] = 2 e
(A) periodic with 12p (C) periodic with 11p
(B) periodic with 12 (D) Not periodic
-6
-5
-4
-3
-2
-1 -1
16. The sinusoidal signal has fundamental period

n
N = 10 samples. The smallest angular frequency, for which x[ n] is periodic, is 1 (A) rad/cycle 10 (C) 5 rad/cycle
(C)
-2 -3
(B) 10 rad/cycle (D) p rad/cycle 5
-6
-5
-4
-3
-2
-1 -1
17. Let x[ n], - 5 n 3 and h[ n], 2 n 6 be two finite duration signals. The range of their convolution is (A) -7 n 9 (C) 2 n 3 (B) -3 n 9 (D) -5 n 6
(D)
-2 -3
Statement for Q.1215: A discrete-time signal is given. Determine the period of signal and choose correct option. pn pn 1 12. x[ n] = cos + sin + 9 2 7 (A) periodic with period N = 126 (B) periodic with period N = 32 (C) periodic with period N = 252 (D) Not periodic n pn 13. x[ n] = cos cos 8 8 (A) Periodic with period 16 p (B) periodic with period 16( p + 1) (C) periodic with period 8 (D) Not periodic
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Statement for Q.1826: x[ n] and h[ n] are given in the question. Compute the convolution y[ n] = x[ n] * h[ n] option. 18. x[ n] = {1, 2, 4}, h[ n] = {1, 1, 1, 1, 1} (A) {1, 3, 7, 7, 7, 6, 4} (B) {1, 3, 3, 7, 7, 6, 4} (C) {1, 2, 4} (D) {1, 3, 7} 19. x[ n] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, h [ n] = {1} (A) {1, 3, 6, 10, 15} (C) {1, 4, 9, 16, 20} (B) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} (D) {1, 4, 6, 8, 10} and choose correct
20. x[ n] = {1, 2, -1}, h [ n] = x [ n] (A) {1, 4, 1} (C) {1, 2, -1}

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(B) {1, 4, 2, -4, 1} (D) {2, 4, -2}

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Chap 5.2
21. x[ n] = {1, -2, 3}, h [ n] = {0, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1}

25. x[ n] = {1, 4, -3, 6, 4}, h[ n] = {2, -4, 3}

(A) {1, -2, 4, 1, 1, 1}
(A) {2, 4, -19, 36, -25, 2, 12}
(B) {0, 0, 3}
(B) {4, -19, 36, -25}
(C) {0, 0, 3, 1, 1, 1, 1}
(C) {1, 4, -3, 6, 4}
(D) {0, 0, 1, -1, 2, 2, 1, 3}
(D) {1, 4, -3, 6, 4}
22. x[ n] = {0, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1}, h[ n] = {1, -2, 3}

(A) {0, 0, 1, -1, 2, 2, 1, 3}
1, 26. x[ n] = 2, 0
n = -2, 0, 1 n = -1 elsewhere
h (n) = d[ n ] - d[ n - 1] + d[ n - 4]
(A) d[ n ] - 2 d[ n - 1 ] + 4 d[ n - 4 ] + d[ n - 5 ] (B) d[ n + 2 ] + d[ n + 1 ] - d[ n ] + 2 d[ n - 3 ] + d[ n - 4 ] + d[ n - 5 ] (C) d[ n + 2 ] - d[ n + 1 ] + d[ n ] + 2 d[ n - 3 ] - d[ n - 4 ] + 2 d[ n - 5 ] (D) d[ n ] + 2 d[ n - 1 ] + 4 d[ n - 5 ] + d[ n - 5 ]
(B) {0, 0, 1, -1, 2, 2, 1, 3}
(C) {1, -2, 3, 1, 1, 2, 1, 1}
(D) {1, -2, 3, 1, 1, 1, 1}
Statement for Q.2730: In question y[ n] is the convolution of two signal. Choose correct option for y[ n]. 27. y[ n] = ( -1) n * 2 n u[2 n + 2 ] (A) (C) 4 6 8 ( -1) n u[ -n + 2 ] 3 1 u[ n] * u[ n + 2 ] 4n 1 12 (B) - n u[ n + 2 ] 3 4 1 16 (D) - n u[ n + 2 ] 3 4 (B) (D) 4 u[ -n + 2 ] 6 8 ( -1) n 3
23. x[ n] = {1, 1, 0, 1, 1}, h[ n] = {1, -2, - 3, 4}

(A) {1, -1, - 2, 4, 1, 1}
(B) {1, -1, - 2, 4, 1, 1}
(C) {1, -1, - 5, 2, 3, -5, 1, 4}
28. y[ n] =
(D) {1, -1, - 5, 2, 3, -5, 1, 4}
1 1 (A) - n u[ n] 3 4 4 1 1 n (C) u[ n + 2 ] 3 12 4
24. x[ n] = {1, 2, 0, 2, 1}, h[ n] = x[ n]
(A) {1, 4, 4, 4, 10, 4, 4, 4, 1}
29. y[ n] = 3n u[ -n + 3] * u[ n - 2 ] 3n , (A) 2 83 , 2 3n , (C) 2 81 , 2

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(B) {1, 4, 4, 4, 10, 4, 4, 4, 1}

(C) {1, 4, 4, 10, 4, 4, 4, 1}
n 5 n6 n 5 n6
3n , (B) 83 , 2 3n , (D) 6 81 , 2
n 5 n6
n 5 n6
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(D) {1, 4, 4, 10, 4, 4, 4, 1}

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30. y[ n] = u[ n + 3] * u[ n - 3] (A) ( n + 1) u[ n] (C) ( n - 1) u[ n] 31. The convolution of (B) nu[ n] (D) u[ n]

p x[ n] = cos ( 2 n) u[ n]
37. x[ n] as shown in fig. P5.2.37

5 +
and
x[n]
10
y[n]
h[ n] = u[ n - 1] is f [ n]u[ n - 1]. The function f [ n] is n = 4 m + 1, 4 m + 2 1, (A) n = 4 m, 4 m + 3 0, 0, (B) 1, 1, (C) 0, 0, (D) 1, n = 4 m + 1, 4 m + 2 n = 4 m, 4 m + 3 n = 4 m + 1, 4 m + 3 n = 4 m, 4 m + 2 n = 4 m + 1, 4 m + 3 n = 4 m, 4 m + 2
Fig. P5.2.37
(A) P, Q, R, S (C) P, R, S
(B) Q, R, S (D) P, Q, S

x[n] + + y[n]
Fig. P5.2.38
(A) P, Q, R, S Statement for Q.3238: Let P be linearity, Q be time invariance, R be causality and S be stability. In question discrete time input x[ n] and output y[ n] relationship has been given. In the option properties of system has been given. Choose the option which match the properties for system. 32. y[ n] = rect ( x[ n]) (A) P, Q, R (C) R, S, P 33. y[ n] = nx[ n] (A) P, Q, R, S (C) P, R 34. y[ n] =
n +1 m = -
(B) P, Q, R (D) Q, R, S
(C) P, Q Statement for Q.3941:
Two discrete time systems S1 fig. P5.2.3941.
and S2
are
connected in cascade to form a new system as shown in
x[n]
S2
(B) Q, R, S (D) S , P, Q
S1
y[n]
Fig. P5.2.3941.
39. Consider the following statements (B) Q, R, S (D) Q, S (a) If S1 and S2 are linear, the S is linear (b) If S1 and S2 are nonlinear, then S is nonlinear (c) If S1 and S2 are causal, then S is causal (d) If S1 and S2 are time invariant, then S is time invariant (B) R, S (D) Q, R True statements are : (A) a, b, c (C) a, c, d (B) R, S, P (D) P, Q, R (B) b, c, d (D) All
u[ m ]
(A) P, Q, R, S (C) P, Q 35. y[ n] = x[ n] (A) Q, R, S (C) S, P, Q
40. Consider the following statements (a) If S1 and S2 are linear and time invariant, then interchanging their order does not change the system. (b) If S1 and S2 are linear and time varying, then interchanging their order does not change the system. True statement are

x[n] 2 y[n]
Fig. P5.2.36
(A) P, Q, R, S (C) P, Q
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(A) Both a and b (C) Only b

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41. Consider the statement (a) If S1 and S2 are noncausal, the S is non causal (b) If S1 and/or S2 are unstable, the S is unstable. True statement are : (A) Both a and b (C) Only b (B) Only a (D) None
(D) Above all 45. The system shown in fig. P5.2.45 is

x[n] 1 4 + + + 1 4 -1 2 y[n]
D D
y[n-2]
42. The following input output pairs have been observed during the operation of a time invariant system : x1 [ n] = {1, 0, 2} x2 [ n] = {0, 0, 3} x3[ n] = {0, 0, 0, 1}
S S
Fig. P5.2.45
(A) Stable and causal y1 [ n] = {0, 1, 2}

S
(B) Stable but not causal (C) Causal but unstable (D) unstable and not causal 46. The impulse response of a LTI system is given as 1 h[ n] = - u[ n]. 2 The step response is (A) 1 1 2 - - 3 2
n +1 n
y2 [ n] = {0, 1, 0, 2} y3[ n] = {1, 2, 1}
The conclusion regarding the linearity of the system is (A) System is linear (B) System is not linear (C) One more observation is required. (D) Conclusion cannot be drawn from observation. 43. The following input output pair have been observed during the operation of a linear system: x1 [ n] = { -1, 2, 1} x2 [ n] = {1, - 1, - 1} x3[ n] = {0, 1, 1}
S S
u[ n] u[ n]
(B)
1 1 2 - - 3 2
u[ n] u[ n]
(C)
1 1 2 + - 3 2
n +1
(D)
1 1 2 + - 3 2
47. The difference equation representation for a system is y[ n] 1 y[ n - 1] = 2 x[ n], 2 y [ -1] = 3
y1 [ n] = {1, 2, - 1, 0, 1} y2 [ n] = { - 1, 1, 0, 2} y3[ n] = {1, 2, 1} (A)
The natural response of system is 3 1 - u[ n] 2 2 3 1 u[ n] 2 2

n n
(B)
2 1 - u[ n] 3 2 21 u[ n] 32
n
(C)
(D)
The conclusion regarding the time invariance of the system is (A) System is time-invariant (B) System is time variant (C) One more observation is required (D) Conclusion cannot be drawn from observation 44. The stable system is (A) y[ n] = x[ n] + 11 . y[ n - 1] (B) y[ n] = x[ n] 1 ( y[ n - 1] + y[ n - 2 ]) 2 be
48. The difference equation representation for a system is y[ n] - 2 y[ n - 1] + y[ n - 2 ] = x[ n] - x[ n - 1] If y[ n] = 0 for n < 0 and x[ n] = d[ n], then y[2 ] will (A) 2 (C) -1 (B) -2 (D) 0
49. Consider a discrete-time system S whose response to a complex exponential input e jpn S : e jpn
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2 2
is specified as
(C) y[ n] = x[ n] - (15 . y[ n - 1] + 0.4 y[ n - 2 ])

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24. (B) y[ n] = {1, 4, 4, 10, 4, 4, 4, 1}
28. (C) For n + 2 < 0 for n + 2 0 or
or
n < - 2, y [ n] = 0
n+2 k=0
n - 2, y[ n] =
4k
4 1 1 , 3 12 4 n
1 1 2 0 2 1 1 2 0 2 1
2 2 4 0 4 2
0 0 0 0 0 0
2 2 4 0 4 2
1 1 2
4 1 1 n y[ n] = u[ n + 2 ] 3 12 4
n -2
29. (D) For n - 2 3 or n 5 , y[ n] =

0 2 1
k=
3k =
81 , 2
3n 6
for n - 2 4 or n 6, y[ n] = 3n , y[ n] = 6 81 , 2 n 5 n6
k = -
Fig. S5.2.24
25. (A) y[ n] = {2, 4, -19, 36, -25, 2, 12}
30. (A) For n - 3 < - 3 or

-3 -6 12 -9 6 12 -24 18 4 8 -16 12
n < 0,
n -3 k = -3
y[ n] = 0
1 2 -4 3 2 -4 3
4 8 -16 12
for n - 3 - 3 or y[ n] = ( n + 1) u[ n] 31. (A) For n - 1 < 0 For n -1 0 1, y[ n] = 0, or
n > 0, y[ n] =
1 = n + 1,
y[ n] = 0
n -1
or
n <1 ,
Fig. S5.2.25
p n 1, y[ n] = cos k k=0 2
26. (B) x[ n] = {1, 2, 1, 1}, h[ n] = {1, -1, 0, 0, 1}

n = 4 m + 1, 4 m + 2 n = 4 m, 4 m + 3 y2 [ n] = rect ( kv[ n])
32. (B) y1 [ n] = rect ( v[ n]) ,

1 1 -1 0 0 1 1 -1 0 0 1 2 2 -2 0 0 2 1 1 -1 0 0 1 1 -1 -1 0 0 1
y2 [ n] k y1 [ n]
(Not Homogeneous not linear) (Time Invariant) (Causal)
y1 [ n] = rect ( v[ n]), y2 [ n] = rect ( v[ n - no ]) y1 [ n - no ] = rect ( v[ n - no ]) = y2 [ n] At any discrete time n = no , the response depends only on the excitation at that discrete time. No matter what values the excitation may have the response can only have the values zero or one. (Stable) 33. (C) y1 [ n] = nv[ n] , ky1 [ n] = y2 [ n] Let x1 [ n] = v[ n] Let x2 [ n] = w[ n] then then y1 [ n] = nv[ n] y2 [ n] = nw[ n] y2 [ n] = nkv[ n] (Homogeneous)
Fig. S5.2.26
y[ n] = {1, 1, -1, 0, 0, 2, 1, 1}
y[ n ] = d[ n + 2 ] + d[ n + 1 ] - d[ n ] + 2 d[ n - 3 ] + d[ n - 4 ] + d[ n - 5 ]
27. (D) y[ n] = 1 2n - 2 = 1 1+ 2
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n -2
k=n -2
( -1)
2n -k = 2n
k=n -2
1 - 2
Let x3[ n] = v[ n] + w[ n] then y3[ n] = n( v[ n] + w[ n]) = nv[ n] + nw[ n] = y1 [ n] + y2 [ n] linear. y1 [ n - no ] = ( n - no) v[ n - no ] yn [ n] = nv[ n - no ]
(Additive)
8 ( -1) n 3
Since the system is homogeneous and additive, it is also
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(Time variant) At any discrete time, n = no the response depends only on the excitation at that same time. unbounded as n approaches infinity. 34. (C) y1 [ n] = y2 [ n] = ky1 [ n] y1 [ n] = y3[ n] = =
n +1 n +1 n = - n +1 n +1
If the excitation is bounded, the response is bounded. (Stable). 37. (B) y1 [ n] = 10 v[ n] - 5, y2 [ n] ky1 [ n] y2 [ n] = 10 kv[ n] - 5
(Causal) (Unstable)
If the excitation is a constant, the response is
(Not Homogeneous so not linear) (Time Invariant)
m = -
v[ m ] ,
y2 [ n ] =
n +1
y1 [ n] = 10 v[ n] - 5, y2 [ n] = 10 v[ n - no ] - 5 y1 [ n - no ] = 10 v[ n - no ] - 5, = y2 [ n] At any discrete time, n = no the response depends only on the excitation at that discrete time and not on any future excitation. (Causal) (Stable). If the excitation is bounded, the response is bounded.
m = -
kv[ m ]
(Homogeneous)
v[ m ], y2 [ n] =
n +1
n = -
w[ m ]
m = -
( v[ n] + w[ m ])
n +1 1 2
m = -
v[ m ] + w[ n] = y [ n] + y [ n]
m = -
(Additive)
38. (B) y[ n] = x[ n] + y[ n - 1], y[ n - 1] = x[ n - 1] + y[ n - 2 ] y[ n] = x[ n] + x[ n - 1] + y[ n - 2 ], Then by induction y[ n] = x[ n - 1] + x[ n - 2 ] + K x[ n - k] + K = x[ n - k]

k=0
Since the system is homogeneous and additive it is also linear y1 [ n] =

n +1 m = -
v[ n] , y2 [ n] =
n -no +1 m = -
n +1
m = -
v[ m - no ]
Let m = n - k then y[ n] = y1 [ n] =
y1 [ n - no ] =
v[ m ] =
n +1
m =n
x[ m ] = x[ m ]
m = - 1
q = -
v[ q - no ] = y2 [ n]
(Time Invariant)
m = -
v[ m ] ,
n
y2 [ n ] =
m = -
kv[ m ] = ky [ n]
(Homogeneous)
n
At any discrete time, n = no , the response depends on the excitation at the next discrete time in future. (Anti causal) If the excitation is a constant, the response increases without bound. (Unstable)
y3[ n] =
m = -
(v[ m ] + w[ m ]) = v[ m ] + w[ m ]
m = - m = -
= y1 [ n] + y2 [ n] System is Linear. y1 [ n] =
m = -
(Additive) , y2 =
v[ m ]
n -no
m = -
v[ n - n ]
o
35. (A) y1 [ n] = v[ n] , y2 = kv[ n] = k v[ n] ky1 [ n] = k v[ n] y2 [ n] (Not Homogeneous Not linear) y1 [ n] = v[ n] , y2 [ n] = v[ n - no ] y1 [ n - no ] = v[ n - no ] = y2 [ n] on the excitation at that time (Time Invariant) At any discrete time n = no , the response depends only (Causal) (Stable). 36. (B) y[ n] = 2 x [ n]
2
y1 [ n] can be written as y1 [ n - no ] =
m = -
v[ m ] = v[ q - n ] = y [ n]
q = - o 2
(Time Invariant) At any discrete time n = no the response depends only on the excitation at that discrete time and previous discrete time. without bound. (Causal) (Unstable) If the excitation is constant, the response increase
If the excitation is bounded, the response is bounded.
Let x1 [ n] = v[ n] ky[ n] y2 [ n] Let x1 [ n] = v[ n]
then y1 [ n] = 2 v 2 [ n] y2 [ n] = 2 k2 v 2 [ n] (Not homogeneous Not linear) then y1 [ n] = 2 v 2 [ n] (Time invariant) (Causal)
39. (C) Only statement (b) is false. For example S1 : y[ n] = x[ n] + b, and S2 : y[ n] = x[ n] - b , where b 0 S{x[ n]} = S2 {S1 {x[ n]}} = S2 {x[ n] + b} = x[ n] Hence S is linear. 40. (B) For example S1 : y[ n] = nx[ n] and S2 : y[ n] = nx[ n + 1] If x[ n] = d[ n] then S2 {S1 {d[ n]}} = S2 [0 ] = 0,
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Let x2 [ n] = kv[ n] then
Let x2 [ n] = v[ n - no ] then y2 [ n] = 2 v 2 [ n - no ] y1 [ n - no ] = 2 v[ n - no ] = y2 [ n] on the excitation at that time.

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CHAPTER
5.3
THE LAPLACE TRANSFORM
Statement for Q.1-12: Determine the Laplace transform of given signal. 1. x( t) = u( t - 2) (A) -e s
-2 s
6. x( t) = u( t) - u( t - 2) (A) (C) e -2 s - 1 s 2 s d { te - t u( t)} dt (B) (D) s ( s + 1) 2 e- s ( s + 1) 2 (B) (D) 1 - e -2 s s -2 s
(B)
-2 s
s 7. x( t) = (A)
e (C) 1+ s 2. x( t) = u( t + 2) (A) (C) 1 s e -2 s s
-2 s
(D) 0
1 s( s + 1) 2 e- s s+1
(B) (D)
1 s
(C)
-e - 2 s s
8. x( t) = tu( t) * cos 2 pt u( t) (A) 1 s( s 2 + 4 p2 ) 1 s ( s + 4 p2 )

2 2
3. x( t) = e -2 t u( t + 1) (A) (C) 1 s+2 e- ( s + 2 ) s+2 (B) (D) e- s s+2 -e - s s+2
(B)
2p s 2 ( s 2 + 4 p2 ) s3 s + 4 p2
2
(C)
(D)
9. x( t) = t 3u( t) (A) 3 s4 6 s4 (B) -3 s4 6 s4
4. x( t) = e 2 t u( -t + 2) (A) (C) e
2 (s - 2 )
-1 s -2
-2 ( s - 2 )
(B) (D)
e s+2 e s -2
-2 s
-2 s
(C)
1-e s -2
(D) -
5. x( t) = sin 5 t 5 (A) 2 s +5 5 (C) 2 s + 25 s (B) 2 s +5 s (D) 2 s + 25
10. x( t) = u( t - 1) * e -2 t u( t - 1) (A) e -2 ( s + 1 ) 2s + 1 e- ( s + 2 ) s+2 (B) e -2 ( s + 1 ) s+1 e -2 ( s + 1 ) s+2

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(C)
(D)
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11. x( t) = e -3t cos 2 t dt

0
17. X ( s) = ( s + 3) s(( s + 3) 2 + 4) -s( s + 3) ( s + 3) 2 + 4
s2 - 3 ( s + 2)( s 2 + 2 s + 1) (B) ( e -2 t + 2 te - t ) u( t) (D) ( e - t + 2 te -2 t ) u( t)
(A)
-( s + 3) s(( s + 3) 2 + 4) s( s + 3) ( s + 3) 2 + 4 d -t { e cos t u( t)} dt
(B)
(A) ( e -2 t - 2 te - t ) u( t) (C) ( e - t - 2 te -2 t ) u( t) 18. X ( s) =
(C)
(D)
12. x( t) = t
3s + 2 s + 2 s + 10 1 -t (A) 3e cos 3t - e- t sin 3t u( t) 3

2
-( s 2 + 4 s + 2) (A) 2 ( s + 2 s + 2) 2 (C) ( s + 2 s + 2) ( s 2 + 4 s + 2) 2
2
( s 2 + 4 s + 2) (B) 2 ( s + 2 s + 2) 2 (D) -( s + 2 s + 2) ( s 2 + 4 s + 2) 2
2
1 (B) 3e- t sin 3t - e- t cos 3t u( t) 3 (C) ( 3e - t cos 3t - e - t sin 3t) u( t) (D) ( 3e - t sin 3t + 3e- t cos 3t) u( t) 19. X ( s) = 4 s 2 + 8 s + 10 ( s + 2)( s 2 + 2 s + 5)
Statement for Q.1324: Determine the time signal x( t) corresponding to given X ( s) and choose correct option. s+3 13. X ( s) = 2 s + 3s + 2 (A) (2 e -2 t + e - t ) u( t) (C) (2 e -2 t - e - t ) u( t) 14. X ( s) = 2 s 2 + 10 s + 11 s2 + 5 s + 6 (B) (2 e - t - e -2 t ) u( t) (D) (2 e - t + e -2 t ) u( t)
(A) (2 e -2 t + 2 e - t sin 2 t - 2 e - t cos 2 t) u( t) (B) (2 e -2 t + 2 e - t cos 2 t - 2 e - t sin 2 t) u( t) (C) (2 e -2 t + 2 e - t cos 2 t - e - t sin 2 t) u( t) (D) (2 e -2 t + 2 e - t sin 2 t - e - t cos 2 t) u( t) 20. X ( s) = 3s 2 + 10 s + 10 ( s + 2)( s 2 + 6 s + 10)
(A) ( e -2 t + 2 e -3t cos t + 2 e -3t sin t) u( t) (B) ( e -2 t + 2 e -3t cos t - 6 e -3t sin t) u( t) (C) ( e -2 t + 2 e -3t cos t - 2 e -3t sin t) u( t) (D) (9 e -2 t - 6 e -3t cos t + 3e -3t sin t) u( t) 21. X ( s) = 2 s 2 + 11s + 16 + e -2 s ( s2 + 5 s + 6)
(A) 2 d( t) + ( e -3t - e-2 t ) u( t) (B) 2 d( t) + ( e -2 t - e-3t ) u( t) (C) 2 d( t) + ( e (D) 2 d( t) - ( e 15. X ( s) =

-t -2 t -2 t
+ e ) u( t) + e -3t ) u( t)
-3t
(A) 2 d( t) + ( 3e -2 t - 2 e-3t ) u( t - 2) (B) 2 d( t) + (2 e -2 t - e -3t + e -2 ( t - 2 ) + e -3( t - 2 ) ) u( t) (C) 2 d( t) + (2 e -2 t - e -3t ) u( t) + ( e -2 t - e -3t ) u( t - 2) (D) 2 d( t) + (2 e -2 t - e -3t ) u( t) + ( e -2 ( t - 2 ) - e -3( t - 2 ) ) u( t - 2) 22. X ( s) = s d2 ds 2 1 1 s2 + 9 + s+3
2s - 1 s2 + 2 s + 1
-t
(A) ( 3e - 2 te ) u( t) (B) ( 3e- t + 2 te- t ) u( t) (C) (2 e- t - 3te- t ) u( t) (D) (2 e- t + 3te- t ) u( t) 16. X ( s) = 5s + 4 s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s
-3t 2 t t2 (A) u( t) e + 3 sin 3t + 9 cos 3t (B) ( e -3t + 2 t sin 3t + t 2 cos 3t) u( t) 2t (C) e -3t + sin 3t + t 2 cos 3t u( t) 3 (D) ( e -3t + t 2 sin 3t + 2 t cos 3t) u( t)
(A) (2 + e - t + 3e -2 t ) u( t) (B) (2 + e - t - 3e -2 t ) u( t) (C) ( 3 + e - t - 3e -2 t ) u( t) (D) ( 3 + e - t + 3e -2 t ) u( t)

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The Laplace Transform
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Chap 5.3
23. X ( s) = (A) e (C)

-0 .5t
1 (2 s + 1) 2 + 4 1 (B) e - t sin t u( t) 2 (D) e - t sin t u( t) (B) -te - t u( t - 1) (D) te - t u( t - 1)
Statement for Q.3033: Given the transform pair x( t) u( t)

L
sin t u( t)
1 -0 .5t e sin t u( t) 4
-2 s
2s . s2 + 2
Determine the Laplace transform Y ( s) of the given time signal in question and choose correct option.
24. X ( s) = e
1 d 1) 2 ds ( s +
30. y( t) = x( t - 2) (A) 2 se -2 s s2 + 2 2( s - 2) ( s - 2) 2 + 1 dx( t) dt (B) (D) 4 ( s 2 + 2) 2 4 ( s 2 + 2) 2 (B) 2 se 2 s s2 + 2 2( s + 2) ( s + 2) 2 + 1
(A) - te - t u(1 - t) (C) -( t - 2) 2 e - ( t - 2 ) u( t - 2) Statement for Q.2529:
(C)
(D)
Given the transform pair below. Determine the time signal y( t) and choose correct option. cos 2 t u( t) 25. Y ( s) = ( s + 1) X ( s) (A) [cos 2 t - 2 sin 2 t ]u( t) (C) [cos 2 t + 2 sin 2 t ]u( t) sin 2 t (B) cos 2 t + u( t) 2 sin 2 t (D) cos 2 t u( t) 2 (C)
L
31. y( t) = x( t) * (A) 4 s3 ( s 2 + 2) 2 -4 s 3 ( s + 2) 2
2
X ( s).
32. y( t) = e - t x( t) (A) (C) 2( s + 1) ( s + 1) 2 + 2 2( s + 1) s2 + 2 s + 4 (B) (D) 2( s + 1) s2 + 2 s + 2 2( s + 1) s2 + 2 s
26. Y ( s) = X ( 3s) 2 (A) cos t u( t) 3 (C) cos 6 t u( t) 27. Y ( s) = X ( s + 2) (A) cos 2( t - 2) u( t) (C) cos 2( t + 2) u( t) X ( s) 28. Y ( s) = 2 s (A) 4 cos 2 t u( t) (C) t cos 2 t u( t)
2
1 2 (B) cos t u( t) 3 3 (D) 1 cos 6 t u( t) 3
33. y( t) = 2 tx( t) (A) (C) 8 - 4 s2 ( s 2 + 2) 2 4 s2 s2 + 1 (B) (D) 4 s2 - 8 ( s 2 + 2) 2 s2 s +1

2
(B) e2 t cos 2 t u( t) (D) e-2 t cos 2 t u( t)
Statement for Q.3443: Determine the bilateral laplace transform and (B) 1 - cos 2 t u( t) 4 choose correct option. 34. x( t) = e - t u( t + 2) (A) (B) (B) t cos 2( t - 3) u( t) (D) -t cos 2( t - 3) u( t) (C) (D) e2 ( s + 1 ) , s+1 1 , 1+ s e2 ( s + 1 ) , s+1 1 , 1+ s Re ( s) > -1 Re ( s) < - 1 Re ( s) < - 1 Re ( s) > -1
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cos 2 t (D) u( t) t2
29. Y ( s) =
d -3s [ e X ( s)] ds
(A) t cos 2( t - 3) u( t - 3) (C) -t cos 2( t - 3) u( t - 3)

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35. x( t) = u( -t + 3) 1 - e -3s , (A) s (B) -e -3s , s

-3s
(A) Re ( s) > 0 (B) Re ( s) < 0 (C)
e 3s , s-3 e 3s , s-3 e 3( s -1 ) , s-3 e 3( s -1 ) , s-3
Re ( s) > 3 Re ( s) < 3 Re ( s) > 3 Re ( s) < 3
1-e (C) s (D)
Re ( s) < 0 (D) Re ( s) > 0
-e -3s , s
36. y( t) = d( t + 1) (A) e , Re( s) > 0

s s
(B) e , Re ( s) < 0
s
41. x( t) = cos 3t u( -t) * e - t u( t) -s , (A) ( s + 1)( s2 + 9) (B) (C) -s , ( s + 1)( s2 + 9) s , ( s + 1)( s 2 + 9) s , ( s + 1)( s 2 + 9)
Re ( s) > 0 -1 < Re ( s) < 0 -1 < Re ( s) < 0 Re ( s) > 0
(C) e , all s 37. x( t) = sin t u( t) 1 , (A) (1 + s 2 ) (B) 1 , (1 + s 2 )
(D) None of above
Re ( s) < 0 (D) Re ( s) > 0 Re ( s) < 0 Re ( s) > 0
-1 (C) , (1 + s 2 ) (D) -1 , (1 + s 2 )
t 2
42. x( t) = e t sin (2 t + 4) u( t + 2) (A) (B) (C) (D) e 2 ( s -1 ) , ( s - 1) 2 + 4 e 2 ( s -1 ) , ( s - 1) 2 + 4 e( s - 2 ) , ( s - 1) 2 + 4 e( s - 2 ) , ( s - 1) 2 + 4 d -2 t [ e u( -t)] dt Re ( s) < - 1 Re ( s) > -1 Re ( s) < - 1 Re ( s) > -1 Re ( s) > 1 Re ( s) < 1 Re ( s) > 1 Re ( s) < 1
38. x( t) = e u( t) + e u( t) + e u( -t)
t
-t
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 s2 + 2 s - 2 , (2 s + 1)( s 2 - 1) 6 s2 + 2 s - 2 , (2 s + 1)( s 2 - 1) 1 1 1 , + + s + 0.5 s + 1 s - 1 1 1 1 , + s + 0.5 s + 1 s - 1
Re ( s) < - 0.5 -1 > Re ( s) > 1 -1 < Re ( s) < 1 -0.5 < Re ( s) < 1

t
43. x( t) = e t (A) (B) (C) (D) 1-s , s+1 1-s , s+1 s -1 , s+1 s -1 , s+1
39. x( t) = e t cos 2 t u( -t) + e - t u( t) + e 2 u( t) (A) (B) (C) (D) (1 - s) 1 1 , 0.5 < Re ( s) < 1 + + 2 ( s - 1) + 4 s + 1 s - 0.5 (1 - s) 1 1 , -1 < Re ( s) < 1 + + ( s - 1) 2 + 4 s + 1 s - 0.5 ( s - 1) 1 1 , 0.5 < Re ( s) < 1 + + ( s - 1) 2 + 4 s + 1 s - 0.5 ( s - 1) 1 1 , -1 < Re ( s) < 1 + + ( s - 1) 2 + 4 s + 1 s - 0.5
Statement for Q.4449: Determine the corresponding time signal for given bilateral Laplace transform. 44. X ( s) = e 5s with ROC: Re ( s) < -2 s+2
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40. x( t) = e ( 3t + 6 ) u( t + 3)
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(A) e -2 ( t + 5) u( t + 5)
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Signal & System
(A)
1 -t e sin t u( t) 2
(B) 2 e- t cos t u( t) 1 -t e sin t u( t) 2
62. A stable system has input is (A) d( t) - ( e -2 t cos t + e -2 t sin t) u( t) (B) d( t) - ( e -2 t cos t + e -2 t sin t) u( t - 2) (C) d( t) - ( e 2 t cos t + e 2 t sin t) u( t) (D) d( t) - ( e 2 t cos t + e 2 t sin t) u( t + 2)
x( t) and output
y( t) = e -2 t cos t u( t). The impulse response of the system
(C) 2 e - t cos t u( t) + (D)
1 -t e cos t u( t - 1) + 2 e - t sin t u( t - 1) 2 d 3 y( t) d 2 y( t) dy( t) + 4 +3 = x( t) 3 2 dt dt dt All initial condition are zero, x( t) = 10 e -2 t
58.
63. The relation ship between the input x( t) and output y( t) of a causal system is described by the differential equation dy( t) + 10 y( t) = 10 x( t) dt The impulse response of the system is (A) -10 e -10 t u( -t + 10) (C) 10 e -10 t u( -t + 10) (B) 10 e -10 t u( t) (D) -10 e -10 t u( t)
5 5 (A) + 5 e - t - 5 e -2 t + e -3t u( t) 3 3 5 5 (B) - 5 e - t + 5 e -2 t + e -3t u( t) 3 3 (C) (D) 5 5 u( t) - 5 u( t - 1) + 5 u( t - 2) + u( t - 3) 3 3 5 5 u( t) + 5 u( t - 1) - 5 u( t - 2) + u( t - 3) 3 3
59. The transform function H ( s) of a causal system is 2 s2 + 2 s - 2 H ( s) = s2 - 1 The impulse response is (A) 2 d( t) - ( e- t + et ) u( -t) (B) 2 d( t) - ( e + e ) u( t)
t -t
64. The relationship between the input x( t) and output y( t) of a causal system is defined as d 2 y( t) dy( t) dx( t) . - 2 y( t) = -4 x( t) + 5 2 dt dt dt The impulse response of system is (A) 3e - t u( t) + 2 e 2 t u( -t) (B) ( 3e - t + 2 e 2 t ) u( t) (C) 3e - t u( t) - 2 e 2 t u( -t) (D) ( 3e - t - 2 e 2 t ) u( -t)
*******
(C) 2 d( t) + e u( t) - e u( -t)
t
-t
(D) 2 d( t) + ( e- t + et ) u( t) 60. The transfer function H ( s) of a stable system is 2s - 1 H ( s) = 2 s + 2s + 1 The impulse response is (A) 2 u( -t + 1) - 3tu( -t + 1) (B) ( 3te- t - 2 e- t ) u( t) (C) 2 u( t + 1) - 3tu( t + 1) (D) (2 e- t - 3te- t ) u( t) 61. The transfer function H ( s) of a stable system is H ( s) = s2 + 5 s - 9 ( s + 1)( s 2 - 2 s + 10)
The impulse response is (A) -e - t u( t) + ( e t sin 3t + 2 e t cos 3t) u( t) (B) -e - t u( t) - ( e t sin 3t + 2 e t cos 3t) u( -t) (C) -e - t u( t) - ( e t sin 3t + 2 e t cos 3t) u( t) (D) -e - t u( t) + ( e t sin 3t + 2 e t cos 3t) u( -t)
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Chap 5.3
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) X ( s) = x( t) e - st dt = e - st dt =
0 2
r ( t) = e -2 t u( t)
R( s) =
1 s+2 e- ( s + 2 ) s2
e -2 s s
v( t) = e -2 t u( t - 1) x( t) = q( t) * v( t) 1 s e X ( s) = s+2
-2 ( s + 1 )
L L
V ( s) =
X ( s) = Q( s) V ( s)
2. (A) X ( s) = x( t) e -3t dt = u( t + 2) -3t dt = e -3t dt =

0 0 0
L 11. (B) p( t) = e -3t cos 2 t u( t) P ( s) =
3. (A) X ( s) = e -2 t e - st dt =
0
1 s+2
s+3 ( s + 3) 2 + 4
p( t) dt X ( s) =
1 P ( s) p( t) dt + s - s
4. (C) X ( s) = x( t) e - st dt = e 2 t u( -t + 2) e - st dt
0 0
( s + 3) s[( s + 3) 2 + 4 ]
L
= e t ( 2 - s ) dt =
0
2 (2 - s )
- 1 1 - e -2 ( 2 - s ) = 2-s s -2
12. (A) p( t) = e - t cos t u( t) q( t) = d p( t) dt

L
P ( s) =
s+1 ( s + 1) 2 + 1
5. (C) X ( s) =
2
5 ( e j 5t - e - j 5t ) - st e dt = 2 2 25 j s + 0 1 - e -2 s s
L
Q( s) = X ( s) = -
s( s + 1) ( s + 1) 2 + 1 d Q( s) ds
x( t) = tq( t) 6. (B) X ( s) = e - st dt =
0
P ( s) = 1 ( s + 1) 2
X ( s) =
-( s 2 + 4 s + 2) ( s 2 + 2 s + 2) 2 s+3 A B = + ( s + 3s + 2) s + 1 s + 2
2
7. (B) p( t) = te - t u( t) x( t) = d p( t) dt
L
13. (B) X ( s) = A=
X ( s) =
s ( s + 1) 2 1 s2 s s + 4 p2
2
s+3 s+3 = 2, B = = -1 s + 2 s = -1 s + 1 s = -2
8. (A) p( t) = tu( t) q( t) = cos 2 pt u( t) x( t) = p( t) * q( t) X ( s) =

2
P ( s) = Q( s) =
x( t) = [2 e - t - e -2 t ]u( t) 14. (A) X ( s) = 2 1 1 1 =2 + ( s + 2) ( s + 3) ( s + 2) ( s + 3)
L L
X ( s) = P ( s)Q( s)
x( t) = 2 d( t) + ( e-3t - e-3t ) u( t) 15. (C) X ( s) = 2s - 1 A B = + s 2 + 2 s + 1 ( s + 1) ( s + 1) 2
1 s( s + 4 p2 )
L
9. (C) p( t) = tu( t) q( t) = - tp( t) x( t) = - tq( t) t n u( t)
P ( s) =
1 s2
B = (2 s - 2) s = -1 = -3, A = 2 x( t) = x( t) = [2 e - t - 3te - t ]u( t) 16. (B) X ( s) = 5s + 4 A B C = + + 2 s + 3s + 2 s s s + 1 s + 2

3
Q( s) = X ( s) =
d -2 P ( s) = 3 ds s
d 6 Q( s) = 4 ds s
A = sX ( s) s = 0 = 2, B = ( s + 1) X ( s) s = -1 = 1, C = ( s + 2) X ( s) s = -2 = -3 x( t) = [2 + e - t - 3e -2 t ]u( t)
n! sn + 1
L
10. (D) p( t) = u( t) q( t) = u( t - 1)
P ( s) = e- s s2
1 s
17. (C) X ( s) = =
s2 - 3 ( s + 2)( s 2 + 2 s + 1)
Q( s) =
A B C + + ( s + 2) ( s + 1) ( s + 1) 2
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Signal & System
A = ( s + 2) X ( s) s = -2 = 1, C = ( s + 1) 2 X ( s) A + B =1 x( t) = [ e
-2 t
-t
B =0
s = -1
= -2
- te ]u( t) 3s + 2 3( s + 1) 1 = 2 2 ( s + 1) 2 + 32 s + 2 s + 10 ( s + 1) + 3
2
s L 23. (C) P ap( at) a 1 1 -t L e sin 2 t u( t) ( s + 1) 2 + 4 2 x( t)

L
18. (A) X ( s) =
1 -0 .5t e sin t u( t) 4 1 ( s + 1) 2
L L L
1 x( t) = 3e - t cos 3t - e - t sin 3t u( t) 3 19. (C) X ( s) = 4 s 2 + 8 s + 10 ( s + 2)( s 2 + 2 s + 5)
24. (C) P ( s) = Q( s) = d P ( s) ds
p( t) = te - t u( t)
q( t) = -tp( t) = -t 2 e - t u( t) x( t) = q( t - 2)
A B( s + 1) C = + + 2 2 ( s + 2) ( s + 1) + 2 ( s + 1) 2 + 2 2 A = ( s + 2) X ( s) s = -2 = 2 A + B=4 B =2 C = -2 5 A + 2 B + 2 C = 10
X ( s) = e -2 sQ( s)
x( t) = - ( t - 2) e ( t - 2 ) u( t - 2)
L
25. (A) sX ( s) + X ( s)
dx( t) + x( t) dt
x( t) = [2 e -2 t + 2 e - t cos 2 t - e - t sin 2 t ]u( t) 3s 2 + 10 s + 10 20. (B) X ( s) = ( s + 2)( s 2 + 6 s + 10) A B( s + 3) C = + + ( s + 2) ( s + 3) 2 + 1 ( s + 3) 2 + 1 A = ( s + 2) X ( s) s = -2 = 1, A + B = 3 10 A + 6 B + 2 C = 10 x( t) = [ e

-2 t
y( t) = ( -2 sin 2 t + cos 2 t ) u( t)
L
s 26. (B) X a X ( 3s) B =2

L
ax( at)
1 2 cos t u( t) 3 3
L
27. (D) X ( s + 2) 28. (B) P ( s) =
e-2 t x( t)
C = -6
-3t
+ 2e
-3t
cos t - 6 e
sin t ]u( t)
X ( s) s
- L t
x( t) dt
-
21. (D) X ( s) =
2 s 2 + 11s + 16 + e -2 s ( s2 + 5 s + 6) P ( s) s
L
cos 2 t u( t) dt =
sin 2 t 2
A B e -2 s e -2 s =2 + + + ( s + 2) ( s + 3) ( s + 2) ( s + 3) A= B= ( s + 2)(2 s 2 + 11s + 16) =2 ( s2 + 5 s + 6) s = -2 ( s + 3)(2 s + 11s + 16) = -1 ( s2 + 5 s + 6) s = -3

2
sin 2 t 1 - cos 2 t dt = u( t), 2 4 0

t L
29. (C) P ( s) = e -3s X ( s) = cos 2( t - 3) u( t - 3) d L Q( s) = P ( s) ds = -t cos 2( t - 3) u( t - 3). 30. (A) x( t - 2)

L
p( t) = x( t - 3)
x( t) = 2 d( t) + [2 e -2 t - e-3t ]u( t) + [ e -2 ( t - 2 ) - e -3( t - 2 ) ]u( t - 2) 22. (C) P ( s) = Q( s) = d2 P ( s) ds 2 1 s2 + 9

L
q( t) = - p( t)
p( t) =
1 sin 3t u( t) 3 t2 sin 3t u( t) 3
e -2 s X ( s), Y ( s) =
q( t) = ( -1) 2 t 2 p( t) = d q( t) - q(0 - ) dt
2 se -2 s s2 + 2
R( s) = sQ( s) =
r ( t) =
31. (A) p( t) =
d x( t) dt
P ( s) = sX ( s)
2t sin 3t u( t) + t 2 cos 3t u( t) 3 1 L V ( s) = v( t) = e -3t u( t) s+3 2 t x( t) = v( t) + r ( t) = sin 3t u( t) + t 2 cos 3t u( t) + e -3t u( t) 3

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y( t) = x( t) * p( t) 32. (A) e - t x ( t)
Y ( s) = P ( s) X ( s) = s( X ( s)) 2 X ( s + 1) = 2( s + 1) ( s + 1) 2 + 2
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Chap 5.3
33. (B) 2 tx( t)
-2
d 4 s2 - 8 X ( s) = 2 ds ( s + 2) 2
42. (A) x( t) = e -2 e t + 2 sin (2 t + 4) u( t + 2) p( t + 2) X ( s) =

L
e 2 s P ( s), Re ( s) > 1 -1 , Re ( s) < - 2 s+2
34. (A) X ( s) =

x( t) e
- st
dt e2 ( s + 1 ) , Re( s) > - 1 s+1

3 -3s
e 2 s e -2 , ( s - 1) 2 + 4
= e - t e - st dt = e - t ( s + 1 ) dt =
-2 -2
43. (A) p( t) = e -2 t u ( -t) q( t) = Re ( s) < 0 d p( t) dt

L
P ( s) =
-e 35. (B) X ( s) = u( -t + 3) e - st dt = e - st dt = s - - 36. (C) Y ( s) =
Q( s) = sP ( s) X ( s) = Q( s - 1) = 1-s 1+ s
x( t) = e t q( t)
d( t + 1) e
jt
- st
dt = e s ,
All s
Re ( s) < - 1 thus left-sided . 44. (C) Left-sided 1 L P ( s) = s+2 X ( s) = e 5s P ( s) Re ( s) > 0 x( t) = - e

L -2 ( t + 5)
37. (B) X ( s) =
( e - e ) - st e dt 2j 0
- jt
p( t) = -e -2 t u( -t) x( t) = p( t + 5)
1 1 1 , e t ( j - s ) dt e - t ( j + s ) dt = = j s2 2j 2 1 + 0 0 38. (D) X ( s) = e e - st + e - t e - st dt +
0 0 t 2
u( -( t + 5))
ee
t - st
dt
45. (A) Right-sided 1 L P ( s) = ( s - 3) X ( s) = d2 P ( s) ds 2

L
p( t) = e 3t u( t) x( t) = t 2 e 3t u( t)
1 1 1 + s + 0.5 s + 1 s - 1 -0.5 < Re ( s) < 1
Re ( s) > -0.5, Re ( s) > -1, Re ( s) < 1
46. (D) Left-sided x( t) = -u( -t) + u ( -t + 1) + d( t + 2)

t 2
39. (A) X ( s) =
( e - e ) - st e dt + e - t e- st dt + e e - st dt 2j 0 0
jt
- jt
47. (C) Right-sided, P ( s) = Q( s) = e-3s P ( s) d R( s) = Q( s) ds V ( s) = 1 R( s) s

t L L
1 s
p( t) = u( t)
Re ( s) < 1, Re ( s) > -1, Re ( s) > 0.5 Therefore X ( s) = 0.5 < Re ( s) < 1
q( t) = p( t - 3) = u( t - 3) r ( t) = -tq( t) = -tu( t - 3) v( t) =
s -1 1 1 + + ( s - 1) 2 + 4 ( s + 1) s - 0.5
r( t) dt
40. (C) x( t) = e -3e -3( t + 3) u( t + 3) p( t) = e u( t)

3t
v( t) = - tdt = 3
1 2 ( t - 9) 2 x( t) = 1 2 ( t - 9) 2 -
t
L L
1 P ( s) = s-3 Q( s) = e 3s P ( s) = e 3s s-3
X ( s) =
1 v( s) s
q( t) = p( t + 3) X ( s) = e 3( s -1 ) , s-3
Re ( s) > 3
L
9 -1 x( t) = ( t 3 - 27) + ( t - 3) u( t - 3) 6 2 -s - 4 -3 2 = + s 2 + 3s + 2 ( s + 1) s + 2
48. (B) X ( s) = P ( s)Q( s)
41. (B) p( t) * q( t)
-s 1 X ( s) = 2 s + 9 s + 1 Re ( s) > -1, Re ( s) < 0 -1 < Re ( s) < 0

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Left-sided, x( t) = 3e - t u( -t) - 2 e -2 t u( -t) 49. (A) X ( s) = Left-sided,

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x( t) = -5 u( -t) + te - t u( -t)
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Signal & System
50. (D) x(0 + ) = lim sX ( s) =

x
s =0 s + 5s - 2
2
h( t) = (2 e - t - 3te - t ) u( t). 61. (A) H ( s) = -1 2( s - 1) 3 + + ( s + 1) ( s - 1) 2 + 32 ( s - 1) 2 + 32
s2 + 2 s 51. (A) x(0 + ) = lim sX ( s) = 2 =1 s s + 2s - 3 52. (D) x(0 + ) = lim sX ( s) =

s
System is stable h( t) = - e - t u( t) + (2 e t cos 3t + et sin 3t) u( -t) 62. (A) X ( s) = H ( s) = =1 1 , s+1 Y ( s) = ( s + 2) ( s + 2) 2 + 1
-2 s
(6s + s ) =0 s2 + 2 s - 2
3 2
53. (A) x( ) = lim sX ( s) =

s 0
2 s3 + 3s =0 s2 + 5 s + 1
Y ( s) ( s + 1)( s + 2) = X ( s) ( s + 2) 2 + 1
s+2 54. (C) x( ) = lim sX ( s) = 2 =2 s 0 s + 3s + 1 55. (B) x( ) = lim sX ( s) =

s 0 -
( s + 2) 1 ( s + 2) 2 + 1 ( s + 2) 2 + 1
h( t) = d( t) - ( e-2 t cos t + e-2 t sin t) u( t) 63. (B) sY ( s) + 10 Y ( s) = 10 X ( s) H ( s) = Y ( s) 10 = X ( s) s + 10
e -3s (2 s2 + 1) 1 = s2 + 5 s + 4 4
56. (C) sY ( s) - y(0 ) + 10 Y ( s) = 10( s) 1 y(0 ) = 1, X ( s) = s 10 1 1 Y ( s) = + = s( s + 1) ( s + 1) s

-
h( t) = 10 e-10 t u( t)
64. (B) Y ( s)( s 2 - s - 2) = X ( s)(5 s - 4) H ( s) = Y ( s) 5s - 4 3 2 = = + X ( s) s 2 - s - 2 s + 1 s - 2
y( t) = u( t)
2
h( t) = 3e - t u( t) + 2 e 2 t u( t).
57. (C) s Y ( s) - 2 s + 2 sY ( s) - 2 + 5 Y ( s) = 1 ( s 2 + 2 s + 5) Y ( s) = 3 + 2 s 2s + 3 2( s + 1) 1 Y ( s) = 2 = + s + 2 s + 5 ( s + 1) 2 + 2 2 ( s + 1) 2 + 2 2 y( t) = 2 e - t cos t u( t) + 1 -t e sin t u( t) 2 10 ( s + 2)
***********
58. (B) s 3Y ( s) + 4 s 2 Y ( s) + 3sY ( s) = Y ( s) =
10 A B C D = + + + s( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 3) s ( s + 1) ( s + 2) s + 3
5 A = sY ( s) s = 0 = , B = ( s + 1) Y ( s) s = -1 = -5, 3 C = ( s + 2) Y ( s) s = -2 = 5, D = ( s + 3) Y ( s) s = 0 = 5 5 y( t) = - 5 e - t + 5 e -2 t + e -3t u( t) 3 3 h( t) = 0 for t < 0 5 3
59. (D) For a causal system H ( s) = 2 + 1 1 + s + 1 s -1
h( t) = 2 d( t) + ( e- t + e t ) u( t) 2 3 , System is stable s + 1 ( s + 1) 2
60. (D) H ( s) =
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CHAPTER
5.4
THE Z-TRANSFORM
Statement forQ.1-12: Determine the z-transform and choose correct option. 1. x[ n] = d[ n - k] , k > 0 (A) z , (C) z ,
k k
6. x[ n] = 3n u[ -n - 1] z (A) , |z|> 3 3-z (C) 3 , |z|> 3 3-z

|n|
(B) (D)
z , |z|< 3 3-z 3 , |z|< 3 3-z
z >0 z 0
(B) z (D) z
-k -k
, ,
z >0 z 0
2. x[ n] = d[ n + k] , k > 0 (A) z - k , z 0 (C) z - k , all z 3. x[ n] = u[ n] 1 (A) , |z|> 1 1 - z -1 (C) z , |z|< 1 1 - z -1

n
2 7. x[ n] = 3 (A)
(B) z k , z 0 (D) z k , all z
-5 z 3 2 , - <z <(2 z - 3)( 3z - 2) 2 3 -5 z 2 3 , <|z|< (2 z - 3)( 3z - 2) 3 2 5z 2 2 , <|z |< (2 z - 3) ( 3z - 2) 3 3 5z 3 2 , - <z <(2 z - 3)( 3z - 2) 2 3
n n
(B) (B) (D) 1 , |z|< 1 1 - z -1 z , |z|> 1 1 - z -1
(C)
(D)
1 4. x[ n] = ( u[ n] - u[ n - 5 ]) 4 (A) (C) z - 0.25 , z > 0.25 z 4 ( z - 0.25)

5 5
(B) (D)
z - 0.25 , z >0 z 4 ( z - 0.25)

5 5
1 1 8. x[ n] = u[ n] + u[ -n - 1] 2 4 (A) 1 1 , 1 -1 1 -1 1- z 1- z 2 4 1 1 + , 1 -1 1 -1 1- z 1- z 4 2 1 1 <|z|< 4 2 1 1 <|z|< 4 2
z 5 - 0.25 5 , z < 0.25 z 3( z - 0.25)

4
z 5 - 0.25 5 , all z z 4 ( z - 0.25)
1 5. x[ n] = u[ -n] 4 (A) (C) 4z 1 , |z|> 4z - 1 4 1 1 , |z|> 1 - 4z 4

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(B)
(B) (D)
4z 1 , |z|< 4z - 1 4 1 1 , |z|< 1 - 4z 4
(C)
1 1 1 , |z|> 1 -1 1 -1 2 1- z 1- z 2 4
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33. X ( z) =
1 1 , |z|< -2 1 - 4z 4
37. Consider three different signal

n 1 x1 [ n] = 2 n - u[ n] 2
(A) - 2 2 ( k + 1 ) d[ -n - 2( k + 1)]
k=0
(B) - 2 2 ( k + 1 ) d[ -n + 2( k + 1)]
k=0
x2 [ n] = -2 n u[ -n - 1] + x3[ n] = - 2 n u[ -n - 1] -
1 u[ -n - 1] 2n 1 u[ n] 2n
(C) - 2 2 ( k + 1 ) d[ n + 2( k + 1)]
k=0
(D) - 2 2 ( k + 1 ) d[ n - 2( k + 1)]
k=0
Fig. P.5.4.37 shows the three different region. Choose the correct option for the ROC of signal
Im R1 z - plane R2 R3 2 Re
1 2
34. X ( z) = ln (1 + z -1 ) , |z|> 0 ( -1) (A) k

k -1
d[ n - 1]
( -1) (B) k
k -1
d[ n + 1]
( -1) k (C) d[ n - 1] k 35. If z-transform is given by
( -1) k (D) d[ n + 1] k
X ( z) = cos ( z -3), |z|> 0, The value of x[12 ] is (A) (C) 1 24 1 6 (B) (D) 1 24 1 6 (A) (B) (C) (D) R1 x1 [ n] x2 [ n ] x1 [ n] x3[ n] R2
Fig. P5.4.37
R3 x3[ n] x1 [ n] x2 [ n ] x1 [ n]
x2 [ n ] x3[ n] x3[ n] x2 [ n ]
36. X ( z) of a system is specified by a pole zero pattern in fig. P.5.4.36.

Im z - plane Re 2
38. Given 7 -1 z 6 X ( z) = 1 -1 1 -1 1 - z 1 + z 2 3 1+ For three different ROC consider there different
1 3
Fig. P.5.4.36
solution of signal x[ n] : (a) |z|>

n 1 1 -1 , x[ n] = n -1 - u[ n] 2 3 2
Consider three different solution of x[ n]

n 1 x1 [ n] = 2 n - u[ n] 3
(b) |z|<
1 u[ n] 3n 1 x3[ n] = - 2 n u[ n - 1] + n u[ -n - 1] 3 Correct solution is x2 [ n] = - 2 n u[ n - 1] (A) x1 [ n] (C) x3[ n]

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-1 -1 1 , x[ n] = n -1 + 3 3 2
u[ -n + 1]
n
(c)
1 1 1 -1 <|z |< , x[ n] = - n -1 u[ -n - 1] - u[ n] 3 2 2 3
Correct solutions are (A) (a) and (b) (C) (b) and (c) (B) (a) and (c) (D) (a), (b), (c)
(B) x2 [ n] (D) All three
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The z-Transform
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Chap 5.4
39. X ( z) has poles at z = 1 2 and z = -1. If time signal x[ n] is (A) 1 u[ n] - ( -1) n u[ -n - 1] 2 n -1
x [1] = 1
44. The transfer function of a causal system is given as H ( z) = 5z2 z2 - z - 6
x [ -1] = 1, and the ROC includes the point z = 3 4. The
The impulse response is (A) ( 3n + ( -1) n 2 n + 1 ) u[ n] (B) ( 3n + 1 + 2 ( -2) n ) u[ n] (C) ( 3n -1 + ( -1) n 2 n + 1 ) u[ n] (D) ( 3n -1 - ( -2) n + 1 ) u[ n] 45. A causal system has input x[ n] = d[ n] + y[ n] = d[ n] 1 1 d[ n - 1] - d[ n - 2 ] and output 4 8 3 d[ n - 1] . 4
1 (B) n u[ n] - ( -1) n u[ -n - 1] 2 (C) (D) 1 2 n -1 u[ n] + u[ -n + 1]
1 u[ n] + u[ -n + 1] 2n
40. x[ n] is right-sided, X ( z) has a signal pole, and x[0 ] = 2, x[2 ] = 1 2. x[ n] is u[ -n] (A) n -1 2 (C) u[ -n] 2n +1 u[ n] (B) n -1 2 (D) u[ -n] 2n +1
The impulse response of this system is (A)

n n 1 -1 1 5 2 u[ n] 3 4 2
41. The z-transform function of a stable system is given as 23 -1 z 2 1 -1 z ) 2 (B)
1 1 -1 5 + 2 3 4 2
n
u[ n]
H ( z) =
(1 - 2 z -1 ) (1 +
(C)
1 3
n 1 n -1 5 2 u[ n] 4 2 n n
The impuse response h[ n] is 1 (A) 2 n u[ -n + 1] - u[ n] 2 -1 (B) 2 n u[ -n - 1] + u[ n] 2 -1 (C) -2 n u[ -n - 1] + u[ n] 2 1 (D) 2 n u[ n] - u[ n] 2 42. Let x[ n] = d[ n - 2 ] + d[ n + 2 ]. (B) z 2 (D) 2 z 2 The unilateral
n n n n
(D)
1 1 1 5 + 2 3 2 4
u[ n]
46. A causal system has input x[ n] = ( -3) n u[ n] and output

n 1 y[ n] = 4(2) n - u[ n]. 2
The impulse response of this system is

n 1 n 1 (A) 7 - 10 u[ n] 2 2 n 1 (B) 7(2 n ) - 10 u[ n] 2 n 1 (D) 10 (2 n ) - 7 u[ n] 2
z-transform is (A) z -2 (C) -2 z -2
1 2 (C) 10 - 7(2) n u[ n] 2
47. A system has impulse response h[ n] = 1 u[ n] 2n
43. The unilateral z-transform of signal x[ n] = u[ n + 4 ] is (A) 1 + z + z 2 + 3z + z 4 (C) 1 + z -1 + z -2 + z -3 + z -4

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(B) (D)
1 1-z 1 1 - z -1
The output y[ n] to the input x[ n] is given by y[ n] = 2 d[ n - 4 ]. The input x[ n] is (A) 2 d[ -n - 4 ] - d[ -n - 5 ] (C) 2 d[ -n + 4 ] - d[ -n + 5 ]

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(B) 2 d[ n + 4 ] - d[ n + 5 ] (D) 2 d[ n - 4 ] - d[ n - 5 ]
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48. A system is described by the difference equation y[ n] 1 y[ n - 1] = 2 x[ n - 1] 2
53. The z-transform of a signal x[ n] is given by X ( z) = 3 10 -1 1z + z -2 3
The impulse response of the system is -1 1 (B) n - 2 u[ n + 1] (A) n - 2 u[ n - 1] 2 2 (C) 1 2

n -2
If X ( z) converges on the unit circle, x[ n] is (A) (B) 1 3n -1 8 1 3n -1 8 1 3n -1 8 1 3

n -1
u[ n - 2 ]
(D)
-1 u[ n - 2 ] 2n -2
u[ n] -
3n + 3 u[ -n - 1] 8
u[ n] u[ n] -
49. A system is described by the difference equation y[ n] = x[ n] - x[ n - 2 ] + x[ n - 4 ] - x[ n - 6 ] The impulse response of system is (A) d[ n] - 2 d[ n + 2 ] + 4 d[ n + 4 ] - 6 d[ n + 6 ] (B) d[ n] + 2 d[ n - 2 ] - 4 d[ n - 4 ] + 6 d[ n - 6 ] (C) d[ n] - d[ n - 2 ] + d[ n - 4 ] - d[ n - 6 ] (D) d[ n] - d[ n + 2 ] + d[ n + 4 ] - d[ n + 6 ] 50. The impulse response of a system is given by h[ n] = 3 u[ n - 1]. 4n (C)
3n + 3 u[ -n - 1] 8 3n + 3 u[ -n] 8 3n + 3 u[ -n] 8
(D) -
u[ n] -
54. The transfer function of a system is given as H ( z) = 4 z -1 1 -1 1 - z 4

2
, |z|>
1 4
The h[ n] is (A) Stable (C) Stable and Causal (B) Causal (D) None of the above
The difference equation representation for this system is (A) 4 y[ n] - y[ n - 1] = 3 x[ n - 1] (B) 4 y[ n] - y[ n + 1] = 3 x[ n + 1] (C) 4 y[ n] + y[ n - 1] = - 3 x[ n - 1] (D) 4 y[ n] + y[ n + 1] = 3 x[ n + 1] 51. The impulse response of a system is given by h[ n] = d[ n] - d[ n - 5 ] The difference equation representation for this system is (A) y[ n] = x[ n] - x[ n - 5 ] (C) y[ n] = x[ n] + 5 x[ n - 5 ] (B) y[ n] = x[ n] - x[ n + 5 ] (D) y[ n] = x[ n] - 5 x[ n + 5 ]
55. The transfer function of a system is given as 1 2 z + 2 . H ( z) = 1 1 z - z - 2 3 Consider the two statements Statement(i) : System is causal and stable. Statement(ii) : Inverse system is causal and stable. The correct option is (A) (i) is true (B) (ii) is true (C) Both (i) and (ii) are true (D) Both are false 56. The impulse response of a system is given by -1 -1 h[ n] = 10 u[ n] - 9 u[ n] 2 4 For this system two statement are Statement (i): System is causal and stable
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n n
52. The transfer function of a system is given by H ( z) = z( 3z - 2) 1 z2 - z 4
The system is (A) Causal and Stable (B) Causal, Stable and minimum phase (C) Minimum phase (D) None of the above
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Statement (ii): Inverse system is causal and stable.

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The correct option is (A) (i) is true (C) Both are true 57. The system y[ n] = cy[ n - 1] - 0.12 y[ n - 2 ] + x[ n - 1] + x[ n - 2 ] is stable if (A) c < 112 . (C) |c |< 112 . (B) c > 112 . (D) |c |> 112 . (B) (ii) is true (D) Both are false
62. The impulse response of the system shown in fig. P5.4.62 is

X(z) + z-1 z-1 Y(z)
z-1
Fig. P5.4.62
n -2
(A) 2 2 (B)
(1 + ( -1) n ) u[ n] +
1 d[ n] 2
2n 1 (1 + ( -1) n ) u[ n] + d[ n] 2 2
n -2
58. Consider the following three systems y1 [ n] = 0.2 y[ n - 1] + x[ n] - 0.3 x[ n - 1] + 0.02 x[ n - 2 ] y2 [ n] = x[ n] - 0.1 x[ n - 1] y3[ n] = 0.5 y[ n - 1] + 0.4 x[ n] - 0.3 x[ n - 1] The equivalent system are (A) y1 [ n] and y2 [ n] (C) y3[ n] and y1 [ n] (B) y2 [ n] and y3[ n] (D) all
(C) 2 2 (D)
(1 + ( -1) n ) u[ n] -
1 d[ n] 2
2n 1 [1 + ( -1) n ] u [ n] - d [ n] 2 2
63. The system diagram for the transfer function H ( z) = z z2 + z + 1
is shown in fig. P5.4.63. This system diagram is a

X(z) + Y(z)
59. The z-transform of a causal system is given as X ( z) = The x[0 ] is (A) -15 . (C) 1.5 (B) 2 (D) 0 . z -1 2 - 15 -1 . z + 0.5 z -2 1 - 15
z-1
z-1
Fig. P5.4.63
(A) Correct solution 60. The z-transform of a anti causal system is X ( z) = 12 - 21z 3 - 7 z + 12 z 2 (B) Not correct solution (C) Correct and unique solution (D) Correct but not unique solution
The value of x[0 ] is 7 (A) 4 (C) 4 61. Given the z-transforms X ( z) = The limit of x[ ] is (A) 1 (C)
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(B) 0 (D) Does not exist
*****************
z( 8 z - 7) 4z2 - 7z + 3
(B) 2 (D) 0
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z 2 - 3z 1 - 3z -1 = 3 3 z 2 + z -1 1 + z -1 - z -2 2 2 2 1 1 , ROC : <|z|< 2 = 1 + 2 z -1 1 - 1 z -1 2 2 1 x[ n] = -2(2) n u[ -n - 1] - n u[ n] 2 24. (A) X ( z) = 25. (A) x[ n] is right sided 1 49 47 z - z -1 4 32 32 = + X ( z) = 1 - 16 z -1 1 + 4 z -1 1 - 4 z -1 47 n 49 x[ n] = ( -4) n + 4 u[ n] 32 32 26. (C) x[ n] is right sided 1 -1 2 X ( z) = 2 + + z -1 1+ z 1 - z -1 x[ n] = 2 d[ n + 2 ] + (( -1) n - 1) u[ n + 2 ]
1 2 , n even and n 0 = 4 n odd 0 ,

n
2-n , = 0,
n even and n 0 n odd

33. (C) X ( z) = -4 z 2 (2 z) 2 k = - 2 2 ( k + 1 ) z 2 ( k + 1 )
k=0 k=0
x[ n] = - 2 2 ( k + 1 ) d[ n + 2 ( k + 1)]
k=0
34. (A) ln (1 + a) = X ( z) =
( -1) k -1 ( a) k k k =1
( -1) k -1 ( z -1 ) k k k =1 ( -1) k -1 d[ n - 1] k k =1
x [ n] =
35. (B) cos a = X ( z) =
27. (A) d[ n] + 2 d[ n - 6 ] + 4 d[ n - 8 ] 28. (B) x[ n] is right sided, x[ n] = 29. (D) x[ n] is right sided signal X ( z) = 1 + 3z
-1
( -1) k 2 k a k = 0 (2 k) !
k d[ n - k]
k=5
10
( -1) k -3k 2 k (z ) k = 0 (2 k) !
k=0
x [ n] =
(2 k) ! d [ n - 6 k]
( -1) k
n = 12
12 - 6 k = 0, k = 2,
+ 3z
-2
+z
-3
x[ n] = d[ n] + 3d[ n - 1] + 3d[ n - 2 ] + d[ n - 3]
( -1) 2 1 x[12 ] = = 4! 24 36. (D) All gives the same z transform with different ROC. So all are the solution. 37. (C) x1 [ n] is right-sided signal z1 > 2 , z1 > 1 gives z1 > 2 2
30. (A) x[ n] = d[ n + 6 ] + d[ n + 2 ] + 3d[ n] + 2 d [ n - 3] + d[ n - 4 ] 31. (B) X ( z) = 1 + z + z2 z3 + + ......... 2 ! 3! 1 1 1 ......... +1 + + + 2 z 2!z 3! z3
d[ n + 2 ] d[ n + 3] x[ n] = d[ n] + d[ n + 1] + + ...... 2! 3! d[ n - 2 ] d[ n - 3] +d[ n] + d[ n - 1] + + ......... 2! 3! 1 x [ n] = d [ n] + n! 32. (A) X ( z) = 1 +

k
x2 [ n] is left-sided signal 1 1 z 2 < 2, z 2 < gives z 2 < 2 2 x3[ n] is double sided signal 1 1 z 3 > and z 3 < 2 gives < z3 < 2 2 2 38. (B) X ( z) = 2 -1 , + 1 -1 1 1- z 1 + z -1 2 z x[ n] = 2 -1 u[ n] - u[ n] 2n 3
n
z z + 4 4
-2
-2
1 -2 = 4 z k=0
1 x [ n] = d[ n - 2 k] k=0 4
|z|> |z|<
1 (Right-sided) 2 1 (Left-sided) 3
-2 -1 n x[ n] = n + u[ -n - 1] 3 2
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1 1 2 -1 <|z|< (Two-sided) x[ n] = - n u[ -n - 1] - u[ n] 3 2 2 3 So (b) is wrong. 3 39. (A) Since the ROC includes the z = , ROC is 4 1 <|z|< 1, 2 A B X ( z) = + 1 -1 1 + z -1 1- z 2 A x[ n] = n u[ n] B ( -1) n u[ -n - 1] 2 A 1= A =2 , 2 x[ -1] = 1 = ( -1) B( -1) B = 1 1 x[ n] = n -1 u[ n] - ( -1) n u[ -n - 1] 2 40. (B) x[ n] = Cpn u[ n] , x[0 ] = 2 = C x[2 ] = 1 = 2 p2 2
n
-2 5 Y ( z) 3 3 , H ( z) = = + X ( z ) 1 - 1 z -1 1 + 1 z -1 4 2 h[ n] =
n n 1 -1 1 5 2 u[ n] 3 4 2
46. (D) X ( z) = Y ( z) =
1 1 + 3z -1
4 1 3 = -1 1 1 1 - 2z 1 - z -1 (1 - 2 z -1 ) 1 - z -1 2 2 10 Y ( z) -7 = + X ( z ) 1 - 2 z -1 1 - 1 z -1 2
H ( z) =
n 1 h[ n] = 10(2) n - 7 u( n) 2
47. (D) H ( z) =
p=
1 , 2 X ( z) =
1 , Y ( z ) = 2 z -4 1 -1 1- z 2
1 x[ n] = 2 u( n) 2 41. (B) H ( z) = 1 1 + -1 1 1 - 2z 1 + z -1 2
Y ( z) = 2 z -4 - z -5 H ( z)
x[ n] = 2[ d - 4 ] - d[ n - 5 ]
z -1 -1 48. (A) Y ( z) 1 = 2 z X ( z) 2 H ( z) = Y ( z) 2 z -1 = z -1 X ( z) 12
n -1
h[ n] is stable, so ROC includes |z|= 1 1 ROC : <|z|< 2 , 2 -1 h[ n] = (2) u[ -n - 1] + u [ n] 2

n n
1 h[ n] = 2 2
u[ n - 1] Y ( z) = (1 - z -2 + z -4 - z -6 ) X ( z)
42. (A) X + ( z) =
n =0
x[ n]z x[ n]z
-n
= d[ n - 2 ]z - n = z -2
49. (C) H ( z) =
h[ n] = d[ n] - d[ n - 2 ] + d[ n - 4 ] - d[ n - 6 ] 31 44
n -1
43. (D) X ( z) =
-n
n =0
n =0
-n
1 = 1 - z -1
50. (A) h[ n] =
u[ n - 1]
3 2 44. (B) H ( z) = + -1 1 - 3z 1 + 2 z -1 h[ n] is causal so ROC is |z|> 3, h[ n] = [ 3n + 1 + 2 ( -2) n ]u[ n] z -1 z -2 3z -1 , Y ( z) = 1 4 8 4
45. (A) X ( z) = 1 +
3 -1 z Y ( z) 4 H ( z) = = X ( z ) 1 - 1 z -1 4 1 3 Y ( z ) - z -1 Y ( z) = z -1 X ( z) 4 4 1 3 y[ n] - y[ n - 1] = x[ n - 1] 4 4
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51. (A) H ( z) =
Y ( z) = 1 - z -5 X ( z)
So y1 and y2 are equivalent. 59. (B) Causal signal x[0 ] = lim X ( z) = 2

z
y[ n] = x[ n] - x[ n - 5 ] 1 2 2 , poles at z = 2 3
52. (D) Zero at : z = 0,
60. (C) Anti causal signal, x[0 ] = lim X ( z) = 4

z
(i) Not all poles are inside |z|= 1, the system is not causal and stable. (ii) Not are poles and zero are inside |z|= 1, the system is not minimum phase. 3 27 8 8 53. (A) X ( z) = + 1 -1 1 - 3z -1 1- z 3 Since X ( z) converges on |z|= 1. So ROC must include this circle. 1 ROC : <|z|< 3, 3 3n + 3 x[ n] = - n -1 u[ n] u[ -n - 1] 3 8 8 1 1 54. (C) h[ n] = 16 n u[ n]. So system is both stable and 4 causal. ROC includes z = 1. 55. (C) Pole of system at : z = 1 1 , 2 3 1 Pole of inverse system at : z = 2
n
3 61. (A) The function has poles at z = 1, . Thus final 4 value theorem applies. 7 ) 4 =1 lim x( n) = lim( z - 1) X ( z) = ( z - 1) n z 1 3 ( z - 1) z - 4 z(2 z 62. (C) [2 Y ( z) + X ( z)] z -2 = Y ( z) H ( z) = z -2 1 - 2 z -2
=-
1 1 1 4 4 h[ n] = - + + 2 1 - 2 z -1 1 + 2 z -1 1 1 d[ n] + {( 2 ) n + ( - 2 ) n } u[ n] 2 4
63. (D) Y ( z) = X ( z) z -1 - { Y ( z) z -1 + Y ( z) z -2 } Y ( z) z -1 z = = 2 -1 -2 X ( z) 1 + z + z z + z +1 So this is a solution but not unique. Many other correct diagrams can be drawn.
For this system and inverse system all poles are inside |z|= 1. So both system are both causal and stable. 56. (A) H ( z) = 10 9 1 -1 1 1+ z 1 + z -1 4 2
***********
1 - 2 z -1 1 -1 1 -1 1 + z 1 + z 2 4
Pole of this system are inside |z|= 1. So the system is stable and causal. For the inverse system not all pole are inside |z|= 1. So inverse system is not stable and causal. 57. (C) |a2|= 0.12 < 1, a1 =| -c |< 1 + 0.12, |c |< 112 . 58. (A) Y1 ( z) = 1 - 0.1z -1 , Y2 ( z) = 1 - 0.1z -1 Y3( z) = 0.4 - 0.3z -1 1 - 0.5 z -1
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CHAPTER
5.6
THE DISCRETE-TIME FOURIER TRANSFORM
Statement for Q.19: Determine the discrete-time Fourier Transform for the given signal and choose correct option. 1, 1. x[ n] = 0, sin 5W (A) sin W (C) sin 2.5W sin W
n
1 5. x[ n] = u[ -n - 1] 2 (A) (C) e jW 2 - e - jW e jW 2 - e jW (B) (D) 2 e jW 2 - e - jW 2 e jW 2 - e jW
-n
|n| 2 otherwise (B) sin 4W sin W
6. x[ n] = 2 d[ 4 - 2 n] (A) 2 e - j 2 W (C) 1 7. x[ n] = u[ n] (B) 2 e j 2 W (D) None of the above
3 2. x[ n] = u[ n - 4 ] 4 (A)
( (
3 4
e - jW
3 - jW 1- 4 e 3 4
) )
(B)
3 4
e jW
3 jW 1- 4 e
(A) pd(W) 4
1 1 + e - jW 1 1 - e - jW 0, 1, 2}
(B) (D)
1 1 - e - jW 1 1 + e - jW
(C) pd(W) +
(C)
e - jW
3 4
1+
e jW
(D) None of the above 8. x[ n] = {-2, - 1,
3. x[ n] = u[ n - 2 ] - u[ n - 6 ] (A) e 3 jW + e 3 jW + e 4 jW + e 5 jW (C) e -2 jW + e -3 jW + e -4 jW + e -5 jW 4. x[ n] = a|n| , |a|< 1 (A) (C) 1-a 1 - 2 a sin W + a 2

2
(B) (D)
e -2 jW(1 - e 3 jW) 1 - e jW e
-2 jW
(A) 2 j(2 sin 2W + sin W) (C) -2 j(2 sin 2W + sin W) ) p 9. x[ n] = sin n 2 (A) p( d[W - p 2 ] - d[W + p 2 ]) j ( d[W + p 2 ] - d[W - p 2 ]) 2
(B) 2(2 cos 2W - cos W) (D) -2(2 cos 2W - cos W)
(1 - e 1 - e - jW
-3 jW
(B)
1-a 1 - 2 a cos W + a 2
2
(B)
1 - a2 1 - 2 ja sin W + a 2
(C) 2 p( d[W - p 2 ] - d[W + p 2 ]) (D) jp( d[W + p 2 ] - d[W - p 2 ])
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Statement for Q.1021: Determine the signal having the Fourier
16. X ( e jW) = j 4 sin 4W - 1 (A) 4 pd[ n + 4 ] - 4 pd[ n - 4 ] - 2 pd[ n] (B) 2 d[ n + 4 ] - 2 d[ n - 4 ] - d[ n] (C) d[ n + 4 ] - d[ n - 4 ] - d[ n] (D) None of the above 17. X ( e jW) = (A) 5 2-n 2 + e - jW + 6
transform given in question. 10. X ( e jW) = 1 , |a|< 1 (1 - ae - jW) 2 (B) ( n + 1) a n u[ n] (D) None of the above
(A) ( n - 1) a n u[ n] (C) na u[ n] 11. X ( e jW) = 8 cos 2 w (A) (d[ n + 2 ] + 2 d[ n] + d[ n - 2 ]) (B) 2(d[ n + 2 ] + 2 d[ n] + d[ n - 2 ]) (C) -4(d[ n + 2 ] + d[ n] + d[ n - 2 ]) (D)
1 2 n
-e
- j2 W
n +1 -2 1 + u[ n] 3 n +1
-2 (B) 2 - n 1 - 3 (C) 2-n 5
u[ n]
(d[ n + 2 ] + d[ n] + d[ n - 2 ])
n +1 2 ( -1) n + u[ n] 3
2 j, 0 <W p 12. X ( e jW) = - 2 j, - p < W 0 4 pn (A) sin 2 pn 2 (C) 8 pn sin 2 pn 2 4 pn (B) sin 2 pn 2 (D) 8 pn sin 2 pn 2
(D) None of the above 18. X ( e jW) = 2+ -1 e- j 2 W 8 e - jW +1 e - jW + 1 4

1 4
(A) 2 - n + 1 [1 + ( -2) - n ]u[ n] (B) 2 - n [1 + ( -2) - n ]u[ n] (C) 2 - n + 1 [( -1) n + 2 - n ]u[ n] (D) 2 - n [( -1) n + 2 - n ]u[ n] 19. X ( e jW) = 2 e - jW e- j 2 W 1-1 4
1, jW 13. X ( e ) = 0, (A)
3p p |W|< 4 4 p 3p 0 |W|< , |W| p 4 4
2 3pn pn sin - sin n 4 4 1 3pn pn sin - sin pn 4 4
(A) 2 n -1 [1 + ( -1) n ]u[ n] (B) 21 - n [1 + ( -1) n ]u[ n] (C) 21 - n [1 - ( -1) n ]u[ n] (D) 2 n -1 [1 - ( -1) n ]u[ n] 20. X ( e jW) = 2 (A) 9
n
(B)
2 3pn pn (C) cos + cos n 4 4 (D) 1 3pn pn cos + cos pn 4 4

jW 2
e - jW 1-1 3 j W e -1 e -2 jW 1-1 4 8
n
14. X ( e jW) = e ( -1) n + 1 p(n - 1 2)
for
-p W p (B) 2pd[ n - 1 2 ] (D) None of the above
7 1 1 + - 2 9 4
u[ n]
(A) pd[ n - 1 2 ] (C)
2 1 n 7 1 n (B) - + u[ n] 9 2 9 4 2 1 n 7 1 n (C) - - u[ n] 9 2 9 4
15. X ( e jW) = cos 2W + j sin 2W (A) 2 pd[ n + 2 ] (C) 0

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(B) d[ n + 2 ] (D) None of the above
2 (D) 9
7 1 1 - - 2 9 4
u[ n]
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1 1 x[ n] = - u[ n] + u[ n] = 2 - n [( -1) n + 2 - n ]u[ n] 2 4 2 e - jW 2 2 19. (C) X ( e ) = = 1 - j2 W 1 - jW 1 - jW 1- e 1- e 1+ e 4 2 2

jW
27. (D) X ( e j 0 ) =
n = -
x[ n] , This condition is satisfied only
if the samples of the signal add up to zero. This is true for signal (b) and (h). 28. (A) X ( e j 0 ) =
1 1 x[ n] = 2 u[ n] - 2 - u[ n] 2 2 1 = n -1 [1 - ( -1) n ]u[ n] = 21 - n [1 - ( -1) n ]u[ n] 2 1 - jW 1- e jW 3 20. (A) X ( e ) = 1 1 1 - e - jW - e -2 jW 4 8 2 7 9 9 = + 1 - jW 1 - jW 1- e 1+ e 2 4 21 7 1 x[ n] = u[ n] + - u[ n] 9 2 9 4 21. (C) X ( e jW) = = ( b - a) e jW - ( a + b) e jW + ab

n n
n = -
x[ n] = 6
is an even signal. Therefore X ( e jW) = e - j 2 WY ( e jW),
29. (A) y[ n] = x[ n + 2 ] Y ( e ) is real and even. Y ( e jW) = e j 2 W X ( e jW)

jW
Since Y ( e jW) is real. This imply arg{ Y ( e jW)} = 0 Thus arg{ X ( e jW)} = -2W 30. (C)
-p
X (e
jW
) dW = 2 px[0 ] = 4 p
31. (A) X ( e jp) =
n = -
( -1)
x[ n] = 2
DTFT 32. (C) Ev{ x[ n]} Re{ X ( e jW)}
e j2 W
Ev{ x[ n] =
( x[ n] + x[ -n])
2
( b - a) e 1 -1 = + 1 - ( a + b) e - jW + abe- j 2 W 1 - be - jW 1 - ae - jW
- jW
1 1 1 1 , 1, 0, 0, 1, 2, 1, 0, 0, 1, , 0, - = - , 0, 2 2 2 2
x[ n] = bn u[ n] + a n u[ -n - 1] . 22. (D) The signal must be read and odd. Only signal ( h) is real and odd. 23. (A) The signal must be real and even. Only signal (c) and (e) are real and even. 24. (A) Y ( e jW) = e jaW X ( e jW),
jW
33. (D)
-p
| X ( e )|
jW
= 2 p | x[ n]| = 28 p
2 n = -
34. (C) nx[ n]

p
DTFT
d X ( e jW) dW
y[ n] = x[ n + a ]
2 dX ( e jW) 2 = 2 p |n | x[ n] = 316 p dW n = - - p
If Y ( e ) is real, then y[ n] is real and even (if x[ n] is real.). Therefore x [ n + a ] is even and x [ n] has to be symmetric about a.This is true for signal (a), (c), (e), (f) and (g). 25. (D)
35. (A) Y ( e jW) = e - j 4 W X ( e jW) 3 y[ n] = x[ n - 4 ] = ( n - 4) 4

|n - 4|
-p
X (e
jW
) dW = 2 px[0 ] ,
36. (C) Since x[ n] is real and odd, X ( e jW) is purely imaginary. Thus y[ n] = 0. 37. (D) X 2 ( e jW) = X ( e j 2 W) X ( e j 2 W)
DTFT
x[0 ] = 0 is for signal (c), (f), (g) and (h). 26. (D) X ( e jW) is always periodic with period 2 p.
Therefore all signals satisfy the condition.
x[ n] , n even x 2 [ n] = otherwise 0,
|n| 2 3 jn , n even y[ n] = 4 0 , otherwise
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Chap 5.6
38. (B) Y ( e jW) = X ( e jW ) * X ( e j ( W- p 2 ) ) y[ n] = 2 px[ n] x1 [ n], x1 [ n] = e y[ n] = 2 pn2 e jpn

2 jpn 2
This is possible only if b = -a. 44. (A) For x[ n] = d[ n], X ( e jW) = 1, h[ n] = =

p
x[ n] ,
p p
3 4
2|n|
dX ( e jW) =0 dW e jWn dW
39. (C) Y ( e jW) =
d X ( e jW) dW
|n|
1 2p
-p
Y (e
jW
) e jWn dW =
1 2p
-p
- jW
3 y[ n] = - jnx[ n] = - jn2 4
1 sin p( n - 1) e jW ( n -1 ) dW = 2 p -p p( n - 1)
45. (B) H ( e jW) = H1 ( e jW) + H 2 ( e jW) -12 + 5 e - jW 1 -2 = + 1 - jW 1 12 - 7 e - jW + e - j 2 W 1- e 1 - e - jW 3 4 H 2 ( e jW) = 1 , 1 - jW 1- e 3 1 h2 [ n] = u[ n] 3

n
40. (B) Y ( e jW) = X ( e jW ) + X ( e - jW) y[ n] = x[ n] + x[ -n] = 0
41. (C) For a real signal x[ n] od{ x[ n]}

DTFT
jIm{ X ( e jW)}
jIm{ X ( e jW)}= j sin W - j sin 2W, 1 jW = e - e - j W - e 2 jW + e -2 jW 2
46. (D) H ( e jW) = 2 u[ n] 3

n n
Y ( e jW) , X ( e jW) 1 2 - jW 1- e 3 d j dW 1 2 - jW 1 - e 3 2 - jW e = 3 2 - jW 1- e 3
Therefore od{ x[ n]} = F -1 { jIm{ X ( e jW)}} 1 = ( d[ n + 1] - d[ n - 1] - d[ n + 2 ] + d[ n - 2 ]) 2 x[ n] - x[ -n] Od{ x[ n]} = 2 Since x[ n] = 0 for n > 0, x[ n] = 2od{ x[ n] } = d[ n + 1] - d[ n + 2 ] For n < 0 Using Parsevals relation 1 2p 3=
DTFT
2 n u[ n] 3

DTFT
| X ( e )|
jW
dW =
n =- 2
| x[ n]|
2 - jW e 2 e - jW H( e ) = 3 = - jW 2 1 - e - jW 3 - 2 e 3
jW
n = -
| x[ n]|
-1
= ( x [0 ]) + 2 But x[0 ] = 0, Hence x[0 ] = 1
x[0 ] = 1,
x[ n] = d[ n] + d[ n + 1] - d[ n + 2 ] 1 42. (C) u[ n] 4
n DTFT
1 1 1 - jW 4 1- e 4
2 - jW e Y ( e jW ) 3 47. (B) H ( e ) = = X ( e jW) 1 - 2 e - jW 3 2 2 1 - e - jW Y ( e jW) = e- jW X ( e jW) 3 3

jW
y[ n] -
2 2 y[ n - 1] = x[ n - 1] 3 3
1 - jW n e d 1 1 DTFT 4 = n u[ n] j 2 dW 1 - 1 e - jW 2 1 - 1 e - jW 4 4
n =0
3 y[ n] - 2 y[ n - 1] = 2 x[ n - 1] .
n 2 1
n = -
x[ n] = X ( e
j0
)=
4 9
*********
43. (A) For all pass system H ( e jW) = 1 for all W H ( e jW) = b+ e , b + e - jW = 1 - a e - jW 1 - ae- jW
- jW
| |
|
1 + b2 + 2 b cos W = 1 + a 2 - 2 a cos W
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CHAPTER
5.7
THE CONTINUOUS-TIME FOURIER SERIES
Statement for Q.1-5: Determine the Fourier series coefficient for given periodic signal x( t). 1. x( t) as shown in fig. P5.7.1
x(t) 10
-2p 3
x(t) A
-4p 3
2p
4p
Fig. P5.7.3
4 pk - j A 3 e (A) - 1 2 pk - j A e 2 pk 4 pk 3
(B) j
- j A e 2 pk
4 pk 3
- 1
-10
-5
10
(C) - j
Fig. P5.7.1
- 1
(D)
- j -A e 2 pk
4 pk 3
- 1
(A) 1 p (C) sin k 2 2. x( t) as shown in fig. P5.7.2

x(t) A
p (B) cos k 2 (D) 2
4. x( t) as shown in fig. P5.7.4

x(t) A 1 -1 -A t
Fig. P5.7.4
-T
T 4
T 2
A (A) (1 - ( - 1 ) k ) kp A (C) (1 - ( - 1 ) k ) jkp 5. x( t) = sin 2 t
(B)
A (1 + ( - 1 ) k ) kp A (D) (1 + ( - 1 ) k ) jkp
Fig. P5.7.2
(A) (C)
A p sin k jpk 2 A p sin k pk 2
(B) (D)
A p cos k jpk 2 A p cos k pk 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) -
1 1 1 d[ k - 1] + d[ k] - d[ k + 1] 4 2 4 1 1 1 d [ k - 2 ] + d[ k] - d[ k + 2 ] 4 2 4 1 1 d[ k - 1] + d[ k] - d[ k + 1] 2 2 1 1 d[ k - 2 ] + d[ k] - d[ k + 2 ] 2 2
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Statement for Q.6-11: In the question, the FS coefficient of time-domain signal have been given. Determine the corresponding time domain signal and choose correct option. 7. X [ k] = jd[ k - 1] - jd[ k + 1] + d[ k + 3] + d[ k - 3], wo = 2 p (A) 2(cos 3pt - sin pt) (C) 2(cos 6 pt - sin 2 pt) -1 8. X [ k] = , wo = 1 3 4 (A) 5 + 3 sin t 5 (C) 4 + 3 cos t
|k|
(A) (C)
sin 9 pt sin pt sin 18 pt 2 sin pt
(B)
sin 9 pt p sin pt
11. X [ k] As depicted in fig. P5.7.11, wo = p

X [k] 3 2 1
(B) -2(cos 3pt - sin pt) (D) -2(cos 6 pt - sin 2 pt)
5 (B) 4 + 3 sin t 4 (D) 5 + 3 cos t
k -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Fig. P5.7.11
(A) 3 cos 3pt + 2 cos 2 pt + cos pt (B) 3 sin 3pt + 2 sin 2 pt + sin pt (C) 6 sin 3pt + 4 sin 2 pt + 2 sin pt (D) 6 cos 3pt + 4 cos 2 pt + 2 cos pt
k
9. X [ k] as shown in fig. P5.7.9 , wo = p

|{X [k]}| 2 1 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
{X [k]}
p 4
Statement for Q.12-16: Consider a continuous time periodic signal x( t)

k
with
fundamental X [ k].
period
and the
Fourier Fourier
series series
-p 4
coefficients
Determine
Fig. P5.7.9
coefficient of the signal y( t) given in question and choose correct option. 12. y( t) = x( t - to ) + x ( t - to ) 2p (A) 2 cos kto X [ k] T (C) e
- to
p p (A) 6 cos 2 pt + - 3 cos 3pt - 4 4 p p (B) 4 cos 4 pt - - 2 cos 3pt + 4 4 p p (C) 2 cos 2 pt + - 2 cos 3pt - 4 4 p p (D) 4 cos 4 pt + + 2 cos 3pt - 4 4 10. X [ k] As shown in fig. P5.7.10 , wo = 2 p
|{X [k]}| 1 k -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
2p (B) 2 sin kto X [ k] T (D) e

- to
X [ k] + e to X [ -k]
X [ -k] + e to X [ k]
13. y( t) = Ev{ x( t)} (A) X [ k] + X [ - k] 2 X [ k] + X *[ - k] 2 (B) X [ k] - X [ - k] 2 X [ k] + X *[ - k] 2
(C)
(D)
{X [k]}
8p 6p 4p 2p
14. y( t) =Re{ x( t)}

k
(A)
-2p -4p -6p -8p
X [ k] + X [ - k] 2 X [ k] + X *[ - k] 2
(B)
X [ k] - X [ - k] 2 X [ k] + X *[ - k] 2
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(C)
(D)
Fig. P5.7.10
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15. y( t) =
d 2 x( t) dt 2
2
Statement for Q.20-21: 2 pk (B) - X [ k] T 2 pk (D) - j X [ k] T

2 2
2 pk (A) X [ k] T 2 pk (C) j X [ k] T 16. y( t) = x( 4 t - 1) 8p (A) X [ k] T (C) e

8 p - jk T 2
Let x1 ( t) and x2 ( t) be continuous time periodic signal with fundamental frequency w1 and w2 , Fourier series coefficients X1 [ k] and X 2 [ k] respectively. Given that x2 ( t) = x1 ( t - 1) + x1 (1 - t)
20. The relation between w1 and w2 is 4p (B) X [ k] T (D) e

8 p jk T
(A) w2 =
w1 2
2 (B) w2 = w1
(C) w2 = w1
(D) w2 = w1
X [ k]
X [ k]
21. The Fourier coefficient X 2 [ k] will be (A) ( X1 [ k] - jX1 [ -k]) e - jw 1 k (B) ( X1 [ -k] - jX1 [ k]) e - jw 1 k (C) ( X1 [ k] + jX1 [ -k]) e - jw 1 k (D) None of the above Statement for Q.22-23: Consider three continuous-time periodic signals whose Fourier series representation are as follows.
100 1 - jk t x1 ( t) = e 50 k=0 3 k 2p
17. Consider a continuous-time signal x( t) = 4 cos 100 pt sin 1000 pt 1 with fundamental period T = . The nonzero FS 50 coefficient for this function are (A) X [ -4 ], X [ 4 ], X [ -7 ], X [7 ] (B) X [ -1], X [1], X [ -10 ], X [10 ] (C) X [ -3], X [ 3], X [ -4 ], X [ 4 ] (D) X [ -9 ], X [9 ], X [ -11], X [11] 18. A real valued continuous-time signal x( t) has a fundamental period T = 8. The nonzero Fourier series coefficients for x( t) are X [1] = X [ -1] = 4, X [ 3] = X *[ -3] = 4 j The signal x( t) would be p 3p (A) 4 cos t + 4 j sin t 4 4 p 3p (B) 4 cos t - 4 j cos t 4 4 p p 3p (C) 8 cos t + 8 cos t + 2 4 4 (D) None of the above 19. The continuous-time periodic signal is given as 2p 5p x( t) = 4 + cos t + 6 sin t 3 3 The nonzero Fourier coefficients are (A) X [0 ], X [ -1], X [1], X [ -5 ], X [5 ] (B) X [0 ], X [ -2 ], X [2 ], X [ -5 ], X [5 ] (C) X [0 ], X [ -4 ], X [ 4 ], X [ -10 ], X [10 ] (D) None of the above
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x2 ( t) = x3( t) =
100
k = -100 100
cos kp e
- jk
2p t 50
k = -100
kp - jk 50 t j sin e 2
2p
22. The even signals are (A) x2 ( t) only (C) x1 ( t) and x3( t) (B) x2 ( t) and x3( t) (D) x1 ( t) only
23. The real valued signals are (A) x1 ( t) and x2 ( t) (C) x3( t) and x1 ( t) (B) x2 ( t) and x3( t) (D) x1 ( t) and x3( t)
24. Suppose the periodic signal x( t) has fundamental period T and Fourier coefficients X [ k]. Let Y [ k] be the Fourier coefficient of y( t) where Fourier coefficient X [ k] will be (A) TY [ k] ,k0 j2 pk TY [ k] ,k0 jk (B) TY [ k] j2 pk TY [ k] jk
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y( t) = dx( t) dt . The
(C)
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(D)
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Chap 5.7
25. Suppose we have given the following information about a signal x( t) : 1. x( t) is real and odd. 2. x( t) is periodic with T = 2 3. Fourier coefficients X [ k] = 0 for |k |> 1 4.
2 1 x( t) dt = 1 20 2
The signal will be p p (A) 4 cos t - 2 sin t 4 4 p p (B) 2 cos t + 4 sin t 4 4 p p (C) 2 cos t + 2 sin t 4 4 (D) None of the above Statement for Q.29-31: Consider the following three continuous-time signals with a fundamental period of T = 1 x( t) = cos 2 pt , y( t) = sin 2 pt , z( t) = x( t) y( t) 29. The Fourier series coefficient X [ k] of x( t) are (A)
1 2 1 2 1 2
The signal, that satisfy these condition, is (A) (B) 2 sin pt and unique 2 sin pt but not unique
(C) 2 sin pt and unique (D) 2 sin pt but not unique 26. Consider a continuous-time LTI system whose frequency response is H ( jw) =
( d[ k + 1] + d[ k - 1]) ( d[ k + 1] - d[ k - 1]) ( d[ k - 1] - d[ k + 1])
h( t) e
- jwt
dt =
sin 4 w w
(B) (C)
The input to this system is a periodic signal 2, 0 t 4 x( t) = -2, 4 t 8 with period T = 8. The output y( t) will be pt (A) 1 + sin 4
2
(D) None of the above 30. The Fourier series coefficient of y( t), Y [ k] will be (A) (B) (C) (D)
j 2 j 2 j 2
( d[ k + 1] + d[ k + 1]) ( d[ k + 1] - d[ k - 1]) ( d[ k - 1] - d[ k + 1]) ( d[ k + 1] + d[ k + 1])
pt (B) 1 + cos 4
2
pt pt (C) 1 + sin + cos 4 4
1 2j
(D) 0 31. The Fourier series coefficient of z( t) , Z [ k] will be (A)

1 4j 1 2j 1 2j
( d[ k - 2 ] - d[ k + 2 ]) ( d[ k - 2 ] - d[ k + 2 ]) d[ k + 2 ] - d[ k - 2 ])
27. Consider a continuous-time ideal low pass filter having the frequency response | 80 1, |w H ( jw) = , | | w 0 > 80 When the input to this filter is a signal x( t) with fundamental frequency wo = 12 and Fourier series
S coefficients X [ k], it is found that x( t) y( t) = x( t).
(B) (C)
(D) None of the above 32. Consider a periodic signal x( t) whose Fourier series coefficients are 2, X [ k] = 1 |k| j 2 , Consider the statements signal has a 1. x( t) is real. 2. x( t) is even 3. dx( t) is even dt k =0 otherwise
The largest value of|k , for which X [ k] is nonzero, is | (A) 6 (C) 7 28. A continuous-time (B) 80 (D) 12 periodic
fundamental period T = 8. The nonzero Fourier series coefficients are as, X [1] = X [ -1] = j , X [5 ] = X [ -5 ] = 2,
*
The true statements are (A) 1 and 2 (C) only 1 (B) only 2 (D) 1 and 3
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Statement for Q.33-36: A waveform for one peroid is depicted in figure in question. Determine the trigonometric Fourier series and choose correct option. 33.
x(t) 1
(A)
A 2A 1 1 + (sin t - sin 3t + sin 5 t....) 2 p 3 5 A 2A 1 1 + (cos t - cos 2 t + cos 3t....) 2 p 2 3 A 2A 1 1 + (cos t - cos 3t + cos 5 t....) 2 p 3 5 A 2A 1 1 + (sin t + cos t + sin 3t + cos 3t ....) 2 p 3 3
(B)
(C)
(D)
-p p -1 t
36.
x(t) 2
Fig. P5.7.33
2 1 1 1 (A) (cos t + cos 2 t + cos 3t + cos 4 t +....) p 2 3 4 (B) (C) 2 1 1 1 (sin t - sin 2 t + sin 3t - sin 4 t +....) p 2 3 4 2 1 1 1 (sin t + cos t - sin 2 t - cos 2 t + sin 3t +....) p 2 2 3
-1 -1 1 t
Fig. P5.7.36
(A)
2 1 1 1 (D) (sin t + cos t + sin 3t + cos 3t + sin 5 t + ....) p 3 3 5 34.

x(t) A -p
1 12 1 1 + (cos pt + cos 3pt + cos 5 pt +....) 2 p2 9 25 12 1 1 (cos pt + cos 3pt + cos 5 pt +....) p2 9 25
(B) 3 + (C)
1 12 1 1 + (sin pt - sin 3pt + sin 5 pt -....) 2 p2 9 25 12 1 1 (sin pt - sin 3pt + sin 5 pt -....) 2 p 9 25
(D) 3 +
p -A t
*****
Fig. P5.7.34
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A 4A 1 1 + sin t + sin 2 t + sin 3t +.... 2 p 2 3 A 4A 1 1 + cos t + cos 3t + cos 5 t +.... 2 p 3 5 4A 1 1 sin t + sin 3t + sin 5 t + .... p 3 5 4A 1 1 cos t + cos 2 t + cos 3t +.... p 2 3
35.
x(t) A
-p
-p 2
p 2
Fig. P5.7.35
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Chap 5.7
SOLUTIONS
1. (D) X [ k] = 1 T
T 2 - jkw t Ad( t) e o dt = -T 2
9. (D) x( t) = = 2e
- j p 4
k = -
X [ k]e
j p
jpkt
e j ( -4 ) pt + e 4 e j ( -3) pt + e
jp 4
e j ( 3) pt + 2 e 4 e j (4 ) pt
A , T
= 2( e - j ( 4 pt + p 4 ) + e j ( 4 pt + p 4 ) ) + ( e - j ( 3pt - p 4 ) + e j ( 3pt - p 4 ) ) = 4 cos ( 4 pt + p 4) + 2 cos( 3pt - p 4) 10. (A) X [ k] = e - j 2 pk , -4 k 4
A = 10 , T = 5, X [ k] = 2 1 2. (C) X [ k] = T
T T 2
-T 2
x( t) e
- jkw ot
1 dt = T
T 4
-T 4
Ae
- jkw ot
dt
x( t) =
k = -4
- j 2 pk
e jpkt =
k = -4
- j 2 pk ( t -1 )
sin 9 pt sin pt
A = T
e - jkw o t 4 A pk - jkw - T = pk sin 2 o

4
11. (D) X [ k] =|k |, - 3 k 3 x( t) = 4p 0<t< 3 4p < t < 2p 3 jA e 2 pk

4 pk j 3 k = -
X [ k]e
jpkt
A, 2p 3. (B) T = 2 p , wo = = 1, x( t) = 2p 0, X [ k] = 1 2p
2p - jkt x( t) e dt = 0
= 3e j ( -3) pt + 2 e j ( -2 ) pt + e j ( -1 ) pt + e j (1 ) pt + 2 e j ( 2 ) pt + 3e j ( 3) pt = 6 cos 3pt + 4 cos 2 pt + 2 cos pt 12. (A) x( t - to ) is also periodic with T. The Fourier - 1 series coefficients X1 [ k] of x( t - to ) are X1 [ k] = 1 T ej kw o to
1 2p
4p 3
Ae- jkt dt =
x( t - t ) e
o T
- jkw ot
dt =
x( t) e
T
- jkw ot
dt
- A, - 1 < t < 0 2p 4. (C) T = 2, wo = = p, x( t) = 0< t<1 2 A,

1 0 1 1 - jkpt X [ k] = x( t) e - jkt dt = - Ae dt + 2 -1 2 -1
= e - jkw oto X [ k] Similarly, the FS coefficients of x( t + to ) are X 2 [ k] = e jkw oto X [ k] The FS coefficients of x( t - to ) + x( t + to ) are Y [ k] = X1 [ k] + X 2 [ k] = e - jkw oto X [ k] + e jkw oto X [ k] = 2 cos ( wo kto ) X [ k] 13. (A) Ev{ x( t)} = x( t) + x( - t) , 2
Ae - jkpt dt 0
1
A 1 - e jkp e - jkp -1 A (1 - ( -1) k ) = + = 2 jkp - jkp jkp e jt - e - jt 5. (A) sin 2 t = 2j -1 2 jt -2 jt = 4 (e - 2 + e ) 2p =2 , p

2
The fundamental period of sin 2 ( t) is p and wo = X [ k] = -1 1 1 d[ k - 1] + d[ k] - d[ k + 1] 4 2 4
The FS coefficients of x( t) are 1 1 X1 [ k] = x( -t) e - jkw ot dt = x( t) e jkw ot dt = X [ -k] TT T T Therefore, the FS X [ k] + X [ -k] Y [ k] = 2 coefficients of Ev{ x( t)} are
7. (C) x( t) =
k = -
X [ k]e
j 2 pkt
= je j 2 p t - je -
j 2 pt
+ e j6 pt + e -
j6 pt
= - 2 sin 2 pt + 2 cos 6 pt 8. (D) x( t) =
14. (C) Re{ x( t)} = -1 jkt = e + k = - 3

-1 -k
x ( t) + x *( t) , 2
k = -
X [ k]e
jkt
-1 jkt e k=0 3
-1 - jt e 4 1 = 3 + = 1 1 1 + e - jt 1 + e j t 5 + 3cos t 3 3
The FS coefficient of x *( t) is 1 X1 [ k] = x *( t) e - jkw ot dt = X1*[ -k] TT X1*[ k] = 1 T
x( t) e
T
jkw ot
dt = X [ -k]
X1 [ k] = X *[ -k] Y [ k] = X [ k] + X *[ - k] 2
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10 p 4p 13. X [ k] = cos k + 2 j sin k 19 19 (A) (B) 19 ( d[ n + 5 ] + d[ n - 5 ]) + 19(d[ n + 2 ] - d[ n - 2 ]),|n | 9 2 1 ( d[ n + 5 ] + d[ n - 5 ]) + (d[ n + 2 ] - d[ n - 2 ]),|n | 9 2
18. y[ n] = x[ n] - x[ n - N 2 ] , (assume that N is even) (A) (1 - ( -1) k + 1 ) X [2 k] (C) (1 - ( -1) k + 1 ) X [ k] 19. y[ n] = x *[ -n] (A) - X *[ k ] (C) X *[ k ] (B) - X *[ -k ] (D) X *[ -k ] (B) (1 - ( -1) k ) X [ k] (D) (1 - ( -1) k\ ) X [2 k]
9 (C) ( d[ n + 5 ] + d[ n - 5 ]) + 9(d[ n + 2 ] - d[ n - 2 ]),|n | 9 2 (D) 1 ( d[ n + 5 ] + d[ n - 5 ]) + (d[ n + 2 ] - d[ n - 2 ]),|n | 9 2
20. y[ n] = ( -1) n x[ n], (assume that N is even) N (A) X k 2 N (C) X k + 1 2 Statement for Q.21-23: Consider a discrete-time periodic signal 1, 0 n 7 x[ n] = 0, 8 n 9 with period N = 10. Also y[ n] = x[ n] - x[ n - 1 ] 21. The fundamental period of y[ n] is (A) 9 (C) 11 (B) 10 (D) None of the above N (B) X k + 2 N (D) X k + - 1 2
pk 14. X [ k] = cos 21 (A) (B) (C) (D) 21 (d[ n + 4 ] + d[ n - 4 ]),|n | 10 2 1 (d[ n + 4 ] + d[ n - 4 ]),|n | 10 2 21 (d[ n + 4 ] - d[ n - 4 ]),|n | 10 2 1 (d[ n + 4 ] - d[ n - 4 ]),|n | 10 2
Statement for Q.15-20: Consider a periodic signal x[ n] with period N and FS coefficients X [ k]. Determine the FS coefficients Y [ k] of the signal y[ n] given in question. 15. y[ n] = x[ n - no ] (A) e
2 p j n ok N
X [ k]
(B) e
2 p - j n ok N
22. The FS coefficients of y[ n] are X [ k] (A)

8 p j k 1 5 1 - e 10
(C) kX [ k] 16. y[ n] = x[ n] - x[ n - 2 ] 4p (A) sin k X [ k] N

4 p - j k (C) 1 - e N X [ k]
(D) -kX [ k]
(B)
8 p - j k 1 5 1 - e 10
4p (B) cos k X [ k] N
4 p j k (D) 1 - e N X [ k]
(C)
1 10
4 p j k 5 1 - e
(D)
1 10
4 p - j k 5 1 - e
23. The FS coefficients of x[ n] are (A) j - j pk e 10 cosec Y [ k], k 0 2 10 pk pk
17. y[ n] = x[ n] + x[ n + N 2 ] , (assume that N is even) N (A) 2 X [2 k - 1], for 0 k - 1 2 (B) 2 X [2 k - 1], for 0 k (C) 2 X [2 k], (D) 2 X [2 k],
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(B)
j - j pk e 10 cosec Y [ k], k 0 2 10 1 - j pk e 10 sec Y [ k] 2 10 pk pk
N 2
(C) -
N for 0 k - 1 2 for 0 k N 2
(D)
1 - j pk e 10 sec Y [ k] 2 10
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Statement for Q.24-27: Consider a discrete-time signal with Fourier representation. x[ n]

p DTFS ; 10
29. A real and odd periodic signal x[ n] has fundamental period N = 7 and FS coefficients X [ k]. Given that X [15 ] = j, X [ k] X [16 ] = 2 j, X [17 ] = 3 j. The values of X [0 ], X [ -1], X [ -2 ], and X [ -3] will be (A) 0, j, 2 j, 3 j (C) 1, -1, -2, -3 (B) 1, 1, 2, 3 (D) 0, - j , -2 j, -3 j
In question the FS coefficient Y [ k] is given. Determine the corresponding signal y[ n] and choose correct option. 24. Y [ k ] = X [ k - 5 ] + X [ k + 5 ] p (A) 2 sin n x[ n] 5 p (C) 2 sin n x[ n] 2 pk 25. Y [ k] = cos X [ k] 5 1 (A) ( x[ n + 5 ] + x[ n + 5 ]) 2 (C) p (B) 2 cos n x[ n] 5 p (D) 2 cos n x[ n] 2
30. Consider a signal x[ n] with following facts 1. x[ n] is a real and even signal 2. The period of x[ n] is N = 10 3. X [11] = 5 4. 1 10
n =0
X [ k]
= 50
The signal x[ n] is p (A) 5 cos n 10 p (C) 10 cos n 5
p (B) 5 sin n 10 p (D) 10 sin n 5
(B)
1 ( x[ n + 2 ] + x[ n - 2 ]) 2
1 ( x[ n + 10 ] + x[ n + 10 ]) (D) None of the above 2
31. Each of two sequence x[ n] and y[ n] has a period N = 4. The FS coefficient are X [0 ] = X [ 3] = 1 1 X [1] = X [2 ] = 1 and 2 2
26. Y [ k] = X [ k] * X [ k] (A) ( x[ n]) 2p

2
(B) j2 p( x[ n]) 2 (D) 2 p( x[ n]) 2
Y [0 ], Y [1], Y [2 ], Y [ 3] = 1 The FS coefficient Z [ k] for the signal z[ n] = x[ n] y[ n] will be (A) 6 (C) 6|k| (B) 6|k | (D) e
p j k 2
(C) ( x[ n]) 2 27. Y [ k] = Re{ X [ k]} x [ n] + x[ -n] (A) 2 (C) x [ n] - x[ -n] 2p
(B) (D)
x [ n] - x[ -n] 2 x [ n] + x[ -n] 2p
32. Consider a discrete-time periodic signal 11p sin n 20 x[ n] = p sin n 20 with a fundamental period N = 20. The Fourier series coefficients of this function are 1 (A) ( u[ k + 5 ] - u[ k - 6 ]), |k | 10 20 (B) 1 ( u[ k + 5 ] - u[ k - 5 ]), |k | 10 20
28. Consider a sequence x[ n] with following facts : 1. x[ n] is periodic with N = 6 2. 3.

n =0 7
x[ n] = 2 ( -1)
n
x[ n] = 1
n -2
4. x[ n] has the minimum power per period among the set of signals satisfying the preceding three condition. The sequence would be.. 1 1 1 1 1 (A) ... , , , , , ... (B) 2 6 2 6 2
1 1 1 ...0, 1, , , , ... 2 3 4
(C) ( u[ k + 5 ] - u[ k + 6 ]), |k | 10 (D) ( u[ k + 5 ] - u[ k - 6 ]), |k | 10
1 1 1 1 1 (C) ... , , , , , ... 3 6 3 6 3

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Chap 5.8
11. (D) N = 7, W o = x[ n] =
2p , 7 = 2e
2 p j ( -1 ) n 7
17. (C) Note that y[ n] = x[ n] + x [ n + N 2 ] has a period - 1 + 2e

2 p j (1 ) n 7
n = -3
X [ k]e
2 p j kn 7
of N 2 and N has been assumed to be even, Y [ k] = 2 N

N 2 -1 n =0
( x[ n] + x[ n + N 2 ]) e
4 p - j kn N
2p = 4 cos n - 1 7
- j k p 12. (C) N = 12, W o = , X [ k] = e 6 6 p
= 2 X [2 k] for 0 k ( N 2 - 1) 18. (B) y[ n] = x[ n] - x [ n - N 2 ]

2 p N - j k Y [ k] = 1 - e N 2 X [ k] = (1 - e - jpk ) X [ k]
x[ n] = e =
k = -6
p - j k 6
p j kn 6
k = -6
p j k ( n -1 ) 6
p j ( -4 ) ( n -1 ) 6
p j ( n -1 ) 1-e 6
1-e
9p j ( n -1 ) 6
3p sin ( n - 1) = 4 p sin ( n - 1) 12
k even 0, = 2 X [ k ], k odd 19. (C) y[ n] = x *[ -n] 1 Y [ k] = N

N -1 n =0
x [ -n]e
*
2 p - j kn N
= X *[ k]
13. (A) N = 19, W o =
2p 19
20. (A) With N even y[ n] = ( -1) n x[ n] = e jpn x[ n] = e Y [ k] = = 1 N 1 N

N -1 n =0 2 p N j N 2
10 p 10 p X [ k] = cos k + 2 j sin k 19 19 =
2p 2p 2p 2p - j ( 5) k k - j(2 ) k - j ( -2 ) 19 1 - j ( -5) 19 k 19 19 e e + e + + e 2
x[ n]
2 p N j N 2
x[ n]e
2 p - j kn N
By inspection 19 x[ n] = ( d[ n + 5 ] + d[ n - 5 ]) + 19 ( d[ n + 2 ] - d [ n - 2 ]), 2 Where |n | 9 14. (A) N = 21, W o = 2p 21

2p - j ( -4 ) k 21 2p - j(4 ) k 21
N -1 n =0
x[ n]e
2 p N - j n k- 2 N
= X [k - N 2]
21. (B) y[ n] is shown is fig. S5.8.21. It has fundamental

y[n] 1 9 -1 1 2 3 4 5 7 8 10 11 n
8p 1 X [ k] = cos k = e +e 21 2 1 Since X [ k] = x[ n]e- jkWon , By inspection N n=N 21 , n = 4 x[ n] = 2 0, otherwise n { -10, - 9, ......9. 10} 1 N
N -1 n =0
Fig. S5.8.21
period of 10. 22. (B) Y [ k] = = 1 1 - e 10 1 10
n =0
y[ n]e
2 p - j kn 10
15. (B) Y [ k] = =
kn o 1 - j e N N 2 p
x[ n - n ]e
o 2 p - j kn N
2 p - j kn N
2 p - j k8 10
1 = 10
1 - e
8 p - j k 5
N -1 n =0
x[ n]e
=e
2 p - j kn o N
X [ k]
4 p - j k N
23. (A) y [ n] = x [ n] - x [ n - 1] X [ k] Y [ k] = X [ k] - e
2 p - j k 10
16. (C) Y [ k] = X [ k] - e
2 p - j 2k N
X [ k] = 1 - e
X [ k]
X [ k] =
Y [ k] 1-e
p - j k 5
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Signal & System
X [ k] = e
p j k 10
Y [ k]
p - j k 10
p j k 10
-e
Y [ k] pk 2 j sin 10 e
p j k 10
29. (D) Since the FS coefficient repeat every N . Thus X [1] = X [15 ], X [2 ] = X [16 ], X [ 3] = X [17 ] The signal real and odd, the FS coefficient X [ k] will be purely imaginary and odd. Therefore X [0 ] = 0 X [ -1] = - X [1], X [ -2 ] = - X [2 ], X [ -3] = - X [ 3] Therefore (D) is correct option. 30. (C) Since N = 10, X [11] = X [1] = 5 Since x[ n] is real and even X [ k] is also real and even. Therefore X [1] = X [ -1] = 5. Using Parsevals relation
-j e 2
p - j k 10
p cosec 10
k Y [ k]
24. (D) W o =
p , Y [ k] = X [ k - 5 ] + X [ k + 5 ] 10
p p n j ( -5) n j ( 5)10 p 10 y[ n] = e + e n x[ n] x[ n] = 2 cos 2 p j k 5 p -j k 5
e p 25. (B) Y [ k] = cos k X [ k] = 5

j ( -2 ) k 1 j ( 2 ) 10 k 10 = e +e X [ k] 2 p p
+e 2
X [ k]
X [ k]
N k=2
= 50 = = 50
k = -1
X [ k]
X [ -1] + X [1] + X [0 ] + X [0 ] +
2
X [ k]
k=2
X [ k]
=0
1 y[ n] = ( x[ n - 2 ] + x[ n + 2 ]) 2
2
Therefore X [ k] = 0 for k = 0, 2, 3, ..... 8. x[ n] = X [ k]e

N 2 p j kn N
k = -1 2 p j n 10
X [ k]e
2 p j kn 10
26. (C) Y [ k] = X [ k] * X [ k] y[ n] = x[ n] x[ n] = ( x[ n]) 27. (A) Y [ k] =Re{ X [ k]} y[ n] =Ev{ x[ n]} = 2p , 6
x[ n] + x[ -n] 2
= 5 e
2p - j n 10
+e
p = 10 cos n 5
DTFS
31. (A) z[ n] = x[ n] y[ n]
k =< N>
X [ l ]Y [ k - l ]
28. (A) N = 6, W o =
5
Z [ k] = X [ l ]Y [ k - l ]
l= 0
From fact 2, 1 6
n =0
x[ n] = 2
1 x[ n] = 3 1 X [0 ] = , 3
Z[ k ] = X [ 0 ] Y [ k ] + X [ 1 ] Y [ k - 1 ] + X [ 2 ] Y [ k - 2 ] + X [ 3 ] Y [ k - 3 ]
n =0
2 p j (0 )k 6
= Y [ k] + 2 Y [ k - 1] + 2 Y [ k - 2 ] + Y [ k - 3] Since Y [ k] is 1 for all values of k. Thus Z [ k] = 6, for all k. 32. (A) N = 20 We know that |n | 5 1, | 10 0, 5 <|n
DTFS ; p 10
From fact 3, 1 6
5
n =2
( -1) n x[ n] = 1
1 1 x[ n] = , X [ 3] = 6 6
n =0
2 p j ( 3) k 6
By Parsevals relation, the average power in x[ n] is P = X [ k] ,

2 k=0
11p sin k 20 p sin k 20
The value of P is minimized by choosing X [1] = X [2 ] = X [ 4 ] = X [5 ] = 0 Therefore x[ n] = X [0 ] + X [ 3]e

2p 6 3n
1 1 1 1 + ( -1) n = + ( -1) n 3 6 3 6
Using duality 11p sin n p DTFS ; 20 10 p sin n 20
|k | 5 1 1, | 10 20 0, 5 <|k
1 1 1 1 1 x[ n] = ... , , , , , ... 2 6 2 6 2
*********
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CHAPTER
6.1
TRANSFER FUNCTION
1. The equivalent transfer function of three parallel blocks G1 ( s) = 1 1 s+3 , G2 ( s) = and G3( s) = is s+1 s+4 s+5 (A) (B) (C) (D) s( s + 2)( s + 3) s + 7 s 2 + 12 s + 3
3
R(s)
G(s)
C(s)
H(s)
Fig. P.6.1.3
( s 3 + 10 s 2 + 34 s + 37) (A) ( s + 1)( s + 4)( s + 5) (B) (C) (D) ( s + 3) ( s + 1)( s + 4)( s + 5) -( s 3 + 10 s 2 + 34 s + 37) ( s + 1)( s + 4)( s + 5) -( s + 3) ( s + 1)( s + 4)( s + 5)
s( s + 2)( s + 3) s + 5 s2 + 4 s - 3
3
( s + 1)( s + 4) s + 7 s 2 + 12 s + 3
3
( s + 1)( s + 4) s + 5 s2 + 4 s - 3
3
2. The block having transfer function 1 1 s+1 , G2 ( s) = , G3( s) = G1 ( s) = s+2 s+5 s+3 are cascaded. The equivalent transfer function is (A) (B) ( s 3 + 10 s 2 + 37 s 2 + 31) ( s + 2)( s + 3)( s + 5) s+1 ( s + 2) ( s + 3) ( s + 5)
4. A feedback control system is shown in fig. P.6.1.4. The transfer function for this system is
R 1 G1 + G2 G3 C
H2
Fig. P.6.1.4
-( s 3 + 10 s 2 + 37 s 2 + 31) (C) ( s + 2)( s + 3)( s + 5) -( s + 1) (D) ( s + 2)( s + 3)( s + 5) 3. For a negative feedback system shown in fig. P.6.1.3 G( s) = s+1 s+3 and H ( s) = s( s + 2) s+4
(A) (B)
G1 G2 1 + H1 G1 G2 G3 G2 G3 G1 (1 + H1 G2 G3) G2 G3 1 + H1 G1 G2 G3 G2 G3 G1 (1 + H1 G2 G3)
(C) (D)
The equivalent transfer function is

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UNIT 6
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Control Systems
5. Consider the system shown in fig. P.6.1.5.

R(s) G1 + + G2 + C(s) +
(D)
G1 G2 1 + G1 H1 + G2 H 2 + G1 G2 H1 H 2
8. The closed loop gain of the system shown in fig. P6.1.8 is

Fig. P.6.1.5
R + + 6 C
The input output relationship of this system is

R(s) G1G2 C(s) R(s) 1 + G1 + G1G2 C(s)
1 3
Fig.P6.1.8
(A)
R(s) G1 + G2 C(s) R(s)
(B)
1 + G2 + G1G2 C(s)
(A) -2 (C) -6
(B) 6 (D) 2
(C)
(D)
9. The block diagrams shown in fig. P.6.1.9 are equivalent if G is equal to

R(s) s+2 s+1 C(s)
6. A feedback control system shown in fig. P.6.1.6 is subjected to noise N ( s).

N(s)
R(s)
R(s) + G1
+ G2
C(s)
1 s+1
C(s) +
H2
Fig. P.6.1.9
Fig. P.6.1.6
(A) s + 1 (C) s + 2
(B) 2 (D) 1
C ( s) The noise transfer function N is N ( s) (A) G2 1 + G1 G2 H (B) G2 1 + G1 H
10. Consider the systems shown in fig. P.6.1.10. If the forward path gain is reduced by 10% in each system, then the variation in C1 and C2 will be respectively
R1 16 3 C1
G2 (C) 1 + G2 H
7. A system is shown in fig. P6.1.7. The transfer function for this system is
H1 R(s) + C(s)
R2
10
C2
Fig. P.6.1.10
+ G2
G1
(A) 10% and 1% (C) 10% and 0%
(B) 2% and 10% (D) 5% and 1%

C R
H2
Fig. P.6.1.7
11. The transfer function fig. P.6.1.11 is

R 1 H1 +
of the system shown in the

C
(A) (B) (C)
G1 G2 1 + G1 G1 H 2 + G2 H1 G1 G2 1 + G1 G2 + H1 H 2 G1 G2 1 - G1 H1 - G2 H 2 + G1 G2 H1 H 2
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G1
G2
Fig. P.6.1.11
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Chap 6.1
(A)
G1 H 2 H1 (1 + G1 G2 H 2 ) G2 G1 1 + H1 H 2 G1 G2
(B)
G1 G2 H 2 H1 (1 + G1 G2 H 2 ) G1 G2 H1 (1 + G1 G2 H 2 )
15. A closed-loop system is shown in fig. P.6.1.15. The noise transfer function Cn ( s) N ( s) is approximately
R(s) 1 -H2 G1 C(s) H1 1 N(s)
(C)
(D)
12. In the signal flow graph shown in fig. P6.1.12 the sum of loop gain of non-touching loops is
t32 t12 x1 x2 t23 x3 t24 t25 t43 t34 x4 t44 t45 x5 t56 x6
Fig. P.6.1.15
(A)
1 For |G1 ( s) H1 ( s) H 2 ( s)| << 1 G1 ( s) H1 ( s) 1 For |G1 ( s) H1 ( s) H 2 ( s)| >> 1 - H1 ( s) 1 For |G1 ( s) H1 ( s) H 2 ( s)| >> 1 H1 ( s) H 2 ( s) 1 For |G1 ( s) H1 ( s) H 2 ( s)| << 1 G1 ( s) H1 ( s) H 2 ( s)
C R
Fig. P.6.1.12
(B)
(A) t32 t23 + t44 (C) t24 t43t32 + t44
(B) t23t32 + t34 t43 (D) t23t32 + t34 t43 + t44
(C)
13. For the SFG shown in fig. P.6.1.14 the graph determinant D is
-c b d 1 i f -g
(D)
16. The overall transfer function in fig. P.6.1.16 will be

-H1 R 1
of the system shown
a 1
-H2 G C
Fig. P.6.1.16
(A) G (C) G (1 + H1 )(1 + H 2 )
(B)
Fig. P.6.1.13
G 1 + H2 G 1 + H1 + H 2
(A) 1 - bc - fg - bcfg + cigj (B) 1 - bc - fg - cigj + bcfg (C) 1 + bc + fg + cig j - bcfg (D) 1 + bc + fg + bcfg - cigj 14. The sum of the gains of the feedback paths in the signal flow graph shown in fig. P.6.1.13 is
1 a f b e c d 1
(D)
17. Consider the signal flow graphs shown in fig. P6.1.17. The transfer 2 is of the graph
1 1
1 1 1
1 2 1 2
1
1 2
Fig. P.6.1.14
1
1 2
(A) af + be + cd + abef + bcde (B) af + be + cd (C) af + be + cd + abef + abcdef (D) af + be + cd + cbef + bcde + abcdef (A) a (C) b and c
Fig. P.6.1.17
(B) b (D) a, b and c
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Control Systems
18. Consider the List I and List II List I (Signal Flow Graph)
xi xi a a b xi 1 1 b a xo b xo xo
-H3
List II (Transfer Function) 1. a + b (B) 2. ab a 3. (1 - ab) 4. a 1-b (A)
R(s) 1
2 G1
-H2 G2
1 C(s)
-H1H2
P. Q.
-H3 R(s) 1 1 1 2 G1 -H2 -H2 R(s) 1 1 1 2 G1 -H1H2 H3 R(s) 1 1 1 2 G1 H2 -H1 3 3 3
-H2 4 G2 1 C(s)
S. R.
xi 1 a b 1 xo
(C)
4 G2 -H3
C(s)
(D) S 4 3 3 4
G2
C(s)
The correct match is P (A) (B) (C) (D) 2 2 1 1 Q 1 1 2 2 R 3 4 4 3
21. The block diagram of a system is shown in fig. P.6.1.21. The closed loop transfer function of this system is
H1
19. For the signal flow graph shown in fig. P6.1.19 an equivalent graph is
ta tc e1 tb e2 e3 td e4
R(s)
G1
G2
G3
C(s)
H2
Fig. P.6.1.19
ta + tb e1 e3 tctd e4 e1 tatb e3 tc+ td e4
Fig. P.6.1.21
(A) (B)
G1 G2 G3 1 + G1 G2 G3 H1 G1 G2 G3 1 + G1 G2 G3 H1 H 2 G1 G2 G3 1 + G1 G2 H1 + G2 G3 H 2 G1 G2 G3 1 + G1 G2 H1 + G1 G3 H 2 + G2 G3 H1
(A)
ta + tb e1 e2 tctd e4 e1
(B)
tatb e2 tc+ td e4
(C) (D)
(C) 20. Consider the P.6.1.20

R(s) 1 + 2 + G2 3 +
(D) block diagram shown in figure

4 G2
22. For the system shown in fig. P6.1.22 transfer

C(s)
function C( s) R( s) is
G3
H1
H2
R(s)
G1
G2
C(s)
H3
Fig. P.6.1.20
H1
For this system the signal flow graph is

H2
Fig. P.6.1.22
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Chap 6.1
(A)
G3 1 - H1 G2 - H 2 G3 - G1 G2 H 2 G3 + G1 G2 1 + H1 G2 + H 2 G3 + G1 G2 H 2 G3 1 + H1 G2 + H 2 G3 + G1 G2 H 2
26. The transfer function of the system shown in fig. P.6.1.26 is

R(s) + G1 + + G2 C(s)
(B)
(C)
H1
H2
Fig. P.6.1.26
G3 (D) 1 - H1 G2 - H 2 G3 - G1 G2 H 2 23. In the signal flow graph shown in fig. P6.1.23 the transfer function is
R 5 3 2 C
(A) (C)
G1 G2 1 - G1 G2 H1 - G1 G2 H 2 G1 G2 1 - G2 H 2 + G1 G2 H1 H 2
(B) (D)
G1 G2 1 - G2 H 2 - G1 G2 H1 G1 G2 1 - G1 G2 H1 H 2
27. For the block diagram shown in fig. P.6.1.27 transfer function C( s) R( s) is
G8 R(s) + C(s)
-3
Fig. P.6.1.23
(A) 3.75 (C) 3
(B) -3 (D) -3.75
G1
G2
G3
24. In the signal flow graph shown in fig. P6.1.24 the gain C R is
R 1 2 3 5 4 -1 -1 -1 1 C
G4 +
G5 + + +
G6
Fig. P.6.1.27
(A) 29 19 29 11 (B) (C) (D)
G1 G2 1 + G1 G2 + G1 G7G3 + G1 G2 G8 G6 + G1 G2 G3G7G5 G1 G2 1 + G1 G4 + G1 G2 G8 + G1 G2 G5G7 + G1 G2 G3G6 G7 G1 + G2 1 + G1 G4 + G1 G2 G8 + G1 G2 G5G7 + G1 G2 G3G6 G7 G1 + G2 1 + G1 G2 + G3G6 G7 + G1 G3G4 G5 + G1 G2 G3G6 G7G8
Fig. P.6.1.24
44 (A) 23 (C) 44 19
(B) (D)
25. The gain C( s) R( s) of the signal flow graph shown in fig. P.6.1.25 is
G3 R(s) 1 G1 -H1 G2 G4 1 C(s)
28. For the block diagram shown in fig. P.6.1.28 the numerator of transfer function is
G1 R(s) C(s)
Fig. P.6.1.25
G2
G5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
G1 G2 + G2 G3 1 + G1 G2 H1 + G2 G3 H1 + G4 G1 G2 + G2 G3 1 + G1 G3 H1 + G2 G3 H1 - G4 G1 G3 + G2 G3 1 + G1 G3 H1 + G2 G3 H1 - G4 G1 G3 + G2 G3 1 + G1 G3 H1 + G2 G3 H1 + G4
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G3 + +
G4
Fig. P.6.1.28
(A) G6 [ G4 + G3 + G5( G3 + G2 )] (B) G6 [ G2 + G3 + G5( G3 + G4 )]

+ G6
G7
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(C) G6 [ G1 + G2 + G3( G4 + G5)] (D) None of the above 29. For the block diagram shown in fig. P.6.1.29 the transfer function C( s) R( s) is 50( s - 2) 50( s - 2) (A) 3 (B) 3 2 s + s + 150 s - 100 s + s 2 + 150 s (C) 50 s s + s + 150 s - 100
3 2
33. The closed loop transfer function of the system

G1 R + + C
G2
G3
H1
(D)
50 s + s + 150
2
Fig. P.6.1.32
shown in fig. P6.1.33 is 30. For the SFG shown in fig. P.6.1.30 the transfer function
R
C R
G2 R + + + + C
is
G1 G2 G3 1 C
G1
G3
G4
-H1
-H2
-H3
H3
H2
H1
Fig. P.6.1.30
Fig. P.6.1.33
(A) (B) (C) (D)
G1 + G2 + G3 1 + G1 H1 + G2 H 2 + G3 H 3 G1 + G2 + G3 1 + G1 H1 + G2 H 2 + G3 H 3 + G1 G3 H1 H 3 G1 G2 G3 1 + G1 H1 + G2 H 2 + G3 H 3 G1 G2 G3 1 + G1 H1 + G2 H 2 + G3 H 3 + G1 G3 H1 H 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
G1 G2 G3 + G2 G3G4 + G1 G4 1 + G1 G3G4 H1 H 2 H 3 + G2 H 4 H1 H 2 + G4 H1 G2 G4 + G1 G2 G3 1 + G1 G3 H1 H 2 H 3 + G4 H1 + G3G4 H1 H 2 G1 G3G4 + G2 G4 1 + G3G4 H1 H 2 + G4 H1 + G1 G3 H 3 H 2 G1 G3G4 + G2 G3G4 + G2 G4 1 + G1 G3G4 H1 H 2 H 3 + G3G4 H1 H 2 + G4 H1
31. Consider the SFG shown in fig. P6.1.31. The D for this graph is
G4 -H3 R 1 G1 -H1 -H2 G2 G3 1 C
Statement for Q.34-37: A block diagram of feedback control system is shown in fig. P6.1.34-37
R1(s)
+ +
C1(s)
Fig. P.6.1.31
(A) 1 + G1 H1 + G2 G3 H 3 + G1 G3 H 2 (B) 1 + G1 H1 - G2 G3 H 3 - G1 G3 H 3 + G2 G4 H 2 H 3 (C) 1 + G1 H1 + G2 G3 H 3 + G1 G3 H 3 - G2 G4 H 2 H 3 (D) 1 + G1 H1 + G2 G3 H 3 + G1 G3 H 3 + G2 G4 H 2 H 3 32. The transfer function of the system shown in fig. P.6.1.32 is G2 G3 + G1 G3 (A) 1 - G3 H1 + G2 G3 (C) G2 G3 + G1 G3 1 + G3 H1 + G2 G3 G2 G3 + G1 G3 1 + G3 H1 - G2 G3 G2 G3 + G1 G3 1 - G3 H1 - G2 G3
R2(s)
+ + +
C2(s)
Fig. P.6.1.34-37
34. The transfer function (A) (C) G 1 - 2G2 G(1 - 2 G) 1 - G2
C1 R1
is
R2 = 0
(B) (D)
(B) (D)
G(1 - G) 1 - 2G2 G 1 - G2
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35. The transfer function (A) (C) G 1 - 2G2 G2 1 - 2G2
C1 R2
is
R1 = 0
40. The transfer function for this system is

5
(B) (D)
G 1 - G2 G2 1 - G2
R1(s)
1 s
+ +
2s
C2(s)
36. The transfer function G (1 + G) (A) 1 - 2G2 (C) G 1 - G2

2
C2 R1
is
R2 = 0
Fig. P.6.1.40-41
G2 (B) 1 - 2G2 (D) G 1 - G2 is

R1 = 0
(A) (C)
2 s(2 s + 1) 2 s 2 + 3s + 5 2 s(2 s + 1) 4 s 2 + 13s + 5
(B) (D)
2 s(2 s + 1) 2 s 2 + 13s + 5 2 s(2 s + 1) 4 s 2 + 3s + 5
41. The pole of this system are (A) -0.75 j1.39 (C) -0.5, - 1.67 (B) -0.41, - 6.09 (D) -0.25 j0.88
C 37. The transfer function 2 R2 G(1 + G) (A) 1 - 2G2 (C) G 1+ G
G (B) 1 - 2G2 (D) G 1 - G2

********
Statement for Q.3839: A signal flow graph is shown in fig. P.6.1.3839.

G4 Y1 1 Y2 G1 -H1 Y3 G2 -H2 -H3 Y4 G3 Y5 1 Y5
Fig. P.6.1.38-39
38. The transfer function (A) (C) 1 D G1 G2 G3 D
Y2 is Y1 (B) 1 + G2 H 2 D
(D) None of the above Y5 is Y2 (B) G1 G2 G3 + G4 G3 (D) G1 G2 G3 + G4 G3 1 + G2 H 2
39. The transfer function (A) (C) G1 G2 G3 + G4 G3 D G1 G2 G3 + G4 G3 G1 G2 G3
Statement for Q.4041: A block diagram is shown in fig. P6.1.4041.

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SOLUTIONS
1. (A) Ge ( s) = G1 ( s) + G2 ( s) + G3( s) =
=
C2 =
10 10 , = 10 + 1 11
C 2 =
9 9 = , C2 is reduced by 1%. 9 + 1 10
1 1 s+3 + + ( s + 1) ( s + 4) ( s + 5)
s 2 + 9s + 20 + s 2 + 6s + 5 + s 3 + 5s 2 + 4s + 3s 2 + 15s + 12 (s + 1)(s + 4)(s + 5)
11. (A) Apply the feedback formula and then multiply 1 by , H1 1 ( H 2 G1 ) H C H 2 G1 1 = = R H1 (1 + G1 G2 H 2 ) 1 + H 2 G1 G2 12. (A) There cannot be common subscript because
s 3 + 10 s 2 + 34 s + 37 ( s + 1)( s + 4)( s + 5) ( s + 1) ( s + 2)( s + 5)( s + 3)
2. (B) Ge ( s) = G1 ( s) G2 ( s) G3( s) = C( s) G( s) = R( s) 1 + H ( s) G( s)
subscript refers to node number. If subscript is common, that means that node is in both loop. 13. (D) L1 = -bc, L2 = - fg, L3 = jgic, L1 L3 = bcfg D = 1 - ( -bc - fg + cigj) + bcfg = 1 + bc + fg - cig j + bcfg 14. (A) In this graph there are three feedback loop. abef is not a feedback path because between path x2 is a summing node.
3. (C)
s+1 ( s + 1)( s + 4) s( s + 2) = = 3 ( s + 3) ( s + 1) s + 7 s 2 + 12 s + 3 1+ ( s + 4) s( s + 2) 4. (B) Multiply G2 and G3 and apply feedback formula and then again multiply with T( s) = G2 G3 G1 (1 + G2 G3 H1 ) 1 . G1
15. (B) By putting R ( s) = 0 P1 = - H 2 G1 , L1 = - G1 H 2 H1 , D1 = 1, if |G1 H 2 H1 | >> 1, Tn ( s) = Tn ( s) = - H 2 G1 1 + G1 H 2 H1
- H 2 G1 -1 = G1 H 2 H1 H1
5. (D) T( s) = G2 (1 + G1 ) + 1 = 1 + G1 + G1 G2 6. (A) Open-loop gain = G2 Feed back gain = HG1 TN ( s) = G2 1 + G1 G2 H
16. (C) P1 = G , L1 = - H1 , L2 = - H 2 , L1 L2 = H1 H 2 , D1 = 1 T( s) = G G = 1 + H1 + H 2 + H1 H 2 (1 + H1 )(1 + H 2 ) 1 1 1 1 + + + =1 4 4 4 4
7. (D) Apply the feedback formula to both loop and then multiply G1 T( s) = 1 + G H 1 1 = G2 1 + G H 2 2
17. (B) Ga = 1, Gb = 1 + 1 = 2, Gc =
There are no loop in any graph. So option (B) is correct. 18. (B) P. P1 = ab, D = 1, L = 0 , T = ab Q. P1 = a, P2 = b , D = 1, L = Dk = 0, T = a + b a R. P1 = a, L1 = b, D = 1 - b, D1 = 1, T = a-b a S. P1 = a, L1 = ab, D = 1 - ab, D1 = 1, T = 1 - ab 19. (A) Between e1 and e2 , there are two parallel path. Combining them gives ta + tb . Between e2 and e4 there is a path given by total gain tc td . So remove node e3 and place gain tc td of the branch e2 e4 . Hence option (A) is correct.
G1 G2 1 + G1 H1 + G2 H 2 + G1 G2 H1 H 2 C 6 = =-6 1 R 1 - 6 3
8. (C) For positive feedback
9. (D) For system (b) closed loop transfer function G G + s+1 G + s+1 s+2 , , Hence G = 1 +1= = s+1 s+1 s+1 s+1 10. (A) In open loop system change will be 10% in C1 also but in closed loop system change will be less
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20. (A) Option (A) is correct. Best method is to check the signal flow graph. In block diagram there is feedback from 4 to 1 of gain - H1 H 2 . The signal flow graph of option (A) has feedback from 4 to 1 of gain - H1 H 2 . 21. (C) Consider the block diagram as SFG. There are two feedback loop -G1 G2 H1 and -G2 G3 H 2 and one forward path G1 G2 G3 . So (D) is correct option. 22. (B) Consider the block diagram as a SFG. Two forward path G1 G2 and G3 and three loops -G1 G2 H 2 , - G2 H1 , - G3 H 2 . There are no nontouching loop. So (B) is correct. 23. (C) P1 = 5 3 2 = 30, D = 1 - ( 3 - 3) = 10 C 30 D1 = 1 , = =3 R 10 24. (A) P1 = 2 3 4 = 24 , P2 = 1 5 1 = 5 L1 = -2 , L2 = -3, L3 = -4, L4 = -5, L1 L3 = 8, D = 1 - ( -2 - 3 - 4 - 5) + 8 = 23, D1 = 1, D2 = 1 - ( -3) = 4, C 24 + 5 4 44 = = R 24 23 25. (B) P1 = G1 G2 , P2 = G3G2 L3 = G4 , D1 = D2 = 1
28. (A) SFG:

G3 G4 G3 R 1 G2 -G1 G5 G6 1 C
-1
Fig. S6.1.28
P1 = G2 G5G6 , P2 = G3G5G6 , P3 = G3G6 , P4 = G4 G6 If any path is deleted, there would not be any loop. Hence D1 = D2 = D3 = D4 = 1 C G4 G6 + G3G6 + G3G5G6 + G2 G5G6 = D R 29. (A)
R 1 1 s2 -2 s 50 (s + 1) -1 -2 1 s C
Fig. S6.1.29
P1 = P2 =
1 50 50 s= s2 ( s + 1) s( s + 1) 1 50 -100 ( -2) = 2 s2 s + 1 s ( s + 1) 50 -2 -100 = s+1 s s( s + 1) 1 50 -50 s ( -1) = s2 s + 1 s( s + 1) 1 50 100 ( -2) ( -1) = 2 s2 s + 1 s ( s + 1) 100 50 100 + s( s + 1) s( s + 1) s 2 ( s + 1)
L1 = -G3G2 H1 , L2 = -G1 G2 H1 , There are no nontouching loop.
L1 = L2 = L3 =
P1 D1 + P2 D2 G1 G2 + G2 G3 T( s) = = 1 - ( L1 + L2 + L3) 1 + G1 G2 H1 + G2 G3 H1 - G4 26. (C) P1 = G1 G2 , L1 = -G1 G2 H1 H 2 , L2 = G2 H 2 C( s) G1 G2 = R( s) 1 + G1 G2 H1 H 2 - G2 H 2 27. (B) There is one forward path G1 G2 . Four loops -G1 G4 , - G1 G2 G8 , - G1 G2 G5G7 and -G1 G2 G3G6 G7 .
R(s) 1 G1 1 -H1 H2 G2 1 C(s)
D =1 +
D1 = D2 = 1 C P1 + P2 50( s - 2) = = 3 R D s + s2 + 150 s - 100 30. (D) P1 = G1 G2 G3 L1 = - G1 H1 , L2 = - G2 H 2 , L3 = - G3 H 3 L1 L3 = G1 G3 H1 H 3 D = 1 - ( - G1 H1 - G2 H 2 - G3 H 3 ) + G1 G3 H1 H 3 D = 1 + G1 H1 + G2 H 2 + G3 H 3 + G1 G3 H1 H 3 D1 = 1 C G1 G2 G3 = R 1 + G1 H! + G2 H 2 + G3 H 3 + G1 G3 H1 H 3
Fig. S6.1.27
There is no nontouching loop. So (B) is correct.
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CHAPTER
6.2
STABILITY
1. Consider the system shown in fig. P6.2.1. The range of K for the stable system is
R(s) +
E(s)
K(s2 - 2s + 2)
C(s)
The range of K to ensure stability is 6 3 (A) K > (B) K < - 1 or K > 8 4 (C) K < - 1 (D) -1 < K < 3 4
1
s2 + 2s + 1
5. Consider a ufb system with forward-path transfer function 1 < K <1 2 G( s) = K ( s + 3) s 4 ( s + 2)
Fig. P6.2.1
(A) -1 < K < (C) -1 < K < 1
1 2
(B) -
(D) Unstable
The system is stable for the range of K (A) K > 0 (C) K > 1 (B) K < 0 (D) Always unstable control
2. The forward transfer function of a ufb system is G( s) = K ( s 2 + 1) ( s + 1)( s + 2)
6. The open-loop transfer function of a ufb system is K ( s + 2) ( s + 1)( s - 7)
The system is stable for (A) K < - 1 (C) K < - 2 (B) K > -1 (D) K > -2
G( s) =
3. The open-loop transfer function with ufb are given below for different systems. The unstable system is (A) 2 s+2 2 s( s + 2) (B) 2 s 2 ( s + 2) 2( s + 1) s( s + 2)
For K > 6, the stability characteristic of the open-loop and closed-loop configurations of the system are respectively (A) stable and unstable (B) stable and stable (C) unstable and stable (D) unstable and unstable 7. The forward-path transfer function of a ufb system is
(C)
(D)
4. Consider a ufb system with forward-path transfer function G( s) =

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K ( s 2 - 4) s2 + 3
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For the system to be stable the range of K is 3 (A) K > -1 (B) K < 4 (C) -1 < K < 3 4 (D) marginal stable
13. The open-loop transfer function of a ufb system is

R(s) +
K
1 s(s + 1)(s + 5)
C(s)
8. A ufb system have the forward-path transfer function G( s) = K ( s + 6) s( s + 1)( s + 3) (B) -6 < K < 0 (D) K > 6 G( s) =
Fig. P6.2.12
K ( s + 10)( s + 20) s 2 ( s + 2)
The system is stable for (A) K < 6 (C) 0 < K < 6 K is (A) 2 (C) 4 9. The feedback control system shown in the fig. P6.2.8.
R(s) + K(1 + Ts) s2(1 + s) C(s)
The closed loop system will be stable if the value of (B) 3 (D) 5
Statement for Q.1415: A feedback system is shown in fig. P6.14-15.

2 s
Fig. P6.2.9
R(s)
is stable for all positive value of K , if (A) T = 0 (C) T > 1 (B) T < 0 (D) 0 < T < 1
K s2
+ s2
C(s)
1 s+1
10. Consider a ufb system with forward-path transfer function K G( s) = ( s + 15)( s + 27)( s + 38) The system will oscillate for the value of K equal to (A) 23690 (C) 144690 (B) 2369 (D) 14469
Fig. P6.2.1415
14. The closed loop transfer function for this system is (A) (B) (C) (D) s 5 + s 4 + 2 s 3 + ( K + 2) s 2 + ( K + 2) s + K s3 + s2 + 2 s + K 2 s 4 + ( K + 2) s 3 + Ks 2 s3 + s2 + 2 s + K s3 + s2 + 2 s + K s 5 + s 4 + 2 s 3 + ( K + 2) s 2 + ( K + 2) s + K s3 + s2 + 2 s + K 2 s + ( K + 2) s 3 + Ks 2
4
11. The forward-path transfer function of a ufb system is G( s) = K ( s - 2)( s + 4)( s + 5) ( s 2 + 3)
For system to be stable, the range of K is 1 3 (A) K > (B) K < 54 40 (C) 1 3 <K < 54 40 (D) Unstable
15. The poles location for this system is shown in fig. P6.2.15. The value of K is
jw
12. The closed loop system shown in fig. P6.2.12 become marginally stable if the constant K is chosen to be (A) 30 (C) 10
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Fig. P6.2.15
(B) -30 (D) -10
(A) 4 (C) 2
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(A) stable (C) marginally stable
(B) unstable
32. The closed loop transfer function of a system is T( s) = ( s + 8)( s + 6) s 5 - s 4 + 4 s 3 - 4 s 2 + 3s - 2
(D) More information is required. 27. The forward path transfer of ufb system is 1 G( s) = 2 2 4 s ( s + 1) The system is (A) stable (C) marginally stable (D) More information is required 28. The forward-path transfer function of a ufb system is G( s) = The system is (A) stable (C) marginally stable (D) more information is required. 29. The open loop transfer function of a system is as G( s) H ( s) = K ( s + 0.1) s( s - 0.2)( s 2 + s + 0.6) (A) 2, 3, 0 (C) 2, 1, 2 The range of K for stable system will be (A) K > 0.355 (C) 0.236 < K < 0.44 (B) 0.149 < K < 0.355 (D) K > 0.44 (B) unstable G( s) 2 s4 + 5 s3 + s2 + 2 s axis are (A) 2, 1, 2 (C) 1, 0, 4 (B) unstable (A) 4, 1 (C) 3, 2
The number of poles in RHP and in LHP are (B) 1, 4 (D) 2, 3
33. The closed loop transfer function of a system is T( s) = s 3 + 3s 2 + 7 s + 24 s - 2 s 4 + 3s 3 - 6 s 2 + 2 s - 4

5
The number of poles in LHP, in RHP, and on jw (B) 0, 1, 4 (D) 1, 2, 2
34. For the system shown in fig. P6.2.34. the number of poles on RHP, LHP, and imaginary axis are
R(s) + 507 s4 + 3s3 + 10s2 + 30s + 169 C(s)
1 s
Fig. P6.2.34
(B) 3, 2, 0 (D) 1, 2, 2
35. A Routh table is shown in fig. P6.2.36. The location of pole on RHP, LHP and imaginary axis are s7 s5 1 1 3 1
Fig. P6.2.35
30. The open-loop transfer function of a ufb control system is given by G( s) = K s( sT1 + 1)( sT2 + 1)
2 2 4 -1 (B) 1, 6, 0 (D) None of the above
s5 s4 (A) 1, 2, 4 (C) 1, 0, 6
For the system to be stable the range of K is 1 1 (A) 0 < K < T + T 1 2 (C) 0 < K < T1 T2 1 1 (B) K > T + T 1 2 (D) K > T1 T2
36. For the open loop system of fig. P6.2.35 location of poles on RHP, LHP, and an jw-axis are
R(s) -8 s6 + s5 - 6s4 + s2 + s - 6 C(s)
31. The closed loop transfer function of a system is T( s) = s + 4 s + 8 s + 16 s + 3s 4 + 5 s 2 + s + 3

3 2 5
The number of poles in right half-plane and in left half-plane are (A) 3, 2 (C) 1, 4
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Fig. P6.2.35
(A) 3, 3, 0 (B) 2, 3 (D) 4, 1

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(B) 1, 3, 2 (D) 3, 1, 2
************
(C) 1, 1, 4
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11. (C) T( s) = =
G( s) 1 + G( s)
K ( s - 2)( s + 4)( s + 5) Ks + (7 K + 1) s 2 + 2 Ks + ( 3 - 40 K )
3
K 2 K 2 + . Then apply feedback formula with 2 + and 2 s s s s 1 , and then multiply with s 2 . ( s + 1) K 2 s2 2 + 2 s 4 + ( K + 2) s 3 + Ks 2 s s T( s) = = 1 K 2 s3 + s2 + 2 s + K 1+ 2 + s + 1 s s 15. (C) Denominator = s 3 + s 2 + 2 s + K Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.15 s3 s2 1 1 2-K K
Fig. S.6.2.15
Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.211 s3 s2 s1 s0 K > 0, 7K + 1 > 0 54 K 2 - K >0 7K + 1 3 - 40 K > 0 1 K >- 7 1 K > 54 3 K < 40 K 7K + 1
54 K - K 7K + 1
2
2K 3 - 40 K
3 - 40 K
Fig. S.6.2.11
5 K
1 3 <K < 54 40
s1 s0
Row of zeros when K = 2, s 2 + 2 = 0, s = -1, j 2 , - j 2
12. (A) T( s) =
1 s + 6s + 5s + K
3 2
Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.212 s3 s2 s1 s0 1 6 30 - K K

Fig. S.6.2.12
16. (D) Applying the feedback formula on the inner loop 5 K and multiplying by K yield K , Ge ( s) = s( s 2 + 5 s + 7) T( s) = K s + 5s + 7s + K
3 2
17. (B) Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.17 s3 s2 s1 30K 200K K >0 , s0 35 - K >0 5 1 5
35- K 5
K ( s + 10)( s + 20) 13. (D) T( s) = 3 s + ( K + 2) s 2 + 30 Ks + 200 K Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.13 s3 s2 s1 s0 1 K +2 30 K 2 - 140 K 200K
Fig. S.6.2.13
7 K
K
Fig. S.6.2.17
K < 35
18. (C) At K = 35 system will oscillate. Auxiliary equation 5 s 2 + 35 = 0, s= j 7
200 K > 0 K > 0, 30 K 2 - 140 K > 0 14 K > , 5 satisfy this condition. 3 14. (B) First combine the parallel loop
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K 2 and giving 2 s s
19. (B) For inner loop K K , Gi ( s) = = ( s - a)( s + 3a)( s + 4 a) P ( s) For outer loop, Go( s) = Ti ( s) =
Ti ( s) =
K P ( s) + K
K , P ( s) + K
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Chap 6.2
To( s) =
K , P ( s) + 2 K
Therefore if inner loop is stable for X < K < Y , then outer loop will be stable for X < 2 K < Y X Y . <K < 2 2 20. (D) T( s) = K ( s + 2) s 4 + 3s 3 - 3s 2 + ( K + 3) s + (2 K - 4)
2K - 1 >0 2 18 K - 109 >0 2K - 1
1 2 109 K > 18 K >
K >
109 18
23. (B) Characteristic equation s4 + 9 s3 + 20 s2 + Ks + K = 0 Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.23 s4 2K - 4 s3 s2 s1 s0 1 9

180 - K 9 K ( K - 99) K -180
Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.20 s4 s3 s2 s1 s0 1 3 - ( K +312 )

K ( K + 33) K + 12
20 K K
-3 K +3 2K - 4
K
Fig. S.6.2.23
2K - 4
Fig. S.6.2.20
For stability 0 < K < 99 24. (C) T( s) = K ( s + 2) s + 3s - 3s + ( K + 3) s + (2 K - 4)

4 2 2
-( K + 12) > 0 K < - 12, 2 K - 4 > 0 3 K > 2 and K > -33, These condition can not be met simultaneously. System is unstable for any value of K . 21. (D) Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.21 s
4
Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.24 s4 s3 s2 s1 s0 1 3

- K + 12 3 K ( K + 33) K + 12
-3 K +3 2K - 4
2K - 4
1 K
K -1 K K -1 - K 2 K -1
1 1 1
s2 s s
1
2K - 4
Fig. S.6.2.24
1
Fig. S.6.2.21
For K < - 33, 1 sign change For -33 < K < - 12, 1 sign change For -12 < K < 0, 1 sign change For 0 < K < 2, For K > 2, 3 sign change 2 sign change K -1 - K2 > 0, K -1
K > 0, K - 1 > 0
K >1 ,
But for K > 1 third term is always -ive. Thus the three condition cannot be fulfilled simultaneously. 22. (D) Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.22 s4 s3 s2 s1 s0 1 2
2 K -1 2 18 K -109 2 K -1
Therefore K > 2 yield two RHP pole. 25. (B) Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.25 s4 s3 s2 s1 s0 1 4 3 6 15
Fig. S.6.2.25
4+K 9 25
25
8 20 15
15
ROZ
25
Fig. S.6.2.22
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P ( s) = 3s 2 + 15,
d P ( s) = 6 s, No sign change from s 2 to s 0 ds LHP 2.
2 RHP poles so unstable. 29. (B) The characteristic equation is 1 + G( s) H ( s) = 0 s( s - 0.2)( s 2 + s + 0.6) + K ( s + 0.1) = 0 s 4 + 0.8 s 3 + 0.4 s 2 + ( K - 0.12) s + 0.1K = 0 Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.29 s4 2 0.8 0.55 - 125 . K
-1 .25K 2 + 0 .63K - 0 .066 0 .55-1 .25K
on jw-axis 2 roots, RHP 0,
26. (B) Closed-loop transfer function is G( s) 240 T( s) = = 4 3 s + 10 s + 35 s 2 + 50 s + 264 1 + G( s) Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.26 s
4
0.4 K - 0.12 0.1K
1 10 30 -386 264
Fig. S.6.2.26
35 50 264
264
s3 s2 s1
s s
s1 s
0
ROZ
s0
0.1K
Fig. S.6.2.29
K > 0, 0.55 - 125 . K > 0 K < 0.44 -125 . K 2 + 0.63K - 0.066 > 0 ( K - 0.149)( K - 0.355) < 0, 0.149 < K < 0.355 30. (A) Characteristic equation 1 ROZ s( sT1 + 1)( sT2 + 1) + K = 0 T1 T2 s 3 + ( T1 + T2 ) s2 + s + K = 0 Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.30 s3 s2 T1 T2 T1 + T2
( T1 + T2 ) - T1 T2K T1 + T2
Two sign change. RHP-2 poles. System is not stable. 27. (C) Closed loop transfer function G( s) 1 T( s) = = 1 + G( s) 4 s 4 + 4 s 2 + 1 Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.27 s4 s3 s2 s1 s0 4 16 2 46 1
Fig. S.6.2.27
4 8 1
ROZ
1 K
s1 s0
P ( s) = 4 s 4 + 4 s + 1,
dp( s) = 16 s 3 + 3s ds
K
Fig. S.6.2.30
There is no sign change. So all pole are on jwaxis. So system is marginally stable. 28. (B) Closed loop transfer function 1 G( s) T( s) = = 4 3 1 + G( s) 2 s + 5 s + s 2 + 2 s + 1 Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.28 s4 s3 s2 s1 s0
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K > 0, ( T1 + T2 ) - T1 T2 K > 0
1 1 0 < K < T + T 1 2
31. (B) Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.31 s5 1 s4 s3 s2 s1 s0 1 3 3.67 4 -2.75 3 5 4 0 3 1 3
2 5
1 5
1 2 1
-23 1
Fig. S.6.2.28
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In RHP -2 poles. In LHP -3 poles.
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Chap 6.2
32. (C) Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.32

e + + + + + + + -
P ( s) = 3s 4 + 30 s 2 + 507, 3 -2
s5 s
4
1 -1 e
1-4e e 2e2 +1-4e 1-4e
4 -4 1 -2
dP ( s) = 12 s 3 + 60 ds
From s 4 row down to s 0 there is one sign change. So LHP1 + 1 = 2 pole. RHP1 pole, jw-axis -2 pole. 35. (A) Notice that in s 5 row there would be zero. In this row coefficient of
dP ( s ) ds
- -
s2 s1 s0 2 LHP poles.
, where
P ( s) = s6 + 2 s 4 - s 2 - 2
have been entered. From s6 to row down to the s 0 row, there is one sign change. So there is one pole on RHP. Corresponding to this pole there is a pole on LHP. Corresponding to this pole there is a pole on LHP. Rest 4 out of 6 poles are on imaginary axis. Rest 1 pole is on LHP. 36. (A) Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.36
e + + + + + + -
-2
Fig. S.6.2.32
3 RHP,
33. (B) Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.33 s5 s

4
1 -2 -2 -3 1 3
3 -6 -3 -4
2 -4 ROZ
s6 s5 s4 s3 s2 s1 s0
1 1 -6 -24 e - 144 e -6
Fig. S.6.2.36
-6 0 0 0
-6
s s
s s
ROZ
-4
Fig. S.6.2.33
+ 0
dP ( s) = - 8 s 3 - 12 s , -2 , -3 P ( s) = - 2 s - 6 s , ds
4 2
No sign change exist from the s row down to the s row. Thus, the even polynomial does not have RHP poles. Therefore because of symmetry all four poles must be on jw-axis. jw-axis RHP LHP 4 pole 1 pole 0 pole (1 sign change)
P ( s) = - 6 s 4 - 6,
dP ( s) = -24 s 3 , ds
There is two sign change from the s 4 row down to the s 0 row. So two roots are on RHS. Because of symmetry rest two roots must be in LHP. From s6 to s 4 there is 1 sign change so 1 on RHP and 1 on LHP. Total LHP 3 root, RHP 3 root.
34. (D) Closed loop transfer function G( s) T( s) = 1 + G( s) + H ( s) = 507 s s 5 + 3s 4 + 10 s 3 + 30 s 2 + 169 s + 507
Routh table is as shown in fig. S.6.2.34 s

5
***********
1 3 12 15 -345.6 507
Fig. S.6.2.33
10 30 60 507
69 57 ROZ
s4 s3 s2 s1 s0
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Chap 6.3
8. A system is shown in fig. P6.3.8. The rise time and settling time for this system is
R(s) 1 s 10 (s + 10) C(s)
d. T( s) = e. T( s) =
s+2 s2 + 9 ( s + 5) ( s + 10) 2
Fig. P6.3.8
Consider the following response 1. Overdamped 3. Undamped 2. Under damped 4. Critically damped.
(A) 0.22s, 0.4s (C) 0.12s, 0.4s
(B) 0.4s, 0.22s (D) 0.4s, 0.12s
The correct match is 9. For a second order system settling time is Ts = 7 s and peak time is Tp = 3 s. The location of poles are (A) -0.97 j0.69 (C) -1.047 j0.571 (B) -0.69 j0.97 (D) -0.571 j1.047 (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 a b c c 2 c a a b 3 d d e e 4 e e d d
10. For a second order system overshoot = 10% and peak time Tp = 5 s. The location of poles are (A) -0.46 j0.63 (C) -0.74 j0.92 (B) -0.63 j0.46 (D) -0.92 j0.74
15. The forward-path transfer of a ufb control system is G( s) = 1000 (1 + 0.1s)(1 + 10 s)
11. For a second-order system overshoot = 12 % and settling time = 0.6 s. The location of poles are (A) -9.88 j6.67 (C) -4.38 j6.46 Statement for Q.1213: A system has a damping ratio of 1.25, a natural frequency of 200 rad/s and DC gain of 1. 12. The response of the system to a unit step input is (A) 1 + (C) 1 + 5 -50 t 2 -150 t e - e 3 3 1 -100 t 4 -400 t e - e 3 3 (B) 1 (D) 1 + 4 -100 t 1 -400 t e + e 3 3 2 -50 t 5 -150 t e - e 3 3 (B) -6.67 j9.88 (D) -6.46 j4.38
The step, ramp, and parabolic error constants are (A) 0, 1000, 0 (C) 0, 0, 0 (B) 1000, 0, 0 (D) 0, 0, 1000
16. The open-loop transfer function of a ufb control system is G( s) = K (1 + 2 s)(1 + 4 s) s 2 ( s 2 + 2 s + 8)
The position, velocity and acceleration error constants are respectively (A) 0, 0, 4 K (C) 0, 4 K , (B) , K , 0 8 K 8
(D) , ,
13. The system is (A) overdamped (C) critically damped (B) under damped (D) None of the above 17. The open-loop transfer function of a unit feedback system is G( s) = 50 (1 + 0.1s)(1 + 2 s)
14. Consider the following system a. T( s) = 5 ( s + 3)( s + 6)
The position, velocity and acceleration error constants are respectively (A) 0, 0, 250 (C) 0, 250,
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10( s + 7) b. T( s) = ( s + 10)( s + 20) 20 c. T( s) = 2 s + 6 s + 144

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Statement for Q.1819: The forward-path transfer function of a unity feedback system is G( s) = K s ( s + a)
n
D(s)
R(s)
1 (s + 5)
+ +
100 s(s + 2)
C(s)
Fig. P6.3.22
The system has 10% overshoot and velocity error constant K v = 100. 18. The value of K is (A) 237 10
3 3
(A) (C) (B) 144 (D) 237
49 11 63 11
(B) (D)
49 11 63 11
(C) 14.4 10
23. The forward path transfer function of a ufb system is K s( s + 4)( s + 8)( s + 10)
19. The value of a is (A) 237 . 10

3 3
(B) 237 (D) 144
(C) 14.4 10
G( s) =
20. For the system shown in fig. P6.3.20 the steady state error component due to unit step disturbance is 0.000012 and steady state error component due to unit ramp input is 0.003. The values of K 1 respectively and K 2 are
If a unit ramp is applied, the minimum possible steady-state error is (A) 0.16 (C) 0.14 (B) 6.25 (D) 7.25
24. The forward-path transfer function of a ufb system

D(s)
is
K2 s(s + 4) C(s)
R(s)
K1(s + 2) (s + 3)
+ +
G( s) =
1000( s 2 + 4 s + 20)( s 2 + 20 s + 15) s 3( s + 2)( s + 10)
The system has r ( t) = t 3 applied to its input. The

Fig. P6.3.20
steady state error is (A) 4 10 -4 (C) (B) 0 (D) 2 10 -5
(A) 16.4, 1684 (C) 125 10 , 0.016

3
(B) 1250, 2.4 (D) 463, 3981
21. The transfer function for a single loop nonunity feedback control system is G( s) = 1 1 , H ( s) = s2 + s + 2 ( s + 1)
25. The transfer function of a ufb system is G( s) = 10 5( s + 3)( s + 10)( s + 20) s( s + 25)( s + a)( s + 30)
The value of a to yield velocity error constant The steady state error due to unit step input is 6 6 (A) (B) 7 5 2 (C) 3 (D) 0 26. A system has position error constant K p = 3. The steady state error for input of 8 tu( t) is (A) 2.67 (C) (B) 2 (D) 0
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K v = 10 4 is (A) 4 (C) 8 (B) 0 (D) 16
22. For the system of fig. P6.3.22 the total steady state error due to a unit step input and a unit step disturbance is
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Chap 6.3
27. The forward path transfer function of a unity feedback system is G( s) = 1000 ( s + 20)( s 2 + 4 s + 10)
If
the
1 2
system
is
subjected
to
an
input
r ( t) = 1 + t + (A) 0 (C) 10
t 2 , t > 0 the steady state error of the (B) 0.1 (D)
system will be
For input of 60 u( t) steady state error is (A) 0 (C) (B) 300 (D) 10
32. The system shown in fig. P6.3.32 has steady-state error 0.1 to unit step input. The value of K is
R(s) + K (s + 1)(0.1s + 1) C(s)
28. For ufb system shown in fig. P6.3.28 the transfer function is
R(s) + E(s) G(s) C(s)
Fig. P6.3.32 Fig. P6.3.28
(A) 0.1 (C) 1.0 Statement for Q.3334:
(B) 0.9 (D) 9.0
G( s) =
20( s + 3)( s + 4)( s + 8) s 2 ( s + 2)( s + 15)
If input is 30 t 2 , then steady state error is (A) 0.9375 (C) (B) 0 (D) 64
Block diagram of a position control system is shown in fig.P6.3.3334.

R(s) 1 s(0.5s + 1) C(s)
29. The forward-path transfer function of a ufb control system is G( s) = 450( s + 8)( s + 12)( s + 15) s( s + 38)( s 2 + 2 s + 28)
Ka
sKt
Fig. P6.3.3334
The steady state errors for the test input 37 tu( t) is (A) 0 (C) (B) 0.061 (D) 609
33. If K t = 0 and K a = 5, then the steady state error to unit ramp input is (A) 5 (C) (B) 0.2 (D) 0
30. In the system shown in fig. P6.3.30, r ( t) = 1 + 2 t, t > 0. The steady state error e( t) is equal to
r(t) e(t) 10(s + 1) s2(s + 2) c(t)
34. If the damping ratio of the system is increased to 0.7 without affecting the steady state error, then the value of K a and K t are (A) 86, 12.8 (B) 49, 9.3 (D) 43, 6.4 (C) 24.5, 3.9
Fig. P6.3.30
(A)
1 5
(B) 5 (D)
35. A system has the following transfer function G( s) = 100( s + 15)( s + 50) s 4 ( s + 12)( s 2 + 3s + 10)
(C) 0
31. A ufb control system has a forward path transfer function G( s) =

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The type and order of the system are respectively (A) 7 and 5 (B) 4 and 5 (D) 7 and 4 (C) 4 and 7
10(1 + 4 s) s 2 (1 + s)
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Chap 6.3
SOLUTIONS
1. (D) Characteristic equation is s + 9 s + 18.
2
8. (A) C( s) =
10 1 1 = s( s + 10) s s + 10 2.2 2.2 = = 0.22s a 10
c( t) = 1 - e -10 t Rise time Tr = 4 = 0.4s a
w = 18, 2 xwn = 9
2 n
a = 10,
Therefore x = 106 . , 2. (A) T( s) =
wn = 4.24 rad/s
Settling time Ts =
1 0.6 6 ( s + 0.8) 2 + (0.6) 2 xwn = 0.8 x = 0.8
9. (D) xwn =
wn 1 - x2 = 0.6 , Hence wn = 1,
4 p = 0.571, wn 1 - x2 = = 1047 . Ts Tp
Poles = - 0.571 j1.047 10. (A) 0.1 = e

2 2 xp 1 - x2
3. (A) Characteristic equation is Ds = { s - ( -3 + j 4)}{ s - ( -3 - j 4)} = ( s + 3) + 4 . = s + 6 s + 25, w = 25

2 2 n
x = 0.59
wn = 5 rad/s
wn =
p Tp
1 - x2 = 0.779,
2 xwn = 6 ,
x=
6 = 0.6 25
Poles = - xwn jwn 1 - x2 = - 0.46 j0.63

xp 1 - x2
4. (A) T( s) = w2 n = 4
16 4 = ( 4 s 2 + 8 s + 16) ( s 2 + 2 s + 4) wn = 2 ,
xp 1 - x2
11. (B) 0.12 = e
x = 0.56, wn =
4 = 1192 . xTs
2 xwn = 2, 5 = 0.05, 100
x = 0.5
Therefore Poles = - xwn jwn 1 - x2 = - 6.67 j9.88 Note : 32 . , For 0 < x < 0.69 Ts = xwn Ts = 4.5 , For xwn x > 0.69 40000 w2 n = 2 2 s + 2 xwn s + wn s + 500 s + 40000
5. (D) M p = e xp 1-x T( s) =
2
=3
x = 0.69,
1 K = 2 1 + G( s) s + 2 s + K wn = 1 = 1.45 0.69
12. (B) T( s) = =
2 xwn = 2, Peak time, Tp =
40000 ( s + 100)( s + 400) 40000 1 4 1 = + s( s + 100)( s + 400) s 3( s + 100) 3( s + 400) 4 -100 t 1 -400 t e + e 3 3
p p p = = = 3 sec wd wn - x2 1.45 (1 - 0.69 2 )
R( s) =
But the peak time Tp given is 1 sec. Hence these two specification cannot be met. K1 , 6. (C) T( s) = 2 s + ( K 2 + s) + K 1 w2 n = K1 , wd = 0.10, wn = 12.5 2 wn 3 = K 2 + 1 2 12.5 0.6 = K 2 + 1 7. (A) M p = e
xp 1 - x2
r ( t) = 1 -
13. (A) System has two different poles on negative real axis. So response is over damped. 14. (A) 1. Overdamped response (a, b) Poles : Two real and different on negative real axis. 2. Underdamped response (c) Poles : Two complex in left half plane 3.Undamped response (d) Poles : Two imaginary. 4.Critically damped (e) Poles : Two real and same on negative real axis.
2 xwn = 1 + K 2 x = 0.6, wd = wn 1 - 0.6 2 = 10 K 1 = 156.25, K 2 = 14 M p = 1 = 100%
, At x = 0,
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15. (B) K p = lim G ( s) = 1000

s 0
ess = lim sE( s) = lim

s 0 s 0
K v = lim sG( s) = 0 K a = lim s 2 G( s) = 0

s 0 s 0
sR( s) , 1 + G ( s)
R( s) = K p = lim G( s) H ( s) =
s 0
1 K 1 K 2 ( s + 2) , G( s) = s2 s( s + 3)( s + 4) 1 6 = K 1 K 2 ( s + 2) K 1K 2 s+ ( s + 3)( s + 4) K 2 = 0.016
16. (D) H ( s) = 1,
s
ess = lim
s 0
K v = lim sG( s) H ( s) = K a = lim s 2 G ( s) H ( s) =

s 0
K 8
6 = 0 .003 125 10 3 K 2
17. (B) H ( s) = 1,
s 0
K p = lim G( s) H ( s) = 50
s 0
21. (C) E( s) = R( s) - C( s) H ( s) = R( s) R( s) G( s) H ( s) R( s) = 1 + G( s) H ( s) 1 + G( s) H ( s) s s 2 3
K v = lim sG( s) H ( s) = 0 K a = lim s 2 G( s) H ( s) = 0.

s 0
18. (C) System type = 1, so n = 1 K v = lim sG( s) =

s 0
ess = lim sE( s) = lim

s 0 s 0
K = 100 a
1 1 1+ 2 ( s + s + 2) ( s + 1)
For 10% overshoot, 0.1 = = e T( s) =

xp 1 - x2
x = 0.6
22. (A) ess = lim

s 0
sR( s) - sD( s) G2 ( s) 1 + G1 ( s) G2 ( s) 1 s+5 and G2 ( s) = 100 s+2
G( s) K = 2 1 + G ( s) s + as + K w2 n = K 2 0.6 K = a K = 14400
where
G1 ( s) = 1 s
2 xwn = a ,
R( s) = D( s) = 1-
K 0.6 K = 100 2 19. (D)
ess K = 100, K = 14400, a a = 144
100 -49 2 = = 1 100 11 1+ 5 2
14400 = 100 a
23. (A) Using Routh-Hurwitz Criterion, system is stable for 0 < K < 2000 maximum K v = lim sG( s) =
s 0
20. (C) If R ( s) = 0 K2 s( s + 4) TD( s) = K 1 K 2 ( s + 2) 1+ s( s + 4)( s + 3) = K 2 ( s + 3) s( s + 3)( s + 4) + K 1 K 2 ( s + 2)
minimum possible error
2000 = 6. 25 4 8 10 1 1 = = 0.16 K v 6.25 R( s) 1 + G ( s)
24. (A) R( s) = ess = lim sE( s)

s 0
6 , s4
E( s) =
Error in output due to disturbance E( s) = TD( s) D ( s), If D( s) = 1 , s

s 0
6s s4 = lim 2 s 0 1000 ( s + 4 s + 20) ( s 2 + 20 s + 15) 1+ s 3( s + 2) ( s + 10) = lim

s 0
essD = lim sE( s) = lim s

s 0
1 3 TD( s) = lim TD( s) = s 0 s 2 K1
3 = 0.000012 2 K1
K 1 = 125 10 3 = 0+
6 1000 ( s 2 + 4 s + 20) ( s 2 + 20 s + 15) s + ( s + 2) ( s + 10)

3
6
1000 20 15 2 10
= 4 10 -4
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Chap 6.3
25. (A) K v = lim sG( s)

s 0
G( s) = a=4 ess 1 = K v = 0, ess = Kv
10 4 =
10 4 3 10 20 25 a 30
5 1 , H ( s) = 1, R( s) = 2 s(0.5 s + 1) s s
26. (C) System is zero type 27. (D) K p = lim G( s) = 5

s 0
1 1 s2 = lim = = 0.2 s 0 5 5 1+ s(0.5 s + 1 )
For input 60 u( t), ess =
60 = 10 1 + Kp
34. (C) The equivalent open-loop transfer function Ka Ka s(0.5 s + 1) Ge = = sK t s(0.5 s + 1 + K t ) 1+ s(0.5 s + 1) T( s) = = G( s) Ka = 1 + G( s) 0.5 s 2 + s(1 + K t ) + K a
28. (A) K a = lim s 2 G( s) = 64

s 0
ess =
30 2 = 0.9375 64
2K a s 2 + 2 s(1 + K t ) + 2 K a 2K a
29. (B) K v = lim sG( s) = 609.02

s 0
w2 n = 2 K a wn = 2 x wn = 2(1 + K t ) Kt x =1 + = 0.7 2K a ess = lim

s 0
ess =
37 = 0.0607 Kv
... (i)
30. (C) The system is type 2. Thus to step and ramp input error will be zero. E( s) = R( s) - C( s) = R( s) 1 2 s+2 + = s s2 s2 s+2 E( s) = 10( s + 1) s2 + ( s + 2) R( s) = ess ( t) = lim sE( s) = 0
s 0
sR( s) 1 , R ( s) = 2 1 + Ge ( s) s
G( s) R( s) 1 + G ( s)
R( s) 1 + G( s)
ess = lim
s 0
ess
1 1 + Kt = Ka Ka s 1 + s(0.5 s + 1 + K ) t 1 + Kt = = 0. 2 Ka . K t = 39
...(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) K a = 24.5 ,
31. (C) System is type 2. Therefore error due to 1 + t t2 1 would be . would be zero and due to 2 Ka K a = lim s 2 G( s) = 10,
s 0
35. (C) The s has power of 4 and denominator has order of 7. So Type 4 and Order 7. 36. (D) For 8 u( t), ess = 8 = 2. 1 + Kp
ess ( t) =
1 = 0.1 10
For 8 tu( t), ess = , since the system is type 0. 37. (A) For equivalent unit feedback system the forward transfer function is Ge = G( s) = 1 + G( s) H ( s) - G( s) 1 +
2 10 ( s + 10 ) s (s + 2 ) 10 ( s + 10 )( s + 3) s (s + 2 )
Note that you may calculate error from the formula ess ( t) = lim sE( s) =
s 0
sR( s) 1 + G( s)
32. (D) K p = lim G( s) = K

s 0
1 1 ess ( t) = = = 0.1 1 + Kp 1 + K
K = 9.
10( s + 10) 11s + 132 s + 300
The system is of Type 0. Hence step input will produce a sR( s) 1 + G( s) H ( s) constant error constant.
33. (B) ess = lim e( t) = lim sE( s) = lim

t s 0 s 0
When K t = 0 and K a = 5
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CHAPTER
6.5
FREQUENCY-DOMAIN ANALYSIS
Statement for Q.12: An under damped second order system having a transfer function of the form T( s) = Kw2 n 2 s + 2 xwn s + w2 n 4. The gain-phase plots of open-loop transfer function of four different system are shown in fig. P6.5.4. The correct sequence of the increasing order of stability of these four system will be
dB A
40 dB 30 dB 20 dB
B C D
has a frequency response plot shown in fig. P6.5.12.

|T( jw )| 2.5
10 dB
-270o
-225o
-20 dB -30 dB
-135
-90o
-45o
1.0 wn w
Fig. P6.5.4
Fig. P6.5.1-2
(A) D, C, B, A (C) B, C, A, D
(B) A, B, C, D (D) A, D, B, C unity
1. The system gain K is (A) 1 (C) 2 (B) 2 (D) 1 2
5. The open-loop frequency response of a feedback system is shown in following table

w 2 3 4 5 6 8 10
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2. The damping factor x is approximately (A) 0.6 (C) 1.8 3. For the transfer function G( s) H ( s) = 1 s( s + 1)( s + 0.5) (B) 0.2 (D) 2.4
|G ( jw)|
8.5 6.4 4.8 2.56 1.4 1.00 0.63
Fig. P6.5.5
G ( jw) -119 -128 -142 -156 -164 -172 -180

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(B) 0.707 rad/sec (D) 2 rad/sec
Frequency-Domain Analysis
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Chap 6.5
The gain margin and phase margin of the system are (A) 2 dB, 8 (C) 4 dB, 8 Statement for Q.67: Consider the gain-phase plot shown in fig. P6.5.67.
dB 2 dB w=2
10. The gain margin of the ufb system G( s) = (A) 1.76 dB (C) -3.5 dB 2 is ( s + 1)( s + 2) (B) 3.5 dB (D) -1.76 dB
(B) 2 dB, -172 (D) 4 dB, -172
11. The open-loop transfer function of a system is G( s) H ( s) = K s(1 + 2 s)(1 + 3s)
The phase crossover frequency is (A) 6 rad/sec (C) 0.41 rad/sec (B) 2.46 rad/sec (D) 3.23 rad/sec
w = 10
G( jw)
12. The open-loop transfer function of a ufb system is G( s) = 1+ s s(1 + 0.5 s)
-2 dB -270
o
w = 100 -180
o
-140
-90
Fig. P6.5.6-7
The corner frequencies are (A) 0 and 2 (C) 0 and -1 (B) 0 and 1 (D) 1 and 2
6. The gain margin and phase margin are (A) -2 dB, 40 (C) 2 dB, 140 (B) 2 dB, 40 (D) -2 dB, 140
13. In the Bode-plot of a unity feedback control system, the value of magnitude of G( jw) at the phase crossover frequency is (A) 2 (C) 1 3
1 2
7. The gain crossover and phase crossover frequency are respectively (A) 10 rad/sec, 100 rad/sec (B) 100 rad/sec, 10 rad/sec (C) 10 rad/sec, 2 rad/sec (D) 100 rad/sec, 2 rad/sec 8. The phase margin of a system with the open loop transfer function G( s) H ( s) = (A) 68.3 (C) 0 (1 - s) is (1 + s)( 3 + s) (B) 90 (D)
. The gain margin is 1 (B) 2 (D) 3
14. In the Bode-plot of a ufb control system, the value of phase of G( jw) at the gain crossover frequency is -120 . The phase margin of the system is (A) -120 (C) -60 (B) 60 (D) 120
15. The transfer function of a system is given by G( s) = K 1 ; K < s( sT + 1) T
9. Consider a ufb system having an open-loop transfer function G( s) = K s(0.2 s + 1)(0.05 s + 1)

dB
The Bode plot of this function is

dB -20 dB/dec -40 dB/dec 0 dB
0.1 T 1 T
For K = 1, the gain margin is 28 dB. When gain margin is 20 dB, K will be equal to (A) 2 (C) 5 (B) 4 (D) 2.5
-40 dB/dec
w
0 dB
0.1 T
1 T
(A)
(B)
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dB -20 dB/dec
dB
(A)
-20 dB/dec
100 s + 10 1 s + 10
(B)
10 s + 10
0 dB
0.1 T
1 T
0 dB
0.1 T
1 T
(C)
-40 dB/dec
19. Consider the asymptotic Bode plot of a minimum (C) (D) phase linear system given in fig. P6.5.19. The transfer function is 16. The asymptotic approximation of the log-magnitude versus frequency plot of a certain system is shown in fig. P6.5.16. Its transfer function is
dB
54 dB -40 dB/dec -60 dB/dec -40 dB/dec
dB 32 -20 dB/dec
6 w1
-20 dB/dec 0.1 w2 10 -40 dB/dec
-60 dB/dec
8 s( s + 2) (A) ( s + 5)( s + 10)

w
Fig. P6.5.19
(B) (D)
4( s + 5) ( s + 2)( s + 10) 8 s( s + 5) ( s + 2)( s + 10)
0.1
25
(C)
Fig. P6.5.16
4( s + 2) s( s + 5)( s + 10)
50( s + 5) (A) 2 s ( s + 2)( s + 25) (C) 10 s 2 ( s + 5) ( s + 2)( s + 25)
(B) (D)
20( s + 5) s 2 ( s + 2)( s + 25) 20( s + 5) s( s + 2)( s + 25)
20. The Bode plot shown in fig. P6.5.20 represent

dB 100 dB
17. For the Bode plot shown in fig. P6.5.17 the transfer function is
dB 4 10 w
-60 dB/dec 40 dB/dec
0 dB
w = 10
-4
de c
Fig. P6.5.20
0d
dB /
B/ de
(A) (C)
Fig. P6.5.17
100 s 2 (1 + 0.1s) 3 100 s 2 (1 + 0.1s) 5
(B) (D)
1000 s 2 (1 + 0.1s) 3 1000 s 2 (1 + 0.1s) 5
-2 0
100 s (A) ( s + 4)( s + 10) 2 (C) 100 ( s + 4)( s + 10)
(B) (D)
100( s + 4) s( s + 10) 2 100 s ( s + 4)( s + 10)

2
18. Bode plot of a stable system is shown in the fig. P6.3.18. The open-loop transfer function of the ufb system is
dB
Statement for Q.2122: The Bode plot of the transfer function K (1 + sT) is given in the fig. P6.5.2122.
dB Phase
-20 dB/dec 20 dB -20 dB/dec

1 T
0.1 T
10 T
-45
/d
ec
Fig. P6.5.18
Fig. P6.5.21-22
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Statement for Q.2930: Consider the Bode plot of a ufb system shown in fig. P6.5.2930.
dB 32 dB 18 dB 0 dB
0.1
Im 2 2
Im
w=
w= 0
Re
w=
w= 0
Re
-20 dB/dec -40 dB/dec

w1 w
(A)
Im 2 2
(B)
Im
Fig. P6.5.29-30
w= 0
w=
Re
w= 0
w=
Re
29. The steady state error corresponding to a ramp input is (A) 0.25 (C) 0 30. The damping ratio is (A) 0.063 (C) 0.483 (B) 0.179 (D) 0.639 (B) 0.2 (D) 35. Consider a ufb system whose open-loop transfer function is G( s) = K s( s 2 + 2 s + 2) (C) (D)
31. The Nyquist plot of a open-loop transfer function G( jw) H ( jw) of a system encloses the ( -1, j0) point. The gain margin of the system is (A) less than zero (C) zero 32. Consider a ufb system G( s) = K s(1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 )(1 + sT3) (B) greater than zero (D) infinity
The Nyquist plot for this system is

Im Im
w=
Re
w=
Re
w= 0
w= 0
(A)
Im Im
(B)
The angle of asymptote, which the Nyquist plot approaches as w 0, is (A) -90 (C) 180 (B) 90 (D) -45
w=
33. If the gain margin of a certain feedback system is given as 20 dB, the Nyquist plot will cross the negative real axis at the point (A) s = -0.05 (C) s = -0.1 (B) s = -0.2 (D) s = -0.01
w= 0
Re
w=
Re
w= 0
(C)
(D)
34. The transfer function of an open-loop system is G( s) H ( s) = s+2 ( s + 1)( s - 1)
36. The open loop transfer function of a system is G( s) H ( s) = K (1 + s) 2 s3
The Nyquist plot will be of the form
The Nyquist plot for this system is
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Chap 6.5
Im Im
w= 0 w= 0
Im
w=
Re
w=
Re
10.64 w= w= 0
Re
(A)
Im Im
(B)
Fig. P6.5.38
The no. of poles of closed loop system in RHP are

w= w=
Re
Re
(A) 0 (C) 2
(B) 1 D) 4
w= 0
w= 0
Statement for Q.3940: (D) The open-loop transfer function of a feedback control system is -1 2 s(1 - 20 s)
(C)
37. For the certain unity feedback system K G( s) = s( s + 1)(2 s + 1)( 3s + 1) The Nyquist plot is
Im Im Im
w= 0
G( s) H ( s) =
39. The Nyquist plot for this system is

Im
w= 0
w= w=
Re
w=
Re
Re
w=
Re
w= 0
w= 0
(A)
Im Im
(B)
(A)
Im
(B)
Im
w=
w=
Re
w=
Re
Re
w=
Re
w= 0 w= 0 w= 0
w= 0
(C) (C) (D) 38. The Nyquist plot of a system is shown in fig. P6.5.38. The open-loop transfer function is G( s) H ( s) =
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(D)
40. Regarding the system consider the statements 1. Open-loop system is stable 2. Closed-loop system is unstable 3. One closed-loop poles is lying on the RHP
4s + 1 s ( s + 1)(2 s + 1)
2
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The correct statements are (A) 1 and 2 (C) only 2 (B) 1 and 3 (D) All
-2 3
Im
w= -3 2
Im
w=
Re
Re
41. The Nyquist plot shown in the fig. P6.5.41 is for (A) type0 system (C) type2 system Statement for Q.4243: The open-loop transfer function of a feedback system is G( s) H ( s) = K (1 + s) (1 - s) (B) type1 system (D) type3 system
w= 0 w= 0
(C)
(D)
45. The phase crossover and gain crossover frequencies are (A) 1.414 rad/sec, 0.57 rad/sec (B) 1.414 rad/sec, 1.38 rad/sec (C) 0.707 rad/sec, 0.57 rad/sec
42. The Nyquist plot of this system is

Im Im
(D) 0.707 rad/sec, 1.38 rad/sec 46. The gain margin and phase margin are
w= 0
w=
Re
w= 0
w=
Re
(A) -3.52 dB, -168.5 (C) 3.52 dB, -168.5
(B) -3.52 dB, 11.6 (D) 3.52 dB, 11.6
(A)
Im Im
(B)
****************
w= 0
w=
Re
w= 0
w=
Re
(C) 43. The system is stable for K (A) K > 1 (C) any value of K Statement for Q.4446: (B) K < 1
(D)
(D) unstable
A unity feedback system has open-loop transfer function G( s) = 1 s(2 s + 1)( s + 1)
44. The Nyquist plot for the system is

Im
w= 0 w= 2 3
Im
w=
Re
w= 0
3 2
Re
(A)
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(B)
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Chap 6.5
SOLUTIONS
1. (A) T( s) = Kw2 n s + 2 xwn s + w2 n
2
At w = 10 rad/sec gain is 0 dB. Gain cross over frequency w =10 rad/sec. 8. (D) |GH( jw)| 1, for any value of w. Thus phase margin is . 9. (D) For 28 dB gain Nyquist plot intersect the real axis at a, 1 20 log = 28 a a = 0.04
Kw2 n T( jw) = -w2 + 2 jxwn w + w2 n
|T( jw)|
K w 2 ( w - w ) + 4 x2 w2 nw
2 4 n 2 n 2 2 4 K 2 wn = K2 =1 4 wn
From the fig. P6.5.12, |T( j0)| = 1
|T( j0)|
K =1
For 20 dB gain Nyquist plot should intersect at b, 1 20 log = 20 b = 0.1. b This is achieved if the system gain is increased by factor 0.1 = 2.5. Thus K = 2.5. 0.04 10. (B) Here K = 2, T1 = 1, T2 =
-1
2. (B) The peak value of T( jw) occurs when the denominator of function |T( jw)| is minimum i.e. when
2 2 w2 n - w =0 2
2 4 n 4 n
w = wn K |T( jwn )| = = 2.5 2x
K w K2 |T( jwn )| = 2 = 2 4x w 4x x= K = 0.2 5
1 2
-1
KT1 T2 (2)(0.5) Gain Margin = = 1 + 0.5 + T T 2 1
. = 35 . dB = 15
3. (B) G( jw) H ( jw) =
1 jw( jw + 1)(0.5 + jw)
11. (C) For phase crossover frequency GH ( jw) = -180 GH ( jw) = K jw(1 + 2 jw)(1 + 3 jw)
f = -90 - tan -1 2 w - tan -1 w At phase cross over point f = -180 - tan -1 2 w - tan -1 w - 90 = -180 tan -1 2 w + tan -1 w = 90 2w + w = tan 90 = 1 - (2 w)( w) 1 - (2 w) w = 0 w= 1 2 = 0.707 rad/sec
-90 - tan -1 2 wp - tan -1 3wp = -180 tan -1 2 wp + tan -1 3wp = 90 2 wp + 3wp = tan 90 1 - (2 wp)( 3wp) 1 - 6 w2 p =0 wp = 0.41 rad/s
12. (D) G( s) = 4. (B) For a stable system gain at 180 phase must be negative in dB. More magnitude more stability. 5. (C) At 180 gain is 0.63. Hence gain margin is 1 = 20 log = 4 dB 0.63 At unity gain phase is -172 , Phase margin = 180 -172 = 8 6. (A) At G( jw) = 180 gain is -2 dB. Hence gain margin is 2 dB. At 0 dB gain phase is -140 . Hence phase margin is 180 -140 = 40 . 7. (A) At w = 100 rad/sec phase is 180 . Phase crossShop Online from
s+1 s+1 = s(1 + 0.5 s) s s + 1 2
The Bode plot of this function has break at w = 1 and w = 2. These are the corner frequencies. 13. (A) G.M. = 1 1 = =2 GH ( jwp) 1 2
14. (B) P.M. = 180 + GH ( jw1 ) = 180 -120 = 60 15. (D) Due to pole at origin initial plot has a slope of 1 -20 dB/decade. At s = jw = . Slope increases to -40 T 1 dB/decade. At w = , T
over frequency wp = 100 rad/sec.
|G( jw)| KT < 1 ,Gain

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Chap 6.5
27. (C) Initially slope is -20 dB/decade. Hence there is a pole at origin and system type is 1. For type1 system position error coefficient is . 20 log K = 6 K = 2,
GH ( jw) = - tan -1 GH ( jw) = At w = 0,
2w - 90 2 - w2 K
w (2 - w2 ) 2 + 4 w2 GH ( jw) = - 90 , GH ( jw) = 0 - 270 , K GH ( jw) = - 153.43, 5 K 2 18 - 206.6 ,
28. (B) The system is type 0, 1 1 . 20 log K p = 40, K p = 100, estep ( ) = = 1 + K p 101 29. (A) The Bode plot is as shown in fig. S6.5.29
32 dB 18 dB 0 dB
0.1 0.5 1.4 4
At w = At w = 1,
At w = 2, GH ( jw) =
-20 dB/dec
-40 dB/dec
Due to s there will be a infinite semicircle. Hence (C) is correct option.

w
36. (B) GH ( jw) =
K (1 + jw) 2 ( jw) 3
Fig.S6.5.29
K v = 4, eramp ( ) =
1 1 = = 0.25 Kv 4
|GH( jw)| =
K (1 + w2 ) w3
GH ( jw) = -270 + 2 tan -1 w For w = 0, GH ( jw) = - 270 For w = 1 , GH ( jw) = -180 For w = , GH ( jw) = 0 - 90 As w increases from 0 to , phase goes -270 to -90 . Due to s 3 term there will be 3 infinite semicircle. 37. (A) |GH ( jw)| = K 1 + w2 1 + 4 w2 1 + 9 w2 ,
0.5 w 30. (B) From fig. S6.5.29 x = 2 = = 0.179 2 w3 2(1.4) 31. (A) If Nyquist plot encloses the point ( -1, j0), the system is unstable and gain margin is negative. K 32.(A) GH ( jw) = jw(1 + jwT1 )(1 + jwT2 ) (1 + jwT2 ) K K lim GH ( jw) = lim = lim - 90 w 0 w 0 jw w 0 w Hence, the asymptote of the Nyquist plot tends to an angle of -90 as w 0. 33. (C) 20 log 1 = 10 GH ( jw) 1 = 20 GH ( jw) GH ( jw) = 0.1
GH ( jw) = -90 - tan -1 w - tan -1 2 w - tan -1 3w , For w = 0, GH ( jw) = - 90 , For w = , GH ( jw) = 0 - 360 , Hence (A) is correct option. 38. (C) The open-loop poles in RHP are P = 0. Nyquist path enclosed 2 times the point ( -1 + j0). Taking clockwise encirclements as negative N = -2. N = P - Z, -2 = 0 - Z , Z = 2 which implies that two poles of closed-loop system are on RHP. 39. (B) G( s) H ( s) = GH ( jw) = 1 2 w 1 + 400 w2 -20 w , 1 -1 , 2 s(1 - 20 s)
Since system is stable, it will cross at s = -0.1. s+2 34. (B) GH ( s) = 2 ( s - 1) jw + 2 GH ( jw) = ( -1 - w2 ) At w = 0 , At w = , GH ( jw) = 2 - 180 GH ( jw) = 0 - 270
GH ( jw) = 180 -90 - tan -1 At w = 0 GH ( jw) = 90 At w = GH ( jw) = 0 180
Hence (B) is correct option. 35. (C) GH ( jw) = K jw( -w + 2 jw + 2)

2
At w = 0.1 GH ( jw) = 2.24 153.43 At w = 0.01 GH ( jw) = 49 9115 .

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40. (C) One open-loop pole is lying on the RHP. Thus open-loop system is unstable and P = 1. There is one clockwise encirclement. Hence N = -1. Z = P - N = 1 - ( -1) = 2, Hence there are 2 closed-loop poles on the RHP and system is unstable. 41. (B) There is one infinite semicircle. Which represent single pole at origin. So system type is1. 42. (D) |GH ( jw)| = K 1 + w2 1 + w2 =K
The frequency at which magnitude unity is

Im
-2 3
-1 wp w1
Re
Phase Margin
Fig.S6.5.44
GH ( jw) = tan -1 w - tan -1 At w = 0 GH ( jw) = K0 , At w = 1 GH ( jw) = K90 , At w = 2 GH ( jw) = K127 , At w = GH ( jw) = K180 ,
-w 1
w (1 + w ) (1 + 4 w ) = 1
2 1 2 1 2 1
w2 = 0.326, w1 = 0.57 rad/sec 46. (D) G.M. = 20 log Gain Margin = 20 log 1
|GH( jwp)|
|GH( jwp)| =
2 3
3 = 352 . dB. 2
43. (A) RHP poles of open-loop system P = 1, Z = P - N . For closed loop system to be stable, Z = 0, 0 = 1 - N N =1 There must be one anticlockwise rotation of point ( -1 + j0). It is possible when K > 1. 44. (C) G( s) = GH ( s) = 1 , s(2 s + 1)( s + 1) H ( s) = 1
GH ( jw) = -90 - tan -1 w - tan -1 2 w , At unit gain w1 = 0.57 rad/sec, Phase at this frequency is GH ( jw1 ) = -90 - tan -1 0.57 - tan -1 2(0.57) = -168.42 Phase margin = -168.42 +180 = 11.6 Note that system is stable. So gain margin and phase margin are positive value. Hence only possible option is (D).
1 s(2 s + 1)( s + 1) 1 jw(2 jw + 1)( jw + 1)

w 0
***************
GH ( jw) =
lim GH ( jw) = lim

w 0
1 = - 90 jw 1 = 0 - 270 2( jw) 3
lim GH ( jw) = lim w

w w
The intersection with the real axis can be calculated as Im{ GH ( jw)} = 0, The condition gives w (2 w2 - 1) = 0 i.e. w = 0, 1 2 , 1 -2 GH j = 2 3
With the above information the plot in option (C) is correct. 45. (C) The Nyquist plot crosses the negative real axis 1 rad/sec. Hence phase crossover frequency is at w = 2 wp =
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1 2
= 0.707 rad/sec.
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CHAPTER
6.6
DESIGN OF CONTROL SYSTEMS
1. The term reset control refers to (A) Integral control (C) Proportional control (B) Derivative control (D) None of the above (C) is predictive in nature (D) increases the order of the system 6. Consider the List I and List II List I
P. Derivative control Q. Integral control R. Rate feed back control S. Proportional control
2. If stability error for step input and speed of response be the criteria for design, the suitable controller will be (A) P controller (C) PD controller 3. The transfer function (A) Lag network (B) Lead network (C) Laglead network (D) Proportional controller 4. A lag compensation network (a) increases the gain of the original network without affecting stability. (b) reduces the steady state error. (c) reduces the speed of response (d) permits the increase of gain of phase margin is acceptable. In the above statements, which are correct (A) a and b (C) b, c, and d 5. Derivative control (A) has the same effect as output rate control (B) reduces damping
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List II
1. Improved overshoot response 2. Less steady state errors 3. Less stable 4. More damping
(B) PI controller (D) PID controller 1 + 0.5 s represent a 1+ s
The correct match is P (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 4 2 1 Q 2 3 3 2 R 3 1 1 4 S 4 2 4 3
7. Consider the ListI (Transfer function) and ListII (Controller) List I P. Q. R. S.

K1s + K2 K 3s K1 K 2s
List II 1. Pcontroller 2. PIcontroller 3. PDcontroller 4. PIDcontroller
(B) b and c (D) all (A) (B) (C) (D)

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8. The transfer function of a compensating network is of form (1 + aTs) (1 + Ts). If this is a phaseLag network, the value of a should be (A) greater than 1 (B) between 0 and 1 (C) exactly equal to 1 (D) exactly equal to 0 9. The pollzero
jw
(B) Twoposition controller (C) Floating controller (D) Proportionalposition controller 14. In case of phaselag compensation used is system, gain crossover frequency, band width and undamped frequency are respectively (A) decreased, decreased, decreased
configuration
of
a
jw
phaselead
(B) increased, increased, increased (C) increased, increased, decreased (D) increased, decreased, decreased
compensator is given by (A) (B)

s
15. A process with openloop model (C)

jw
(D)
s
jw s
G( s) =
Ke - s TD ts + 1
is controlled by a PID controller. For this purpose 10. While designing controller, the advantage of pole zero cancellation is (A) The system order is increased (B) The system order is reduced (C) The cost of controller becomes low (D) Systems error reduced to optimum levels 11. A proportional controller leads to (A) infinite error for step input for type 1 system (B) finite error for step input for type 1 system (C) zero steady state error for step input for type 1 system (D) zero steady state error for step input for type 0 system 12. The transfer function of a phase compensator is given by (1 + aTs) (1 + Ts) where a > 1 and T > 0. The maximum phase shift provided by a such compensator is a + 1 (A) tan -1 a -1 (C) tan
-1
(A) the derivative mode improves transient performance (B) the derivative mode improves steady state performance (C) the integral mode improves transient performance (D) the integral mode improves steady state performance. The correct statements are (A) (a) and (c) (C) (a) and (d) (B) (b) and (c) (D) (b) and (d)
16. A lead compensating network (a) improves response time (b) stabilizes the system with low phase margin (c) enables moderate increase in gain without affecting stability. (d) increases resonant frequency In the above statements, correct are (A) (a) and (b) (B) (a) and (c) (D) All
a -1 (B) sin -1 a + 1 (D) cos

-1
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
a -1 a + 1
a -1 a + 1
17. A Lag network for compensation normally consists of (A) R, L and C elements (B) R and L elements (C) R and C elements
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Chap 6.6
18. The polezero plot given in fig.P6.6.18 is that of a

jw s
SOLUTIONS
1. (A) 2. (D) 7. (A) 12. (B) 17. (C) 3. (A) 8. (B) 13. (C) 18. (D) 4. (D) 9. (A) 14. (D) 19. (D) 5. (B) 10. (B) 15. (C) 20. (D) 6. (D)
Fig. P6.6.18
(A) PID controller (B) PD controller (C) Integrator (D) Laglead compensating network 19. The correct sequence of steps needed to improve system stability is (A) reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action (B) reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback (C) insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain (D) use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action. 20. In a derivative error compensation (A) damping decreases and setting time decreases (B) damping increases and setting time increases (C) damping decreases and setting time increases (D) damping increases and setting time decreases 21. An ONOFF controller is a (A) P controller (B) PID controller (C) integral controller (D) non linear controller
**********
11. (C) 16. (D) 21. (D)
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CHAPTER
6.7
THE STATE-VARIABLE ANALYSIS
1. Consider the SFG shown in fig. P6.7.1
u 1 1 s -1 -2 -3 x3 1 s x2 1 s x1 1 y
1 0 -2 (A) 0 -2 0 0 -3 0 1 -2 2 (C) 0 -2 0 0 -3 0 3.
2 -1 0 (B) 0 2 0 0 0 3 0 -1 2 (D) 0 2 0 3 0 0
Fig. P6.7.1
For this & 1 3 x & = 0 (A) x 2 &3 3 x
system dynamic equation is 1 2 x1 0 1 1 x2 + 0 u 2 1 1 x3
5 1 s 1 x2 1 x3 5 -2 1 s x1 5 y
&1 0 1 0 x1 0 x & = 0 (B) x 0 1 x2 + 0 u 2 &3 1 x -3 -2 -1 x3 & 1 0 -1 0 x1 0 x & = 0 0 -1 x2 + 0 u (C) x 2 &3 1 x 3 2 x3 1 (D) None of the above Statement for Q.24: Represent the given system in state-space & = A x + B u. Choose the correction option for equation x matrix A. 2.
1 u -2 1 s -3 -2 x3 5
u
u
1
-2 1 s -3
Fig. P6.7.3
1 0 -2 (A) 0 -2 0 0 -3 0 0 1 -2 (C) 0 -2 0 0 -3 0 4.
-1 0 2 (B) 0 2 0 3 0 0 2 0 -1 (D) 0 2 0 3 0 0
1 s
x2
1 s
x1
y
1
1 s -3
x3 1
1 s
x2
1 s -4
x1 1
Fig. P6.7.4 Fig. P6.7.2
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Chap 6.7
0 1 -4 (A) 1 0 0 0 -3 0 - 4 1 0 (C) 0 0 1 0 0 -3
0 -1 4 (B) -1 0 0 3 0 0 4 - 1 0 (D) 0 0 -1 3 0 0
8. The F( t ) is cos 2 t sin 2 t (A) - sin 2 t cos 2 t sin 2 t cos 2 t (C) - cos 2 t sin 2 t 9. The q( t ) is 0.5(1 - sin 2 t) (A) 0.5 cos 2 t 0.5(1 - cos 2 t) (C) 0.5 sin 2 t sin 2 t (B) cos 2 t cos 2 t (D) sin 2 t cos 2 t - sin 2 t (B) cos 2 t sin 2 t sin 2 t - cos 2 t (D) sin 2 t cos 2 t
5. The state equation of a LTI system is represented by 1 0 0 1 & = x -2 -1 x + 1 0 u The Eigen values are (A) -1, + 1 (C) -1, - 1 (B) -0.5 j1.323 (D) None of the above
10. From the following matrices, the state-transition matrices can be -e - t 0 (A) 0 1 e- t 1 (C) -t 1 - e 0 e- t 1 - e - t (B) 0 1 - e - t (D) 0 0 e- t e- t e- t
6. The state equation of a LTI system is -3 0 0 & = x 0 -3 x + 1 u The state-transition matrix F( t) is e -3t (A) 0 -e -3t (C) 0 0 e -3t 0 -e -3t -e -3t (B) 0 e -3t (D) 0 0 e -3t 0 -e -3t
Statement for Q.1113: A system is described by the dynamic equations & ( t) = A x ( t) + B u( t), y( t) = C x( t) where x 1 0 0 0 A= 0 0 1 , B = 0 , C = [1 0 0 ] -1 -2 -3 1 11. The Eigen values of A are (A) 0.325, -1.662 j0.562 (B) 2.325, 0.338 j0.562 (C) -2.325, -0.338 j0.562 (D) -0.325, 1.662 j0.562 12. The transfer-function relation between X ( s) and U ( s) is (A) 1 1 -s s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s - 1 2 s 1 1 -s s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 2 s (B) 1 1 s s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 2 s
7. The state equation of a LTI system is 0 2 0 & = x -2 0 x + 1 u The state transition matrix is cos 2 t sin 2 t (A) - sin 2 t cos 2 t sin 2 t cos 2 t (C) - cos 2 t sin 2 t Statement for Q.89: The state-space representation of a system is given & ( t) = A x ( t) + B u( t), where by x 0 0 2 , B= A = 1 -2 0 If x(0) is the initial state vector, and the component of the input vector u( t) are all unit step function, then the state transition equation is given by & ( t) = F( t )x (0) + q( t ), where F( t ) is a state transition x matrix and q( t ) is a vector matrix.
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cos 2 t - sin 2 t (B) cos 2 t sin 2 t sin 2 t - cos 2 t (D) sin 2 t cos 2 t
(C)
13. The output transfer function Y ( s) U ( s) is (A) s( s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1) -1 (C) ( s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1) -1 (B) s( s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s - 1) -1 (D) None of the above
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14. A system is described by the dynamic equation & ( t) = A x ( t) + B u( t), y( t) = C x( t) where x -1 0 1 , B = and C = [1 1] A = 0 -2 0 The output transfer function Y ( s) U ( s) is (A) (C) ( s + 1) ( s + 2) 2 ( s + 2) ( s + 1) (B) s+1 s+2
& 1 0 1 0 x1 0 x & = 0 0 (C) x 1 x2 + 0 r 2 &3 x 9 26 24 x3 24 &1 0 1 0 x1 0 x &2 = 0 (D) x 0 1 x2 + 0 r &3 x -9 -26 -24 x3 24 18. C( s) 100 = 4 R( s) s + 20 s 3 + 10 s2 + 7 s + 100 0 0 0 0 1 0 x + r, 0 0 1 0 100 7 10 20 1 0
15. The state-space representation of a system is given by -1 0 1 & ( t) = x 0 -2 x( t) + 1 u( t), y( t) = [1 1]x( t) The transfer function of this system is (A) ( s 2 + 3s + 2) -1 (C) s( s 2 + 3s + 2) -1 (B) ( s + 2) -1 (D) ( s + 1) -1
0 0 & = (A) x 0 100
y = [1 0 0 0 ]x 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 & = x + r (B) x 0 0 1 0 0 -100 -7 -10 -20 100 y = [1 0 0 0 ]x 1 0 0 0 & = (C) x 0 0 20 10 0 0 0 0 x + r 0 1 0 1 7 100 0 1
16. The state-space representation for a system is 1 0 0 10 & = 0 x 0 1 x + 0 u, y = [1 0 0 ]x -1 -2 -3 0 The transfer function Y ( s) U ( s) is (A) 10(2 s 2 + 3s + 1) s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 10(2 s 2 + 3s + 2) s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 (B) 10(2 s 2 + 3s + 1) s 3 + 2 s 2 + 3s + 1 10(2 s 2 + 3s + 2) s 3 + 2 s 2 + 3s + 1
y = [100 0 0 0 ]x 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 & = x + r (D) x 0 0 1 0 0 -20 -10 -7 -100 1 y = [100 0 0 0 ]x 19. A state-space representation of a system is given by 0 1 0 & = x -2 0 x, y = [1 - 1]x, and x(0) = 1 The time response of this system will be 3 (A) sin 2 t (B) sin 2 t 2 (C) 1 2 sin 2 t (D) 3 sin 2 t
(C)
(D)
Statement for Q.1718: Determine the state-space representation for the transfer function given in question. Choose the state variable as follows x1 = c = y, x2 = 17. d c d c dc & , x3 = 2 = && c , x4 = 2 = &&& c =c dt dt dt
2 3
C( s) 24 = 3 R( s) s + 9 s 2 + 26 s + 24
&1 0 1 0 x1 0 x & = 0 (A) x 0 1 x2 + 0 r 2 &3 x -24 -26 -9 x3 24 &1 0 1 0 x1 0 x & 2 = 0 0 1 x2 + 0 r (B) x &3 x 24 26 9 x3 24
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20. For the transfer function Y ( s) s+3 = U ( s) ( s + 1)( s + 2) & = A x + B u, The state model is given by x y = C x. The A , B, C are
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-4 -2 -5 1 & = -3 -10 29. x 0 x + 1 r, y = [ -1 2 1]x 1 -5 -1 0 estep ( ) (A) 1.0976 (B) 1.0976 (C) 0 (D) eramp ( ) 0 1.0976 1.0976
Statement for Q.3436: Consider the system shown in fig. P6.7.34-36.

1 s 1 u 1 -1 1 s -2 x3 -10 10 x2 1 -1 1 s x1 10 y
Fig. P6.7.34-36
1 0 0 0 & = -5 -9 7 x + 0 r, y = [1 0 0 ]x 30. x -1 0 0 1 estep ( ) (A) 0 (B) (C) 0 (D) Statement for Q.3133: Consider the system shown in fig. P6.7.31-33
1 1 s -5 -6 x2 1 s
eramp ( ) 0.714 0.714 4.86 4.86
34. The controllability matrix for this system is 10 1 -2 10 -10 0 (A) -10 (B) 1 -1 0 -20 1 40 4 10 -20 1 - 2 10 10 -10 (C) -10 0 20 10 -20 -40 1 -1 0 (D) 1 6 -1 1 - 4 - 4
35. The observability matrix is 10 1 -2 10 -10 0 (A) -10 (B) 1 -1 0 -20 1 40 4 10 -10 1 - 2 10 10 -10 (C) -10 0 20 10 -10 -40 36. The system is (A) Controllable and observable (B) Controllable only (C) Observable only (D) None of the above Statement for Q.3738: A state flow graph is shown in fig. P6.7.37-38
4 1 1 s x2 -21 4 -5 1 s x1 5
-2
x1
1 2 0 (D) 1 -1 1 1 - 2 4
Fig. P6.7.31-33
31. The controllability matrix is 1 0 1 -2 (A) (B) 4 0 1 -2 1 0 (C) 0 -1 1 2 (D) -2 -4
32. The observability matrix is 1 0 1 -2 (A) (B) 0 1 4 -2 1 0 (C) 0 -1 33. The system is (A) Controllable and observable (B) Controllable only (C) Observable only (D) None of the above
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1 2 (D) -2 -4
Fig. P6.7.37-38
37. The state and output equation for this system is & 0 -1 x 0 x x (A) 1 = 21 1 + u, y = [5 4 ] 1 5 & x x 1 2 x2 2 4
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Chap 6.7
1 x 0 & 0 x x 21 1 + u, y = [5 4 ] 1 (B) 1 = 5 & x 1 x2 x2 4 2 & 0 -1 x 1 x x (C) 1 = 21 1 + u, y = [ 4 5 ] 1 5 &2 x 1 x2 x 2 4 1 x 1 & 0 x x 21 1 + u, y = [ 4 5 ] 1 (D) 1 = 5 & x x 1 2 x2 4 2 38. The system is (A) Observable and controllable (B) Controllable only (C) Observable only (D) None of the above
& -1 -1 v1 1 v v (B) &1 = + vi , iR = [ 4 1] 1 i3 -3 -1 i3 0 i3 & 1 -3 v1 1 v v (C) 1 = + vi , iR = [1 4 ] 1 & v2 1 6 v2 -1 v2 & 1 3 v1 1 v v1 (D) 1 = v + -1 vi , iR = [1 4 ]v & v 1 6 2 2 2 Statement for Q.4143: Consider the network shown in fig. P6.7.41-43. This system may be represented in state space & = A x + B u representation x
iC iR1 iL 1 2F iR2 1W 4vL
39. Consider the network shown in fig. P6.7.39. The state-space representation for this network is
iL
4H
is
1W
iR vs
2W
iC 1F
Fig. P6.7.41-43
41. The state variable may be (A) iR1 , iR 2 (B) iL , iC (D) None of the above (C) vC , iL
Fig. P6.7.39
& -0.25 1 vC 1 v vC (A) & C = i + 0.25 vs , iR = [0.5 0 ] i i 0 5 0 . L L L & -0.5 1 vC 0.25 v vC (B) & C = i + 1 vs , iR = [0.5 0 ] i i 0 25 0 . L L L & 1 0.25 vC 0.25 v v (C) & C = + vs , iR = [0.5 0 ] C iL 0 0.5 iL 0 iL & -1 0.25 vC 0.25 v v (D) & C = vs , iR = [0.5 0 ] C + iL 0 -0.5 iL 0 iL 40. For the network shown in fig. P6.7.40. The output is
i1
42. If state variable are chosen as in previous question, then the matrix A is 1 -1 (A) -1 3 -1 3 (C) 1 -1 43. The matrix B is 3 (A) -1 -3 (C) 1 Statement for Q.4447: 1 -3 (B) -1 1 3 -1 (D) -1 1
-1 (B) 3 1 (D) -3
1W
v1 i2
1H
i3
v2
iR
vi
1F
4v1
1W
Consider the network shown in fig. P6.7.44-47

i1
1W
Fig. P6.7.40
i3 i2
1W
i5 i4
1W
iR ( t). The state space representation is & 1 -1 v1 1 v v (A) &1 = + vi , iR = [ 4 1] 1 i3 -3 1 i1 0 i3

vi
1H
1H
1F
+ vo -
Fig. P6.7.44-47
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Control & System
44. The state variable may be (A) i2 , i4 (C) i1 , i3 (B) i2 , i4 , vo (D) i1 , i3 , i5
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) From the SFG & 3 = -3 x1 - 2 x2 x x x2 = 3 s x x1 = 2 s - x3 + u & 2 = x3 x & 1 = x2 x
45. In state space representation matrix A is 1 1 2 - 3 - 3 3 1 2 2 (A) 3 3 3 - 1 - 2 - 1 3 3 3 1 1 2 3 - 3 - 3 1 2 2 (C) 3 3 3 1 - 1 - 2 3 3 3 46. The matrix B is 2 3 1 (A) - 3 - 1 3 1 - 3 1 (C) - 3 1 3 1 2 1 3 - 3 - 3 2 2 1 (B) - 3 3 3 - 1 - 2 - 1 3 3 3 1 2 1 - 3 - 3 3 2 2 1 (D) 3 3 3 - 1 - 2 - 1 3 3 3
& 2 = - 2 x2 + u , x & 3 = - 3 x3 + u & 1 = - 2 x1 + x3 , x 2. (A) x & 1 -2 1 0 x1 0 x x & 2 = 0 -2 0 x2 + 0 u &3 0 -3 x 0 x3 1 & 2 = - 2 x2 + u , x & 3 = - 3 x3 + u & 1 = - 2 x1 + x3 , x 3. (C) x y = 5 x1 + 5 x2 + 5 x3 & 1 -2 0 1 x1 0 x x & 2 = 0 -2 0 x2 + 1 u &3 0 -3 x 0 x3 1 & 1 = -4 x1 + x2 , x & 2 = x3 + 2 u , x & 3 = - 3 x3 + u 4. (C) x & 1 -4 1 1 x1 0 x x & = 0 0 1 x2 + 2 u 2 &3 x 0 0 -3 x3 1 5. (B) Ds = |sI - A| = s 2 + s + 2 = 0 s = - 0.5 j1.323 0 s + 3 6. (A) ( sI - A) = s+ 0 ( sI - A)
-1
2 3 1 (B) 3 1 3 2 3 1 (D) 3 2 3
47. If output is vo , then matrix C is (A) [-1 0 0] (C) [0 0 -1] (B) [1 0 0] (D) [0 0 1]
1 , |sI - A|= 3 ( s + 3) 2
1 = s + 3 0
0 1 s + 3 0 e -3t
e -3t F( t ) = L-1 {( sI - A )} == 0
************************
s -2 2 7. (A) ( sI - A) = , |sI - A|= s + 4 2 s ( sI - A)

-1
s 1 s 2 s2 + 4 = 2 = s +4 -2 s -2 s2 + 4
2 s2 + 4 s 2 s + 4
cos 2 t sin 2 t F( t ) = L-1 {( sI - A )} = - sin 2 t cos 2 t s -2 8. (A) ( sI - A) = |sI - A|= s 2 + 4 , Ds = 2 s

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Chap 6.7
( sI - A)
-1
s 1 s 2 s2 + 4 = 2 = s +4 -2 s -2 s2 + 4
2 s + 4 s 2 s + 4
2
1 1 15. (D) T( s) = ( sI - A) -1 0 1 ( sI - A)
-1
cos 2 t sin 2 t F( t ) = L-1 {( sI - A )} = - sin 2 t cos 2 t 9. (C) q( t) = L-1 {( sI - A) -1 BR( s)} 1 s 2 0 1 1 2 1 -1 = L-1 2 =L 2 s + 4 -2 s 1 1 s s( s + 4) s = L-1 2 s( s 2 + 4) 1 2 ( s + 4) 0.5(1 - cos 2 t) = 0.5 sin 2 t
1 = s + 1 0
0 1 s + 2 0 1 1 = s+1 1 0 s + 2
1 1 s + 1 T( s) = 1 0
& = A x + B u, y = C x + Du 16. (C) x 1 0 0 10 A = 0 0 1, B = 0 , C = [1 0 0 ], D = 0 -1 -2 -3 0 Y ( s) T( s) = = C ( sI - A ) -1 B + D U ( s) ( sI - A)

-1
10. (C) (A) is not a state-transition matrix, since F(0) I (B) is not a state-transition matrix since F(0) I (C) is a state-transition matrix since F(0) = I and [ F( t)]-1 = F( -t) 0 s -1 11. (C) ( sI - A) = 0 s -1 1 2 s + 3
s 3 + 3s + 2 s+3 1 1 = 3 s ( s + ) s 1 3 s + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 2 s s s 2 1
Substituting the all values, T( s) = 10(2 s 2 + 3s + 2) s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 C( s) b0 24 = = R( s) s 3 + a2 s 2 + a1 s + a0 ( s 3 + 9 s 2 + 26 s + 24)
|sI - A| = s3 + 3s2 + 2 s + 1,
s = - 2.325, - 0.338 j0.562 X ( s) = ( sI - A) -1 B U ( s) 12. (B)
17. (A)
( s 3 + a2 s 2 + a1 s + a0 ) C( s) = b0 R( s) Taking the inverse Laplace transform assuming zero initial conditions &&& & + a0 c = b0 r c + a2 && c + a1 c & , x3 = && x1 = c = y, x2 = c c & && & & x1 = c = x2 , x2 = c = x3 & 3 = &&& & - a0 c x c = b0 r - a2 && c - a1 c = - a0 x1 - a1 x2 - a2 x3 + b0 r , &1 0 1 0 x1 0 x x &2 = 0 0 1 x2 + 0 r &3 x -a0 -a1 -a1 x3 b0 a0 = 24 , a1 = 26, a2 = 9, b0 = 24 &1 0 1 0 x1 0 x x &2 = 0 0 1 x2 + 0 r &3 x -24 -26 -9 x3 24 x1 y = [1 0 0 ] x2 x3 18. (B) Fourth order hence four state variable
s 3 + 3s + 2 s+3 1 0 1 s( s + 3) s 0 = 3 -1 s + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 2 -s -2 s - 1 s 1 1 1 s = 3 s + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 2 s 13. (C) Y ( s) CX ( s) = U ( s) U ( s)
1 s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 s 1 = [1 0 0 ] 3 = 3 2 2 + 2 s + 1 s + 3s + 2 s + 1 s + 3s 2 s s 3 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 14. (D) Y ( s) = C ( sI - A) -1 B U ( s) 1 0 s+2 1 s + 1 2 = s + 1 Ds 0 1 ( s + 1)
B = [1 1]
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0 0 & = x 0 -a 0
1 0 0 -a1
0 1 0 -a 2
0 0 0 0 x = r, y = [1 0 0 0 ]x 1 0 -a 3 b0 a3 = 20 , b0 = 100
0 s + 1 1 + 2 1 s ( s + 1)( s + 2)
1 1 1 0 + 1 s
a0 = 100, a1 = 7, a2 = 10,
( s + 1) s( s + 2) = 1 s( s + 1)( s + 2) Y ( s) = [0 1] X ( s) = y( t) = 1 s( s + 1)( s + 2)
0 1 1 s 1 19. (B) A = , ( sI - A) -1 = 2 s +2 -2 0 -2 s sin 2 t cos 2 t F( t ) = L-1 {( sI - A)} = 2 - 2 sin 2 t cos 2 t sin 2 t cos 2 t + x( t) = F( t )x(0) = 2 - 2 sin 2 t + cos 2 t y = x1 - x2 = 3 2 sin 2 t
1 1 - e - t + e -2 t 2 2
25. (B) X ( s) = ( sI - A) -1 (x(0) + B u) 0 s + 2 -1 = 0 -1 s 0 s + 1 0

-1
0 1 0 + 0 1 s 0 0 1 s( s + 2)
20. (C) Find the transfer function of option Y ( s) 1 For (A) , , = U ( s) s - 2 Y ( s) 1 For (B) , = U ( s) s - 2 For (C), 0 1 s + 2 Y ( s) 1 = [0 1] s + 1 2 U ( s) ( s + 1)( s + 2) 1
1 s( s + 2) 1 = 2 s ( s + 2) 1 2 s ( s + 1)( s + 2)
Y ( s) = [1 0 0 ], y( t) = 1 1 -2 t - e 2 2
X ( s) =
26. (D) For a unit step input estep ( ) = 1 + CA -1B 1 0 - 5 A= 0 -2 1, 20 -10 1 A

-1
s + 2 s+3 1 = [0 1] = ( s + 1)( s + 3) + s 3 ( s + 1)( s + 2) So (C) is correct option. -2 -1 21. (C) A = , -3 -5
0.05 -0.05 -0.4 = -1 -0.25 -0.25 -0.5 15 . -2
-0.4 0.05 -0.05 0 estep ( ) = 1 + [ -1 1 0 ] -1 0.25 -0.25 0 15 . -0.5 -2 1 s = -5.79, - 121 . = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8 1 -2 - 27. (A) estep ( ) = 1 + CA -1B, A -1 = 3 0 1 1 1 2 -2 - 0 estep ( ) = 1 + [1 1] 3 =1 - = 1 3 3 0 1 28. (C) eramp ( ) = lim [(1 + CA -1B) t + C( A -1 ) 2 B]
t
|sI - A| = s2 + 7 s + 7
-2 -3 s 22. (B) ( sI - A) = 0 s - 6 -5 -1 -4 s - 2
|sI - A| = s
- 8 s - 11s + 8
2
s = 9.11, 0.53, - 1.64
23. (D) X ( s) = ( sI - A) -1 (x(0) + B u) s - 1 -2 = s + 1 3

2 -1
2 1 3 1 + 1 s 2 + 9
3 2
2 s + 4 s + 21s + 45 1 2 3 2 ( s + 5)( s + 9) s - 7 s + 12 s - 7 4 s 3 - 10 s 2 + 45 s - 105 Y ( s) = [1 2 ] X ( s) = ( s 2 + 5)( s 2 + 9) 24. (B) X ( s) = ( sI - A) -1 (x(0) + B u)

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2 1 + CA -1B = , 3
2 eramp ( ) = lim t + C( A -1 ) 2 B = t 3
29. (B) estep ( ) = 1 + CA -1B -4 -2 -5 1 A = -3 -10 0 , B = 1 , C = [ -1 2 1] 1 -5 -1 0

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Chap 6.7
-1
0.134 0.122 -0.305 = 0.091 -0.140 -0.037 -0.079 -0.055 -0.232

-1 -1 2
-1 1 0 A = 0 -1 0 , C = [10 - 10 10 ], 0 0 -2 -1 1 0 CA = [10 - 10 10 ] 0 -1 0 = [10 0 0 -2 CA 2 = [10 0 - 20 ]
. estep ( ) = 1 + 0.0976 = 10976 eramp ( ) = lim [(1 + CA B) t + C( A ) B] =

t
-1 0 0 30. (B) A -1 = 1 0 0 1.286 0.143 -0.714 0 -1 0 0 0 0 0 = 0 estep ( ) = 1 + [1 0 0 ] 1 1.286 0.143 -0.714 1 . -0.143 0.714 -1286 0 0 -1 (A ) = -0.776 -0.102 -0.776
-1 2
-1 1 0 0 - 20 ] 0 -1 0 = [10 - 10 0 0 -2
40 ]
10 C 10 -10 O M = CA = -10 0 -20 2 40 CA 10 -10 1 -2 0 36. (A) det Cm = det 1 -1 1 = -1, 4 1 -2 Since the determinant is not zero, the 3 3 matrix is nonsingular and system is controllable 10 10 -10 det O M = det-10 0 -10 = -3000 40 10 -20 The rank of O M is 3. Hence system is observable. & 2 = - 5 x1 37. (B) x 21 & 1 = x2 , y = 5 x1 + 4 x2 x2 + u , x 4
C( A -1 ) 2 B = 0.714, eramp ( ) = 0.714 & 1 = x2 + u , x & 2 = - 5 x2 - 6 x1 - 2 u 31. (B) x 1 0 1 & = x -6 -5 x + -2 u, 1 CM = [B AB] = -2 1 0 1 A = , B= -6 -5 -2 1 1 1 -2 0 -6 -5 -2 = -2 4
32. (A) y = x1 , y = [1 0 ]x , C = [1 0 ], CA = [1 C 1 0 0 ] , OM = = CA 0 1
1 x 0 &1 0 x x 21 1 + u, y = [5 4 ] 1 = x 5 x 1 &2 x2 4 2 C 5 4 38. (B) O M = = CA -20 1 det O M = 0. Thus system is not observable 1 0 21 CM = [B AB] = 1 4 det CM = -1. Thus system is controllable. 39. (B) dvc di v = ic , L = L = 0.25 vL dt dt 4
33. (C) det CM = 0. Hence system is not controllable. det O M = 1. Hence system is observable. & 1 = - x1 + x2 , x & 2 = - x2 + u , x & 3 = - 2 x3 + u 34. (B) x -1 1 0 0 -1 1 0 0 & x = 0 -1 0 x + 1 u, A = 0 -1 0 , B = 1 0 0 -2 1 0 0 -2 1 -1 1 0 0 1 AB = 0 -1 0 1 = -1 0 0 -2 1 -2 -1 1 0 1 -2 A 2B = 0 -1 0 -1 = 1 0 0 -2 -2 4 1 -2 0 1 Cm = [B AB A B] = 1 -1 4 1 - 2
2
35. (A) y = 10 x1 - 10 x2 + 10 x3 , y = [10 - 10

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10 ]x
vC and iL are state variable. v iL = iC + iR , iC = iL - iR = iL - C , vL = vs - vC 2 dvL v Hence equations are = iL - C = - 0.5 vC + iL dt 2 diL = 0.25( vs - vC ) = - 0.25 vC + 0.25 vs dt & C -0.5 1 vC 0.25 v & = i vs , + L -0.25 0 iL 1
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Control & System
iR =
vC = 0.5 vC , 2
v iR = [0.5 0 ] C iL
45. (A)
di2 di dvo = v2 , 4 = v4 , = i5 dt dt dt
i1
1W
v2 i3 i2
1W
v4 i5 i4
1W
40. (B)
dv1 di = i2 , 3 = vL dt dt
Hence v1 and i3 are state variable. i2 = i1 - i3 = ( vi - v1 ) - i3 , i2 = - v1 - i3 + vi vL = v1 - v2 = v1 - iR , = v1 - ( i3 + 4 v1 ) = -3v1 - i3 dv1 di = - v1 - i3 + vi , 3 = - 3v1 - i3, y = iR = 4 v1 + i3 dt dt &1 -1 -1 v1 1 v v1 & = -3 -1 i + 0 vi , iR = [ 4 1] i i 3 3 3 41. (C) Energy storage elements are capacitor and inductor. vC and iL are available in differential form and linearly independent. Hence vC and iL are suitable for state-variable. 42. (B) 1 dvC dvC = iC = 2 iC 2 dt dt 1 diL diL = vL = 2 vL 2 dt dt
iC iR1 is 1W + vL iL 1 2F
vi
1H
1H
1F
+ vo -
Fig. S6.7.45
Now obtain v2 , v4 and i5 in terms of the state variable -vi + i1 + i3 + i5 + vo = 0 But i3 = i1 - i2 and i5 = i3 - i4 -vi + i1 + ( i1 - i2 ) + ( i3 - i4 ) + vo = 0 2 1 1 1 i1 = i2 + i4 - vo + vi 3 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 v2 = vi - i1 = - i2 - i4 + vo + vi 3 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 i3 = i1 - i2 = - i2 + i4 - vo + vi 3 3 3 3 1 2 1 1 i5 = i3 - i4 = - i2 - i4 - vo + vi 3 3 3 3 1 2 2 1 v4 = i5 + vo = - i2 - i4 + vo + vi 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 & - 3 - 3 i 3 i 3 2 2 & 1 2 2 1 i i + vi = 4 4 3 3 3 3 v &o 1 2 1 vo 1 - 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 - 3 - 3 3 1 2 2 A = , 3 3 3 - 1 - 2 - 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 46. (B) B = 3 1 3
+ vC iR2 + vR2 1W 4vL
Fig. S6.7.42
vL = vC + vR 2 = vC + iR 2 , iC + 4 vL = iR 2 vL = vC + iC + 4 vL , -3vL = vC + iC v iC = is - iR1 - iL , iC = is - L - iL 1 Solving equation (i) and (ii) -3 ( is - iL - iC ) = vC + iC , 2 iC = vC - 3iL + 3is -3vL = vC + is - vL - iL , 2 vL = - vC + iL - is dvC di = vC - 3iL + 3is , L = - vC + iL - is dt dt & C 1 -3 vC 3 v & = i + is L -1 1 iL -1 3 43. (A) B = -1 44. (B) There are three energy storage elements, hence 3 variable. i2 , i4 and vo are available in differentiated form hence these are state variable. ...(i) ...(ii)
47. (D) vo is state variable y = vo , i2 y = [0 0 1] = i4 vo
********
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Communication System
10. If machine is not properly adjusted, the product resistance change to the case where ax = 1050 W. Now the rejected fraction is (A) 5046% (C) 2.18% (B) 10.57% (D) 6.43%
Statement for Question 15-16: The life time of a system expressed in weeks is a Rayleigh random variable X for which x -x e 400 200 f X ( x) = 0
2
0x x <0
11. Cannon shell impact position, as measured along the line of fire from the target point is described by a gaussian random variable X . It is found that 15.15% of shell falls 11.2 m or farther from the target in a direction toward the cannon, while 5.05% fall farther from the 95.6 m beyond the target. The value of ax and
15. The probability that the system will not last a full week is (A) 0.01% (C) 0.40% (B) 0.25% (D) 0.60%
sx
for X is
(Given that F(103 . ) = 0.8485 and

16. The probability that the system lifetime will exceed (B) T + 40 m and 30 m (D) T + 30 m and 40 m in year is (A) 0.01% (C) 0.12% (B) 0.05% (D) 0.22%
F(1.64) = 0.9495)
(A) T + 40 m and 50 m (C) T + 10 m and 50 m
12. A gaussian random voltage X for which a X = 0 and s X = 4.2 V appears across a 100 W resistor with a power rating of 0.25 W. The probability, that the voltage will cause an instantaneous power that exceeds the resistor's rating, is 5 (A) 2Q 4.2 5 (C) 1 + Q 4.2 5 (B) Q 4.2 5 (D) 1 - Q 4.2
17. The cauchy random variable has the following probability density function f X ( x) = b/ p b2 + ( x - a) 2
For real numbers 0 < b and - < a < . The distribution function of X is 1 x -a (A) tan -1 p b (B) (C) (D) 1 x -a cot-1 p b 1 1 x -a + tan -1 2 p b 1 1 x -a + cot-1 2 p b
Statement for Question 13 -14 : Assume that the time of arrival of bird at Bharatpur sanctuary on a migratory route, as measured in days from the first year (January 1 is the first day), is approximated as a gaussian random variable X with a X = 200 and sx = 20 days. Given that : F (0.5) = 0.6915, F (10 . ) = 0.8413., F (15 . ) = 0.8531, F (155 . ) = 0.9394 and F (2.0) = 0.9773. 13. What is the probability that birds arrive after 160 days but on or before the 210 (A) 0.6687 (C) 0.8531
th
Statement for Question 18 - 19 The number of cars arriving at ICICI bank drive-in window during 10-min period is Poisson random variable X with b = 2. 18. The probability that more than 3 cars will arrive during any 10 min period is (A) 0.249 (C) 0.346 (B) 0.143 (D) 0.543
day ?
(B) 0.8413 (D) 0.9773
14. What is the probability that bird will arrive after 231st day ? (A) 0.0432 (C) 0.0606
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(B) 0.1123 (D) 0.0732
19. The probability that no car will arrive is (A) 0.516 (C) 0.246
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Chap 7.1
20. The power reflected from an aircraft of complicated shape that is received by a radar can be described by an exponential random variable W . The density of W is 1 - w W0 e fW ( w) = W0 0 w > 0 w < 0
26. The mean of random variable X is (A) 1/4 (C) 1/3 (B) 1/6 (D) 1/5
27. The variance of random variable X is (A) 1/10 (C) 5/16 (B) 3/80 (D) 3/16
where W0 is the average amount of received power. The probability that the received power is larger than the power received on the average is (A) e -2 (C) 1 - e
-1
(B) e -1 (D) 1 - e
-2
28. A Random variable X is uniformly distributed on X the interval (-5, 15). Another random variable Y = e is formed. The value of E[ Y ] is (A) 2 (B) 0.667 (D) 2.967 (C) 1.387
5
Statement for Question 21-23: Delhi averages three murder per week and their occurrences follow a poission distribution. 21. The probability that there will be five or more murder in a given week is (A) 0.1847 (C) 0.3927 (B) 0.2461 (D) 0.4167
29. A random variable X has X = -3, x 2 = 11 and s2 X =2 For a new random variable Y = 2 x - 3, the Y , Y and s2 Y are (A) 0, 81, 8 (C) - 9, 89, 8 (B) - 6, 8, 89 (D) None of the above
2
22. On the average, how many weeks a year can Delhi expect to have no murders ? (A) 1.4 (C) 2.6 (B) 1.9 (D) 3.4
Statement for Question 31-32 : A joint sample space for two random variable X and Y has four elements (1, 1), (2, 2), ( 3, 3) and (4, 4). Probabilities of these elements are 0.1, 0.35, 0.05 and 0.5 respectively. 30. The probability of the event{ X 2.5, Y 6} is (A) 0.45 (C) 0.55 (B) 0.50 (D) 0.60
23. How many weeds per year (average) can the Delhi expect the number of murders per week to equal or exceed the average number per week ? (A) 15 (C) 25 (B) 20 (D) 30
31. The probability of the event { X 3} is (A) 0.45 (C) 0.55 (B) 0.50 (D) 0.60
24. A discrete random variable X has possible values xi = i , i = 1, 2, 3, 4 which occur with probabilities 0.4,
2
0.25, 0.15, 0.1,. The mean value X = E[ X ] of X is (A) 6.85 (C) 3.96 (B) 4.35 (D) 1.42 Statement for Question 32-34 : Random variable X and Y have the joint distribution 25. The random variable X is defined by the density
1 f X ( x) = u( x) e 2 2 x
The expected value of g( X ) = X 3 is (A) 48 (C) 36

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(B) 192 (D) 72
5 x + e- ( x + 1 ) y2 2 - e - y u( y), 0 x 4 x+1 4 FX , Y ( x, y) = 0 x < 0 or y < 0 1 -5 y 2 5 - y 2 - e , 4 x and any y 0 1 + e 4 4

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32. The marginal distribution function FX ( x) is x, > 0 0, 5x (A) , -4< x4 4( x + 1) x -4 1, x >0 1, 5x (C) , - 4 < x 0 4( x + 1) x -4 0, x <0 0, 5x (B) , 0 x<4 4( x + 1) x4 1, x <0 1, 5x (D) , 0 x<4 4( x + 1) x4 0,
37. The marginal distribution function FX ( x) is (A) 5 1 [ 4( x) - 4( x - 4)] 4 ( x + 1) 2 5 1 [ 4( x) - 4( x - 4)] 2 ( x + 1) 2 5 1 [ 4( x) - 4( x - 4)] 4 ( x + 1)
(B)
(C)
(D) None of the above 38. The marginal distribution function FY ( y) is (A) [1 - e - y ]u( y) (C)
5 4
2
33. The marginal distribution function FY ( y) is 5 - y2 - e , (A) 4 2 1 + 4 e -5 y , 4 y >0 y 0
(B)
5 2
[1 - e - y ]u( y)
[1 - e - y ]u( y)
y >0 0, (B) 2 2 1 5 1 + e -5 y - e - y , y 0 4 4 -5 - y 2 e , y <0 (C) 4 2 2 1 + 1 e -5 y - 5 e - y , y 0 4 4 y <0 0, (D) 2 2 1 5 1 + e -5 y - e - y , y 0 4 4 34. The probability P { 3 < X 5, 1 < y 2} is (A) 0.001 (C) 0.003 (B) 0.002 (D) 0.004
39. The joint distribution function is 5 x + e- ( x + 1 ) y2 2 - e - y , 4 x+1 (A) 2 1 -5 y 2 1 + [e - 5 e - y ], 4 5 x + e- ( x + 1 ) y2 2 - e - y , 8 x+1 (B) 2 1 -5 y 2 1 + [e - 5 e - y ], 2 5 x + e- ( x + 1 ) y2 2 - e - y , 8 x+1 (C) 2 1 -5 y 2 1 + [e - 5 e - y ], 4 5 x + e- ( x + 1 ) y2 2 - e - y , 4 x+1 (D) 2 1 -5 y 2 1 + [e - 5 e - y ], 2 40. The function FX , Y ( x, y) = a p x p y + tan -1 + tan -1 2 2 2 2 3 0 x 4 and y > 0 x > 4 and y > 0
0 x 4 and y > 0 x > 4 and y > 0
0 x 4 and y > 0 x > 4 and y > 0
Statement for Question 35-39 : Two random variable X and Y have a joint density 2 10 FX , Y ( x, y) = [ u( x) - u( x - 4)]u( y) y 3e - ( x + 1 ) y 4 35. The marginal density f X ( x) is u( x) - u( x - 4) u( x) - u( x - 4) (A) 5 (B) 5 ( x + 1) 2 ( x + 1) 5 u( x) - u( x - 4) (C) 4 ( x + 1) 2 5 u( x) - u( x - 4) (D) 4 ( x + 1)
0 x 4 and y > 0 x > 4 and y > 0
36. The marginal density fY ( y) is (A) (B) (C) (D)

Page 392
5 4 5 2 5 4 5 2
y 2 [ e - y - e -5 y ]u( y) y 2 [ e - y - e -5 y ]u( y) y[ e - y - e -5 y ]u( y) y[ e - y - e -5 y ]u( y)

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2 2 2 2 2 2
is a valid joint distribution function for random variables X and Y if the constant a is 1 2 (A) 2 (B) 2 p p (C)
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(D)
8 p2
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Chap 7.1
41. Random variable distribution function 0, 27 26 27 FX , Y ( x, y) = 26 27 26 1, The (A) 0.13 (C) 0.69
and Y
have the joint
(A) (C)
a2 1 - e- a 1 1 - e- a
(B)
a 1 - e- a
x < 0 or y < 0 y x , 1 - 27 2 y y , 1 - 27
2
0 x < 1 and 1 y Statement for Question 46-47 : 1 x and 0 y < 1 , 0 x < 1 and 0 y < 1 1 x and 1 y of (B) 0.24 (D) 1 47. The probability of the event {0 < X < , < y -2} is (A) 0.2349 (B) 0.3168 (D) None of the above (C) 0.4946 the event is (A) 0.1936 (C) 0 (B) 6.2964 (D) None of the above Random variable X and Y have the joint density x y - 1 f X , Y ( x, y) = u( x) u( y) e 4 3 2 46. The probability of the event {2 < X 4, - 1 < Y 5}
x2 y2 1 xy 27
probability
{0 < X 0.5, 0 < Y 0.25} is
Statement for question 42-43 : The joint probability density function of random variable X and Y is given by pXY ( x, y) = xye 42. The pX ( x) is (A) 2 xe - x u( x) (C) xe - x u( x) 43. The pY / X ( y/x) is (A)
1 2
2 2
48. Let X and Y be two statistically independent random variables uniformly distributed in the ranges ( u( x) u( y) -1, 1) and (-2, 1) respectively. Let Z = X + Y . Then the probability that ( Z -2) is
x2 2 x 2
( x 2 + y2 )
(B) xe
u( x)
(A) zero (C) 1/3
(B) 1/6 (D) 1/12
(D) 2 xe 2 u( x)
49. The probability density function of two statistically independent random variable X and Y are f X ( x) = 5 u( x) e -5x
ye - y u( y)
y2 2
(B) ye - y u( y) (D)
1 2
fY ( y) = 24( y) e -2 y The density of the sum W = X + Y is (A) ((B) (C) (D)

10 6
(C) ye
u( y)
ye
y2 2
u( y)
[ e -2 w - e 5w ]u( w) [ e -2 w - e 5w ]u( w) [ e -2 w - e -5w ]u( w) [ e -2 w - e -5w ]u( w)
44. The probability density function of a random variable X is given as f X ( x) . A random variable Y is defined as y = ax + b where a < 0. The PDF of random variable Y is y - b (A) bf X a (C) 1 y - b f X a a y - b (B) af X a (D) 1 y - b f X b a
10 8 10 13 10 2
50. The density function of two random variable X and Y is 1 0 < x < 6 and 0 < y < 4 f X , Y ( x, y) = 24 else where 0 The expected value of the function g( x, y) = ( XY )
45. The function be f X , Y ( x, y) = 0

- ( x + y)
0 < x < a and 0 < y < else where
is (A) 64 (C) 32
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is a valid joint density function if b is

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51. The density function of two random variable X and Y is e

x 2 + y2 - 2 s2
2 56. The value of s2 X , s Y , R XY and r are respectively
(A)
33 11 27 1 1 , . 2 + , and -3 2 4 2 2 3 33 11 11 1 1 , 2 + , and -3 2 4 2 2 3 1 2 9 11 1 1 , 2 , and 3 33 4 2 2 3 1 2 9 11 1 1 , , 2 , and 3 33 4 2 2 3
f X , Y ( x, y) =
2 ps2
(B)
with s2 a constant. The mean value of the function g( X , Y ) = X 2 + Y 2 is (A) s2 (C) 2 s2 (B) s (D) 2 s
(C)
(D)
Statement for Question 52-54 : The statistically independent random variable X and Y have mean They values have X = E[ X ] = 2 second and Y = E[ Y ] = Y . moments
57. The mean value of the random variable W = ( X + 3Y ) 2 + 2 X + 3 is (A) 98 + 3 (C) 49 - 3 (B) 98 - 3 (D) 49 + 3
X 2 = E[ X 2 ] = 8 and Y 2 = E[ Y 2 ] = 25. Consider a random variable W = 3 X - Y . 52. The mean value E[W ] is (A) 2 (C) 8 (B) 4 (D) 25 ***********
53. The second moment of W is (A) 145 (C) 97 (B) 49 (D) 0
54. The variance of the random variable is (A) 4 (C) 49 (B) 45 (D) 54
55. Two random variable X and Y have the density function xy , f X , Y ( x, y) = 9 0 The X and Y are (A) Correlated but statistically independent (B) uncorrelated but statistically independent (C) Correlated but statistically dependent (D) Uncorrelated but statistically dependent
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Random Variables
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Chap 7.1
SOLUTION
1. (A) P { X > 1} = pX ( x) dx
1
= FX (900) + [1 - FX (1100)] 900 - ax = F sx 1100 - ax + 1 - F sx
=
1
x 2
-x
dx =
1 x e - x dx = 0.368 2 1
0
900 - 1000 11000 - 1000 = F + 1 - F 40 40 = F ( -2.5) + 1 - F (2.5) = 1 - F (2.5) + 1 - F (2.5) = 2 - 2 F (2.5) = 2 - 2(0.9938) = 0.012 or 1.2 %
2
2. (C) P { -1 < X 2} = -1
1 x 1 xe dx + xe - x dx 2 2 0
900 - 1050 10. (B) P (resistor rejected) = F +1 40 1100 - 1050 - F . ) + 1 - F (125 . ) = F ( -375 40 = 1 - F ( 375 . ) + 1 - F (125 . ) = 2 - 0.9999 - 0.8944 = 0.1057 or 20.57 % 11. (D) P { x > T + 95.6} = 0.0505 T + 95.6 - ax ( T + 95.6 - ax ) = F sx sx T + 95.6 - ax This occurs when = 1.64 sx =1 - F = 0.9495 ...(i)
=1 -
1 3 = 0.429 e 2 e2
3. (A) Test 1: f X ( x) 0 is true l 3x 1 l 3b 1 Test 2: area must be 1 i.e. dx = - =1 4 4 3 3 0

b
Thus b =
1 ln 13 3 1 1 4k = 1 k = 2 2
4. (C)
r( v) = 1
kv v Thus r( v) = = 4 8 Mean Square Value =

2 2 x r( x) dx = x 0 4
P { x T - 112 . } = 0.1515 ( T - 112 . - ax ) ( T - 112 . - ax ) =F =1 - F = 8485 sx sx x dx = 8 8 This occur when . - ax T - 112 = 103 . sx ...(ii)
x x - 1 5. (B) For x = 0, FX ( x) = e 2 dx = 1 - e 2 u( x) 0 2 x
Solving (i) and (ii) we get ax = T + 30 and sx = 40 12. (A) 0.25 exceeds when x
2
P ( A) = FX ( 3) - FX (1) = e
1 2
-e
-
3 2
= 0.3834 = 0.7135
100
> 0.21 or x > 5 v
P (0.25 W exceeded) = P { x > 5} = P { x > 5} + P { x < -5} = 1 - P ( x 5) + P { x < -5} 5 -0 -5 - 0 5 -5 = 1 - P + P = 1 - F + F 4.2 4.2 4.2 4.2 5 5 5 5 = 1 - F + 1 - F = 2 1 - F = 2Q 4 . 2 4 . 2 4 . 2 4.2 13. (A) P {160 < X 120} = FX (210) - FX (160) 210 - 200 160 - 200 = F - F 20 20 = F (0.5) - F ( -2) = F (0.5) + F (2) - 1 = 0.6915 + 0.9773 - 1 = 0.6687 14. (C) P { X > 231}= 1 - P { X 231} = 1 - FX (231) 231 - 200 = 1 - F . ) = 1 - 0.9394 = 0.0606 = 1 - F (155 20
6. (D) P ( B) = FX (2.5) = 1 - e
2 .5 2
7. (D) C = A B = {1 < X < 2.5} P ( C) = FX (2.5) - FX (1) = e

1 2
-e
2 .5 2
= 0.3200
8. (A) P ( X > 2) = P {2 < x} + P { x < -2} = 1 - P { x 2} + P { x < -2} = 1 - F (2) + F ( -2) We know that for gaussian function F ( - x) = 1 - F ( x) Thus P ( X > 2)= 1 - F (2) + 1 - F (2) = 2 - 2 F (2) = 2 - 2(0.9772) = 0.0456 9. (C) Rejected resistor corresponds to { x < 900 W} and { x > 1100 W}. Fraction rejected corresponds to probability of rejection. P {resistor rejected} = P { X < 900} + P { X < 1100}
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15. (B) We use the Rayleigh distribution with a = 0 and b = 400 For probability P { X 1}= FX (1) = 1 - e = 0.0025 or 0.25 % 16. (C) P { X 52} = 1 - FX (52)
52 52 = 1 - 1 - e 400 = 1 - e 400 = 0.00116 or 0.12 %
2 2
17 -3 = 52 1 e = 29.994 weeks 2 24. (B) E[ X ] = X = xi P ( xi )

i =1 4
1 400
= 10 . (0.4) + 4(0.25) + 9(0.15) + 16(0.1) = 4.35 25. (A) E[ g( X )] = E[ X 3 ] =

x x 1 3 -2 1 6 xe = = 48 4 2 0 2 (1 2)
17. (C) FX =
( u) du =
( b p) du + ( u - a) 2
x -a
26. (A) Mean of X =
2 xf X ( x) dx = x 3(1 - x) dx = 0
1 4
Let v = u - a and dv = du to get b FX ( x) = p =

x -a
dv b 1 v = tan -1 b2 + v 2 p b b -
2 2 27. (B) Variance of X is s2 x = E[ X ] - m x
E[ X 2 ] = s2 x=
1 1 x -a + tan -1 2 p b
f X ( x) dx = x 2 3(1 - x) 2 dx =
0 2
1 10
3k 18. (B) Here f X ( x) = e -2 d( x - k) k=0 k!
1 1 3 - = 10 4 80
Hence B is correct option 28. (B) Here Y = g( X ) = e So E[ Y ] = E[ g( Y )] = = 1 20

15 X 3 15 x 5
P { x > 0} = 1 - P { x 3} = 1 - P ( x = 0) - P ( x = 1) - P ( x = 2) - P ( x = 3) 2 0 21 2 2 2 3 19 =1 - e + + + = 1 - e -2 = 0.1429 0 ! 2 ! 2 ! 3 ! 3
-2
g( X ) g
( x) dx = e
-5
1 dx 15 - ( -5)
19. (D) P ( x = 0) = e -2
2 = 0.135 0!
x - 1 1 -3 5 -5 e = [ e - e ] = 0.667 5 -5
20. (B) P {W > W0 } = 1 - P {W W0 } = 1 - FW (W0 )

= 1 - 1 - e W0 = e -1 W0
29. (C) E[ Y ] = E[2 X - 3] = 2 X - 3 = 2( -3) - 3 = -9 E[ Y 2 ] = E[(2 X - 3) 2 ] = 4 X 2 - 12 X - 9 = 4(11) - 12( -3) - 9 = 89

2 s2 - Y = 89 - 9 2 = 8 Y= Y 2
21. (A) P {5 or more} = 1 - P (0) - P (1) - P (2) - P ( 4) 30 31 32 33 34 131 -3 = 1 - e -3 + + + + =1 e = 0.1847 8 0 ! 11 2 ! 3 ! 4 ! 22. (C) P (0) = e = 0.0498 average number of week, per year with no murder 52 e -3 = 2.5889 week. 23. (D) P {3 or more} = 1 - P (0) - P (1) - P (2) 32 17 -3 = 1 - e 1 + 3 + = 1 - 2 e = 0.5768 2
-3 -3
30. (A) F
XY
(x, y) = 0.1u (x - 1)u ( y - 1) + 0.35u (x - 2)u ( y - 2) +0.05u (x - 3)u ( y - 3) + 0.5u (x - y)u ( y - 4)
P { X 2.5, Y 6.0} = f XY (2.5, 6.0) = 0.1 + 0.35 = 0.45 31. (B) P { X 30 . }= FX ( 30 . ) = FXY ( 30 . , ) = 0.1 + 0.35 + 0.05 = 0.5 32. (B) FX ( x) = FX , Y ( x, )
2 5x 5 x + e- ( x + 1 ) y lim - e - y u( y) = y 4 x + 4 ( x + 1) 1 2 2 2 1 5 lim 1 + e -5 y - e - y = 1 y 4 4
Average number of weeks per year that number of murder exceeds the average
33. (B) FY ( y)= FX , Y ( , y)

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UNIT 7
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= 5 e - ( w- y) u( w - y) u( y)2 e -2 ydy = 10 e -5w+ 3 ydy, w > 0

- 0
Thus
f X , Y ( x, y)
= f X ( x) fY ( y)
and
and
are
statistically independent.
2 56. (C) s2 -X = X = X
10 = u( w)[ e -2 w - e -5w ] 3 50. (A) E [( XY ) 2 ] = =
- -
y 2 f X , Y ( x, y) dx dy
5 1 9 - = 2 2 4 2 11 11 2 2 -Y = - (2) = s2 Y = Y 2 2
2
y= 0 x = 0
x y dx dy = 64 24
x 2 + y2 - 2 2s
R XY = XY = C XY + X Y = r= dx dy
-x 2
1 2 3
1 1 1 (2) = 2 2 2 3
51. (C) E[ g( X , Y ) ] =
-1/2 3 -1 2 C XY = = s X sY ( 914 )( 11/2 ) 3 33
- -
(x
+ y2 ) y2 e 2 s
2 ps2
2
57. (B) W = ( X + 3Y ) 2 + 2 X + 3 = 3 + 2 X + X 2 + 6 XY + 9 Y 2 1 1 5 1 19 = 3 + 2 + + 6 2 + 9 = 98 - 3 3 2 2 2 2
x2 e
x2 2 s2
2 ps2
dx
y2 2 s2
- y2
2 ps2
dy +
2 ps2
dy
e2s
2 ps2
dx
Both double integral are of the same form. the second factors equal 1 because they are area of a gaussian density. The first factor equal s2 because they are second moment of gaussian density with zero mean and variance s2 . Thus E[ g( x, y)]= E[( x 2 + y 2 )]2 s2 52. (A) E[W ] = E[ 3 X - Y ] = 3 X - Y = 6 - 4 = 2 53. (B) E[W 2 ] = E[( 3 X - Y ) 2 ] = E[9 X 2 - 6 XY + Y 2 ] = 9 X 2 - 6 XY + Y 2 = 9 X 2 - 6 X Y + Y 2 = 9( 8) - 6(2)( 4) + 25 = 49
2 2 54. (B) s2 - 2W W + W ] W = E[(W - W ) ] = E[W 2
= W 2 - W = 49 - 4 = 45 55. (B) R XY = E[ X ] =
0 0 3 2 2
- -
xy
f X , Y ( x, y) dxdy =
0 0
3 2
x2 y2 8 dx dy = 9 3
4 x y dx dy = 9 3 x2 y dx dy = 2 9 8 4 8 = E[ X ] E[ Y ] = 2 = , we have X and Y 3 3 3
3
E[ Y ] =
0 0
3 2
Since R XY =
uncorrelated form From marginal densities f X ( x) =

0
xy x dy = , 0 < x < 2 9 2
fY ( y) =
0
xy 2y , 0< y<3 dy = 9 9 xy , 0 < x < 2 and 0 < y < 3 9

we have f X ( x) fY ( y) =
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CHAPTER
7.2
RANDOM PROCESS
Statement for Question 1 - 4 : A random process X ( t) has periodic sample functions as shown in figure where A, T and 4 t0 T are constant but is random variable uniformly distributed on the interval (0, T).
X (t)
3. The value of E[ X 2 ( t)] is (A) (C) t0 A 2 T 2 t0 A 2 3T (B) t0 A 2 3T
(D) 0
4. The value of s2 X is (A)

0 t
t0 A 2 t0 T 3 T t0 A T 2 t0 + 3 T
(B) (D)
t0 A 2 t0 T T t0 A 2 T 2 t0 + 3 T
(C)
Fig. P7.2.1-4
1. The first order density function is 2t T - 2 t0 d( x) + 0 (A) T AT 0 (B) 0x<A else where
5. An ergodic random power x( t) has an auto-correlation function R XX ( t) = 18 + The X is (A) 18 (C) 17 (B) 13 (D) 18 17
-
2 1 + 4 cos(12 t) 6 + t2
T - 2 t0 2 t0 + [ u( x) - u( x - A)] T AT 0x<A else where
2t T + 2 t0 d( x) + 0 (C) T AT 0 (D) T - 2 t0 2 T0 d( x) + T AT
6. For random process X = 6 and R XX ( t, t + t) = 36 + 25 e -|t|. Consider following statements : 1. X ( t) is first order stationary. 2. X ( t) has total average power of 36 W. 3. X ( t) is a wide sense stationary.
2. The value of E[ X ( t)] is t A (A) 0 2T (C) t0 A 4T

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t A (B) 0 T (D) 0
4. X ( t) has a periodic component. The true statement is/are (A) 1, 2, and 4 (C) 2 and 3
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(B) 2, 3, and 4 (D) only 3

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7. A random process is defined by X ( t) + A where A is continuous random variable uniformly distributed on (0,1). The auto correlation function and mean of the process is (A) 1/2 & 1/3 (C) 1 & 1/2 (B) 1/3 & 1/2 (D) 1/2 & 1 (A) 1
The variance of random variable Y = X ( t) dt will be (B) 2.31 (D) 0

0
(C) 4.54
13. A random process is defined by X ( t) = A cos( pt) where A is a gaussian random variable with zero mean and variance s 2 p . The density function of X (0) (A) 1 2 ps A
x2 2 s2 A x2 2 s2 A
Statement for Question 8 - 9 : A random process is defined by Y ( t) = X ( t) cos( w0 t + q) where X ( t) is a wide sense stationary random process that amplitude modulates a carrier of constant angular frequency w0 with a random phase q independent of X ( t) and uniformly distributed on ( -p / p). 8. The E[ Y ( t)] is (A) E[ X ( t)] (C) 1 (B) - E[ X ( t)] (D) 0
(B)
2 ps A e
(C) 0
(D) 1
Statement for Question 14-15 : The two-level semi-random binary process is defined by X ( t) = A or - A where ( n - 1) T < t < nt and the levels A and - A occur with equal probability. T is a positive constant and n = 0, 1, 2 14. The mean value E[ X ( t)] is (A) 1/2 (C) 1 (B) 1/4 (D) 0
9. The autocorrelation function of Y ( t) is 1 (B) R XX ( t) cos( w0 t) (A) R XX ( t) cos( w0 t) 2 (D) None of the above (C) 2 R XX ( t) cos( w0 t) Statement for Question 10 - 11 : Consider a low-pass random process with a white-noise power spectral density S X ( w) = N/2 as shown in fig.P7.2.10-11.
15. The auto correlation R XX ( t1 = 0.5 T, t2 = 0.7 T) will be (A) 1 (C) A

2
(B) 0 (D) A 2/2
16. A random process consists of three samples function X ( t, s1 ) = 2, X ( t, s2 ) = 2 cos t1 and X ( t, s3) = 3 sin t- each occurring with equal probability. The process is (A) First order stationary
Fig.P7.2.10-11
(B) Second order stationary (C) Wide-sense stationary
10. The auto correlation function R X ( t) is (A) 2 NB sinc (2 pbt) (C) NB sinc (2 pbt) 11. The power PX is (A) 2 NB (C) NB (B) pNB D) D NB 2p (B) pNB sinc (2 pbt) (D) None of the above
(D) Not stationary in any sense Statement for Question 17 - 19 : The auto correlation function of a stationary ergodic random process is shown in fig.P.7.2.17-19
50
12. If X ( t) is a stationary process having a mean value E[ X ( t)] = 3 R XX ( t) = 9 + 2 e

Page 400
20 -10 10
and
-|t|
autocorrelation
function
.
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Fig. P7.2.17-19
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Chap 7.2
17. The mean value E[ X ( t)] is (A) 50 (C) 20 18. The E[ X 2 ( t)] is (A) 10 (C) 50 19. The variance s2 X is (A) 20 (C) 70 (B) 50 (D) 30 (B) (D) 10 50 (B) (D) 50 20
24. A complex random process Z ( t) = X ( t) + jY ( t) is defined by jointly stationary real process X ( t) and Y ( t).
2 The E[|Z ( t)| ] will be
(A) 2 R XY (0) + R XX (0) + RYY (0) (B) R XX (0) + RYY (0) (C) R XX (0) - RYY (0) (D) RYY (0) - R XX (0)
25. Consider random process X ( t) = A0 cos( w0 t + q) where A0 and w0 are constant and q is a random variable uniformly distributed on the interval (0, p). The power in X ( t) is (A) A 2 (C)
1 4
(B)
1 2
A2
A2
(D) 1
20. Two zero mean jointly wide sense stationary random process X ( t) and Y ( t) have no periodic
2 components. It is know that s 2 X = 5 and s Y = 10. The
26. The non valid power spectral density function of a real random process is (A) d( w + w0 ) - d( w - w0 ) (C) d( w) + w2 w + 16
2
function, that can apply to the process is (A) R XX ( t) = 6 u( t) e -3t (C) R XY ( t) = 9(1 + 2 e 2 ) -1 sin( 3t) (B) RYY ( t) = 5 3t (D) None of the above
2
w2 w2 + 25 w2 (D) 2 w + 16 (B)
27. The valid power density spectrum is (A) w2 1 + w2 + jw2

2
(B) (D)
21. A stationary zero mean random process X ( t) is ergodic has average power of 24 W and has no periodic component. The valid auto correlation function is (A) 16 + 18 cos( 3t) e ( -6 t ) (C) (1 + 3t 2 ) (B) 24 da 2 (2 p) (D) 24 d( t - t)
w2 - d( w) w +1
4
(C) e - ( w -1 )
w2 w + 3w2 + 3
6
28. A power spectrum is given as P r XX ( w) = 1 + ( w / W ) 2 0 w < KW w > KW
22. Air craft of Jet Airways at Ahmedabad airport arrive according to a poisson process at a rate of 12 per hour. All aircraft are handled by one air traffic controller. If the controller takes a 2 - minute coffee break, what is the probability that he will miss one or more arriving aircraft ? (A) 0.33 (C) 0.55 (B) 0.44 (D) 0.66 (C) W
where P , W , and K are real positive constants. The sums bandwidth of power spectrum is (A) W tan + k -1 k tan -1 k +1 k (B) W (D) k -1 tan -1 k
29. Consider the power spectrum given by P r XX ( w) = 0 w <W w >W
23. Delhi airport has two check-out lanes that develop waiting lines if more than two passengers arrives in any one minute interval. Assume that a poission process describes the number of passengers that arrive for check-out. The probability of a waiting line if the average rate of passengers is 2 per minute, is (A) 0.16 (C) 0.32
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where P and W are real positive constants. The rms bandwidth of the power spectrum is (A) (C) W 2 W 3 (B) (D) W2 3 W 2
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30. For a random process R XX ( t) = P cos 4 ( w0 t) where P and w0 are constants. The power in process is (A) P (C) 3P (B) 2 P (D) 4 P
37. A random process X ( t) has an autocorrelation function R XX ( t) = A 2 + Be -|t| Where A and B are constants. A system have an input response e - Wt 0 < t h( t) = 0 t <0 where W is a real positive constant, which X ( t) is its input. The mean value of the response is A A (B) (A) W 2W (C) 2A W (D) 0
31. A random process has the power density spectrum r XX ( w) = (A) 1/4 (C) 5/8
6w2 [1 + w 2 ] 3
. The average power in process is (B) 3/8 (D) 1/2
32. A deterministic signal A cos( w0 t), where A and w0 are real constants is added to a noise process N ( t) for which r NN ( w) =
W2 W2+ w2
and W > 0 is a constant. The ratio A (B) W A2 (D) W
38. In previous question if impulse response of system is e - Wt sin( w0 t) 0 < t h( t) = 0 t <0 where W and w0 are real positive constants, the mean value of response is (A) (C) Aw0 w + W2
2 0
of average signal power to average noise power is (A) 1 (C) 2A W
33. The autocorrelation function of a random process X ( t) is R XX ( t, t + t) = 12 e Yt cos 2 (24 t) The R XX ( t) is (A) 6 e -4 t (C) 48 e
2 2 2
(B)
2A 1 2 w0 w0 + W 2
w2 0 A (D) 2 2 w0 w0 A 2 w0
1 + W2
1 2 +W
(B) 12 e -4 t
39. A stationary random process X ( t) is applied to the input of a system for which h( t) = 3u( t) t 2 e -8 t . If E[ X ( t)] = 2, the mean value of the system's response Y ( t) is (A) (C)
1 128 3 128
-4 t 2
34. If X ( t) and Y ( t) are real random process, the valid power density spectrum f XX ( w) is (A) 6 6 + 7 w3 (B) 4 e -3|t| 1 + w2
(B) (D)
1 64 1 32
(C) 3 + jw2 35. The cross correlation
(D) 18 d( w) of jointly wide sense

- Wt
Statement for Question 40-41 : A random process X ( t) is applied to a network with impulse response h( t) = u( t) te - at where a > 0 is a constant. The cross correlation of X ( t) with the output Y ( t) is known to have the same form R XY ( t) = u( t) te - at 40. The auto correlation of Y ( t) is 4 + at - a|t| 1 + at - a|t| (A) (B) e e 3 4a 3a 2 (C) 4 + at - a|t| e 8a2 (D) 1 + at - a|t| e 4 a3
stationary process X ( t) and Y ( t) is R XY ( t) = Au( t) e where A > 0 and W > 0 are constants. The r XX ( w) is (A) (C) A W - w2
2
(B) (D)
A W + w2
2
A W + jw
A W - jw
36. A random process X ( t) is applied to a linear time invariant function is (A) 1 - e jwt (C) 2 je - jwt/ 2 cos
Page 402
wt 2
system.
A response
Y ( t) = X ( t) - X ( t - t)
occurs when t is a real constant. The system's transfer (B) 2 je - jwt/ 2 sin (D) 1 + e - jwt
wt 2
41. The average power in Y ( t) is 1 1 (A) (B) 3 a 4a3 (C) 1 3a 2 (D) None of the above
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Chap 7.2
Statement for Question 42 - 43 : A random noise X ( t) having a power spectrum r XX ( w) = transfer function H ( w) = jw. The output is applied to a network for which h( t) = u( t) t 2 e -7t 42. The average power in X ( t) is (A) 5/21 (C) 5/42 (B) 5/24 (D) 3/14
3 49+ w 2
SOLUTION
1. (A) Let have value e. Now P { X x = e} = FX ( X|= e) and for any must be zero for x < 0 because x( t) is never negative. The event { X 0} is satisfied whenever x( t) is zero. This happens during the fraction of time ( T - 2 t0 ) / T. For 0x<A Hence the FX ( x|= e) = [( T - 2 T0 ) / T} u( x). becomes 2 to 2 t0 x / AT. 2t x T - 2 t0 Thus FX ( x = e) = u( x) + 0 , 0 x < A T AT = 1, A x = 0, x < 0 By differentiation 2t T - 2 t0 f X ( x = e) = d( x) + 0 , 0 x < A AT T = 0 else where f X , e ( x, e) = f X ( x = e) f( e) 2 T0 T - 2 t0 ,0 x < A and 0 < e < T = d( x) + 2 AT 2 T f X ( x) =
is applied to a differentiator that has a
additional time interval or fraction of time where X x
43. The power spectrum of Y ( t) is (A) (C) 4 w2 ( 49 + w2 ) 3 42 w3 ( 49 + w2 ) 2 (B) 12 w2 ( 49 + w2 ) 4
44. White noise with power density N0/2 is applied to a lowpass network for which H (0) = 2. It has a noise bandwidth of 2 MHz. If the average output noise power is 0.1 W in a 1 - W resistor, the value of N0 is (A) 12.5 nW/Hz (C) 25 nW/Hz (B) 12.5 m W/Hz (D) 25 m W/Hz
45. An ideal filter with a mid-band power gain of 8 and bandwidth of 4 rad/s has noise X ( t) at its input with power spectrum r XX ( w) = (A) 60.8 (C) 20.2 the network's output is ( F (2) = 0.9773) (B) 90.3 (D) 100.4
50 8p
X ,
( x, e) de
- w 2 /8
. The noise power at
2t T - 2 t0 = d( x) + 0 .0 x < A AT T = 0 elsewhere. 2. (B) E[ X ( t)] = =

xf
( x) dx
A
46. White noise with power density N0/2 = 6 m W/Hz is applied to an ideal filter of gain 1 and bandwidth W rad/s. If the output's average noise power is 15 watts, the bandwidth W is (A) 2.5 10 -6 (C) 5 10 -6 (B) 2.5 p 10 -6 (D) p5 10 -6
2
2t x t A T - 2 t0 x d( x) dx + 0 dx = 0 T AT T 0 -
3. (C) E[ X 2 ( t)] =
f X ( x) dx =
2 t0 x 2 2 t0 A 2 = 3T AT 0
2 2 4. (D) s2 X = E[ X ( t)] - { E[ X ( t)]}
47. A system have the transfer function H ( w) = 1 + ( w1/W ) 4 where W is a real positive constant. The noise bandwidth of the system is (A) (C)
1 3 1 6
2 2 t0 A 2 t0 A 2 t0 A 2 = 3T T T2
2 t0 3 T
pW 2 pW 2
(B)
1 4
pW 2
5. (A) We know that ( i) if X ( t) has a periodic component then R XX ( t) will have a periodic component with the same period. (ii) if E[ X ( t)] = X m 0 and X ( t) is ergodic with no periodic components then lim R XX ( t) = X
|t| 2 -
************
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Thus we get X = 18 or X = 18
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6. (C) X = Constant and R XX ( t) is not a function of t, so X ( t) is a wide sense stationary. So 1 is false & 3 is true. PXX = R XX (0) = 36 + 25 = 61. Thus 2 is false if X ( t) has a periodic component, then R XX( t) will have a periodic component with the same period. Thus 4 is false. 7. (B) R XX ( t, t + t) = E[ X ( t) X ( t + t)] = E[ A 2 ] = a 2 da =
0 1
13. (A) For t = 0, X (0)= A,
So f X ( x) =
1 2 ps A
x2
2 2 sA
14. (D) E[ X ( t)] = AP ( A) + ( - A) P ( - A) = 15. (C) Here R XX ( t1 , t2 )= A 2
A A - =0 2 2
1 3
If
both
t1
and
t2
are
in
the
same
interval
( n - 1) T < t, t2 < nT, n = 0, , 2... and R XX ( t1 , t2 ) = 0 otherwise Hence R XX (0.5 T, 0.7 T) = A 2 16. (D) Let x1 = 2, x2 = 2 cos t and x3 = 3 sin( t) 1 1 1 Then f X ( x) = d( x - x1 ) + d( x - x2 ) + d( x - x3) 2 3 3 and E[ X ( t)] = = =

X = E[ X ( t)] = E[ A ] = a da =
0
1 2
8. (D) E[ Y ( t)} = E[ X ( t) cos( w0 t + q)] = E X [ X ( t)] cos( w0 t + q)

-X X
1 dq = 0 2p
where E X [] represent expectation with respect to X only 9. (B) RYY ( t, t + t) = E[ X ( t) cos( w0 t + q) X ( t + t) cos( w0 t + q + w0 t)] 1 = R XX ( t) [cos( w0 t) + cos(2 w0 t + 2 q + w0 t)] 2 1 = R XX ( t) cos( w0 t) 2 10. (C) S X ( w) = N w rect 2 4 pb
xf
( x) dx 1
d( x - x ) + d( x - x ) + d( x - x ) x 3 3 3
1 2 2
1 [2 + 2 cos t + 3 sin t ] 3
The mean value is time dependent so X ( t) is not stationary in any sense. 17. (D) We know that for ergodic with no periodic component
|t|
We know that R X ( t) S X ( w) W w rect sin(Wt) p 2W Here W = 2 pB Hence R X ( t) =

2
lim R XX ( t) = X ,
Thus X = 20
or
X = 20
18. (C) R XX (0) = E[ X 2 ( t)] = R XX (0) = 50 = X 2

2 19. (D) s2 - X = 50 - 20 = 30 X = X 2
2 pB N sin (2 pBt) = NB sinc (2 pBt) p 2
11. (C) PX = X = R X (0) = NB since sinc (0) = 1 12. (C) E[ Y ] = E[ X ( t) dt = E[ X ( t)]dt = 3 dt = 6

0 0 0 2 2 2
2 20. Here X = 0, Y = 0, R XX (0) = 5, sY = RYY (0) = 10
For (A) : Function does not have even symmetry For (B) : Function does not satisfy RYY (0) = 10 For (C) : Function does not satisfy |R XY ( t)| R XX (0) RYY (0) = 50 21. (D) For (A) : It has a periodic component. For (B) ; It is not even in t, total power is also incorrect. For (C) It depends on t not even in t and average power is . 22. (A) P (miss/or more aircraft)= 1 - P (miss 0) = 1 - P (0 arrive) = 1 ( lt) 0 e - lt 0!
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E[ Y 2 ] = E[ X ( t) dt X ( u) du]] = E[ X ( t) X ( u) du dt ]
0 0 0 0
2 2
= R XX ( t - u) dt du = [9 + 2 e -|t - u| ]dt du
0 0 0 0
2 2
2 2
= 36 + 2 e -|t - u|dt du = 4(10 + e -2 )

0 0 2 2 -2 s2 541 Y = E[ Y ] - ( E[ Y ]) = 4(1 + e ) = 4.
2 2
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E[ Y ( t)] = A h( x)dx = A e - Wt dt =
- 0
A W
So W = 2.5 p 106
38. (A) X = A E[ Y ( t)] = Y = X h( t) dt = A e

- 0 - Wt
Aw sin( w0 t) dt = 2 0 2 w0 + W
47. (B) Noise bandwidth Wn =

2
H( w)
0
dw
H (0)
Wn = H ( w) dwsince H (0) = 1 =
0
dw pW = 4 ( ) + 1 w /W 2 2 0
3 39. (C)Y = X h( t) dt = 2 3t e dt = 128 0 -

2 -8 t
40. (D) RYY ( t)= = e - at
XY
( t + x)h( x) dx
2 -2 ax
*********
u( x)u( x + t)( tx + x ) e
dx
There are two cases of interest t 0 and t < 0 Since RYY ( t) is an even function we solve only the ease t 0 RYY ( t) = e - at ( tx + x2 )e -2 ax dx =
0
1 + at - ax e 4 a3 1 4a3
41. (B) Power in y( t) = RYY (0) =
42. (D) PXX =
dw 1 3 3 r XX ( w) dw = 2 p - 49 + w2 = 14 2 p - 2 = H 2 ( w) (7 + jw) 3
2
F 43. (B)h2 = 49 t) t 2 e -7t
sYY ( w) = s XX ( w) = H1 ( w) H 2 ( w) = N0 H (0) Wn 2p
2 2
12 w2 ( 49 + w2 ) 4
44. (A) PYY = So N0 =
= 0.1
2 p(0.1) H (0) Wn
2 p(0.1) (2) 2 2 p 2 106
. 10 -8 W/Hz = 12.5 nW/Hz = 125 45. (A) PYY =

4 2 1 r XX ( w) H ( w) dw 2 p - w2 4 w2 2 (u)
1 50 - 8 = e 2p 4 8p =
(8 ) dw
200 = p
2 p( 4)
200 200 [ F (2) - F ( -2)] = [2 F (2) - 1)] = 60.8 p p

2 1 r XX ( w) H( w) dw 2 p -
46. (B) PYY = =

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W
1 6 10 -6 W 6 10 -6 W -6 d w = = 6 10 = 15 2 p - p p W
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CHAPTER
7.3
NOISE
1. The power spectral density of a bandpass white noise n( t) is N / 2 as shown in fig.P.7.3.1. the value of n is
2
5. A mixer stage has a noise figure of 20 dB. This mixer stage is preceded by an amplifier which has a noise figure of 9 dB and an available power gain of 15 dB. The overall noise figure referred to the input is (A) 11.07 (C) 56.48 B) 18.23 (D) 97.38
Fig. P7.3.1
6. A system has three stage cascaded amplifier each stage having a power gain of 10 dB and noise figure of 6 dB. the overall noise figure is (A) 1.38 (C) 4.33 (B) 6.8 (D) 10.43 NB p
(A) NB (C) 2 pNB
(B 2 NB (D)
2. In a receiver the input signal is 100 m V, while the internal noise at the input is 10 m V. With amplification the output signal is 2 V, while the output noise is 0.4 V. The noise figure of receiver is (A) 2 (C) 0.2 (B) 0.5 (D) None of the above
7. A signal process m( t) is mixed with a channel noise n( t). The power spectral density are as follows Sm ( w) = 6 , Sn ( w) = 6 9 + w2 1 w + 10
2
The optimum Wiener-Hopf filter is w2 + 9 (A) 2 w + 10 (C) w2 + 10 w2 + 9 (B)
3. A receiver is operated at a temperature of 300 K. The transistor used in the receiver have an average output resistance of 1 kW. The Johnson noise voltage for a receiver with a bandwidth of 200 kHz is (A) 1.8 m V (C) 4.3 m V (B) 8.4 m V (D) 12.6 m V
Statement for Question 8-9 A sonar echo system on a sub marine transmits a random noise n( t) to determine the distance to another targeted submarine. Distance R is given by vt R / 2 where v is the speed of the sound wave in water and t R is the time it takes the reflected version of n( t) to return. Assume that n( t) is a sample function of an ergodic random process N ( t) and T is very large.
4. A resistor R = 1 kW is maintained at 17 o C. The rms noise voltage generated in a bandwidth of 10 kHz is (A) 16 10 -14 V (C) 4 m V (B) 0.4 m V (D) 16 10 -18 V
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8. The V will be (A) 2 R NN ( t R - t T ) (C) R NN ( t R - t T ) (B) R NN ( t R - 2 t T ) (D)

1 2
14. The standard spot noise figure of amplifier is (A) 4 dB (C) 7 dB (B) 5 dB (D) 9 dB
R NN ( t R - t T )
9. What value of the delay t T will cause v to be maximum ? (A) t R (C) 3t R (B) 2t R (D) None of the above
15. If a matched attenuator with a loss of 3.2 dB is placed between the source and the amplifier's input, what is the operating spot noise figure of the attenuator amplifier (A) 9 dB (C) 11.3 dB cascade if the attenuator's (B) 10.4 dB (D) 13.3 dB physical temperature is 290 K ?
10. Two resistor with resistance R1 and R2 are connected in parallel and have Physical temperatures T1 and T2 respectively. The effective noise temperature Ts of an equivalent resistor is (A) T1 R1 + T2 R2 R1 + R2 T1 T2 ( R1 + R2 ) 2 ( T1 + T2 ) R1 R2 (B) T1 R1 + T2 R1 R1 + R2 ( T1 + T2 ) R1 R2 T1 + T2 ( R1 + R2 ) 2
16. In previous question what is the standard spot noise figure of the cascade ? (A) 10.3 dB (C) 14.9 dB (B) 12.2 dB (D) 17.6 dB
(C)
(D)
17. Omega Electronics sells a microwave receiver (A) having an operating spot noise figure of 10 dB when driven by a source with effective noise temperature 130 K Digilink (B) sells a receiver with a standard spot noise figure of 6 dB. Microtronics (C) sells a receiver with standard spot noise figure of 8 dB when driven by a source with effective noise temperature 190 K. The best receiver to purchase is (A) A (C) C (B) B (D) all are equal
Statement for Question 11-12 : An amplifier has a standard spot noise figure F0 = 6.31 (8.0 dB). The amplifier, that is used to amplify the output of an antenna have antenna temperature of Ta = 180 K 11. The effective input noise temperature of this amplifier is (A) 2520 K (C) 2710 K (B) 2120 K (D) 1540 K
Statement for Question 18-20 : An amplifier has three stages for which Te1 = 150 K (first stage), Te 2 = 350 K, and Te 3 = 600 K (output stage). Available power gain of the first stage is 10 and overall input effective noise temperature is 190 K 18. The available power gain of the second stage is (A) 12 (C) 16 (B) 14 (D) 18
12. The operating spot noise figure is (A) 3.2 dB (C) 9.8 dB (B) 6.4 dB (D) 11.9 dB
13. An amplifier has three stages for which Te1 = 200 K (first stage), Te 2 = 450 K, and Te 3 = 1000K (last stage). If the available power gain of the second stage is 5, what gain must the first stage have to guarantee an effective input noise temperature of 250 K ? (A) 10 (C) 16 (B) 13 (D) 19
19. The cascade's standard spot noise figure is (A) 1.3 dB (C) 4.3 dB (B) 2.2 dB (D) 5.3 dB
Statement for Question 14-16 An amplifier has an operating spot noise figure of 10 dB when driven by a source of effective noise temperature 225 K.
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20. What is the cascade's operating spot noise figure when used with a source of noise temperature Ts = 50 K (A) 1.34 dB (C) 6.81 dB
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21. Three network are cascaded. Available power gains are G1 = 8, G2 = 6 and G3 = 20. Respective input effective spot noise temperature are Te1 = 40 K, Te 2 = 100 K and Te 3 = 180 K. (A) 58.33 K (C) 83.90 K (B) 69.41 K (D) 98.39 K
elements
that can be modeled as an impedance
matched attenuator with an overall loss of 2.4 dB and a physical temperatures of 275 K. The overall system noise temperature of the receiver T sys = 820 K. 26. The average effective input noise temperature of the receiver is (A) 420.5 K (C) 220.5 K 27. The average (B) 320.5 K (D) 10.5 K operating noise figure of the
22. Three identical amplifier, each having a spot effective input noise temperature of 125 K and available power G are cascaded. The overall spot effective input noise temperature of the cascade is 155 K. The G is (A) 3 (C) 7 (B) 5 (D) 9
attenuator-receiver cascade is (A) 13.67 d (C) 1.4 dB (B) 11.4 dB (D) 1.367 dB
23. Three amplifier that may be connected in any order in a cascade are defined as follows: Effective Input Noise Temperature 110 K 120 K 150 K Available Power Gain 4 6 12
28. If receiver has an available power gain of 110 dB and a noise bandwidth of 10 MHz, the available output noise power of receiver is (A) 6.5 mW (B) 8.9 mW (D) 11.4 mV
Amplifier A B C
(C) 10.3 mV
29. If antenna attenuator cascade is considered as a noise source, its average effective noise temperature is (A) 63 K (B) 149 K (D) 249 K
The sequence of connection that will give the lowest overall effective input noise temperature for the cascade is (A) ABC (C) ACB (B) CBA (D) BAC
(C) 263 K
Statement for question 30-32 : An amplifier when used with a source of average noise temperature 60 K, has an average operating noise figure of 5. 30. The T e is (A) 70 K (C) 149 K (B) 110 K (D) 240 K
24. What is the maximum average effective input noise temperature that an amplifier can have if its average standard noise figure is to not exceed 1.7 ? (A) 203 K (C) 235 K (B) 215 K (D) 255 K
25. An amplifier has an average standard noise figure of 2.0 dB and an average operating noise figure of 6.5 dB when used with a source of average effective source temperature Ts . The Ts is (A) 156.32 K (C) 48.93 K Statement for Question An antenna with average noise temperature 60 K connects to a receiver through various microwave
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31. If the amplifier is sold to engineering public, the noise figure that would be quoted in a catalog is (A) 0.46 (C) 1.83 (B) 0.94 (D) 2.93
(B) 100.81 K (D) None of the above 32. What average operating noise figure results when the amplifier is used with an antenna of temperature 30 K ? (A) 9.54 dB (C) 11.23 dB (B) 10.96 dB (D) 12.96 dB
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33. An engineer of RS communication purchase an amplifier with average operating noise figure of 1.8 when used with a 60 W broadband source having average source temperature of 80 K. When used with a different 60 W source the average operating noise figure is 1.25. The average noise temperature of the source is (A) 125 K (C) 256 K (B) 156 K (D) 292 K
(A) 1 / W (C) 4.5 / W
(B) 2.5 / W (D) 6 / W
39. White noise, for which R XX ( t) = 10 -2 8( t) is applied to a network with impulse response h( t) = 4( t) 3 - te-4 t The network's output noise power in a 1 W resistor is (A) 0.15 mW (C) 0.55 mW (B) 0.35 mW (D) 0.95 mW
34. The Te for unit 1 and 2 unit are, respectively (A) 126.4 K and 256.9 K (B) 256.9 K and 126.4 K (C) 527.8 K and 864.2 K (D) 864.2 K and 527.8 K 35. The excess noise power of unit 1 and unit 2 are respectively (A) 15.4 nW and 27.1 nW (B) 23.8 nW and 21.1 nW (C) 23.8 nW and 27.1 nW (D) 15.4 nW and 21.1 nW 36. Consider following statement S1 : If the source noise temperature T s is very small, unit-2 is the best to purchase S2 : If the source noise temperature T s is very small unit - 1 is the best to purchase. correct statement is (A) S1 (C) both S1 and S2 (B) S2 (D) None
40. White noise with power density N0/2 = 6(10 -6 ) W/Hz is applied to an ideal fitter (gain= 1) with bandwidth W (rad/sec). For output's average noise power to be 15 W, the W must be (A) 2.5 p(10 -6 ) (C) 4.5 p(10 -2 ) (B) -2.5 p(106 ) (D) 4.5 p(106 )
41. An ideal filter with a mid-band power gain of 8 and bandwidth of 4 rad/s has noise X ( t) at its input with power spectrum ( F (2) = 0.9773) 50 - 8 r XX ( w) = e 8p
w2
The noise power at the network's output is 164 343 (B) (A) p p (C) 211 p (D) 191 p
42. A system has the power transfer function H ( w) =

2
1 w 1+ W
4
37. A source has an effective noise temperature of available power gain of Ga ( w) = source is (A) 10 K (C) 30 K (B) 20 K (D) 40 K (C)
800 and feeds an amplifier that has an Ts ( w) = 100 + w2
where W is a real positive constant. The noise bandwidth of the system is pW (A) 2 2 pW 2 pW 2
8 10 + jw
) . The T
2
for this
(B)
38. A system have an impulse response e e<t h= t <0 0 where W is a real positive constant. White noise with power density 5w/Hz is applied to this system. The mean-squared value of response is
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- Wt
43. White noise with power density N0/2 is applied to a low pass network for which H (0) = 2. It has a noise bandwidth of 2 MHz. If the average output noise power is 8.1 W in a 1 W resistor, the N0 is (A) 6.25 108 W/Hz (C) 125 . 108 W/Hz (B) 6.25 10 -8 W/Hz (D) 125 . 10 -8 W/Hz
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Statement for Question 44-46 : An amplifier has a narrow bandwidth of 1 kHz and standard spot noise figure of 3.8 at its frequency of operation. The amplifier's available output noise power is 0.1 mW when its input is connected to a radio receiving antenna having an antenna temperature of 80 K. 44. The amplifier's input effective noise temperature Te is (A) 812 K (C) 421 K (B) 600 K (D) 321 K 2. (A) NF =
SOLUTION
fc + B
1. (B) n2 = 2
fc + B
N df = 2 NB 2
100/10 S/N i i = =2 2/0.4 So/N o
2 3. (A) vn = 4 kTBR
= 4 1.38 10 -23 300 200 10 3 10 3 = 3.3 10 -12 vnrms = 1.8m V

2 4. (B) vn = 4 kTBR,
T = (273 + 17) K = 290 K,

4
45. Its operating spot noise figure Fop is (A) 5.16 (C) 11.15 (B) 7.98 (D) 16.23
R = 1000W, B = 10 Hz, k = 1.38 10 -23 J/K

2 vn = 4 1.38 10 -23 290 10 3 10 4 = 16 10 -14 V 2
vnrms = 0.4m V 5. (A) F1 = 9 dB = 7.94, F2 = 20 dB = 100
46. Its available power gain Ga is (A) 2 1012 (C) 8 1012 (B) 4 1012 (D) 11 1012
A1 = 15 dB = 31.62, 100 - 1 F -1 . = 7.94 + = 1107 F = F1 + 2 31.62 A 6. (C) Gain of each stage A1 = A2 = A3 = 10 dB Noise figure of each stage F1 = F2 = F3 = 6 dB or F1 = F2 = F3 = 4 db F - 1 F3 - 1 4 -1 4 -1 + =4+ + = 4.33 F = F1 + 2 A1 A1 A2 10 100 7. (B) H op ( w) = Sm ( w) = Sm ( w) + Sm ( w)
6 9+ w 2 6 9+ w 2
+6
1 10 + w2
8. (C) V =
1 2T
T
-T
n( t - t
)n( t - t R ) dt
Since T is very large V = lim 1 T 2 T
-T
n( t - t
)n( t - t R ) dt = A[ n( t - t T ) n( t - t R )] V R NN ( t R - t T )
Since N ( t) is ergodic,
9. (A) Because R NN ( t) R NN (0) for any auto correlation function, V will be maximum if t R = t T 10. (B) Use the current form of equivalent circuit 2 kT1 dw 2 kT2 dw 2 kTs dw 2 2 2 where in , in = i12 + i2 = + = pR1 pR2 pR T1 T2 Thus Ts = R + R 1 2
T1 R2 + T2 R1 R = R + R 1 2
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11. (D) Te = T0 ( F0 - 1) = 290( 6.31 - 1) = 1539.9 K 12. (C) Fop = 1 + Te 1540 =1 + = 9.56 or 9.8 dB Ta 180 Te 2 Te 3 + G1 G2 or G1 = 13
(125 - 155) G 2 + 125 G + 125 = 0 6 G 2 - 25 G - 25 = 0 or G = 5 23. (A) Sequence Te 120 150 ABC110 + + = 146.25 4 4( 6) ACB110 + 150 120 + = 150.00 4 4(12) 110 150 + = 144.583 Best 6 6( 4)
13. (B) Te = 250 = Te1 + 450 1000 250 = 200 + + G1 5 G2 14. (D) F0 = 1 + = 7.98 or 9.0 dB
BAC 120 + CBA150 +
Ts 225 ( Fop - 1) = 1 + (10 - 1) T0 290
120 110 + = 161528 . 12 (12)( 6)
15. (D) Here L = 2.089 or 3.2 dB, TL = 290 K Te = Te1 + Te 2 T ( F - 1) = TL ( L - 1) + 0 0 G1 1/ L
24. (A) Te = T0 ( F - 1) 290(17 . - 1) = 203 K (or 2.0 dB) and F OP 4.467 (or 25. (D) Here F0 1585 . 6.5 dB) Ts = T0 ( F0 - 1) 290(1585 - 1) . = = 48.93 K 4.467 - 1 F op - 1
= 290[(2.089 - 1) + (2.089)(7.98 - 1)] = 4544.4 K 4544.4 = 212 . or 13.3 dB Fop = 1 + 225 16. (B) F0 = 1 + 4544.4 = 16.67 or 12.2 dB 290
(or 2.4 dB), TL = 275 K 26. (B) Here Ta = 60 K, L = 1738 . and T sys = 820 K. TR = We know that [ T sys - Ta - TL ( L - 1)] 820 - 60 - 275(1738 . - 1) = L 1738 .
17. (B) For A: Fop = 10(or 10 dB) when Ts = 130 K TeA = 130(10 - 1) = 1170 K For B: Fo = 398 . (or 6 dB) when Ts = 290 K . - 1) = 364.2 K TeB = 290( 398 For C: Fo = 6.3(or 8 dB) when Ts = 190 K TeC = 190( 6.3 - 1) = 1007 K, (B) is better as TeB is less. 18. (A) Te = Te1 + Te 3 G2 = G1 ( Te - Te1 19. (B) F0 = 1 + Te1 Te 3 + G1 G1 G2 600 = Te 2 ) 10(190 - 150 G1
350 10
= 320.5 K 27. (B) F op = 1 + Te T sys - Ta 820 - 60 =1 + =1 + 60 Ts Ts
= 13.67 or 11.4 dB 28. (A) Here GR ( w0 ) = 1011 (or 110 dB) and WPV = 2 p(10 7) Hz kT sys GR ( w)Wn 1.38(10 -23)( 820)(1011 )(10 7) = 2 pL 1738 .
= 12
N clo =
-5 or 6.51 mW . = 651110
Te 190 =1 + = 1.655 or 2.19 dB T0 290
29. (C) dN ao = k[ Ta + TL ( L - 1)] Thus Ts = Ta + TL ( L - 1) = 60 + 275(1738 . - 1) = 263 K
dw dw = kTs 2p 2p
T 190 20. (C) Fop = 1 + e = 1 + = 4.8 or 6.81 dB Ts 50 T Te 3 100 280 21. (A) Te = Te1 + e 2 + = 40 + + = 58.33 K G1 G1 G2 8 8( 6) 22. (B) Te = Te1 +
2
30. (D) T e = T s ( F op - 1) = 60(5 - 1) = 240 K 31. (C) F o = 1 + Te 240 =1 + = 1.8276 290 290 Te 240 =1 + = 9 or 9.54 dB 30 Ts
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1 1 Te 2 Te 3 = Te1 1 + + 2 + G G G1 G1 G2
or ( Te1 - Te ) G + Te1 G + Te1 = 0

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32. (A) F op = 1 +
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CHAPTER
7.4
AMPLITUDE MODULATION
Statement for Question 1 - 3 An AM signal is represented by x( t) = (20 + 4 sin 500 pt) cos(2 p 10 5 t) V 1. The modulation index is (A) 20 (C) 0.2 2. The total signal power is (A) 208 W (C) 408 W (B) 204 W (D) 416 W (B) 4 (D) 10 7. An AM broadcast station operates at its maximum allowed total output of 50 kW with 80% modulation. The power in the intelligence part is (A) 12.12 kW (C) 6.42 kW (B) 31.12 kW (D) None of the above
8. The aerial current of an AM transmitter is 18 A when unmodulated but increases to 20 A when modulated.The modulation index is (A) 0.68 (C) 0.89 (B) 0.73 (D) None fo the above
3. The total sideband power is (A) 4 W (C) 16 W (B) 8 W (D) 2 W
Statement for Question 4 - 5 : An fc = 10 5 Hz. 4. The modulation index is (A) (C)

201 400 199 400
9. A modulating signal is amplified by a 80% efficiency amplifier before being combined with a 20 kW carrier to generate an AM signal. The required DC input power to the amplifier, for the system to operate at 100% modulation, would be the form where (A) 5 kW (C) 12.5 kW (B) 8.46 kW (D) 6.25 kW
AM
signal
has
x( t) = [20 + 2 cos 3000 pt + 10 cos 6000 pt ]cos 2 pfc t
(B) - 201 400 (D) - 199 400
10. A 2 MHz carrier is amplitude modulated by a 500 Hz modulating signal to a depth of 70%. If the unmodulated carrier power is 2 kW, the power of the modulated signal is (A) 2.23 kW (C) 1.18 kW (B) 2.36 kW (D) 1.26 kW
5. The ratio of the sidebands power to the total power is (A) (C)
43 226 26 226
(B) (D)
26 226 43 224
11. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation indices of 0.4 and 0.3. The resultant modulation index will be (A) 1.0 (C) 0.5 (B) 0.7 (D) 0.35
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6. A 2 kW carrier is to be modulated to a 90% level. The total transmitted power would be (A) 3.62 kW (C) 1.4 kW
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(B) 2.81 kW (D) None of the above
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12. In a DSB-SC system with 100% modulation, the power saving is (A) 50% (C) 75% (B) 66% (D) 100%
Which of the following frequencies will NOT be present in the modulated signal? (A) 990 KHz (C) 1020 KHz (B) 1010 KHz (D) 1030 KHz
13. A 10 kW carrier is sinusoidally modulated by two carriers corresponding to a modulation index of 30% and 40% respectively. The total radiated power(is (A) 11.25 kW (C) 15 kW (B) 12.5 kW (D) 17 kW
20. For an AM signal, the bandwidth is 10 kHz and the highest frequency component present is 705 kHz. The carrier frequency used for this AM signal is (A) 695 kHz (C) 705 kHz (B) 700 kHz (D) 710 kHz
14. In amplitude modulation, the modulation envelope has a peak value which is double the unmodulated carrier value. What is the value of the modulation index ? (A) 25% (C) 75% (B) 50% (D) 100%
21. A message signal m( t) = sinc t + sinc 2 ( t) modulates the carrier signal ( t) = A cos 2 pfc t. The bandwidth of the modulated signal is (A) 2 fc (C) 2 (B) (D)
1 2 1 4
fc
15. If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted power (A) increases by 50% (C) increases by 100% (B) increases by 75% (D) remains unaffected
22. The signal m( t) = cos 2000 pt + 2 cos 4000 t is multiplied by the carrier c( t) = 100 cos 2 pfc t where fc = 1 MHz to produce the DSB signal. The expression for the upper side band (USB) signal is (A) 100 cos(2 p( fc + 1000) t) + 200 cos(2 p( fc + 200) t)
16. A diode detector has a load of 1 kW shunted by a 10000 pF capacitor. The diode has a forward resistance of 1 W. The maximum permissible depth of modulation, so as to avoid diagonal clipping, with modulating signal frequency fo 10 kHz will be (A) 0.847 (C) 0.734 (B) 0.628 (D) None of the above
(B) 100 cos(2 p( fc - 1000) t) + 200 cos(2 p( fc - 2000) t) (C) 50 cos(2 p( fc + 1000) t) + 100 cos(2 p( fc + 2000) t) (D) 50 cos(2 p( fc - 1000) t) + 100 cos(2 p( fc - 100) t) Statement for Question 23-26 : The Fourier transform M ( f ) of a signal m( t) is
17. An AM signal is detected using an envelop detector. The carrier frequency and modulating signal frequency are 1 MHz and 2 kHz respectively. An appropriate value for the time constant of the envelope detector is. (A) 500 m sec (C) 0.2 m sec (B) 20 m sec (D) 1 m sec
shown in figure. It is to be transmitted from a source to destination. It is known that the signal is normalized, meaning that -1 m( t) 1
M( f)
-10000
10000
18. An AM voltage signal s( t), with a carrier frequency of 1.15 GHz has a complex envelope g( t) = AC [1 + m( t)], where Ac = 500 V, and the modulation is a 1 kHz sinusoidal test tone described by m( t) = 0.8 sin(2 p 10 3 t) appears across a 50 W resistive load. What is the actual power dissipated in the load ? (A) 165 kW (C) 3.3 kW (B) 82.5 kW (D) 6.6 kW
Fig.P7.4.23-26
23. If USSB is employed, the bandwidth of the modulated signal is (A) 5 kHz (C) 20 kHz (B) 20 kHz, 10 kHz (D) None of the above
24. If DSB is employed, the bandwidth of the modulated signal is (A) 5 kHz (B) 10 kHz (D) None of the above
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19. A 1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by a symmetrical square wave of period 100 m sec.
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(C) 20 kHz
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25. If an AM modulation scheme with a = 0.8 is used, the bandwidth of the modulated signal is. (A) 5 kHz (C) 20 kHz (B) 10 kHz (D) None of the above
m(t)
x(t) Square- Law Device
y(t) Filter
AM Signal
cos wct
Fig.P7.4.30-31
26. If an FM signal with kf = 60 kHz is used, then the bandwidth of the modulated signal is (A) 5 kHz (C) 20 kHz (B) 10 kHz (D) None of the above
30. The filter should be a (A) LPP with bandwidth W (B) LPF with bandwidth 2W (C) a BPF with center frequency f0 and BW = W such that f0 - Wm > f0 - W > 2Wm 2 (D) a BPF with center frequency f0 and BW = W such that f0 - Wm > f0 - W > Wm 2 31. The modulation index is 2b 2a (B) (A) Am Am a b (C) a Am b (D) b Am a
27. A DSB modulated signal x( t) = Am( t) cos 2 pfc t is mixed (multiplied) with a local carrier xL ( t) = cos(2 pfc t + q) and the output is passed through a LPF with a bandwidth equal to the bandwidth of the message m( t). If the power of the signal at the output of the low pass filter is pout and the power of the modulated signal by pu , the (A) 0.5 cos q (C) 0.5 cos q
2 p out pu
is
2
(B) cos q (D)

1 2
cos 2 q
28. A DSB-SC signal is to be generated with a carrier frequency fc = 1 MHz using a non-linear device with the input-output characteristic vo = a0 vi + a1 vi3 where a0 and a1 are constants. The output of the non-linear device can be filtered by an appropriate band-pass filter. cos(2 pfct) + m( t) where m( t) is the message Let vi = Ac signal. Then the value of fc(in MHz) is (A) 1.0 (C) 0.5 (B) 0.333 (D) 3.0
32. A message signal is periodic with period T, as shown in figure. This message signals is applied to an AM modulator with modulation index a = 0.4. The modulation efficiency would be
m(t) K1 T t
-K1
Fig.P7.4.32
(A) 51 % (C) 5.1 %
(B) 11.8 % (D) None of the above
29. A non-linear device with a transfer characteristic given by i = (10 + 2 vi + 0.2 vi2 ) mA is supplied with a carrier of 1 V amplitude and a sinusoidal signal of 0.5 V amplitude in series. If at the output the frequency component of AM signal is considered, the depth of modulation is (A) 18 % (C) 20 % (B) 10 % (D) 33.33 %
Statement for Question 33-36 The figure 6.54-57 shows the positive portion of the envelope of the output of an AM modulator. The message signal is a waveform having zero DC value.
m(t) 45 30 15 t
Statement for Question 30-31 Consider the system shown in figP7.4.30-31. The modulating signal m( t) has zero mean and its maximum (absolute) value is Am = max m( t) . It has bandwidth Wm . The nonlinear device has a input-output characteristic y( t) = ax( t) + bx 2 ( t).
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Fig.P7.4.33-36
33. The modulation index is (A) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (B) 0.6 (D) 0.8
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34. The modulation efficiency is (A) 8.3 % (C) 7.69 % 35. The carrier power is (A) 60 W (C) 30 W (B) 450 W (D) 900 W (B) 14.28 % (D) None of the above
41. The lower sideband of the SSB AM signal is (A) -100 cos(2 p( fc - 1000) t) + 200 sin(2 p( fc - 1000) t) (B) -100 cos(2 p( fc - 1000) t) - 200 sin(2 p( fc - 1000) t) (C) 100 cos(2 p( fc - 1000) t) - 200 sin(2 p( fc - 1000) t) (D) 100 cos(2 p( fc - 1000) t) + 200 sin(2 p( fc - 1000) t) Statement for Question 42-43 Consider the system shown in figure 6.69-70. The average value of m( t) is zero and maximum value of m( t) is M . The square-law device is defined by y( t) = 4 x( t) + 10 x( t).
S
x(t) Square- Law Device y(t) Filter AM Signal
36. The power in sidebands is (A) 85 W (C) 56 W (B) 42.5 W (D) 37.5 W
37. In a broadcast transmitter, the RF output is represented as e( t) = 50[1 + 0.89 cos 5000 t + 0.30 sin 9000 t ]cos( 6 106 t)V What are the sidebands of the signals in radians ? (A) 5 10 3 and 9 10 3 (B) 5.991 106 , 5.995 106 , 6.005 106 and 6.009 106 (C) 4 10 3, 1.4 10 4 (D) 1 10 , 11 . 10 , 3 10 , and 15 . 10
6 7 6 7
m(t)
cos wct
Fig. P7.4.42-43
42. The value of M , required to produce modulation index of 0.8, is (A) 0.32 (C) 0.52 (B) 0.26 (D) 0.16
38. An AM modulator has output x( t) = 40 cos 400 pt + 4 cos 360 pt + 4 cos 440 pt The modulation efficiency is (A) 0.01 (C) 0.03 (B) 0.02 (D) 0.04
43. Let W be the bandwidth of message signal m( t). AM signal would be recovered if (A) fc > W (C) fc 3W (B) fc > 2W (D) fc > 4W
39. An AM modulator has output x( t) = A cos 400 pt + B cos 380 pt + B cos 420 pt The carrier power is 100 W and the efficiency is 40%. The value of A and B are (A) 14.14, 8.16 (C) 22.36, 13.46 (B) 50, 10 (D) None of the above
44. A super heterodyne receiver is designed to receive transmitted signals between 5 and 10 MHz. High-side tuning is to be used. The tuning range of the local oscillator for IF frequency 500 kHz would be (A) 4.5 MHz - 9.5 MHz
Statement for Question 40-41 A single side band signal is generated by modulating signal of 900-kHz carrier by the signal m( t) = cos 200 pt + 2 sin 2000 pt. The amplitude of the carrier is Ac = 100. $ ( t) is 40. The signal m (A) - sin(2 p1000 t) - 2 cos(2000 pt) (B) - sin(2 p1000 t) + 2 cos(2000 pt) (C) sin(2 p1000 t) + 2 cos(1000 t) (D) sin(2 p1000 t) - 2 cos(2 p1000 t)
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(B) 5.5 MHz - 10.5 MHz (C) 4.5 MHz - 10.5 MHz (D) None of the above 45. A super heterodyne receiver uses an IF frequency of 455 kHz. The receiver is tuned to a transmitter having a carrier frequency of 2400 kHz. High-side tuning is to be used. The image frequency will be (A) 2855 kHz (C) 1845 kHz
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(B) 3310 kHz (D) 1490 kHz

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46. In the circuit shown in fig.P7.4.46, the transformers are center tapped and the diodes are connected as shown in a bridge. Between the terminals 1 and 2 an a.c. voltage source of frequency 400 Hz is connected. Another a.c. voltage of 1.0 MHz is connected between 3 and 4. The output between 5 and 6 contains components at
1 5
49. In fig.P7.4.49 m( t) = 2 sin 2 pt sin 199 pt , s( t) = cos 200 pt and n( t) = t t

Multiplier Adder Multiplier
m(t)
LPF 1 Hz |H(jw)|=1 s(t)
y(t)
s(t)
n(t)
Fig.P7.4.49
The output y( t) will be sin 2 pt (A) t (B) (C) (D) sin 2 pt sin pt + cos 3pt t t sin 2 pt sin 0.5 pt + cos 15 . pt t t sin 2 pt sin pt + cos 0.75 pt t t
Fig.P7.4.46
(A) 400 Hz, 1.0 MHz, 1000.4 kHz, 999.6 kHz (B) 400 Hz, 1000.4 kHz, 999.6 kHz (C) 1 MHz, 1000.4 kHz, 999.6 kHz (D) 1000.4 kHz, 999.6 kHz 47. A superheterodyne receiver is to operate in the frequency range 550 kHz-1650 kHz, with the max denote intermediate frequency of 450 kHz. Let R = C Cmin the required capacitance ratio of the local oscillator and I denote the image frequency (in kHz) of the incoming signal. If the receiver is tuned to 700 kHz, then (A) R = 4.41, I = 1600 (C) R = 3, I = 1600 (B) R = 2.10, I = 1150 (D) R = 9.0, I = 1150
50. 12 signals each band-limited to 5 kHz are to be transmitted over a single channel by frequency division multiplexing. If AM -SSNB modulation guard band of 1 kHz is used, then the bandwidth of the multiplexed signal will be (A) 51 kHz (C) 71 kHz (B) 61 kHz (D) 81 kHz
48. Consider a system shown in Figure . Let X ( f ) and Y ( f ) denote the Fourier transforms of x( t) and y( t) respectively. The ideal HPF has the cutoff frequency 10 kHz. The positive frequencies where Y ( f ) has spectral peaks are
x(t) Balanced Modulator HPF 10 kHz Balanced Modulator y(t)
51. Let x( t) be a signal band-limited to 1 kHz. Amplitude modulation is performed to produce signal A proposed demodulation g( t) = x( t) sin 2000 pt. technique is illustrated in figure 6.83. The ideal low pass filter has cutoff frequency 1 kHz and pass band gain 2. The y( t) would be (A) 2 y( t) (C)
1 2
(B) y( t) (D) 0
y( t)
~
10 kHz X(f )
~
13 kHz
52. Suppose we wish to transmit the signal x( t) = sin 200 pt + 2 sin 400 pt using a modulation that create the signal g( t) = x( t) sin 400 pt. If the product g( t) sin 400 pt is passed through an ideal LPF with cutoff frequency 400 p and pass band gain of 2, the signal obtained at the output of the LPF is (A) sin 200pt (C) 2 sin 200pt (B)
1 2
-3
-1
f (kHz)
sin 200 pt
Fig.P7.4.48
(D) 0
(A) 1 kHz and 24 kHz (B) 2 kHz and 24 kHz (C) 1 kHz and 14 kHz (D) 2 kHz and 14 kHz
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53. In a AM signal the received signal power is 10 -10 W with a maximum modulating signal of 5 kHz. The noise spectral density at the receiver input is 10 -18 W/Hz. If the noise power is restricted to the message signal
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bandwidth only, the signals-to-noise ratio at the input to the receiver is (A) 43 dB (C) 56 dB (B) 66 dB (D) 33 dB
SOLUTION
1. (C) u( t) = (20 + 4 sin 500 pt) cos(2 p 10 5 t) V = 20(1 + 0.2 sin 500 pt) cos(2 p 10 5 t) V, a = 0.2 = 204 W 2. (B) Pc = 20 2 = 200 W, 2 (0.2) 2 Pt = Pc 1 + 2
Statement for Question 54-55 Consider the following Amplitude Modulated (AM) signal, where fm < B x AM ( t) = 10(1 + 0.5 sin 2 pfm t) cos 2 pfc t. 54. The average side-band power for the AM signal given above is (A) 25 (C) 6.25 (B) 12.5 (D) 3.125
3. (A) Psb = Pt - Pc = 204 - 200 = 4 W 4. (B) x( t) = [20 + 2 cos(2 p1500 t) + 10 cos(2 p3000 t)]cos(2 pfc t) 1 1 = 20 1 + cos(2 p1500 t) + cos(2 p3000 t) cos(2 pfc t) 10 2 This is the form of a conventional AM signal with message signal 1 1 m( t) = cos(2 p1500 t) + cos(2 p3000 t) 10 2 1 1 = cos 2 (2 p1500 t) + cos(2 p1500 t) 10 2 1 1 The minimum of g( z) = z 2 + is achieved for z10 2 1 201 1 and it is min( g( z)) = . Since z = is in z =20 400 20 the range of cos (2 p1500 t), we conclude that the 201 minimum value of m( t) is . Hence, the modulation 400 201 index is a = 400 5. (B) x( t) = 20 cos(2 pfc t) + cos(2 p( fc - 1500) t) + cos(2 p( fc - 1500) t) = 5 cos(2 p( fc 3000) t) + 5 cos(2 p( fc + 3000) t) The power in the sidebands is 1 1 25 25 + = 26 Psidebands = + + 2 2 2 2 The total power is Ptotal = Pcarrier + Psidebands = 200 + 26 = 226 The ratio of the sidebands power to the total power is Psidebands 26 = Ptotal 226 0.9 2 a2 6. (B) Pt = Pc 2000 1 = 2810 W 1 + = + 2 2 a2 7. (A) Pt = Pc 1 + 2 Pc = 37.88 kW, or 0.8 2 50 10 3 = Pc 1 + 2
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55. The AM signal gets added to a noise with Power Spectra Density Sn ( f ) given in the figure below. The ration of average sideband power to mean noise power would be 25 25 (B) (A) 8 N0 B 4 N0 B (C) 25 2 N0 B (D) 25 N0 B
Statement for Question 56-57 A certain communication channel is characterized by 80 dB attenuation and noise power-spectral density of 10 -10 W/Hz. The transmitter power is 40 kW and the message signal has a bandwidth of 10 kHz. 56. In the case of conventional AM modulation, the predetecion SNR is (A) 108 (C) 10 2 (B) 2 108 (D) 2 10 2
57. In case of SSB, the predetecion SNR is (A) 2 10 2 (C) 2 10 3 (B) 4 10 2 (D) 4 10 3
*************
Pi = ( Pt - Pc ) = (50 - 37.88) = 12.12 kW

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a 2 2 a 2 2 8. (A) I t = I c or 20 = 18 or a = 0.68 1 + 2 1 + 2 1 9. (C) Pt = 20000 1 + , Pt = 30 kW, 2 Pi = 30 - 20 = 10 kW The DC input power = 10. (A) Pc = 2 kW,
1
18. (A) Pt =
2 a 2 m( t) Ac2 1 + 2 2
Here modulation index a =1. Thus Pt = 500 2 2 0.8 2 = 165 kW 1 + 2 fc = 1000 kHz, x( t) = c( t) m( t)
10 = 12.5 kW. 0.8
19. (C) c( t) = sin 2 p fc t,
Expressing square wave as modulating signal m( t) m( t) = 4 ( -1) n -1 cos[2 pfm (2 n - 1) ] p n =1 2 n - 1
a = 70% = 0.7
0.7 2 a 2 2 2 1 = 2.23 kW 1 + = + Pt = Pc 2 2
a 2 11. (C) a 2 = a1 + a2 = 0.32 + 0.4 2 = 0.5 2 or a = 0.5
The modulated output 4 ( -1) n -1 x( t) = cos[2 pfm (2 n - 1)] sin(2 p1000 10 3 t) p n =1 2 n - 1 So frequency component (106 fm (2 n - 1) will be present where n = 1, 2, 3, .... For fm = 10 kHz and n = 1 & 2 frequency present is 990, 970, 1030 kHz. Thus 1020 kHz will be absent.
12. (B) In previous solution Pc =
2 P . If carrier is 3
2 suppressed then P or 66% power will be saved. 3

2 a1 a2 2 13. (A) Pt = Pc 1 + + 2 2
0.32 0.4 2 10 1 = + + 2 2
20. (B) fc + fm = 705 kHz, BW = 2 fm = 10 kHz or fm = 5 kHz fc = 705 - 5 = 700 kHz 21. (C) x( t) = m( t) c( t) = A(sinc ( t) + sinc 2 ( t) cos(2 pfc t) Taking the Fourier transform of both sides, we obtain X( f ) = = A [ P( f ) + L( f )] * ( d( f - fc ) + d( f + fc )) 2
= 1125 . kW 14. (D) x( t) = Ac (1 + a cos 2 pfm t) cos 2 pfc t Here Ac (1 + a) = 2 Ac , Thus a =1, therefor modulation index is 1 or 100% modulation. 15. (A) If modulation index a is 0, then Pt1 = Ac2 2 0 2 Ac2 = 2 1 + 2 12 3 2 = 4 Ac , 1 + 2 Pt 2 3 = Pt1 2
A [ P( f - fc ) + L( f - fc ) + P( f + fc ) + L( f - fc )] 2
1 Since P( f - fc ) 0 for f - fc < , whereas L( f - fc ) 0 2 for f - fc < 1. Hence, the bandwidth of the bandpass filter is 2. 22. (C) x( t) = m( t) c( t) = 100[cos(2 p1000 t) + 2 cos(2 p2000 t)]cos(2 pfc t) = 100 cos(2 p1000 t) cos(2 pfc t) + 200 cos(2 p2000 t) cos(2 pfc t) 100 = [cos(2 p( fc + 1000) t) + cos(2 p( fc - 1000) t)] 2 + 200 [cos(2 p( fc + 2000) t) + cos(2 p( fc - 2000) t)] 2
If modulation index is 1 then Pt 2 = Ac2 2
Thus Pt 2 = 15 . Pt1 and Pt 2 is increases by 50% 16. (A) fm = 10 kHz, R = 1000 W, C = 10000 pF Hence 2 pfm RC = 2 p 10 4 10 3 10 -8 = 0.628 a max = (1 + (0.628) 2 ) 17. (B)
1 2
= 0.847 Here fc = 1 MHz
1 1 , RC fc BWm
Thus, the upper sideband (USB) signal is xu ( t) = 50 cos[2 p( fc + 1000) t ] + 100(2 p( fc + 2000) t) 23. (B) When USSB is employed the bandwidth of the modulated signal is the same with the bandwidth of the message signal. Hence WUSSB = W = 10 4 Hz
Signal Bandwidth BWm = 2 fm = 2 2 10 3 = 4 kHz Thus 1 1 or 10 -6 RC 250 ms RC 106 4 10 3

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Thus appropriate value is 20 m sec

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37.
(B)
6
Sidebands
6
are
6
( 6 106 5000)
6
and
6
43. (C) The filter characteristic is shown in fig.S7.4.43

H(f ) m(t)
( 6 10 9000) Thus 6.005 10 , 5.995 10 , 5.991 10 or 5.991 10 , 6.005 106 and 6.009 106 38. (B) x( t) can be written as x( t) = ( 40 + 8 cos 40 pt) cos 400 pt 8 modulation index a = = 0.2 40 1 Pc = ( 40) 2 = 800 W 2 The components at 180 Hz and 220 Hz are side band 1 1 Psb = ( 4) 2 + ( 4) 2 = 16 W, 2 2 Psb 16 Eeff = = Pc + Psb 800 + 16 A2 39. (A) Carrier power Pc = = 100 W, A = 14.14 2 40 Psb Psb or Eeff = = 0.4 = 100 + Psb Pc + Psb 100 Psb = 66.67 W, 1 1 Psb = B 2 + B 2 = 66.67 2 2 or B = 8.161
f W 2W
fc-W fc
fc+W
2fc
Fig.S7.4.43
fc - W > 2W or fc > 3W , fc + W < 2 f or fc > W Therefore fc > 3W 44. (B) Since High-side tuning is used fLO = fm + f IF = 500 kHz, fLOL = 5 + 0.5 = 5.5 MHz, fLOU = 10 + 0.5 = 10.5 MHz 45. (B) fimage = fL + 2 f IF = 2400 = 3310 kHz 46. (D) The given circuit is a ring modulator. The output is DSB-SC signal. So it will contain m( t) cos( nwc t) where n = 1, 2, 3...... Therefore there will be only (1 MHz 400 Hz) frequency component. 47. (A) fmax = 1650 + 450 = 2100 kHz fmin = 550 + 450 = 1000 kHz. or f = 1 2 p LC
40. (D) The Hilbert transform of cos (2 p1000 t) is sin (2 p1000 t), whereas the Hilbert transform of sin (2 p1000 t) is cos (2 p1000 t) $ ( t)= sin (2 p1000 t) - cos (2 p1000 t) Thus m 41. (D) The expression for the LSSB AM signal is. x l ( t) = Ac m( t) cos(2 pfc t) + Ac m( t) sin(2 pfc t) Substituting Ac = 100, m( t) = cos(2 p1000 t) + 2 sin(2 p1000 t) $ ( t) = sin(2 p1000 t) - 2 cos(2 p1000 t) and m we obtain xl ( t) = 100[cos(2 p1000 t) + 2 sin(2 p1000 t) cos(2 pfc t)] +100[sin(2 p1000 t) - 2 cos(2 p1000 t) sin(2 pfc t)] = 100[cos(2 p1000 t) cos(2 pfc t) + sin(2 p1000 t) sin(2 pfc t)] +200[cos(2 pfc t) sin(2 p1000 t) - sin(2 pfc t) cos(2 p1000 t)] = 100 cos(2 p( fc - 1000) t) - 200 sin(2 p( fc - 1000) t) 42. (D) y( t) = 4( m( t) + cos wc t) + 10( m( t) + cos wc t) 2
= 4m(t) + 4 cos wc t + 10m2 (t) + 20m(t) cos wc t + 5 + 5 cos 2wc t = 5 + 4m(t) + 10m2 (t) + 4[1 + 5m(t)] cos wc t + 5 cos 2wc t
frequency is minimum, capacitance will be maximum R=

2 Cmax fmax = 2 = (2.1) 2 Cmin fmin
or R = 4.41
fi = fc + 2 f IF = 700 + 2( 455) = 1600 kHz 48. (B) Since X ( f ) has spectral peak at 1 kHz so at the output of first modulator spectral peak will be at (10 + 1) kHz and (10 - 1) kHz. After passing the HPF frequency component of 11 kHz will remain. The output of 2nd modulator will be (13 11) kHz. So Y ( f ) has spectral peak at 2 kHz and 24 kHz. 49. (C) m( t) s( t) = y1 ( t) = 2 sin(2 pt) cos(200 pt) sin(202 pt) - sin(198 pt) = t t sin 202 pt - sin 198 pt sin 198 pt + t t
The AM signal is, m( t) = Mmn ( t)
xc ( t) = 4[1 + 5 m( t)]cos wc t
y1 ( t) + n( t) = y2 ( t) = y2 ( t) s( t) = y( t) =
xc ( t) = 4[1 + 5 Mmn ( t)]cos wc t 5 M = 0.8

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M = 0.16
[sin 202 pt - sin 198 pt + sin 199 pt ]cos 200 pt t

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Chap 7.4
1 [sin( 402 pt) + sin(2 pt) - {sin( 398 pt) - sin(2 pt)} 2 + sin( 399 pt) - sin( pt)]
55. (D) Noise power = Area rendered by the spectrum = N0 B Ratio of average sideband power to mean noise 6.25 25 Power = = N0 B 4 N0 B 56. (C) Since the channel attenuation is 80 db, then P 10 log T = 80 PR or PR = 10 -8 PT = 10 -8 40 10 3 = 4 10 -4 Watts If the noise limiting filter has bandwidth B, then the pre-detection noise power is
fc +
After filtering sin(2 pt) + sin(2 pt) - sin( pt) 2t sin(2 pt) + 2 sin(0.5 t) cos(15 . pt) = 2t sin 2 pt sin 0.5 pt = + cos 15 . pt 2t t y( t) = 50. (D) The total signal bandwidth = 5 12 = 60 kHz There would be 11 guard band between 12 signal. So guard band width = 11 kHz Total band width = 60 + 11 = 71 kHz 51. (D) x1 ( t) = g( t) cos(2000 pt) 1 = x( t) sin(2000 pt) cos(2000 pt) = x( t) sin( 4000 pt) 2 1 X1 ( jw) = X ( j( w - 4000 p)) - X ( j( w + 4000 p)) 4j This implies that X1 ( jw) is zero for w 2000 p because w < 2 pfm = 2 p1000. When x1 ( t) is passed through a LPF with cutoff frequency 2000p, the output will be zero. 52. (A) y( t) = g( t) sin( 400 pt) = x( t) sin 2 ( 400 pt) (1 - cos)( 800 pt) = (sin(200 pt) + 2 sin( 400 pt) 2 1 = [sin(200 pt) - sin(200 pt) cos( 800 pt) + 2 sin( 400 pt) 2 - sin( 400 pt) cos( 800 pt) 1 1 = sin(200 pt) - [sin(1000 pt) - sin( 6000 pt)] 2 4 1 + sin( 400 pt) - [sin(1200 pt) - sin( 400 pt)] 4 If this signal is passed through LPF with frequency 400 p and gain 2, the output will be sin(200 pt) 53. (A) Message signal BW fm = 5 kHz Noise power density is 10 -18 W/Hz Total noise power is 10 -18 5 10 3 = 5 10 -15 W Input signal-to-noise ratio SNR= 10 -10 = 2 10 4 or 43 dB 5 10 -15
Pn = 2
fc -
B 2
B 2
N0 df = N 0 B = 2 10 -10 B Watts 2
In the case of DSB or conventional AM modulation, B = 2W = 2 10 4

4
Hz, whereas in SSB modulation
B = W = 10 . Thus, the pre-detection signal to noise ratio in DSB and conventional AM is SNR DSB,AM = PR 4 10 -4 = = 10 2 Pn 2 10 -10 2 10 4
57. (A) In SSB modulation B = W = 10 4 SNR SSB = 4 10 -4 = 2 10 2 2 10 -10 10 4
***********
54. (C) Average side band power is Ac2 a 2 10 2 (0.5) 2 = = 6.25 W 4 4

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CHAPTER
7.6
DIGITAL TRANSMISSION
Statement for Question 1-5 Fig. P7.6.1-5 shows fourier spectra of signal x( t) and y(t). Determine the Nyquist sampling rate for the given function in question.
X( jw) Y( jw)
t
Statement for Question 6-7 A signal x( t) is multiplied by rectangular pulse train c( t) shown in fig.P7.6.6-7..
c(t) 0.25 ms
-210-3
-10-3
10-3
210-3
Fig.P7.6.6-7
Fig.P7.6.1-5
6. x( t) would be recovered form the product. x( t) c( t) by using an ideal LPF if X ( jw) = 0 for (A) w > 2000 p (C) w < 1000 p (B) w > 1000 p (D) w < 2000 p
1. x( t) (A) 100 kHz (C) 300 kHz 2. y( t) (A) 50 kHz (C) 150 kHz 3. x 2 ( t) (A) 100 kHz (C) 250 kHz 4. y 3( t) (A) 100 kHz (C) 900 kHz 5. x( t) y( t) (A) 250 kHz (C) 50 kHz
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(B) 200 kHz (D) 50 kHz
7. If X ( jw) satisfies the constraints required, then the pass band gain A of the ideal lowpass filter needed to (B) 75 kHz (D) 300 kHz recover x( t) from e( t) x( t) is (A) 1 (C) 4 (B) 150 kHz (D) 400 kHz (B) 2 (D) 8
(B) 300 kHz (D) 120 kHz
8. Consider a set of 10 signals xi ( t), i = 1, 2, 3, ...10.. Each signal is band limited to 1 kHz. All 10 signals are to be time-division multiplexed after each is multiplied by a carrier e( t) shown in Figure. If the period T of e( t) is chosen the have the maximum allowable value, the largest value of D would be
c(t)
(B) 500 kHz (D) 100 kHz

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-2T
-T
2T
Fig.P7.6.8
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Digital Transmission
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Chap 7.6
(A) 5 10 -3 sec (C) 5 10 sec

-5
(B) 5 10 -4 sec (D) 5 10 sec

-6
15. A CD record audio signals digitally using PCM. The audio signal bandwidth is 15 kHz. The Nyquist samples are quantized into 32678 levels and then binary coded. The minimum number of binary digits required to encode the audio signal (A) 450 k bits/sec (C) 980 340 k bits/sec (B) 900 k bits/sec (D) 490 170, k bits/sec
9. A compact disc recording system samples a signals with a 16-bit analog-to-digital convertor at 44.1 kbits/s. The CD can record an hours worth of music. The approximate capacity of CD is (A) 705.6 M Bytes (C) 2.54 M Bytes (B) 317.5 M Bytes (D) 5.43 M Bytes
16. The American Standard Code for Information Interchange has 128 characters, which are binary coded. If a certain computer generates 1,000,000 character per second, the minimum bandwidth required to transmit this signal will be (A) 1.4 M bits/sec (C) 7 M bits/sec (B) 14 M bits/sec (D) 0.7 M bits/sec
10. An analog signal is sampled at 36 kHz and quantized into 256 levels. The time duration of a bit of the binary coded signal is (A) 5.78 ms (C) 6.43 ms (B) 3.47 ms (D) 7.86 ms
11. An analog signal is quantized and transmitted using a PCM system. The tolerable error in sample amplitude is 0.5% of the peak-to-peak full scale value. The minimum binary digits required to encode a sample is (A) 5 (C) 7 (B) 6 (D) 8
17. A binary channel with capacity 36 k bits/sec is available for PCM voic transmission. If signal is band limited to 3.2 kHz, then the appropriate values of quantizing level L and the sampling frequency will be (A) 32, 3.6 kHz (C) 64, 3.6 kHz (B) 64, 7.2 kHz (D) 32, 7.2 kHz
Statement for Question 12-13. Ten telemetry signals, each of bandwidth 2kHz, are to be transmitted simultaneously by binary PCM. The maximum tolerable error in sample amplitudes is 0.2% of the peak signal amplitude. The signals must be sampled at least 20% above the Nyquist rate. Framing and synchronizing requires an additional 1% extra bits. 12. The minimum possible data rate must be (A) 272.64 k bits/sec (C) 936.32 k bits/sec (B) 436.32 k bits/sec (D) None of the above
18. Fig.P7.4.18 shows a PCM signals in which amplitude level of + 1 volt and - 1 volt are used to represent binary symbol 1 and 0 respectively. The code word used consists of three bits. The sampled version of analog signal from which this PCM signal is derived is
Fig.P7.4.18
(A) 4 5 1 2 1 3 (C) 6 4 3 1 7
(B) 8 4 3 1 2 (D) 1 2 3 4 5
13. The minimum transmission bandwidth is (A) 218.16 kHz (C) 136.32 kHz (B) 468.32 kHz (D) None of the above
19. A PCM system uses a uniform quantizer followed by a 8-bit encoder. The bit rate of the system is equal to 108 bits/s. The maximum message bandwidth for which the system operates satisfactorily is (A) 25 MHz (C) 12.5 MHz (B) 6.25 MHz (D) 50 MHz
14. A Television signal is sampled at a rate of 20% above the Nyquist rate. The signal has a bandwidth of 6 MHz. The samples are quantized into 1024 levels. The minimum bandwidth required to transmit this signal would be (A) 72 M bits/sec (C) 72 k bits/sec
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20. Twenty-four voice signals are sampled uniformly at a rate of 8 kHz and then time-division multiplexed. The sampling process uses flat-top samples with 1 ms duration. The multiplexing operating includes provision
(B) 144 M bits/sec (D) 144 k bits/sec
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for synchronization by adding and extra pulse of 1 ms duration. The spacing between successive pulses of the multiplexed signal is (A) 4 ms (C) 7.2 ms (B) 6 ms (D) 8.4 ms
quantized into 256 level using a m -low quantizer with m = 225. 26. The signal-to-quantization-noise ratio is (A) 34.91 dB (C) 42.05 dB (B) 38.06 dB (D) 48.76 dB
21. A linear delta modulator is designed to operate on speech signals limited to 3.4 kHz. The sampling rate is 10 time the Nyquist rate of the speech signal. The step size d is 100 m V. The modulator is tested with a this test signal required to avoid slope overload is (A) 2.04 V (C) 4.08 V (B) 1.08 V (D) 2.16 V
27. It was found that a sampling rate 20% above the rate wou7ld be adequate. So the maximum SNR, that can be realized without increasing the transmission bandwidth, would be (A) 60.4 dB (C) 50.1 dB (B) 70.3 dB (D) None of the above
Statement fo Question 22-23 : Consider a linear DM system designed to
28. For a PCM signal the compression parameter m = 100 and the minimum signal to quantization-noise ratio is 50 dB. The number of bits per sample would be. (A) 8 (C) 12 (B) 10 (D) 14
accommodate analog message signals limited to bandwidth of 3.5 kHz. A sinusoidal test signals of amplitude Amax = 1 V and frequency fm = 800 Hz is applied to system. The sampling rate of the system is 64 kHz. 22. The minimum value of the step size to overload is (A) 240 mV (C) 670 mV (B) 120 mV (D) 78.5 mV avoid
29. A sinusoid massage signal m( t) is transmitted by binary PCM without compression. If the signal to-quantization-noise ratio is required to be at least 48 dB, the minimum number of bits per sample will be (A) 8 (C) 12 (B) 10 (D) 14
23. The granular-noise power would be (A) 1.68 10 -3 W (C) 2.48 10

-3
30. A speech signal has a total duration of 20 sec. It is sampled at the rate of 8 kHz and then PCM encoded. The signal-to-quantization noise ratio is required to be 40 dB. The minimum storage capacity needed to accommodate this signal is
-4
(B) 2.86 10 -4 W (D) 112 . 10 W
24. The SNR will be (A) 298 (C) 4.46 10

3
(B) 1.7510 -3 (D) 201
(A) 1.12 KBytes (C) 168 KBytes
(B) 140 KBytes (D) None of the above
25. The output signal-to-quantization-noise ratio of a 10-bit PCM was found to be 30 dB. The desired SNR is 42 dB. It can be increased by increasing the number of quantization level.In this way the fractional increase in the transmission bandwidth would be (assume log 2 10 = 0.3) (A) 20% (C) 40% (B) 30% (D) 50%
31. The input to a linear delta modulator having fa step-size D = 0.628 is a sine wave with frequency fm and peak amplitude Em . If the sampling frequency fs = 40 kHz, the combination of the sinc-wave frequency and the peak amplitude, where slope overload will take piace is Em (A) 0.3 V (B) 1.5 V (C) 1.5 V (D) 3.0 V fm 8 kHz 4 kHz 2 kHz 1 kHz
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Statement for Question 26-27. A signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz. It is sampled at a rate 50% higher than the Nyquist rate and
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32. A sinusoidal signal with peak-to-peak amplitude of 1.536 V is quantized into 128 levels using a mid-rise uniform quantizer. The quantization-noise power is (A) 0.768 V (C) 12 10 -6 V 2 (B) 48 10 V (D) 3.072 V
-6 2
38. Four signals g1 ( t), g 2 ( t), g s ( t) and g 4 ( t) are to be multiplexed and transmitted. g1 ( t) and g 4 ( t) have a bandwidth of 4 kHz, and the remaining two signals have bandwidth of 8 kHz,. Each sample requires 8 bit for encoding. What is the minimum transmission bit rate of the system. (A) 512 kbps (C) 192 kbps (B) 16 kbps (D) 384 kbps
33. A signal is sampled at 8 kHz and is quantized using 8 bit uniform quantizer. Assuming SNR q with a bit rate of R is (A) R = 32 kbps, SNR q = 25.8 dB (B) R = 64 kbps, SNR q = 49.8 dB (C) R = 64 kbps, SNR q = 55.8 dB (D) R = 32 kbps, SNR q = 49.8 dB 34. A 1.0 kHz signal is flat-top sampled at the rate of 180 samples sec and the samples are applied to an ideal rectangular LPF with cat-off frequency of 1100 Hz, then the output of the filter contains (A) only 800 Hz component (B) 800 and 900 Hz components (C) 800 Hz and 1000 Hz components (D) 800 Hz, 900 and 1000 Hz components 35. The Nyquist sampling interval, for the signal sinc (700 t) + sinc (500 t) is 1 (A) sec 350 1 (C) sec 700 p (B) sec 350 p (D) sec 175
3
for a
sinusoidal signal, the correct statement for PCM signal 39. Three analog signals, having bandwidths 1200 Hz, 600 Hz and 600 Hz, are sampled at their respective Nyquist rates, encoded with 12 bit words, and time division multiplexed. The bit rate for the multiplexed signal is (A) 115.2 kbps (C) 57.6 kbps (B) 28.8 kbps (D) 38.4 kbps
40. The minimum sampling frequency (in samples/sec) required to reconstruct the following signal form its samples without distortion would be sin 2 p1000 t sin 2 p1000 t x( t) = 5 + 7 pt pt (A) 2 10 3 (C) 6 10 3 41. The minimum
3 2
B) 4 10 3 (D) 8 10 3 step-size required for a
Delta-Modulator operating at32 K samples/sec to track the signal (here u( t) is the nuit function) x( t) = 125 t( u( t) - u( t - 1)) + (250 - 125 t)( u( t - 1) - u( t - 2)s so that slope overload is avoided, would be (A) 2 -10 (B) 2 -8 (D) 2 -4
36. A signal x( t) = 100 cos(24 p 10 ) t is ideally sampled with a sampling period of 50 m sec and then passed through an ideal lowpass filter with cutoff frequency of 15 KHz. Which of the following frequencies is/are present at the filter output (A) 12 KHz only (C) 12 KHz and 9 KHz (B) 8 KHz only (D) 12 KHz and 8 KHz
(C) 2 -6
42. Four signals each band limited to 5 kHz are sampled at twice the Nyquist rate. The resulting PAM samples are transmitted over a single channel after time division multiplexing. The theoretical minimum transmissions bandwidth of the channel should be equal to. (A) 5 kHz (C) 40 kHz (B) 20 kHz (D) 80 kHz
37. In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased form 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio improves by the factor. (A) 8/6 (C) 16
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(B) 12 (D) 8
43. Four independent messages have bandwidths of 100 Hz, 100 Hz, 200 Hz and 400 Hz respectively. Each is
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sampled at the Nyquist rate, time division multiplexed and transmitted. The transmitted sample rate, in Hz, is given by (A) 200 (C) 800 44. The Nyquist (B) 400 (D) 1600 sampling rate for the signal
50. A speech signal occupying the bandwidth of 300 Hz to 3 kHz is converted into PCM format for use in digital communication. If the sampling frequency is8 kHz and each sample is quantized into 256 levels, then the output bit the rate will be (A) 3 kb/s (B) 8 kb/s (D) 256 kb/s (C) 64 kb/s
g( t) = 10 cos(50 pt) cos 2 (150 pt). Where ' t ' is in seconds, is (A) 150 samples per second (B) 200 samples per second (C) 300 samples per second (D) 350 samples per second 45. A TDM link has 20 signal channels and each channel is sampled 8000 times/sec. Each sample is represented by seven binary bits and contains an additional bit for synchronization. The total bit rate for the TDM link is (A) 1180 K bits/sec (C) 1180 M bits/sec (B) 1280 K bits/sec (D) 1280 M bits/sec
51. If the number of bits in a PCM system is increased from n to n + 1, the signal-to-quantization noise ratio will increase by a factor. (A) ( n + 1) n (B) ( n + 1) 2 n2
(C) 2
(D) 4
52. In PCM system, if the quantization levels are increased form 2 to 8, the relative bandwidth requirement will. (A) remain same (C) be tripled (B) be doubled (D) become four times
46. In a CD player, the sampling rate is 44.1 kHz and the samples are quantized using a 16-bit/sample quantizer. The resulting number of bits for a piece of music with a duration of 50 minutes is (A) 1.39 10 9 (C) 8.46 10 9 (B) 4.23 10 9 (D) 12.23 10 9
53. Assuming that the signal is quantized to satisfy the condition of previous question and assuming the approximate bandwidth of the signal is W. The minimum required bandwidth for transmission of a binary PCM signal based on this quantization scheme will be. (A) 5 W (C) 20 W (B) 10 W (D) None of the above
47. Four voice signals. each limited to 4 kHz and sampled at Nyquist rate are converted into binary PCM signal using 256 quantization levels. The bit transmission rate for the time-division multiplexed signal will be (A) 8 kbps (C) 256 kbps (B) 64 kbps (D) 512 kbps
************
48. Analog data having highest harmonic at 30 kHz generated by a sensor has been digitized using 6 level PCM. What will be the rate of digital signal generated? (A) 120 kbps (C) 240 kbps (B) 200 kbps (D) 180 kbps
49. In a PCM system, the number of quantization levels is 16 and the maximum lsignal frequency is 4 kHz.; the bit transmission rate is (A) 32 bits/s (C) 32 kbits/s
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(B) 16 bits/s (D) 64 dbits/s

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16. (C) 128= 2 7,. We need 7 bits/character. For 1,000,000 character we need 7 Mbits/second. Thus minimum bandwidth = 7 Mbits/sec. 17. (D) fs > 2 fm = 6400 Hz, nfs 63000 36000 36000 n = 5.63, n = 5, L = 2 n = 32, fs = = 7.2 kHz. 6400 5 18. (D) The transmitted code word are
0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1
26. (B)
3 L2 So = = 6394 = 38.06 dB N o [ln(m + 1)]2
27. (C) Nyquist Rate = 2 MHz 50% higher rate = 3 MHz, L = 256 = 28 Thus transmission bandwidth is 3 MHz 8 = 24 Mbits/s. New sampling rate is at 20% above the Nyquist rate. Sampling rate= 12 . 2 = 2.4 MHz. bits per second=
bits 24 M sec = 10 bits 2.4 MHz
Level = 210 = 1024,

Fig.S.7.6.18
So 3(1024) 2 = = 102300 = 50.1 dB N o (ln 256) 2
In 1st word 001(1) In 2nd word 010(2) In 3rd word 011(3) In 4th word 100(4) In 5th word 101 (5) 19. (B) Message bandwidth= W , Nyquist rate = 2W Bandwidth = 2W 8 = 16W bit/s 16W = 10 , or
8
28. (B)
3 L2 So = 50 dB, m = 100 N o [ln(m + 1)]2 L = 842.6
3 L2 = 100 000 or [ln 101) 2
Because L is power of 2, we select L = 1024 = 210 . Thus 10 bits are required. 29. (A) So = m 2 ( t), N o =
2 3mp
108 W= = 6.25 MHz 16
So 3 L2 m 2 ( t) , = 2 3 L2 No mp m 2 ( t) 1 = , 2 mp 2
1 20. (A) Sampling interval T, = = 125 ms. There are 24 8k channels and 1 sync pulse, so the time allotted to each channel is Tc =
T 25
since signal is sinusoidal
= 5 ms. The pulse duration is 1 ms. So
3 L2 = 48 dB = 63096, L = 205.09 2 Since L is power of 2, so we select L = 256 Hence 256 = 28 , So 8 bits per sample is required .
the time between pulse is 4 ms. 21. (B) Amax = dfs 0.1 68 k = 108 . V = wm 2 p 10 3 df s A w 1 2 p 800 or d = max m = = 78.5 mV wm fs 50 10 3
30. (B) ( SNR) q = 176 . + 6.02( n) = 40 dB, n = 6.35 We take the n = 7. Capacity = 20 8 k 7 = 112 . Mbits = 140 Kbytes 31. (B) For slope overload to take place Em df s 2 pfm
22. (D) Amax =
23. (D) N o =
d2 B (0.0785) 2 3500 = = 1122 . 10 -4 W 3 fs 3 64000
This is satisfied with Em = 15 . V and fm = 4 kHz. 32. (C) Step size d= 2 mp L = 1536 . = 0.012 V 128
24. (C)
So 0.5 = 4.46 10 3 = N o 112 . 10 -4 So 2n L = 2n = 10 log( C2 ) N o dB This equation shows
quantization noise power S 25. (A) o L2 , No = d2 (0.012) 2 = 12 10 -6 V 2 = 12 12
= log C + 20 n log 2 = a + 6 n dB.
that increasing n by one bits increase the by 6 dB. Hence an increase in the SNR by 12 dB can be accomplished by increasing 9is form 10 to 12, the transmission bandwidth would be increased by 20%
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33. (B) Bit Rate = 8 k 8 = 64 kbps (SNR) q = 176 . + 6.02 n dB = 176 . + 6.02 8 = 49.8 dB 34. (B) fs = 1800 samples/sec, fm = 1800 = 900 Hz 2
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Since the sampling rate is 1800 samples/sec the highest frequency that can be recovered is 900 Hz. 35. (C) x( t) = sinc 700 t + sinc 500 t 1 = [sin 700 pt + sin 500 pt ] pt Thus Nyquist 1 rate is 2 fm = 700 Hz, Sampling interval = sec 700 36. (D) fs = 1 1 = = 20 kHz, T 50 10 -6 fc = 12 kHz x( t) is band limited with fm = 350 Hz,
1 + cos 300 pt 44. (D) g( t) = 10 cos 50 pt 2 = 5 cos 50 pt + 5 cos 50 pt cos 300 pt The maximum frequency component will be 150 + 25 = 175 Hz. Thus fs = 2 175 = 350 . sample per second. 45. (B) Total sample = 8000 20 = 160 k sample/sec Bit for each sample = 7 + 1 = 8 Bit Rate = 160 k 8 = 1280 10 3 bits/sec 46. (B) The sampling rate is fs = 44100 meaning that we take 44100 samples per second. Each sample is quantized using 16 bits so the total number of bits per second is 4410016. For a music piece of duration 50 min = 3000- sec the resulting number of bits per channel (left
9 9
The frequency passed through LPF are fc , fs - fm or 12 kHz, 8 kHz 37. (C) P = ( SNR)1 2 , Here n = code word length, = (SNR)2 2 2 n 1
2n 2
n1 = 61 n2 = 8,
Thus rate =
2 = 16 212
16
and
right)
is 44100 16 3000
= 2.1168 10
and the overall number of bits is
38. (D) Signal g1 ( t), g 2 ( t), g s ( t) and g 4 ( t) will have 8 k, 8 k, 16 k and 16 k sample/sec at Nyquist rate. Thus 48000 sample/sec bit rate 48000 8 = 384 kbps 39. (C) Analog signals, having bandwidth 1200 Hz, 600 Hz and 600 Hz have 2400, 1200 samples/sec at Nyquist rate. Hence 48000 sample/sec bit rate = 48000 sample/sec 12 = 57.6 kbps sin 2 p1000 t sin 2 p1000 t 40. (C) x( t) = 5 + 7 pt pt Sampling rate = 2 fm = 6 kHz 41. (B) Here fs = 32 k sample/sec 1 1 fm = = Em = 125, T 2 For slope-overload to be averted Em D Em fm fs or D
1 2 3 2
2.1168 10 2 = 4.2336 10 9 47. (C) Nyquist Rate = 2 4k = 8 kHz Total sample = 4 8 = 32 k sample/sec 256 = 28 , so that 8 bits are required Bit Rate = 32 k 8 = 256 kbps 48. (D) Nyquist Rate = 2 30 k = 60 kHz 2 n 6 Thus n = 3, Bit Rate = 60 3 = 18 kHz
49. (C) Nyquist rate= 2 4 = 8 kHz 2 n = 16 or n = 4, 50. (C) fs = 8 kHz, Bit Rate = 4 8 = 32 kbits/sec 2 n = 256 n = 8
Maximum frequency component = 3 1000 = 3 kHz
Bit Rate = 8 8k = 64 kb/x 51. (D) fs fm

1 2
So a 2 2 n , If PCM is increased form n to n + 1, No
the ratio will increase by a factor 4. Which is independent of n. 52. (C) If L = 2, then 2 = 2 n or n = 1 ND If L = 8, then 8 = 2 n or n = 3. So relative bandwidth will be tripled. 53. (B) The minimum bandwidth requirement for transmission of a binary PCM signal is BW= vW. Since v = 10, we have BW = 10 W
125( ) (128)( ) or D 2 -8 or D 3 32 10 32 1024 Nyquist Rate = 2 5 = 10 kHz
42. (D) fm = 5 kHz,
Since signal are sampled at twice the Nyquist rate so sampling rate = 2 10 = 20 kHz. Total transmission bandwidth = 4 20 = 80 kHz 43. (D) Signal will be sampled 200, 200, 400 and 800 sample/sec thus 1600 sample per second,
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CHAPTER
7.8
SPREAD SPECTRUM
Statement for Question 1-3 : A pseudo-noise (PN) sequance is generated using a feedback shift register of length m = 4. The chip rate is 10 chips per second 6. 1. The PN sequance length is (A) 10 (C) 15 2. The chip duration is (A) 1ms (C) 0.1 ms (B) 0.1 ms (D) 1 ms (B) 12 (D) 18 A slow FH/MFSK system has the following parameters. Number of bits per MFSK symbol = 4 Number of MFSK symbol per hop = 5 The processing gain of the system is (A) 13.4 dB (C) 6 dB 7. A fast FH/MFSK (B) 37.8 dB (D) 26 dB system has the following
7
5. The Antijam margin is (A) 47.5 dB (C) 86.9 dB (B) 93.8 dB (D) 12.6 dB
3. The period of PN sequance is (A) 15 . ms (C) 6.67 ns (B) 15 ms (D) 0.67 ns
parameters. Number of bits per MFSK symbol = 4 Number of pops per MFSK symbol = 4 The processing gain of the system is (A) 0 dB (B) 7 dB (D) 12 dB
Statement for Question 4-5: A direct sequence spread binary phase-shiftkeying system uses a feedback shift register of Length 19 for the generation of PN sequence . The system is required to have an average probability of symbol error due to externally generated interfering signals that does not exceed 10 -5 4. The processing gain of system is (A) 37 dB (C) 57 dB
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(C) 9 dB
Statement for Question 8-9: A rate 1/2 convolution code with dfrec = 10 is used to encode a data requeence occurring at a rate of 1 kbps. The modulation is binary PSK. The DS spread spectrum sequence has a chip rate of 10 MHz 8. The coding gain is (A) 7 dB (C) 14 dB (B) 12 dB (D) 24 dB
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(B) 43 dB (D) 93 dB
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Spread Spectrum
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Chap 7.8
9. The processing gain is (A) 14 dB (C) 58 dB (B) 37 dB (D) 104 dB
Statement for question 16-18 : A CDMA system consist of 15 equal power user that transmit information at a rate of 10 kbps, each using a DS spread spectrum signal operating at chip rate of 1 MHz. The modulation scheme is BPSK. 16. The Processing gain is (A) 0.01 (C) 0.1 17. The value of e b/J 0 is (A) 8.54 dB (B) 7.14 dB (D) 14.28 dB (C) 17.08 dB (B) 100 (D) 10
10. A total of 30 equal-power users are to share a common communication channel by CDM. Each user transmit information at a rate of 10 kbps via DS spread spectrum and binary PSK. The minimum chip rate to obtain a bit error probability of 10 (A) 1.3 106 chips/sec (C) 19 . 106 chips/sec
-5
(B) 2.9 10 5 chips/sec (D) 1.3 10 5 chips/sec
11. A CDMA system is designed based on DS spread spectrum with a processing gain of 1000 and BPSK modulation scheme. If user has equal power and the desired level of performance of an error probability of 10 -6 , the number of user will be (A) 89 (C) 147 (B) 117 (D) 216
18. How much should the processing gain be increased to allow for doubling the number of users with affecting the autopad SNR (A) 1.46 MHz (C) 4.93 MHz 19. A DS/BPSK spread (B) 2.07 MHz (D) 2.92 MHz spectrum signal has a
12. In previous question if processing gain is changed to 500, then number of users will be (A) 27 users (C) 42 users (B) 38 users (D) 45 users
processing gain of 500. If the desired error probability is 10 -5 and ( e b / J 0 ) required to obtain an error probability of 10 -5 for binary PSK is 9.5 dB, then the Jamming margin against a containers tone jammer is (A) 23.6 dB (C) 117.4 dB (B) 17.5 dB (D) 109.0 dB
Statement for Question 13-15 : A DS spread spectrum system transmit at a rate of 1 kbps in the presets of a tone jammer. The jammer power is 20 dB greater then the desired signal, and the required b / J 0 to achieve satisfactory performance is 10 dB. 13. The spreading bandwidth required to meet the specifications is (A) 10 7 Hz (C) 10 5 Hz (B) 10 3 Hz (D) 106 Hz
Statement for Question 20-21 : An m = 10 ML shift register is used to generate the pre hdarandlm sequence in a DS spread spectrum system. The chip duration is Tc = l ms and the bit duration is Tb = NTc , where N is the length (period of the m sequence). 20. The processing gain of the system is (A) 10 dB (C) 30 dB (B) 20 dB (D) 40 dB
14. If the jammer is a pulse jammer, then pulse duty cycle that results in worst case jamming is (A) 0.14 (C) 0.07 (B) 0.05 (D) 0.10
21. If the required e b/J 0 is 10 and the jammer is a tone jammer with an average power J av, then jamming margin is. (A) 10 dB (C) 30 dB
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15. The correspond probability of error is (A) 4.9 10 -3 (C) 9.4 10 -4

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(B) 6.3 10 -3 (D) 8.3 10 -3
(B) 20 dB (D) 40 dB
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Statement for Question 22-23 : An FH binary orthogonal FSK system employs an m = 15 stage liner feedback shift register that generates an ML sequence. Each state of the shift register selects one of L non over lapping frequency bands in the hopping pattern. The bit rate is 100 bits/s. The demodulator employ non coherent detection. 22. If the hop rate is one per bit, the hopping bandwidth for this channel is (A) 6.5534 MHz (C) 2.6943 MHz (B) 9.4369 MHz (D) None of the above
(A) 0.4 GHz (C) 0.7 GHz
(B) 0.6 GHz (D) 0.9 GHz
28. The probability of error for the worst-case partial band jammer is (A) 0.2996 (C) 0.0368 (B) 0.1496 (D) 0.0298
29. The minimum hop rate for a FH spread spectrum system that will prevent a jammer from operating five onives away from the receiver is (A) 3.2 bHz (C) 18.6 MHz (B) 3.2 MHz (D) 18.6 kHz
23. Suppose the hop rate is increased to 2 hops/bit and the receiver uses square law combining the signal over two hops. The hopping bandwidth for this channel is (A) 3.2767 MHz (C) 26.2136 MHz (B) 13.1068 MHz (D) 1.6384 MHz ***********
Statement for Qquestion 24-25 : In a fast FH spread spectrum system, the
information is transmitted via FSK with non coherent detection. Suppose there are N = 3 hops/bit with hard decision decoding of the signal in each hop. The channel is AWGN with power spectral density
1 2
N0 and an SNR
20-13 dB (total SNR over the three hops) 24. The probability of error for this system is (A) 0.013 (C) 0.049 (B) 0.0013 (D) 0.0049
25. In case of one hop per bit the probability of error is (A) 196 . 10 -5 (C) 2.27 10 -5 (B) 196 . 10 -7 (D) 2.27 10 -7
Statement for Question 26-29 : A slow FH binary FSK system with non coherent detection operates at e b / J 0 = 10, with hopping bandwidth of 2 GHz, and a bit rate of 10 kbps. 26. The processing gain of this system is (A) 23 dB (C) 43 dB (B) 43 dB (D) 53 dB
27. If the jammer operates as a partial band jammar, the bandwidth occupancy for worst case jamming is
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SOLUTION
1. (C) The PN sequence length is N = 2 m - 1 = 2 4 - 1 = 15 2. (B) The chip duration is 1 TC = 7 s = 0.1 ms 10 3. (A) The period of the PN sequence is T= NTC = 15 0.1 = 15 . ms 4. (C) m= 19 n= 2 m - 1 = 219 - 1 = 219 The processing gain is 10 log10 N = 10 log10 219 = 190 0.3 or 57 dB Eb 5. (A) Antijam margin = (Processing gain) - 10 log10 N 0 The probability of error is 1 Pe = erfc 2 Eb N0
W/R W/R = = b J av/Pav N u - 1 J 0 b W/R = J 0 b W = R J 0 ( N u - 1)
( N u - 1)
where R = 10 4 bps, N u = 30 and b / J 0 = 10 Therefore, W = 2.9 106 Hz The minimum chip rate is 1 / Tc = W = 2.9 106 chips/sec 11. (D) To achieve an error probability of 10 -6 , we b required J 0 = 10.5 dB dB
Then, the number of users of the CDMA system is Nu = W/R 1000 +1= + 1 = 89 users b /J 0 11.3
12. (D) If the processing gain is reduced to W/R = 500, then N u= 500 + 1 = 45 users 11.3
With Pe = 10 -5, we have Eb / N 0 = 9. Hence, Antijam margin = 57 - 10 log10 9 = 57 - 9.5 or =47.5 dB 6. (D) The precessing gain (PG) is FH Bandwidth W c PG = = 5 4 = 20 = Symbol Rate Rs Hence, expressed in decibels, PG= 10 log10 20 = 26 db 7. (D) The processing gain is PG = 4 4 = 16 Hence, in decibels, PG = 10 log10 16 = 12 dB 8. (A) The coding gain is Rcd min = 9. (B) The processing gain 10 7 W = = 5 10 3 or 37 dB R 2 10 3 10. (C) We assume that the interference is characterized as a zero-mean AWGN process with power spectral density J 0 . To achieve an error probability of 10 , the required b /J 0 = 10 we have
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-5
13. (D) We have a system where ( J av/Pav) dB = 20 dB, R = 1000 bps and (b /J 0 ) dB = 10 dB b J av W Hence, we obtain = + R dB Pav dB J 0 W = 1000 R W = 1000 R = 106 Hz 14. (C) The duty cycle of a pulse jammer of worst-case 0.71 0.7 jamming is a = = = 0.07 b /J 0 10 15. (D) The corresponding probability of error for this worst-case jamming is = 30 dB dB
1 10 = 5 or 7 dB 2
P2 =
0.083 0.083 = = 8.3 10 -3 e b/J 0 10 W 106 = = 100 R 10 4
16. (B) Precessing gain is
17. (A) We have N u = 15 users transmitting at a rate of 10,000 bps each, in a bandwidth of W = 1MHz. The e b/J 0 is. e b W/R 106 / 10 4 100 = = = 14 14 J 0 Nu - 1
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= 7.14 or 8.54 dB
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18. (B) With N u = 30 and e b/J 0 = 7.14, the processing gain should be increased to W/R= (7.14)(29) = 207 W = 207 104 = 2.07 MHz Hence the bandwidth must be increased to 2.07 MHz 19. (B) The processing gain is given as W = 500 or 27 dB R The ( e b/J 0 ) required to obtain an error probability of 10 -5 for binary PSK is 9.5 dB. Hence, the jamming margin is eb J av W = 27.95 or 17.5 dB = R - J P 0 dB av dB dB 20. (C) The period of the maximum length shift register sequence is N = 210 - 1 = 1023 Since Tb = NTc then the processing gain is T N b = 1023 or 30 dB Tc 21. (B) A Jamming margin is W J av = P av dB Rb eb = 30 - 10 = 20 dB - dB J 0 dB
6
1 P= e 2 N0 2 where e c / N 0 = 20 / 3. The probability of a bit error is Pb = 1 - (1 - p) 2 = 1 - (1 - 2 p + p2 ) = 2 p - p2 =e

ec 2 N0
ec
1 - 2 N0 e = 0.0013 2
ec
25. (C) In the case of one hop per bit, the SNR per bit is 20, Hence, Pb = 1 - 2 N 0 1 -10 e = e = 2.27 10 -5 2 2
ec
26. (D) We are given a hopping bandwidth of 2 GHz and a bit rate of 10 kbs. Hence, W 2 10 9 = = 2 10 5or 53 dB 10 4 R
27. (A) The bandwidth of the worst partial-band jammer is a* W , where a* W = 2/( e b/J 0 ) = 0.2 Hence a* W = 0.4 GHz 28. (C) The probability of error with worst-case partial-band jamming is P2 = e -1 e -1 = 3.68 10 -2 = ( e b/J 0 ) 10
29. (D) d= 5 miles = 8050 meters Dd= 2 8050 = 16100 Dd Dd= x t or t = t Dd 16100 t= = = 5.367 10 5 x 3 108 1 1 f= = = 18.63 kHz t 5.367 10 -5
where J av = J 0W J 0/Tc = J 0 10
22. (A) The length of the shift-register sequence is L = 2 m - 1215 - 1 = 32767 bits For binary FSK modulation, the minimum frequency separation is 2/T, where 1/T is the symbol (bit) rate. The hop rate is 100 hops/sec. Since the shift register has L = 32767 states and each state utilizes a bandwidth of 2/T = 200 Hz, then the total bandwidth for the FH signal is 6.5534 MHz. 23. If the hopping rate is 2 hops/bit and the bit rate is 100 bits/sec, then, the hop rate is 200 hops/sec. The minimum frequency separation for orthogonality 2/T = 400 Hz. Since there are N = 32767 states of the shift register and for each state we select one of two frequencies separated by 400 Hz, the hopping bandwidth is 13.1068 MHz. 24. (B) The total SNR for three hops is 20 ~ 13 dB. Therefore the SNR per hop is 20/3. The probability of a chip error with non-coherent detection is
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Electromagnetics
10. A field is given as G= 13 ( yu x + 3u y + xu z ) x2 + y2
16. A field is given as G = 25 ( xu x + yu y ) x2 + y2
The field at point (-2, 3, 4) is (A) 13( -2 u x + 3u y + 4 u z ) (C) 13( 3u x + 4 u y - 2 u z ) (B) -2 u x + 3u y + 4 u z (D) 3u x + 4 u y - 2 u z is
The unit vector in the direction of G at P(3, 4, -2) (A) 0.6 u x + 0. 8 u y (C) 0.6 u y + 0. 8 u z (B) 0. 8 u x + 0.6 u y (D) 0.6 u z + 0.6 u x
11. A field is given as F = yu x + zu y + xu z The angle between G and u x at point (2, 2, 0) is (A) 45 (C) 60 12. A vector field is given as G = 12 xyu x + 6( x 2 + 2) u y + 18 z 2 u z The equation of the surface M on which |G | = 60 is (A) 4 x 2 y 2 + 4 x 4 + 9 z 4 + 2 x 2 = 96 (B) 2 x 2 y 2 + x 4 + 9 z 4 + 2 x 2 = 96 (C) 2 x 2 y 2 + 4 x 4 + 9 z 4 + 2 x 2 = 96 (D) 4 x 2 y 2 + x 4 + 9 z 4 + 2 x 2 = 96 13. A vector field is given by E = 4 zy u z + 2 y sin 2 x u y + y sin 2 x u z
2 2
17. A field is given as F = xyu x + yzu y + zxu x The value of the double integral I = F u ydzdx in the plane y = 7 is
0 0 4 2
(B) 30 (D) 90
(A) 128 (C) 190
(B) 56 (D) 0
18. Two vector extending from the origin are given as R1 = 4 u x + 3u y - 2 u z and R 2 = 3u x - 4 u y - 6 u z . The area of the triangle defined by R1 and R 2 is (A) 12.47 (C) 10.87 (B) 20.15 (D) 15.46
19. The four vertices of a regular tetrahedron are located at O (0, 0, 0), A(0, 1, 0), B(0.5 (
0 .5 3
3, 0.5, 0) and C
, 0.5,
2 3
). The unit vector perpendicular (outward) to
the face ABC is (A) 0.41u x + 0.71u y + 0.29 u z (B) 0.47 u x + 0.82 u y + 0.33u z (C) -0.47 u x - 0.82 u y - 0.33u z (D) -0.41u x - 0.71u y - 0.29 u z 20. The two vector are R AM = 20 u x + 18 u y - 18 u z and R AN = - 10 u x + 8 u y + 15 u z . The unit vector in the plane of the triangle that bisects the interior angle at A is (A) 0.168 u x + 0.915 u y + 0.367 u z (B) 0.729 u x + 0.134 u y - 0.672 u z (C) 0.729 u x + 0.134 u y + 0.672 u z (D) 0.168 u x + 0.915 u y - 0.367 u z 21. Two points in cylindrical coordinates are A( r = 5, f = 70 , z = -3) and B(r = 2, f = 30 , z = 1). A unit vector at A towards B is (A) 0.03u x - 0.82 u y + 0.57 u z (B) 0.03u x + 0.82 u y + 0.57 u z (C) -0.82 u x + 0.003u y + 0.57 u z (D) 0.003u x - 0.82 u y + 0.57 u z
The surface on which E y = 0 is (A) Plane y = 0 (C) Plane x = 3p 2 (B) Plane x = 0 (D) all
14. The vector field E is given by E = 6 zy 2 cos 2 x u x + 4 xy sin 2 x u y + y 2 sin 2 x u z The region in which E = 0 is (A) y = 0 (C) z = 0 (B) x = 0 np (D) x = 2
15. Two vector fields are F = -10 u x + 20 x( y - 1) u y and G = 2 x 2 yu x - 4 u y + 2 u z . At point A(2, 3, -4) a unit vector in the direction of F - G is (A) 0.18 u x + 0.98 u y - 0.05 u z (B) -0.18 u x - 0.98 u y + 0.05 u z (C) -0.37 u x + 0.92 u y + 0.02 u z (D) 0.37 u x - 0.92 u y - 0.02 u z
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Chap 8.1
22. A field in cartesian form is given as D = xu x + yu y x +y

2 2
29. The vector B= 10 u r + r cos q u q + u f r (B) - 2 u x + u y (D) -2.72 u x + 1.36 u x
In cylindrical form it will be u u uf (B) D = r + (A) D = r r r cos f (C) D = ru r (D) D = ru r + cos f u f
in cartesian coordinates at (-3, 4, 0) is (A) u x - 2 u y (C) 1.36 u x + 2.72 u y
30. The two point have been given A (20, 30 , 45 ) and B ( 30, 115 , 160 ). The |R AB | is (A) 22.2 (C) 11.1 (B) 44.4 (D) 33.3
23. A vector extends from A(r = 4, f = 40 , z = -2) to B( r = 5, f = -110 , z = 1). The vector R AB is (A) 4.77 u x + 7.30 u y + 4 u z (B) -4.77 u x - 7.30 u y + 4 u z (C) -7.30 u x - 4.77 u y + 4 u z (D) 7.30 u x + 4.77 u y + 4 u z 24. The surface r = 3, r = 5, f = 100 , f = 130 , z = 3 and z = 4.5 define a closed surface. The enclosed volume is (A) 480 (C) 360 (B) 5.46 (D) 6.28
31. The surface r = 2 and 4, q = 30 and 60 , f = 20 and 80 identify a closed surface. The enclosed volume is (A) 11.45 (C) 6.14 (B) 7.15 (D) 8.26
32. The surface r = 2 and 4, q = 30 and 50 and f = 20 and 60 identify a closed surface. The total area of the enclosing surface is (A) 6.31 (C) 25.22 (B) 18.91 (D) 12.61
25. The surface r = 2, r = 4, f = 45 , f = 135 , z = 3 and z = 4 define a closed surface. The total area of the enclosing surface is (A) 34.29 (C) 32.27 (B) 20.7 (D) 16.4
33. At point P(r = 4, q = 0.2 p , f = 0.8 p), u r in cartesian component is (A) 0.48 u x + 0.35 u y + 0.81u z (B) 0.48 u x - 0.35 u y - 0.81u z (C) -0.48 u x + 0.35 u y + 0.81u z (D) 0.48 u x - 0.35 u y - 0.81u z 34. The expression for u y in spherical coordinates at P( r = 4, q = 0.2 p, f = 0.8 p) is (A) 0.48 u r + 0.35 u q - 0.81u f (B) 0.35 u r + 0.48 u q - 0.81u f (C) -0.48 u r + 0.35 u q - 0.81u f (D) -0.35 u r + 0.48 u q - 0.81u f 35. Given a vector field D = r sin f u r 1 sin q cos f u q + r 2 u f r
26. The surface r = 3, r = 5, f = 100 , f = 130 , z = 3 and z = 4.5 define a closed volume. The length of the longest straight line that lies entirely within the volume is (A) 3.21 (C) 4.26 27. A vector field H is f H = rz 2 sin f u r + e - z sin u f + r 3u z 2 p At point 2, , 0 the value of H u x is 3 (A) 0.25 (C) -0.433 (B) 0.433 (D) -0.25 (B) 3.13 (D) 4.21
28. A vector is A = yu x + ( x + z) u y. At point P(-2, 6, 3) A in cylindrical coordinate is (A) -0.949 u r - 6.008 u f (C) -6.008 u r - 0.949 u f
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The component of D tangential to the spherical surface r = 10 at P(10, 150, 330) is

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(A) 0 .043u q + 100 u f (B) -0 .043u q - 100 u f (C) 110 u q + 0.043u f (D) 0 .043u q - 100 u f 36. The circulation of F = x 2 u x - xzu y - y 2 u z around the path shown in fig. P8.1.36 is
z 1
40. The gradient of the functionG = r 3 sin 2 q sin 2 f sin q at point P ( 1 , 2

1 2
1 2
) is (B) u x + u y + u z (D) All derivative of function
(A) 1.41u r + 3u z (C) 3.46 u r + 9.3u q 41. The directional
F = xy + yz + zx at point P(3, -3, - 3) in the direction toward point Q(4, -1, -1) is (A) -3 (C) -2 (B) 1 (D) 0
42. The temperature in a auditorium is given by T = 2 x 2 + y 2 - 2 z 2 . A mosquito located at (2, 2, 1) in the

y 1 x 1
auditorium desires to fly in such a direction that it will get warm as soon as possible. The direction, in that it must fly is
Fig. P8.1.36
(A) 8 u x + 8 u y - 4 u z 1 6 1 3 (B) 2 u x + 2 u y - u z (C) 4 u x + 4 u y - 4 u z (D) -(2 u x + 2 u y - u z ) 43. The angle between the normal to the surface x2 y + z = 3 (A) 73.4 (C) 16.6
L
(A) (C) -
1 3 1 6
(B) (D)
37. The circulation of A = r cos f u r + z sin f u z around the edge L of the wedge shown in Fig. P8.1.37 is
y
and
x ln z - y 2 = -4
at
the
point
of
intersection (-1, 2, 1) is (B) 36.3 (D) 53.7
44. The divergence of vector A = yzu x + 4 xyu y + yu z at

60 0
o
x 2
point P(1, -2, 3) is (A) 2 (C) 0 45. (A) 2.6 (C) 4.5 The divergence
1 2
(B) -2 (D) 4 of (B) 1.5 (D) -4.5 the vector
Fig. P8.1.37
(A) 1 (C) 0
(B) -1 (D) 3
38. The gradient of field f = y 2 x + xyz is (A) y( y + z) u x + x(2 y + z) u y + xyu z (B) y(2 x + z) u x + x( x + z) u y + xyu z (C) y 2 u x + 2 yxu y + xyu z (D) y(2 y + z) u x + x(2 y + z) u y + xyu z 39. The gradient of the field f = r z cos 2 f at point
2
A = 2 r cos q cos f u r + r u f at point P(1, 30, 60) is
46. The divergence of the vector A = rz 2 cos f u r + z sin 2 f u z is (A) 2rz 2 cos f u r + sin 2 f u z (B) 2rz 2 cos f u r + sin 2 f u z (C) 2 z 2 cos f u r + sin 2 f u z (D) z sin 2
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(1, 45 , 2) is (A) 4 u f (C) -4 u f

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(B) 4 2 u f (D) -4 2 u f
f u r + 2rz cos f u f + z 2 sin f u z r

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47. The flux of D = r 2 cos 2 f u r + 3 sin f u f over the closed surface of the cylinder 0 z < 3, (A) 324 (C) 81 (B) 81p (D) 64p r = 3 is
54. If V = x 2 y 2 z 2 , the laplacian of the field V is (A) 2( xy 2 + yz 2 + zx 2 ) (B) 2( x 2 y 2 + y 2 z 2 + z 2 x 2 ) (C) ( x 2 y 2 + y 2 z 2 + z 2 x 2 ) (D) 0 55. The value of 2 V at point P(3, 60, -2) is if V = r 2 z(cos f + sin f) (A) -8.2 (C) -12.3 (B) 12.3 (D) 0
48. The curl of vector A = e xyu x + sin xy u y + cos 2 xz u z is (A) y e xyu x + x cos xy u y - 2 x sin 2 xz u z (B) z sin 2 xy u y + ( y cos xy - xe xy) u z (C) z sin 2 xy u y + ( x cos xy - xe xy) u z (D) xy e xyu x + xy cos xy u y - 2 xz sin 2 xz u z 49. The curl of vector field A = rz sin f u r + 3rz 2 cos f u r at point (5, 90, 1) is (A) 0 (C) 6 u r (B) 12 u q (D) 5 u f
56. If the scalar field V = r 2 (1 + cos q sin f) then 2 V is (A) 1 + 2(1 - r 2 ) cos q sin f (B) 6 + 4 cos q sin f - cot q cosec q sin f (C) 2 + 2(1 - r 2 ) cos q sin f (D) 0 57. ln r is equal to (A) ( fu z ) (C) (ru f) (B) ( zu f) (D) (ru z )
50. The curl of vector field 1 A = r cos q u r - sin q u q + 2 r 2 sin q u f is r 1 (A) cos q u r - cos q u q r 1 (B) 2 r 2 cos q u r - 4 r sin q u q + 2 sin q - r sin q u f r (C) 4 r cos q u r - 6 r sin q u q + sin q u f (D) 0 51. If A = ( 3 y 2 - 2 z) u x - 2 x 2 z u y + ( x + 2 y) u z , the value of A at P(-2, 3, -1) is (A) -( 6 u x + 4 u y) (C) -8( u x + u y) (B) 8 ( u x + u y) (D) 0
58. If r = xu x + yu y + zu x then ( r ) r 2 is equal to (A) 2 r 2 (C) 4 r 2 (B) 3r 2 (D) 0
59. If r = xu x + yu y + zu x is the position vector of point P( x, y, z) and r =|r | then r n r is equal to (A) nr n (C) ( n + 2) r n (B) ( n + 3) r n (D) 0
52. The grad A of a vector field A = x 2 yu x + y 2 zu y - 2 xzu z is (A) 2 xy + 2 yz - 2 x (B) x 2 y + y 2 z - 2 xz (C) 2 x 2 y + 2 y 2 z - 2 xz (D) 0 53. If V = xy - x 2 y + y 2 z 2 , the value of the div grad V is (A) 0 (B) z + x 2 + 2 y 2 z (C) 2 y( z 2 - yz - x) (D) 2( z - y - y)
2 2
60. If F = x 2 yu x - yu y, the circulation of vector field F around closed path shown in fig. P8.1.60 is,
y 1
Fig. P8.1.60
(A) (C)
7 3 7 6
(B) (D) -
7 6 7 3
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61. If A = r sin f u r + r 2 u r , and L is the contour of fig. P8.1.61, then circulation
A. dL is
L
SOLUTIONS
1. (D) d = ( x1 - x2 ) 2 + ( y1 - y2 ) 2 + ( z1 - z 2 ) 2 = ( 4 - 2) 2 + ( -6 - 3) 2 + ( 3 - ( -1)) 2 = 4 + 81 + 16 = 101 2. (A) R AB = R B - R A = ( 3u x + 0 u y + 2 u z ) - (5 u x - u y + 0 u z )
2 1 L
-2
-1
= -2 u x + u y + 2 u z
Fig. P8.1.61
|R AB | =
uR = -
22 + 1 + 22 = 3 2 1 2 ux + u y + uz 3 3 3
(A) 7 p + 2 (C) 7 p
(B) 7 p - 2 (D) 0
62. The surface integral of vector F = 2r 2 z 2 u r + r cos 2 f u z over the region defined by 2 r 5, -1 < z < 1, 0 < f < 2 p is (A) 44 (C) 88 (B) 176 (D) 352
3. (C) The component of F parallel to G is = F G (10, - 6, 5) (0.1, 0.2, 0.3) G = (0.1, 0.2, 0.3) 2 G 0.12 + 0.2 2 + 0.32
= 9.3(0.1, 0.2, 0.3) = (0.93, 1.86, 2.79) 4. (C) The vector component of F perpendicular to G is F G ( 3, 2, 1) ( 4, 4, - 2) =F G = ( 3, 2, 1) ( 4, 4, - 2) G2 42 + 42 + 22 = (3, 2, 1)- (2, 2, - 1) = (1, 0, 2) = u x + 2 u z 5. (C) R = 3u x + 4 M - N = 3u x + 4(2 u x + 3u y - 4 u z ) -( -4 u x + 4 u y + 3u z ) = 15 u x + 8 u y - 19 u z
is, where S is the surface of the cube defined by 0 x 1, 0 y 1, 0 z 1 (A) 0.5 (C) 0 (B) 3 (D) 1.5
63. If D = xyu x + yzu y + zxu z , then the value of A dS
64. If D = 2rzu r + 3z sin f u r - 4r cos f u z and S is the surface of the wedge 0 < r < 2, q < f < 45 , 0 < z < 5, then the surface integral of D is (A) 24.89 (C) 63.26 65. If the vector field F = ( axy + bz 3) u x + ( 3 x 2 - gz) u y + ( 3 xz 2 - y) u z is irrotational, the value of a , b and g is (A) a = b = g = 1 (C) a = 0, b = g =1 (B) a = b = 1, g = 0 (D) a = b = g = 0
**************
|R| =
15 2 + 8 2 + 19 2 = 25.5 = 25.5
6. (B) R = - M + 2N (B) 131.57 (D) 0 = - ( 8 u x + 4 u y - 8 u z ) + 2( 8 u x + 6 u y - 2 u z ) = 8u x + 8u y + 4u z 8u x + 8u y + 4u z uR = 82 + 82 + 42 = 2 2 1 2 2 1 ux + u y + uz = , , 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 1 = , , 3 3 3 8 +8 +4 ( 8, 8, 4)

2 2 2
-M + 2N = -( 8, 4, - 8) + 2( 8, 6, - 2) = (8, 8, 4) uR = uR =
2 2 1 ux + u y + uz 3 3 3
1 + 7 -6 - 2 4 + 0 7. (C) Mid point is , , = (4, -4, 2) 2 2 2` uR =

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2 2 2
2 1 2 = , - , 3 3 3
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Chap 8.1
2 2 1 ux - u y + uz 3 3 3
8. (A) G = 24(1)(2) u x + 12(1 + 2) u y + 18( -1) 2 u z = 48 u x + 36 u y + 18 u z 2 1 2 9. (A) A = ( 6, - 2, - 4), B = k , - , 3 3 3 |B - A |= 10 2 2 1 6 - k + -2 + k + -4 - k = 100 3 3 3 k2 - 8 k - 44 = 0 k = 1175 . , 2 1 2 B = 1175 . ,- , 3 3 3 = (7.83, -7.83, -3.92) 13 10. (D) G = ( 3u x + 4 u y - 2 u z ) 2 ( -2) + ( 3) 2 = 3u x + 4 u y - 2 u z 11. (A) Let q be the angle between F and u x , Magnitude of F is |F|= y + z + x
2 2 2 2 2 2
= -34 u x + 84 u y - 2 u z -34 u x + 84 u y - u z uR = 34 2 + 84 2 + 2 2 = - 0.37 u x + 0.92 u y - 0.02 u z 16. (A) At P(3, 4, -2) 25 G= 2 ( 3u x + 4 u y) = 3u x + 4 u y 3 + 42 3u x + 4 u y = 0.6 u x + 0.8 u y uG = 32 + 4 2 17. (B) F u y = Fy = yz I=
yzdzdx =
0 0
4 2
2 yzdz 00
4
4 dx = 2 ydx = 2( 4) y = 8 y 0
At y = 7, I = 8(7) = 56 u x u y u z 1 1 18. (B) Area = R1 R 2 = 4 3 -2 2 2 3 -4 -6 = u x ( -18 - 8) - u y( -24 + 6) + u z ( -16 - 9) = -26 u x + 18 u y - 25 u z R1 R 2 = 26 2 + 18 2 + 25 2 = 40.31 2 2 +2

2 2
F u x = (F)(1) cos q = y y cos q = = 2 y + z 2 + x2 q = 45 12. (D) |G|= 60
1 2
area =
40.31 = 20.15 2
19. (B) R BA = (0, 1, 0) - (0.5 3 , 0.5, 0) = ( -0.5 3 , 0.5, 0) 0.5 R BC = 3 , 0.5, 2 3 - (0.5 3 , 0.5, 0) uz 0 2 3 1 = - 3 , 0, 2 3
(12 xy) 2 + ( 6( x 2 + 2)) 2 + (18 z 2 ) 2 = 60 144 x 2 y 2 + 36( x 4 + 4 x 2 + 4) + 324 z 4 = 3600 4 x y + ( x + 4 x + 4) + 9 z = 100

2 2 4 2 4
4 x 2 y 2 + x 4 + 9 z 4 + 4 x 2 = 96 y =0
R BA R BC
13. (D) For E y = 0, 2 y sin 2 x = 0 sin 2 x = 0, 2 x = 0, p , 3p ,
uy ux = 0.5 3 0.5 1 0 3
3p x = 0, 2
= u x 0.5
2 0.5 - u y (0.5 2 ) + u z 3 3
= 0.41u x - 0.71u y + 0.29 u z The required unit vector is 0.41u x + 0.71u y + 0.29 u z = 0.412 + 0.712 + 0.29 2 = 0.47 u x + 0.81u y + 0.33u z 20. (A) The non-unit vector in the required direction is 1 = ( u AN + u AM ) 2 ( -10, 8, 15) u AN = = ( -0.507, 0.406, 0.761) 100 + 64 + 225
Hence (D) is correct. 14. (A) E = y( 6 zy cos 2 x u x + 4 x sin 2 x u y + y sin 2 x u z ) Hence in plane y = 0, 15. (C) R = F - G = ( -10 u x + 20 x( y - 1) u y) - (2 x 2 yu x - 4 u y + 2 u z ) At P(2, 3, - 4) , R = F - G = ( -10 u x + 80 u y) - (24 u x - 4 u y + 2 u z )
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u AM =
(20, 18, - 10) 400 + 324 + 100
= (0.697, 0.627, -0.348)
26. (A) A(r = 3, f = 100 , z = 3) = A( -0.52, 2.95, 3) B(r = 5, f = 130 , z = 4.5) = B( -321 . , 3.83, 4.5) length = |B - A| B - A = ( -321 . , 3.83, 4.5) - ( -0.52, 2.95, 3) = ( -2.69, 0.88, 15 . )
1 ( u AM + u AN ) 2 1 = [(0.697, 0.627, - 0.348) + ( -0.507, 0.406, 0.761) ] 2 = (0.095, 0.516, 0.207) (0.095, 0.516, 0.207) = (0.168, 0.915, 0.367) u bis = 0.095 2 + 0.516 2 + 0.2612 Hence (A) is correct. 21. (D) In cartesian coordinates A (5 cos 70 , 5 sin 70 , - 3) = A(171 . , 4.70, - 3) B (2 cos ( -30 ), 2 sin ( -30 ), - 3) = B(173 . , - 1, 1) R AB = R B - R A = (173 . , - 1, 1) - (171 . , 4.70, - 3) = (0.02, - 5.70, 4) (0.02, - 5.70, 4) = (0.003, -0.82, 0.57) u AB = 0.02 2 + 5.70 2 + 4 2 22. (A) x = r cos f , y = r sin f
|B - A| = |( -2.69,
0.88, 15 . )| = 2.69 2 + 0.88 2 + 15 . 2 = 3.21
p 27. (C) At P 2, , 0 , H = 0.5 u f + 8 u z 3 u x = cos f u r - sin f u f = 1 ( u r - 3u f) 2
3 H u x = (0.5) - 2 = -0.433 Ar cos f sin f 0 Ax 28. (A) Af = - sin f cos f 0 A y 0 1 0 Az Az At P (-2, 6, 3) 6 A = 6 u x + u y , f = tan -1 = 108.43 -2 cos f = - 0.316, sin f = 0.948 0.948 0 6 Ar -0.316 A = -0.948 -0.316 0 1 f 0 1 0 0 Az Ar = 6 ( -0.316) + 0.948 = -0.949, Af = 6( -0.948) - 0.316 = -6.008, Az = 0 Hence (A) is correct option. 29.(B) At P (-3, 4, 0) r = x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 32 + 4 2 + 0 2 = 5 q = tan -1 f = tan -1 x2 + y2 p = z 2 y 4 = tan -1 = 126.87 x -3
r cos f u x + r sin f u y 1 D= 2 = (cos f u x + sin f u y) r cos 2 f + r 2 sin 2 f r 1 Dr = D u r = [cos f ( u x u r) + sin f ( u y u r)] r = 1 1 [cos 2 f + sin 2 f] = r r 1 [cos f ( u x u f) + sin f ( u y uf)] r
Df = D u f = =
1 [cos f ( - sin f) + sin f (cos f)] = 0 r 1 ur r
Therefore D =
23. (B) A( 4 cos 40 , 4 sin 40 , - 2) = A( 306 . , 2.57, - 2) B (5 cos ( -110 ), 5 sin ( -110 ), 2) = B ( -171 . , - 4.7, 2) R AB = R B - R A = ( -171 . , - 4.7, 2) - ( 306 . , 2.57, - 2) = ( -4.77, - 7.3, 4) 24. (D) Vol =
4 .5 130 5
B = 2u r + u f = 6.28 Bx sin q cos f cos q cos f - sin q Br B = sin q sin f cos q cos f cos f B y q cos q sin q B 1 Bf z -0.6 0 -0.8 2 = 0.8 0 -0.6 0 -1 0 0 1 Bx = 2( -0.6) + 0.8 = -2 B y = 2(0.2) - 0.6 = 1 Bz = 0
rdrdfdz
3 100 3
25. (C) Area is =2

135 4
45 2 2
rdrdf +
4
4 135
3 45
2 dfdz +
4 dfdz + 2 drdz
3 45 3 2
4 135
4 4
r p p = 2 + (2)(1) = 32.27 2 2 2 2
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Along 3,
C3 = r cos f dr
0
=
f=60
r2 = -1 2
44. (D) A =
Ax A y Az =0 + 4x + 0 + + x y z
A dL
L
= C1 + C2 + C3 = 1
At P (1, -2, 3), A = 4 45. (A)
38. (A) f = u x
f f f + uy + uz x y z
A =
1 (r 2 Ar ) 1 (sin q Aq) 1 (sin q Af) + + r2 r sin q r sin q f r q
= y( y + z) u x + x(2 y + z) u y + xyu z 39. (C) f = u r f 1 f f + uf + uz x r y z
1 ( 6 r 2 cos q cos f) + 0 + 0 r2
At P (1, 30, 60), A = 6(1)(cos 30 )(cos 60 ) = 2.6 46. (C) A = = 1 (rAr) 1 ( Af) ( Az ) + + r r r q z
= 2 r 2 z cos 2 f u r - 2rz sin 2 f u f + r 2 cos 2 f u z At P (1, 45, 2), f = - 4 u f 40. (B) r sin q cos f = x , r sin q sin f = y , r cos q = z G = r 3 sin 2 q sin 2 f sin q = r 3(2 sin q cos q)(2 sin f cos f) sin q = 4( r sin q cos f)( r sin q sin f)( r cos q) = 4 xyz ( 4 xyz) ( 4 xyz) ( 4 xyz) G = u x + uy + uz x x z = 4 yzu x + 4 xzu y + 4 xyu z 1 1 1 At P , , , G = u x + u y + u z 2 2 2 41. (C) F = ( y + z) u x + ( x + z) u y + ( x + y) u z At P(3, -3, - 3), F = -6 u x , R PQ = ( 4, - 1, - 1) - ( 3, - 3, - 3) = (1, 2, 2) F u R = ( -6 u x ) ( u x + 2 u y + 2 u z ) 3 = -2
1 (rrz 2 cos f) ( z sin 2 f) = 2 z 2 cos f + sin 2 f + r r z By divergence theorem
47. (B) The flux is D dS ,

S
D dS
S
D dv
v
D =
1 (rr 2 cos 2 f) 1 ( z sin f) 3 + = 3r cos 2 f + sin f r r r r r

2
D dv = 3r cos
v v 3 3 2p 0 0 0
f+
z sin r
3
f rdfdzdr
3 2p
= dz zr 2 dr cos 2 f df + zdz dr sin f df = 81p

0 0 0
42. (C) T = u x
T T T + uy + uz x y z
u x 48. (B) A = x Ax
uy y Ay
u z u x uy uz = z x y z xy Az sin xy cos 2 xz e
u x (0 - 0) - u y(2 cos xz ( - sin xz) z) + u z ( y cos xy - xexy) = z sin 2 xy u y + ( y cos xy - xe xy) u z u r 1 49. (D) A = r r Ar uf uz f z Af Az
= 2 xu x + 2 yu z - 4 z u z At P(2, 2, 1), T = 4 u x + 4 u y - 4 u z 43. (A) Let f = x 2 y + z - 3, g = x ln z - y 2 + 4 f = 2 xyu x + x 2 u y + u z g = ln z u x - 2 yu y + At point P (-1, 2, 1) uf = -4 u x + u y + u z 18 , ug = -5 18 17 -4 u y - u z 17 = 0.286 x uz z
ur uf uz 1 = r r f z 2 2 rz sin f 2r z cos f 0
= 1 1 u r (-6r 2 z cos f) - u f (-r sin f) u z (6rz 2 cos f - rz cos f) r r
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cos q = u f u g = q = cos 0.28 = 73.4

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-1
At point P(5, 90, 1), A = 5 u f

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Chap 8.1
u r 1 50. (C) A = 2 r sin q r Ar
ru q q rAq
r sin qu f f r sin q Af
56.(B)
2 V = 2 V 1 2 V 1 V 1 r + 2 sin q + 2 2 2 r r r r sin q q q r sin q f2
ur ru q r sin q u f 1 = 2 r sin q r q f 3 2 r cos q - sin q 2 r sin q

= 1 r 2 sin q u r ( 2r 3 sin q - 0) 1 1 u q ( 6r 2 sin 2 q - 0) + u f ( 0 + r sin q) r sin q r
= 6(1 + cos q sin f) -
2 sin q cos q sin f cos q sin f sin q sin 2 q
= 6 + 4 cos q sin f - cot q cosec q sin f 57. (A) r = x 2 + y 2 ln r = u x ln r ln r ln r x y + uy + uz = 2 ux + 2 u y r r x y z u x y uz = x x 0 uy y 0 uz z tan -1 y x
= 4 r cos q u r - 6 r sin q u q + sin q u f ux uy uz 51. (A) A = x y z 2 2 ( 3 y - 2 z) ( -2 x z) ( x + 2 y) = u x (2 + 2 x 2 ) - u y(1 - ( -2)) + u z ( -4 xz - 6 y) A = (2 ux uy x y + 2 x2 ) 3 uz z -( 4 xz + 6 y)
f u z = tan -1
x y x y ux + 2 u y = ux + u y 2 2 r r x +y x +y
2
= u x ( -6) - u y( -4 z) + u z (0) = -6 u x + 4 zu y At P(-2, 3, -1), A = -6 u x - 4 u y = -( 6 u x + 4 u y) ux 52. (D) A = x 2 x y = - y 2 u x + 2 zu y - x 2 u z ( A) = 0 V V V 53. (D) V = u x + uy + uz x y z = ( z - 2 xy) u x + (2 yz - x ) u y + ( x - 2 y z) u z

2 2 2
2 2 2 58. (A) ( r ) r 2 = x x + y y + z z ( x + y + z ) = x(2 x) + y(2 y) + z(2 z) = 2( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) = 2 r 2 59. (B) r n r = ( xr n ) ( yr n ) ( zr n ) + + x y z

n
uy y y2 z
uz z -2 xz
where r n = ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) 2
-1 n r n r = 2 x 2 ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) 2 2 -1 -1 n n + 2 y 2 ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) 2 + 2 z 2 ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) 2 2 2 n n n
+ rn + rn + rn
n
= n( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 )( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) 2
2
-1
+ 3r n
(V ) =
( z - 2 xy) (2 yz - x ) ( x - 2 y z) + + x y z
2 2 2 2 2 2
= nr n + 3r n = ( n + 3) r n 60. (C) By Stokes theorem F dL =

L
= -2 y + 2 z - 2 y = 2( z - y - y) 2V 2V 2V 54. (B) 2 V = + + x 2 y 2 z 2 = 2( y z + x z + x y ) = 2( x y + y z + z x )
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
( F) dS
S
F = -x uz
2
dS = dxdy ( -u z )
( F) dS = - ( - x ) dxdy
2 S 1 x
55. (A) V = r
2
V r r
1 2V 2V + r 2 f2 + z 2
x dydx + x dydx
2 2 0 0 1 0 1 2
2 -x + 2
x dx + x (2 - x) dx
3 2 0 1
= 4 z(cos f + sin f) - z(cos f + sin f) + 0 = 3z(cos f + sin f) 1 3 At P(3, 60, -2), 2 V = 3( -2) 2 + 2 = -8.2
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x4 1 2 = + x3 - x4 4 3 4 1 0 =
1 16 1 7 2 1 1 14 + - 4 - - = + -4+ = 4 3 4 6 3 3 4 4
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Electromagnetics
61. (C)
A dL =
C
ab
bc
+
y
cd
da
A dL
D dS = ( D)dv
S v
D dS =
L
2 1
3z 4 z + r cos f rdrdfdz
45 2 5 45
= 4 rdr
0
zdz df + 3 dr zdz cos f df

0 0 0 0 0
4 25 p 25 1 = 4 . = 13157 + 3(2) 2 2 4 2 2
x
-2
-1
Fig. S8.1.61
Along ab, df = 0, A dL = 0,
f = 0, =0 A dL = r 3df = (2) 3 p = 8 p f = p, A dL = 0,
A dL
a
ux 65. (A) F = x a x bz 2 +
uy y 3 x 2 - gz
uz z 3 xz 2 -
= ( -1 + g) u x + ( 3bz 2 - 3z 2 ) u y + ( 6 x - ax) u z If F is irrotational, F = 0 i.e. a = 1 = b = g.
Along bc, dr = 0,
A dL
b
r df
3 0
Along cd, df = 0,
A dL
c
=0 A dL = r 3df
*******
Along da, dr = 0,
A dL
d
= r 3 df = (1) 3( -p) = - p
p
A dL = 0 + 8 p + 0 - p = 7 p
62. (B) Using divergence theorem
F dS
F =
Fdv
1 (2r 2 z 2 ) = 4 z 2 = 4 z 2 r r
1 2 2
F dv = 4 z rdrdfdz = 4 z
v -1
dz rdr df = 176
2 0
2p
63. (D) A =
A dS = ( A)dv
S v
( xy) ( yz) ( zx) + + x =y+z+ x x y z

1 1 1
A dS =
S 0 0 0
( y + z + x) dxdydz
1 = 3 xdx 0
1 1 dy dz . = 15 = 3 2 0 0 1
64. (B) D = = 4z +
Page 468
1 (rDr) 1 ( Df) ( Dz ) + + r r r q z
3 z cos f r
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CHAPTER
8.2
ELECTROSTATICS
1. Let Q1 = 4 mC be located at P1 (3, 11, 8) while (B) 4.32 u x + 5.76 u y N (D) 4.32 u x + 5.76 u y mN 6. A 2 mC point charge is located at A (4, 3, 5) in free space. The electric field at P(8, 12, 2) is (A) 131.1u r + 159.7 u f - 49.4 u z (B) 159.7 u r + 27.4 u f - 49.4 u z (C) 1311 . u r + 27.4 u f - 49.4 u z (D) 159.7 u r + 137.1u f - 49.4 u z 7. A point charge of -10 nC is located at P1 (0, 0, 0.5) and a charge of 2 m C at the origin. The E at P(0, 2, 1) is (A) 68.83u r + 14.85 u f (C) 68.83u r - 14.85 u f (B) 68.83u r + 64.01u f (D) 68.83u r - 64.01u f
Q2 = -5 m C is at P2 (6, 15, 8). The force F2 on Q2 will be (A) -( 4.32 u x + 5.76 u y) N (C) -( 4.32 u x + 5.76 u y) mN
2. Four 5 nC positive charge are located in the z = 0 plane at the corners of a square 8 mm on a side. A fifth 5 nC positive charge is located at a point 8 mm distant from each of the other charge. The magnitude of the total force on this fifth charge is (A) 2 10 -4 N (C) 0.014 N (B) 4 10 -4 N (D) 0.01 N
3. Four 40 nC are located at A(1, 0, 0), B(-1, 0, 0), C(0, 1, 0) and D(0, -1, 0) in free space. The total force on the charge at A is (A) 24.6u x mN (C) -13.6u x mN (B) -24.6u x mN (D) 13.76u x mN
8. Charges of 20 nC and -20nC are located at (3, 0, 0) and (-3, 0, 0) and (-3, 0, 0), respectively. The magnitude of E at y axis is (A) (C) 1080 (9 + y 2 ) 3 2 108 (9 + y 2 ) 3 2 (B) (D) 1080 (9 + y 2 ) 3 108 (9 + y 2 ) 3
4. Let a point charge 41 nC be located at P1 (4, -2, 7) and a charge 45 nC be at P2 (3, 4, 2). The electric field E at P3(1, 2, 3) will be (A) 0.13u x + 0.33u y + 0.12 u z (B) -0.13u x - 0.33u y - 0.12 u z (C) 115 . u x + 2.93u y + 109 . uz (D) -115 . u x - 2.93u y - 109 . uz 5. Let a point charge 25 nC be located at P1 (4, -2, 7) and a charge 60 nC be at P2 (-3, 4, -2). The point, at which on the y axis, is Ex = 0, is (A) -7.46 (C) -6.89 (B) -22.11 (D) (B) and (C)
9. A charge Q0 located at the origin in free space produces a field for which E2 = 1 kV m at point P(2, 2, 1). The charge Q0 is (A) 2 m C (C) 3 m C (B) -3 m C (D) -2 m C
10. The volume charge density r n = r oe -|x|-| y|-|z| exist over all free space. The total charge present is (A) 2r o (C) 8r o (B) 4r o (D) 3r o
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Electromagnetics
11. A uniform volume charge density of 0.2 mC m 2 is present throughout the spherical shell extending from r = 3 cm to r = 5 cm. If r = 0 elsewhere, the total charge present throughout the shell will be (A) 41.05 pC (C) 82.1 pC 12. If r v =
1 z 2 + 10
18. Two identical uniform charges with r l = 80 nC m are located in free space at x = 0, y = 3 m. The force per unit length acting on the line at positive y arising from the charge at negative y is (A) 9.375u y mN (C) 19.17u y mN (B) 37.5u y mN (D) 75u y mN
(B) 257.92 pC (D) 129.0 pC 5 e -0 .1 r( p|f |) mC m 3 in the region
0 r 10, -p < f < p and all z, and r v = 0 elsewhere, the total charge present is (A) 1.29 mC (C) 0.645 mC (B) 2.58 mC (D) 0
19. A uniform surface charge density of 10 nC m 2 is present in the region x = 0, - 2 < y < 2 and all z if e = e o , the electric field at P(3, 0, 0) has (A) x component only (B) y component only (C) x and y component (D) x, y and z component 20. The surface charge density is r s = 5 nC m 2 , in the region r < 0.2 , z = 0, and is zero elsewhere. The electric field E at A(r = 0, z = 0.5) is (A) 5.4 V m (B) 10.1 V m (D) 20.2 V m
13. The region in which 4 < r < 5, 0 < q < 25 , and 0.9 p < f < 11 . p contains the volume charge density of r v = 10 ( r - 4) ( r - 5) sin q sin . Outside the region, r v = 0. The charge within the region is (A) 0.57 C (C) 0.46 C (B) 0.68 C (D) 0.23 C
f 2
14. A uniform line charge of 5 nC m is located along the line defined by y = -2, z = 5. The electric field E at P(1, 2, 3) is (A) -9 u y + 4.5 u z (C) -18 u y + 9 u z (B) 9 u y - 4.5 u z (D) 18 u y - 9 u z
(C) 10.5 V m
21. Three infinite charge sheet are positioned as follows: 10 nC m 2 at x = -3, - 40 nC m 2 at y = 4 and 50 nC m 2 at z = 2. The E at (4, 3, -2) is (A) 0.56 u x + 2.23u y - 2.8 u z kV m (B) 0.56 u x - 2.23u y + 2.8 u z kV m (C) 0.56 u x + 2.23u y + 2.8 u z kV m (D) -0.56 u x - 2.23u y + 2.8 u z kV m 22. Let E = 5 x 3u x - 15 x 2 yu y . The equation of the 128 x3 64 x2 (B) x = (D) x = 128 y3 64 y2
15. A uniform line charge of 6.25 nC m is located along the line defined by y = -2, z = 5. The E at that point in the z = 0 plane where the direction of E is given by
1 3
(A) 4.5 u y + 9 u z
uy - 2 u z ), is 3
(B) 4.5 u y - 9 u z (D) 18 u y - 36 u z
(C) 9 u y - 18 u z
stream line that passes through P(4, 2, 1) is (A) y =
16. Uniform line charge of 20 nC m and -20 nC m are located in the x = 0 plane at y = 3 (A) -24 u y V m (C) -48 u y V m and y = -3 m respectively. The E at P(6, 0, 6) will be (B) 48 u y V m (D) 24 u y V m
(C) y =
23. A point charge 10 nC is located at origin. Four uniform line charge are located in the x = 0 plane as follows : 40 nC m at y = 1 and -5 m, -60 nC m at y = -2 and - 4 m. The D at P(0, -3, 4) is (A) -19.1u y + 25.5 u z pC m 2 (B) 19.1u y - 25.5 u z pC m 2 (C) -16.4 u y + 219 . u z pC m 2 (D) 16.4 u y - 219 . u z pC m 2
17. Uniform line charges of 100 nC m lie along the entire extent of the three coordinate axes. The E at P(-3, 2, -1) is (A) -192 . u x + 2 u y - 108 . u z kV m (B) -0.96 u x + u y - 0.54 u z kV m (C) 0.96 u x - u y + 0.54 u z kV m (D) 192 . u x - 2 u y + 108 . u z kV m
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Chap 8.2
24. A point charge 20 nC
is located at origin. Four
31. A spherical surface of radius of 3 mm is centered at P(4, 1, 5) in free space. If D = xu x C m 2 the net electric flux leaving the spherical surface is (A) 113.1 mC (C) 113.1 nC (B) 339.3 nC (D) 452.4 nC
uniform line charge are located as follows 40 nC m at y = 1 and 50 nC m at y = 2. The electric flux that leaves the surface of a sphere, 4 m in radius, centered at origin is (A) 1.33 nC (C) 1.33 mC (B) 1.89 mC (D) 1.89 mC
32. The electric flux density is D= 1 [10 xyzu x + 5 x 2 zu y + (2 z 3 - 5 x 2 y) u z ] z2
25. The cylindrical surface r = 8 C contains the surface charge density, r s = 5 e (A) 270.7 nC (C) 270.7 pC
-20|z|
nC m . The flux that leaves 30 < f < 90 is (B) 9.45 nC (D) 9.45 pC
the surface r = 8 cm, 1 cm < z < 5 cm
The volume charge density r v at (-2, 3, 5) is (A) 6.43 (C) 10.4 (B) 8.96 (D) 7.86
26. Let D = 4 xy u x + 2( x 2 + z 2 ) u y + 4 yzu z C m 2 . The total charge enclosed in the rectangular parallelepiped 0 < x < 2, 0 < y < 3, 0 < z < 5 m is (A) 360 C (C) 100 C (B) 180 C (D) 560 C 33. If D = 2 ru r C m 2 , the total electric flux leaving the surface of the cube, 0 < x , y, z < 0.4 is (A) 0.32 (C) 0.38 (B) 0.34 (D) 0.36
27. Volume charge density is located in free space as rv = 2e

-1000 r
34. If E = 4 u x - 3u y + 5 u z in the neighborhood of point P(6, 2, -3). The incremental work done in moving 5 C charge a distance of 2 m in the direction u x + u y + u z is (A) -60 J (C) -34.64 J (B) 34.64 J (D) 60 JJ
nC m
for 0 < r < 1 mm
and
rv = 0
elsewhere. The value of Dr on the surface r = 1 mm is (A) 1.28 pC m 2 (C) 0.78 pC m 2 (B) 0.28 pC m 2 (D) 0.32 pC m 2 and 4 carry uniform
2
28. Spherical surfaces at r = 2

2
35. If E = 100 u r V m , the incremental amount of work done in moving a 60 mC charge a distance of 2 mm from P(1, 2, 3) toward Q(2, 1, 4) is (A) -5.4 mJ (C) -31 . mJ (B) 3.1 mJ (D) 0
charge densities of 20 nC m and -4 nC m . The Dr at 2 < r < 4 is (A) 16 nC m 2 r2 (B) 16 nC m 2 r2
80 (C) 2 nC m 2 r
80 (D) - 2 nC m 2 r
36. A 10 C charge is moved from the origin to P(3, 1, -1) in the field E = 2 xu x - 3 y 2 u y + 4 u z V m along the straight line path x = -3 y, y = x + 2 z. The amount of energy required is (A) -40 J (C) -20 J (B) 20 J (D) 40 J
29. Given the electric flux density, D = 2 xyu x + x 2 u y + 6 z 3u z C m 2 . The total charge enclosed in the volume 0 < x, y , z < a is (A) 6 a 5 + 5 4 a 3 (B) a 5 + 6 a 4 (D) 5 5 a + 6a4 3
(C) 6 a 5 + a 4
4 4 4
37. A uniform surface charge density of 30 nC m 2 is present on the spherical surface r = 6 mm in free space. The V AB between A ( r = 2 cm, q = 35 , f = 55 ) ( r = 3 cm, q = 40 , f = 90 ) is (A) 2.03 V (C) 4.07 mV
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30. Let D = 5 x y z u y . The flux enclosed by volume x = 3 and 3.1, y = 1 and 1.1, and z = 2 and 2.1 is (A) 49.6 (C) 35.4
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and B
(B) 24.8 (D) 36.4
(B) 10.17 V (D) -10.17 V

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38. A point charge is located at the origin in free space. The work done in carrying a charge 10 C from point A ( r = 4, q = p 6 , f = p 4) to B( r = 4, q = p 3 , p 6) is (A) 0.45 mJ (C) -0.45 mJ (B) 0.32 mJ (D) 0
(A) -4.94 nC (C) -5.56 nC 46. A dipole having
(B) -4.86 nC (D) -3.68 nC
39. Let a uniform surface charge density of 5 nC m 2 be present at the z = 0 plane, a uniform line charge density of 8 nC m be located at x = 0, z = 4 and a point charge of 2 m C be present at P(2, 0, 0). If V = 0 at A(0, 0, 5), the V at B(1, 2, 3) is (A) 10.46 kV (C) 0.96 kV (B) 1.98 kV (D) 3.78 kV
Qd = 100 V m 2 4 pe o is located at the origin in free space and aligned so that its moment is in the u z direction. The E at point ( r = 1, 45 , f = 0) is (A) 158.11 V m (C) 146.21 V m (B) 194.21 V m (D) 167.37 V m
47. A dipole located at the origin in free space has a 40. A non uniform linear charge density, r L = 6 ( z + 1)
2
moment p = 2 10 -9 u z C.m. The points at which | E|q = 1 mV m on line y = z, x = 0 are (A) y = z = 23.35 (B) y = z = 16.5, x = 0 (D) y = 0, z = 23.35, x = 0 (C) y = z = 16.5
nC m lies along the z axis. The potential at P(r = 1, 0, 0) in free space is ( V = 0) (A) 0 V (C) 144 V (B) 216 V (D) 108 V
48. A dipole having a moment p = 3u x - 5 u y + 10 u z 41. The annular surface, 1 cm < r < 3 cm carries the nonuniform surface charge density r s = 5r nC m . The V
2
nC.m is located at P(1, 2, -4) in free space. The V at Q (2, 3, 4) is (A) 1.31 V (B) 1.26 V (D) 2.52 V
at P(0, 0, 2 cm) is (A) 81 mV (C) 63 mV (B) 90 mV (D) 76 mV
(C) 2.62 V
42. If V = 2 xy 2 z 3 + 3 ln( x 2 + 2 y 2 + 3z 2 ) in free space the magnitude of electric field E at P (3, 2, -1) is (A) 72.6 V/m (C) 75 V/m (B) 79.6 V/m (D) 70.4 V/m
49. A potential field in free space is expressed as V = 40 xyz . The total energy stored within the cube 1 < x, y, z < 2 is (A) 1548 pJ (C) 774 pJ (B) 0 (D) 387 pJ
43. It is known that the potential is given by V = 70 r 0 .6 V. The volume charge density at r = 0.6 m is (A) 1.79 nC m 3 (C) 1.22 nC m 3 (B) -1.79 nC m 3 (D) -1.22 nC m 3
50. Four 1.2 nC point charge are located in free space at the corners of a square 4 cm on a side. The total potential energy stored is (A) 1.75 mJ (C) 3.5 mJ 51. Given the current density (B) 2 mJ (D) 0
44. The potential field V = 80 r 2 cos q V. The volume charge density at point P(2.5, q = 30 , f = 60 ) in free space is (A) -2.45 nC m 3 (C) -1.42 nC m
3
(B) 1.42 nC m 3 (D) 2.45 nC m

3
J = 10 5[sin (2 x) e -2 yu x + cos (2 x) e -2 yu y ] kA m 2 The total current crossing the plane y = 1 in the u y direction in the region 0 < x < 1, 0 < z < 2 is (A) 0 (C) 24.6 mA
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45. Within the cylinder r = 2, 0 < z < 1 the potential is given by V = 100 + 50r + 150r sin f V. The charge lies within the cylinder is
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(B) 12.3 mA (D) 6.15 mA

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Electromagnetics
64. In a certain region where the relative permitivity is 2.4, D = 2 u x - 4 u y + 5 u z nC m 2 . The polarization is (A) 2.8 u x - 5.6 u y + 7 u z nC m 2 (B) 3.4 u x - 6.9 u y + 8.6 u z nC m 2 (C) 1.2 u x - 2.3u y + 2.9 u z nC m 2 (D) 3.89 u x - 6.43u y + 8.96 u z nC m 2 65. Medium 1 has the electrical permitivity e1 = 15 . eo and occupies the region to the left of x = 0 plane. Medium 2 has the electrical permitivity e 2 = 2.5 e o and occupies the region to the right of x = 0 plane. If E1 in medium 1 is E1 = (2 u x - 3u y + 1u z ) V m medium 2 is (A) (2.0 u x - 1.8 u x + 0.6 u z ) V m (B) (1.67 u x - 3u y + u z ) V m (C) (1.2 u x - 3u y + u z ) V m (D) (1.2 u x - 1.8 u y + 0.6 u z ) V m 66. Two perfect dielectrics have relative permitivities e r1 = 2 and e r 2 = 8. The planner interface between them is the surface x - y + 2 z = 5. The origin lies in region 1. If E1 = 100 u x + 200 u y - 50 u z V m then E2 is (A) 400 u x + 800 u y - 200 u z V m (B) 400 u x + 200 u y - 50 u z V m (C) 25 u x + 200 u y - 50 u z V m (D) 125 u x + 175 u z V m 67. The two spherical surfaces r = 4 cm and r = 9 cm are separated by two perfect dielectric shells, e r1 = 2 is (A) (C) 5000 ur V m r2 2500 ur V m r2 (B) (D) 400 ur V m r2 2000 ur V m r2 for u r then E2 4 < r < 6 and e r 2 = 5 for 6 < r < 9. If E1 = 1000 r2 then E2 in
69. A potential field exists in a region where e = f ( x). If r v = 0, the 2 V is 1 dF V (A) f ( x) dx x (C) 1 df V f ( x) dx x df V dx x df V dx x
(B) f ( x)
(D) - f ( x)
70. If V ( x, y) = 4 e 2 x + f ( x) - 3 y 2 in a region of free space where r v = 0. It is know that both Ex and V are zero at the origin. The V ( x, y) is (A) 3( x 2 - y 2 ) (C) 4 x 2 - 3 y 2 (B) 3( y 2 - x 2 ) (D) 4 y 2 - 3 x 2
*********
68. The surface x = 0 separate two perfect dielectric. For x > 0, let e r1 = 3, while er 2 = 5 where x < 0. If E1 = 80 u x - 60 u y - 40 u z V m then E2 is (A) (133.3u x - 100 u z - 66.7 u z ) V m (B) (133.3u x - 60 u z - 40 u z ) V m (C) ( 48 u x - 36 u y - 24 u z ) V m (D) ( 48 u x - 60 u y - 40 u z ) V m
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Chap 8.2
SOLUTIONS
1. (C) F2 = = Q1Q2 R12 3 4 pe o |R12| ( 4 10 -6 )( -5 10 -6 ) ( 3u x + 4 u y) 4 pe o 53
2 10 -6 4 pe o
4 u x + 9 u y - 3u z (106) 3 / 2
= 65.9 u x + 148.3u y - 49.4 u z Then at point P, r = 8 2 + 12 2 = 14.4, f = tan -1 12 = 56.3, and z = 2 8
= ( 4.32 u x + 5.76 u y) mN 2. (D) Arranging the charge in the xy plane at location (4, 4), (-4, 4), (4, -4), (-4, 4), the fifth charge will be on the z-axis at location z = 4 2. By symmetry, the force on the fifth charge will be z times the z component F= = 4 4 2 q2 4 pe o d 2 directed, and will be four
Er = Ep u p = 65.9( u x u r) + 148.3 ( u y u r) = 65.9 cos 56.3 + 148.3 sin 56.3 = 159.7 Ef = E r u f = 65.9( u x u f) + 148.3 ( u y u f) = -65.9 sin 56.3 + 148.3 cos 56.3 = 27.4 , Ez = -49.4 7. (C) Ep = 2 10 -8 4 pe o R1 2R 2 + 3 3 - |R | | R 2| 1
R1 = (0, 2, 1) -(0, 0, 0.5) =(0, 2, 0.5) R 2 = (0, 2, 1) - (0, 0, 0) =(0, 2, 1) - (2 u y + 0.5 u z ) 2(2 u y + u z ) Ep = 9 10 9 10 -8 + ( 4.25) 3 2 ( 5)3 2 E p = 54.9 u y + 44.1u z At P , r = 5 , q = cos -1 1 5 = 63.4 and f = 90
(5 10 -9) 2 = 10 -2 N 4 p ( 8.85 10 -12 )( 8 10 -3) 2 2
3. (D) The force will be ( 40 10 -9) 2 R CA R DA R BA F= + + 3 3 3 4 pe o |R CA| |R DA| |R BA| where R CA = u x - u y , R DA = u x + u y , R BA = 2 u x |R CA|=|R DA|= 2, F= |R BA|= 2 u x - u y u x + u y 2u x ( 40 10 -9) 2 + + -9 4 p ( 8.85 10 ) 2 2 8 2 2
So Er = E p u r = 54.9[ u y u r ] + 44.1[ u z u r ] = 54.9 sin q sin f + 44.1 cos q = 68.83 Eq = E r u q = 54.9[ u y u q ] + 44.1[ u z u q ] = 54.9 cos q sin f + 44.1 ( - sin q) = -14.85 Ef = Er u f = 54.9( u y u f) + 44.1( u z u f) =54.9 cos f = 0 8. (A) Let a point on y axis be P(0, y, 0) Ep = 20 10 -8 4 pe o R1 R2 3 3 -|R | | R 1 2|
= 1376 . u x mN 10 -9 41R13 45R 23 4. (C) E = + 2 2 |R 23| 4 pe o |R13| R13 = -3u x + 4 u y - 4 u z , R 23 = 4 u x - 2 u y + 5 u z

41( -3u x + 4u y - 4u z 45( 4u x + -2u y + 5u z E = 9 10 9 10 -9 + ( 41) 3 / 2 ( 45) 3 / 2
R1 = (0, y, 0) - (3, 0, 0) =(-3, y, 0) R 2 = (0, y 0) - (-3, 0, 0) = (3, y, 0),
|R1 | = |R 2 | =
9 + y2
= 1152 . u x + 2.93u y + 1089 . uz 5. (D) The point is P3(0, y, 0) R13 = -4 u x + ( y + 2) u y - 7 u z , R12 = 3u x + ( y - 4) u y + 2 u z Ex = 10 -9 25 ( -4) 60 3 + 2 32 2 32 4 pe o [ 65 ( 2 ) ] [ 13 ( 4 ) ] + y + + y 0.48 y 2 + 1392 . y + 7312 . =0
-3u x + yu y 3u x + yu y + Ep = 20 10 -9 9 10 9 2 3 ( 9 + y2 )3 ( 9+y ) -1080 u x 1080 , |E| = = = (9 + y 2 ) 3 2 (9 + y 2 ) 3 2 9. (B) The field at P will be Q -2 u x + 2 u y - u z Ep = 0 , Ez = 1 kV m 4 pe o 93 2 Q0 = -4 pe o 9 3 2 10 3 = -3 m C 10. (C) This will be 8 times the integral of r n over the first octant
To obtain Ex = 0,
which yields the two value y = -6.89, - 22.11 6. (B) Ep = 2 10 -6 R AP 3 4 pe o |R AP|
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Q = 8
0

0 0
r oe - x - y- z dxdydz = 8ro
2p p
6 u x - 3u y 6 u x + 3u y EP = 20nC 2 9 10 9 36 + 9 36 + 9 = -48 u y V m
11. (C) Q =

0 0
0 .05
0.2 r sin q drd qdf

2
0 .03
r3 = 4 p(0.2) = 82.1 pC 3 0 .03 12. (A) Q = e =5

-0 .1 r - p 10
0 .05
17. (B) EP =
rL 2 pe o
R xp R yp R zp + + 3 3 3 |R xp| |R yp| |R zp|
R xp = ( -3, 0, - 1, ) - ( -3, 0, 0, ) = (0, 2, -1) Similarly R yp = (-3, 0, -1), R zp = (-3, 2, 0) Ep = 100 10 -9 2 9 10 -9
-p 0
5 e -0 .1 r( p|f |) 2 z + 10
10
( -0.1 - 1) ( -0.101) (0.1) 2 0 p2 dz - z + 10

2
2p
( p - f) dz 2 + 10 0 z
2u y - u z -3u x - u z -3ux + 2u y + + E p = 100 10 -9 2 9 10 -9 5 10 13
= -0.96 u x + u y - 0.54 u z kV m 18. (C) At y = 4, E = rL uy , 2 pe o
Q = 5 26.4
z 1 = 5 26.4 p2 tan -1 = 129 . mC 10 10 - 13. (A) f = 10

1 .1 p 25 5
dF = dqE = r L dzE F=
r2 L dzu y 2 pe o
( 6) = 18.75 u y m N r s dS R - R 3 4 pe o |R - R|
0 .9p 0 4
( r - 4)( r - 5) sin q sin 2 r

5
sin q drdqdf
25 1 .1 p
19. (A) E =
r 5 9 r 4 20 r 3 1 1 f = 10 + 2 q - 4 sin 2 q -2 cos 2 5 4 3 0 .9p 4 0 = 10 [ -3.39 ][0.0266 ][0.626 ] = 0.57 C Rp r , 14. (D) Ep = L 2 2 pe o |R p| R p = (1, 2, 3) - (1, -2, 5) = (0, 4, -2)
where R = 3u x and R = yu y + zu z , 2 3u x - yu y - zuz r dydz EPA = L 4 pe o - -2 (9 + y 2 + z 2 ) 3 2 Due to odd function EPA = rL 4 pe o

2
- -2
3u x dydz (9 + y 2 + z 2 ) 3 2
So there is only x component. 20. (D) There will be z component of E only R = zu z , R = ru r , Ez , Pa = rs 4 pe o

2 p 0 .2
|R |
p
= 20, 4u y - 2u z = 18 u y - 9 u z 20
5 10 -9 Ep = 2 pe o
R - R = zu z - ru z
15. (C) With z = 0, the general field is Ez = 0 = r L ( y + 2) u y - 5 u z 2 2 pe o ( y + 2) + 25 1 2
(z
0 0
zrdrdf 2 + r 2)3 2
0 .2
2pr s z rz 1 1 1 = = s 2 2 2 2 eo z 4 pe o z + r z + 0.04 0 Ez = rs eo z 1 2 z + 0.04 , at z = 0.5, Ez = 20.2 V m
we require |E2 | = |2E y| So 2 ( y + 2) = 5 E= y=
6.25 2.5 u y - 5 u z = 9 u y - 18 u z 2 pe o 6.25 + 25 R+ Q R- Q 2 2 |R + Q| |R - Q|
21. (A) Since charge sheet are infinite, the field magnitude associated with each one will be r s 2 e o , which is position independent. The field direction will depend on which side of a given sheet one is positioned. 10 10 -9 40 10 -9 50 10 -9 EA = ux uy uz 2 eo 2 eo 2 eo = 0.56 u x + 2.23u y - 2.8 u z
r 16. (C) Ep = L 2 pe o
R+ Q = (6, 0, 6) - (0, 3, 6) = (6, -3, 0) R- Q = (6, 0, 6) - (0, -3, 6) = (6, 3, 0)

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Chap 8.2
22. (A)
dy E y -15 x 2 y -3 y = = = 5 x3 dx Ex x ln y = -3 ln x ln C y = C1 = 128 y = C1 , x3
dy 3dx =y 3 C1 43
29. (C) Q = D n dS = 2 aydydz + -2(0) dydz S 0 0 0 0 1 4 24 3 1 4 4 244 3

Front Back
a a
a a
At P, 2 =
128 x3
dxdz + x 2 dxdz + -6(0) 3 dxdy + 6a 3dxdy 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 4 4 244 3 1 4 24 3 1 44 244 3 1 4 4 24 4 3

2 Left Right Botoom Top
-x
a a
a a
a a
a a
23. (A) This point lies in the center of a symmetric arrangement of line charges, whose field will all cancel at that point. Thus D arises from the point charge alone 10 10 -9 ( -3u y + 4 u z ) , D= ( 32 + 4 2 )1 .5 4p D = -19.1u y + 25.5 u z pC m 2 24. (C) h1 = 2 4 2 - 1 = 7.75, h2 = 2 4 2 - 1 = 6.93 QT = 2 7.75 40n + 2 6.93 50 + 20n =1.33 m C 25. (D) Q =
0 .05 90
= a4 + 0 -
a a + + 0 + 6a5 = a4 + 6a5 3 3 D y y = 20 x 4 y 3z 4 =(3.05 1.05 2.05) and Volume
30. (C) D = Center of
cube
V = (0.1) 3 = 0.001 f = 20 ( 305 . ) 4 (105 . ) 3 (2.05) 3 (2.05) 4 0.001 =35.4 31. (C) F = ( D ) Dv = ( x) 4 3 . nC p(0.003) = 1131 x 3
0 .01 30
5 e -20 z (0.08) dfdz nC

0 .05
10 y 2 + 10 x 2 y =8.96 32. (B) r v = D = +0+ z3 ( -2 , 3, 5) z 33. (C) D = 1 d 2 ( r 2 r) = 6 , r 2 dr

3
p p 1 -20 z = - (5)(0.08) e 2 6 20 0 .01 = 9.45 10 -3 nC = 9.45 pC 26. (A) Out of the 6 surface only 2 will contribute to the net outward flux. The y component of D will penetrate the surface y = 0 and y = z and net flux will be zero. At x = 0 plane Dx = 0 and at z = 0 plane Dz = 0. This leaves the 2 remaining surfaces at x = 2 and z = 5. The net outward flux become f = D x = 2 u x dydz +
0 0 3 3 5 3
D dv = 6 (0.4)
V
= 0.38
34. (C) dW = - qE dL = -5( 4 u x - 3u y + 5 u z ) =10 3 ( u x + u y + u z )(2) 3
( 4 - 3 + 5) = -34.64 J
D
0 0
3 2
x =2
u z dzdy
35. (B) The vector in this direction is (2, 1, 4) - (7, 2, 3) = (1, -1, 1) ux - u y + uz , dW = - qE dL u PQ = 3 ( u x - u y + u z )(2 10 -3) = -( 60 10 -6 ) 100 u r 3
0 .001
= 5 4(2) ydy + 2 4(5) ydy = 360 C.

0 0 2p p
27. (D) Q =
2e
0 0 0 0 .001 0
0 .001
-1000 r
r 2 sin q drdqdf
-r e Q = 8 p 1000
2 -1000 r
2 e -1000 r ( -1000 r - 1) 1000(1000) 2 0
= - 12
10 -6 3
( u r u x - u r u y)
Q = 4 10 -9nC, Dr = 4.0 10 -9 Q = 0.32 C m 2 = 2 4 pr 4 p (0.001) 2

2 2 -9
2 At r , f = tan -1 = 63.4 1 u r u x = cos 63.4 = 0.447, u r u y = sin 63.4 = 0.894 dW = 31 . mJ 36. (A) W = - q E dL
28. (C) 4 pr Dr = 4 p(2 ) 20 10 Dr = 80 nC m 2 r2

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= -10 (2 xu x - 3 y 2 u y + 4 u z ) ( dxu x + dyu y + dzu z ) = -10 2 xdx + 10 3 y 2 dy - 10 4 dz = -40 J

0 0 0 3 1 -1
18 z -6 xy 2 z 2 + 2 uz 2 2 x + y + z 2 3 . u z V m, Ep = 7.1u x + 22.8 u y - 711 |E|= 75 V m
37. (D) rA = 2 cm, rB = 3 cm V ( r) = Q 4 pa 2r s ( 6 10 -3) 2 30 10 -9 = = 4 pe o r 4 pe o r 8.85 10 -12 r 43. (D) E = -V = = -42 r -0 .4 u r V m,
dV u r = -(0.6)(70) r -0 .4 u r dr
0.122 0.122 0.122 , V AB = V A - VB = V ( r) = = = 2.03 r 0.02 0.03 38. (D) W = Q1Q2 4 pe o

rB
rA
dr Q1Q2 = r 2 4 pe o
1 1 r - r B A
D = e oE = -42 r -0 .4 e o u r C m 2 1 d 2 1 d e rv = D = 2 ( r Dr ) = 2 ( -42 e o r 1 .6 )= - 67.2 1o.4 r dr r dr r At r = 0.6 m, rv = 67.2 8.85 10 -12 = -1.22 nC m 3 (0.6)1 .4 V 1 V ur uq r r q
rA = rB , W = 0 39. (B) VP ( s) = Vl (r) = - Vs ( z) = - V = Q , 4 pe o r
44. (A) E = -V = -
r L dr r + C1 = - L ln r + C1 2 pe or 2 pe o rs rz dz + C2 = s + C2 2 eo 2 eo
= -160 r cos q u r + 80 r sin q u q V m D = e oE = -80 e o (2 r cos q u r - r sin q u q) 1 2 2 1 rv = D = 2 ( r Dr ) + ( Dr sin q) r sin q q r r 1 12 sin q cos q r v = -80 e o 2 3r 2 cos q r sin q r r V = -320 e o cos q = -2.45 nC m 3 45. (C) E = -V = 1 V V ur uf r r f
Q r r - L ln r - s z + C 4 pe o r 2 pe o 2 pe o
Here r , r , z are the scalar distance from the charge. r = 2 2 + 5 2 = 29 , r = (5 - 4) 2 = 1 , z = 5 By putting these value. C = -193 . 10 3 At point N, r = (2 - 1) + 2 + z = 14
2 2 2
r = 12 ` + 12 = 2 , z = 3, 40. (D) Vr =
VB = 198 . kV
= -(50 + 150 sin f) u r - (150 cos f) u f , D = e o E, r v = D = e o E 1 1 r v = eo (rEr) + Ef r f r r (50 + 150 sin f) 150 sin f 50 e o = e o + =C m2 r r r Q =
0 1 2p 2
4 pe
6 10 -9 dz r L dz = = 108 V 4 ( 2 1) 3 2 oR - pe o z +
r s dS 41. (A) Vr = , 4 pe o|R - R| R = zu z , R = ru r, dS = rdrdf, Vr = Vp =

2 p 0 .03
0 0
(5 10 -9)r 2 drdf 4 pe o r 2 + z 2
50 e o rdrdfdz = - 2 p(50) e o 2 = -5.56 nC r Qd cos q 100 cos q , = 4 pe o r 2 r2
,
0 .03
0 .01
46. (A) V =
z2 5 10 -9 r 2 2 r + z ln (r + r 2 + z 2 ) 2 eo 2 2 0 .01
At z = 0.02, Vp = 0.081 V 42. (C) E = -V 6x = - 2 y 2 z 2 + 2 ux 2 2 x + 2 y + 3z 12 y - 4 xyz 3 + 2 uy 2 2 x + 2 y + 3z

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1 V V E = -V = - ur + uq r r q = 100 (2 cos q u r + sin q u q), r3 = 100 5 = 158.11 V m 2
|E| = 100( 4 cos 2 q + sin 2 q)1 2

47. (A) E =
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Chap 8.2
y = z lies at q = 45 2 10 -9 1 = 10 -3 Eq = 4 pe o r 3 2 (required)
55. (A) I = J n z = 0 .2 dS
S
2 p 0 .4
r 3 = 12.73 10 3, r = 23.35 P (R - R) 48. (A) V = 3 4 pe o|R - R| where R - R = Q - P = (1, 1, 8) So VP = =1.31 V 1 1 1 49. (A) E = -V = 40 2 u x + uy + uz 2 2 x yz xy z xyz We = eo 2 ( 3u x - 5 u y + 10 u z ) ( u x + u y + 8 u z ) 10 -9 4 pe o (1 + 1 + 8 2 )1 .5

0 0
40 40 rdrdf = log[r 2 + (0.1) 2 ] (2 p) 2 2 r + (0.1) 2 0
0 .4
= 40 p log 17 = 356 A 56. (B) So Eal = Est = J al J st = sal sst J al = sac J st sst
I = p(2 10 -3) J st + p[( 4 10 -3) 2 - (2 10 -3) 2 ]J al = 80 Solving J st = 3.2 10 5 A m 2 4 u r A m2, 2 prl
57. (B) J = E=
4 12.73 J ur V m = = s 2 prls rl
3 5
E Edv
2 1 1
V = - E dL =
5
We = 800 e o = 1548 pJ
1 1 1 x 4 y 2 z 2 + x 2 y 4 z 2 + x 2 y 2 z 4 dxdydz
12.73 12.73 5 6.51 V u r u rdr = ln = l r l 3 l 3
V 6.51 1.63 R= = = W I 4l r V 1 V V 58. (D) E = -V = - r u r + r f u f + z u z (r + 1) 2 = -z 2 cos f u r + z sin f u f - 2(r + 1) z cos f u z r E = -1.82 u f + 14.5 u f - 2.67 u z V m E E r s = eo E n s = eo |E| r s = e o 1.82 2 + 14.5 2 + 2.67 2 = 1315 . pC m 2 40 cos p p sin 3 2 = 2.5 V 23
1 4 50. (A) W = qn Vn 2 n =1 V1 = V21 + V31 + V41 = V1 = V2 = V3 = V4 W = 2 (1.2 10 -9) 2 1 ( 4) q1 V1 = 4 pe o (0.04) 2

2 1
q 1 1 1 + + 4 pe o 0.04 0.04 0.04 2 1 = 175 . mJ 2+ 2 dxdz
51. (B) I = J n
S
y =1
dS = J u y
0 0
y =1
10
0 0
2 1
59. (C) V =
cos (2 x) 2 -2 y dxdz = 12307 kA = 12.3 MA
52. (C) I = J n dS
S
So the equation of the surface is 40 cos q sin f = 2.5, 16 cos q sin f = r 3 r2 60. (A) E = -V , D = eE = - e oV x 200 x ux + 2 u z C m2 = -e o 200 z 2 ( ) x x + 4 x + 4 200 e o x D (z= 0 ) = - 2 u z C m2, x +4 r s = D u z z= 0 = Q= - 200 e o x C m2, x2 + 4
2
2 p 0 .3p
800 sin q (0.80) 2 sin q dqdf =154.8 A 2 + ( 0 . 80 ) 4 0 .1 p
53. (D) F = ma = qE, a= qE ( -1.602 10 -19)( -4 106 ) = u z = 7.0 1017 u z m s 2 , m 9.11 10 -3

17
v = at = 7.0 10 tu z m s 54. (D) = r V 1 J z = - J = (rJ r) + t r r z
-3
1 - 200 e o x dxdy = -( 3)(200) e o ln[ x 2 + 4 ] 2 x2 + 4 0
1 -20 (25) + 2 =0 r r z r + 0.01

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61. (B) E = -V ,
-3 xy 2 z 3 satisfy this equation.
62. (D) The plane can be replaced by -60 nC at Q (2, 5, -6). R = (5, 3, 1) - (2, 4, 6) = (3, -1, -5) R = (5, 3, 1)-(2, 4, -6) = (3, -1, 7), |R |= 35 , |R|= 59 VP = q q q 1 1 = 4 pe o R 4 pe o R 4 pe o 35 59
-9 -9
Since E is normal to the surface e 2 1000 400 En 2 = r1 En 1 = ur = 2 ur V m r2 r er 2 5 68. (D) D n 1 = D n 2 and Et1 = Et 2 , D = eE
D n 1 = 80 3e o = D n 2 = 5 e oEn 1 , E2 = 48 u x - 60 u y - 40 u z 69. (A) D = eE = - f ( x)V , D = r v = 0 = ( - f ( x)V ) 0 = ( - f ( x)V )
En 1 = 48
Vp = 60 10 9 10
1 1 = 21 V 59 35
63. (A) Using method of images Vp - V0 = V0 = 0,

Vp = rL 2p eo 1 12 + (2 - 1) 2 12 + (2 - (-2)) 2 12 + 32 - ln - ln ln + ln 2 1 1 1
dF V 2V 2V 2V =- + f ( x) 2 + f ( x) 2 + f ( x) 2 x y z dx x dF V =- + f ( x) 2 V dx x 1 dF V 2V = f ( x) dx x 70. (A) r v = 0 2 V = 16 e2 x + 2 V = 0,
Final Distance from the charge rL ln 2 pe o Initial Distance from the charge
= 2.40 kV 64. (C) P = D - e oE = D P = (2 u x - 4 u y + 5 u z ) D D = ( e r - 1) er er
(2.4 - 1) 10 -9 2.4
P = 12 . u x - 2.3u y + 2.9 u z nC m 2 65. (C) D n 1 = D n 2 . e o = 2.5 e o En 2 = 2 15 Et1 = Et 2 , e1E N1 = e 2E N 2 En 2 = 12 .
2 f - 6 =0 x 2 f f = -16 e 2 x + 6 = - 8 e 2 x + 6 x + C1 x x V f Ex = = 8 e2 x + x x f f Ex (0) = 8 + =0 = -8 x x = 0 x x = 0
It follow that C1 = 0 Integrating again f ( x1 ) = -4 e 2 x + 3 x 2 + C, f (0, 1) = -4 + C2 V (0, 0) = 0 = 4 + f (0) f ( x) = -4 e

2x
E2 = 1.2 u x - 3u y + 1u z
66. (D) The unit vector that is normal to the surface is u x - u y + 2u z F , uN = = |F| 6 En 1 = E1 u N = En 1 = - 817 . 1 6 1 6 [100 - 200 - 100 ] = -817 . Vm
C2 = 0. f (0) = -4
+ 3x ,
2 2x
V ( x, y) = 4 e
- 4 e2 x + 3 x 2 - 3 y 2 = 3 ( x 2 - y 2 )
[u x - u y + 2u z ]
*********
= -33.33u x + 33.33u y - 66.67 u z V m Et1 = E1 - En 1 = 133.3u x + 166.7 u z + 16.67 u z Et1 = Et 2 and D n 1 = D n 2 En 2 e r1 e oEn 1 = e r 2 e oEn 2 e 1 1 = r1 En 1 = E n 1 , E2 = Et 2 + En 1 er 2 4 4
= 133.3 u x + 166.7 u y + 16.67 u z - 8.33 u x + 8.33 u y - 16.67 u z
= 125 u x + 175 u y V m 67. (B) D n 1 = D n 2 ,

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Statement for Q.911: An infinite filament on the z-axis carries 10 mA in the u z direction. Three uniform cylindrical current sheets are also present at 400 mA m at r = 1 cm, -250 mA m at r = 2 cm and 300 mA m at r = 3 cm. 9. The magnetic field H f at r = 0.5 cm is (A) 0.32 A m (C) 1.36 mA m (B) 0.64 A m (D) 0
Statement for Q.1516: In the cylindrical region 2 r + for r 0.6 r 2 3 for r > 0.6 Hf = r Hf = 15. The current density J for r < 0.6 mm is (A) 2 u z A m (C) u z A m (B) -2 u z A m (D) 0
10. The magnetic field H f at r = 15 . cm is (A) 1.63 A m (C) 2.64 A m (B) 0.37 A m (D) 0 16. The current density J for r > 0.6 mm is (A) 2 u z A m (C) 3u z A m 11. The magnetic field H f at r = 3.5 cm is (A) 0.14 A m (C) 0.27 A m Statement for Q.1214: In the fig. P8.3.1214 The region 0 z 2 is filled with an infinite slab of magnetic material (m r = 2.5). The surface of the slab at z = 0 and z = 2, respectively, carry surface current 30 u x A m and -40 u x as shown in fig.
z mo
(B) -3u z A m (D) 0 electron

5
(B) 0.56 A m (D) 0.96 A m
17.
An
with
velocity
v = ( 3u x + 12 u y - 4 u z ) 10
m s experiences no net
forces at a point in a magnetic field B = u x + 2 u y + 3u z mWb m 2 . The electric field E at that point is (A) -4.4 u x + 1.3u y + 0.6 u z kV m (B) 4.4 u x - 1.3u y - 0.6 u z kV m (C) -4.4 u x + 1.3u y + 0.6 u z kV m (D) 4.4 u x - 1.3u y - 0.6 u z kV m 18. A point charge of 2 10 -16 C and 5 10 -26 kg is
z=2 -40ux A/m
moving in the combined fields B = - 3u x + 2 u y - u z mT and E = 100 u x - 200 u y + 300 u z V m. If the charge velocity at t = 0 is v(0) = (2 u x - 3u y - 4 u z ) 10 5 m s, the
mr = 2.5 mo 30ux A/m x
acceleration of charge at t = 0 is (A) 600[ 3u x + 2 u y - 3u z ]10 9 m s 2 (B) 400[ 6 u x + 6 u y - 3u z ]10 9 m s 2 (C) 400[ 6 u x - 6 u y + 3u z ]10 9 m s 2 (D) 800[ 6 u x + 6 u y - u z ]10 9 m s 2 19. An electron is moving at velocity v = 4.5 10 7 u y
z=0
Fig. P8.3.1214
12. In the region 0 < z < 2 the H is (A) -35 u y A m (C) -5 u y A m (B) 35 u y A m (D) 5 u y A m
13. In the region z < 0 the H is (A) 5 u y A m (C) 10 u y A m (B) -5 u y A m (D) -10 u y A m
m s along the negative y-axis. At the origin, it encounters the uniform magnetic field B = 2 .5 u z mT, and remains in it up to y = 2.5 cm. If we assume that the electron remains on the y axis while it is in the magnetic field, at y = 50 cm the x and z coordinate are respectively (A) 1.23 m, 0.23 m
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14. In the region z > 2 the H is (A) 5 u y A m (C) 35 u y A m

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(B) -1.23 m, -0.23 m (D) 11.7 cm, 0

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Chap 8.3
Statement for Q.2022: A rectangular loop of wire in free space joins points A(1, 0, 1) to B(3, 0, 1) to C(3, 0, 4) to D(1, 0, 4) to A. The wire carries a current of 6 mA flowing in the u z direction from B to C. A filamentary current of 15 A flows along the entire z, axis in the u z directions. 20. The force on side BC is (A) -18 u x nN (C) 3.6 u x nN 21. The force on side AB is (A) 23.4 u z mN (C) 19.8 u z nN (B) 16.4 u z mN (D) 26.3u z nN (B) 18 u x nN (D) -3.6 u x nN
25. If the current filament is located at y = 0.5, z = 0, and u L = u x , then F is (A) 35 .2 u y nN m (C) 105.6 u z nN m (B) 68.3u x nN m (D) 0
26. Two infinitely long parallel filaments each carry 100 A in the u z direction. If the filaments lie in the plane y = 0 at x = 0 and x = 5 mm, the force on the filament passing through the origin is (A) 0.4 u x N m (C) 4 u x mN m Statement for Q.2728: A conducting current strip carrying K = 6 u z A m lies in the x = 0 plane between y = 0.5 and y = 15 . m. There is also a current filament of I = 5 A in the u z direction on the z axis. 27. The force exerted on the filament by the current strip is (A) 12.2 u y mN m (C) -12.2 u y mN m (B) 6.6 u y mN m (D) -6.6 u y mN m (B) -0.4 u x N m (D) -4 u x mN m
22. The total force on the loop is (A) 36 u x nN (C) 54 u x nN (B) -36 u x nN (D) -54 u x nN
23. Consider the rectangular loop on z = 0 plane shown in fig. P8.3.23. The magnetic flux density total is B = 6 xu x - 9 yu y + 3zu z Wb m 2 . The force
experienced by the rectangular loop is

y 2 5A 1
28. The force exerted on the strip by the filament is (A) -6.6 u y mN m (C) 2.4 u x mN m Statement for Q.2932: In a certain material for which m r = 6.5, (B) 6.6 u y mN m (D) -2.4 u x mN m
H = 10 u x + 25 u y - 40 u z A m 29. The magnetic susceptibility c m of the material is (A) 5.5 (C) 7.5 (B) 6.5 (D) None of the above
Fig. P8.3.23
(A) 30 u z N (C) 36 u z N Statement for Q.2425:
(B) -30 u z N (D) -36 u z N
30. The magnetic flux density B is (A) 82 u x + 204 u y - 327 u z mWb m 2 (B) 82 u x + 204 u y - 327 u z mA m (C) 82 u x + 204 u y - 327 u z mT (D) 82 u x + 204 u y - 327 u z mA m 31. The magnetization M is (A) 75 u x + 187.5 u y - 300 u z A m 2 (B) 75 u x + 187.5 u y - 300 u z A m 2 (B) -35 .2 u y nN m (D) 0 (C) 55 u x + 137.5 u y - 220 u z A m 2 (D) 55 u x + 137.5 u y - 220 u z A m 2
Three uniform current sheets are located in free space as follows: 8 u z A m at y = 0, -4 u z A m at y = 1 and -4 u z A m at y = -1. Let F be the vector force per meter length exerted on a current filament carrying 7 mA in the u L direction. 24. If the current filament is located at x = 0, y = 0.5 and u L = u z , then F is (A) 35 .2 u y nN m (C) 105.6 u y nN m
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32. The magnetic energy density is (A) 19 mJ m

2 2
If H increases from 0 to 210 A m, the energy

2
(B) 9.5 mJ m
stored per unit volume in the alloy is (A) 6.2 MJ m 3 (C) 2.3 kJ m 3 (B) 1.3 MJ m 3 (D) 2.9 kJ m 3
(C) 16.3 mJ m
(D) 32.6 mJ m 2
Statement for Q.3334: For a given material magnetic susceptibility c m = 31 . and within which B = 0.4 yu z T. 33. The magnetic field H is (A) 986.8 yu z kA m (C) 102.7 yu z kA m 34. The magnetization M is (A) 241 yu z kA m (C) 163 yu z kA m (B) 318.2 yu z kA m (D) None of the above (B) 151.6 yu z kA m (D) 77.6 yu z kA m 40. If magnetization is given by H = 6 ( - yu x + xu y) in a a cube of size a, the magnetization volume current density is 12 (A) uz a (C) 6 uz a 6 ( x - y) a 3 ( x - y) a
(B) (D)
41. The point P(2, 3, 1) lies on the planner boundary separating region 1 from region 2. The unit vector u N12 = 0.6 u x + 0.48 u y + 0.64 u z is directed from region 1 to region 2. If m r1 = 2, m r2 = 8 and H1 = 100 u x - 300 u y + 200 u z A m, then H 2 is (A) 40.3u x + 48.3u y - 178.9 u z A m (B) 80.2 u x - 315.8 u y + 178.9 u z A m (C) 40.3u x - 315.8 u y - 178.9 u z A m (D) 80.2 u x + 48.3u y + 178.9 u z A m 42. The plane separates air ( z > 0, m r = 1) from iron ( z 0, m r = 20). In air magnetic field intensity is H = 10 u x + 15 u y - 3u z A m. The magnetic flux density in iron is (A) 5.02 u x + 7.5 u y - 0.076 u z mWb m 2 (B) 12.6 u x + 18.9 u y - 75.4 u z mWb m 2 (C) 251u x + 377 u y - 377 . u z mWb m 2 (D) 251u x + 377 u y - 1508 u z mWb m 2 43. The plane 2 x + 3 y - 4 z = 1 separates two regions. Let m r1 = 2 in region 1 defined by 2 x + 3 y - 4 z > 1, while m r 2 = 5 in region 2 where 2 x + 3 y - 4 z < 1. In region H1 = 50 u x - 30 u y + 20 u z A m. In region 2, H 2 will be (A) 63.4 u x + 4318 . u y - 19.4 u z A m (B) 52.9 u x - 25.66 u y + 14.2 u z A m (C) 48.6 u x - 16.4 u y - 46.3u z A m (D) None of the above
35. In a material the magnetic field intensity is H = 1200 A m when B = 2 Wb m 2 . When H is reduced to 400 A m, B = 1.4 Wb m 2 . The change in the magnetization M is (A) 164 kA m (C) 476 kA m (B) 326 kA m (D) 238 kA m
36. A particular material has 2.7 10 29 atoms m 3 and each atom has a dipole moment of 2.6 10 -30 u y A m 2 . The H in material is (m r = 4.2) (A) 2.94 u y A m (C) 0.17 u y A m (B) 0.22 u y A m (D) 2.24 u y A m
37. In a material magnetic flux density is 0.02 Wb m 2 and the magnetic susceptibility is 0.003. The magnitude of the magnetization is (A) 47.6 A m (C) 16.3 A m (B) 23.4 A m (D) 8.4 A m
38. A uniform field H = - 600 u y A m exist in free space. The total energy stored in spherical region 1 cm in radius centered at the origin in free space is (A) 0.226 J m (C) 1.68 J m 3
3
(B) 1.452 J m (D) 0.84 J m 3
39. The magnetization curve for an iron alloy is approximately given by B=

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Chap 8.3
SOLUTIONS
1. (C) H = = I 4p
uR =
-(1 + x) u x + 3u y + 2 u z R
2
R = (1 + x) + 32 + 2 2 = x 2 + 2 x + 14 H=
IdL u R 4 pR 2 -
-u ydy[2 u x + ( 3 - y) u y ] [2 + ( 3 - y) ]
2 2 32
4 dxu x [ -(1 + x) u x + 3u y + 2 u z ] 4 p ( x 2 + 2 x + 14) 3 2

2
2 u z dy I = 2 4 p 0 [2 + ( 3 - y) 2 ]3 2 3 - y = 2 tan q, -dy = 2 sec 2 q, q1 = 56.31, q 2 = -90 H= I 4p

56 .31 -90
4 p( x
(12 u z - 8 u y) dx + 2 x + 14)
3/2
2(12 u z - 8 u y) 4 p13
= 0.147 u z - 0.098 u y A m 5. (B) H = =

a
I uf 2 pr
-a
Idzu z (ru r - zu z ) 4 p(r 2 + z 2 ) 3 2
2 u z dq 2 sec q
I uf 2 pr
-a
rIdzu f 4 p(r 2 + z 2 ) 3 2
a
I 56 .31 u z [sin q ] = 90 = 145.8 u z mA m 4p 2. (A) H = H y + H z , H z = r = ( -3) 2 + ( 4) 2 = 5 3u y + 4 u x = 5 5 24 ( 4 u x + 3u y) Hz = = 0.611u x + 0.458 u y mA m 2 p(5) 5 uf = Hy = Iy 2 pr u f , r = ( -3) + (5) = 34
2 2
rIdzu f rIu f z = 2 2 32 2 2 ( +z ) 4 p r (r + z 2 ) 3 2 -a 4p r = I a 1 2 2 pr (r + a 2 ) I At r = 1, H = 2 pr 1 a 1+ a 1 3
2
=
-a
Iau f 2 pr(r 2 + z 2 ) 3 2
Iz uf 2 pr
u A m f
- u z ( -3u x + 4 u y)
1 2
a=
= 0.577 m
uf = u y Hy = 12
( -3u x + 5 u z ) 34 34
3u z - 5 u x 34
6. (A) H = =
2p
( -5 u x + 3u z )
2 p 34
IdL u R 4 pR 2 Idfu f ( - ur ) I uz A m = 2a 4 pa
= - 0.281u x + 0.168 u z mA m H = H y + H z = 0.331u x + 0.458 u y + 0.168 u z mA m 3. (A) H = I uf 2 pr

4
I = 3 A, a = 0.5 m, H = 3u z A m 7. (D) H = = = = K u R dxdy 4 pR 2 4 u x ( - xu x - yu y - 3u z ) dx dy 4 p( x 2 + y 2 + 9) 3 2 4 ( - yu z - 3u y) dx dy 4 p( x 2 + y 2 + 9) 3 2 12 u ydx dy

2
-4
Idzu z (ru r - zu z ) 4 p(r 2 + z 2 ) 3 2
-2 -

2 2
rdz I I uf uf 2 2 pr 4 p -4 4 p(r + z 2 ) 3 2 = I I 8 uf uf 2 pr 4 p r (r 2 + 16) I 4 1 u f 2 pr (r 2 + 16) f = 60 , I = 3p,
-2 -
-2 -
4 p( x
3 uy p
-2
+ y 2 + 9) 3 2 2 dy y2 + 9
2
=-
At r = - 3,
H = 0.1u f A m 4. (B) H = IdL u R , IdL = 4 dxu x 4 pR 2
6 1 y u y tan -1 = -0.75 u y A/m p 3 3 -2
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8. (D) H = =
0
IdL u R 4 pR 2 -Idzu z ( -zu z + u y) 4 p(1 + z ) Idzu x + 4 p(1 + z 2 ) 3 2

0 2 32
Idxu x ( - xu x + u y) 4 p(1 + x )
2 32
u x 1 3
uy 2 12
uz 3 10 5 10 -3 -4
=
0
Idxu z 4 p(1 + x 2 ) 3 2 xu z
0
= [ u x ( -8 - 36) - u y( -4 - 9) + u z (12 - 6)] 10 2 V m = -4.4 u x + 1.3u y + 0.6 u z kV m 18. (D) v(0) B = (2 u x - 3u y - 4 u z )10 5 ( -3u x + 2 u y - u z )10 -3 = 1100 u x + 1400 u y - 500 u z F(0) = Q [E + v B] = 2 10 -16 [1200 u x + 1200 u y - 200 u z ] = 4 10 -14 [ 6 u x + 6 u y - u z ] F = ma a= F 4 10 -14 = [6u x + 6u y - u z ] m 5 10 -26
I zu x = 4p (1 + z 2 ) =
+ (1 + x 2 )
I ( u x + u z ) = 0.8 ( u x + u z ) mA m 4p
9. (A) Using Amperes circuital law
H dL = 2 prHf = I encl
At r = 0.5 cm,
-3
I encl = 10 mA
2 p(5 10 ) H f = 10, H f = 0.32 A m 10. (B) At r = 15 . cm enclosed current I encl = 10 + 2 p(0.01)( 400) = 35.13 mA 2 p(0.015) H f = 35.13 10
-3
= 800[ 6 u x + 6 u y - u z ] 10 9 m s 2 19. (C) F = e v B = - (1.6 10 -19)( 4.5 10 7 u y)(2.5 10 -3 u z ) = -1.8 10 -14 u x N This force will be constant during the time the electron travels the field. It establishes a negative x directed velocity as it leaves the field, given by the acceleration times the transit time tt , vx = t50 Ftt -1.8 10 -14 2.5 10 -2 = -31 7 m 4.5 10 9.1 10 0.5 - 0.025 = = 106 . 10 -8 s 4.5 10 7 . 10 7 m s = -11
H f = 0.37 A m
11. (C) The enclosed current is I encl = 10 + 2 p(0.01) 400 - 2 p(0.02)250 + 2 p(0.03) 300 = 60.3 mA m 2 p(0.035) H f = 60.3 M 12. (A) H = H f = 0.27 A m
1 ( -30 - 40) u x ( -u z ) = -35 u y A m 2
In that time, the electron moves to an x coordinate 1 13. (B) H = K u n 2 1 = ( 30 - 40) u x ( -u z ) = -5 u y A m 2 1 14. (A) H = ( -30 + 40) u x + ( -u z ) = 5 u y A m 2 15. (C) J = H = = 1 r2 2 + 2 r r 1 (rH f) uz r r given by . 10 7)(106 . 10 -8 ) = -0.117 m x = vx t50 = -(11 x = -117 . cm, z = 0 20. (A) FBC = I loop dL Bfrom
B C
wire at BC
= ( 6 10 -3) dzu z
1
15m o u y = -1.8 10 -8 u x = -18 u x nN 2 p( 3)
u z = u z A m
21. (C) The field from the long wire now varies with position along the loop segment. FAB =
16. (D) J =
1 3 r =0 r r r
( 6 10
1
-3
) dxu x
15m o uy 2 px
45 10 -3 m o ln 3u z = 19.8 u z nN p
17. (A) F = e(E + v B) If F = 0, E = -v B = B v

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Chap 8.3
22. (A) This will be the vector sum of the forces on the four sides. By symmetry, the forces on sides AB and CD will be equal and opposite, and so will cancel. This leaves the sum of forces on side BC and DA FDA =
4
28. (A) F =
area
K BdS =
6u
0 0 .5
1 1 .5
-5m o u x dy 2 py
15m o 15 . =ln u y = -6.6 u y mN m p 0.5 29. (A) c m + 1 = m r , c m + 1 = 6.5 , c m = 5.5 30. (A) B = mH = m om rH = 4 p 10 -7 6.5(10 u x + 25 u y - 40 u z )
-( 6 10
1
-3
) dxu z
15m o u y = 54 u x nN 2 p(1)
Ftotal = FDA + FBC = (54 - 18) u x = 36 u x nN 23. (A) F = IdL R = I dxu x B + I dyu y B + I dxu x B + I dyu y B
1 1 1 2 2 2 3 1
= 82 u x + 204 u y - 327 u z mWb m 2 31. (C) M = c m H = 55 u x + 137.5 u y - 220 u z A m 1 1 H B = mH 2 2 2
u x B = u x [ 6 xu x - 9 yu y + 3zu z ] = 3zu y - 9 yu z u y B = u y[ 6 xu x - 9 yu y + 3zu z ] = 3zu x - 6 xu z z = 0 for all element

F = I dx (-9 yu z) y=1 + I dy(-6 xu z) x=3 + I dx (-9 yu z) y=2 + I dy(-6 xu z) x=1
1 1 3 2 3 2 1 1
32. (B) W = =
= I ( -18 - 18 + 36 + 6) u z = 5 6 u z = 30 u z N 24. (B) Within the region -1 < y < 1, the magnetic fields from the two outer sheets (carrying -4 u z A m) cancel, leaving only the field from the center sheet. Therefore H = -4 u x A m (0 < y < 1) and H = 4 u x A m ( -1 < y < 0). Outside ( y > 1 and y < - 1) the fields from all three sheet cancel, leaving H = 0 ( y > 1, y < - 1). So at x = 0, y = 0.5 F = Iu z B = (7 10 -3) u z - 4m o u x = -35.2 u y nN m m F 25. (D) = Iu x ( -4m o u x ) = 0 m 26. (A) F =
1
1 6.5 4 p 10 -7 (100 + 625 + 1600) = 9.5 mJ m 2 2
33. (D) m r = c m + 1 = 31 . + 1 = 4.1, m = m om r = 4.1m o H= 0.4 yu z B = = 77.6 yu z kA m m 4.1 4 p 10 -7
34. (A) M = c m H = ( 31 . )(77.6) yu z = 241 yu z kA m 35. (C) For case 1, m = m r1 = 2 B1 = H 1200
1 1 m = = 1326.3 m o 600 4 p 10 -7
c m = m r - 1 = 1325.3 M1 = c m H1 = 1590 . 106 A m 1.4 B For case 2, m = 2 = H 2 400
IdL B
0
= 100 dzu z
0
-100 m o u y 2 p (5 10 -3)
= 0.4 u x N m
m r1 =
1.4 = 2785.2 400 4 p 10 -7
27. (B) The field from the current strip at the filament location
1 .5
c m = 2784.2 2784.2 M 2 = c m H 2 = 1114 . 106 A m DM = (1590 . - 1114 . ) 106 = 476 kA m 36. (B) M = Nm = (2.7 10 29)(2.6 10 -30 u y) = 0.7 u y A m H= 0.7 u y M = = 0.22 u y A m m r - 1 4.2 - 1 B mo 1 c + 1 m
-1
B=
3m o . 6m o u x 15 dy = ln u x y p 0 2 p .5 0 .5
= 1.32 10 -6 u x Wb m 2 F = IdL B
0 1
= 5 dzu z 1.32 10 -6 u x dz = 6.6 u y mN m

0
37. (A) M =
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Electromagnetics
0.02 1 + 1 = 47.6 A m 4 p 10 -7 0.003
-1
The normal component of H1 is H N1 = (H1 u N 21 ) u N 21

H1 u N 21 = (50 u x - 30 u y + 20 u z ) (0.37 u x + 0.56 u y - 0.74u z )
1 1 38. (A) W = H B = m o H 2 2 2 1 = ( 4 p 10 -7)( 600) 2 = 0.226 J m 3 2 39. (A) W = =

2 o 3 o Ho
= 18.5 - 16.8 - 14.8 = -131 . (H1 u N 21 ) u N 21 = ( -131 . )(0.37 u x + 0.56 u y - 0.74 u z ) = -4.83u x - 7.24 u y + 9.66 u z A m Tangential component of H1 at the boundary HT1 = H1 - H N1 = (50 u x - 30 u y + 20 u z ) - ( -4.83u x - 7.24 u y + 9.66 u z ) = 54.83u x - 22.76 u y + 10.34 u z A m H T 2 = H T1 m 2 H N 2 = r1 H N1 = ( -4.83u x - 7.24 u y + 9.66 u z ) m r2 5 = -193 . u x - 2.90 u y + 3.86 u z A m H 2 = H T 2 + H N 2 = (54.83u x - 22.76 u y + 10.34 u z ) + ( -193 . u x - 2.9 u y + 3.86 u z ) = 52.9 u x - 25.66 u y + 14.2 u z
********
+ 2 H dH H. dB = H 3
0 0
Ho
2H H + = 6.2 MJ m 3 6 3 12 uz a
40. (A) J b = M =
41. (B) B1 = 200m o u x - 600m o u y + 400m o u z Its normal component at the boundary is B1 N = (B1 u N12 ) u N12 = (52.8 u x + 42.24 u y + 56.32 u z ) m o = B2 N B H 2 N = 2 N = 6.60 u x + 5.28 u y + 7.04 u z 8m o H1 N = B1 N = 26.40 u x + 2112 . u y + 28.16 u z 12m o -(26.4 u x + 2112 . u y + 28.16 u z ) = 73.6 u x - 32112 . u y + 171.84 u z H1 T = H 2 T H 2 = H 2 N + H 2 T = 80.2 u x - 315.8 u y + 178.9 u z A m 42. (C) H N1 = - 3u z , H T1 = 10 u x + 15 u y H T 2 = H T1 = 10 u x + 15 u y m 1 ( -3u z ) = 0.15 u z H N 2 = 1 H N1 = m2 20 H 2 = H N 2 + H T 2 = 10 u x + 15 u y - 0.15 u z B2 = m 2H 2 = 20 4 p 10 -7(10 u x + 15 u y - 0.15 u z ) = 251u x + 377 u y - 377 . u z mWb m 2 43. (B) At the boundary normal unit vector 2 u x + 3u y - 4 u z (2 x + 3 y - 4 z) un = = | (2 x + 3 y - 4 z)| 29 = 0.37 u x + 0.56 u y - 0.74 u z Since this vector is found through the gradient, it will point in the direction of increasing values of 2 x + 3 y - 4 z, and so will be directed into region 1. Thus u n = u n 21 .
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Statement for Q.89: The location of the sliding bar in fig. P8.4.89 is given by x = 5 t + 4 t . The separation of the two rails is
3
Statement for Q.1213: Consider the fig. P8.4.1213. The rails have a resistance of 2 W m. The bar moves to the right at a constant speed of 9 m s in a uniform magnetic field of
B
30 cm. Let B = x u z T.
2
y z a
0.8 T. The bar is at x = 2 m at t = 0.

B B
VM
0.2 cm I
b x
Fig. P8.4.89.
8. The voltmeter reading at t = 0.5 s is (A) -21.6 V (C) -6.3 V (B) 21.6 V (D) 6.3 V
16 cm
Fig. P8.41214
12. If 6 W resistor is present across the left-end with the right end open-circuited, then at t = 0.5 sec the current I is (A) -45 mA (C) -60 mA (B) 45 mA (D)60 mA
9. The voltmeter reading at x = 0.6 m is (A) -1.68 V (C) -0.933 V Statement for Q.1011: A perfectly conducting filament containing a 250W resistor is formed into a square as shown in fig. P8.4.10-11.
y I(t)
(B) 1.68 V (D) 0.933 V
13. If 6 W resistor is present across each end, then I at 0.5 sec is (A) -12.3 mA (C) -7.77 mA Statement for Q.1415: (B) 12.3 mA (D) 77.7 mA
0.5 cm
250 W
The internal dimension of a coaxial capacitor is a = 1.2 cm, b = 4 cm and c = 40 cm. The homogeneous
x
material inside the capacitor has the parameter e = 10 -11 F m, m = 10 -5 H m and s = 10 -5 S m.The electric field intensity is E = 10 cos (10 5 t) u p V m. r
7
Fig. P8.4.1011
10. If B = 6 cos (120 pt - 30 ) u z T, then the value of I ( t) is (A) 2.26 sin (120 pt - 30 ) A (B) 2.26 cos (120 pt - 30 ) A (C) -2.26 sin (120 pt - 30 ) A (D) -2.26 cos (120 pt - 30 ) A 11. If B = 2 cos p( ct - y) u z m T, where c is the velocity of light, then I ( t) is (A) 1.2(cos pct - sin pct) m A (B) 1.2(cos pct - sin pct) mA (C) 1.2(sin pct - sin pct) m A (D) 1.2(sin pct - sin pct) mA
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14. The current density J is (A) (B) (C) 200 sin (10 5 t) u r A m 2 r 400 sin (10 5 t) u r A m 2 r 100 cos (10 5 t) u r A m 2 r
(D) None of the above 15. The quality factor of the capacitor is (A) 0.1 (C) 0.2
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(B) 10 (D) 20
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Chap 8.4
16. The following fields exist in charge free regions P = 60 sin ( wt + 10 x) u z Q = 10 cos ( wt - 2r) u f r R = 3r 2 cot f u r + 1 cos fu f r S= (A) P, Q (C) P, R
1 r
(B) -4 a sin (15 . 108 t - ax) u z mA m (C) 4 a sin (15 . 108 t - ax) u z m A m (D) 4 a sin (15 . 108 t - ax) u z mA m 21. The value of a is (A) 4.3 (C) 5 Statement for Q.2223: Let H = 2 cos (1010 t - bx) u z A m, m = 3 10 -5 H m, e = 1.2 10 -10 F m and s = 0 everywhere. 22. The electric flux density D is (A) 120 cos (1010 t - bx) nC m 2 (B) -120 cos (1010 t - bx) nC m 2 (C) 120 cos (1010 t + bx) nC m 2 (D) None of the above (B) 2.25 (D) 6
sin q sin ( wt - 6 r) u q (B) R, S (D) Q, S
The possible electromagnetic fields are
17. A parallel-plate capacitor with plate area of 5 cm 2 and plate separation of 3 mm has a voltage 50 sin (10 3 t) V applied to its plates. If e r = 2, the displacement current is (A) 148 cos (1010 t) nA (C) 261 cos (1010 t) nA (B) 261 cos (1010 t) m A (D) 148 cos (1010 t) m A
18. In a coaxial transmission line ( e r = 1), the electric field intensity is given by E= 100 cos (10 9 t - 6 z) u r V m. r 23. The magnetic flux density B is (A) 6.67 10 4 cos (1010 t + bx) T (B) 6.67 10 4 cos (1010 t - bx) (C) 6 10 -5 cos (1010 t + bx) T (D) 6 10 -5 cos (1010 t - bx) T Statement for Q.2425: A material has s = 0 and e r = 1. The magnetic field intensity is H = 4 cos (106 t - 0.01z) u y A m. 24. The electric field intensity E is (A) 4.52 sin (106 t - 0.01z) kV m (B) 4.52 sin (106 t - 0.01z) V m Statement for Q.1921: Consider the region defined by |x|,|y| and |z|< 1. Let e = 5 e o , m = 4m o , and s = 0 the displacement current density J d = 20 cos (15 . 108 t - ax) u y m A m 2 . Assume no DC fields are present. 19. The electric field intensity E is (A) 6 sin (15 . 108 t - ax) u y mV m (B) 6 cos (15 . 10 t - ax) u y mV m
8
The displacement current density is 100 (A) sin (10 9 t - 6 z) u r A m 2 r (B) 116 sin (10 9 t - 6 z) u r A m 2 r 0.9 sin (10 9 t - 6 z) u r A m 2 r 216 cos (10 9 t - 6 z) u r A m 2 r
(C) (D) -
(C) 4.52 cos (106 t - 0.01z) V m (D) 4.52 cos (106 t - 0.01z) kV m 25. The value of m r is (A) 2 (C) 4 (B) 3 (D) 16
26. The surface r = 3 and 10 mm, and z = 0 and 25 cm are perfect conductors. The region enclosed by these surface has m = 2.5 10 -6 H m, e = 4 10 -11 F m and cos 8 pz cos wt u f A m, then the value of w s = 0. If H = 2 r is (A) 2 p 106 rad s (C) 2 p 108 rad s
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(C) 3 cos (15 . 108 t - ax) u y mV m (D) 3 sin (15 . 108 t - ax) u y mV m 20. The magnetic field intensity is (A) -4 a sin (15 . 108 t - ax) u z m A m
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(B) 8 p 106 rad s (D) 8 p 108 rad s

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Electromagnetics
27. For distilled water m = m o , e = 81e o , and s = 2 10 -3 S m, the ratio of conduction current density to displacement current density at 1 GHz is (A) 111 . 10 -5 (C) 2.68 10 -6 (B) 4.44 10 -4 (D) 1.68 10 -7
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) emf = dF d B dS =dt dt = 2 p(0.2) 2 (20)( 377) sin 377 t mV = 0.95 cos 377 t V 2. (A) emf = 1 1 Bo wL2 = ( 4)(2)(2) 2 = 16 V 2 2
28. A conductor with cross-sectional area of 10 cm 2 carrier a conductor current 2 sin (10 9 t) mA. If s = 2.5 106 S m and e r = 4.6, the magnitude of the displacement current density is (A) 48.4 m A m
2
3. (C) Since B is constant over the loop area, the flux is

2
(B) 8.11 nA m
F = p(0.1) 2 B = 0.31 cos (120 pt) emf = Vba ( t) = dF dt
(C) 32.6 nA m 2 29. In a certain region
(D) 16.4 m A m 2
= 0.31(120 p) sin (120 pt) = 118.43 sin(120 pt)

3 4
J = ( 4 yu x + 2 xzu y + z u z ) sin (10 t) A m If volume charge density r v in z = 0 plane is zero, then r v is (A) 3z 2 cos (10 4 t) mC m 3 (B) 0.3z 2 cos (10 4 t) mC m 3 (C) -3z cos (10 t) mC m
2 4 3
Vab = - 118.43 sin (120 pt) 4. (D) I = Vab 118.43 sin (120 pt) = = 0.47 sin (120 pt) R 250 dF d =dt dt
5. (A) emf = =
loop area
B u dz
z
(D) -0.3z 2 cos (10 4 t) mC m 3 30. In a charge-free region (s = 0, e = e o e r , m = m o ) magnetic field intensity is H = 10 cos (10 t - 4 y) u z
11
d ( 3)( 4)( 6) cos 5000 t = -360000 sin 5000 t dt emf 360000 sin 5000 t = - 0.4 sin 5000 t A =R 900 10 3
1 1
I=
A m. The displacement current density is (A) -40 sin (10 9 t - 4 y) u y A m (B) 40 sin (10 9 t - 4 y) u y A m (C) -40 sin(10 3 t - 4 y) u x A m (D) 40 sin (10 9 t - 4 y) u x A m 31. In a nonmagnetic medium ( e r = 6.25) the magnetic field of an EM wave is H = 6 cos bx cos (108 t) u z A m. The corresponding electric field is (A) 903 sin (0.83 x) sin (108 t) V m (B) 903 sin (12 . x) sin (10 t) V m (C) 903 sin (0.83 x) cos (108 t) V m (D) 903 sin (12 . x) cos (108 t) V m 32. In a nonmagnetic medium E = 5 cos(10 9 t - 8 x) u x + 4 sin(10 9 t - 8 x) u z V m. The dielectric constant of the medium is (A) 3.39 (C) 5.76
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8
6. (C) F =
20m
0 0
cos ( 3 108 t - y) dx dy
= [20m o sin ( 3 108 t - y)]1 0 = 20 m o [sin ( 3 108 t - 1) - sin ( 3 108 t)] Wb Emf = dF dt
= - 20 (4p 10 -7)(3 108 ) [cos (3 108 t - 1) - cos (3 108 t)]
= 7540[cos ( 3 108 t) - cos ( 3 108 t - 1)] V

p 7. (D) In this case F = [20m o (2 p) sin ( 3 108 t - y)]2 0 =0
8. (A) F =
area
B dS =
0 .3 x
t dtdy
2 0 0
= 0.1 x 3 = 0.1(5 t + 4 t 3) 3 Wb emf = dF = -0.1( 3)(5 t + 4 t 3) 2 (5 + 12 t 2 ) dt
(B) 1.84 (D) 2.4

***********
At t = 0.5 s, emf = -0.1( 3)(2.5 + 0.5) 2 (5 + 3) = -21.6 V 9. (C) At x = 0.6 m, 0.6 = 5 t + 4 t 3 At t = 0.119 s,
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t = 0.119 s
emf = -0.933 V
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Maxwells Equations
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Chap 8.4
10. (A) F =
area
B dS = 6(0.5)
cos (120 pt - 30 ) Wb
I d = 2 prlJ d = - 2 pl(10) sin (10 5 t) = - 8 p sin (10 5 t) A Quality factor Id Ic = 8 = 0.1 80 Pz uy 0 x
dF emf = = 6(0.5) 2 (120 p) sin (120 pt - 30 ) dt The current is emf 6(0.5) 2 (120 p) = sin (120 pt - 30 ) A R 250
16. (A) P = 0, P = -
= 2.26 sin (120 pt - 30 ) A 11. (D) F = =
area
B dS = (0.5)(2) cos( py - pct) dy

0
0 .5
P is a possible EM field 1 Q = 0, Q = [10 cos ( wt - 2r)]u z 0 r r is a possible EM field sin f 1 ( 3r 2 cot f) R = 0, R is not an EM field. r r r S = (sin 2 f) 1 sin ( wt - 6 r) 0 r sin q r
2
1 p 1 sin pct - - sin pct = [ - cos pct - sin pct ] m Wb p 2 p dF emf = = c [cos pct - sin pct ] m V dt I ( t) = emf 3 108 = [cos pct - sin pct ] m A 250 R
S is not an EM field. Hence (A) is correct. 17. (A) D = eE = e Id = J S = V d Jd = dD e dV = dt d dt
= 12 . [cos pct - sin pct ] A 12. (A) The flux in the left-hand closed loop is Fl = B area = (0.8)(0.2)(2 + 9 t) dF L = - (0.16)(9) = -1.44 V emfl = dt While the bar in motion, the loop resistance is increasing with time, Rl = 6 + 2[2 (2 + 9 t)] W, At t = 0.5, Rl = 32 W 1.44 Il = = - 45 mA 32 13. (C) In this case, there will be contribution to the current from the right loop, which is now closed. The flux in the right loop, whose area decreases with time, is Fr = (0.8)(0.2)(16 - 2 - 9 t) dF R = 1.44 V emfR = dt Rr = 6 + 2 (2 (14 - 9 t)), At 0.5 s, Rr = 44 W The contribution to the current from the right loop -144 Ir = = 032.7 mA 44 The total current = -32.7 - 45 = -77.7 mA 14. (C) J = s E = 100 cos (10 5 t) u r A m 2 r
eS dV 2 e o 5 10 -4 = 10 3 50 cos (10 3 t) 3 10 -3 d dt
= 148 cos (1010 t) nA 18. (C) D E 100 =e Jd = = eo [ - sin (10 9 t - 6 z)] 10 9 u r A m 2 t t r =0.9 sin (10 9 t - 6 z) u r A m 2 r 20 10 -6 sin (15 . 108 - ax) u y 15 . 108
19. (D) D = J d dt + C1 =
. 108 t - ax) u y C m 3 = 1.33 10 -13 sin (15 C1 is set to zero since no DC fields are present. E= D 1.33 10 -13 = sin (15 . 108 - ax) u y e 5 eo
= 3 10 -3 sin (15 . 108 t - ax) V m 20. (D) E = E y x uz = B t B t
= -a( 3 10 -3) cos (15 . 108 t - ax) u z = B= H= a( 3 10 -3) sin (15 . 108 t - ax) u z 15 . 108
15. (A) Total conduction current 100 cos (10 5 t) u r A m 2 I C = J dS = 2 prlJ = 2 prl r = 80 p cos (10 5 t) A D eE 10 = sin (10 5 t) A m 2 Jd = =t t r
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2 10 -11 B = sin (15 . 108 t - ax) u z A m m 4 4 p 10 -7
. 108 t - ax) u z mA m = 4 10 -6 a sin (15 21. (B) H = www.nodia.co.in
H z u y = Jd x
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Electromagnetics
= a 2 ( 4 10 -6 ) cos (15 . 108 t - ax) = J D Comparing the result a 2 4 10 -6 = 20 10 -6 , a = 5 = 2.25 22. (B) H = H z D uy = x t
27.(B) At high frequency =
Jc sE s = = J d weE we
2 10 -3 = 4.44 10 -4 2 p 10 9 81 e o Ic = sE S E e I c Jd = e = t sS t E= Ic sS
28. (C) J c =
D = 2b sin (1010 t - bx) u y t 2b cos (1010 t - bx) u y C m 2 D =1010 b= w . 10 -10 = 600 = 1010 me = 1010 3 10 -5 12 v
Jd =
4.6 e o (10 9) 2 cos (10 9 t) 10 -3 2.5 106 10 10 -4
|J d | = 32.6 nA m 2
29. (B) J = (0 + 0 + 3z 2 ) sin (10 4 t) = rv = 3z 2 cos (10 4 t) + C1 10 4 8r t
D = -120 cos (1010 t - bx) u y nC m 2 23. (D) B = mH = 6 10 -5 cos (1010 t - bx) u z T 24. (A) H = H y z ux
6
At z = 0, r v = 0, C1 = 0 r v = 0.3z 2 cos (10 4 t) mC m 3 30. (D) J d = H = H z ux y
E H = 0.04 cos (10 t - 0.01z) u x = e o t
0.04 sin (106 t - 0.01z) u x E= 106 e o = 4.52 sin (10 t - 0.01z) u x kV m

6
= 40 sin (10 9 t - 4 y) u y A m 31. (A) H = H z E uz = e y t
Ex H 25. (B) E = uy = -m z t -0.04(0.01) H cos (106 t - 0.01z) u y = - m rm o 106 e o t H= 0.04(0.01) sin (106 t - 0.013) u y (106 )(106 )m rm o e o mr = (0.04)(0.01) ( 3 108 ) 2 = 9 4(1012 )
= 6b sin (bx) cos (108 t) u y 1 E = 6b sin (bx) cos (108 t) u y dt e 6b sin (bx) sin (108 t) u y = e1010 e = 6.25 e o , b = E= w w 108 = er = v c 3 108 6.25 = 0.833
0.04(0.01) =4 1012 m rm o e o
H f 26. (D) H = ur z 16 p E = sin ( 8 pz) cos ( wt) u r = e r t E= 16 p sin ( 8 pz) sin ( wt) u r rew Er (16 p)( 8 p) H uf = cos ( 8 pz) sin ( wt) u f = -m z rew t
6(0.833) sin (bx) sin (108 t) u y V m 6.25 e o 108
= 903 sin (0.83 x) sin (108 t) u y V m 32. (C) For nonmagnetic medium m r = 1 b= 8= w w = er , v c 10 9 108 e r 3 w = 10 9, b = 8, e r = 5.76
E= H=
128 p2 cos ( 8 pz) cos ( wt) u f rew2 8p me 8p 4 10

-11
**********
This result must be equal to the given H field. Thus 128 p2 2 = remw2 r w= = 2.5 10 -6
= 8 p 108 rad s
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CHAPTER
8.5
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE PROPAGATION
Statement for Q.13: A y-polarized uniform plane wave with a frequency of 100 MHz propagates in air in the + x direction and impinges normally on a perfectly conducting plane at x = 0. The amplitude of incident E-field is 6 mV m. 1. The phasor H s of the incident wave in air is (A) 16 e (C) 16 e
-j 2p x 3
(A) 6.43 106 m s (C) 1.4 108 m s Statement for Q.56:
(B) 2.2 10 7 m s (D) None of the above
A uniform plane wave in free space has electric field Es = (2 u z + 3u y) e - jbx V m. 5. The magnetic field phasor H s is (A) ( -5.3u y - 8 u z ) e - jbx m A m (B) (5.3u y - 8 u z ) e - jbx m A m (C) ( -5.3u y + 8 u z ) e - jbx m A m (D) (5.3u y + 8 u z ) e - jbx m A m 6. The average power density in the wave is (A) 34 mW m 2 (C) 22 mW m 2 (B) 17 mW m 2 (D) 44 mW m 2
uz m A m ux m A m
(B) -16 e
-j
2p x 3
uz m A m ux m A m
-j
2p x 3
(D) -16 e
-j
2p x 3
2. The E-field of total wave in air is 2p (A) j12 sin x u y mV m 3 2p (B) - j12 sin x u y mV m 3 2p (C) 12 cos x u y mV m 3 2p (D) -12 cos x u y mV m 3 3. The location in air nearest to the conducting plane, where total E-field is zero, is (A) x = 15 . m (C) x = 3 m (B) x = -15 . m (D) x = - 3 m
7. The electric field of a uniform plane wave in free space is given by Es = 12 p( u y + ju z ) e - j15x . The magnetic field phasor H s is (A) (C)
12 ho 12 ho
( -u z + ju y) e - j15x ( -u z - ju y) e - j15x
(B) (D)
12 ho 12 ho
( u z + ju y) e - j15x ( u z - ju y) e - j15x
Statement for Q.89: A lossy material has m = 5m o , e = 2 e o . The phase constant is 10 rad m at 5 MHz. 8. The loss tangent is (A) 2913 (C) 2468 (B) 1823 (D) 1374
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4. The phasor magnetic field intensity for a 400 MHz uniform plane wave propagating in a certain lossless material is ( 6 u y - j5 u z ) e vp is
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- j18 x
A m . The phase velocity
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Electromagnetics
9. The attenuation constant a is (A) 4.43 (C) 5.57 Statement for Q.1011: At 50 MHz a lossy dielectric material is characterized by m = 2.1m o , e = 3.6 e o and s = 0.08 S m. The electric field is Es = 6 e - jgx u z V m. 10. The propagation constant g is (A) 7.43 + j2.46 per meter (B) 2.46 + j7.43 per meter (C) 6.13 + j5.41 per meter (D) 5.41 + j 6.13 per meter 11. The impedance h is (A) 101.4 W (C) 98.3 W Statement for Q.1213: A non magnetic medium has an intrinsic impedance 360 30 W. 12. The loss tangent is (A) 0.866 (C) 1.732 13. The Dielectric constant is (A) 1.634 (C) 0.936 Statement for Q.1415: The amplitude of a wave traveling through a lossy nonmagnetic medium reduces by 18% every meter. The wave operates at 10 MHz and the electric field leads the magnetic field by 24 . 14. The propagation constant is (A) 0.198 + j0.448 per meter (B) 0.346 + j0.713 per meter (C) 0.448 + j0.198 per meter (D) 0.713 + j0.346 per meter 15. The skin depth is (A) 2.52 m (C) 8.46 m
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16.
60
long
aluminium
( s = 35 . 10 7 S m,
(B) 9.99 (D) None of the above
m r = 1, e 2 = 1) pipe with inner and outer radii 9 mm and 12 mm carries a total current of 16 sin (106 pt) A. The effective resistance of the pipe is (A) 0.19 W (C) 1.46 W (B) 3.48 W (D) 2.43 W
17. Silver plated brass wave guide is operating at 12 GHz. If at least the thickness of silver ( s = 6.1 10 7 S m, m r = e r = 1) is 5 d, the minimum thickness required for wave-guide is (A) 6.41 mm (C) 5.21 mm Statement for Q.1819: A uniform plane wave in a lossy nonmagnetic (B) 3.86 mm (D) 2.94 mm
(B) 167.4 W (D) 67.3 W
media has Es = (5 u x + 12 u y) e - gz , g = 0.2 + j 3.4 m -1 18. The magnitude of the wave at z = 4 m and t = T 8 is (A) 10.34 (C) 4.36 (B) 5.66 (D) 12.60
(B) 0.5 (D) 0.577
19. The loss suffered by the wave in the interval 0 < z < 3 m is (A) 4.12 dB (C) 10.42 dB (B) 8.24 dB (D) 5.21 dB
(B) 1.234 (D) 0.548 Statement for Q.2022: The plane wave E = 42 cos ( wt - z) u x V m in air normally hits a lossless medium (m r = 1, e r = 4) at z = 0. 20. The SWR s is (A) 2 (C) 1 2 (B) 1 (D) None of the above
21. The transmission coefficient t is 2 4 (A) (B) 3 3 (C) 1 3 (D) 3
22. The reflected electric field is (B) 5.05 m (D) 4.23 m (A) -14 cos ( wt - z) u x V m (B) -14 cos ( wt + z) u x V m
UNIT 8
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Electromagnetics
33. The region z < 0 is characterized by e r = m r = 1 and s = 0. The total electric field here is given E s = 150 e - j10 z u x + 50 20 e j10 z u x impedance of the region z > 0 is (A) 692 + j176 W (C) 176 + j 692 W Statement for Q.3435: Region 1, z < 0 and region 2, z > 0, are both perfect dielectrics. A uniform plane wave traveling in the u z direction cm. 34. On the boundary the reflected energy is (A) 6.25% (C) 25% 35. The SWR is (A) 1.67 (C) 2 (B) 0.6 (D) 1.16 (B) 12.5% (D) 50% has a frequency of 3 1010 rad s. Its wavelength in the two region are l1 = 5 cm and l2 = 3 (B) 193 - j 49 W (D) 49 - j193 W V m. The intrinsic
Region 2 (0 < z < 6 cm): m 2 = 2 mH m, e 2 = 25 pF m Region 3 (z > 6 cm): m 3 = 4 mH m, e 3 = 10 pF m
39. The lowest frequency, at which a uniform plane wave incident from region 1 onto the boundary at z = 0 will have no reflection, is (A) 2.96 GHz (C) 1.18 GHz (B) 4.38 GHz (D) 590 MHz
40. If frequency is 50 MHz, the SWR in region 1 is (A) 0.64 (C) 2.38 (B) 1.27 (D) 4.16
41. A uniform plane wave in air is normally incident onto a lossless dielectric plate of thickness l 8 , and of intrinsic impedance h = 260 W. The SWR in front of the plate is (A) 1.12 (C) 1.70 (B) 1.34 (D) 1.93
42. The E-field of a uniform plane wave propagating in a dielectric medium is given by z z 8 E = 2 cos 108 t u x - sin 10 t uy V m 3 3 The dielectric constant of medium is (A) 3 (C) 6 (B) 9 (D) 6
36. A uniform plane wave is incident from region 1 (m r = 1, s = 0) to free space. If the amplitude of incident wave is one-half that of reflected wave in region, then the value of e r is (A) 4 (C) 16 (B) 3 (D) 9
37. A 150 MHz uniform plane wave is normally incident from air onto a material. Measurements yield a SWR of 3 and the appearance of an electric field minimum at 0.3l in front of the interface. The impedance of material is (A) 502 - j 641 W (C) 641 + j502 W (B) 641 - j502 W (D) 502 + j 641 W
43. An electromagnetic wave from an under water source with perpendicular polarization is incident on a water-air interface at angle 20 with normal to surface. For water assume e r = 81, m r = 1. The critical angle q c is (A) 83.62 (C) 42.6 (B) 6.38 (D) None of the above
***********
38. A plane wave is normally incident from air onto a semi-infinite slab of perfect dielectric ( e r = 3.45). The fraction of transmitted power is (A) 0.91 (C) 0.7 Statement for Q.3940: Consider three lossless region : Region 1 (z < 0):
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(B) 0.3 (D) 0.49
m 1 = 4 mH m, e1 = 10 pF m
Electromagnetic Wave Propagation
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Chap 8.5
SOLUTIONS
1. (A) w = 2 p 10
8 8
8. (B) Loss tangent b=w
s =x we
rad s
b=
w 2 p 10 2p = = rad m c 3 108 3
2p -j x 3
2 me s 1+ + 1 2 we
10 = x=
Es = 6 e
u y mV m u y u H = ux , uz = 16 e
-j 2p x 3
2 p 5 106 3 108
52 2
[ 1+ x
+1
uE u H = ux , Hs = 6 e 120 p
-j 2p x 3
u H = uz
s = 1823 we a = b 1 + x2 - 1 1 + x2 + 1
uz m A m 9. (B)
2. (B) For conducting plane G = -1, E r = -6 e

j 2p x 3
u y mV m,
a 1822 = b 1824
2p -j x - j 23p x 3 E = Ei + Er = 6 e u 6 e uy y mV m
a = 10 0.999 = 9.99
2 me s 1+ - 1 2 we
2p = - j12 sin x u y mV m 3 3. (B) The electric field vanish at the surface of the conducting plane at x = 0. In air the first null occur at 3 l p x =- 1 ==- m 2 2 b1 4. (C) vp = w 2 p 400 10 = = 1.4 108 m s b 18
6
10. (D) a = w
s 0.08 = =8 we 3.6 50 106 2 pe o a= 2 p 50 106 3 108 (2.1)( 3.6) ( 65 - 1) = 5.41 2
b=w
2 me s 1+ + 1 2 we
5. (C) The wave is propagating in forward x direction. Therefore u E u H = u x . For u E = u z , u z u H = u x uH = - uy For u E = u y , u y u H = u x u H = u z 1 Hs = ( -2 u y + 3u z ) e - jbx = ( -5.3u y + 8 u z ) e - jbx mA m 120 p 6. (B) Pavg = 1 Re {Es H * s} 2
2 p 50 106 3 108
(2.1)( 3.6) ( 65 + 1) = 6.13 2
g = a + jb = 5.41 + j 6.13 per meter. m e s 1 + we

2
11. (A) |h| =
1 4
120 p
2.1 3.6 = 101.4 1
64 4
1 {(5.3) u x + 3( 8) u x } 10 -3 = 17.3u x mW m 2 2 7. (D) Since Pointing vector is in the positive x direction, therefore u E u H = u x . For u E = u y , u y u H = u x For u E = u z , u z u H = u x 12 Hs = ( u z - ju y) e - j 15x ho u H = uz u H = -u y ,
12. (C)
s = tan 2 q n = tan 60 = 1732 . we m e
13. (D) |h| =
360 =
2 4 s 1 + we 120p er 1
e r = 0.548
2 4 (1 + 1732 . )
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14. (A) |E| = Eo e - az Eo e - a1 = (1 - 0.18) Eo e - a1 = 0.82 q n = 24 1 = 0.198 0.82 s tan 2 q n = = 1111 . we a = ln

2
a = b
s 1+ -1 we s 1+ +1 we 234 - 1 234 + 1 b = 0.448

2
ho - ho 1 h2 - h1 G= = 2 =ho 3 h2 + h1 + ho 2 1 1 + |G| 1 + 3 s= = =2 1 - |G| 1 - 1 3 h 2 o 2h2 2 =2 21. (A) t = = h2 + h1 ho + 2 3 2 22. (A) Eor = GEoi = 1 ( 42) = -14 3
0.198 = b
g = a + jb = 0.198 + j0.448 15. (B) d = 1 1 = = 5.05 a 0.198

5
Er = - 14 cos ( wt - z) u x V m 23. (C) h1 = ho , h2 = m ho ho = = 2 e er
16. (A) w = p106 d= 1 pfsm l sdw =
f = 5 10 5 Hz, 1 = 120 m m
p 5 10 35 . 10 7 m o
ho - ho 1 h2 - h1 G= = 2 =ho 3 h2 + h1 1 + ho 2 24. (D) h1 = ho , h2 = ho Eor h - h1 =G = 2 Eoi h2 + h1 But Eor = h1 H or = GEoi h2 - h1 h1 H or = Eoi h + h 2 1 h2 - h1 18 h1 = -3 h + h 2 1 6 10 mr mr = ho 12.5 er
Rac =
Since d is very small, w = 2 pr outer 60 = 0.19 W Rac = 7 . 10 120 10 -6 2 p 12 10 -3 35 17. (D) t = 5 d = = 5 p 12 10 m o 6.1 10 7
9
5 pfms = 2.94 m m
h1 = ho
h2 - ho ho = 3000 h + h 2 o h2 = 485.37 = ho mr er
18. (B) E = Re{E s e jwt } = (5 u x + 12 u y) e -0 .2 z cos ( wt - 3.4 z) At z = 4 m, t = T 8
377 h - 377 = 2 3000 h 2 + 377 e r = 12.5,
m r = 20.75 m r ho = 2 er
p E = (5 u x + 12 u y) e -0 .8 cos - 13.6 4 p |E |= 13e -0 .8 cos - 13.6 = 5.66 4 19. (D) Loss = aDz = 0.2 3 = 0.6 Np 1 Np = 8.686 DB, 0.6 Np = 5. 21 dB. mr h = o 2 er
25. (A) h1 = ho , h2 = ho G= 1 h2 - h1 =3 h2 + h1
1 10 (10) = 3 3 10 Eor H or = = = 8.8 10 -3 ho 3 377 Eor = uE u H = uk , -u y u H = -u z u H = -u x H r = -8.8 cos ( wt - z) u x mA m w w b =1 = = m r er v c

20. (A) h1 = ho , h2 = ho
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Chap 8.5
w=
3 108 12 3
= 0.5 108 rad s. m r ho = = 0.58ho er 3
33.(A) G = G=
Er 50 20 e j 20 = = Ei 150 3
26. (D) h1 = ho , h2 = ho
h2 - h1 , h1 = ho , h2 + h1 1 + 377 = 1
2
h - h1 0.58ho - ho G= 2 = = -0. 266 h2 + h1 0.58h o + h o t = 1 + G = 0.734, Eot = tEoi = 7.34 Et = 7.34 cos ( wt - z) u y V m 27. (B) ETotal = Ei + Er , Eor = GEoi = -2.66
1 + G h2 = ho 1-G
e j 20 3 e j 20 3
= 692 + j176 W
2
2 pc 2 pc 34. (A) e r1 = , er 2 = l w l w 1 2 ho G= er 2 e r1 h2 - h1 = = ho ho h2 + h1 + er 2 e r1 G= 1 l2 - l1 3 - 5 = =4 l2 + l1 3 + 5 ho
e r1 l2 = er 2 l1
ETotal = 10 cos ( wt - z) u y - 2.66 cos ( wt + z) u y V m 28. (B) m o = m 1 = m 2 sin q t1 = eo sin q i e1 sin q t1 = 1 sin 45 = 0.333 4.5
e r1 -1 er 2 e r1 er 2
l2 -1 l = 1 l2 +1 +1 l1
q t1 = 19.47
e 4.5 29. (B) sin q t 2 = 1 sin q t1 = (0.333) = 0.47 e2 2.25 q t 2 = sin -1 0.47 = 28
The fraction of the incident energy that is reflected is 1 = 6.25%. G2 = 16 1 4 = 5 35. (A) s = = 1 1 - |G| 3 14 1 + |G| 1+ 36. (D) h2 = ho , h1 = ho mr h = o er er
30. (A) Since both media are non magnetic tan q B = e1 = e2 2.6 e o = 2.6 eo
But cos q t =
h1 h cos q B = o cos 58.2 = 2.6 cos 58.2 ho h2 2.6
q t = 31.8 mr h = o = 0.447ho er 5
G=
Ei Er
1 h2 - h1 = 2 h2 + h1 ho er = 9
31. (A) h1 = ho , h2 = ho
h - h1 G= 2 = - 0.38, t = 1 + G = 0.62 h2 + h1 Et = tEi = 92.7 cos ( wt - 8 y) u z V m 32. (B) |G| = 0.2 ,

2
er 1 = ho 2 ho + er
ho -
G = 0.447 m r1 m r2 3 3 mr mr 2 1 m r2 m r1 + 3 3 mr mr 2 1 m r1 - m r 2 m r1 + m r 2
37. (C) At minimum 2p f = 0.2 p l s -1 3 -1 1 = = |G| = s+1 3+1 2 h - ho G = 0.5 e j 0 .2 p = 2 h2 + ho b= =
( f + p) = 0.3l , 2b
G=
h2 - h1 = h2 + h1
ho ho
m r2 m r1 - ho er 2 e r1 m r2 m r1 + ho er 2 e r1
m r 2 1 + 0.447 = = 0.382, 2.62 m r1 1 0.447 e r1 m r 2 = er 2 m r1 = 0.056, 17.9

3
1 + 0.5 e j 0 .2 p h2 = ho 1 - 0.5 e j 0 .2 p = 641 + j502 W
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38. (A) h1 = ho , h2 = ho h - h1 G= 2 = h2 + h1 ho 3.45 ho 3.45 - ho + ho
mr ho = er 3.45 = -0.3
3 108 er
108 1 3
e r = 3.
43. (B) q c = sin -1
er 2 = sin -1 e r1
1 = 6.38 81
********
2
The transmitted fraction is 1 - |G| = 1 - 0.09 = 0.91. 39. (C) This frequency gives the condition b2 d = p Where d = 6 cm, b2 = w m 2 e 2 w m 2 e2 = f = p 0.06 1 2 0.06 2 10 -6 25 10 -12 = 118 . GHz
40. (B) At 50 MHz, b2 = w m 2 e2 = 2 p 50 10 6 2 10 -6 25 10 -12 = 2. 2 b2 d = 2.22(0.06) = 0.133 h1 = m1 4 10 -6 = = 632 W e1 10 -11 m2 2 10 -6 = = 283 W e2 25 10 -12
h3 = 632 W h2 =
The input impedance at the first interface is h3 + jh2 tan (b2 d) 632 + j283(0.134) hin = h2 283 + j 632(0.134) = 283 h + jh tan (b d) 2 3 2 = 590 - j138 h - h1 590 - j138 - 632 G = in = = 0.12 - 100.5 h in + h1 590 - j138 + 632 s= 1 + |G| 1 - |G| = 1 + 0.12 = 1.27 1 - 0.12 2p l p p = , tan =1 l 8 4 4
41. (C) bd =
h2 = 260, h1 = h3 = ho h3 + jh2 tan (b2 d) 377 + j260 hin = h2 260 + j 377 = 260 h + jh tan (b d) 2 3 2 = 243 - j92 W h - ho 243 - j92 - 377 G = in = = 0.26 - 137 hin + ho 243 - j92 + 377 s= 1 + |G| 1 - |G| = 126 . = 170 . 0.74 1 3 rad m, v = c er = w b
42. (A) w = 108 rad s, b =

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CHAPTER
8.7
WAVEGUIDES
Statement for Q.13: A 2 cm by 3 cm rectangular waveguide is filled with a dielectric material with e r = 6. The waveguide is operating at 20 GHz with TM11 mode. 1. The cutoff frequency is (A) 3.68 GHz (C) 9.02 GHz 2. The phase constant is (A) 816 rad m (C) 1009 rad m 3. The phase velocity is (A) 1.24 108 m s (C) 305 . 10 m s
8
Statement for Q.67: In an air-filled rectangular waveguide the cutoff frequencies for TM11 and TE03 modes are both equal to 12 GHz. 6. The dominant mode is (B) 22.09 GHz (D) 16.04 GHz (A) TM10 (C) TE01 (B) TM 01 (D) TE10
(B) 412 rad m (D) 168 rad m
7. At dominant mode the cutoff frequency is (A) 11.4 GHz (C) 5 GHz (B) 4 GHz (D) 8 GHz
(B) 154 . 106 m s (D) 7.48 10 m s

8
8. For an air-filled rectangular waveguide given that 2 px 3py 12 Ez = 10 sin sin cos (10 t - bz) V m a b If the waveguide has cross-sectional dimension a = 6 cm and b = 3 cm, then the intrinsic impedance of this mode is (A) 373.2 W (C) 375.1 W Statement for Q.910: In an air-filled waveguide, a TE mode operating at 6 GHz has 2 px py E y = 15 sin cos sin ( wt - 12 z) V m a b
4. In an an-filled rectangular wave guide, the cutoff frequency of a TE10 mode is 5 GHz where as that of TE01 mode is 12 GHz. The dimensions of the guide is (A) 3 cm by 1.25 cm (C) 6 cm by 2.5 cm (B) 1.25 cm by 3 cm (D) 2.5 cm by 6 cm
(B) 378.9 W (D) 380.0 W
5. Consider a 150 m long air-filled hollow rectangular waveguide with cutoff frequency 6.5 GHz. If a short pulse of 7.2 GHz is introduced into the input end of the guide, the time taken by the pulse to return the input end is (A) 920 ns (C) 230 ns
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(B) 460 ns (D) 430 ns
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Electromagnetics
9. The cutoff frequency is (A) 4.189 GHz (C) 8.438 GHz (B) 5.973 GHz (D) 7.946 GHz
16. The cross section of a waveguide is shown in fig. P8.7.16. It has dielectric discontinuity as shown in fig. P8.7.16. If the guide operate at 8 GHz in the dominant mode, the standing wave ratio is
y
10. The intrinsic impedance is (A) 35.72 W (C) 1989 W Statement for Q.1112. Consider an air-filled rectangular wave guide with cm. The y-component of the a = 2.286 cm and b = 1016 . TE mode is 2 px 3py 10 E y = 12 sin cos sin (10 p 10 t - bz) V m a b 11. The propagation constant g is (A) j 4094.2 (C) j2733.3 (B) j 400.7 (D) j276.4 (A) -3.911 (C) 1.564 (B) 3978 W (D) 71.44 W
x
2.5 cm mo, eo mo, 2.25eo z 5 cm
Fig. P8.7.16
(B) 2.468 (D) 4.389
Statement for Q.1719: Consider the rectangular cavity as shown in fig. P8.7.1719.
y
12. The intrinsic impedance is (A) 743 W (C) 986 W Statement for Q.1314: Consider a air-filled waveguide operating in the TE12 mode at a frequency 20% higher than the cutoff frequency. 13. The phase velocity is (A) 1.66 108 m s (C) 2.46 108 m s 14. The group velocity is (A) 1.66 108 m s (C) 2.46 108 m s 15. A rectangular (B) 4.42 108 m s (D) 9.43 108 m s waveguide is filled with a 20. The air filled cavity resonator has dimension a = 3 cm, b = 2 cm, c = 4 cm. The resonant frequency for the TM110 mode is (A) 5 GHz (C) 16.2 GHz
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(B) 168 W (D) 144 W

x a 0
Fig. P8.7.1719
17. If a < b < c, the dominant mode is (A) TE011 (C) TE101 (B) TM110 (D) TM101
(B) 5.42 108 m s (D) 9.43 108 m s
18. If a > b > c, then the dominant mode is (A) TE011 (C) TE101 (B) TM110 (D) TM101
19. If a = c > b, then the dominant mode is (A) TE011 (C) TE101 (B) TM110 (D) TM101
polyethylene ( e r = 2.25) and operates at 24 GHz. The cutoff frequency of a certain mode is 16 GHz. The intrinsic impedance of this mode is (A) 2248 W (C) 421.4 W
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(B) 337.2 W (D) 632.2 W
(B) 6.4 GHz (D) 9 GHz

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Electromagnetics
frequency, the TM1 mode propagates through the guide without suffering any reflective loss at the dielectric interface. This frequency is
SOLUTIONS
1. (A) fc = v m n + 2 a b
2 2 2
er1 = 4 Incident wave
er2 = 2.1
1 cm z
3 108 2 6 10 -2
Fig. P8.7.34
1 1 + = 3.68 GHz 2 3
2 2
(A) 8.6 GHz (C) 4.3 GHz Statement for Q.3536:
(B) 12.8 GHz (D) 7.5 GHz fc fc w 2. (C) bp = b 1 - f f = v 1 - bp =
A 6 cm 4 cm rectangular wave guide is filled with dielectric of refractive index 1.25. 35. The range of frequencies over which single mode operation will occur is (A) 2.24 GHz < f < 3.33 GHz (B) 2 GHz < f < 3 GHz (C) 4.48 GHz < f <7.70 GHz (D) 4 GHz < f < 6 GHz 36. The range of frequencies, over which guide support both TE10 and TE01 modes and no other, is (A) 3.35 GHz < f < GHz (B) 2.5 GHz < f < 3.6 GHz (C) 3 GHz < f < 3.6 GHz (D) 2.5 GHz < f < 4.02 GHz 37. Two identical rectangular waveguide are joined end to end where a = 2 b. One guide is air filled and other is filled with a lossless dielectric of e r . it is found that up to a certain frequency single mode operation can be simultaneously (A) 4 (C) 1 ensured in both (B) 2 (D) 6 guide. For this frequency range, the maximum allowable value of e r is
2 p 20 10 9 6 3.68 1 - = 1009 rad m 3 108 20 w 2 p 20 10 9 = = 1.24 108 m s bp 1009 v , 2a
3. (A) vp =
4. (A) For TE10 mode fc = a= v 3 108 = = 3 cm 2 fc 2 5 10 9 v , 2b
For TE01 mode fc = b=
v 3 108 = = 1.25 cm 2 fc 2 12 10 9 c fc 1 - f
2
5. (D) v =
3 108 6.5 1 - 7.2

2
= 6.975 108 ms
t=
2l 2 150 = = 430 ns v 6.975 108 3 108 3 0+ 2 b

2 2
6. (C) 12 10 9 = 12 . 10 9 =
b = 375 . cm
3 108 1 1 + a = 1.32 cm 2 . 10 -2 a 375
Since a < b, the dominant mode is TE01 . 7. (B) fc 01 = 3 108 v = = 4 GHz 2 b 2 375 . 10 -2
38. A parallel-plate guide operates in the TEM mode only over the frequency range 0 < f < 3 GHz. The dielectric between the plates is teflon ( e r = 2.1). The maximum allowable plate separation b is (A) 3.4 cm (C) 4.3 cm
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8. (C) Ez 0, this must be TM 23 mode ( m = 2, n = 3) fc = f = 3 108 2 10 -2 2 3 + = 15.81 GHz 6 3

2 2
(B) 6.8 cm (D) 8.6 cm

*************
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w 1012 = = 159.2 GHz 2p 2p
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Chap 8.7
fc 15.81 hTM = 377 1 - f = 377 1 - 159.2 = 375.1 W 9. (B) m = 2, n = 1, bp = 12, f = 6 GHz fc w 1 - bp = f v

2
h1 =
ho fc 1 - f c 2 a er ho er =
2
377 3 1 - 8 3 108
2
= 406.7 W
In dielectric medium
2
2 p 6 10 9 f 12 = 1 - c 8 3 10 6
fc = h=
2 0.05 2.25
= 2 GHz 251.33 2 1 - 8
2
fc = 5.973 GHz 377 fc 1 - f

2
377 2.25
= 251.33 W, h2 =
= 259.23 W
10. (B) hTE =
377 5.973 1 - 6
2
= 3978 W G= s=
259.23 - 406.7 h2 - h1 = = -0.22 259.23 + 406.7 h2 + h1 1 + |G| 1 + 0.22 = = 1564 . 1 -|G| 1 - 0.22 v m n p + + 2 a b c
2 2 2
11. (B) m = 2, n = 3, fc = 3 108 c m n + = 2 a 2 10 -2 b 10 p 1010 = 50 GHz 2p

2 2 2
2 3 2.286 + 1016 .
17. (A) fr =
= 46.2 GHz f =
where for TM mode to z m = 1, 2, 3...... , 46.2 1 - 50

2
fc w 1 - bp = f v
2 p 50 10 9 = 3 108
n = 1, 2, 3...... , p = 0, 1, 2 ...... For TE mode to z m = 1, 2, 3....., n = 1, 2, 3..... p = 1, 2, 3...... , if a < b < c, then 1 1 1 > > a b c
2
= 400.7 m -1 , g = jbp = j 400.7 12. (C) hTE = 377 fc 1 - f

2
377 46.2 1 - 50
2
= 986 W
13. (A) v = c, f = 1.2 fc vp = v fc 1 - f

2
The lowest TM mode is TM110 with

8 2
3 10
fc 1 - 1.2 f c
2
= 5. 42 108 m s
fr1 =
v 1 1 + 2 a b
2
The lowest TE mode is TE011 with fr 2 = v 1 1 + 2 b c

2
fc fc 8 14. (A) v g = v 1 - f = c 1 - = 1.66 10 m s 12 . fc 15. (B) h = hTE = h fc 1 - f

2
fr 2 > fr1 , Hence the dominant mode is TE011 18. (B) If a > b > c then 1 1 1 < < a b c
377 er
377 = 251.33 W . 15 251.33 16 1 - 24

2
The lowest TM mode is TM110 with fr1 = v 1 1 + 2 a b

2 2 2
= 337.2 W
The lowest TE mode is TE101 with fr 2 = v 1 1 + 2 a c

2
16. (C) Since a > b, the dominant mode is TE10 . In free space fc = c 3 108 = = 3 GHz 2 a 2 0.05
fr 2 > fr1
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Hence the dominant mode is TM110 .

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19. (C) If a = c > b, then
1 1 1 = < a c b
Mode lc (cm)
TE10 14.4
TE01 6.8
TE11 6.15
TE20 7.21
The lowest TM mode is TM110 with fr1 = v 1 1 + 2 a b v 1 1 + 2 a c

2 2 2
l > lc . Hence TE10 mode can be used. 26. (C) Let a = kb , 1 < k < 2 fcmn = c m 15 . 108 n + = 2 a a b
2 2
The lowest TE mode is TE101 with

2
fr 2 =
m 2 + k2 n2 15 . 108 a
fr2 < fr1 Hence the dominant mode is TE101 . 20. (D) fr = = v m n p + + 2 a b c
2 2 2 2 2
Dominant mode is TE10 , fc10 = 3 GHz > 12 . fc a > 6 cm 3 10 9 >
12 . 15 . 108 a 15 . 108 , b
3 108 1 1 + = 9 GHz 2 0.01 3 2
The next higher mode is TE01 , fc 01 = 3 GHz < 0.8 fc 01 3 10 9 <
21. (A) m = n = 1, p = 0, a = b = c, fr = 2 Ghz, fr = v m n p + + 2 a b c 3 108 2 2 a mc 2 b er =

2 2 2
0.8 15 . 108 b
b < 4 cm, Thus (C) is correct option. c 3 108 = = 2.3 GHz 2 a 2 0.065
2
2 10 9 =
a = 10.6 cm
27. (C) fc =
9
22. (A) fc =
2 3 108 2 0.01 e r
= 10 10
er = 9
vp =
c fc 1 - f
3 108 2.3 1 - 3
2
= 4.7 108 m s
23. (A) For a propagating mode f > fcm , fcm = m< mc 2 b er , f > mc 2 b er m< 2 fb e r c
28. (B) For TE10 mode Rs = 1 pfm = = sc d sc p 9 10 9 4 p 10 -7 = 0.0568 . 10 7 11
2 30 10 9 0.01 2.5 3 108
m < 316 .
The maximum allowed m is 3. The propagating mode will be TM1 , TE1 , TM 2 , TE2 , TM 3 , TE3 and TEM Thus total 7 modes. 24. (B) fcm = f = vg2 mc 2 b er fc 2 = 2 fc1 = 15 GHz
2 2 2 b fc 2 15 . 3.876 Rs 1 + 0 0 . 568 1 + a 2.4 9 f = ac = 2 2 fc 3.876 -2 15 10 233 8 1 . . bh 1 - f 9
= 0.022 , 29. (B) sd 10 -15 10 -15 = = we 2 p 9 10 9 2.6 8.85 10 -12 1.3 1 me = c 2.6 , h 377 2.6 = 233.8
c 3 108 = = 20 GHz l 0.015 fc 15 8 8 = c 1 - f = 3 10 1 - 20 = 2 10 m s

s
2 2
sd << 1, hence v we fc = 3 108 2 2.4 10 -2 2.6 sdh fc 1 - f

2
= 3.876 GHz
25. (A) fc =
2 c m n + , lc = 2 2 2 a b m n + a b
ad =
10 -15 233.8 3.876 2 1 - 9

2
= 1.3 10 -13 Np m
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30. (D) Dominant mode is TE10 mode fc = c 3 108 = = 2.08 GHz 2 a 2 0.072 pfm o = sc p 3 10 4 p 10 5.8 10 7
9 -7
g=
mp np w + - = a b n
2p 1.5 1.875 p - 3 108 0.08
= j 439 . = 1.429 10 -2 W 34. (B) The ray angle is such that the wave is interface at Brewsters angle q B = tan -1 2.1 = 35.9 . 4
Rs =
For TE10 mode

2 2 b fc 2 3.4 2.08 -2 Rs 1 + 1.429 10 1 + 7.2 3 a f = ac = 2 2 fc 2.08 377 0.034 1 - bh 1 - f 3
The ray angle q = 90 -35.9 = 54.1 fc1 = f = c 2 b e r1 = 3 1010 = 7.5 GHz 2 1 2
= 2.25 10 e- a c z 1 = 2
-3
Np m z= 1 ln 2 = 308 m ac
7.5 fc1 = = 12.8 GHz cos q cos 54.1 c 2 er = = m n + a b

2 2
35. (A) fc = fc10 = fc 01 = c a2 e r c b2 e r
31. (B) fcmn = c m 3 108 m n n + = + 2 a 2 0.01 8 10 b

2 2 2 2 2 2
3 108 = 2 GHz . 0.06 2 125 3 108 = 3 GHz . 0.04 2 125
m n = 15 + GHz 8 10 fc10 = 1.875 GHz fc 01 = 15 . GHz, fc 20 = 375 . GHz , fc 21 = 4.04 GHz, fc11 = 2.4 GHz fc 02 = 3 GHz, fc12 = 354 . GHz,
2 GHz < f < 3 GHz 36. (C) fc11 = 3 108 . 10 -2 2 125 1 1 + = 3.6 GHz 6 4
2 2
3 GHz < f < 3.6 GHz 37. (A) fc = c 2 er m n + , In guide 1 e r = 1 2b b c 2(2 b) c 2b c 2 e r 2 (2 b)

2 2
fc 30 = 5.625 GHz , fc 03 = 4.5 GHz If fc < f , then mode will be transmit. Hence six mode will be transmitted. 32. (C) For dominant mode (m = 1, n = 0) c m 3 108 n GHz . fc = = 375 + = 2 a 2 0.04 b Since given frequency is below the cutoff frequency, 3 GHz will not be propagated and get attenuated mp np w g = a + jb = - + a b n b = 0, Since wave is attenuated, mp w p 2 p 3 10 a= - = - 8 a c 0.04 3 10 c m n + 2 a b
2 2 2 2 2 9 2 2 2 2 2
lowest cutoff frequency fc10 =
Next lowest cutoff frequency fc 20 =
In guide 2 lowest cutoff frequency fc10 = Next lowest cutoff frequency fc20 = For single mode fc10 < f < fc10 c
2 e r 2 ( b)
= 47.1
c c <f < 2(2 b) 2 e r ( b) f <
er < 4
38. (A) f < fc 3 10 9 <
v 3 108 = 2 b 2 b 2.1 b < 3.4 cm
33. (B) fc = fc10 =
3 108 2 b 2.1
3 108 c = = 1.875 GHz 2 a 2 0.08

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CHAPTER
8.8
ANTENNAS
1. A Hertizian dipole at the origin in free space has dl = 10 cm and I = 20 cos (2 p 10 t) A. The | E| at the
7
5. The time-average poynting vector at 50 km is (A) 6.36u r mW m 2 (C) 9.55u r mW m 2 (B) 4.78u r mW m 2 (D) 12.73u r mW m 2
distant point (100, 0, 0) is (A) 0.252 V m (C) 0.04 V m Statement for Q.23: A 25 A source operating at 300 MHz feeds a Hertizian dipole of length 4 mm situated at the origin. Consider the point P(10, 30, 90). 2. The H at point P is (A) j0.25 mA m (C) j0.5 mA m 3. The E at point P is (A) j0.25 mV m (C) j94.25 mV m (B) j0.5 mV m (D) j188.5 mV m (B) 94.25 mA m (D) 188.5 mA m (B) 0.126 V m (D) 0.08 V m
6. The maximum electric field at that location is (A) 24 mV m (C) 109 mV m (B) 85 mV m (D) 12 mV m
7. In free space, an antenna has a far-zone field given by E =

1 r
10 sin 2 q e - jbr u q V m. The radiated power is (B) 0.89 W (D) 1.23 W far field,
2
(A) 0.23 W (C) 1.68 W 8. At

1 r2 p 2
the
an
antenna
produces and
Pave =
cos q cos f u r W m , where
0<q<p
0 < f < . The directive gain of the antenna is (A) cos q cos f (C) 8 cos q sin f Statement for Q.910: The radiation intensity of antennas has been given. Determine the directivity of antenna. 9. U ( q, f) = sin 2 q, 0 < q < p , (A) 1.875 0 < f < 2p (B) 2.468 (D) 6.743 0 < q < p, (B) 12 (D) 6
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(B) 2 sin q cos f (D) 8 sin q cos f
4. An antenna can be modeled as an electric dipole of length 4 m at 3 MHz. If current is uniform over its length, then radiation resistance of the antenna is (A) 1.974 W (C) 2.186 W Statement for Q.56: A antenna located on the surface of a flat earth transmit an average power of 150 kW. Assume that all the power is radiated uniformly over the surface of hemisphere with the antenna at the center.
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(B) 1.263 W (D) 2.693 W
(C) 3.943 10. U ( q, f) = 4 sin 2 q sin 2 f , (A) 15 (C) 3

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0 <f<p
Antennas
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Chap 8.8
11. The radiation intensity of a antenna is given by U ( q, f) = 8 sin q cos f , where 0 < q < p and 0 < f < p. The
2 2
directive gain is (A) 6 sin 2 q cos 2 f (C) 3 sin 2 f cos 2 q Statement for Q.1213: At the far field, an antenna radiates a field 0.4 cos 2 q - jbr Ef = e kV m 4 pr 12. The total radiated power is (A) 1.36 W (C) 0.844 W (B) 2.14 W (D) 3.38 W (B) 3 sin 2 q cos 2 f (D) 6 sin 2 f cos 2 q
19. Two identical antenna separated by 12 m are oriented for maximum directive gain. At a frequency of 5 GHz, the power received by one is 30 dB down from the transmitted by the other. The gain of antenna is (A) 22 dB (C) 19 dB Statement for Q.2021: An L-band pulse radar has common transmitting and receiving antenna. The antenna having directive gain of 36 dB operates at 1.5 GHz and transmits 200 kW. The object is 120 km from the radar and its scattering cross section is 8 m 2 . 20. The magnitude of the incident electric field intensity of the object is (A) 1.82 V m (C) 0.34 V m (B) 2.46 V m (D) 0.17 V m (B) 16 dB (D) 13 dB
13. The directive gain at q = p 3 is (A) 0.3125 (C) 1.963 (B) 0.625 (D) 3.927
14. An antenna has directivity of 100 and operates at 150 MHz. The maximum effective aperture is (A) 31.8 m 2 (C) 26.4 m 2 (B) 62.4 m 2 (D) 13.2 m 2
21. The magnitude of the scattered electric field at the radar is (A) 18 mW (C) 17 mW (B) 12 mW (D) 126 mW
15. Two half wave dipole antenna are operated at 100 MHz and separated by 1 km. If 100 W is transmitted by one, the power received by the other is (D = 1.68) (A) 12 mW (C) 18 mW (B) 10 mW (D) 16 mW
22. A transmitting antenna with a 300 MHz carrier frequency produces 2 kW of power. If both antennas has unity power gain, the power received by another antenna at a distance of 1 km is (A) 11.8 mW (C) 18.4 mW (B) 18.4 mW (D) 12.7 mW
16. The electric field strength impressed on a half wave dipole is 6 mV m at 60 MHz. The maximum power received by the antenna is (D = 1.68) (A) 159 nW (C) 196 mW (B) 230 nW (D) 318 mW
23. A bistatic radar system shown in fig. P8.7.23 has following parameters: f = 5 GHz, necessary radiated power is Gdt = 34 dB, Gdr = 22 dB. To obtain a return power of 8 pW the minimum
Target s = 2.4m2
Scattered wave
17. The power transmitted by a synchronous orbit satellite antenna is 480 W. The antenna has a gain of 40 dB at 15 GHz. The earth station is located at distance of 24, 567 km. If the antenna of earth station has a gain of 32 dB, the power received is (A) 32 pW (C) 10.2 pW (B) 3.2 fW (D) 1.3 fW
Receiving antenna 3 km
Incident wave
4 km
Transmitting antenna
Fig. P8.7.23
(A) 1.394 kW (C) 1.038 kW
(B) 2.046 kW (D) 3.46 kW
18. The directive gain of an antenna is 36 dB. If the antenna radiates 15 kW at a distance of 60 km, the time average power density at that distance is (A) 9.42 mW m 2 (C) 1.32 mW m 2
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24. The radiation resistance of an antenna is 63 W and loss resistance 7 W. If antenna has power gain of 16, then directivity is (A) 48.26 dB (C) 38.96 dB (B) 12.5 dB (D) 24.7 dB
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(B) 6.83 mW m 2 (D) 10.46 mW m 2
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UNIT 8
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Electromagnetics
25. An antenna is desired to operate on a frequency of 40 MHz whose quality factor is 50. The bandwidth of antenna is (A) 5.03 MHz (C) 127 kHz (B) 800 kHz (D) None of the above 1. (B) b =
SOLUTIONS
w 2 p 10 7 2 p = = c 3 108 30 hI obdl sin q 4 pr At far field | Eq| =
26. A thin dipole antenna is l 15 long. If its loss resistance is 1.2 W, the efficiency is (A) 41.1% (C) 74.5% Statement for Q.2729: An array comprises of two dipoles that are separated by the wavelength. The dipoles are fed by currents of the same magnitude and phase. 27. The array factor is (A) 2 cos ( p cos q + 45 ) (C) 2 cos ( p sin q + 45 ) (B) 2 cos ( p sin q ) (D) 2 cos ( p cos q ) (B) 59% (D) 25.5%
h = 120 p = 377, I o = 20, dl = 10 cm p At (100 cm, 0, 0), q = 2 120 p 20 0.1 2 p = 0.126 V m | Eq| = 4 p 100 30 2. (A) b = w 2 p 300 106 = = 2p c 3 108
r = 10 m, q = 30 , f = 90 jI bdl At far field H = H f = o sin q e - jbr 4 pr Hf = j(2.5)(2 p) ( 4 10 -3) - j 2 p10 e = j0.25 mA m 4 p(10)
28. The nulls of the pattern occur when q is (A) 30, 150 (C) 45, 135 (B) 60, 120 (D) 0, 180
3. (C) E = Eq = hH f = 377 H f = j94.25 mV m 4. (B) l = c 3 108 = = 100 f 3 106
29. The maximum of the pattern occur at (A) q = 45 , 135 (C) q = 30 , 150 (B) q = 0, 90 , 180 (D) q = 60 , 150
dl 4 1 1 = = < l 100 25 10 80 p2 dl Rrad = 80 p2 = = 1263 . W 625 l 5. (C) Prad = Pave dS = Pave 2 pr 2 Pave = Prad 150 10 3 = = 9.55 mW m 2 2 pr 2 2 p(50 10 3) 2
2
30. An array comprises two dipoles that are separated by half wavelength. If the dipoles are fed by currents, that are 180 out of phase with each other, then array factor is
p (A) sin ( 4 cos q +
) p p (C) cos ( 2 cos q + 2 )

p 4
p (B) cos ( 4 cos q +
) p p (D) sin ( 2 cos q + 2 )

p 2
P = 9.55 u r mW m 2 6. (B) Pave = ( Emax ) 2 2h Emax = 2hPave
31. An antenna consists of 4 identical Hertizian dipoles uniformly located along the zaxis and polarized in the z-direction. The spacing between the dipole is l / 4 . The group pattern function is
p p (A) 4 cos ( 4 cos q) cos ( 2 cos q) p p (B) 4 cos ( 4 cos q) cos (8 cos q) p p (C) 4 cos ( 4 cos q) sin ( 2 cos q) p p (D) 4 cos ( 4 cos q) sin (8 cos q)
Emax = 2 377 9.55 10 -6 = 85 mV m

2 |E| 2h
7. (B) Pave = Prad = = =
100 sin 2 2 q sin q dq df 2h

p
100 (2 p)(2 sin q cos q) 2 sin q dq 2 120 p 0 10 sin 3 q cos 2 qdq = 0.89 W 3 0
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p
***********
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Electromagnetics
Gd =
4 p(12) 1 = 79.48 = 19 dB 0.06 10 3
27. (D) bd =
20. (A) Gd = 36 dB = 3981 Gd = 4 pr 2 Pi Prad Pi =

2 Gd Prad |E| = 4 pr 2 2h
2p l = 2p , a = 0 l bd cos q + a AF = 2 cos = 2 cos ( p cos q)= 2 cos ( p cos q) 2
28. (B) cos ( p cos q) = 0 cos q = p cos q = 1 2 p 3p , 2 2 q = 60 , 120 d( AF ) =0 dq q = 0, 90 , 180
(240 p) Gd Prad |E|= 4 pr 2 = ( 60)( 3981)(200 10 3) (120 10 3) 2
= 1.82 V m 21. (B) |Es|= 1.82 = 120 10 3 22. (D) l =

2 s |Ei| s |Er| = 4 pr 2 4p r
29. (B) Maxima occur when sin ( p cos q) p sin q = 0 30. (B) bd =
8 4p
= 12 m W
c 3 108 = =1 m f 300 106

2 2
2p l =p , a =p l 2 p bd cos q + a p AF = 2 cos = cos cos q + 2 2 4 Nf sin 2 = y sin 2
l 1 Pr = Gdr Gdt 2000 = 12.7 mW P = (1)(1) 3 4 p r 4 p10 23. (C) Pr = Gdr Gdt l 4p 4 pr1 r2 sPrad
2
31. (A) ( AF ) N
Gdt = 34 dB = 2512, Gdr = 22 dB = 158.5 r1 = 3 km, r2 = 32 + 4 2 = 5 km l= 3 108 = 0.06 m, Pr = 8 pW 5 10 9

-12
y = bd cos q + a , N = 4 sin 4 x 2 sin 2 x cos 2 x = = 4 cos x cos 2 x sin x sin x y p 2p l p = cos q bd = = , a = 0, 2 4 l 4 2 p p AF = 4 cos cos q cos cos q . 4 2
8 10
0.06 (2512)(158.5) = (2.4) Prad 4p 4 3 5 p ( k )( k )
************
kW Prad = 1038 . 63 = 0.9 63 + 7
24. (B) Efficiency = D=
Gain 16 = = 17.78 = 12.5 dB Efficiency 0.9 f 40 106 = = 800 kHz Q 50

2
25. (B) BW =
dl 26. (C) Radiation resistance Rr = 80 p2 l 1 = 80 p2 . W = 351 15 Efficiency =

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351 . Rr = = 74.5 % . + 12 . Rr + RL 351

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CHAPTER
9.1
LINEAR ALGEBRA
0 1. If A = - 1 2 (A) 0 (C) 2 1 0 -2 -2 3 l is a singular matrix, then l is (B) -2 (D) -1 8. Every diagonal element of a SkewHermitian matrix is 2. If A and B are square matrices of order 4 4 such that A = 5B and A = a B , then a is (A) 5 (C) 625 (B) 25 (D) None of these 9. If A is Hermitian, then iA is (A) Symmetric 3. If A and B are square matrices of the same order such that AB = A and BA = A , then A and B are both (A) Singular (C) Involutory (B) Idempotent (D) None of these (C) Hermitian (B) Skewsymmetric (D) SkewHermitian (A) Purely real (C) Purely imaginary (B) 0 (D) 1 7. Every diagonal elements of a Hermitian matrix is (A) Purely real (C) Purely imaginary (B) 0 (D) 1
10. If A is SkewHermitian, then iA is (A) Symmetric (C) Hermitian - 1 - 2 11. If A = 2 1 2 -2 (A) A (C) 3A t (B) Skewsymmetric (D) SkewHermitian. -2 - 2 , then adj. A is equal to 1 (B) c t (D) 3A
-5 -8 0 4. The matrix, A = 3 5 0 is 1 2 -1 (A) Idempotent (C) Singular (B) Involutory (D) None of these
5. Every diagonal element of a skewsymmetric matrix is (A) 1 (C) Purely real 6. The matrix, A = (A) Orthogonal (C) Unitary
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1 2 i 2
(B) 0 (D) None of these

i 2
-1 2 12. The inverse of the matrix is 3 -5 5 (A) 3 2 1 5 (B) 2 3 1
1 2
is
(B) Idempotent (D) None of these
-5 -2 (C) -3 -1
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Engineering Mathematics
1 13. Let A = 5 3 4 0 1 (A) -10 2 4 -1 -1 1 (C) -10 -1 0 2 -1
0 2 1 0 0 2 0 0 2
0 0 , then A -1 is equal to 2 0 2 1 (B) -5 1 2 -1 -1 0 0 2
19. The system equations x + y + z = 6, x + 2 y + 3z = 10, x + 2 y + lz = 12 is inconsistent, if l is (A) 3 (C) 0 20. The system of (B) -3 (D) None of these. equations 5 x + 3 y + 7 z = 4,
3 x + 26 y + 2 z = 9, 7 x + 2 y + 10 z = 5 has (A) a unique solution (B) no solution (C) an infinite number of solutions
(D) None of these
2 -1 14. If the rank of the matrix, A = 4 7 1 4 the value of l is (A) -13 (C) 3 (B) 13
3 l is 2, then 5
(D) none of these 21. If A is an nrow square matrix of rank (n - 1), then (A) adj A = 0 (C) adj A = I n 22. The system of (B) adj A 0 (D) None of these equations x - 4 y + 7 z = 14,
(D) None of these
15. Let A and B be nonsingular square matrices of the same order. Consider the following statements. (I) ( AB) T = A TBT (III) adj( AB) = (adj. A)(adj. B) (V) AB = A B Which of the above statements are false ? (A) I, III & IV (C) I & II (B) IV & V (D) All the above 1 -1 3 -2 is 4 -3 (II) ( AB) -1 = B-1 A -1 (IV) r( AB) = r( A)r(B)
3 x + 8 y - 2 z = 13, 7 x - 8 y + 26 z = 5 has (A) a unique solution (B) no solution (C) an infinite number of solution (D) none of these 4 3 23. The eigen values of A = are 9 5 (A) 1 (C) -1, - 1 (B) 1, 1 (D) None of these
2 16. The rank of the matrix A = 0 2 (A) 3 (C) 1 17. The system of (B) 2
2 8 -6 24. The eigen values of A = -6 7 - 4 are 3 2 -4 (A) 0, 3, -15 (C) 0, 3, 15 (B) 0, - 3 , - 15 (D) 0, - 3, 15
(D) None of these equations has 3 x - y + z = 0, a nonzero
15 x - 6 y + 5 z = 0, solution, if l is (A) 6 (C) 2 18. The
lx - 2 y + 2 z = 0 (B) -6 (D) -2
25. If the eigen values of a square matrix be 1, - 2 and 3, then the eigen values of the matrix 2 A are 1 3 (B) 2 , - 4 , 6 (A) , - 1 , 2 2 (C) 1 , - 2, 3 (D) None of these.
system
of
equation
x - 2 y + z = 0,
2 x - y + 3z = 0, lx + y - z = 0 has the trivial solution as the only solution, if l is (A) l (C) l 2

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4 5
26. If A is a nonsingular matrix and the eigen values of A are 2 , 3 , - 3 then the eigen values of A -1 are 1 1 -1 (A) 2 , 3 , - 3 (B) , , 2 3 3 (C) 2 A , 3 A , - 3 A (D) None of these
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(B) l =
4 3
(D) None of these
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Chap 9.1
27. If -1 , 2 , 3 are the eigen values of a square matrix A then the eigen values of A 2 are (A) -1 , 2 , 3 (C) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 4, 9 (D) None of these
cos 2 f cos f sin f B= cos f sin f sin 2 f is a null matrix, then q and f differ by (A) an odd multiple of p (B) an even multiple of p (C) an odd multiple of (D) an even multiple
p 2 p 2
28. If 2 , - 4 are the eigen values of a nonsingular matrix A and A = 4, then the eigen values of adj A are (A)
1 2
, -1
(B) 2 , - 1 (D) 8 , - 16
(C) 2 , - 4
35. If A and B are two matrices such that A + B and AB are both defined, then A and B are (A) both null matrices (B) both identity matrices (C) both square matrices of the same order (D) None of these
29. If 2 and 4 are the eigen values of A then the eigenvalues of A T are (A)
1 2
1 4
(B) 2, 4 (D) None of these
(C) 4, 16
30. If 1 and 3 are the eigenvalues of a square matrix A then A 3 is equal to (A) 13( A - I 2 ) (C) 12( A - I 2 ) (B) 13A - 12I 2 (D) None of these 0 36. If A = tan
a 2
- tan a 2 0
31. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and A = 2 then A (adj A) is equal to 2 (A) 0 0 1 (C) 0 0 0 2 0 0 1 0 0 0 2 0 0 1 1 2 (B) 0 0 0
1 2
cos a - sin a 2 then (I - A ) is equal to sin a cos a (A) I + A (B) I - A (D) I - 2 A - 4 , then for every positive integer -1
0 0 1 2
(C) I + 2 A 3 37. If A = 1
(D) None of these
n, A n is equal to 1 + 2 n (A) n 4n 1 + 2 n 4n 1 + 2 n 1 + 2 n (B) n - 4n 1 - 2 n
8 32. The sum of the eigenvalues of A = 4 2 equal to (A) 18 (C) 10 (B) 15
2 5 0
3 9 is 5
1 - 2 n (C) n
(D) None of these
cos a 38. If A a = - sin a statements : I. A a A b = A ab
sin a , then consider the following cos a II. A a A b = A ( a + b) sin n a cos n a sin na cos na
(D) None of these
33. If 1, 2 and 5 are the eigen values of the matrix A then A is equal to (A) 8 (C) 9 34. If the product of matrices cos q cos q sin q A = and 2 cos q sin q sin q
2
(B) 10 (D) None of these
cos n a III. ( A a ) n = n - sin a cos na IV. ( A a ) n = - sin na
Which of the above statements are true ? (A) I and II (C) II and III
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39. If A is a 3-rowed square matrix such that A = 3, then adj (adj A) is equal to : (A) 3A (C) 27A (B) 9A (D) none of these
1 2 0 T 45. If A = , then AA is 3 -1 4 1 3 (A) -1 4 1 2 (C) 1 26 1 0 1 (B) -1 2 3 (D) Undefined
40. If A is a 3-rowed square matrix, then adj (adj A) is equal to (A) A (C) A
6 3
(B) A (D) A
46. The matrix, that has an inverse is 3 1 (A) 6 2 6 2 (C) 9 3 5 2 (B) 2 1 8 2 (D) 4 1
41. If A is a 3-rowed square matrix such that A = 2, then adj (adj A 2 ) is equal to (A) 2 4 (C) 216 2 x 42. If A = x of x is (A) 1 (C) 1 2 (B) 2 (D) None of these (B) 28 (D) None of these 0 1 and A -1 = x -1 0 , then the value 2
47. The skew symmetric matrix is 0 -2 5 (A) 2 0 6 -5 -6 0 0 1 3 (C) 1 0 5 3 5 0 1 5 2 (B) 6 3 1 2 4 0 0 3 3 (D) 2 0 2 1 1 0
1 2 43. If A = 2 1 then A -1 is 1 1 1 4 (A) 3 2 2 5 2 3 (C) 3 1 2 7 1 -2 (B) -2 1 1 2 (D) Undefined
1 1 1 0 48. If A = and B = 0 , the product of A and B 1 0 1 1 is 1 (A) 0 1 (C) 2 1 0 (B) 0 1 1 0 (D) 0 2 B . The 0
A 49. Matrix D is an orthogonal matrix D = C value of B is 1 (A) 2 (C) 1 1 2
2 -1 1 -2 - 5 44. If A = 1 0 and B = then AB is 0 3 4 3 4 -1 -8 -10 (A) -1 -2 5 15 9 22 -1 -8 -10 (C) 1 -2 -5 15 9 22

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(B)
(D) 0
0 -10 0 (B) -1 -2 -5 0 21 -15 0 -8 -10 (D) 1 -2 -5 9 21 15
50. If A n n is a triangular matrix then det A is (A)
( -1) a
i =1 n
ii
(B)
a
i =1 n
ii
(C)
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( -1) a
i =1
ii
(D)
a
i =1
ii
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Linear Algebra
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Chap 9.1
t 2 cos t dA 51. If A = t , then dt will be sin e t t 2 sin t (A) t e sin t 2 t - sin t (C) t cos t e 2 t cos t (B) t e sin t (D) Undefined
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) A is singular if A = 0 0 -1 2 1 0 -2 -2 3 =0 l -2 + 2 1 l 0 -2 0 + 0 3 -2 3 = 0 l
52. If A R n n , det A 0, then (A) A is non singular and the rows and columns of A are linearly independent. (B) A is non singular and the rows A are linearly dependent. (C) A is non singular and the A has one zero rows. (D) A is singular.
1 - ( -1) -2
( l - 4) + 2( 3) = 0
l - 4 + 6 =0 l = -2
2. (C) If k is a constant and A is a square matrix of order n n then kA = kn A . A = 5B A = 5B = 5 4 B = 625 B a = 625
************
3. (B) A is singular, if A = 0, A is Idempotent, if A 2 = A A is Involutory, if A 2 = I Now, A 2 = AA = ( AB) A = A( BA) = AB = A and B2 = BB = (BA)B = B( AB) = BA = B A 2 = A and B2 = B, Thus A & B both are Idempotent. -5 -8 4. (B) Since, A = 3 5 1 2
2
0 -5 -8 0 3 5 -1 1 2
0 0 -1
1 0 0 = 0 1 0 = I, 0 0 1
A2 = I
A is involutory.
5. (B) Let A = [ aij ] be a skewsymmetric matrix, then AT = - A , aij = - aij , 2 aii = 0 aii = 0 if i = j then aii = - aii
Thus diagonal elements are zero. 6. (C) A is orthogonal if AA T = I A is unitary if AA Q = I , where A Q is the conjugate transpose of A i.e., A Q = ( A) T . Here, AA Q =
1 2 i 2
2 1 2 i
1 2 i 2
2 1 = 1 0 2 i
0 = I2 1
Thus A is unitary.
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7. (A) A square matrix A is said to be Hermitian if A = A. So aij = a ji . If i = j then aii = aii i.e. conjugate of
Q
12. (A) Since A -1 = Now, Here A = -5 Also, adj A = -2 A -1 = 1 -1 -5 -3 -1
1 adj A A 2 - 3 - 1 = -1
T
an element is the element itself and aii is purely real. 8. (C) A square matrix A is said to be Skew-Hermitian if A = - A.
Q
3 -5
If A is SkewHermitian then A = - A
Q
2 1
a ji = - aij , aii + aii = 0
-5 adj A = -3
- 2 -1
if i = j then aii = - aii
it is only possible when aii is purely imaginary. 9. (D) A is Hermitian then A Q = A Now, ( iA) Q = i A Q = - iA Q = - iA, Thus iA is SkewHermitian. 10. (C) A is SkewHermitian then A Q = - A Now, ( iA) Q = i A Q = - ( -A ) = iA then iA is Hermitian.
T 11. (C) If A = [ aij ]n n then det A = [ cij ]n n
- 2 5 = -1 3
13. (A) Since, A -1 = ( iA ) Q = - ( iA ) 1 A =5 3 adj A == A -1 = 0 2 1 4 0 0 0
1 adj A A
0 = 4 0, 2 10 -10 4 0 2 -1 = 10 2 0 2 -1 -1 0 0 2
T
0 0 2
Where cij is the cofactor of aij Also cij = ( -1) i + j M ij , where M ij is the minor of aij , obtained by leaving the row and the column corresponding to aij and then take the determinant of the remaining matrix. 1 Now, M11 = minor of a11 i.e. -1 = -2 -2 1 = -3
4 0 1 10 2 4 -1 -1
14. (B) A matrix A ( m n ) is said to be of rank r if (i) it has at least one nonzero minor of order r , and (ii) all other minors of order greater than r , if any; are zero. The rank of A is denoted by r( A). Now, given that r( A) = 2 minor of order greater than 2 i.e., 3 is zero. 2 -1 Thus A = 4 7 1 4 3 l = 0 5
Similarly 1 2 2 - 2 =-6 = 6 ; M13 = M12 = 1 2 - 2 2 -2 M 21 = -2 -1 M 23 = 2 -2 -1 = - 6 ; M 22 = 1 2 - 2 = 6 ; M 31 - 2 -2 = 1 -2 =3 ; 1 - 2 =6 ; -2 =3 1
2( 35 - 4 l) + 1(20 - l) + 3(16 - 7) = 0, 70 - 8 l + 20 - l + 27 = 0, 9 l = 117 l = 13
-1 - 2 = 6 ; M 33 M 32 = 2 - 2 C13 = ( -1)
1+ 3 2+ 2
-1 - 2 = 2
2+1
C11 = ( -1)1 + 1 M11 = -3; C12 = ( -1)1 + 2 M12 = -6 ; M13 = -6; C21 = ( -1) M 22 = 3; C23 = ( -1) M 21 = 6; M 23 = -6; C22 = ( -1)
2+ 3
15. (A) The correct statements are ( AB) T = BT A T , ( AB) -1 = B-1 A -1 , adj ( AB) = adj (B) adj ( A) r( AB) r( A) r(B), AB = A B Thus statements I, II, and IV are wrong. 16. (B) Since A = 2( -9 + 8) + 2( -2 + 3) = - 2 + 2 = 0 r( A ) < 3
C31 = ( -1) 3+ 1 M 31 = 6; C32 = ( -1) 3+ 2 M 32 = -6 ; C33 = ( -1) 3+ 3 M 33 = 3 C11 det A = C21 C31 C12 C22 C32
T
C13 C23 C33
-3 -6 -6 -1 -2 -2 = 6 3 -6 = 3 2 1 -2 = 3A T 3 1 6 -6 2 -2
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2 1 = 6 0 Again, one minor of order 2 is 0 3

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5 3-l = 0 -5 - l -4 ( 3 - l)( - 5 - l) + 16 = 0 l + 2l + 1 = 0
2
31. (A) Since A(adj A) = A I 3 - 15 + l + 2 l + 16 = 0

2 2
( l + 1) = 0
l = - 1, - 1
1 A(adj A) = 2 0 0
0 1 0
0 2 0 = 0 1 0
0 2 0
0 0 2
Thus eigen values are -1 , - 1 24. (C) Characteristic equation is A - lI = 0 -6 2 8 -l -6 7-l - 4 =0 -4 3-l 2 l2 - 18 l2 + 45 l = 0 l( l - 3)( l - 15) = 0 l = 0 , 3 , 15 32. (A) Since the sum of the eigenvalues of an nsquare matrix is equal to the trace of the matrix (i.e. sum of the diagonal elements) so, required sum = 8 + 5 + 5 = 18 33. (B) Since the product of the eigenvalues is equal to the determinant of the matrix so A = 1 2 5 = 10 34. (C) cos q cos f cos ( q - f) cos q sin f cos ( q - f) AB = =A cos f sin q cos ( q - f) sin q sin f cos ( q - f) null matrix when cos ( q - f) = 0
n
25. (B) If eigen values of A are l1 , l2 , l3 then the eigen values of kA are kl1 , kl2 , kl3. So the eigen values of 2 A are 2 , - 4 and 6 26. (B) If l1 , l2 ,........, l are the eigen values of a
nonsingular matrix A, then A -1 has the eigen values 1 1 1 1 1 , , ........, . Thus eigen values of A -1 are , , l1 l2 ln 2 3 -1 . 3 27. (B) If l1 , l2 , ......, l
2 n
This happens when ( q - f) is an odd multiple of
p . 2
35. (C) Since A + B is defined, A and B are matrices of the same type, say m n. Also, AB is defined. So, the number of columns in A must be equal to the number of rows in B i.e. n = m. Hence, A and B are square matrices
are the eigen values of a matrix
of the same order. a 1 - tan 2 2 a 2 = 1-t 36. (A) Let tan = t, then, cos a = a t + t2 2 1 + tan 2 2 2 tan and sin a = cos a (I - A ) sin a 1 = - tan a 2 tan a 2 = 2t 1 + t2
2 2 , l2 A, then A has the eigen values l1 2 , ........, l n . So,
eigen values of A 2 are 1, 4, 9. 28. (B) If l1 , l2 ,...., l

n
are the eigen values of A then A l1 , A l2 ,......, A l

n
the eigen values adj A are eigenvalues of adj A are
; A 0. Thus
4 -4 , i.e. 2 and-1. 2 4
T
a 1 + tan 2 2 - sin a cos a a 2 1
29. (B) Since, the eigenvalues of A and A are square so the eigenvalues of A T are 2 and 4. 30. (B) Since 1 and 3 are the eigenvalues of A so the characteristic equation of A is ( l - 1) ( l - 3) = 0 l2 - 4 l + 3 = 0 Also, by CayleyHamilton theorem, every square matrix satisfies its own characteristic equation so A 2 - 4 A + 3I 2 = 0 A 2 = 4 A - 3I 2 A 3 = 4 A 2 - 3A = 4( 4 A - 3I) - 3A A 3 = 13A - 12I 2
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cos a sin a
- sin a cos a
1 - t2 t 1 + t 2 1 = -t 1 2 t (1 + t 2 )
-2 t (1 + t 2 ) 1 - t2 1 + t2
a 1 - tan 1 - t 2 = (I + A ) = = t 1 a tan 1 2
Linear Algebra
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Chap 9.1
3 37. (B) A 2 = 1 1 + 2 n = n
- 4 3 -1 1
- 4 5 = -1 2
- 8 - 3
- 4n , where n = 2. 1 - 2 n sin a cos b cos a - sin b sin b cos b
1 3 1 2 0 45. (C) AA = 2 -1 3 -1 4 0 4
T
cos a 38. (D) A a A b = - sin a cos ( a + b) = - sin ( a + b)
(1)( 3) + (2)( -1) + (0)( 4) (1)(1) + (2)(2) + (0)(0) = ( 3 )( 1 ) + ( + 1 )( 2 ) ( 4 )( 0 ) ( 3 )( 3) + ( -1)( -1) + ( 4)( 4) 1 5 = 1 26 46. (B) if A is zero, A -1 does not exist and the matrix A is said to be singular. Only (B) satisfy this condition. 5 2 A = = (5)(1) - (2)(2) = 1 2 1 47. (A) A skew symmetric matrix A n n is a matrix with A T = -A . The matrix of (A) satisfy this condition. 1 1 1 0 (1)(1) + (1)(0) + (0)(1) 1 48. (C) AB = 0 = = 1 0 1 1 (1)(1) + (0)(0) + (1)(1) 2 49. (C) For orthogonal matrix det M = 1 And M -1 = M T , therefore Hence D -1 = D T A C 1 0 -B DT = = D -1 = A -BC B 0 -C -C 1 This implies B = B= B = 1 -BC B Hence B = 1 50. (B) From linear algebra for A n n triangular matrix det A = aii , The product of the diagonal entries of A
i =1 n
sin ( a + b) = Aa+ b cos ( a + b)
Also, it is easy to prove by induction that sin na cos na (A a )n = - sin na cos na 39. (A) We know that adj (adj A) = A Here n = 3 and A = 3. So, adj (adj A) = 3( 3- 2 ) A = 3A. 40. (C) We have adj (adj A) = A
( n -1 ) 2 n -2
A.
Putting n = 3, we get adj (adj A) = A . 41. (C) Let B = adj (adj A 2 ). Then, B is also a 3 3 matrix.
3-1
adj {adj (adj A 2 )} = adj B = B3 = adj (adj A 2 ) = A 2

2 ( 3-1 ) 2 2
=B
[K
A2 = A
= A 16 = 216
2 x 42. (C) x 2 x 0
0 1 x -1
0 1 = 2 0 0 , 1
0 1 1 x= . 2
0 1 = 2 x 0
So, 2 x = 1
43. (D) Inverse matrix is defined for square matrix only. 2 -1 1 -2 -5 44. (C) AB = 1 0 3 4 0 -3 4 (2)(1) + ( -1)( 3) (2)( -2) + ( -1)( 4) (2)( -5) + ( -1)(0) = (1)(1) + (0)( 3) (1)( -2) + (0)( 4) (1)( -5) + (0)(0) ( -3)(1) + ( 4)( 3) ( -3)( -2) + ( 4)( 4) ( -3)( -5) + ( 4)(0) -1 -8 -10 = 1 -2 -5 15 9 -22
d( t 2 ) dA dt 51. (C ) = t dt d( e ) dt
d(cos t) dt = 2 t - sin t d(sin t) et cos t dt
52. (A) If det A 0, then A n n is non-singular, but if A n n is non-singular, then no row can be expressed as a linear combination of any other. Otherwise det A = 0
************
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CHAPTER
9.2
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
1. If f ( x) = x 3 - 6 x 2 + 11 x - 6 is on [1, 3], then the point c ] 1, 3 [ such that f ( c) = 0 is given by 1 1 (A) c = 2 (B) c = 2 2 3 (C) c = 2 1 2
p 2
6. A point on the curve y = x - 2 on [2, 3], where the tangent is parallel to the chord joining the end points of the curve is 9 1 (A) , 4 2 7 1 (C) , 4 2 7 1 (B) , 2 4 9 1 (D) , 2 4
(D) None of these
2. Let f ( x) = sin 2 x, 0 x Then, c is equal to p (A) 4 (C) p 6

x 2
p and f ( c) = 0 for c ] 0, 2 [.
p (B) 3 (D) None
7. Let f ( x) = x( x - 1)( x - 2) be defined in [0, 1 ]. Then, the 2 value of c of the mean value theorem is (A) 0.16 (C) 0.24 (B) 0.20 (D) None
3. Let f ( x) = x( x + 3) e , -3 x 0. Let c ] - 3, 0 [ such that f ( c) = 0. Then, the value of c is (A) 3 (C) -2 (B) -3 1 (D) 2
8. Let f ( x) = x 2 - 4 be defined in [2, 4]. Then, the value of c of the mean value theorem is (A) - 6 (C) 3 (B) 6
(D) 2 3
4. If Rolles theorem holds for f ( x) = x 3 - 6 x 2 + kx + 5 on 1 , the value of k is [1, 3] with c = 2 + 3 (A) -3 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 11
9. Let f ( x) = e x in [0, 1]. Then, the value of c of the mean-value theorem is (A) 0.5 (C) log ( e - 1) (B) ( e - 1) (D) None
5. A point on the parabola y = ( x - 3) 2 , where the tangent is parallel to the chord joining A (3, 0) and B (4, 1) is (A) (7, 1) 7 1 (C) , 2 4
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10. At what point on the curve y = (cos x - 1) in ]0, 2 p[ , is the tangent parallel to x axis ? p (A) , - 1 2 2 p -3 (C) , 3 2
3 1 (B) , 2 4 1 1 (D) - , 2 2
(B) ( p, - 2)
(D) None of these

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Chap 9.2
11. log sin ( x + h) when expanded in Taylors series, is equal to (A) log sin x + h cot x (B) log sin x + h cot x + (C) log sin x - h cot x + (D) None of these p 12. sin x when expanded in powers of x - is 2 2 3 2 p p p x- x- x- 2 2 2 (A) 1 + + + +K 2! 3! 4! p p x- x- 2 2 (B) 1 + -K 2! 4! p p x- x- 2 2 p (C) x - + + +K ! ! 2 3 5
2 3 5 2 2
16. If u = tan -1 (A) 2 cos 2 u (C) 1 tan u 4
x+ y , then x u + y u equals x y x+ y (B) 1 sin 2 u 4
1 2 h cosec2 x + K 2 1 2 h sec 2 x + K 2 1 2 h cosec2 x + K 2
(D) 2 tan 2 u x 3 + y 3 + x 2 y - xy 2 , then the value of x 2 - xy + y 2
17. If u = tan -1 x u u is +y x y 1 sin 2 u 2
(A)
(B) sin 2 u (D) 0
(C) sin u
y y 18. If u = f + xy , then the value of x x x2 (A) 0 (C) 2 u 2u 2u 2u + 2 xy + y 2 2 , is 2 dx dx dy y (B) u (D) -u dz is given dt
(D) None of these p 13. tan + x when expanded in Taylors series, gives 4 4 2 (A) 1 + x + x + x 3 + K 3 (B) 1 + 2 x + 2 x 2 + (C) 1 + 8 3 x +... 3 19. If z = e x sin y, x = log e t and y = t 2 , then by the expression (A) (C) ex (sin y - 2 t 2 cos y) t ex (cos y + 2 t 2 sin y) t (B) (D)
ex (sin y + 2 t 2 cos y) t ex (cos y - 2 t 2 sin y) t
x2 x4 + +K 2! 4!
20. If z = z( u, v) , u = x 2 - 2 xy - y 2 , v = a, then (A) ( x + y) (C) ( x + y) z z = ( x - y) x y z z = ( y - x) x y (B) ( x - y) (D) ( y - x) z z = ( x + y) x y z z = ( x + y) x y
(D) None of these 3u is equal to 14. If u = e , then x y z

xyz
(A) e xyz [1 + xyz + 3 x 2 y 2 z 2 ] (B) e (C) e

xyz xyz
21. If f ( x, y) = 0, f( y, z) = 0, then (A) (C) f f f f dz = y z x y dx f f dz f f = y z dx x y (B) f f f f dz = y z x x dx
[1 + xyz + x y z ]
3 3 3 2
[1 + 3 xyz + x y z ]
2 2
(D) e xyz [1 + 3 xyz + x 3 y 3z 3 ] 15. If z = f ( x + ay) + f( x - ay), then (A) z z = a2 2 x 2 y

2 2
(D) None of these
(B)
z z = a2 2 y 2 x
2 2
22. If z = x 2 + y 2 and x 3 + y 3 + 3 axy = 5 a 2 , then at x = a, y = a, (A) 2 a

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dz is equal to dx (B) 0 (D) a 3

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(C)
2z 1 2z =- 2 2 y a x 2
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(D)
2z 2z = - a2 2 2 x y
(C) 2 a 2
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23. If x = r cos q, y = r sin q where r and q are the functions of x, then (A) r cos q (C) r cos q dx is equal to dt (B) cos q dr dq - r sin q dt dt dr dq - sin q dt dt
2u 2 y y 30. If u = x n -1 yf , then x 2 + y is equal to x y x x (A) nu (C) ( n - 1) u x (B) n( n - 1) u (D) ( n - 1) u y
dr dq - r sin q dt dt dr dq + sin q dt dt
2
(D) r cos q
31. Match the ListI with ListII. ListI x2 y 2u 2u then x 2 + y x+ y x x y

1 1
24. If r 2 = x 2 + y 2 , then r 2 r 2 (A) r 2 + x y (C) r 1 r + 2 y r x

2 2
r r is equal to + dx 2 y 2
2
(i) If u =
r 2 r 2 (B) 2 r 2 + x y (D) None of these 2q 2q + x 2 y 2
(ii) If u =
x2 - y2
1 1
then x 2
x4 + y4
1 1
2 2u 2u 2 u + 2 xy + y x 2 x y y 2
(iii) If u = x 2 + y 2 then x 2
2u 2u 2u + 2 xy + y2 2 x x y y 2
25. If x = r cos q, y = r sin q, then the value of is (A) 0 (C) r x (B) 1 (D) r y
u u y (iv) If u = f then x +y x y x ListII (1) (3) 0 3 u 16 (2) u x 1 u 4
26. If u = x m y n , then (A) du = mx m -1 y n + nx m y n -1 (C) udu = mxdx + nydy (B) du = mdx + ndy (D) du dx dy =m +n u x y d y is equal dx 2
2
(4) -
Correct match is (I) (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 2 2 1 (II) 2 1 1 2 (III) 3 4 3 4 (IV) 4 3 4 3
27. If y 3 - 3ax 2 + x 3 = 0, then the value of to (A) (C) a2 x2 y5 2 a2 x4 y5 y , then x (B) dz = (D) dz = (B) 2 a2 x2 y5 2 a2 x2 y5
32. If an error of 1% is made in measuring the major and minor axes of an ellipse, then the percentage error in the area is approximately equal to (A) 1% (C) p% (B) 2% (D) 4%
(D) -
28. z = tan -1 (A) dz = (C) dz =
xdy - ydx x2 + y2 xdx - ydy x2 + y2
xdy + ydx x2 + y2 xdx - ydy x2 + y2
33. Consider the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below: u u y Assertion (A): If u = xyf , then x = 2u +y x y x Reason (R): Given function u is homogeneous of degree 2 in x and y. Of these statements (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
29. If u = log (A) 0 (C) u

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x2 + y2 u u , then x is equal to +y x+ y x y (B) 1
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(D) eu
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Chap 9.2
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A (C) A is true but R is false (D) A is false but R is true 34. If u = x log xy, where x 3 + y 3 + 3 xy = 1, then equal to (A) (1 + log xy) (B) (1 + log xy) (C) (1 - log xy) x x2 + y 2 y y + x y y + x 2 x x + y
2
41. If a < 0, then f ( x) = e ax + e - ax is decreasing for (A) x > 0 (C) x > 1 (B) x < 0 (D) x < 1
42. f ( x) = x 2 e - x is increasing in the interval du is dx (A) ] -, [ (C) ] 2, [ (B) ] -2, 0 [ (D) ] 0, 2 [
43. The least value of a for which f ( x) = x 2 + ax + 1 is increasing on ] 1, 2, [ is (A) 2 (C) 1 (B) -2 (D) -1
x x + y 2 y y + x
2
44. The minimum distance from the point (4, 2) to the parabola y 2 = 8 x, is (A) (C) 2 2 (B) 2 2 (D) 3 2
y y2 + x (D) (1 - log xy) - 2 x x + y z z y 35. If z = xyf , then x is equal to +y x y x (A) z (B) 2 z (C) xz (D) yz
45. The co-ordinates of the point on the parabola y = x 2 + 7 x + 2 which is closest to the straight line y = 3 x - 3, are (A) (-2, -8) (C) (-2, 0) (B) (2, -8) (D) None of these
36. f ( x) = 2 x 3 - 15 x 2 + 36 x + 1 is increasing in the interval (A) ] 2, 3 [ (C) ] -, 2 [ ] 3, 37. f ( x) = (B) ] -, 3 [ (D) None of these
46. The shortest distance of the point (0, c), where 0 c < 5, from the parabola y = x 2 is (A) (C) 4c + 1 4c - 1 2 (B) 4c + 1 2
x is increasing in the interval ( x 2 + 1) (B) ] -1, 1 [ (D) None of these
(A) ] -, - 1 [ ] 1, [ (C) ] -1, [
(D) None of these

x
38. f ( x) = x 4 - 2 x 2 is decreasing in the interval (A) ] -, -1 [ ] 0, 1 [ (C) ] -, -1 [ ] 1, [ (B) ] -1, 1 [ (D) None of these
1 47. The maximum value of is x (A) e 1 (C) e

e
(B) e
1 e
(D) None of these
39. f ( x) = x 9 + 3 x 7 + 6 is increasing for (A) all positive real values of x (B) all negative real values of x (C) all non-zero real values of x (D) None of these 40. If f ( x) = kx 3 - 9 x 2 + 9 x + 3 is increasing in each interval, then (A) k < 3 (C) k > 3
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250 48. The minimum value of x 2 + is x (A) 75 (C) 25 (B) 50 (D) 0
49. The maximum value of f ( x) = (1 + cos x) sin x is (A) 3 (B) 3 3 (D) 3 3 4

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50. The greatest value of f ( x) = sin 2 x p sin x + 4
SOLUTIONS
1. (B) A polynomial function is continuous as well as differentiable. So, the given function is continuous and differentiable. f (1) = 0 and f ( 3) = 0. So, f (1) = f ( 3). By Rolles theorem Ec such that f ( c) = 0. Now, f ( x) = 3 x 2 - 12 x + 11 f ( c) = 3c 2 - 12 c + 11. 3c 2 - 12 c + 11 = 0 1 c = 2 . 3 Now, f ( c) = 0
(A) (C) 1
p on the interval [0, 2 ] is 1
(B)
(D) - 2
51. If y = a log x + bx 2 + x has its extremum values at x = -1 and x = 2, then 1 (A) a = - , b = 2 2 (C) a = 2, b = 52. The 1 2 of (B) a = 2, b = -1 (D) None of these
2. (A) Since the sine function is continuous at each the point on the curve p x R, so f ( x) = sin 2 x is continuous in 0, . 2 Also, f ( x) = 2 cos 2 x, which clearly exists for all p p x ]0, [ .So, f ( x) is differentiable in x ]0, [. 2 2
co-ordinates
4 x 2 + 5 y 2 = 20 that is farthest from the point (0, -2) are (A) ( 5 , 0) (C) (0, 2) (B) ( 6 , 0) (D) None of these
p 53. For what value of x 0 x , the function 2 x has a maxima ? y= (1 + tan x) (A) tan x (C) cot x (B) 0 (D) cos x
p Also, f (0) = f = 0. By Rolles theorem, there exists 2 p c ]0, [ such that f ( c) = 0. 2 2 cos 2 c = 0 2c = p 2 c= p . 4
3. (C) Since a polynomial function as well as an exponential function is continuous and the product of two continuous functions is continuous, so f ( x) is
*************
continuous in [-3, 0]. f ( x) = (2 x + 3) e

x 2
- x + 6 - x2 1 -2 2 e ( x + 3 x) = e 2 2 2 x x
which clearly exists for all x ] - 3, 0 [. f ( x) is differentiable in ] -3, 0 [. Also, f ( -3) = f (0) = 0. By Rolles theorem c ] -3, 0 [ such that f ( c) = 0. Now, f ( c) = 0
- c + 6 - c2 e 2 =0 2 c
c + 6 - c 2 = 0 i.e. c 2 - c - 6 = 0 ( c + 2) ( 3 - c) = 0 c = -2, c = 3. Hence, c = -2 ] -3, 0 [ . 4. (D) f ( x) = 3c 2 - 12 x + k f ( c) = 0

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3c 2 - 12 c + k = 0
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p p p f = 1, f = 0, f = -1, 2 2 2 p p f = 0, f = 1, .... 2 2 13. (B) Let f ( x) = tan x Then,

2 3 p p p x p x p f + x = f + xf + f + f +... 4 4 4 2! 4 3! 4
x sec 2 u x
u u 1 + y sec 2 u = tan u x y 2
u u 1 1 +y = sin u cos u = sin 2 u x y 2 4 x 3 + y 3 + x 2 y - xy 2 = f (say) x 2 - xy + y 2
17. (A) Here tan u =
f ( x) = sec , f ( x) = 2sec x tan x,

2 2
f ( x) = 2sec 4 x + 4sec 2 x tan 2 x etc. Now, p p p p f = 1, f = 2, f = 4, f = 16, ... 4 4 4 4 x2 x3 p Thus tan + x = 1 + 2 x + 4 + 16 + K 2 6 4 8 = 1 + 2 x + 2 x + x3 + K 3

2
Which is homogeneous of degree 1 f f Thus x +y = f x y As above question number 16 x f u 1 +y = sin 2 u x y 2
y y 18. (A) Let v = f and w = xY x x Then u = v + w Now v is homogeneous of degree zero and w is homogeneous of degree one
14. (C) Here u = e xyz
u = exyz yz x
x2
2 2v 2v 2 v + 2 xy + y = 0....(1) x 2 x y y 2
2u = ze xyz + yzexyz xz = e xyz ( z + xyz 2 ) xy 3u = e xyz (1 + 2 xyz) + ( z + xyz 2 ) e xyz xy x y z = e xyz (1 + 3 xyz + x 2 y 2 z 2 ) 15. (B) z = f ( x + ay) + f( x - ay) z = f ( x + ay) + f ( x - ay) x z = f ( x + ay) + f( x - ay)....(1) dx 2 z = af ( x + ay) - af ( x - ay) y
2
and x 2
2w 2w 2w + 2 xy + y2 = 0....(2) 2 x x y y 2
Adding (1) and (2), we get x2

2 2 2 2 ( v + w ) + 2 xy ( v + w ) + y ( v + w) = 0 x 2 x y y 2
x2
2u 2u 2u + 2 xy + y2 2 = 0 2 x x y y
19. (B) z = e x sin y
z = e x sin y x z dx 1 And = e x cos y, x = log e t = y dt t And y = t 2 dy = 2t dt dz z dx z dy = + dt x dt y dt ex 1 + e x cos y 2 t = (sin y + 2 t 2 cos y) t t
z = a 2 f ( x + ay) + a 2 f( x - ay)....(2) y 2
2
Hence from (1) and (2), we get
2z 2z = a2 2 2 y x
= e x sin y
16. (B) u = tan -1 tan u = x+ y x+
x+ y x+ y
20. (C) Given that z = z( u, v), u = x 2 - 2 xy - y 2 , v = a....(i) z z u z v = + ....(ii) x u x v x z z u z v and = + ....(iii) y u y v y From (i), u u v v =2x -2y , = -2 x - 2 y, = 0, =0 x y x y
= f (say)
Which is a homogeneous equation of degree 1/2 f f 1 By Eulers theorem. x +y = f x y 2

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(tan u) (tan u) 1 +y = tan u x y 2
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Chap 9.2
Substituting these values in (ii) and (iii) z z z = (2 x - 2 y) + 0....(iv) x u v and z z z = ( -2 x - 2 y) + 0....(v) y u v z z = ( y - x) x y
24. (C) r 2 = x 2 + y 2 and
r r =2y = 2 x and y x 2r 2r + =2 + 2 + 4 x 2 y 2
2r 2r = 2 and =2 2 x y 2
2 2
From (iv) and (v), we get ( x + y)
r r 2 2 2 and + y = 4 x + 4 y = 4r x
2 2 r 2r 2 y 1 r + = + y x 2 y 2 r 2 x
21. (C) Given that f ( x, y) = 0, f( y, z) = 0 These are implicit functions f dy = - x , f dx y f dz y =f dy z
25. (A) x = r cos q , and tan q = y x
y = r sin q y q = tan -1 x
q 1 -y -y = = 2 2 2 x 1 + ( y x) x x + y 2 2q -2 xy = x 2 ( x 2 + y 2 ) 2 2q 2 xy 2q 2q and = 2 + =0 2 2 2 y (x + y ) x 2 y 2
f f dy dz x y = dx dy f f y z or, f f dz f f = y z dx x y
2 2
Similarly
26. (D) Given that u = x m y n Taking logarithm of both sides, we get log u = m log x + n log y Differentiating with respect to x, we get 1 du 1 1 dy du dx dy or, = m + n =m + n u dx x y dx u x y 1 x + y2
2
22. (B) Given that z = x + y and x + y + 3axy = 5 a ...(i) dz z z dy = + ....(ii) dx x y dx

3 3 2
from (i),
2
z 1 z = 2x , = 2 2 x 2 x + y y 2
2
2y
27. (D) Given that f ( x, y) = y 3 - 3ax 2 + x 3 = 0 fx = - 6 ax + 3 x 2 , f y = 3 y 2 , fxx = - 6 a + 6 x , f yy = 6 y , fxy = 0 fxx ( f y) 2 - 2 fx f y fxy + f yy( fx ) 2 d2 y =- 2 ( f y) 3 dx ( 6 x - 6 a( 3 y 2 ) 2 - 0 + 6 y( 3 x 2 - 6 ax) 2 = - (3 y2 )3 2 = - 5 ( -ax 3 - ay 3 + 4 a 2 x 2 ) y ===2 [ -a( a 3 + y 3) + 4 a 2 x 2 ] y5 2 [ -a( 3ax 2 ) + 4 a 2 x 2 ] [ \ x 3 + y 3 - 3ax 2 = 0] y5 2 a2 x2 y5 y ....(i) x
dy dy and 3 x + 3 y + 3ax + 3ay.1 = 0 dx dx x 2 + ay dy = - y 2 + ax dx x x2 + y2 x 2 + ay - 2 x 2 + y 2 y + ax y a 2 + aa =0 - 2 a 2 + a 2 a + a. a a
Substituting these value in (ii), we get dz = dx +
a dz = + 2 dx ( a , a ) a + a2
23. (B) Given that x = r cos q, y = r sin q....(i) dx x dr x dq = + ....(ii) dt r dt q dt From (i), x x = cos q, = - r sin q r q
Substituting these values in (ii), we get dx dr dq = cos q - r sin q dt dt dt

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28. (A) Given that z = tan -1
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dz z z dy = + ....(ii) dx x y dx From (i) z = x -y -y 2 = 2 + y2 x x y 1+ x 1

2
In (c) u = x1 2 + y1 2 It is a homogeneous function of 1 degree . 2 x2 = 2u 2u 2u + 2 xy + y2 = n( n - 1) u 2 x x dy y 2
z = y
x 1 = 2 2 y x x + y 1+ x 1
2
1 1 1 - 1 u = - u 2 2 4
Substituting these in (ii), we get dz -y x dy xdy - ydx , dz = = + dx x 2 + y 2 x 2 + y 2 dx x2 + y2 29. (B) u = log x2 + y2 x2 + y2 , eu = = f (say) x+ y x+ y e u e u x +y = eu x y
y In (d)u = f It is a homogeneous function of degree x zero. u u x +y = 0. u = 0 x y Hence correct match is a 2 b 1 c 3 d 4
f is a homogeneous function of degree one f f x +y = f x y
32. (B) Let 2 a and 2 b be the major and minor axes of the ellipse Area A = pab log A = log p + log a + log b (log A) = (log p) + (log a) + (log b) A a b =0 + + A a b 100 100 100 A = a + b A a b 100 100 But it is given that a = 1, and b = 1 a b 100 A = 1 + 1 = 2 A Thus percentage error in A =2% y 33. (A) Given that u = xyf . Since it is a homogeneous x function of degree 2. By Eulers theorem x Thus x u u +y = 2u x y u u +y = nu (where n = 2) x y
u u or xe u + ye u = eu x y or, x u u +y =1 x y
y 30. (C) Given that u = x n -1 yf . x It is a homogeneous function of degree n u u Eulers theorem x +y = nu x y Differentiating partially w.r.t. x, we get x 2 u u 2u n u + + y = 2 x x y x x x 2u 2u u +y = ( n - 1) 2 x y x x
x2 y It is a homogeneous function of 31. (B) In (a) u = x+ y degree 2. 2u 2u u u (as in question 30) x 2 +y = ( n - 1) = x x y x x In (b) u = x1 2 - y1 2 . It is a homogeneous function of x1 4 + y1 4
34. (A) Given that u = x log xy....(i) x 3 + y 3 + 3 xy = 1....(ii) u u u dy we know that ....(ii) = + x x y dx From (i) and u 1 = x y + log xy = 1 + log xy x xy
1 1 1 degree - = 2 4 4 x2 =
Page 542
2u 2u 2u + 2 xy + y 2 2 = n( n - 1) u 2 x x y y
1 1 3 u - 1 u = 4 4 16
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Chap 9.2
From (ii), we get 3 x2 + 3 y2 dy dy + 3 x + y 1 = 0 dx dx x + y dy = - y2 + x dx

2
Now, D = (2 t 2 - 4) 2 + ( 4 t - 2) 2 is minimum when E = (2 t 2 - 4) 2 + ( 4 t - 2) 2 is minimum. Now, E = 4 t 4 - 16 t + 20 dE = 16 t 3 - 16 = 16 ( t - 1) ( t 2 + t + 1) dt dE =0 t =1 dt d2 E d2 E 2 . So, = 48 t = 48 > 0. dt 2 dt 2 ( t =1 ) So, t = 1 is a point of minima. Thus Minimum distance = (2 - 4) 2 + ( 4 - 2) 2 = 2 2 . 45. (A) Let the required point be P ( x, y). Then, perpendicular distance of P ( x, y) from y - 3 x + 3 = 0 is p= = y - 3x + 3 10 = = x2 + 7 x + 2 - 3 x + 3 10 ( x + 2) 2 + 1 10
2
Substituting these in (A), we get du x x 2 + y = (1 + log xy) + - 2 dx y y + x 35. (B) The given function is homogeneous of degree 2. z z Eulers theorem x +y = 2z x y 36. (C) f ( x) = 6 x - 30 x + 36 = 6( x - 2)( x - 3)
2
Clearly, f ( x) > 0 when x < 2 and also when x > 3. f ( x) is increasing in ] -, 2 [ ] 3, [. 37. (B) f ( x) = ( x + 1) - 2 x 1- x = 2 ( x 2 + 1) 2 ( x + 1) 2
2 2 2
Clearly, ( x 2 + 1) 2 > 0 for all x. So, f ( x) > 0 (1 - x 2 ) > 0 (1 - x) (1 + x) > 0
x2 + 4 x + 5 10
or p =
( x + 2) 2 + 1 10
So,
This happens when -1 < x < 1. So, f ( x) is increasing in ] -1, 1 [. 38. (A) f ( x) = 4 x 3 - 4 x = 4 x( x - 1)( x + 1). Clearly, f ( x) < 0 when x < - 1 and also when x > 1. Sol. f ( x) is decreasing in ] -, -1 [ ] 1, [. 39.(C) f ( x) = 9 x8 + 21 x6 > 0 for all non-zero real values of x. 40. (C) f ( x) = 3kx - 18 x + 9 = 3 [ kx - 6 x + 3]
2 2
dp 2 ( x + 2) d p 2 and = = 2 dx dx 10 10 d2 p > 0. x = -2, Also, dx 2 x = -2
dp =0 dx
So, x = -2 is a point of minima. When x = -2, we get y = ( -2) 2 + 7 ( -2) + 2 = -8. The required point is ( -2, - 8). 46. (C) Let A (0, c) be the given point and P ( x, y) be any point on y = x 2 . D = x 2 + ( y - c) 2 is shortest when E = x 2 + ( y - c) 2 is shortest. Now, E = x 2 + ( y - c) 2 = y + ( y - c) 2 E = y 2 + y - 2 cy + c2 dE d2 E = 2 > 0. = 2 y + 1 - 2 c and dy dy 2 dE =0 dy 1 y =c - 2
This is positive when k > 0 and 36 - 12 k < 0 or k > 3. 41. (A) f ( x) = ( e ax + e - ax ) = 2 cosh ax. f ( x) = 2 a sinh ax < 0 When x > 0 because a < 0 42. (D) f ( x) = - x 2 e - x + 2 xe - x = e - x x(2 - x). Clearly, f ( x) > 0 when x > 0 and x < 2. 43. (B) f ( x) = (2 x + a) 1 < x <2 2 <2x < 4 2 + a <2x + a < 4 + a (2 + a) < f ( x) < ( 4 + a).
1 Thus E minimum, when y = c - 2 1 1 Also, D = c - + c - - c 2 2 = c1 4c - 1 = 4 2

2
1 2 . .. x = y = c - 2
For f ( x) increasing, we have f ( x) > 0. \ 2 + a 0 or a - 2. So, least value of a is -2. 44. (B) Let the point closest to (4, 2) be (2 t 2 , 4).
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1 47. (B) Let y = then, y = x - x x dy = - x - x (1 + log x) dx
51. (C)
dy a = + 2 bx + 1 dx x - a - 2b + 1 = 0 a + 4b + 1 = 0 2 1 and a = 2. 2 a + 2 b = 1....(i)
dy =0 dx ( x = -1 ) dy =0 dx (x = 2 ) x= 1 e
1 d2 y = x - x (1 + log x) 2 - x - x 2 dx x dy =0 1 + log x = 0 dx d y 1 dx 2 1 = - e x =
2 e 1 -1 e
a + 8 b = -2....(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get b = -
< 0. 52. (C) The given curve is ellipse.
So, x =
1 is a point of maxima. Maximum value = e1 e . e 500 250 and f ( x) = 2 + 3 x x2 250 =0 x2 x = 5.
x2 y2 + = 1 which is an 5 4
Let the required point be ( 5 cos f , 2 sin f). Then, D = ( 5 cos f - 0) 2 + (2 sin f + 2) 2 is maximum when z = D 2 is maximum z = 5 cos 2 f + 4 (1 + sin f) 2 dz = -10 cos f sin f + 8(1 + sin f) cos f df dz =0 df x = p 3 or 2 cos f ( 4 - sin f) = 0 p f= . 2 d 2z = -2 cos 2 f - 8 sin f df2
48. (A) f ( x) = 2 x f ( x) = 0 2x -
f (5) = 6 > 0. So, x = 5 is a point of minima. 250 Thus minimum value = 25 + = 75. 5 49. (D) f ( x) = (2 cos x - 1)(cos x + 1) and f ( x) = - sin x(1 + 4 cos x). 1 or cos x = -1 f ( x) = 0 cos x = 2 x = p. p -3 3 f = < 0. So, x = p 3 is a point of maxima. 2 3 p p 3 3 . Maximum value = sin 1 + cos = 3 3 4 50. (C) f ( x) = 2 sin x cos x sin x + cos x 2 = 2 2 2 2 (say), = (sec x + cosec x) z
cos f = 0
dz = - sin 2 f + 8 cos f df when f = p d 2z , < 0. 2 df2
p z is maximum when f = . So, the required point is 2 p p 5 cos , sin i.e. (0, 2). 2 2 53. (D) Let z = Then, 1 + tan x 1 tan x = + x x x
where z = (sec x + cosec x). dz cos x = sec x tan x - cosec x cot x = (tan 3 x - 1). dx sin 2 x dz =0 dx Sign of tan x = 1 x= p p in 0, . 4 2
dz 1 d 2z 2 = - 2 + sec 2 x and = + 2sec2 x tan x dx x dx 2 x 3 dz 1 x = cos x. =0 - 2 + sec 2 x = 0 x dx
d 2z = 2 cos 3 x + 2sec2 x tan x > 0. dx 2 x = cos x Thus z has a minima and therefore y has a maxima at x = cos x.
dz changes from -ve to + ve when x passes dx
through the point p 4. So, z is minimum at x = p 4 and therefore, f ( x) is maximum at x = p 4. Maximum value =
Page 544 ************
2 2 = 1. [sec( p 4) + cosec ( p 4)]

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CHAPTER
9.3
INTEGRAL CALCULUS
1.
x dx is equal to +1 (B) log ( x 2 + 1) (D) 2 tan -1 x 1 , log a
5.
1 + 3 sin
1 2 1 2
dx
is equal to (B) 2 tan -1 (tan x) (D) 2 tan -1 ( 1 tan x) 2
(A)
1 log ( x 2 + 1) 2 x 2
(A) (C) 6.
tan -1 (tan x) tan -1 (2 tan x)
(C) tan -1
3 sin x + 4 cos x dx is equal to

9 1 x+ log( 3 sin x + 4 cos x) 25 25 18 2 x+ log( 3 sin x + 4 cos x) 25 25 18 1 x+ log( 3 sin x + 4 cos x) 25 25
2 sin x + 3 cos x
2. If F ( a) = to
a > 1 and F ( x) = a 2 dx + K is equal
(A) (B) (C)
1 (A) ( a x - a a + 1) log a (C) 1 ( a x + a a + 1) log a
1 (B) (ax - aa) log a (D) 1 ( a x + a a - 1) log a
(D) None of these 7.
3.
dx 1 + sin x is equal to (B) cot x + cosec x + c (D) tan x + sec x + c
3 + 8 x - 3 x 2 dx is equal to 3x - 4 3 3 3 + 8 x - 3 x2 3x - 4 sin -1 18 3 5 25
(A) (A) - cot x + cosec x + c (C) tan x - sec x + c 4.
(B) (C)
2x
( 3 x + 1) dx is equal to 2 -2x + 3
3x - 4 25 3 3x - 4 sin -1 3 + 8 x - 3 x2 + 6 18 5 3x - 4 6 3 3 + 8 x - 3 x2 3x - 4 sin -1 18 3 5 25
2x -1 3 5 (A) log (2 x 2 - 2 x + 3) + tan -1 5 4 2 (B) 2x -1 4 log (2 x 2 - 2 x + 3) + 5 tan -1 5 3
dx 2 x + 3x + 4
2
is equal to (B) 1 2 sinh -1 4x + 3 23
2x -1 4 2 (C) log (2 x 2 - 2 x + 3) + tan -1 5 3 5 2x -1 3 2 (D) log (2 x 2 - 2 x + 3) + tan -1 5 4 5

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(A) (C)
1 2 1 2
sin -1
4x + 3 23 4x + 3 23
cosh -1
(D) None of these
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9.
2x + 3 x + x+1
2
dx is equal to 2x + 1 3 3 2x + 1 3 2x + 1 3
15. (A)
1+ x + x
1 2 1 4 1 2
dx
+ x3
is equal to x x x
(A) 2 x 2 + x + 1 + 2 sinh -1 (B) x 2 + x + 1 + 2 sinh -1
( x + 1) 2 -1 log x 2 + 1 + tan
2x + 1
(B)
( x + 1) 2 log + 2 tan -1 x2 + 1 ( x + 1) 2 -1 log x 2 + 1 - 2 tan
(C) 2 x 2 + x + 1 + sinh -1 (D) 2 x 2 + x + 1 - sinh -1
(C)
10. (A)
dx x - x2
is equal to (B) sin -1 (2 x - 1) + c (D) tan -1 (2 x - 1) + c dx is equal to 1 2 cosh -1 1 + x 2 1 2 cosh -1 1 + x 2
1 - sin x dx
sin x
is equal to (B) - x + sec x + tan x (D) - x - sec x - tan x
(A) - x + sec x + tan x + k (C) - x + sec x - tan x 17.

x
x - x2 + c
(C) log (2 x - 1) + c 11.
( x + 1)
1 1 - 2 x - x2
(A) e f ( x)
x
e { f ( x) + f ( x)} dx is equal to
(B) e x f ( x) (D) None of these
(C) e x + f ( x) 18. The value of (A) e x tan x +c 2

x
(A)
2 2 cosh -1 1 + x
(B)
e 1 + cos x dx is
(B) e x cot x +c 2 (D) e x cot x + c
1 + sin x
2 (C) - 2 cosh -1 1 + x 12. (A)
(D) -
(C) e x tan x + c 19.
sin x + cos x
1 2 1
dx
is equal to (B) 1 2 1 x p log tan + 2 6
p log tan x + 4
x3 dx is equal to +1
(A) x 2 + log ( x 2 + 1) + c (B) log ( x 2 + 1) - x 2 + c (C) (D) 1 2 1 x - log ( x 2 + 1) + c 2 2 1 2 1 x + log( x 2 + 1) + c 2 2
(C)
x p log tan + 2 2 8 dx
(D)
x p log tan + 2 4 4
13.
sin( x - a) sin( x - b)
is equal to
(A) sin( x - a) log sin( x - b) x -a (B) log sin x -b sin( x - a) (C) sin( a - b) log sin( x - b) sin( x - a) 1 (D) log sin( a - b) sin( x - b) 14. dx ex - 1 is equal to (B) log (1 - e x ) (D) log (1 - e )
x -x
(A) x sin -1 x + 1 - x 2 + c
20. sin -1 x dx is equal to (C) x sin -1 x + 1 + x 2 + c 21.
(B) x sin -1 x - 1 - x 2 + c (D) x sin -1 x - 1 - x 2 + c
sin x + cos x 1 + sin 2 x
dx is equal to (B) x (D) tan x
(A) sin x (C) cos x 22. The value of (A) -1/2 (C) 1/2
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(A) log ( e x - 1) (C) log ( e

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5 x - 3 dx is
0
(B) 13/10 (D) 23/10

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39. (A) (C)
(x
0 x
+ y 2 ) dydx is equal to (B) 3 35
7 60 4 49
46. The area bounded by the curve r = q cos q and the p lines q = 0 and q = is given by 2 p p2 p p2 (B) (A) 1 - 1 4 16 16 6 (C) p 16 p2 16 - 1 (D) None of these
(D) None of these

1 + x2
40. The value of (A) (C) p log ( 2 + 1) 4 p log ( 2 + 1) 2
dy dx is
0 0
47. The area of the lemniscate r 2 = a 2 cos 2 q is given by (B) p log ( 2 - 1) 4 (A) 4
p4
0
p2
cos 2 q
rdrdq
(B) 2
p2
cos 2 q
rdrdq
(D) None of these
(C) 4
a cos 2 q
rdrdq
(D) 2
p a cos 2 q
0 0
rdrdq
41. If A is the region bounded by the parabolas y 2 = 4 x and x = 4 y, then 48 (A) 5

2
48. The area of the region bounded by the curve y ( x 2 + 2) = 3 x and 4 y = x 2 is given by (A) (C)
ydxdy is equal to
A
(B)
36 5
x2 4
y= 0
dxdy dydx
(B) (D)
x2 4
y= 0
dydx dxdy
(C)
32 5
(D) None of these
3x ( x 2 + 2)
y= x 2 4
1 y= 0
3x ( x 2 + 2)
y= x 2 4
42. The area of the region bounded by the curves x + y = a and x + y = a in the first quadrant is given
2 2 2
49. The volume of the cylinder x 2 + y 2 = a 2 bounded below by z = 0 and bounded above by z = h is given by (A) pah (C) 1 pa 3h 3 (B) pa 2 h (D) None of these
by (A)
dxdy
0 a-x a 2 - y2 a a-x
a2 - x 2
(B)
dxdy
0 0
a2 - x 2
(C)
dxdy
0
(D) None of these
50.
1 1 1
0 0 0
e x + y+ z dxdydz is equal to (B) 3 ( e - 1) 2
43. The area bounded by the curves y = 2 x , y = - x, x = 1 and x = 4 is given by (A) 25 47 (C) 4 33 (B) 2 101 (D) 6
(A) ( e - 1) 3 (C) ( e - 1) 2 51.
(D) None of these

x+ z

-1 0
x -z
( x + y + z) dy dx dz is equal to (B) -4 (D) None of these
(A) 4 (C) 0
44. The area bounded by the curves y 2 = 9 x, x - y + 2 = 0 is given by (A) 1 (C) 3 2 (B) (D) 1 2 5 4
*************
45. The area of the cardioid r = a (1 + cos q) is given by (A) 2 (C) 2

Page 548
p q= 0 r = 0
p2
a (1 + cos q)
rdrdq rdrdq
(B) 2
0
p4
a (1 + cos q)
r=a a (1 + cos q)
rdrdq rdrdq
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a (1 + cos q)
r=0
(D) 2
r=0
Integral calculus
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Chap 9.3
SOLUTIONS
1. (A)
4. (A) Let I =
3x + 1 dx 2x -2x + 3
2
x dx 2 x +1
Let 3 x + 1 = p( 4 x - 2) + q I= =
p=
3 5 , q = 4 2
Put x 2 + 1 = t 2 xdx = dt 1 1 x x 2 + 1 dx = 2 t dt = 1 1 log t = log ( x 2 + 1) 2 2 ax +K log a
3 4x -2 5 dx dx + 2 4 2 x2 - 2 x + 3 2 2x -2x + 3
5 dx 3 log (2 x 2 - 2 x + 3) + 2 2 4 4 5 1 x- + 2 2 x1 2 5 2
2. (A) F ( x) = a x dx + K = F ( a) = aa +K log a
3 5 1 = log (2 x 2 - 2 x + 3) + tan -1 4 4 5 2 5. (C) Let I = = dx 1 + 3 sin 2 x
1 aa 1 - aa K = = log a log a log a F ( x) = a 1-a 1 + = [ a x - a a + 1] log a log a log a

x a
cosec2 x dx cosec2 x dx = cosec 2 x + 3 (1 + cot2 x) + 3 - cosec2 x dx = dt 1 -dt t 1 cot x = cot-1 = cot-1 4 + t2 2 2 2 2
Put cot x = t I = =
3. (C) =
dx 1 + sin x
dx x x x x 2 + cos 2 + 2 sin cos sin 2 2 2 2 x sec 2 dx 2 = = dx 2 2 x x x 1 + tan cos + sin 2 2 2 x Put 1 + tan = t 2 x 2 dt 2 sec2 dx = 2 dt 2 dt = - + K 2 t t x -2 cos -2 2 +K = +K = x x x cos + sin 1 + tan 2 2 2 x x x -2 cos cos - sin 2 2 2 = +K x x x x cos + sin cos - sin 2 2 2 2 x x 2 x -2 cos + 2 sin cos 2 2 2 +K = 2 x 2 x - sin cos 2 2 -(1 + cos x) + sin x = + k = tan x - sec x - 1 + K cos x
1 tan -1 (2 tan x) 2 2 sin x + 3 cos x dx 3 sin x + 4 cos x + q( 3 sin x + 4 cos x)
6. (C) Let I =
Let (2 sin x + 3 cos x) = p( 3 cos x - 4 sin x) 1 18 , q= 25 25 1 25
p= I= =
3 sin x + 4 cos x dx + 25 3 sin x + 4 cos x dx
3 cos x - 4 sin x
18
3 sin x + 4 cos x
1 18 log ( 3 sin x + 4 cos x) + x 25 25
7. (B)
3 + 8 x - 3 x 2 dx = 3
4 5 - x - dx 3 3
1 = 3 2
4 2 2 2 x - 4 5 4 5 -1 3 x - - x - + sin 5 3 3 3 3 3
3x - 4 25 3 3x - 4 3 + 8 x - 3 x2 + sin -1 6 18 5
= tan x - sec x + c
8. (B)
dx 2 x + 3x + 4
2
1 2
dx 23 3 x+ + 4 4
2 2
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1 2
sinh
-1
x+
3 4 = 1 sinh -1 4 x + 3 2 23 23 4 dx
1 2
dx p sin x + 4
1 2
x + dx cosec 4
9. (B) = =
2x + 3 x2 + x + 1 dx +
1 1 p 1 x p log tan + - log cot x + = 2 4 2 2 2 8
2x + 1 x2 + x + 1 2x + 1 x2 + x + 1
2 dx x2 + x + 1 dx 3 1 x+ + 2 2
2 2
13. (D) = = =
sin( x - a) sin( x - b) sin( x - a) sin( x - b) sin( x - a) sin( x - b)

sin [( x - b) - ( x - a)] dx sin( a - b) dx
dx
dx + 2
1 sin( a - b) 1 sin( a - b) 1 sin ( a - b)
( x 2 + x + 1)1 2 + 2 sinh -1 1 2
1 x+ 2 3 2 3
= =
sin( x - b) cos( x - a) - cos( x - b) sin( x - a) dx sin( x - a) sin( x - b)
= 2 x 2 + x + 1 + 2 sinh -1
2x + 1
1 [cot( x - a) - cot( x - b)]dx sin( a - b) 1 [log sin ( x - a) - log sin ( x - b)] dx sin ( a - b) sin( x - a) 1 log sin ( a - b) sin( x - b)
10. (B)
dx x 1- x
2
=I =
Put x = sin q dx = 2 sin q cos q dq 2 sin q cos q 2 sin q cos q I = dq = dq 2 sin q cos q sin q 1 - sin q I = 2 dq = 2 q + c = 2 sin -1 I = sin
-1
14. (D) Let I =
x+c
dx e - x dx = 1 - e- x -1
(2 x - 1) + c 1 ( x + 1) 1 - 2 x - x 2 dx = 1 dt t2 =- dt 2 t2 - 1 t
1 2
Put 1 - e - x = t e - x dx = dt dt I = = log t = log (1 - e - x ) t dx 15. (B) Let I = = dx 1 + x + x2 + x3
11. (D) Let I = Put x + 1 = 1 t -
1 dt t2
dx (1 + x) (1 + x 2 ) A Bx + C 1 = + 2 (1 + x)(1 + x ) 1 + x 1 + x 2
I =
1 1 1 1 - 2 - 1 - - 1 t t t 1 2
Let
1 = A(1 + x 2 ) + ( Bx + C)(1 + x) 1 2 cosh -1 Comparing the coefficients of x 2 , x and constant terms, A + B = 0, B + C = 0, C + A = 1 Solving these equations, we get 1 1 1 A = , B=- , C= 2 2 2 1 1 1 x -1 I = dx - 2 dx 2 1+ x 2 x +1 = = 1 1 1 log (1 + x) - log ( x 2 + 1) + tan -1 x 2 2 2 1 4 ( x + 1) 2 log + 2 tan -1 x2 + 1 x
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=-
dt 1 t2 - 2
2
=-
=-
2 cosh -1 x + 1 2
12. (C) = 1 2
sin x + cos x
dx p p sin x cos + cos x sin 4 4
dx
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Chap 9.3
16. (B) Let I = = = =
sin x dx 1 - sin x
sin x + cos x (sin x + cos 2 x) + 2 sin x cos x

2
dx
1 - (1 - sin x) dx 1 - sin x 1 1 + sin x dx - dx = dx - x 1 - sin x 1 - sin 2 x 1 + sin x dx - x = (sec2 x + sec x tan x) dx - x cos 2 x
= =
sin x + cos x (cos x + cos x) 2
dx
sin x + cos x dx = dx = x sin x + cos x

35 35
= tan x + sec x - x 17. (B) Let I = e { f ( x) + f ( x)} dx

x
22. (D)
5 x - 3 dx = - 5 x - 3 dx +
0 0 35 1
35
5 x - 3 dx
= e x f ( x) dx + e x f ( x) dx = { f ( x) e x - f ( x) ex dx} + ex f ( x) dx = f ( x) ex 1 + sin x 18. (A) Let I = e dx 1 + cos x

x
5 x2 5 = - x2 + 3 x + - 3x 2 0 3 5 2 9 9 =+ + 10 5 = 5 9 9 2 - 3 - 10 - 5
9 1 9 13 + - + = 10 2 10 10
x x 1 + 2 sin cos x 2 2 dx =e 2 x 2 cos 2 1 x x = e x sec 2 dx + e x tan dx 2 2 2 = 1 x x x x x x e 2 tan - e 2 tan dx + e tan dx 2 2 2 2

x
23. (B)
e
0
dx = + e- x
e
0
e x dx 2x +1
Put e x = t
e x dx = dt =
dt e = [tan -1 t ]1 +1
= tan -1 e - tan -1 1 = tan -1 e c c
p 4
2
x = e tan + c 2 19. (C) I = = =

2
24. (D)
x(1 - x) dx = ( x - x ) dx
0 0 c
x3 x x2 dx = 2 dx x +1 x +1
2
1 1 1 = x 2 - x 3 = c 2 ( 3 - 2 c) 2 3 0 6
x( x + 1 - 1) x dx = xdx - 2 dx 2 x +1 x +1
x(1 - x) dx = 0 c= 3 2
1 2 c ( 3 - 2 c) = 0 6
1 2 1 x - log ( x 2 + 1) + c 2 2
-1
25. (D) Put x 2 + x = t

-1
(2 x + 1) dx = dt
20. (A) Let I = sin = sin -1 x x - = x sin

-1
x dx = sin x dx dx
x 1 dx
1 1 - x2 x 1 - x2
2x + 1 x+ x
2
dx =
0
dt t
= 2( t1 2 ) 2 0 =2 2
x-
26. (A)
x
p
sin 5 xdx
In second part put 1 - x 2 = t 2 xdx = - tdt = x sin -1 x + dt = x sin -1 x + t = x sin -1 x + 1 - x 2 + c 21.
Since, f ( - x) = ( - x) 4 sin 5 ( - x) = - x 4 sin 5 x f ( x) is odd function thus

p
x
p
sin 5 x dx = 0
p2 p2
sin x + cos x 1 + sin 2 x
dx
27. (A)
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1 (cos 2 x + 1) dx 2
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= = =
1 1 sin 2 x + x 2 2 0
p2
p p = 2 sin (1 - t) - dt = 2 4 0
1
- t dt 2 sin 4 2
0
1 1 p (sin p - sin 0) + - 0 2 2 2 1 1 p p (0 - 0) - 0 + = 2 2 2 4
p p = - 2 sin t - dt = - 1 2 4 0
1
2I = 0
I =0
2a
3 1 G G 1 p p2 p 2 2 Aliter 1. cos 2 x dx = = 2 = 2 4 4 0 2 G 2
p2
31. (C) Let I = I=

2a
f ( x) + f (2 a - x) dx ....(1)
0
f ( x)
f (2 a - x) + f ( x) dx....(2)
0 2a
f (2 a - x)
Aliter 2. Use Wallis Rule
cos
0
x =
1 p p = 2 2 4
Adding (1) and (2), we get 2I =
28. (B) Let I = a 2 - x 2 dx

0
f ( x) + f (2 a - x) dx
0 1 1 - x2
f ( x) + f (2 a - x)
2a
1 dx = [ x ]
0
2a 0
= 2a
I = a
Put x = a sin q dx = a cos q dq when x = 0, q = 0, p when x = a, q = 2 I = a 2 - a 2 sin 2 q a cos q dq

0
p2
32. (C) Let I = Put 1 - x2 = t 1 2 1 - x2

0
1 - x2
xdx
( -2 x) dx = dt
= a 2 cos 2 q dq = a 2
0
p2
1 p (By Wallis Formula) 2 2
when x = 0, t = 1, when x = 1, t = 0
0 I = -e t dt = -[ e t ]1 = -[ e 0 - e1 ] = e - 1 1
pa 2 4
Aliter:
a 2 - x 2 dx
a
1 pa 2 pa 2 x 1 = = x a 2 - x 2 + a 2 sin -1 = 0 + 4 2 a 0 4 2 29. (D) Let I = log (tan x) dx ....(1)

0
p2
33. (B) Let I =

1
dx 1 x + x2 0 1 x- 1 -1 2 tan 3 3 0 2 2
1
=
0
dx 3 1 x- + 2 2
2 2
p I = log tan - x dx 2 0 I = log (cot x)....(2)

0
p2
p2
= =
2 1 1 2 p p -1 = - tan -1 + tan 3 6 6 3 3 3 2p 3 3 = 2p 3 9
Adding (1) and (2), we get 2 I = [log (tan x) + log (cot x)]dx
0
p2
34. (B) Let I =

0 1
-1
x x
dx =
0 -1
-x dx + -1 x
0
x dx
0
= log (tan x cot x) dx

0
p2
-1
-1dx + 1 dx = -[ x ]
0 100 p
+ [ x ]1 0
= log 1 dx = 0
0
p2
I =0
= - [0 - ( -1)] + [1 - 0 ] = 0 35. (C)
pt p 30. (D) Let I = 2 sin - dt ....(i) 2 4 0

1
|sin x|dx = 100 |sin x|dx

0 0
[ . .. sin x is periodic with period p]

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Chap 9.3
p = 100 sin x dx = 100( - cos x) 0 0
40. (D)
1

0 0
1 + x2
dydx = [ y ]01 +
0
x2
dx
= 100( - cos p + cos 0) = 100(1 + 1) = 200. 36. (C) Let I = cos m x sin nx dx = f ( x) dx
0 0 p p
= 1 + x 2 dx
0
Where f ( x) = cos m x sin n x f ( p - x) = cos m ( p - x) sin n ( p - x) = ( - cos x) m (sin x) n = - cos m x sin n x, if m is odd I = cos
0 p m
1 [ x 1 + x 2 + log( x + 1 + x 2 )]1 0 2 1 = [ 2 + log (1 + 2 )] 2 = 41. (A) Let I = ydxdy,

A
x sin x dx = 0, if m is odd
n p
Solving the given equations y 2 = 4 x and x 2 = 4 y , we get x = 0, x = 4 . The region of integration A is given by A = =
4 4 y2 = ydydx 2 dx x2 4 0 x2 4 0 4 2 x 4 2 x
37. (A) Let I = xF (sin x) dx ....(1)

0
= ( x - p) F [sin ( p - x)]dx
0
48 x5 1 x4 4x dx = x 2 = 5 160 2 10 0 0
I =
( p - x) F(sin x) dx ....(2)
0 p
42. (A) The curves are x 2 + y 2 = a 2 ... x + y = a... ....(i) ....(ii)
Adding (1) and (2), we get 2 I = pF (sin x) dx

0
I=
1 pF (sin x) dx 2 0
p2
The curves (i) and (ii) intersect at A (a, 0) and B (0,a) The required area A =
x =0
a2 - x 2
y= a - x
dydx
38. (B) Let I =

0
p2
ex 2 x x + 2 tan dx sec 2 2 2
p2
43. (D) The given equations of the curves are y = 2 x i.e., y 2 = 4 x....(i)
4 2 x 4 4
x 1 = e xsec 2 dx + 2 2 0
p2
x e tan dx = I1 + I 2 2 0
x
y = - x....(ii)
If a figure is drawn then from fig. the required area is A =
x 1 Here, I1 = e x sec 2 dx 2 2 0 1 x 1 = e x 2 tan 2 0 2 2 p = e p 2 tan - 0 4

p2 p2 p2 p2
1 -x
dydx = [ y ]
1
2 x -x
= [2 x + x ]dx
1
x e 2 tan dx 2 0
x
32 4 1 101 = + 8 - + = 6 3 3 2 44. (B) The equations of the given curves are y 2 = 9 x....(i) A(1, 3) and B(4, 6) If a figure is drawn then from fig. the required area is x - y + 2 = 0....(ii) The curves (i) and (ii) intersect at
e
0
p2
tan
x dx 2
= e - I 2 , I1 + I 2 = e I = I1 + I 2 = e 39. (B)
1
p2
1 ( x 2 + y 2 ) dy dx = x 2 y + y 3 dx 3 x 0 x
A =
4
4 3 x
1 x+ 2
dydx = [ y ]
1
3 x x+ 2
dx
4
1 1 = x 5 2 + x 3 2 - x 3 - x 3 dx 3 3 0 2 52 1 4 3 2 = x7 2 + x - x = 15 3 0 35 7
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1
1 = [ 3 x - ( x + 2)]dx = 2 x 3 2 - x 2 - 2 x 2 1 1 1 1 = (16 - 8 - 8) - 2 - - 2 = 2 2
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45. (A) The equation of the cardioid is r = a (1 + cos q)

p a (1 + cos q)
Thus the equation volume is V = 4 zdxdy

A
....(i) =4
a 0
If a figure is drawn then from fig. the required area is Required area A = 2
hdydx = 4 h [ y ]
0 0
a2 - x 2
a2 - x 2
dx = 4 h a 2 - x 2 dx
0
q= 0
r=0
rdrdq
Let x = a sin q,
p2
dx = a cos q dq,
46. (C) The equation of the given curve is r = q cos q....(i) The required area A= = = 1 2 1 4
p 2 q cos q
Volume V = 4 h a 2 - a 2 sin 2 q a cos q dq

0
= 4 ha 2 cos 2 q dq = 4 ha 2
0 q cos q
p2
1 p = pa 2 h. 2 2
q= 0 p2
1 rdrdq = r 2 o r=0 0 2 cos 2 qdq = 1 4

p2
p2
dq
1 1 1
50. (A)
1 1
q
0 0
1 4
p2
e
0 0 0
x + y+ z
dxdydz
1 1 y+ z
q (1 + cos 2 q) dq
2 0
p2
= [ ex +
0 0 1
y+ z 1 0
] dydz = [ e1 +
0 0
- e y + z ]dydz
2 q dq +
2 q cos 2 q dq 0
= [ e1 + y + z - e y + z ]1 0 dz
0
p2 p2 p2 1 1 1 sin 2 q sin 2 q = q 3 + q 2 dq - 2q 4 3 0 4 2 2 0 0
= [( e 2 + z - e1 + z ) - ( e1 + z - e z )]dz
0
p2 p3 1 = + - q sin 2 q dq 96 4 0
= ( e 2 + z - 2 e1 + z + e z ) dz = [ e 2 + z - 2 e1 + z + e z ]1 0
0 p2
= = =
p3 1 cos 2 q cos 2 q - -q - d q 96 4 2 0 2 0
p2
= ( e 3 - 2 e 2 + e) - ( e 2 - 2 e + 1) = e 3 - 3e 2 + 3e - 1 = ( e - 1) 3 51. (C) = =
1 z
p3 1 -p 1 + -0 96 4 4 8
p2
cos 2 q dq
0
p2
-1 0 x - z
( x + y + z) dydxdz
x+ z
z x+ z
p p3 p 11 - sin 2 q = 96 16 8 2 0 16
p2 16 - 1
( x + y + z) 2 dxdz 2 x- y -1 0 (2 x + 2 z) 2 2 x 2 - dxdz 2 2 -1 0
1 z z
47. (A) The curve is r 2 = a 2 cos 2 q If a figure is drawn then from fig. the required area is
p 4 a cos 2 q
A =4
p4
q= 0
1 rdrdq = 4 r 2 0 0 2 r=0
p4
p4
cos 2 q
dq
1 1 3 ( x + z) 3 x 3 = 2 (( x + z) 2 - x 2 ) dx dz = 2 - dz 3 3 0 -1 0 -1
sin 2 q = 2 a cos 2 q dq= 2 a = a2 2 0 0

2 2
2 2 = [(2 z) 3 - z 3 - z ]dz = 3 -1 3 1 1 = 4 - = 0 4 4
z4 z dz = 6 4 4 -1 -1
1 3
48. (C) The equations of given curves are y( x 2 + 2) = 3 x....(i) and 4 y = x 2 ....(ii) The curve (i) and (ii) intersect at A (2, 1). If a figure is drawn then from fig. the required area is The required area A =
2 3x ( x 2 + 2 )
********
x =0
y= x 2 4
dxdy
49. (B) The equation of the cylinder is x 2 + y 2 = a 2 The equation of surface CDE is z = h. If a figure is drawn then from fig. the required area is
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Chap 9.5
10. The integration of f ( z) = x 2 + ixy from A(1, 1) to B(2, 4) along the straight line AB joining the two points is -29 (A) + i11 3 (C) 23 + i6 5 29 (B) - i11 3 (D) 23 - i6 5
17. The value of f ( 3) is (A) 6 (C) -4 i 18. The value of f (1 - i) is (A) 7 ( p + i2) (C) 2 p (5 + i13) Statement for 1921: Expand the given function in Taylors series. 19. f ( z) = z -1 about the points z = 0 z +1 (B) -1 - 2( z - z 2 + z 3......) (D) None of the above (B) 6 (2 + ip) (D) 0 (B) 4 i (D) 0
11. (A) (C)
e2 z dz = ? where c is the circle of z = 3 ( + 1) 4 c z 4 pi -3 e 9 4 pi -1 e 3 (B) (D) 4 pi 3 e 9 8 pi -2 e 3
12.
1 - 2z . dz = ? where c is the circle z = 15 ( z z - 1)( z - 2) c (B) 4 + i 3p (D) i 3p
(A) 1 + 2( z + z 2 + z 3......) (C) -1 + 2( z - z 2 + z 3......) 20. f ( z) = (A) (B) 1 about z = 1 z +1
(A) 2 + i 6 p (C) 1 + ip
13. ( z - z 2 ) dz = ? where c is the upper half of the circle

c
-1 1 1 1 - ( z - 1) + 2 ( z - 1) 2 ....... 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 - ( z - 1) + 2 ( z - 1) 2 ....... 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 + ( z - 1) + 2 ( z - 1) 2 ....... 2 2 2
z =1 -2 (A) 3 3 (C) 2 14.
(B)
2 3
-3 (D) 2
(C)
(D) None of the above 21. f ( z) = sin z about z = (A) p 4
cos pz dz = ? where c is the circle z = 3 c z -1 (B) - i2 p (D) - i 6 p2
(A) i2 p (C) i 6 p2 15.
2 1 p 1 p + 1 z z - ....... 4 2 ! 4 2 2 1 p 1 p 1 + z - + z - + ....... 4 2 ! 4 2 2 1 p 1 p 1 - z - - z - - ....... 4 2 ! 4 2
sin pz 2 dz = ? where c is the circle z = 3 c ( z - 2)( z - 1) (B) i2 p (D) 0 1 cos pz dz around a rectangle with 2 2 pi c z -1 (B) i2 e (D) 0
(B)
(A) i 6 p (C) i 4 p 16. The value of
(C)
(D) None of the above 22. If z + 1 < 1, then z -2 is equal to (A) 1 + (B) 1 + (C) 1 + (D) 1 +
n =1
vertices at 2 i , -2 i is (A) 6 (C) 8 Statement for Q. 1718: 3z 2 + 7 z + 1 f ( z0 ) = dz , where c is the circle ( z - z0 ) c x + y = 4.

2 2
( n + 1)( z + 1) ( n + 1)( z + 1) n( z + 1)
n =1 n
n -1
n +1
n =1
n =1
( n + 1)( z + 1)
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Statement for Q. 2325. Expand the function 1 in Laurents ( z - 1)( z - 2)
28. The Laurents series of f ( z) = where z < 1 1 5 3 21 5 (A) z z + z .......... 4 16 64 (B) (C) 1 1 2 5 4 21 6 + z + z + z .......... 2 4 16 64 1 3 15 5 z - z3 + z .......... 2 4 8 1 1 2 3 4 15 6 + z + z + z .......... 2 2 4 8
z is, ( z + 1)( z 2 + 4)
2
series for the condition given in question. 23. 1 < z < 2 1 2 3 (A) + 2 + 3 + ....... z z z (B) K - z -3 - z -2 - z -1 (C) 1 1 1 1 3 - z - z2 z -K 2 4 8 18
(D)
1 3 7 + 2 + 4 ........... 2 z z z
(D) None of the above 24. z > 2 (A) (C) 6 13 20 + + 3 + ........ z z2 z 1 3 7 + 3 + 4 + ......... 2 z z z (B) (D) 1 8 13 + + + ......... z z2 z3 2 3 4 - 3 + 4 - ........ 2 z z z
29. The residue of the function (A) (C) 4 3 -2 3
1 - e Zz at its pole is z4 -4 (B) 3 2 3
(D)
30. The residue of z cos (A) (C) 1 2 1 3 1 - 2z
25. z < 1 (A) 1 + 3z (B) (C) +7 2 15 2 z + z ..... 2 4
1 at z = 0 is z -1 (B) 2 (D) -1 3 z = 15 .
1 3 7 15 3 + z + z2 + z ... 2 4 8 16 1 3 z2 z3 + + + ....... 4 4 8 16 31.
z(1 - z)( z - 2) dz = ? where c is

c
(D) None of the above 26. If z - 1 < 1 , the Laurents series for (A) - ( z - 1) ( z - 1) 3 ( z - 1) 5 - ........... 2! 5! ( z - 1) 3 ( z - 1) 5 - ......... 2! 5!
3 5
(A) - i 3p (C) 2 1 is z( z - 1)( z - 2) 32.
(B) i 3 p (D) -2
z cos z dz = ? where c is z - 1 = 1 p c z 2 (B) - 6 p (D) None of the above

1
(B) - ( z - 1) -1 -
(A) 6 p (C) i2 p 33.
(C) - ( z - 1) - ( z - 1) - ( z - 1) - .......... (D) - ( z - 1)

-1
- ( z - 1) - ( z - 1) - ( z - 1) - .........
3 5
2 z e z dz = ? where c is z = 1 c
27. The Laurents series of
1 for z < 2 is z( e z - 1)
(A) i 3p C) ip 3
2p
(B) - i 3p (D) None of the above dq
1 1 1 1 2 (A) 2 + + + 6z + z + .......... z 2 z 12 720 1 1 1 1 2 (B) 2 + z + .......... z 2 z 12 720 (C) 1 1 1 1 2 + + z2 + z + .......... z 12 634 720
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34. (A)
2 + cos q = ?
0
-2 p 2
(B)
2p 3
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(C) 2 p 2
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(D) -2 p 3
Complex Variables
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Chap 9.5
35. (A) (C)
x2 ( 2 + a 2 )( x 2 + b2 ) dx = ? - x p ab a+b p a+b
(B)
p ( a + b) ab
SOLUTIONS
1. (C) Since, f ( z) = u + iv = u= x3 - y3 ; x2 + y2 v= x 3(1 + i) - y 3(1 - i) ; z 0 x2 + y2 x3 + y3 x2 + y2
(D) p ( a + b)
36. (A) (C)
1+ x
0
dx
=? (B) (D) p 2 p 3
p 6 2p 3
Cauchy Riemann equations are u v u v and = =x y y x By differentiation the value of we get u y v v at(0, 0) , , , x y x y
0 , so we apply first principle method. 0
***************
At the origin, u u(0 + h, 0) - u(0, 0) h3 h2 = lim = lim = 1 h 0 h 0 x h h u u(0, 0 + k) - u(0, 0) - k3 k2 = lim = lim = -1 k 0 v h 0 k k v v(0 + h, 0) - v(0, 0) h3 h2 = lim = lim =1 h 0 x h 0 h h v v(0, 0 + k), v(0, 0) k3 k2 = lim = lim =1 k 0 y k 0 k k Thus, we see that u v u v and = =x y y x
Hence, Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied at z = 0. Again, f (0) = lim

z 0
f ( z) - f (0) z
( x 3 - y 3) + i( x 3 + y 3) 1 = lim 2 2 z 0 (x + y ) ( x + iy) Now let z 0 along y = x, then ( x 3 - y 3) + i( x 3 + y 3) 1 2i 1+ i f (0) = lim = = 2 2 z 0 (x + y ) ( x + iy) 2(1 + i) 2 Again let z 0 along y = 0, then x 3 + i( x 3) 1 f (0) = lim =1 + i 2 x 0 x (x ) So we see that f (0) is not unique. Hence f (0) does not exist. 2. (A) Since, f ( z) = Df df = lim dz Dz 0 Dz Du + iDv or f ( z) = lim Dz 0 Dx + iDy
....(1)
Now, the derivative f ( z) exits of the limit in equation (1) is unique i.e. it does not depends on the path along which Dz 0.
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Let Dz 0 along a path parallel to real axis Dy = 0 \ Dz 0 Dx 0 Now equation (1) Du + iDv Du Dv f ( z) = lim = lim + i lim Dx 0 Dx 0 Dx Dx 0 Dx Dx u v f ( z) = +i x x axis, then Dx 0 and Dz 0 Dy 0 Thus from equation (1) Dz + iDv Du Dv u v = lim + i lim = + f( z) = lim Dy 0 Dy 0 iDy Dy 0 iDz iD y i y y f ( z) = -i u v + y y ....(3)
Now let v be the conjugate of u then v v u u dv = dx + dy = dx + dy x y y x (by Cauchy-Riemann equation) ....(2) dv = 2 x dx + 2(1 - y) dy On integrating v = x 2 - y 2 + 2 y + C 5. (C) Given f ( z) = u + i v if ( z) = -v + iu (1 + i) f ( z) = ( u - v) + i( u + v) F ( z) = U + iV add equation (1) and (2) ....(1) ....(2)
Again, let Dz 0 along a path parallel to imaginary
where, F ( z) = (1 + i) f ( z); U = ( u - v); V = u + v Let F ( z) be an analytic function. Now, U = u - v = e x (cos y - sin y) U U and = e x (cos y - sin y) = e x ( - sin y - cos y) x y Now, dV = -U U dx + dy....(3) y x
Now, for existence of f ( z) R.H.S. of equation (2) and (3) must be same i.e., u v v u +i = -i x x y y u v v -u and = = x y x y u u v v f ( z) = -i = +i x y y x 3. (A) Given f ( z) = x 2 + iy 2 since, f ( z) = u + iv Here u = x 2 and v = y 2 u u Now, u = x 2 = 2 x and =0 x y and v = y 2 v v = 0 and =2y x y f ( z) = u u -i x y ....(1)
= e x (sin y + cos y) dx + e x (cos y - sin y) dy = d[ e x (sin y + cos y)] on integrating V = e x (sin y + cos y) + c1 F ( z) = U + iV = e x (cos y - sin y) + ie x (sin y + cos y) + ic1 = e x (cos y + i sin y) + ie x (cos y + i sin y) + ic1 F ( z) = (1 + i) e x + iy + ic1 = (1 + i) ez + ic1 (1 + i) f ( z) = (1 + i) e z + ic1 ( i + 1) i i(1 - i) f ( z) = e z + c1 = e z + c1 = ez + c1 2 1+ i (1 + i)(1 - i) f ( z) = e z + (1 + i) c
we know that and f ( z) =
v v + i ....(2) y x ....(3) ....(4)
6. (C) u = sinh x cos y u = cosh x cos y = f( x, y) x u and = - sinh x sin y = y( x, y) y by Milnes Method f ( z) = f( z, 0) - iy( z, 0) = cosh z - i 0 = cosh z On integrating f ( z) = sinh z + constant f ( z) = w = sinh z + ic (As u does not contain any constant, the constant c is in
Now, equation (1) gives f ( z) = 2 x and equation (2) gives f ( z) = 2 y
Now, for existence of f ( z) at any point is necessary that the value of f ( z) most be unique at that point, whatever be the path of reaching at that point From equation (3) and (4) 2 x = 2 y Hence, f ( z) exists for all points lie on the line x = y. u 2u 4. (B) = 2(1 - y) ; =0 x x 2 u 2u = -2 x ; =0 y y 2
Page 568
....(1) ....(2)
the function x and hence i.e. in w). 7. (A) v v = 2 y = h( x, y), = 2 x = g( x, y) x y
2u 2u + = 0, Thus u is harmonic. x 2 y 2
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by Milnes Method f ( z) = g( z, 0) + ih( z, 0) = 2 z + i 0 = 2 z On integrating f ( z) = z 2 + c

Complex Variables
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Chap 9.5
8. (D)
2
v -( x 2 + y 2 ) - ( x - y)2 y = y ( x2 + y2 )2
2
f ( z o) =
n! 2 pi
(z - z )
c o c
f ( z) dz
n +1
or =
(z - z )
c o
f ( z) dz
n +1
2 pi n f ( z o) n!
y - x - 2 xy = g( x, y) ( x2 + y2 )2
Taking n = 3, Given fc
(z - z )
o
f ( z) dz
4
pi f ( z o) 3
....(1)
v ( x 2 + y 2 ) - ( x - y)2 x y 2 - x 2 + 2 xy = = = h( x, y) x ( x2 + y2 )2 ( x2 + y2 )2 By Milnes Method f ( z) = g( z, 0) + ih( z, 0) = 1 1 1 + i - 2 = - (1 + i) 2 z2 z z
e 2 z dz e 2 z dz = ( z + 1) 4 [ - ( -1)]4 c z pi f ( -1)....(2) 3
-2
Taking f ( z) = e 2 z , and z o = -1 in (1), we have
( z + 1)
c
e 2 z dz
4
On integrating 1 1 f ( z) = (1 + i) 2 dz + c = (1 + i) + c z z u 2 cos 2 x (cosh 2 y - cos 2 x) - 2 sin 2 2 x 9. (A) = x (cosh 2 y - cos 2 x) 2 = 2 cos 2 x cosh 2 y - 2 = f( x, y) (cosh 2 y - cos 2 y) 2
Now, f ( z) = e 2 z f ( -1) = 8 e
f ( z) = 8 e 2 z
equation (2) have
( z + 1)
c
e 2 z dz
4
8 pi -2 e 3
....(3)
If is the circle z = 3 Since, f ( z) is analytic within and on z = 3 8 pi - z e 2 z dz = e 4 3 |z |= 3 ( z + 1) 12. (D) Since, 1 - 2z 1 - 2z 1 1 3 = + z( z - 1)( z - 2) 2 z z - 1 2( z - 2) = 1 3 I1 + I 2 - I 3....(1) 2 2
u 2 sin 2 x sinh 2 y = = y( x, y) y (cosh 2 y - cos 2 x) 2 By Milnes Method f ( z) = f( z, 0) - iy( z, 0) 2 cos 2 z - 2 -2 = - i(0) = = - cosec2 z (1 - cos 2 z) 2 1 - cos 2 z On integrating f ( z) = - cosec2 z dz + ic = cot z + ic 10. x = at + b, y = ct + d On A, z = 1 + i and On B, z = 2 + 4 i Let z = 1 + i corresponds to t = 0 and z = 2 + 4 i corresponding to t = 1 then, t = 0 and t = 1 x = b, y = d x = a + b, y = c + d a = 1, c = 3 dx = dt ; dy = 3 dt b = 1, d = 1 2 = a + 1, 4 = c + 1
2
z( z - 1)( z - 2) dz
c
Since, z = 0 is the only singularity for I1 = lies inside
z dz
c
and it
z = 15 . , therefore by Cauchys integral
Formula 1 I1 = dz = 2 pi c z 1 f ( z o) = 2 pi
....(2)
f ( z) dz [Here f ( z) = 1 = f ( z o) and z o = 0] c z - zo 1 Similarly, for I 2 = dz, the singular point z = 1 lies -1 z c
AB is , y = 3t + 1
f ( z) dz = ( x
c c 1
+ ixy)( dx + idy)
inside z = 15 . , therefore I 2 = 2 pi....(3) 1 For I 3 = dz, the singular point z = 2 lies outside -2 z c the circle z = 15 . , so the function f ( z) is analytic everywhere in c i.e. z = 15 . , hence by Cauchys integral theorem 1 I3 = dz = 0....(4) -2 z c using equations (2), (3), (4) in (1), we get 1 - 2z 1 3 dz = (2 pi) + 2 pi - (0) = 3pi ( )( ) z z 1 z 2 2 2 c 13. (B) Given contour c is the circle z = 1
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t= 0 1
[( t + 1)
+ i( t + 1)( 3t + 1)][ dt + 3i dt ]
= [( t 2 + 2 t + 1) + i( 3t 2 + 4 t + 1)](1 + 3i) dt
0
t3 29 = (1 + 3i) + t 2 + t + i( t 3 + 2 t 2 + t) = + 1 1i 3 3 0 11. (D) We know by the derivative of an analytic function that

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UNIT 9
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z = e iq
dz = ieiqdq
Now, for upper half of the circle, 0 q p

2 ( z - z ) dz = c q= 0
3z 2 + 7 z + 1 dz = 2 pif( z o) z - zo c f ( z o) = 2 pif( z o) f ( z o) = 2 pif( z o) and f ( z o) = 2 pi f( z o)
(e
iq
- e 2 iq) ie iqdq
p
p e 2 iq e 3iq = i ( e 2 iq - e 3iq)dq = i 3i 2i 0 0
since, f( z) = 3z 2 + 7 z + 1 f ( z) = 6 z + 7 and f( z) = 6 f (1 - i) = 2 pi[ 6(1 - i) + 7 ] = 2 p (5 + 13i) 19. (C) f ( z) = z -1 2 =1 z +1 z +1 f (0) = 2;
=i
1 1 1 2 ( e 2 pi - 1) - ( e 3px - 1) = i 3 2 3
14. (B) Let f ( z) = cos pz then f ( z) is analytic within and on z = 3, now by Cauchys integral formula 1 f ( z) dz f ( z) f ( z o) = dz = 2 pif ( z o) 2 pi z z o c c z - zo take f ( z) = cos pz, z o = 1, we have cos pz dz = 2 pif (1) = 2 pi cos p = -2 pi z =3 z - 1 sin pz 2 15. (D) dz c ( z - 1)( z - 2) =
f (0) = -1, f (1) = 0 2 f ( z) = ( z + 1) 2 -4 ( z - 1) 3 12 ( z + 1) 4
f ( z) = f ( z) =
f (0) = -4; f (0) = 12; and so on.
Now, Taylor series is given by f ( z) = f ( z 0 ) + ( z - z 0 ) f ( z 0 ) + ( z - z0 ) 2 f ( z 0 ) + 2! ( z - z0 ) 3 f ( z 0 ) + ..... 3! about z = 0 f ( z) = -1 + z(2) + z2 z3 ( -4) + (12) + .... 2! 3!
sin pz 2 sin pz 2 dz - dz z -2 z -1 c c f (2) = sin 4 p = 0 and f (1) = sin p = 0 1 2 pi
= 2 pif (2) - 2 pif (1) since, f ( z) = sin pz 2
16. (D) Let, I = =
z
c
1 cos pz dz -1
= -1 + 2 z - 2 z 2 + 2 z 3.... f ( z) = -1 + 2( z - z 2 + z 3 ....) 20. (B) f ( z) = f ( z) = f ( z) = f ( z) = -1 ( z + 1) 2 2 ( z + 1) 3 -6 ( z + 1) 4 1 z +1 f (1) = -1 4 1 4 3 and so on. 8 1 2
1 1 1 cos pz dz 2 2 pi c z - 1 z + 1 1 cos nz cos nz dz z +1 4 pi c z -1 3z 2 + 7 z + 1 dz , since z o = 3 is the only z -3 c
Or I =
f (1) = f (1) =
17. (D) f ( 3) =
3z 2 + 7 z + 1 singular point of and it lies outside the z -3 circle x 2 + y 2 = 4 i.e., z = 2, therefore analytic everywhere within c. Hence by Cauchys theorem f ( 3) =
c
f (1) = -
3z 2 + 7 z + 1 is z -3
Taylor series is f ( z) = f ( z 0 ) + ( z - z 0 ) f ( z 0 ) + ( z - z0 ) 2 f ( z 0 ) 2! + about z = 1 f ( z) =

2 1 -1 ( z - 1) + ( z - 1) + 2 2! 4 3 1 ( z - 1) 3 - +K + 3! 8 4
3z 2 + 7 z + 1 dz = 0 z -3
( z - z0 ) 3 f ( z 0 ) + K 3!
18. (C) The point (1 - i) lies within circle z = 2 ( . .. the distance of 1 - i i.e., (1, 1) from the origin is 2 which is less than 2, the radius of the circle). Let f( z) = 3z 2 + 7 z + 1 then by Cauchys integral formula
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1 1 1 1 ( z - 1) + 3 ( z - 1) 2 - 4 ( z - 1) 3 +.... 2 22 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 - ( z - 1) + 2 ( z - 1) 2 - 3 ( z - 1) 3 + .... 2 2 2 2
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Chap 9.5
21. (A) f ( z) = sin z f ( z) = cos z f ( z) = - sin z f ( z) = - cos z
p 1 p f = sin = 4 2 4
1 p f = 2 4 1 p f = 4 2 1 p and so on. f = 4 2 ( z - z0 ) f ( z 0 ) 2!
2
1 1 1 1 1 z z2 z3 1+ + + + .. - z 1 + z + z 2 + z 3 + K 2 2 4 9 1 1 1 1 3 or f ( z) = K-z -4 - z -2 - z -1 - - z - z 2 z -K 2 4 8 18 f ( z) = 24. (C) 2 <1 z

-1
1 1 < <1 z 2 =
1 <1 z
Taylor series is given by f ( z) = f ( z 0 ) + ( z - z 0 ) f ( z 0 ) +
1 1 1 = 1 - z -1 z z and
1 1 1 1 1 + + 2 + 3 + K z z z 2
-1
1 1 2 = 1 - z -2 z z
1 2 4 8 1 + + 2 + 3 + .... z z z z
+ about z = p 4
2
( z - z0 ) 3 f ( z 0 ) + .... 3!
Laurents series is given by 1 2 4 98 1 1 1 1 f ( z) = 1 + + 2 + 3 + .. - 1 + + 2 + 3 + .. z z z z z z z z = 11 3 7 + 2 + 3 + K zz z z f ( z) = 1 3 7 + + +K z2 z3 z4 z 1 1 1 = - 1 - z -2 z -1 2 2

-1
p z - 1 p 1 4 f ( z) = + z - + 2! 4 2 2
1 2
3
p z - 4 + 3! f ( z) =
1 +K 2
25. (B) z < 1, =1 2
+ (1 - z) -1
2 3 1 1 p 1 p p 1 + z - - z - - z - -... 4 2 ! 4 3! 4 2
22. (D) Let f ( z) = z -2 = f ( z) = [1 - (1 + z)]-2
1 1 = 2 z [1 - (1 + z)]2
z z2 z3 1 + + + + K + (1 + z + z 2 + z 3 + ...) 2 4 8 1 3 7 15 3 f ( z) = + z + z 2 + z +K 2 4 8 16 1 1 1 1 = + z( z - 1)( z - 2) 2 z z - 1 2( z - 2)
26. (D) Since,
Since, 1 + z < 1, so by expanding R.H.S. by binomial theorem, we get f ( z) = 1 + 2(1 + z) + 3(1 + z) 2 + 4(1 + z) 3 + K + ( n + 1)(1 + z) n + K or f ( z) = z -2 = 1 +
n =1
For z - 1 < 1 Let z - 1 = u z = u + 1 and u < 1 1 1 1 1 = + z( z - 1)( z - 2) 2 z z - 1 2( z - 2) 1 1 1 1 1 - + = (1 + u) -1 - u-1 - (1 - u) -1 2 2( u + 1) u 2( u - 1) 2
( n + 1)( z + 1)
= =
1 1 1 23. (B) Here f ( z) = ....(1) = ( z - 1)( z - 2) z - 2 z - 1 Since, z > 1 1 < 1 and z < 2 z
-1
z 2
<1
1 1 [1 - u + u2 - u3 + ... ] - u-1 - (1 + u + u2 + u3 + ...) 2 2 1 3 -1 = ( -2 u - 2 u - ...) - u = -u - u3 - u5 - K - u-1 2 Required Laurents series is f ( z) = -( z - 1) -1 - ( z - 1) - ( z - 1) 3 - ( z - 1) 5 - K 27. (B) Let f ( z) = = 1 z z3 z4 + + + K - 1 z 1 + z + 2 ! 3! 4 !
2
1 1 1 1 = = 1 - 1 z z -1 z z 1 - z = 1 1 1 1 1 + + 2 + 3 + K z z z z
1 z( e z - 1)
and
-1 z 1 1 = 1 - = z -2 2 2 2
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-1
z z z 1 + 2 + 4 + 9 + K
2 3
equation (1) gives

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Complex Variables
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Chap 9.5
f ( z) dz = 2 pi 6 = 3 pi
c
Now -idz dq = ; z q 2p z
f ( z) dz =
r
ie 2 iqiRe iqdq 2 2 iq + a 2 )( R 2 e2 iq + b2 ) 0 (R e
34. (B) Let z = eiq
1 1 and cos q = z + 2 z
2p
2 iq e
e 3iq dq R a 2 2 iq b2 + 2 e + R2 R
-idz dq z ; = 1 1 2 + cos q 0 c 2 + + z 2 z dz z + 4z + 1
2
Now when R , c: z =1
b( z) dz = 0
r
(x
x p dz = 2 2 + a )( x + b ) a+b
2 2
= - 2i
c
36. (C) Let I =
dz = f ( z) dz 1 + z6 c c
Let f ( z) =
1 z2 + 4z + 1
c is the contour containing semi circle r of radius R and segment from - R to R. For poles of f ( z), 1 + z6 = 0 z = ( -1) p 6 = e i ( 2 n + 1 ) p 6 - 3+i , i, 2 3+i lie in the contour 2 where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Only poles z = 1
3
f ( z) has poles at z = - 2 + 3, -2 - 3 out of these only z = -2 + 3 lies inside the circle c : z = 1
f ( z) dz = 2 pi(Residue at z = -2 +
c
3)
Now, residue at z = -2 + 3 =
z -2 +
lim
3
( z + 2 - 3) f ( z) = lim
z -2 +
( z + 2 + 3)
1 2 3
f ( z) dz = 2 pi 2
c 2p
1 3 pi 3
pi 3 = 2p 3
+ 3+i 2 1 = ( z1 - z 2 )( z1 - z 3)( z1 - z 4 )( z1 - z 5)( z1 - z6 ) Residue at z = = 1 3i(1 + 3 i) = 1 - 3i 12 i 1 6i = 1 3i(1 - 3i) = 1 + 3i 12 i
2 + cos q = -2 i
0
dq
z2 35. (C) I = 2 dz = f ( z) dz 2 2 2 c ( z + a )( z + b ) c where c is be semi circle r with segment on real axis from - R to R. The poles are z = ia, z = ib. Here only z = ia and z = ib lie within the contour c
Residue at z = i is Residue at z =
1 + 3i is 12 i
R
f ( z) dz = f ( z) dz +
r
-R
f ( z) dz
f ( z) dz = 2 pi
c
2 pi 2p (1 - 3i + 1 + 3i + 2 i) = 12 i 3
(sum of residues at z = ia and z = ib) Residue at z = ia, = lim ( z - ia)

z ia
or
f ( z) dz +
r
-R
f ( z) dz =
p iq
2p ....(1) 3
z a = ( z - ia)( z - ia)( z 2 + b2 ) 2 i( a 2 - b2 )
Now
f ( z) dz = 1 + R e
c 0 r
iRe dq
6 6 iq
Residue at z = ib z2 -b = lim ( z - ib) = z ib ( z - ia)( z + ia)( z + ib)( z - ib) 2 i( a 2 - b2 )
ie iqdq R5 1 + e6 iq R6
where R , (1)
f ( z) dz 0
f ( z) dz = f ( z) dz + f ( z) dz
c r -R
ax 2p = 1 + x6 3
p 2 pi ( a - b) = a+b 2 i ( a 2 - b2 )
********
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CHAPTER
9.6
PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS
1. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 15 and the class interval is 4. The lower limit of the class is (A) 14 (C) 12 (B) 13 (D) 10 6. A distribution consists of three components with frequencies 45, 40 and 15 having their means 2, 2.5 and 2 respectively. The mean of the combined distribution is (A) 2.1 (C) 2.3 (B) 2.2 (D) 2.4
2. The mid value of a class interval is 42. If the class size is 10, then the upper and lower limits of the class are (A) 47 and 37 (C) 37.5 and 47.5 (B) 37 and 47 (D) 47.5 and 37.5
7. Consider the table given below

Marks 0 10 10 20 20 30 Number of Students 12 18 27 20 17 6
3. The following marks were obtained by the students in a test: 81, 72, 90, 90, 86, 85, 92, 70, 71, 83, 89, 95,
85,79, 62. The range of the marks is
30 40 40 50 50 60
(A) 9 (C) 27
(B) 17 (D) 33
The arithmetic mean of the marks given above, is (A) 18 (C) 27 (B) 28 (D) 6
4. The width of each of nine classes in a frequency distribution is 2.5 and the lower class boundary of the lowest class is 10.6. The upper class boundary of the highest class is (A) 35.6 (C) 30.6 5. In a monthly test, (B) 33.1 (D) 28.1 the marks obtained in
8. The following is the data of wages per day: 5, 4, 7, 5, 8, 8, 8, 5, 7, 9, 5, 7, 9, 10, 8 The mode of the data is (A) 5 (C) 8 (B) 7 (D) 10
9. The mode of the given distribution is

Weight (in kg) Number of Children 40 5 43 8 46 16 49 9 52 7 55 3
mathematics by 16 students of a class are as follows:

0, 0, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 5, 5, 6, 6, 7, 8
The arithmetic mean of the marks obtained is (A) 3 (C) 5

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(B) 4 (D) 6
(A) 55 (C) 40
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(B) 46 (D) None

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Chap 9.6
10. If the geometric mean of x, 16, 50, be 20, then the value of x is (A) 4 (C) 20 (B) 10 (D) 40
16. The mean deviation of the following distribution is

x f 10 3 11 12 12 18 13 12 14 3
11. If the arithmetic mean of two numbers is 10 and their geometric mean is 8, the numbers are (A) 12, 18 (C) 15, 5 12. The median of 0, 2, 2, 2, -3, 5, -1, 5, 5, -3, 6, 6, 5, 6 is (A) 0 (C) 2 (B) -1.5 (D) 3.5 (B) 16, 4 (D) 20, 5
(A) 12 (C) 1.25
(B) 0.75 (D) 26
17. The standard deviation for the data 7, 9, 11, 13, 15 is (A) 2.4 (C) 2.7 (B) 2.5 (D) 2.8
18. The standard deviation of 6, 8, 10, 12, 14 is (A) 1 (C) 2.83 (B) 0 (D) 2.73
13. Consider the following table

Diameter of heart (in mm) 120 121 122 123 124 125 Number of persons 5 9 14 8 5 9
19. The probability that an event A occurs in one trial of an experiment is 0.4. Three independent trials of experiment are performed. The probability that A occurs at least once is (A) 0.936 (C) 0.964 20. (A) (C)
7 64 57 64
(B) 0.784 (D) None coins are tossed (B) (D) simultaneously.
37 256 249 256
Eight
The
probability of getting at least 6 heads is The median of the above frequency distribution is (A) 122 mm (C) 122.5 mm (B) 123 mm (D) 122.75 mm 21. A can solve 90% of the problems given in a book and 14. The mode of the following frequency distribution, is
Class interval 36 69 912 1215 1518 1821 2124 Frequency 2 5 21 23 10 12 3
B can solve 70%. What is the probability that at least one of them will solve a problem, selected at random from the book? (A) 0.16 (C) 0.97 (B) 0.63 (D) 0.20
22. A speaks truth in 75% and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other narrating the same incident ? (A) 5% (C) 35% (B) 45% (D) 15%
(A) 11.5 (C) 12
(B) 11.8 (D) 12.4
23. The odds against a husband who is 45 years old, living till he is 70 are 7:5 and the odds against his wife who is 36, living till she is 61 are 5:3. The probability that at least one of them will be alive 25 years hence, is (A) (C)
61 96 13 64
15. The mean-deviation of the data 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 14 is (A) 4 (C) 2.75
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(B) 3.25 (D) 2.4
(B)
5 32
(D) None
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UNIT 9
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24. The probability that a man who is x years old will die in a year is A1 , A2 , K, An each x 1 n2 1 [1 - (1 - p) n ] n2 p. Then amongst n persons years old now, the probability
30. If 3 is the mean and (3/2) is the standard deviation of a binomial distribution, then the distribution is 3 1 (A) + 4 4 4 1 (C) + 5 5
12
that A1 will die in one year is (A) (C) (B) 1 - (1 - p) n (D) 1 [1 - (1 - p) n ] n
1 3 (B) + 2 2
12
60
1 4 (D) + 5 5
31. The sum and product of the mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 24 and 18 respectively. Then, the distribution is 1 1 (A) + 7 8
12
25. A bag contains 4 white and 2 black balls. Another bag contains 3 white and 5 black balls. If one ball is drawn from each bag, the probability that both are white is 1 (A) 24 (C) 5 24 1 (B) 4 (D) None
1 3 (B) + 4 4 1 1 (D) + 2 2
16
1 5 (C) + 6 6
24
32
32. A die is thrown 100 times. Getting an even number is considered a success. The variance of the number of successes is (A) 50 (C) 10 (B) 25 (D) None
26. A bag contains 5 white and 4 red balls. Another bag contains 4 white and 2 red balls. If one ball is drawn from each bag, the probability that one is white and one is red, is 13 (A) 27 (C) 8 27 5 (B) 27 (D) None
33. A die is thrown thrice. Getting 1 or 6 is taken as a success. The mean of the number of successes is 3 2 (A) (B) 2 3 (C) 1 (D) None
27. An anti-aircraft gun can take a maximum of 4 shots at an enemy plane moving away from it. The probabilities of hitting the plane at the first, second, third and fourth shot are 0.4, 0.3, 0.2 and 0.1 respectively. The probability that the gun hits the plane is (A) 0.76 (C) 0.6976 (B) 0.4096 (D) None of these
34. If the sum of mean and variance of a binomial distribution is 4.8 for five trials, the distribution is 1 4 (A) + 5 5 2 3 (C) + 5 5
5
1 2 (B) + 3 3
(D) None of these
35. A variable has Poission distribution with mean m. The probability that the variable takes any of the values 0 or 2 is m2 (A) e - m 1 + m + 2 ! (C) e 3 2 (1 + m 2 ) -1 2 (B) e m (1 + m) -3 2 m2 (D) e - m 1 + 2! a Poission variate such that
28. If the probabilities that A and B will die within a year are p and q respectively, then the probability that only one of them will be alive at the end of the year is (A) pq (C) q(1 - p) (B) p(1 - q) (D) p + 1 - 2 pq
29. In a binomial distribution, the mean is 4 and variance is 3. Then, its mode is (A) 5 (C) 4
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36.
If
is
P (2) = 9 P ( 4) + 90 P ( 6), then the mean of X is (A) 1 (C) 3

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(B) 6 (D) None
(B) 2 (D) None

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Chap 9.6
37. When the correlation coefficient r = 1, then the two regression lines (A) (B) (C) (D) are perpendicular to each other coincide are parallel to each other do not exist
43. If Sxi = 30,

2 i
yi = 42,
xi yi = 199, xi2 = 184,
y = 318 and n = 6, then the regression coefficient bxy is (A) -0.36 (C) 0.26 (B) -0.46 (D) None
38. If r = 0, then (A) there is a perfect correlation between x and y (B) x and y are not correlated. (C) there is a positive correlation between x and y (D) there is a negative correlation between x and y 39. If Sxi = 15, (A) 0.6 (C) 0.4 Syi = 36, Sxi yi = 110 and n = 5, then (B) 0.5 (D) 0.225
44. Let r be the correlation coefficient between x and y and byx , bxy be the regression coefficients of y on x and x on y respectively then (A) r = bxy + byx (C) r = bxy byx (B) r = bxy byx (D) r = 1 ( bxy + byx ) 2
45. Which one of the following is a true statement. (A) (C)

1 2 1 2
cov ( x, y) is equal to
( bxy + byx ) = r ( bxy + byx ) > r
(B)
1 2
( bxy + byx ) < r
(D) None of these
40. If cov ( x, y) = -16.5, var ( x) = 2.89 and var ( y) = 100, then the coefficient of correlation r is equal to (A) 0.36 (C) 0.97 (B) -0.64 (D) -0.97
46. If byx = 1.6 and bxy = 0.4 and q is the angle between two regression lines, then tan q is equal to (A) 0.18 (C) 0.16 (B) 0.24 (D) 0.3
41. The ranks obtained by 10 students in Mathematics and Physics in a class test are as follows
Rank in Maths 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Rank in Chem. 3 10 5 1 2 9 4 8 7 6
47. The equations of the two lines of regression are : 4 x + 3y + 7 = 0 (A) 1.25 (C) -0.75 and 3 x + 4 y = 8 = 0. The correlation (B) 0.25 (D) 0.92 coefficient between x and y is
48. If cov( X , Y ) = 10, var ( X ) = 6.25 and var( Y ) = 31.36, then r( X , Y ) is (A) (C)
5 7 3 4
(B)
4 5
(D) 0.256 x 2 = y 2 = 49, xy = 44 and (B) 2 3
49. If x = y = 15, n = 5, then bxy = ? (A) - 1 3 (C) - 1 4 50. If x = 125, y is (A) 22 x + 9 y = 146 (C) 22 x - 9 y = 146
(D) - 1 2 y = 100, x 2 = 1650, y 2 = 1500,
The coefficient of correlation between their ranks is (A) 0.15 (C) 0.625 42. If Sxi = 24, is equal to (A) 2.1 (C) 1.225
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(B) 0.224 (D) None yi = 44, Sxi yi = 306, xi2 = 164,
xy = 50 and n = 25, then the line of regression of x on (B) 22 x - 9 y = 74 (D) 22 x + 9 y = 74
yi2 = 574 and n = 4, then the regression coefficient byx (B) 1.6 (D) 1.75
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SOLUTION
1. (B) Let the lower limit be x. Then, upper limit is x + ( x + 4) x + 4. = 15 x = 13. 2 2. (A) Let the lower limit be x. Then, upper limit x + 10. x + ( x + 10) = 42 2 x = 37.
A.M. = A +
S( fd) 300 = 25 + = 28. Sf 100
8. (C) Since 8 occurs most often, mode =8. 9. (B) Clearly, 46 occurs most often. So, mode =46. 10. (B) ( x 16 50)1 3 = 20 20 20 20 x = 16 50 = 10. x 16 50 = (20) 3
Lower limit = 37 and upper limit =47. 3. (D) Range = Difference between the largest value = (95 - 62) = 33. 4. (B) Upper class boundary = 10.6 + (2.5 9) = 331 .. 5. (B)
Marks 0 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Frequency f 2 2 3 1 4 2 1 1 f = 16 f 1 0 4 9 4 20 12 7 8 ( f x) = 64
11. (B) Let the numbers be a and b Then, a+b = 10 2 ab = 8 ( a + b) = 20 ab = 64 and
a - b = ( a + b) 2 - 4 ab = 44 - 256 = 144 = 12. Solving a + b = 20 and a - b = 12 we get a = 16 and b = 4. 12. (D) Observations in ascending order are -3, -3, -1, 0, 2, 2, 2, 5, 5, 5, 5 6, 6, 6 Number of observations is 14, which is even. Median = 1 1 [7 the term +8 the term] = (2 + 5) = 35 . . 2 2
13. (A) The given Table may be presented as

Diameter of heart (in mm) 120 121 122 123 124 125 Number of persons 5 9 14 8 5 9 Cumulative frequency 5 14 28 36 41 50
A.M. =
( f x) 64 = = 4. f 16 45 2 + 40 2.5 + 15 2 220 = = 2.2. 100 100
6. (B) Mean = 7. (B)

Class 010 1020 2030 3040 4050 5060 Mid value x 5 15 25 = A 35 45 55
Frequenc yf 12 18 27 20 17 6 Sf = 100
Deviation d = x- A -20 -10 0 10 20 30
f d -240 -180 0 200 320 180 S ( f d) = 390
Here n = 50. So, Medium =
n n = 25 and + 1 = 26. 2 2
1 122 + 122 (25th term +26 th term) = = 122. 2 2
[ . .. Both lie in that column whose c.f. is 28] 14. (B) Maximum frequency is 23. So, modal class is 1215. L1 = 12, L2 = 15, f = 23, f1 = 21 and f2 = 10. Thus Mode = L1 + f - f1 ( L2 - L1 ) 2 f - f1 - f2
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Chap 9.6
= 12 +
(23 - 21) (15 - 12) = 12.4. ( 46 - 21 - 10)
3 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 10 + 11 + 14 15. (C) Mean = = 8. 8 Sd = 3 - 8 + 5 - 8 + 8 - 8 + 10 - 8 + 11 - 8 + 14 - 8 = 22 Sd 22 Thus Mean deviation = = = 2.75. n 8 16. (B)

x 10 11 12 13 14 f 3 12 18 12 3 Sf = 48 f x 30 132 216 156 42 Sfx = 576 d = x-M 2 1 0 1 2 f d 6 12 0 12 6 Sfd = 36
1 1 1 1 = 8 C6 + 8 C7 + 8 C8 2 2 2 2 87 1 1 1 37 = + 8 + = 2 1 256 256 256 256
1 2
21. (C) Let E = the event that A solves the problem. and F = the event that B solves the problem. Clearly E and F are independent events. 90 70 P ( E) = = 0.9, P ( F ) = = 0.7, 100 100 P ( E F ) = P ( E) P ( F ) = 0.9 0.7 = 0.63 Required probability = P ( E F ) = P ( E) + P ( F ) - P ( E F ) = (0.9 +0.7 - 0.63) =0.97. 22. (C) Let E =event that A speaks the truth. F =event that B speaks the truth. 75 3 80 4 Then, P ( E) = = , P( F) = = 100 4 100 5 3 1 4 1 P ( E) = 1 - = , P( F ) = 1 - = 4 4 5 5 P (A and B contradict each other). = P [(A speaks truth and B tells a lie) or (A tells a lie and B speaks the truth)] = P ( E and F ) + P ( E and F ) = P ( E) P ( F ) + P ( E ) P ( F ) 3 1 1 4 3 1 7 7 = 100 % = 35%. + = + = 4 5 4 5 20 5 20 20
Thus M =
576 = 12. 48
Sfd 36 So, Mean deviation = = = 0 .75 n 48 17. (D) m =

2
7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 55 = = 11. 5 5
2 2 2 2
Sd2 = 7 - 11 + 9 - 11 + 11 - 11 + 13 - 11 + 15 - 11 = 40 s= Sd 2 40 = = 8 = 2 2 = 2 1.41 = 2.8. n 5
23. (A) Let E = event that the husband will be alive 25 years hence and F =event that the wife will be alive 25 years hence.
2
6 + 8 + 10 + 12 + 14 50 18. (C) M = = = 10. 5 5

Sd2 = 6 - 10 2 + 8 - 10 + 10 - 10 + 12 - 10 + 14 - 10 = 40
2 2 2
Then,
P ( E) =
5 12
and P ( F ) =
3 8
6=
Sd2 40 = n 5
5 7 3 5 and P ( F ) = 1 - = . Thus P ( E) = 1 = 12 12 8 8 Clearly, E and F are independent events. So, E and F are independent events. P (at least one of them will be alive 25 years hence) = 1 - P (none will be alive 24 years hence) 7 5 61 = 1 - P ( E F ) = 1 - P ( E) P ( F ) = 1 = 12 8 96 24. (D) P (none dies) = (1 - p) (1 - p)....n times = (1 - p) n n = 8. Required probability P (at least one dies) = 1 - (1 - p) n . 1 P ( A1 dies) = {1 - (1 - p) n }. n
= 8 = 2 2 = 2 1.414 = 2.83 (app.) 19. (B) Here p = 0.4, q = 0.6 and n = 3. Required probability = P (A occurring at least once) = 3C1 (0.4) (0.6) 2 + 3C2 (0.4) 2 (0.6) + 3C3 (0.4) 3 4 36 16 6 64 784 =3 + 3 + = 0.784. = 10 100 100 10 1000 1000 1 , 2 1 , 2
20. (B) p =
q=
= P (6 heads or 7 heads or 8 heads)

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Chap 9.6
Sxi 15 yi 36 = = 3, y = = = 7.2 n 5 n 5 Sx y 110 cov( x, y) = i i - x y = - 3 7.2 = 0.4 n 5 39. (C) x = 40. (D) r = cov ( x, y) var ( x) var ( y) = -16.5 2.89 100 = -0.97.
47. (C) Given lines are : y = -2 -
3 x 4
41. (B) Di = -2, - 8, - 2, 3, 3, - 3, 3, 0, 2, 4. SDi2 = ( 4 + 64 + 4 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 0 + 4 + 16) = 128. 6( SDi2 ) 6 128 37 R = 1 2 = 1 - 10 99 = 165 = 0.224. ( ) n n 1 ( Sxi )( Syi ) n 42. (A) byx = 2 ( Sxi ) 2 Sxi - n Sxi yi 24 44 306 4 = ( 306 - 264) = 42 = 2.1 = 2 (164 - 144) 20 (24) 164 - 4 ( Sxi )( Syi ) 199 - 30 42 Sx i y i 6 n = 43. (B) byx = 2 ( Syi ) 2 42 42 318 Syi - n 6 (199 - 210) -11 = = = -0.46. ( 318 - 294) 24 44. (C) byx = r r 2 = bxy byx 45. (C) sy sx and bxy = r sx sy r = bxy byx .
7 3 and x = - - y 4 4 -3 -3 and . byx = bxy = 4 4 3 -3 -3 9 or r = - = -0.75. So, r 2 = = 4 16 4 4 [. .. byx and bxy are both negative r is negative] 48. (A) r( X , Y ) = cov( X , Y ) var( X ) var( Y ) = 10 6.25 31.36 = 5 7
49. (C) byx =
nSxy - ( Sx)( Sy) nSx 2 - ( Sx) 2
5 44 - 15 15 1 = 5 49 - 15 15 =- 4 50. (B) bxy = = nSxy - ( Sx)( Sy) nSy 2 - ( Sy) 2
25 50 - 125 100 9 = 25 1500 - 100 100 22 x= 125 = 5, 25 y= 100 = 4. 25
Also,
Required line is x = x + bxy ( y - y) 9 x =5 + ( y - 4) 22 x - 9 y = 74. 22
1 1 sy sx ( bxy + byx ) > r is true if r +r >r sy 2 2 sx
2 i.e. if s2 y + sx > 2 sx s y
i.e. if ( s y - sx ) 2 > 0, which is true. 46. (A) r = 1.6 0.4 = .64 = 0.8 byx = r m1 = sy sx sy sx = byx r = 1.6 =2 0.8 m2 = r sy sx = 0.8 2 = 1.6.
1 sy 1 5 , = 2= r sx 0.8 2
m1 - m2 tan q = 1 + m m 1 2
2.5 - 1.6 0.9 = 0.18. = = 1 + 2.5 1.6 5
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Chap 9.7
(B) (C) (D)
x2 x5 x8 x11 + + + 2 20 160 4400 x2 x5 x8 x11 + + + 2 20 160 2400 x x x x + + + 2 40 480 2400

2 5 8 11
Statement for Q. 1819: dy For = 1 + y 2 given that dx x: y: 0 0 0.2 0.2027 0.4 0.4228 0.6 0.6841
12. For dy dx = xy given that y = 1 at x = 0. Using Euler method taking the step size 0.1, the y at x = 0.4 is (A) 1.0611 (C) 1.6321 Statement for Q. 1315. For dy dx = x 2 + y 2 given that y = 1 at x = 0. Determine the value of y at given x in question using modified method of Euler. Take the step size 0.02. 13. y at x = 0.02 is (A) 1.0468 (C) 1.0346 14. y at x = 0.04 is (A) 1.0316 (C) 1.403 15. y at x = 0.06 is (A) 1.0348 (C) 1.0638 (B) 1.0539 (D) 1.0796 (B) 1.0301 (D) 1.0416 (B) 1.0204 (D) 1.0348 (B) 2.4680 (D) 2.4189
Using Milnes method determine the value of y for x given in question. 18. y (0.8) = ? (A) 1.0293 (C) 0.6065 19. y (10 . ) =? (A) 1.9428 (C) 1.5555 Statement for Q.2022: Apply Runge Kutta fourth order method to obtain y (0.2), y (0.4) and y (0.6) from dy dx = 1 + y 2 , with y = 0 at x = 0. Take step size h = 0.2. 20. y (0.2) = ? (A) 0.2027 (C) 0.3846 21. y (0.4) = ? (A) 0.1649 (C) 0.4227 (B) 0.8397 (D) 0.1934 (B) 0.4396 (D) 0.9341 (B) 1.3428 (D) 2.168 (B) 0.4228 (D) 1.4396
16. For dy dx = x + y given that y = 1 at x = 0. Using modified Eulers method taking step size 0.2, the value of y at x = 1 is (A) 3.401638 (C) 9.164396 (B) 3.405417 (D) 9.168238
22. y (0.6) = ? (A) 0.9348 (C) 0.6841 (B) 0.2935 (D) 0.563
23. For dy dx = x + y 2 , given that y = 1 at x = 0. Using Runge Kutta fourth order method the value of y at x = 0.2 is (h = 0.2) (A) 1.2735 (B) 2.1635 (D) 2.9468 (C) 1.9356
17. For the differential equation dy dx = x - y 2 given that x: y: 0 0 0.2 0.02 0.4 0.0795 0.6 0.1762
24. For dy dx = x + y given that y = 1 at x = 0. Using Runge Kutta fourth order method the value of y at x = 0.2 is (A) 1.1384 (C) 1.2428 (h = 0.2) (B) 1.9438 (D) 1.6389
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Using Milne predictorcorrection method, the y at next value of x is (A) 0.2498 (C) 0.4648
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SOLUTIONS
1. (B) Let f ( x) = x 3 - 4 x - 9 Since f (2) is negative and f ( 3) is positive, a root lies between 2 and 3. First approximation to the root is 1 x1 = (2 + 3) = 2.5. 2 Then f ( x1 ) = 2.5 3 - 4(2.5) - 9 = - 3.375 i.e. negative\ The root lies between x1 and 3. Thus the second approximation 1 x2 = ( x1 + 3) = 2.75. 2 to the root is
x2 = x0 = 35 . -
x1 - x0 f ( x0 ) f ( x1 ) - f ( x0 )
0.5 ( - 0.5441) = 37888 . 0.3979 + 0.5441
Since f ( 37888 . ) = - 0.0009 and f ( 4) = 0.3979, therefore the root lies between 3.7888 and 4. Taking x0 = 37888 . , x1 = 4, we obtain 0.2112 x3 = 37888 . ( - .009) = 37893 . 0.3988 Hence the required root correct to three places of decimal is 3.789. 4. (D) Let f ( x) = xe x - 2, Then f (0) = - 2, and f (1) = e - 2 = 0.7183 So a root of (i ) lies between 0 and 1. It is nearer to 1. Let us take x0 = 1. Also f ( x) = xe x + e x and f (1) = e + e = 5.4366 By Newtons rule, the first approximation x1 is f ( x0 ) 0.7183 x1 = x0 =1 = 0.8679 f ( x0 ) 5.4366 f ( x1 ) = 0.0672, f ( x1 ) = 4.4491. Thus the second approximation x2 is f ( x1 ) 0.0672 x2 = x1 = 0.8679 = 0.8528 f ( x1 ) 4.4491 Hence the required root is 0.853 correct to 3 decimal places.
Then f ( x2 ) = (2.75) 3 - 4(2.75) - 9 = 0.7969 i.e. positive. The root lies between x1 and x2 . Thus the third 1 approximation to the root is x3 = ( x1 + x2 ) = 2.625. 2 Then negative. The root lies between x2 and x3 . Thus the fourth 1 approximation to the root is x4 = ( x2 + x3) = 2.6875. 2 Hence the root is 2.6875 approximately. 2. (B) Let f ( x) = x 3 - 2 x - 5 So that f (2) = - 1 and f ( 3) = 16 i.e. a root lies between 2 and 3. Taking x0 = 2, x1 = 3, f ( x0 ) = - 1, f ( x1 ) = 16, in the f ( x3) = (2.625) 3 - 4(2.625) - 9 = - 1.4121 i.e.
5. (B) Let y = x + log10 x - 3.375 To obtain a rough estimate of its root, we draw the graph of (i ) with the help of the following table : x y 1 -2.375 2 -1.074 3 0.102 4 1.227
method of false position, we get x1 - x0 1 x2 = x0 f ( x0 ) = 2 + = 2.0588 f ( x1 ) - f ( x0 ) 17 Now, f ( x2 ) = f (2.0588) = - 0.3908 i.e., that root lies between 2.0588 and 3. Taking x0 = 2.0588, x1 = 3, f ( x0 ) = - 0.3908, f ( x1 ) = 16 in (i), we get 0.9412 x3 = 2.0588 ( - 0.3908) = 2.0813 16.3908 Repeating this process, the successive approximations are x4 = 2.0862, x5 = 2.0915, x6 = 2.0934, x7 = 2.0941, x8 = 2.0943 etc. Hence the root is 2.094 correct to 3 decimal places. 3. (C) Let f ( x)2 x - log10 x - 7 Taking x0 = 35 . , x1 = 4, in the method of false position, we get
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Taking 1 unit along either axis = 0.1, The curve crosses the xaxis at x0 = 2.9, which we take as the initial approximation to the root. Now let us apply NewtonRaphson method to f ( x) = x + log10 x - 3.375 1 f ( x) = 1 + log10 e x f (2.9) = 2.9 + log10 2.9 - 3.375 = - 0.0126 1 f (2.9) = 1 + log10 e = 11497 . 2.9 The first approximation x1 to the root is given by
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Chap 9.7
x1 = x0 -
f ( x0 ) 0.0126 = 2.9 + = 2.9109 f ( x0 ) 11497 .
at x = 0,
y = 1,
dy = -1 dx
f ( x1 ) = - 0.0001, f ( x1 ) = 11492 . Thus the second approximation x2 is given by x2 = x1 f ( x1 ) 0.0001 = 2.9109 + = 2.91099 f ( x1 ) 11492 .
d2 y dy =1 -2y 2 dx dx at x = 0, y = 1,
2
d2 y =1 + 2 = 3 dx 2
Hence the desired root, correct to four significant figures, is 2.911 6. (B) Let x = 28 so that x 2 - 28 = 0 Taking f ( x) = x 2 - 28, Newtons iterative method gives xn + 1 = xn 28 f ( xn ) x 2 - 28 1 = xn - n = xn + 2 xn 2 f ( xn ) xn
d 3y d2 y dy y = 2 2 dx 3 dx 2 dx at x = 0, y = 1, d 3y =-8 dx 3
d4 y = -2 dx 4
dy d 2 y d 3y y 3 + dx dx 2 dx 3 d4 y = 34 dx 4 dy h2 d 2 y h3 d 3 y h4 d 4 y +K + + + 3 ! dx 3 4 ! dx 4 dx 2 ! dx 2 (0.1) 2 (0.1) 3 (0.1) 4 3+ ( -8) + 34 + ...... 2! 3! 4!
at x = 0, y = 1
Now since f (5) = - 3, f ( 6) = 8, a root lies between 5 and 6. Taking x0 = 5.5, x1 = x2 = 1 28 1 28 = 5.5 + x0 + = 5.29545 2 5.5 x0 2 1 28 1 28 = 5.29545 + x1 + = 5.2915 2 5.29545 x1 2
The Taylor series expression gives y( x + h) = y( x) + h
y(0.1) = 1 + 0.1( -1) +
= 1 - 0.1 + 0.015 - 0.001333 + 0.0001417 = 0.9138 9. (C) Here f ( x, y) = x 2 + y 2 , x0 = 0 We have, by Picards method y = y0 +
x
1 28 1 28 x3 = x2 + 5.2915 + 5.2915 = 5.2915 =2 2 x 2 Since x2 = x3 upto 4 decimal places, so we take 28 = 5.2915. 7. (B) Let h = 0.1, dy = 1 + xy dx
3 2
y0 = 0
x0
f ( x, y) dx f ( x, y ) dx
0 x
....(1)
The first approximation to y is given by given x0 = 0, d2 y dy =x +y dx 2 dx d y d y d y =x +3 dx 4 dx 3 dx 2 y =1

4 3 2
x1 = x0 + h = 0.1
y (1 ) = y0 +
x0
d y d y dy , =x +2 dx 3 dx 2 dx given that x = 0,
Where y0 = 0 +
f ( x, 0) dx = x dx.
2 0 0 (1 )
...(2)
The second approximation to y is given by y ( 2 ) = y0 +

x
dy d2 y d 3y d4 y , = 1 ; 2 = 1, = 2 = 3 and so on dx dx dx 3 dx 4 dy h2 d 2 y h3 d 3 y + + + 3 ! dx 3 dx 2 ! dx 2 (0.1) 2 (0.1) 3 1 + 2 +K 2! 3!
x0
f ( x, y
6
) dx = 0 +
3 7
f x,
0
x3 dx 3
The Taylor series expression gives : y( x + h) = y( x) + h
2 x =0 + x + 9 0 Now,
x x dx = 3 + 63 (0.4) 3 (0.4) 7 + = 0.02135 3 63
y (0.4) =
y (0.1) = 1 + 0.1 1 + y(0.1) = 1 + 0.1 +
0.01 0.001 + +K 2 3 = 11053 . y0 = 1
10. (C) Here
f ( x, y) = y - x ; x0 = 0, y0 = 2
We have by Picards method y = y0 +
= 1 + 0.1 + 0.005 + 0.000033 ......... 8. (B) Let h = 0.1, given x0 = 0,
x0
f ( x, y) dx
The first approximation to y is given by y (1 ) = y0 +

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dy = x - y2 x1 = x0 + h = 0.1, dx
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x0
f ( x, y0 ) dx = 2 +
f ( x, 2) dx
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= 2 + (2 - x) dx
0 x
=2 + 2x -
x2 2
....(1)
Eulers method gives yn + 1 = yn + h( xn , yn ) n = 0 in (1) gives y1 = y0 + hf ( x0 , y0 ) Here x0 = 0, y0 = 1, h = 0.1 ....(1)
The second approximation to y is given by y ( 2 ) = y0 + =2 +

x
x0
f ( x, y
(1 )
) dx x 2
2
x0 2
f x, 2 + 2 x
dx
y1 = 1 + 0.1 f (0, 1) = 1 + 0 = 1 n = 0 in (1) gives y2 = y1 + h f ( x1 , y1 ) = 1 + 0.1 f (0.1 , 1) = 1 + 0.1 (0.1) = 1 + 0.01 Thus y2 = y( 0 .2 ) = 101 . ....(2) n = 2 in (1) gives y3 = y2 + hf ( x2 , y2 ) = 101 . + 0.1 f (0.2 , 101 . ) . + 0.0202 = 10302 . y3 = y( 0 .3) = 101 n = 3 in (1) gives y4 = y3 + hf ( x3 , y3) = 10302 . + 0.1 f (0.3 , 10302 . )
3
= 2 + (2 + 2 x 0 2
x2 - x) dx 2
3
=2 + 2x +
x x 2 6
x
The third approximation to y is given by y ( 3) = y0 + =2 +

x
x0
f ( x, y
(2 )
) dx x x dx 2 6
2 3
x0 x
f x, 2 + 2 x +
2
= 10302 . + 0.03090 . y4 = y( 0 .4 ) = 10611 Hence y( 0 .4 ) = 10611 . 13. (B) The Eulers modified method gives y1* = y0 + hf ( x0 , y0 ), h y1 = y0 + [ f ( x0 , y0 ) + f ( x1 , y1*)] 2 Now, here h = 0.02, y0 = 1, x0 = 0 . y1* = 1 + 0.02 f (0, 1), y1* = 1 + 0.02 = 102 h Next y1 = y0 + [ f ( x0 , y0 ) + f ( x , y1*)] 2 0.02 =1 + [ f (0, 1) + f (0.02, 102 . )] 2 = 1 + 0.01 [1 + 10204 . ] = 10202 . So, . y1 = y (0.02) = 10202
x x =2 + dx 2 + 2 x + 2 - 6 - 0 =2 + 2x + x2 x3 x4 + 2 6 24 f ( x, y) = x + y 2 , x0 = 0 y0 = 0
11. (B) Here

x
We have, by Picards method y = y0 +
x0
f ( x, y0 ) dx f ( x, y ) dx
0 2 x
The first approximation to y is given by y (1 ) = y0 +

x
=0 +
x0
f ( x, 0) dx
0
x = 0 + xdx = 2 0
x
The second approximation to y is given by y ( 2 ) = y0 +

x
* 14. (D) y2 = y1 + h f ( x1 , y1 )
x0 4
f ( x, y
(1 )
) dx = 0 +
2 5
f x,
0
x2 2
dx
= 10202 . + 0.02 [ f (0.02, 10202 . )] = 10202 . + 0.0204 = 10406 . h * Next y2 = y1 + [ f ( x, y) + f ( x2 , y2 )] 2 0.02 y2 = 10202 . + [ f (0.02, 10202 . ) + f (0.04, 10406 . )] 2 = 10202 . + 0.01 [10206 . + 10422 . ] = 10408 . . y2 = y( 0 .04 ) = 10408
* 15. (C) y3 = y2 + hf ( x2 , y2 )
x x x = dx = 2 + 50 x+ 4 0 The third approximation is given by y ( 3) = y0 +

x
x0
f ( x, y
(2 )
) dx
x2 x5 dx =0 + f x , + 2 20 0
x 2 x7 x2 x5 x8 x11 x4 x10 = + + + = x + + + dx 2 20 160 4400 4 400 40 0
= 10416 . + 0.02 f (0.04, 10416 . ) = 10416 . + 0.0217 = 10633 . h * Next y3 = y2 + [ f ( x2 , y2 ) + f ( x3 , y3 )] 2

12. (A) x: 0
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0.1
0.2
0.3
0.4
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1 1 k2 = hf x0 + h, y0 + k1 = (0.2) f (0.1, 0.1) = 0.202 2 2 1 1 k3 = hf x0 + h, y0 + k2 = (0.2) f (0.1, 0.101) = 0.2020 2 2 k4 = hf ( x0 + h, y0 + k3) = 0.2 f (0.2, 0.2020) = 0.20816 1 k = [ k1 + 2 k2 + 2 k3 + k4 ] 6 1 = [0.2 + 2 (.202) + 2 (.20204) + 0.20816 ], 6 k = 0.2027 such that y1 = y(0.2) = y0 + k = 0 + 0.2027 = 0.2027
h k k2 = hf x0 + , y0 + 1 2 2 = (0.2) f (0.1, 11 . ) = 0.2(1.31) = 0.262 h k k3 = hf x0 + , y0 + 2 2 2 = 0.2 f (0.1, 1131 . ) = 0.2758 k4 = hf ( x0 + h, y0 + k3) = (0.2) f (0.2, 12758 . ) = 0.3655 1 k = [ k1 + 2 k2 + 2 k3 + 2 k4 ] 6 1 = [0.2 + 2 (0.262) + 2 (0.2758) + 0.3655 ] = 0.2735 6 Here y1 = y( 0 .2 ) = y0 + k = 1 + 0.2735 12735 .
21. (C) We now to find y2 = y(0.4), k1 = hf ( x1 , y1 ) = (0.2) f (0.2, 0.2027) = 0.2 (10410 . ) 1 1 k2 = hf x1 + h , y1 + k1 2 2 = (0.2) f (0.3, 0.3068) = 0.2188 1 1 k3 = hf x1 + h , y1 + k2 2 2 = 0.2 f (0.3, 0.3121) = .2194 k4 = hf ( x1 + h, y1 + k3) = 0.2 f (0.4, .4221) = 0.2356 1 k = [ k1 + 2 k2 + 2 k3 + k4 ] 6 1 = [0.2082 + 2(.2188) + 2(.2194) + 0.356 ] = 0.2200 6 y2 = y( 0 .4 ) = y1 + k = 0.2200 + .2027 = 0.4227 22. (C) We now to find y3 = y( 0 .6 ) , k1 = hf ( x2 , y2 ) = (0.2) f (0.4, 0.4228) = 0.2357 1 1 k2 = hf x2 + h, y2 + k1 2 2 = (0.2) f (0.5, 0.5406) = 0.2584 1 1 k3 = hf x2 + h, y2 + k2 2 2 = 0.2 f (0.5, .5520) = 0.2609 1 k4 = [ k1 + 2 k2 + 2 k3 + k4 ] 6 1 = [0.2357 + 2(.2584) + 2(0.2609) + 0.2935 ] 6 1 = [0.2357 + 0.5168 + 0.5218 + 0.2935 ] = 0.2613 6 y3 = y( 0 .6 ) = y2 + k = .4228 + 0.2613 = 0.6841 23. (A) Here given f ( x, y) = x + y k1 = hf ( x0 , y0 )
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2
= .2082
24. (C) Here f ( x, y) = x + y h = 0.2 To find y1 = y( 0 .2 ) , k1 = hf ( x0 , y0 ) = 0.2 f (0, 1) = 0.2 h k . ) = 0.24 k2 = hf x0 + , y0 + 1 = (0.2) f (0.1, 11 2 2 h k . ) = 0.244 k3 = hf x0 + , y0 + 2 = (0.2) f (0.1, 112 2 2 k4 = hf ( x0 + h, y0 + k3) = (0.2) f (0.2, 1244 . ) = 0.2888 1 k = [ k1 + 2 k2 + 2 k3 + k4 ] 6 1 = [0.2 + 2(0.24) + 2(0.244) + 0.2888 ] = 0.2428 6 y1 = y( 0 .2 ) = y0 + k = 1 + 0.2428 = 12428 .
***********
x0 = 0
y0 = 1,
h = 0.2
To find y1 = y( 0 .2 ) , = (0.2) f (0, 1) = (0.2) 1 = 0.2

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CHAPTER
10.5
EC-07
1. If E Denotes expectation, the variance of a random variable X is given by (A) E[ X 2 ] - E 2 [ X ] (C) E[ X ]
2
6. For the function e- x , the linear approximation around x = 2 is (A) ( 3 - x) e -2 (C) [ 3 + 2 2 - 1(1 + 2 x ]e -2 (B) 1 - x (D) e -2
(B) E[ X 2 ] + E 2 [ X ] (D) E [ X ]
2
2. The following plot shows a function y which varies linearly with X . The value of the integral I = y dx is
y
1 2
7. An independent voltage source in series with an impedance Z s = Rs + jX s delivers a maximum average power to a load impedance Z L when (A) Z L = RS + jX S (C) Z L = jX S (B) Z L = RS (D) Z L = RS - jX S
3 2 1 -1 1 2 3 x
8. The RC circuit shown in the figure is

R C + +
(A) 1.0 (C) 4.0
(B) 2.5 (D) 5.0
Vi
Vo -
3. For x << 1, coth( x) can be approximated as (A) x (C) 1 x sin( q/2) q is (B) 1 (D) not defined (B) x 2 (D) 1 x2
-
(A) a low-pas filter (C) a band-pass filter
(B) a high-pass filter (D) a band-reject filter
4. lim
q0
9. The electron and hole concentrations in an intrinsic semiconductor are ni per cm 3 at 300 K. Now, if acceptor impurities are introduced with a concentration of N A per cm 3(where N A >> ni ) the electron concentration per cm 3 at 300 K will be (A) ni
2
(A) 0.5 (C) 2
5. Which of the following functions is strictly bounded ? (A) 1 x2

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(B) e x (D) e - x
(B) ni + N A (D) ni2 NA

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(C) x 2
(C) N A - ni
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Previous year Papers
10. In a
p+ n junction diode under reverse biased the
15. If closed-loop transfer function of a control system is given as T( s) =

s-5 ( s + 2 )( s + 3)
magnitude of electric field is maximum at (A) the edge of the depletion region on the p -side (B) the edge of the depletion region on the n -side (C) the p+ n junction (D) the center of the depletion region on the n-side 11. The correct full wave rectifier circuit is
then It is
(A) an unstable system (B) an uncontrollable system (C) a minimum phase system (D) a non-minimum phase system 16. If the Laplace transform of a signal y( t) is Y ( s) = (A) -1
1 s ( s -1 )
, then its final value is (B) 0 (D) unbounded
Input
Input
Output
Output
(A)
(B)
(C) 1
17. If R( t) is the auto correlation function of a real, wide-sense stationary random process, then which of the following is NOT true (A) R( t) = R( -t)
Input
Output
Output
(D)
Input
(B) R( t) R(0) (C) R( t) = - R( -t) (D) The mean square value of the process is R(0)
12. In a trans-conductance amplifier, it is desirable to have (A) a large input resistance and a large output resistance (B) a large input resistance and a small output resistance (C) a small input resistance and a large output resistance (D) a small input resistance and a small output resistance 13. X = 01110 and Y = 11001 are two 5-bit binary numbers represented in two's complement format. The sum of X and Y represented in two's complement format using 6 bits is (A) 100111 (C) 000111 (B) 0010000 (D) 101001
18. If S( f )is the power spectral density of a real, wide-sense stationary random process, then which of the following is ALWAYS true? (A) S(0) S( f ) (C) S( - f ) = -S( f ) (B) S( f ) 0
(D)
S( f )df
=0
19. A plane wave of wavelength l is traveling in a direction making an angle 30 o with positive x -axis. The E field of the plane wave can be represented as ( E0 is constant) (A) E = yE0 e (C) E = yE0 e
3p p j wt - l x l z 3p p j wt + l x l z p 3p j wt - l x l z p 3p j wt - l x + l z
(B) E = yE0 e (D) E = yE0 e
20. If C is close curve enclosing a surface S, then the magnetic field intensity H , the current density j and the electric flux density D are related by

14. The Boolean function Y = AB + CD is to be realized using only 2-input NAND gates. The minimum number of gates required is (A) 2 (C) 4
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D (A) H . d s = j + .d l t s c D (B) H . d l = j + d .d s t s s
(B) 3 (D) 5
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29. For the circuit shown in the figure, the Thevenin voltage and resistance looking into X - Y are
1W X
33. Group I lists four types of p - n junction diodes. match each device in Group I with one of the option in Group II to indicate the bias condition of the device in its normal mode of operation. Group-I (P) Zener Diode (Q) Solar cell (R) LASER diode (S) Avalanche Photodiode (A) P - 1 Q - 2 R - 1 S - 2 (B) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 S - 2 (C) P - 2 Q - 2 R - 1 S - 2 (D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 2 S - 2 34. The DC current gain (b) of a BJT is 50. Assuming that the emitter injection efficiency is 0.995, the base transport factor is Group-II (1) Forward bias (2) Reverse bias
2i
1W
2A
2W
(A) (C)
4 V , 2W 3 4 2 V, W 3 3
2 (B) 4 V , W 3 (D) 4 V , 2W
30. In the circuit shown, Vc is 0 volts at t = 0 sec. for t > 0, the capacitor current ic ( t), where t is in seconds, is given by
20 kW iC
10 V
20 kW
4 mF
+ VC -
(A) 0.980 (C) 0.990
(B) 0.985 (D) 0.995
35. group I lists four different semiconductor devices. (A) 0.50 exp( -25 t) mA (B) 0.25 exp( -25 t) mA (C) 0.50 exp( -25 t) mA (D) 0.25 exp( -25 t) mA 31. In the AC network shown in the figure, the phasor voltage V AB (in volts) is
A 5W -j3 B 5W
match each device in Group I with its characteristic property in Group II. Group-I (P)BJT (Q)MOS capacitor (R) LASER diode (S) JFET (A) P - 3 Q - 1 R - 4 S - 2 (B) P - 1 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 2 (C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2 (D) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 1 S - 4
j3
Group-II (1) Population inversion (2)Pinch-off voltage (3) Early effect (4) Fat-band voltage
36. For the Op-Amp circuit shown in the figure, Vo is

2 kW 1 kW 1V vo 1 kW 1 kW
(A) 0 (C) 12.5 30 o
(B) 5 30 o (D) 17 30 o
32. A p+ n junction has a built-in potential of 0.8 V. The depletion layer width at reverse bias of 1.2V is 2 mm. For a reverse bias of 7.2 V, the depletion layer width will be (A) 4 m m (C) 8 m m (B) 4.9 m m (D) 12 m m (A) -2 V (C) -0.5 V
(B) -1 V (D) 0.5 V
37. For the BJT circuit shown, assume that the b of the transistor is very large and VBE = 0.7 V . The mode of operation of the BJT is
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Chap 10.5
10 kW
(A) 7.00 to 7.29 V (C) 7.14 to 7.43 V
(B) 7.14 to 7.29 V (D) 7.29 to 7.43 V Boolean expression can be
2V
1 kW
10 V
41.
The
Y = AB CD + ABCD+ ABCD+ ABCD (A) cut-off (C) normal active (B) saturation (D) reverse active minimized to (A) Y = A B CD + A B C + A C D (B) Y = A B CD + B C D + A B C D (C) Y = AB C D + B C D + AB CD (D) Y = AB C D + B C D + A B C D
38. In the Op-Amp circuit shown, assume that the diode current follows the equation I = I s exp(V/VT ). For Vi = 2 V , V0 = V01 , and for Vi = 4 V , V0 = V02 .
D 2 kW vo
The
relationship between V01 and V02 is
42. The circuit diagram of a standard TTL NOT gate is shown in the figure. Vi = 2.5 V , the modes of operation of the transistors will be
VCC =5 V
vi
4 kW
1.4 kW
100 W Q4
(A) V02 = 2 V01 (C) V02 = V01 ln 2
(B) V02 = e V01

2
(D) V01 - V02 = VT ln 2

+ Q1 Q2
D + Q3
39. In the CMOS inverter circuit shown, if the transconductance parameters of the NMOS and PMOS transistors are kn = kp = m n Cox
Wn Ln
= m p Cox
Wp Lp
= 40 mA/V 2
-
1 kW -
and their threshold voltages are VTHn = VTHp = 1V , the current I is

5V PMOS 2.5 V I NMOS
(A) Q1 : revere active;Q2 : normal active; Q3: saturation; Q4 :cut-off (B) Q1 : revere active;Q2 : saturation; Q3: saturation; Q4 :cut-off (C) Q1 : normal active;Q2 : cut-off; Q3: cut-off; Q4 :saturation (D) Q1 : saturation;Q2 : saturation; Q3: saturation; Q4 :normal active 43. In the following circuit, X is given by
0 1 1 0 I0 4-to-1 MUX I1 Y I2 I3 S1 S0 0 1 1 0 I0 4-to-1 I1 MUX I2 Y I3 S1 S0
(A) 0 A (C) 45 mA
(B) 25 mA (D) 90 mA
40. For the Zener diode shown in the figure, the Zener voltage at knee is 7V, the knee current is negligible and the Zener dynamic resistance is 10W. if the input voltage ( Vi ) range is from 10 to 16 V , the output voltage from
200 W + vo _
(V0 ) ranges
vi
(A) X = A B C + A B C + A BC + ABC (B) X = ABC + A B C + ABC + ABC

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(C) X = AB + BC + AC (D) X = A B + B C + AC 44. The following binary values were applied to the X and Y inputs of NAND latch shown in the figure in the sequence indicated below X = 0, Y = 1; X = 0, Y = 0; X = 1, Y = 1.
X P
47. (A) The 3-dB bandwidth of the low-pas signal e- t u( t), where u( t) is the unit step function, is given by 1 1 (A) Hz (B) 2 - 1 Hz 2p 2p (C) (D) 1 Hz
48. A Hilbert transformer is a (A) non-linear system (C) time-varying system (B) non-causal system (D) low-pass system
49. The frequency response of a linear, time-invariant

Q Y
system is given by H ( f ) = 1 + j5 . The step response of 10 pf the system is (A) 5( 1 - e -5t ) u( t) (C) 1 (1 - e-5t )u(t) 2 A 5-point sequence
t - 5 (B) 5 1 e u( t) t - 1 1 - e 5 u( t) 5
The corresponding stable P , Q outputs will be (A) P = 1, Q = 0; P = 1, Q = 0; P = 1, Q = 0 or P = 0, Q = 1 (B) P = 1, Q = 0; P = 0, Q = 1; or P = 0 Q = 1; P = 0, Q = 1 (C) P = 1, Q = 0; P = 1, Q = 1; P = 1, Q = 0 or P = 0, Q = 1 (D)P = 1, Q = 0; P = 1, Q = 1; P = 1, Q = 1 45. For the circuit shown, the counter state (Q1Q0 ) follows the sequence
(C)
50.
x[ n]
is
given
as
x[ -3] = 1, x[ -2 ] = 1, x[ -1] = 0, x[0 ] = 5, x[1] = 1. Let X ( e jw ) denote the discrete-time Fourier transform of x[ n]. The p value of (A) 5 (C) 16 p
-p
X (e
jw
)dw is
(B) 10 p (D) 5 + j10 p
D0
Q0
D1
Q1
51. The z-transform x[ z ] of a sequence x[ n] is given by

.5 . It is given that the region of convergence of X ( z) = 1 -0 2 z -1
x[ n] includes the unit circle. The value of x[0] is (A) -0.5 (A) 00, 01, 10, 11, 00 (C) 00, 01, 11, 00, 01 46. An 8255 chip is (B) 00, 01, 10, 00, 01 (D) 00, 10, 11, 00, 10 52. A Control system with PD controller is shown in interfaced to an 8085 the figure If the velocity error constant K V = 1000 and the damping ration z = 0.5, then the value of K P and K D are
R(s) + C(s)
(B) 0 (D) 0.5
(C) 0.25
microprocessor system as an I/O mapped I/O as show in the figure. The address lines A0 and A1 of the 8085 are used by the 8255 chip to decode internally its thee ports and the Control register. The address lines A3 to A7 as well as the IO/M signal are used for address decoding. The range of addresses for which the 8255 chip would get selected is
8255
(A) K P = 100, K D = 0.09 (C) K P = 10, K D = 0.09
(B) K P = 100, K D = 0.9 (D) K P = 10, K D = 0.9
53. The transfer function of a plant is T( s) = (A) F8H - FBH (C) F8H - FFH
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(B) F8H - FCH (D) F0H - F7H

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5 (s + 5)( s2 + s + 1)
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The second-order approximation of T( s) using dominant pole concept is 1 (A) (s + 5)(s + 1) (C) 5 s2 + s + 1 (B) (D) 5
(A) (C)
10 s + 11s + 11
2
(B) (D)
1 s + 11s + 11
2
(s + 5)(s + 1)
1 s2 + s + 1
10 s + 10 s + 11s + 11
2
1 s + s + 11
2
58. In delta modulation, the slope overload distortion can be reduced by (A) (B) (C) (D) decreasing decreasing decreasing increasing the the the the step size granular noise sampling rate step size
54. The open-loop transfer function of a plant is given as G( s) =

1 s 2 -1
. If the plant is operated in a unity feedback
configuration, then the lead compensator that an stabilize this control system is 10( s - 1) 10( s + 4) (A) (B) s+2 s+2 (C) 10( s + 2) s + 10 (D) 2(s + 2) s + 10
59. The raised cosine pulse p( t) is used for zero ISI in digital communications. The expression for p( t) with unity roll-off facto is given by p( t) = sin 4 pWt 4 pWt(1 - 16W 2 t 2 ) 1 is 4W (B) 0 (D)
55. A unity feedback control system has an open-loop transfer function G( s) = K . s( s 2 + 7 s + 12)
The value of p( t) at t = (A) -0.5 (C) 0.5
The gain K for which s = 1 + j1 will lie on the root locus of this system is (A) 4 (C) 6.5 (B) 5.5 (D) 10
60. In the following scheme, if the spectrum M ( f ) of m( t) is as shown, then the spectrum Y ( f ) of y( t) will be
M m(t)
56. The asymptotic Bode plot of a transfer function is as shown in the figure. The transfer function G( s) corresponding to this Bode plot is
G(jw)dB
60 dB 40 dB 20 dB 1 10 20 100 -20 dB/dec
S
0 Hilbert Transform
(A)
-40 dB/dec w
(B)
-60 dB/dec
(A) (C)
1 ( s + 1)( s + 20) 100 s( s + 1)( s + 20)
(B) (D)
1 s( s + 1)( s + 20) 100 s( s + 1)(1 + 0.05 s)
(D)
61. 57. The state space representation of a separately excited DC servo motor dynamics is given as
dw dt dia dt
During
transmission
over
certain
binary
communication channel, bit errors occurs independently with probability p. The probability of AT MOST one bit in error in a block of n bits is given by (A) pn (C) np(1 - p) n -1 + (1 - p) n (B) 1 - pn (D) 1 - (1 - p) n
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1 w 0 -1 = -1 -10 i + 10 u a
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62. In a GSM system, 8 channels can co-exist in 200 KHz bandwidth using TDMA. A GSM based cellular operator is allocated 5 MHz bandwidth. Assuming a frequency reuse factor of , i.e. a five-cell repeat pattern, the maximum number of simultaneous channels that can exist in one cell is (A) 200 (C) 25 (B) 40 (D) 5
1 5
67. A load of 50W is connected in shunt in a 2-wire transmission line of Z 0 = 50W as shown in the figure. The 2-port scattering parameter matrix (s-matrix) of the shunt element is - 1 2 (A) 1 2 -
1 2 1 2
0 1 (B) 1 0 1 (D) 4 3 - 4
3 -4 1 4
2 - 1 3 3 (C) 2 1 3 - 3
63. In a Direct Sequence CDMA system the chip rate is 1.2288 106 chips per second. If the processing gain is desired to be at Least 100, the data rate (A) must be less than or equal to 12.288 10 3 bits/sec (B) must be greater than 12.288 10 3 bits per sec (C) must be exactly equal to 12.288 10 3 bits per sec (D) can take any value less than 122.88 10 3 bits/sec
68. The parallel branches of a 2-wire transmission line are terminated in 100 W and 200 W resistors as shown in the figure. The characteristic impedance of the line is
l . The voltage Z 0 = 50W and each section has a length of 4
reflection coefficient G at the input is

l/4
l/4
64. An air-filled rectangular waveguide has inner dimensions of 3 cm 2 cm. The wave impedance of the TE20 mode of propagation in the waveguide at a frequency h0 = 377 W) (A) 308W (C) 400W
200
of
30
GHz
is
(free
space
impedance
200 W
(B) 355W (D) 461W
l/4
65. The H field (in A/m) of a plane wave propagating in free space is given by H=x
(A) - j (C) j 69. A
7 5
(B) (D)
-5 7 5 7
l0 2
p 5 3 5 cos( wt - bz) + y sin wt - bz + h0 h0 2
5 7
l 2
The time average power flow density in Watts is h0 100 (B) (A) 100 h0 (C) 50h2 0
dipole is kept horizontally at a height of
above
a perfectly conducting infinite ground plane. The radiation pattern in the lane of the dipole ( E plane) looks approximately as
(A)
y y
(D)
50 h0
(B)
66. The E field in a rectangular waveguide of inner dimensions a b is given by E=
wm p 2 px H 0 sin sin( wt - bz) y h2 2 a

C
z y y
Where H 0 is a constant, and a and b are the dimensions is (A) TE20 (C) TM 20
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(D)
z z
along
the
x -axis
and
the
y -axis
respectively. The mode of propagation in the waveguide (B) TM11 (D) TE10
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70. A right circularly polarized (RCP) plane wave is incident at an angle of 60 o to the normal, on an air-dielectric interface. If the reflected wave is linearly polarized, the relative dielectric constant xr 2 is
RCP air Dielectric Linearly Polarized
Common Data for Questions 74, 75 : Two 4-ray signal constellations are shown. It is given that f1 and f2 constitute an orthonormal basis for the two constellations. Assume that the four symbols in both the constellations are equiprobable. Let N0 / 2 denote the power spectral density of white Gaussian noise.
(A) 2 (C) 2
(B) 3 (D) 3
Common Data for Questions 71, 72, 73: The SiO2/silicon figure (MOS) shows capacitor the having high-frequency an area of
Constellation 1 Constellation 2
capacitance-voltage(C-V) characteristics of a Metal/ 1 10 -4 cm 2 . Assume that the perimitivities ( e 0 e r ) of silicon and Si O2 are 1 10 -12 F/cm and 35 . 10 -13 F/cm respectively.
C 7 pF
74. The ratio of the average energy of constellation 1 to the average energy of constellation 2 is (A) 4 a 2 (C) 2 75. If these constellations (B) 4 (D) 8 are used for digital
communications over an AWGN channel, then which of the following statements is true ?
1 pF 0 V
(A) Probability of symbol error for Constellation 1 is lower (B) Probability of symbol error for Constellation 1 is higher (C) Probability of symbol error is equal for both the constellations (D) The value of N 0 will determine which of the two constellations has a lower probability of symbol error, Linked Answer Questions: Q. 76 to Q. 85 Carry Two marks Each. Statement for Linked Answer Questions 76 & 77: Consider the Op-Amp circuit shown in the figure.
R1 R1 vi R C vo
71. The gate oxide thickness in the MOS capacitor is (A) 50 nm (C) 350 nm (B) 143 nm (D) 1 m m
72. The maximum depletion layer width in silicon is (A) 0.143 m m (C) 1 m m (B) 0.857 m m (D) 1.143 m m
73. Consider the following statements about the C-V characteristics plot: S1: The MOS capacitor has an n-type substrate. S2: If positive charges are introduced in the oxide, the C-V plot will shift to the left. Then which of the following is true? (A) Both S1 and S2 are true (B) S1 is true and Se is false (C) S1 is false and S2 is true (D) Both S1 and S2 are false
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76. The transfer function V0 ( s)/Vi ( s) is (A) (C) 1 - sRC 1 + sRC 1 1 - sRC (B) (D) 1 + sRC 1 - sRC 1 1 + sRC
80. The eigenvalue and eigenvector pairs ( li Vi ) for the system are 1 1 (A) -1, -1 and -2, -2 1 1 (B) -1, -1 and -2, -2 1 1 (C) -1-1 and -2, -2 1 1 (D) -2, -1 and 1, -2 81. The system matrix A is 0 1 (A) -1 1 1 2 (C) -1 -1 1 1 (B) -1 -2 1 0 (D) -2 -3
77. If Vi = V1 sin( wt) and V0 = V2 sin( wt - f), then the minimum and maximum values of f (in radians) are respectively
p (A) - 2 and p 2
(B) 0 and
p 2
(C) -p and 0
p (D) - 2 and 0
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 78 & 79. An 8085 assembly language program is given below. Line 1: 2: 3: 4: 5: 6: 7: 8: MVI A, B5H MVI B, OEH XRI 69H ADD B ANI 9BH CPI 9FH STA 3010H HLT
Statement fo Linked Answer Questions 82 & 83: An input to a 6-level quantizer has the probability density function f ( x) as shown in the figure. Decision boundaries of the quantizer are chosen so as t maximize the entropy of the quantizer output. It is given that 3 consecutive decision boundaries are ' -1' , '0 ' and '1'.
f(x) a
78. The contents of the accumulator just after execution of the ADD instruction in line 4 will be (A) C3H (C) DCH (B) EAH (D) 69H
79. After execution of line 7 of the program, the status of the CY and Z flags will be (A) CY = 0, Z = 0 (C) CY = A, Z = 0 (B) CY = 0, Z = 1 (D) CY = 1, Z = 1
-5
b -1 0 1 5 x
82. The values of a and b are (A) a = 1 1 and b = 6 12 1 1 and b = 4 16 (B) a = (D) a = 1 3 and b = 5 40 1 1 and b = 3 24
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 80 & 81. Consider a linear system whose state space representation is x( t) = Ax( t). If the initial state vector of 1 the system is x(0) = , then the system response is -2 e -2 x . If the itial state vector of the system x( t) = -2 t -2 e 1 changes to x(0) = , then the system response -2 e- t becomes x( t) = - t -e
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(C) a =
83. Assuming that the reconstruction levels of the quantizer are the mid-points of the decision boundaries, the ratio of signal power to quantization noise power is (A) (C) 152 9 76 3 (B) 64 3
(D) 28
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Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84 & 85. In the digital-to Analog converter circuit shown in the figure below, VR = 10 V and R = 10 kW.
R R R i R
ANSWER
1. A 6. A 2. B 7. D 12. A 17. C 22. A 27. A 32. A 37. B 42. B 47. A 52. B 57. A 62. B 67. B 72. B 77. C 82. A 3. C 8. C 13. C 18. B 23. C 28. D 33. B 38. D 43. A 48. A 53. C 58. D 63. A 68. D 73. C 78. B 83. 4. A 9. D 14. B 19. A 24. D 29. D 34. B 39. D 44. C 49. B 54. A 59. C 64. C 69. C 74. B 79. C 84. B 5. D 10 .C 15. D 20. D 25. B 30. A 35. C 40. C 45. B 50. B 55. D 60. A 65. D 70. D 75. B 80. A 85. C 11. C 16. A
2R
2R
2R
2R R vo +
21. C 26. B
84. The current is (A) 3125 . mA (C) 125mA 85. The voltage V0 is (A) -0.781 V (C) -3.125 V (B) -1.562 V (D) -6.250 V (B) 62.5mA (D) 250mA
31. D 36. C 41. D 46. C 51. D 56. D 61. C ************ 66. A 71. A 76. A 81. D
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10.1
EC-03
Duration : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 150 4. The Laplace transform of i( t) is given by I ( s) = 2 s(1 + s)
Q.130 carry one mark each

1. The minimum number of equations required to analyze the circuit shown in Fig. Q. 1 is
C C
As t , The value of i( t) tends to (A) 0 (C) 2 (B) 1 (D)
5. The differential equation for the current i( t) in the

R R R C R
~
(A) 3 (C) 6
circuit of Fig. Q.5 is

i1(t) 2W 2H
Fig. Q1
sin t
(B) 4 (D) 7
~
Fig. Q5
1F
2.. A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has a source impedance consisting of 1 W resistance in series with 1 H inductance. The load that will obtain the maximum power transfer is (A) 1 W resistance (B) 1 W resistance in parallel with 1 H inductance (C) 1 W resistance in series with 1 F capacitor (D) 1 W resistance in parallel with 1 F capacitor
d 2i di (A) 2 2 + 2 + i( t) = sin t dt dt (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2 d 2i di +2 + 2 i( t) = cos t dt 2 dt d 2i di +2 + i( t) = cos t 2 dt dt d 2i di +2 + 2 i( t) = sin t dt 2 dt
6. n-type silicon is obtained by doping silicon with 3. A series RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 1 kHz and a quality factor Q = 100. If each of R, L and C is doubled from its original value, the new Q of the circuit is (A) 25 (C) 100
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(A) Germanium (C) Boron
(B) Aluminium (D) Phosphorus
7. The bandgap of silicon at 300 K is (B) 50 (D) 200 (A) 1.36 eV (C) 0.80 eV
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20. A 0 to 6 counter consists of 3 flip flops and a combination circuit of 2 input gate(s). The combination circuit consists of (A) one AND gate (B) one OR gate (C) one AND gate and one OR gate (D) two AND gates 21. The Fourier series expansion of a real periodic signal with fundamental frequency f0 is given by g p ( t) = (A) 5 + j 3
n = -
25. A PD controller is used to compensate a system. Compared to the uncompensated system, the compensated system has (A) a higher type number (B) reduced damping (C) higher noise amplification (D) larger transient overshoot 26. The input to a coherent detector is DSB-SC signal plus noise. The noise at the detector output is (A) the in-phase component (B) the quadrature component (C) zero (D) the envelope
e j 2 pf0t . It is given that c3 = 3 + j5. Then c-3 is (B) -3 - j5 (D) 3 - j5
(C) -5 + j 3
22. Let x( t) be the input to a linear, time-invariant system. The required output is 4 x( t - 2). The transfer function of the system should be (A) 4 e (C) 4 e 23.
j 4 pf - j 4 pf
27. The noise at the input to an ideal frequency detector is white. The detector is operating above threshold. The power spectral density of the noise at the output is (A) raised-cosine (C) parabolic (B) flat (D) Gaussian
(B) 2 e
- j8 pf j8 pf
(D) 2 e sequence x( n) with
the
z-transform 28. At a given probability of error, binary coherent FSK is inferior to binary coherent PSK by (A) 6 dB (C) 2 dB 29. The unit of H is (A) Ampere (B) Ampere/meter
2
X ( z) = z 4 + z 2 - 2 z + 2 - 3z -4 is applied as an input to a linear, time-invariant system with the impulse response h( n) = 2 d( n - 3) where 1, n = 0 d( n) = 0, otherwise The output at n = 4 is (A) -6 (C) 2 (B) zero (D) -4
(B) 3 dB (D) 0 dB
(C) Ampere/meter
(D) Ampere-meter
30. The depth of penetration of electromagnetic wave in 24. Fig. Q.24 shows the Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer function G( s) H ( s) of a system. If G( s) H ( s) has one right-hand pole, the closed-loop system is
Im GH - plane
a medium having conductivity s at a frequency of 1 MHz is 25 cm. The depth of penetration at a frequency of 4 MHz will be (A) 6.25 cm (C) 50.00 cm (B) 12.50 cm (D) 100.00 cm
w=0
(-1, 0)
Re
Q.3190 carry two marks each.

31. Twelve 1 W resistance are used as edges to form a cube. The resistance between two diagonally opposite corners of the cube is 5 (A) W 6 (C) 6 5
w is positive
Fig. Q24
(A) always stable (B) unstable with one closed-loop right hand pole (C) unstable with two closed-loop right hand poles (D) unstable with three closed-loop right hand poles
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32. The current flowing through the resistance R in the circuit in Fig. Q.32 has the form P cos 4 t, where P is
1 F 10.24
M=0.75 H
1 R + Ls + Cs (D) - Ls
V - Ls I s 1 =s 1 I 2 s R + Ls + 0 Cs
35. An input voltage

3W V=2cos 4t R = 3.92 W
~
Fig. Q32
v( t) = 10 2 cos ( t + 10) + 10 3 cos (2 + 10 ) V is applied to a series combination of resistance R = 1W and an inductance L = 1 H. The resulting steady state current i( t) in ampere is (A) 10 cos ( t + 55 ) + 10 cos (2 t + 10 + tan -1 2) (B) 1 - cos ( t + 55 ) + 10 3 cos (2 t + 55 ) 2
(A) (0.18 + j 0.72) (C) -(0.18 + j 190 . )
(B) (0.46 + j 190 . ) (D) -(0.192 + j 0.144)
The circuit for Q.3334 are given in Fig. Q.3334. For both the questions, assume that the switch S is in position 1 for a long time and thrown to position 2 at t = 0.
1 S 2 R V R i1 L i2 C C
(C) 10 cos ( t - 55 ) + 10 cos (2 t + 10 - tan -1 2) (D) 1 - cos ( t - 55 ) + 10 3 cos (2 t - 35 ) 2
36. The driving-point impedance Z ( s) of a network has the pole-zero locations as shown in Fig. Q.36. If Z (0) = 3, then Z ( s) is
Im 1 s - plane Re
Fig. Q33-34
-3
-1 -1
33. At t = 0 + , the current i1 is (A) -V 2R (B) -V R (A) (C) 34. I1 ( s) and I 2 ( s) are the Laplace transforms of i1 ( t) and i2 ( t) respectively. The equations for the loop currents I1 ( s) and I 2 ( s) for the circuit shown in Fig. Q.3334, after the switch is brought from position 1 to position 2 at t = 0, are 1 R + Ls + Cs (A) - Ls 1 R + Ls + Cs (B) - Ls 1 R + Ls + Cs (C) - Ls
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Fig. Q36
-V (C) 4R
(D) zero
3( s + 3) s + 2s + 3
2
(B) (D)
2( s + 3) s + 2s + 2
2
3( s - 3) s2 - 2 s - 2
2( s - 3) s2 - 2 s - 3 of the
37. The impedance parameters Z11 and Z12 two-port network in Fig. Q.37 are
2W 2W 3W 1
V - Ls I s 1 s = 1 I s 2 R+ 0 Cs V - Ls I s - 1 s = 1 I s R+ 2 0 Cs V - Ls I s - 1 s = 1 I s 2 R + Ls + 0 Cs
1W
1W
Fig. Q37
(A) Z11 = 2.75W and Z12 = 0.25 W (B) Z11 = 3W (C) Z11 = 3W
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and Z12 = 0.5 W and Z12 = 0.25 W and Z12 = 0.5 W

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38. An n-type silicon bar 0.1 cm long and 100 mm 2 in cross-sectional area has a majority carrier concentration of 5 10 20 / m 3 and the carrier mobility is 0.13 m 2 /V-s at 300 K. If the charge of an electron is 1.5 10 -19 coulomb, then the resistance of the bar is (A) 106 Ohm (C) 10
-1
(A) 2.26 eV (C) 1.17 eV
(B) 1.98 eV (D) 0.74 eV
43..When the gate-to-source voltage ( VGS ) of a MOSFET with threshold voltage of 400 mV, working in saturation is 900 mV, the drain current is observed to be 1 mA. Neglecting the channel width modulation effect and assuming that the MOSFET is operating at saturation, the drain current for an applied VGS of 1400 mV is (A) 0.5 mA (C) 3.5 mA (B) 2.0 mA (D) 4.0 mA
(B) 10 4 Ohm (D) 10

-4
Ohm
Ohm
39. The electron concentration in a sample of uniformly doped n-type silicon at 300 K varies linearly from 1017 cm 3 at x = 0 to 6 1016 cm 3 at x = 2 mm. Assume a situation that electrons are supplied to keep this concentration gradient constant with time. If electronic charge is 1.6 10 -19 coulomb and the diffusion constant Dn = 35 cm 2 s, the current density in the silicon, if no electric field is present, is (A) zero (C) +1120 A cm 2 (B) -112 A cm 2 (D) -1120 A cm 2
44. If P is Passivation, Q is n-well implant, R is metallization and S is source/drain diffusion, then the order in which they are carried out in a standard n-well CMOS fabrication process, is (A) PQRS (C) RPSQ (B) QSRP (D) SRQP
40. Match items in Group 1 with items in Group 2, most suitably. Group 1 P. LED Q. Avalanche photo diode R.Tunnel diode S. LASER (A) P-1 Q-2 R-4 S-3 (B) P-2 Q-3 R-1 S-4 (C) P-3 Q-4 R-1 S-2 Group 2 1. Heavy doping 2. Coherent radiation 3.Spontaneous 4. Current gain (D) P-2 Q-1 R-4 S-3 emission 45. An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of 50, input resistance of 1 kW and output resistance of 2.5 kW. The input resistance of the current-shunt negative feedback amplifier using the above amplifier with a feedback factor of 0.2, is (A) 1/11 kW (C) 5 kW (B) 1/5 kW (D) 11 kW
46. In the amplifier circuit shown in Fig. Q.46, the values of R1 and R2 are such that the transistor is operating at VCE = 3 V and I C = 15 . mA when its b is 150. For a transistor with b of 200, the operating point ( VCE , I C ) is
VCC = 6 V R1 R2
41. At 300 K, for a diode current of 1 mA, a certain germanium diode requires a forward bias of 0.1435 V, whereas a certain silicon diode requires a forward bias of 0.718 V. Under the conditions stated above, the closest approximation of the ratio of reverse saturation current in germanium diode to that in silicon diode is (A) 1 (C) 4 10
3
(B) 5 (D) 8 10 3 (A) (2 V, 2 mA) (C) (4 V, 2 mA)

Fig. Q46
42. A particular green LED emits light of wavelength 5490 A . The energy bandgap of the semiconductor material used there is (Planks constant = 6.626 10 -34 J s)
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(B) (3 V, 2 mA) (D) (4 V, 1 mA)
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47. The oscillator circuit shown in Fig. Q.47 has an ideal inverting amplifier. its frequency of oscillation (in Hz) is
51. Three identical amplifiers with each one having a voltage gain of 50, input resistance of 1 kW and output resistance of 250 W, are cascaded. The open circuit voltage gain of the combined amplifier is (A) 49 dB (C) 98 dB (B) 51 dB (D) 102 dB
52. An ideal sawtooth voltage waveform of frequency 500 Hz and amplitude 3 V is generated by charging a capacitor of 2 m F in every cycle. The charging requires (A) constant voltage source of 3 V for 1 ms (B) constant voltage source of 3 V for 2 ms (C) constant current source of 3 mA for 1 ms (D) constant current source of 3 mA for 2 ms
Fig. Q47
(A) (2 p 6 RC) 1 (C) ( 6 RC)
1 (B) (2 pRC) 6 (D) (2 pRC)
48. The output voltage of the regulated power supply shown in Fig. Q.48 is
+ 1 kW 15 V DC Unregulated Power source
53. The circuit shown in Fig. Q.53 has 4 boxes each described by inputs, P, Q, R and outputs Y, Z with Y = P Q R, Z = RQ + PR + QP . The circuit acts as a
Q
Vz = 3 V 40 kW 20 kW Regulated DC Output
P
P Q P Q P Q P Q
Fig. Q48
Z Y R
Z Y R
Z Y R
Z Y R
(A) 3 V (C) 9 V
(B) 6 V (D) 12 V
Output
Fig. Q53
49. The action of a JFET in its equivalent circuit can best be represented as a (A) (B) (C) (D) Current Controlled Current Source Current Controlled Voltage Source Voltage Controlled Voltage Source Voltage Controlled Current Source
(A) 4 bit adder giving P + Q (B) 4 bit substracter giving P - Q (C) 4 bit substracter giving Q - R (D) 4 bit adder giving P + Q + R 54. If the functions W , X , Y and Z are as follows W = R + PQ + RS X = PQRS + P Q R S + PQ R S Y = RS + PR + PQ + P Q
50. If the op-amp in Fig. Q.50 is ideal, the output voltage Vout will be equal to
5 kW 1 kW 2V 1 kW 3V 8 kW Vout
Z = R + S + PQ + P Q R + PQ S Then (A) W = Z , X = Z (C) W = Y (B) W = Z , X = Y (D) W = Y = Z
Fig. Q50
(A) 1 V (C) 14 V
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(B) 6 V (D) 17 V
55. A 4 bit ripple counter and a 4 bit synchronous counter are made using flip flops having a propagation delay of 10 ns each. If the worst case delay in the ripple
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Chap 10.1
counter and the synchronous counter be R and S respectively, then (A) R =10 n, S =40 ns (C) R =10 ns, S =30 ns (B) R =40 ns, S =10 ns (D) R =30 ns, S =10 ns
(A) (B) (C) (D)
BCD to binary code Binary to excess -3 code Excess -3 to Gray code Gray to Binary code
56. The DTL, TTL, ECL and CMOS families of digital ICs are compared in the following 4 columns
P Fanout is minimum Power consumption is minimum Propagation delay is minimum DTL Q DTL R TTL S CMOS
59. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q.59, A is a parallel-in, parallel-out 4 bit register, which loads at the rising edge of the clock C. The input lines are connected to a 4 bit bus, W. Its output acts as the input to a 16 4 ROM whose output is floating when the enable input E is 0. A partial table of the contents of the ROM is as follows
MSB
TTL
CMOS
ECL
DTL
CMOS
ECL
TTL
TTL
CLK A
The correct column is (A) P (C) R (B) Q (D) S
57. The circuit shown in Fig. Q.57 is a 4 bit DAC. The input bits 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and 5 V respectively. The OP AMP is ideal, but all the resistance and the 5 V inputs have a tolerance of 10%. The specification (rounded to the nearest multiple of 5%) for the tolerance of the DAC is (A) 35% (C) 10%
R R 2R
ROM
(B) 20% (D) 5%
CLK t1 t2
4R Vout 8R R
Fig. Q59
Address 0 2
Data 0011 1111 0100 1010 1011 1000 0010 1000
Fig. Q57
4 6 8 10 12 14
58. The circuit shown in Fig. Q.58 converts

MSB
The clock to the register is shown, and the data on the W bus at time t1 is 0110. The data on the bus at time t2 is
MSB
Fig. Q58
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(A) 1111 (C) 1000
(B) 1011 (D) 0010
Data for Q.6566 are given below. Solve the problems and choose the correct answers.
X ( t) is a random process with a constant mean value of 2 and the autocorrelation function R X ( t) = 4[ e
-0 .2 t
60. In an 8085 microprocessor, the instruction CMP B has been executed while the content of the accumulator is less than that of register B. As a result (A) Carry flag will be set but Zero flag will be reset (B) Carry flag will be reset but Zero flag will be set (C) Both Carry flag and Zero flag will be reset (D) Both Carry flag and Zero flag will be set 61. Let X and Y be two statistically independent random variables uniformly distributed in the ranges ( -1, 1) and (( -2, 1) respectively. Let Z = X + Y . Then the probability that ( Z - 2) is (A) zero (C)
1 3
+ 1].
65. Let X be the Gaussian random variable obtained by sampling the process at t = ti and let Q ( a) =
a y2 2
1 2p
dy
The probability that [ x 1] is (A) 1 - Q(0.5) (C) Q( 2 1 2 ) (B) Q(0.5) (D) 1 - Q( 2 1 2 )
(B) (D)
1 6 1 12
66. Let Y and Z be the random variables obtained by sampling X ( t) (A) 13.36 (C) 2.64 at t = 2 and t = 4 (B) 9.36 (D) 8.00 respectively. Let W = Y - Z . The variance of W is
62. Let P be linearity, Q be time-invariance, R be causality and S be stability. A discrete time system has the input-output relationship, n 1 x( n) y( n) = 0, n =0 x( n + 1) n -1 where x( n) is the input and y( n) is the output. The above system has the properties (A) P, S but not Q, R (C) P, Q, R, S (B) P, Q, S but not R (D) Q, R, S but not P
67. Let x( t) = 2 cos ( 800 pt) + cos (1400 pt). x( t) is sampled with the rectangular pulse train shown in Fig. Q.67. The only spectral components (in kHz) present in the sampled signal in the frequency range 2.5 kHz to 3.5 kHz are
p(t) 3 T0 = 10 sec
-3
Data for Q.6364 are given below. Solve the problems and choose the correct answers.
The system under consideration is an RC low-pass filter (RC-LPF) with R = 1 kW and C = 10 . m F. 63. Let H ( f ) denote the frequency response of the RC-LPF. Let f1 be the highest frequency such that H ( f1 ) 0.95. Then f1 (in Hz) is 0 | f | f1 H (0) (A) 327.8 (C) 52.2 (B) 163.9 (D) 104.4 (A) 2.7, 3.4
-T0
-T0/6 0 T0/6
t T0
Fig. Q67
(B) 3.3, 3.6 (D) 2.7, 3.3
(C) 2.6, 2.7, 3.3, 3.4, 3.6
68. The signal flow graph of a system is shown in Fig. Q.68. The transfer function
R(s) 1 1 s -2
C(s ) R(s )
of the system is
6 -4 1 s -3
1 C(s)
Fig. Q68
64. Let t g ( f ) be the group delay function of the given RC-LPF and f2 = 100 Hz. Then t g ( f2 ) in ms, is (A) 0.717 (C) 71.7
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6 (A) 2 s + 29 s + 6 (C) s( s + 2) s + 29 s + 6
2
(B) (D)
6s s + 29 s + 6
2
(B) 7.17 (D) 4.505
s( s + 27) s + 29 s + 6
2
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69 The root locus of the system G( s) H ( s) = K s( s + 2)( s + 3)
72. The gain margin and the phase margin of a feedback system with G( s) H ( s) = (A) - dB, 0 (C) , 0 s are ( s + 100) 3 (B) , (D) 88.5 dB,
has the break-away point located at (A) (-0.5, 0) (C) (-4, 0) (B) (-2.548, 0) (D) (-0.784, 0)
70. The approximate Bode magnitude plot of a minimum phase system is shown in Fig. Q.70. The transfer function of the system is
dB 160 140
73. The zero-input response of a system given by the state-space equation & 1 1 0 x1 x x1 (0) 1 x = 1 1 x and x (0) = 0 is & 2 2 2 te t (A) t e t (C) t te e t (B) t t (D) t te
20
0.1
10
100
74. A DSB-SC signal is to be generated with a carrier frequency fc = 1 MHz using a nonlinear device with the input-output characteristic v0 = a0 v1 + a1 vi3 where a0 and a1 are constants. The output of the nonlinear device where
l c
Fig. Q70
( s + 0.1) 3 (A) 108 ( s + 10) 2 ( s + 100) (C) 108 ( s + 0.1) ( s + 10) 2 ( s + 100)
2
( s + 0.1) 3 (B) 10 7 ( s + 10)( s + 100) (D) 10 9 ( s + 0.1) ( s + 10)( s + 100) 2

3
can be filtered by an appropriate band-pass filter. Let vi = Acl cos (2 pfcl t) + m( t) (A) 1.0 (C) 0.5 m( t) is the message signal. Then the value of f (in MHz) is
71. A second-order system has the transfer function

C (s) 4 = 2 R (s) s + 4s + 4
(B) 0.333 (D) 3.0
The data for Q.75-76 are given below. Solve the

With r ( t) as the unit-step function, the response c( t) of the system is represented by (A)
Step Response 2 1.5 1
problems and choose the correct answers.

Let m( t) = cos [( 4 p 10 3) t ] be the message signal and c( t) = 5 cos [(2 p 106 ) t ] be the carrier. 75. c( t) and m( t) are used to generate an AM signal. The
(B)
Step Response
1 0.5 0 0 5 10 15 Time (sec) 20 25
0.5
modulation index of the generated AM signal is 0.5. Total side band power Then the quantity is Carrier power
0 5 Time (sec) 10
Amplitude
Amplitude
(A) (C)
1 2 1 3
(B) (D)
1 4 1 8
(C)
Step Response 1.5 1
(D)
Step Response
76. c( t) and m( t) are used to generate an FM signal. If the peak frequency deviation of the generated FM is three times the transmission bandwidth of the AM signal, then
3
Amplitude
1 0.5 0 0 2 4 Time (sec) 6
Amplitude
0.5
the
coefficient
of
the
term
cos [2 p(1008 10 t)] in the FM signal (in terms of the

0 0 2 4 Time (sec) 6
Bessel coefficients) is (A) 5 J 4 ( 3) (B)

5 2
J8 ( 3)
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86. A uniform plane wave traveling in air is incident on the plane boundary between air and another dielectric medium with e r = 4. The reflection coefficient for the normal incidence, is (A) zero (C) 0.333 0 (B) 0.5 180 (D) 0.333180
90. Two identical antennas are placed in the q = p
plane as shown in Fig. Q.90. The elements have equal amplitude excitation with 180 polarity difference, operating at wavelength l. The correct value of the magnitude of the far-zone resultant electric field strength normalized with that of a single element, both computed for f = 0, is
87. If the electric field intensity associated with a uniform plane electromagnetic wave traveling in a
s
perfect
dielectric
7
medium
is volt/m,
given then
by the
f s
E( z, t) = 10 cos (2 p 10 t - 0.1pz) velocity of the traveling wave is (A) 3.00 108 m/sec (C) 6.28 10 7 m/sec
(B) 2.00 108 m/sec (D) 2.00 10 7 m/sec
Fig. Q.90
2 ps (A) 2 cos l ps (C) 2 cos l
2 ps (B) 2 sin l ps (D) 2 sin l

**************
88. A short-circuited stub is shunt connected to a transmission line as shown in Fig. Q.88. If Z 0 = 50 ohm, the admittance Y seen at the junction of the stub and the transmission line is
l/8
Zo
Zo Zo
Z L 100 W
l/2 Y
Fig. Q.88
(A) (0.01 - j0.02) mho (C) (0.04 - j0.02) mho
(B) (0.02 - j0.01) mho (D) (0.02 + j0) mho
89. A rectangular metal wave guide filled with a dielectric material of relative permitivity e r = 4 has the inside dimensions 3.0 cm 1.2 cm. The cut-off frequency for the dominant mode is (A) 2.5 GHz (C) 10.0 GHz (B) 5.0 GHz (D) 12.5 GHz
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1. 6. 11. 16. 21. 26. 31. 36. 41. 46. 51. 56. 61. 66. 71. 76. 81. 86. (B) (D) (B) (D) (D) (A) (A) (B) (C) (A) (D) (C) (A) (C) (B) (D) (B) (D) 2. 7. 12. 17. 22. 27. 32. 37. 42. 47. 52. 57. 62. 67. 72. 77. 82. 87. (C) (B) (D) (C) (C) (A) (*) (A) (A) (A) (D) (A) (A) (A) (D) (B) (D) (B) 3. 8. 13. 18. 23. 28. 33. 38. 43. 48. 53. 58. 63. 68. 73. 78. 83. 88. (B) (A) (B) (B) (B) (D) (D) (C) (D) (C) (B) (D) (C) (A) (C) (A) (B) (A) 4. 9. 14. 19. 24. 29. 34. 39. 44. 49. 54. 59. 64. 69 74 79 84. 89 (C) (C) (C) (B) (A) (B) (D) (C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (C) (B) 5. 10. 15. 20. 25. 30. 35. 40. 45. 50. 55. 60. 65. 70 75 80 85. 90. (C) (A) (A) (D) (C) (B) (C) (C) (A) (B) (B) (A) (A) (A) (D) (D) (C) (D)
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5. For the R-L circuit shown in Fig. Q.5, the input voltage vi ( t) = u( t). The current i( t) is
i(t) 1H
(C) current controlled current source (D) current controlled voltage source 10. Voltage series feedback (also called series-shunt feedback) results in
vi(t)
2W
(A) increase in both input and output impedances (B) decrease in both input and output impedances
Fig Q.5
(C) increase in input impedance and decrease in output impedance (B) (D) decrease in input impedance and increase in output impedance 11. The circuit in Fig. Q.11 is a
(A)
i(t) 0.5 0.31 t(sec) 1 0.63
i(t)
t(sec)
(C)
i(t) 0.5 0.31 t(sec) i(t) 1 0.63
(D)
vi R R vo
C
2 t(sec)
6. The impurity commonly used for realizing the base region of a silicon n-p-n transistor is (A) Gallium (C) Boron (B) Indium (D) Phosphorus (A) low-pass filter (C) band-pass filter
Fig Q.11
(B) high-pass filter (D) band-reject filter
7. If for a silicon n-p-n transistor, the base-to-emitter voltage ( VBE ) is 0.7 V and the collector-to-base voltage ( VCB ) is 0.2 V, then the transistor is operating in the (A) normal active mode (C) inverse active mode (B) saturation mode (D) cutoff mode
12. Assuming VCEsat = 0.2 V and b = 50, the minimum base current ( I B ) required to drive the transistor in Fig. Q.12 to saturation is
3 V IC 1 kW IB
8. Consider the following statements S1 and S2. S1 : The b of a bipolar transistor reduces if the base width is increased. S2 : The b of a bipolar transistor increases if the doping concentration in the base is increased. Which one of the following is correct ? (A) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE (B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE (C) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE (D) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE 9. An ideal op-amp is an ideal (A) voltage controlled current source (B) voltage controlled voltage source
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Fig Q12.
(A) 56 mA (C) 60 m A
(B) 140 mA (D) 3 mA
13. A master-slave flip-flop has the characteristic that (A) change in the input is immediately reflected in the output (B) change in the output occurs when the state of the master is affected (C) change in the output occurs when the state of the slave is affected (D) both the master and the slave states are affected at the same time
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14. The range of signed decimal numbers that can be represented by 6-bit 1s complement numbers is (A) -31 to +31 (C) -64 to +63 15. A digital system is (B) -63 to +64 (D) -32 to +31 required to amplify a
19. The impulse response h[ n] of a linear time-invariant system is given by h[ n] = u[ n + 3] + u[ n - 2 ] - 2 u[ n - 7 ] where u[ n] is the unit step sequence. The above system is
Vout
binary-encoded audio signal. The user should be able to control the gain of the amplifier from a minimum to a maximum in 100 increments. The minimum number of bits required to encode, in straight binary, is (A) 8 (C) 5 (B) 6 (D) 7
Vin 0
Fig Q.18
16. Choose the correct one from among the alternatives A, B, C, D after matching an item from Group 1 with the most appropriate item in Group 2.
Group 1 P: Shift register Q: Counter R: Decoder Group 2 1: Frequency division 2: Addressing in memory chips 3: Serial to parallel data conversion
(A) stable but not causal (B) stable and causal (C) causal but unstable (D) unstable and not causal 20. The distribution function FX ( x) of a random variable X is shown in Fig. Q.20. The probability that X = 1 is
Fx(x)
1.0
(A) P3 Q2 R1
(B) P3 Q1 R2
(C) P2 Q1 R3
(D)
0.55
P1 Q3 R2 (A) zero (C) 0.55

-2
0.25
Fig Q.20
17. Fig. Q.17 shows the internal schematic of a TTL AND-OR-Invert (AOI) gate. For the inputs shown in Fig. Q.17, the output Y is
A B Input are Floating y
(B) 0.25 (D) 0.30
21. The z-transform of a system is H ( z) = z z - 0.2
Fig Q.17
(A) 0 (C) AB
(B) 1 (D) AB
If the ROC is |z |< 0.2, then the impulse response of the system is (A) (0.2) n u[ n] (C) -(0.2) n u[ n] (B) (0.2) n u[ -n - 1] (D) -(0.2) n u[ -n - 1]
18. Fig. Q.18 is the voltage transfer characteristic of (A) an NMOS inverter with enhancement mode transistor as load (B) an NMOS inverter with depletion mode transistor as load (C) a CMOS inverter (D) a BJT inverter
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22. The Fourier transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always (A) imaginary (C) real (B) conjugate anti-symmetric (D) conjugate symmetric
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33. Consider the Bode magnitude plot shown in Fig. Q.33. The transfer function H ( s) is
20 log H(jw) 0 -20 40 dB/dec 20 dB/dec -20 dB/dec
37. Consider the following statements S1 and S2. S1 : At the resonant frequency the impedance of a series RLC circuit is zero. S2 : In a parallel GLC circuit, increasing the conductance G results in increase in its Q factor. Which one of the following is correct ? (A) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE
10
100
(B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE (C) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE
Fig Q.33
(A) (C)
( s + 10) ( s + 1)( s + 100) 10 2 ( s + 1) ( s + 10)( s + 100)
(B) (D)
10( s + 1) ( s + 10)( s + 100) 10 3( s + 100) ( s + 1)( s + 10)
(D) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE 38.. In an

16
abrupt on
3
pn
junction, and
the
doping are
concentrations N A = 9 10 cm
the
p-side
n-side
respectively. The p-n junction is
V ( s) of an RLC 34. The transfer function H ( s) = o Vi ( s) circuit is given by H ( s) = 10 s + 20 s + 106

2 6
reverse biased and the total depletion width is 3 m m. The depletion width on the p-side is (A) 2.7 m m (C) 2.25 m m (B) 0.3 m m (D) 0.75 m m
The Quality factor (Q-factor) of this circuit is (A) 25 (C) 100 (B) 50 (D) 5000
39. The resistivity of a uniformly doped n-type silicon sample is 0.5 W-cm. If the electron mobility (m n ) is 1250 cm 2 /V-sec and the charge of an electron is 1.6 10 -19 Coulomb, the donor impurity concentration ( N D) in the sample is (A) 2 1016 cm 3 (C) 2.5 1015 cm 3 (B) 1 1016 cm 3 (D) 5 1015 cm 3
35. For the circuit shown in Fig. Q.35, the initial conditions are zero. Its transfer function H ( s) = VC ( s) Vi ( s) is 1 (A) 2 s + 10 3 s + 106 106 (B) 2 s + 10 3 s + 106
10 kW
10 mH
40. Consider an abrupt p-n junction. Let Vbi be the built-in potential of this junction and VR be the applied reverse bias. If the junction capacitance ( C j ) is 1 pF for Vbi + VR = 1 V, then for Vbi + VR = 4 V, C j will be (A) 4 pF (B) 2 pF (D) 0.5 pF (C) 0.25 pF
vi(t)
100 mF
vo(t)
Fig Q35.
(C)
10 3 s 2 + 10 3 s + 106
(D)
106 s 2 + 106 s + 106
41. Consider the following statements S1 and S2. S1 : The threshold voltage ( VT ) of a MOS capacitor decreases with increase in gate oxide thickness. S2 : The threshold voltage ( VT ) of a MOS capacitor decreases with increase in substrate doping concentration. Which one of the following is correct ? (A) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE (B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE
36. A system described by the following differential equation d2 y dy +3 + 2 y = x( t) dt 2 dt is initially at rest. For input x( t) = 2 u( t), the output y( t) is (A) (1 - 2 e + e ) u( t) (C) (0.5 + e + 15 . e ) u( t)
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-t -2 t -t -2 t
(B) (1 + 2 e - e ) u( t) (D) (0.5 + 2 e + 2 e ) u( t)

-t -2 t
-t
-2 t
(C) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE (D) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE

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42. The drain of an n-channel MOSFET is shorted to the gate so that VGS = VDS . The threshold voltage ( VT ) of the MOSFET is 1 V. If the drain current ( I D) is 1 mA for VGS = 2 V, then for VGS = 3 V, I D is (A) 2 mA (C) 9 mA (B) 3 mA (D) 4 mA
46. A bipolar transistor is operating in the active region with a collector current of 1 mA. Assuming that the b of the transistor is 100 and the thermal voltage ( VT ) is 25 mV, the transconductance ( g m ) and the input resistance ( rp) of the transistor in the common emitter configuration, are (A) g m = 25 mA/V and rp = 15.625 kW
43. The longest wavelength that can be absorbed by silicon, which has the bandgap of 1.12 eV, is 1.1 m m. If the longest wavelength that can be absorbed by another material is 0.87 m m, then the bandgap of this material is (A) 1.416 eV (C) 0.854 eV (B) 0.886 eV (D) 0.706 eV
(B) g m = 40 mA/V and rp = 4.0 kW (C) g m = 25 mA/V and rp = 2.5 kW (D) g m = 40 mA/V and rp = 2.5 kW 47. The value of C required for sinusoidal oscillations of frequency 1 kHz in the circuit of Fig. Q.47 is
1 kW 2.1 kW
44. The neutral base width of a bipolar transistor, biased in the active region, is 0.5 m m. The maximum electron concentration and the diffusion constant in the base are 1014 cm 3 and Dn = 25 cm 2 sec respectively. Assuming negligible recombination in the base, the collector current density is (the electron charge is 1.6 10 -19 Coulomb) (A) 800 A/cm2 (C) 200 A/cm2 (B) 9 A/cm2 (D) 2 A/cm2 (A) (C) 1 mF 2p 1 2p 6 mF
Fig Q.47
1 kW C C 1 kW
(B) 2 p m F (D) 2 p 6 m F
45. Assume that the b of the transistor is extremely large and VBE = 0.7 V, I C and VCE in the circuit shown in Fig. Q.45 are
5 V IC 4 kW 2.2 kW + VEC 1 kW 300 kW
48. In the op-amp circuit given in Fig. Q.48, the load current iL is
R1 R1 vo
vi
R2 iL RL
R1
Fig Q.45
(A) I C = 1 mA, VCE = 4.7 V (B) I C = 0.5 mA, VCE = 375 . V (C) I C = 1 mA, VCE = 2.5 V (D) I C = 0.5 mA, VCE = 39 . V
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Fig Q.48
(A) (C) -
vs R2 vs RL
(B)
vs R2 vs R1
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57. Consider the sequence of 8085 instructions given below LXI H, 9258 MOV A, M CMA MOV M , A Which one of the following is performed by this sequence? (A) Contents of location 9258 are moved to the accumulator (B) Contents of location 9258 are compared with the contents of the accumulator (C) Contents of location 8529 are complemented and stored in location 8529 (D) Contents of location 5892 are complemented and stored in location 5892 58. A Boolean function f of two variables x and y is defined as follows : f (0, 0) = f (0, 1) = f (1, 1) = 1; f (1, 0) = 0 Assuming complements of x and y are not
60. A 1 kHz sinusoidal signal is ideally sampled at 1500 samples /sec and the sampled signal is passed through an ideal low-pass filter with cut-off frequency 800 Hz. The output signal has the frequency (A) zero Hz (C) 0.5 kHz (B) 0.75 kHz (D) 0.25 kHz
61. A rectangular pulse train s( t) as shown in Fig. Q.61 is convolved with the signal cos 2 ( 4 p 10 3 t). The convolved signal will be a
s(t) 1
1 ms
Fig Q.61
(A) DC (C) 8 kHz sinusoid 62. Consider the sequence
(B) 12 kHz sinusoid (D) 14 kHz sinusoid
x[ n] = [ -4 - j5 1 + j2 5 ] The conjugate anti-symmetric part of the sequence is (A) [-4 - j2.5 (B) [- j2.5 (C) [- j2.5 (D) [-4 1 1 j2 4] j2 j2.5] 0] 4 - j2.5]
available, a minimum cost solution for realizing f using only 2-input NOR gates and 2-input OR gates (each having unit cost) would have a total cost of (A) 1 unit (C) 3 units (B) 4 units (D) 2 units
59. It is desired to multiply the numbers 0AH by 0BH and store the result in the accumulator. The numbers are available in registers B and C respectively. A part of the 8085 program for this purpose is given below: MVI A, 00H LOOP: HLT END The sequence of instructions to complete the program would be (A) JNZ LOOP, ADD B, DCR C (B) ADD B, JNZ LOOP, DCR C (C) DCR C, JNZ LOOP, ADD B (D) ADD B, DCR C, JNZ LOOP
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63. A causal LTI system is described by the difference equation 2 y[ n] = ay[ n - 2 ] - 2 x[ n] + bx[ n - 1] The system is stable only if (A) a = 2, b < 2 (B) a > 2, b > 2 (C) a < 2, any value of b (D) b < 2, any value of a 64. A causal system having the transfer function H ( s) = 1 s+2
is excited with 10 u( t). The time at which the output reaches 99% of its steady state value is (A) 2.7 sec (C) 2.3 sec
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(B) 2.5 sec (D) 2.1 sec

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65. The impulse response h[ n] of a linear time invariant system is given as -2 2 h[ n] = 4 2 0 n = 1, - 1 n = 2, - 2 otherwise
2 -2 69. If A = , then sin At is 1 -3 sin( -4 t) + 2 sin( -t) - sin( -4 t) + 2 sin( -t) (A) 2 sin( -4 t) + sin( -t) - sin( -4 t) + sin( -t) sin(2 t) sin( -2 t) (B) sin( t ) sin( -3t) (C) sin( 4 t) + 2 sin( t) 2 sin( -4 t) - 2 sin( -t) - sin( -4 t) + sin( t) 2 sin( 4 t) + sin( t)
If the input to the above system is the sequence e jpn 4 , then the output is (A) 4 2 e jpn (C) 4 e jpn
4 4
(B) 4 2 e - jpn (D) -4 e jpn

4
cos( -t) + 2 cos( t) 2 cos( -4 t) - 2 sin( -t) (D) -2 cos( 4 t) + cos( t) - cos( -4 t) + sin( -t) 70. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is G( s) = K s( s + s + 2)( s + 3)
2
66. Let x( t) and y( t) with Fourier transforms F ( f ) and Y ( f ) respectively be related as shown in Fig. Q.66. Then Y ( f ) is
x(t) 1 y(t)
-2
-2
The range of K for which the system is stable is 21 (A) (B) 13 > K > 0 > K >0 4 (C) 21 <K < 4 (D) -6 < K <
-1
Fig Q.66
1 (A) - X ( f 2) e - j 2 pf 2 (C) - X ( f 2) e j 2 pf
1 (B) - X ( f 2) e j 2 pf 2 (D) - X ( f 2) e - j 2 pf
71. For the polynomial P ( s) = s 5 + s 4 + 2 s 3 + 2 s 2 + 3s + 15 the number of roots which lie in the right half of the s-plane is (A) 4 (C) 3 (B) 2 (D) 1
67. A system has poles at 0.01 Hz, 1 Hz and 80 Hz; zeros at 5 Hz, 100 Hz and 200 Hz. The approximate phase of the system response at 20 Hz is (A) 90 (C) 90 (B) 0 (D) 180
72. The state variable equations of a system are : & 1 = -3 x1 - x2 = u, x & 2 = 2 x1 , y = x1 + u x The system is (A) controllable but not observable (B) observable but not controllable (C) neither controllable nor observable
68. Consider the signal flow graph shown in Fig. Q.68. x The gain 5 is x1
x1 a x2 b x3 c f x4 d x5 1 e g
(D) controllable and observable 1 0 At 73. Given A = , the state transition matrix e is 0 1 given by 0 e- t (A) - t 0 e e - t 0 (C) -t 0 e
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Fig Q.68
(A) (B) (C)
1 - ( be + cf + dg) abcd bedg 1 - ( be + cf + dg) abcd 1 - ( be + cf + dg) + bedg
0 et (B) t e 0 e t 0 (D) t 0 e
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1 - ( be + cf + dg) + bedg (D) abcd

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74. Consider the signal x( t) shown in Fig. Q.74. Let h( t) denote the impulse response of the filter matched to x( t), with h( t) being non-zero only in the interval 0 to 4 sec. The slope of h( t) in the interval 3 < t < 4 sec is
x(t) 1
t(sec)
78. Consider a binary digital communication system with equally likely 0s and 1s. When binary 0 is transmitted the voltage at the detector input can lie between the levels -0.25 V and +0.25 V with equal probability; when binary 1 is transmitted, the voltage at the detector can have any value between 0 and 1 V with equal probability. If the detector has a threshold of 0.2V (i.e. if the received signal is greater than 0.2V, the bit is taken as 1), the average bit error probability is (A) 0.15 (B) 0.2 (D) 0.5 (C) 0.05
Fig. Q.74
(A) sec -1 (C) 1/2 sec -1
(B) 1 sec -1 (D) 1 sec -1
79. A random variable X with uniform density in the interval 0 to 1 is quantized as follows: if 0 X 0.3, if 0.3 X 1, where xq (A) 0.573 (C) 2.205 xq = 0 xq = 0.7
75. A 1 mW video signal having a bandwidth of 100 MHz is transmitted to a receiver through a cable that has 40 dB loss. If the effective one-sided noise spectral density at the receiver is 10 -20 Watt/Hz, then the signal-to-noise ratio at the receiver is (A) 50 dB (C) 40 dB (B) 30 dB (D) 60 dB
is the quantized value of X . The (B) 0.198 (D) 0.266
root-mean square value of the quantization noise is
76. A 100 MHz carrier of 1V amplitude and a 1 MHz modulating signal of 1V amplitude are fed to a balanced modulator. The output of the modulator is passed through an ideal high-pass filter with cut-off frequency of 100 MHz. The output of the filter is added with 100 MHz signal of 1V amplitude and 90 phase shift as shown in Fig. Q.76. The envelope of the resultant signal is
1 Mhz, 1 V Balanced Modulator HPF 100 Mhz y(t)
80. Choose the correct one from among the alternatives A, B, C, D after matching an item from Group 1 with the most appropriate item in Group 2. Group 1 1 : FM 2 : DM 3 : PSK 4 : PCM Group 2 P : Slope overload Q : m -law R : Envelope detector S : Capture effect T : Hilbert transfer U : Matched filter
100 Mhz, 1 V
100 Mhz, 1 V 90
(A) 1T
(B) 1S 2U 3P 4T
(C) 1S 2P 3U 4Q
(D) 1U 2R 3S 4Q
Fig Q.76
(A) constant (C) 5 4 - sin(2 p 106 t)
(B) (D)
1 + sin(2 p 106 t) 5 4 + cos(2 p 106 t)
2P 3U 4S
77. Two sinusoidal signals of same amplitude and frequencies 10 kHz and 10.1 kHz are added together. The combined signal is given to an ideal frequency detector. The output of the detector is (A) 0.1 kHz sinusoid (B) 20.1 kHz sinusoid (C) a linear function of time (D) a constant
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81. Three analog signals, having bandwidth 1200 Hz, 600 Hz and 600 Hz, are sampled at their respective Nyquist rates, encoded with 12 bit words, and time division multiplexed. The bit rate for the multiplexed signal is (A) 1, 15.2 kbps (C) 27.6 kbps (B) 28.8 kbps (D) 38.4 kbps
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82. Consider a system shown in Fig. Q.82. Let X ( f ) and Y ( f ) denote the Fourier transforms of x( t) and y( t) respectively. The ideal HPF has the cutoff frequency 10 kHz.
X(f )
(C) B1 = 20 kHz, B2 = 10 kHz (D) B1 = 10 kHz, B2 = 10 kHz 85. Consider a 300 W, quarter-wave long (at 1 GHz) transmission line as shown in Fig. Q.85. It is connected to a 10 V, 50W source at one end and is left open circuited at the other end. The magnitude of the voltage at the open circuit end of the line is
-3
-1
f (kHz)
x(t)
Balanced Modulator
HPF 10 kHz
Balanced Modulator
y(t)
10 V, 50 W source
Zo = 300 W
~
10 kHz
~
13 kHz
l/4
Fig Q.85
Fig Q.82
(A) 10 V The positive frequencies where Y ( f ) has spectral peaks are (A) 1 kHz and 24 kHz (C) 1 kHz and 14 kHz (B) 2 kHz and 24 kHz (D) 2 kHz and 14 kHz (C) 60 V
(B) 5 V (D) 60/7 V
86. In a microwave test bench, why is the microwave signal amplitude modulated at 1 kHz ? (A) To increase the sensitivity of measurement (B) To transmit the signal to a far-off place (C) To study amplitude modulation (D) Because crystal detector fails at microwave frequencies r $ x + ja $ y) e jkz - jwt 87. If and E = (a r jkz - jwt $ y + ja $ x )e ,the time-averaged Poynting H = ( k wm )(a vector is (A) null vector $z (C) (2 k wm )a $z (B) ( k wm )a $z (D) ( k 2 wm )a
83. A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate area of 10 -4 m 2 and plate separation of 10 -3 m. It is connected to a 0.5 V, 3.6 GHz source. The magnitude of the displacement current is ( e o = 1 36 p 10 -9 F m) (A) 10 mA (C) 10 A (B) 100 mA (D) 1.59 mA
84. A source produces binary data at the rate of 10 kbps. The binary symbols are represented as shown in Fig.Q.84
Binary 1 1V 0.1 Binary 1
88. Consider an impedance Z = R + jX marked with point P in an impedance Smith chart as shown in Fig.
t(ms) 0 t(ms)
0.1
Q.88. The movement from point P along a constant resistance circle in the clockwise direction by an angle 45 is equivalent to
r=0 .5
-1 V
Fig Q.84
The source output is transmitted using two modulation schemes, namely Binary PSK (BPSK) and Quadrature PSK (QPSK). Let B1 and B2 be the bandwidth requirements of BPSK respectively.
x = -0.5 P x = -1 x=0
Assuming that the bandwidth of the above rectangular pulses is 10 kHz, B1 and B2 are (A) B1 = 20 kHz, B2 = kHz (B) B1 = 10 kHz, B2 = 10 kHz
Fig. Q.88
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CHAPTER
10.3
EC-05
Duration : Three Hours 150 Maximum Marks : 5. The function x( t) is shown in the figure. Even and odd parts of a unit step function u( t) are respectively,
x(t)
1 0 -1 t
Question 1- 30 Carry one Mark each. 1. The following differential equation has d2 y dy 2 3 2 + 4 + y +2= x dt dt (A) degree = 2, order = 1 (B) degree = 3, order = 2 (C) degree = 4, order = 3 (D) degree = 2, order =3 2. Choose the function f ( t); - < t < for which a Fourier series cannot be defined. (A) 3 sin(25 t) (C) e
-t 3
Fig. Q5
1 1 (A) , x( t) 2 2 (C) 1 1 , - x( t) 2 2
1 1 (B) - , x( t) 2 2 1 1 (D) - , - x( t) 2 2
6. The region of convergence of z - transform of the 5 6 sequence u( n) - u( -n - 1) must be 6 5 5 5 (B) z > (A) z < 6 6 (C) 5 6 <z < 6 5 (D) 6 < z < 5
n n
(B) 4 cos(20 t + 3) + 2 sin(710 t) (D) 1
sin(25 t)
3. A fair dice is rolled twice. The probability that an odd number will follow on even number is 1 1 (B) (A) 2 6 (C) 1 3 (D) 1 4 7. The condition on R, L and C such that the step response y( t) in the figure has no oscillations, is
L R
u(t)
y(t)
4. A solution of the following differential equation is given by

Fig. Q7
d2 y dy -5 + 6y =0 dt 2 dt (A) y = e 2 x + e -3x (C) y = e -2 x + e -3x

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1 (A) R 2
(B) y = e 2 x + e 3x (D) y = e -2 x + e -3x
L C L (C) R 2 C
L C 1 (D) R = LC (B) R
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8. The ABCD parameters of an ideal n:1 transformer n 0 shown in the figure are . The value of x will be 0 X i
i1
2
(A) abundance of Silicon on the surface of the Earth. (B) larger bandgap of Silicon in comparison to Germanium. (C) favorable properties of Silicon - dioxide (SiO2) (D) lower melting point.
+ n:1 v1 -
+ v2 -
14. The effect of current shunt feedback in an amplifier is to (A) increase the input resistance and decrease the output resistance. (B) increase both input and output resistance (C) decrease both input and output resistance. (D) decrease the input resistance and increase the output resistance. 15. The input resistance of the amplifier shown in the figure is
10 kW vo 30 kW
Fig. Q8
(A) n (C) n2
1 (B) n (D) 1 n2
9. In a series RLC circuit, R = 2 kW, L = 1 H and 1 m . The resonant frequency is 400 1 (A) 2 10 4 Hz (B) 10 4 Hz p C= (C) 10 Hz
4
(D) 2 p 10 Hz
4
10. The maximum power that can be transferred to the load resistor RL from the voltage source in the figure is
100 W
~
Ri
Fig. Q15
10 V
RL
30 (A) kW 4 (C) 40 kW
(B) 10 kW (D) infinite
Fig. Q10
16. The first and the last critical frequency of an RC driving point impedance function must respectively be (A) a zero and a pole (B) a zero and a zero (C) a pole and a pole (D) a pole and a zero 17. The cascode amplifier is a multistage configuration of (A) CC - CB (C) CB - CC (B) CE - CB (D) CE - CC
(A) 1 W (C) 0.25 W
(B) 10 W (D) 0.5 W
11. The bandgap of Silicon at room temperature is (A) 1.3 eV (C) 1.1 eV (B) 0.7 eV (D) 1.4 eV
12. A Silicon PN junction at a temperature of 20 C has a reverse saturation current of 10 pico - Amperes (pA). The reserve saturation current at 40 C for the same bias is approximately (A) 30 pA (C) 50 pA (B) 40 pA (D) 60 pA
18. Decimal 43 in Hexadecimal and BCD number system is respectively (A) B2, 0100 011 (B) 2B, 0100 0011
13. The primary reason for the widespread use of Silicon in semiconductor device technology is
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(C) 2B, 0011 0100 (D) B2, 0100 0100

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Chap 10.3
19. The Boolean function f implemented in the figure using two input multiplexes is
0 MUX f
23.
The
power
in
the
signal
p s( t) = 8 cos 20 p - + 4 sin(15 pt) is 2 (A) 40 (C) 42 (B) 41 (D) 82
0 MUX 1
24. Which of the following analog modulation scheme requires the minimum transmitted power and minimum channel bandwidth?
(A) VSB
Fig. Q19
(B) DSB - SC (D) AM
(C) SSB
(A) ABC + ABC (C) ABC + A B C
(B) ABC + ABC (D) A BC + ABC
25. A linear system is equivalently represented by two sets of state equations: & = CW + DU & = AX + BU And W X
20. Which of the following can be impulse response of a causal system?

(A)
h(t) h(t)
The eigenvalues of the representations are also computed as [ l] and [m ]. Which one of the following
(B)
statements is true? (A) [ l] = [m ] and X = W

t
(B) [ l] = [m ] and X W (D) [ l] = [m ] and X W
(C) [ l] [m ] and X = W
(C)
h(t) h(t)
(D)
26. Which one of the following polar diagrams corresponds to a lag network?
(A) (B)
Im Im
w= 0 w=
Re
1 21. Let x( n) = u( n), y( n) = x 2 ( n) and Y ( e jw ) be the 2 Fourier transform of y( n) then Y ( e ) is 1 (A) 4 (C) 4 (B) 2 4 (D) 3
j0
w= 0
w=
Re
(C)
Im Im
w=
(D)
w= 0
Re
w= 0 w=
Re
22. Find the correct match between group 1 and group 2 Group 1 P. {1 + km( t)} A sin( wc t) Q. km( t) A sin( wc t) R. A sin( wc t + km( t)) (A) P-Z, Q-Y, R-X, S-W (C) P-X, Q-W, R-Z, S-Y
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Group II W. Phase Modulation X.Frequency Modulation Y. Amplitude Modulation (B) P-W, Q-X, R-Y, S-Z (D) P-Y, Q-Z, R-W, S-X
27. Despite the presence of negative feedback, control systems still have problems of instability because the (A) Components used have non-linearities (B) Dynamic equations of the subsystem are not known exactly. (C) Mathematical analysis involves approximations. (D) System has large negative phase angle at high frequencies.
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Chap 10.3
37. Given an orthogonal matrix 1 1 1 1 1 1 -1 -1 , [ AA T ]-1 is A = 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 -1 0 0 0 1 4 0 1 0 0 4 (A) 1 0 0 0 2 0 0 0 1 2 1 0 (C) 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 2 0 1 0 0 2 (B) 1 0 0 0 2 0 0 0 1 2 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 4 (D) 0 0 0 1 4 0 0 0 1 4

1 4
(A) 5 V and 2 W (C) 4 V and 2 W
(B) 7.5 V and 2.5 W (D) 3 V and 2.5 W
41. If R1 = R2 = R3 = R and R3 = 11 . R in the bridge circuit shown in the figure, then the reading in the ideal voltmeter connected between a and b is
R1 R4 V R3 b
10 V
R2
Fig. Q41
38. For the circuit show in the figure, the instantaneous current ii ( t) is
j2 i1 5 0 A
O
(A) 0.238 V (C) -0.238 V
(B) 0.138 V (D) 1 V.
-j2
42. The h parameters of the circuit shown in the figure

3W 10 60O A
are
+ V1 -
Fig. Q38
10 3 (A) 90 Amps. 2 (C) 5 60 Amps
10 3 (B) - 90 Amps. 2 (D) 5 - 60 Amps
39. Impedance Z as shown in the given figure is

j5 W j2 W j10 W j10 W j2 W
Fig. Q39
(A) j29 W (C) j19 W
(B) j9 W (D) j 39 W
Vi 3V + V1 2 sec t -
40. For the circuit shown in figure, Thevenin's voltage and Thevenin's equivalent resistance at terminals a - b is
5W
0.5I1
5W
a b
Fig. Q40
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I1
10 W
I2 + 20 W V2 -
Fig. Q42
0.1 0.1 (A) -0.1 0.3 30 20 (C) 20 20
-1 10 (B) 1 0 . 05 1 10 (D) 1 0 . 05
43. A square pulse of 3 volts amplitude is applied to C-R circuit shown in the figure. The capacitor is initially uncharged. The output voltage VO at time t = 2 sec is
I1 0.1 mF -j2 I2 + 1 kW V2 -
Fig. Q43
(A) 3 V
10 V
(B) -3 V (D) -4 V
(C) 4 V
44. A Silicon sample A is doped with 1018 atoms/cm 3 of boron. Another sample b of identical dimension is doped with 1018 atoms/cm 3 phosphorus. The ratio of electron to
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hole mobility is 3. The ratio of conductivity of the sample A to B is (A) 3 2 (C) 3 (B) 1 3
48. The OP-amp circuit shown in the figure is filter. The type of filter and its cut. Off frequency are respectively.
10 kW 10 kW vo vi 1 mF 1 kW
3 (D) 2
45. A Silicon PN junction diode under reverse bias has depletion region of width 10 m m. The free space e o = 8.85 10
-12
relative
Fig. Q48
permitivity of Silicon, e r = 117 . and the preemptively of F/m. The depletion capacitance of the diode per square meter is (A) 100 m F (C) 1 m F (B) 10 m F (D) 20 m F
(A) high pass, 1000 rad/sec. (B) Low pass, 1000 rad/sec. (C) high pass, 1000 rad/sec. (D) low pass, 10000 rad/sec. 49. In an ideal differential amplifier shown in the figure, a large value of ( RE )
VCC RC RC
46. For an npn transistor connected as shown in figure VBE = 0.7 volts. Given that reverse saturation current of the junction at room temperature 300 K is 10 -13 A, the emitter current is
IC _ VBE +
V1
RE -VEE
V2
Fig. Q46
(A) 30 mA (C) 49 mA
(B) 39 mA (D) 20 mA
Fig. Q49
(A) increase both the differential and common - mode gains (B) increases the common mode gain only (C) decreases the differential mode gain only (D) decreases the common mode gain only.
47. The voltage eo is indicated in the figure has been measured by an ideal voltmeter. Which of the following can be calculated ?
1 MW
50. For an n-channel MOSFET and its transfer curve shown in the figure, the threshold voltage is
eo ID 1 MW
Transfer Characteristics
VD=5 V D VG=1 V G S
Fig. Q47
(A) Bias current of the inverting input only (B) Bias current of the inverting and non-inverting inputs only (C) Input offset current only (D) Both the bias currents and the input offset current.
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1V
VGS
VS=1 V
Fig. Q50
(A) 1 V and the device is in active region (B) -1 V and the device is in saturation region (C) 1 V and the device is in saturation region (D) -1 V and the device is in active region.
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57. The given figure shows a ripple counter using positive edge triggered flip-flops. If the present state of the counter is Q2Q1Q0 = 001 then its next state Q2Q1Q will be
1 T0 Q0 1 T1 Q1 1 T2 Q2
60. Match combination.
the following and choose the correct
Group 1 E. Continuos and periodic signal F. Continuous and periodic signal G. Discrete and aperiodic signal H. Discrete and periodic signal
CLK
Q0
Q1
Q2
Group 2 1. Fourier representation is continuous and aperiodic 2. Fourier representation is discrete and aperiodic 3. Fourier representation is continuous 4. Fourier representation is discrete and periodic (A) E-3, F-2, G-4, H-1 (C) E-1, F-2, G-3, H-4 (A) E-1, F-3, G-2, H-4 (D) E-2, F-1, G-4, H-3
Fig. Q57
(A) 010 (B) 111
(D) 100 (D) 101
58. What memory address range is NOT represents by chip # 1 and chip # 2 in the figure A0 to A15 in this figure are the address lines and CS means chip select.
61. A signal x( n) = sin( w0 n + f) is the input to a linear

A0 - A7 256 bytes Chip #1
time- invariant system having a frequency response H ( e jw ). If the output of the system Ax( n - n0 ) then the most general form of will be (A) -n0 w0 + b for any arbitrary real (B) -n0 w0 + 2 pk for any arbitrary integer k (C) n0 w0 + 2 pk for any arbitrary integer k (D) -n0 w0 f 62. For a signal the Fourier transform is X ( f )). Then
A8 A9 A9 A8
A0 - A7
256 bytes Chip #2
the inverse Fourier transform of X ( 3 f + 2) is given by (A) 1 t j 3pt x e 2 2 (B) 1 t x e 3 3

j 4 pt 3
(C) 3 x( 3t) e - j 4 pt
A10 - A16 not used
(D) x( 3t + 2)
63. The polar diagram of a conditionally stable system for open loop gain K = 1 is shown in the figure. The open loop transfer function of the system is known to be stable. The closed loop system is stable for
Im
Fig. Q58
(A) 0100 - 02FF. (C) F900-FAFF
(B) 1500 - 16FF (D) F800 - F9FF
59. The output y( t) of a linear time invariant system is related to its input x( t) by the following equation y( t) = 0.5 x( t - td + T) + x( t - td ) + 0.5 x( t - td + T) The filter transfer function H ( w) of such a system is given by (A) (1 + cos wT) e - jwt d (C) (1 - cos wT) e - jwt d
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-8 -2 -0.2
Re
(B) (1 + 0.5 cos wT) e - jwt d (D) (1 - 0.5 cos wT) e - jwt d
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Fig. Q63
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Chap 10.3
(A) K < 5 and
1 1 <K < 2 8
(B) K <
1 1 and < K < 5 2 8
66. A ramp input applied to an unity feedback system results in 5% steady state error. The type number and zero frequency gain of the system are respectively (A) 1 and 20 (C) 0 and 1 20 (B)0 and 20 (D) 1 and 1 20
1 (C) K < and 5 < K 8
1 (D) K > and 5 > K 8
64. In the derivation of expression for peak percent overshoot -px M p = exp 1 - x2 100%
67. A double integrator plant G( s) = K s 2 , H ( s) = 1 is to be compensated to achieve the damping ratio and and undamped natural frequency, w = 5 rad/s which one of the following compensator Ge ( s) will be suitable ? s+3 s + 9.9 (A) (B) s + 9.9 s+3 (C) s-6 s + 8.33 (D) s-6 s
Which one of the following conditions is NOT required? (A) System is linear and time invariant (B) The system transfer function has a pair of complex conjugate poles and no zeroes. (C) There is no transportation delay in the system. (D) The system has zero initial conditions. 65. Given the ideal operational amplifier circuit shown in the figure indicate the correct transfer characteristics assuming ideal diodes with zero cut-in voltage.
10 V vi vo
68. An unity feedback system is given as G( s) = K (1 - s) . s( s + 3)
Indicate the correct root locus diagram.

(A)
jw jw
(B)
s
-10 V 2 kW 0.5 kW 2 kW s
(C)
jw
jw
(D)
Fig. Q65
(A)
Vo +10 V +10 V Vo
Vi
(B)
69. A MOS capacitor made using P type substrate is in the accumulation mode. The dominant charge in the channel is due to the presence of (A) holes
-8 V
+5 V
Vi
-5 V
+8 V
Vi
(B) electrons (C) positively charged ions
-10 V
-10 V
(D) negatively charged ions

(D)
(C)
Vo +10 V +5 V -5 V +5 V Vi -5 V
Vo
70. A device with input x( t) and output y( t) is characterized y( t) = x 2 ( t). An FM signal with frequency deviation of 90 kHz and modulating signal bandwidth
+5 V Vi
of 5 kHz is applied to this device. The bandwidth of the output signal is (A) 370 kHz (C) 380 kHz (B) 190 kHz (C) 95 kHz
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Chap 10.3
COMMON DATA QUESTION 78, 79, 80: Given, rd = 20 kW, I DSS = 10 mA, Vp = -8 V
20 V
81b. If in addition following code exists from 019H onwards, ORI 40 H ADD M
2 kW
What will be the result in the accumulator after

+ 2 MW vi Zi 2V + vo Zo
the last instruction is executed? (A) 40 H (C) 60 H (B) 20 H (D) 42 H and
Statement for Linked Answer Question 82a 82b:
Fig. Q78
The dopen loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by 20 kW 11 82a. The gain and phase crossover frequencies in rad/sec are, respectively (A) 0.632 and 1.26 (C) 0.485 and 0.632 (B) 0.632 and 0.485 (D) 1.26 and 0.632
78. Z i and Z O of the circuit are respectively (A) 2 MW and 2 kW (C) and 2 kW (B) 2 MW and (D) and
20 kW 11
79. I D and VDS under DC conditions are respectively (A) 5.625 mA and 8.75 V (C) 4.500 mA and 11.00 V (B) 7.500 mA and 5.00 V (D) 6.250 mA and 7.50 V and
82b. Based on the above results, the gain and phase margins of the system will be (A) -7.09 dB and 87.5 (C) 7.09 dB and -87.5 (B) 7.09 dBand 87.5 (D) -7.09 and -87.5
80. Transconductance in milli-Siemens (mS) voltage gain of the amplifier are respectively (A) 1.875 mS and 3.41 (C) 3.3 mS and -6
(B) 1.875 mS and -3.41 (D) 3.3 mS and 6
Statement for linked answer question 83a and 83b Asymmetric three - level midtread quantizer is to be designed assuming equiprobable occurrence of all quantization levels. 83a. If the probability density function is divided into
Linked Answer Questions : Q.81a to 85b Carry Two Marks Each Statement For Linked Answer Questions 81a and 81b: Consider an 8085 microprocessor system. 81a. The following program starts at location 0100H. LXI SP, OOFF LXI H, 0701 MVI A, 20H SUB M The content of accumulator when the program counter reaches 0109 H is (A) 20 H (C) 00 H (B) 02 H (D) FF H
three regions as shown in the figure, the value of a in the figure is

p(x)
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
-3
-1 -a
a1
Fig. Q83
(A) (C)
1 3 1 2
(B) (D)
2 3 1 4
83b. The quantization noise power for the quantization region between - a and + a in the figure is (A) (C)
4 81 5 81
(B) (D)
1 9 2 81
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Statement of Linked Answer Questions 84a 84b
and (C)
y[n] 2 1 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -2 -1 0 1 y[n] 2 2 3 4 5 6 n
Voltage standing wave pattern in a lossless transmission line with characteristic impedance 50 and a resistive load is shown in the figure.
V(z)
4
(D)
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1
1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 n
1 l l/2
Fig. Q84a and Q84b
85b. The Fourier transform of y[2 n] will be (A) e-2 jw [cos 4 w + 2 cos 2 w + 2 ] (B) [cos 2 w + 2 cos w + 2 ] (C) e - jw [cos 2 w + 2 cos w + 2 ] (D) e -2 jw [cos 2 w + 2 cos w + 2 ]
84a. The value of the load resistance is (A) 50 W (C) 12.5 W (B) 200 W (D) 0
84b. The reflection coefficient is given by (A) -0.6 (C) 0.6 (B) -1 (D) 0 ************
Statement of Linked Answer Question 85a and 85b: A sequence x (n) has non-zero values as shown in the figure.(A)
x[n] 2 1 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 n
Fig. Q85
85a. The sequence n x - 1 y[ n] = 2 0 for n even for n odd

y[n] 2
will be
(A)
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1
1 0 y[n] 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 n
(B)
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1
1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 n
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CHAPTER
10.4
EC-06
Duration : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 150 (A) e-2 t u( t) (C) e - t u( t) (B) e 2 t u( t) (D) e t u( t)
Q.1 to carry Q.20 one marks each and Q.21 to Q.85 carry two marks each. 1 1 1. The rank of the matrix 1 -1 1 1 (A) 0 (C) 2 (B) 1 (D) 3 1 0 is 1
6. A low-pass filter having a frequency response H ( jw) = A( w) e jf( w ) distortions if (A) A( w) = Cw2 , f( w) = kw3 (C) A( w) = Cw, f( w) = kw2 (B) A( w) = Cw2 , f( w) = kw (D) A( w) = C, f( w) = kw-1 does not produce any phase
7. The values of voltage ( VD) across a tunnel-diode corresponding to peak and valley currents are Vp , VD respectively. The range of tunnel-diode voltage for VDwhich the slope of its I - VD characteristics is negative would be (A) VD < 0 (C) Vp VD < Vv (B) 0 VD < Vp (D) VD Vv
2. P Where P is a vector, is equal to (A) P P - P

2
(B) P + ( P)
2
(C) 2P + P 3.
(D) ( P) - 2P
( P) ds where P is a vector, is equal to (A) P dl (B) P dl

(C) P dl (D) Pdv
8. The concentration of minority carriers in an extrinsic semiconductor under equilibrium is (A) Directly proportional to the doping concentration
4. A probability density function is of the form p( x) = Ke The value of K is (A) 0.5 (C) 0.5 (B) 1 (D) a
-a x
(B) Inversely proportional to the doping concentration (C) Directly proportional to the intrinsic concentration (D) Inversely proportional to the intrinsic concentration 9. Under low level injection assumption, the injected minority carrier current for an extrinsic semiconductor is essentially the (A) Diffusion current (C) Recombination current
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, x ( -, )
5. A solution for the differential equation x( t) + 2 x( t) = d( t) With initial condition x(0 -) = 0

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(B) Drift current (D) Induced current

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Chap 10.4
10. The phenomenon known as Early Effect in a bipolar transistor refers to a reduction of the effective base-width caused by (A) Electron Hole recombination at the base (B) The reverse biasing of the base collector junction (C) The forward biasing of emitter-base junction (D) The early removal of stored base charge during saturation-to-cut off switching 11. The input impedance ( Z i ) and the output impedance ( Z 0 ) of an ideal trans-conductance (voltage controlled current source) amplifier are (A) Z i = 0, Z 0 = 0 (C) Z i = , Z 0 = 0 (B) Z i = 0, Z 0 = (D) Z i = , Z 0 =
15. The Dirac delta function is defined as 1 t =0 (A) d( t) = 0 otherwise 1 t =0 (B) d( t) = 0 otherwise 1 (C) d( t) = 0 (D) d( t) = 0 t =0 otherwise
and
d( t) dt = 1
-
t =0 and otherwise
d( t) dt = 1
16. If the region of convergence of x1 [ n] + x2 [ n] is 1 2 < z < then the region of convergence of x1 [ n] - x2 [ n] 3 3 includes 1 (A) < z < 3 3 (C) 3 < z <3 2 2 < z <3 3 1 2 <z < 3 3
(B) (D)
12. An n-channel depletion MOSFET has following two points on its I D - VGS curve : (i) VGS = 0 at I D = 12 mA and (ii) VGS = -6 Volts at I D = 0 mA Which of the following Q point will give the highest trans conductance gain for small signals? (A) VGS = -6 Volts (C) VGS = 0 Volts (B) VGS = -3 Volts (D) VGS = 3 Volts
17. The open-loop function of a unity-gain feedback control system is given by G( s) = K ( s + 1)( s + 2)
The gain margin of the system in dB is given by (A) 0 (C) 20 (B) 1 (D)
13. The number of product terms in the minimized sum-of-product states) 1 0 0 1 (A) 2 (C) 4 0 d 0 0 0 0 d 0 (B) 3 (D) 5 1 0 1 1 expression obtained through the following K map is (where, d denotes dont care
18. In the system shown below, x( t) = (sin t) u( t) In steady-state, the response y( t) will be
x(t) 1 s+1 y(t)
Fig Q. 18
(A) (C)
1 1
p sin t - 4 2 2 e - t sin t
(B)
p sin t + 4 2
(D) sin t - cos t
19. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave propagation in the positive direction is given by $ x sin( wt - bz) + a $ y sin( wt - bz + p 2) E=a The wave is (A) Linearly polarized in the zdirection (B) Elliptically polarized (C) Left-hand circularly polarized (D) Right-hand circularly polarized
14. Let x( t) X ( jw) be Fourier Transform pair. The Fourier Transform of the signal x(5 t - 3) in terms of X ( jw) is given as (A) (C) 1 e 5
j 3w 5
jw X 5
(B) (D)
1 e 5
j 3w 5
jw X 5
1 - j 3w jw e X 5 5
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1 j 3w jw e X 5 5
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Chap 10.4
30. A two-port network is represented by ABCD, parameters given by V1 A I = C 1 B V2 D -I 2
34. In the figures shown below, assume that all the capacitors are initially uncharged. If vi ( t) = 10 u( t) Volts, vo( t)is given by
1k
If port 2 is terminated by the input impedance seen at port 1 is given by A + BRL ARL + C (A) (B) C + DRL BRL + D DRL + A (C) C + BRL ARL + B (D) D + CRL
+ Vi(t) 4 mF 4k 1 mF
+ VO(t) -
Fig. Q.34
(A) 8 e -0 .004 t Volts (C) 8 u( t) Volts
(B) 8(1 - e -0 .004 t ) Volts (D) 8 Volts
31. In the two port network shown in the figure below z12 and z 21 are respectively
I1 I2
35. Consider two transfer functions G1 ( s) = 1 s And G2 ( s) = 2 s 2 + as + b s + as + b
re
bI1
ro
The 3dB bandwidths of their frequency responses are, respectively (A) (C) a 2 - 4 b, a 2 - 4 b, a2 + 4 b a2 - 4 b (B) (D) a 2 + 4 b, a 2 + 4 b, a2 - 4 b a2 + 4 b
Fig Q.31
(A) re and bro (C) 0 and bro 32. The first and the
(B) 0 and -bro (D) re and -bro last critical frequencies
36. A negative resistance Rneg is connected to a passive network N having driving point impedance Z1 ( s) as shown below. For Z 2 ( s) to be positive real,
Rneg
(singularities) of a driving point impedance function of a passive network having two kinds of elements, are a pole and a zero respectively. The above property will be satisfied by (A) RL network only (B) RC network only (C) LC network only (D) RC as well as RL networks
N
Z2(s) Z1(s)
Fig Q.36
(A) Rneg Re Z1 ( jw), "w 33. A 2 mH inductor with some initial current can be represented as shown below, where s is the Lap lace Transform variable. The value of initial current is
Is 0.002s
(B) Rneg Z1 ( jw) , "w (D) Rneg Z1 ( jw), "w
(C) Rneg Im Z1 ( jw), "w
37. In the circuit shown below, the switch was connected to position 1 at t < 0 and at t = 0, it is changed to position 2. Assume that the diode has zero voltage drop and a storage time ts . For 0 < t ts , vR is given by (all in Volts)
1 2 5V 5V 1 kW + vR _
1 mV
Fig Q.33
(A) 0.5A (C) 1.0 A

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(B) 2.0A (D) 0.0 A

Fig Q.37
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(A) vR = -5 (C) 0 vR < 5
(B) vR = +5 (D) -5 vR < 0
The voltage VC across the capacitor at t = 1 is (A) 0 Volt (C) 9.45 Volts (B) 6.3 Volts (D) 10 Volts
38. The majority carriers in an ntype semiconductor have an average drift velocity v in a direction perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. The electric field E induced due to Hall effect acts in the direction. (A) v B (C) along v (B) B v (D) opposite to v
42. For the circuit shown below, assume that the zener diode is ideal with a breakdown voltage of 6 volts. The waveform observed across R is
6V + 12sin wt
39. Find the correct match between Group 1 and Group 2. Group 1 E-Varactor diode F-PIN diode G-Zener diode H-Schottky diode Group 2 1-Voltage reference 2-High frequency switch 3-Tuned circuits 4-Current controlled attenuator (B) E-2, F-4, G-1, H-3 (D) E-1, F-3, G-2, H-4 (B) (A)
~
6V
VR -
Fig Q.42
6V
(A) E-4, F-2, G-1, H-3 (C) E-3, F-4, G-1, H-2
40. A heavily doped n- type semiconductor has the following data: Hole-electron ratio Doping concentration Intrinsic concentration The ratio of :0.4 :4.2 108 atoms/m 3 :15 . 10 4 atoms/m 3 conductance of the n-type (D)
12 V
-12 V
semiconductor to that of the intrinsic semiconductor of same material and ate same temperature is given by (A) 0.00005 (C) 10,000 (B) 2,000 (D) 20,000 (C) 41. For the circuit shown in the following figure, the capacitor C is initially uncharged. At t = 0 the switch S is closed. In the figures shown the OP AMP is supplied with and the ground has been shown by the symbol
S 1 kW C=1 mF VC + vo
-6 V
-6 V
Q. 43 A new Binary Coded Pentary (BCP) number system is proposed in which every digit of a base5 number is represented by its corresponding 3bit binary code. For example, the base5 number 24 will be represented by its BCP code 010100. In this numbering system, the BCP code 10001001101 corresponds of the following number is base5 system
10 V
(A) 423
Fig Q.41
(B) 1324 (D) 4231

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(C) 2201
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44. An I / O peripheral device shown in Fig.(b) below is to be interfaced to an 8085 microprocessor. To select the I/O device in the I/O address range D4 H D7 H, its chipselect ( CS) should be connected to the output of the decoder shown in as below:
A2 A3 A4 LSB 3-to-8 Decoder MSB D0 D1 D2 D3 D4 D5 D6 D7 DATA IORD IOWR A1 A0 I/O Peripheral
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47. Two D flip flops, as shown below, are to be connected as a synchronous counter that goes through the following sequence 00 01 11 10 00 K
D0 Clock CK Q0 Q0 D1 CK Q1 Q1 MSB
A7 A6 A5
CS
Fig Q.44
(A) output 7 (C) output 2
(B) output 5 (D) output 0
45. For the circuit shown in figures below, two 4 bit parallel in serial out shift registers loaded with the data shown are used to feed the data to a full adder. Initially, all the flip flops are in clear state. After applying two clock pulses, the outputs of the full-adder should be
1 0 1 1
D CLK Q A S Full Adder B Ci Q CO D CLK
Fig Q.47
The inputs D0 and D1 respectively should be connected as, (A) Q1 and Q0 (C) Q1Q0 and Q1Q0 (B) Q0 and Q1 (D) Q1 Q0 and Q1Q0
48. Following is the segment of a 8085 assembly language program LXI SP, EFFF H CALL 3000 H : : : LXI H, 3CF4 PUSH PSW SPHL POP PSW RET
D CLK
3000 H
CLK
Fig Q.45
(A) S = 0 C0 = 0 (C) S = 1 C0 = 0
(B) S = 0 C0 = 1 (D) S = 1 C0 = 1 SP is (A) 3CF0 H (C) EFFD H

D3 D2 1 kW
46. A 4 bit D / A converter is connected to a free running 3 big UP counter, as shown in the following figure. Which of the following waveforms will be observed at VO ?
Q2
On completion of RET execution, the contents of (B) 3CF8 H (D) EFFF H
49. The point P in the following figure is stuck at 1.

vo
Clock
Q1 Q0 3 - Bit Counter
D1 D3 D/A Converter 1 kW
The output f will be

A B P f
Fig Q.46
Fig Q.49
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(A) (C)
p 2 p 4
(B) (D)
p 3 p 6
(C) RC <
1 wc
(D) RC >
1 wc
64. In the following figure the minimum value of the constant C , which is to be added to y1 ( t) and y2 ( t) such that y1 ( t) and y2 ( t) and are different, is
59. A linear system is described by the following state equation & ( t) = AX ( t) + BU ( t), A = 0 1 X -1 0 The state transition matrix of the system is cos t (A) - sin t sin t cos t sin t - cos t (B) sin t cos t - cos t - sin t (D) sin t cos t
Q is quantizer with L levels, stepwise D allowable signal dynamic range [-V, V] x(t) with range -V , V 2 2
y1(t)
Q
C
y2(t)
Fig Q.64
- cos t - sin t (C) cos t - sin t
(A) D (C) D2 12
(B) (D)
D 2 D L
60. The minimum step- size required for a Delta Modulator operating at 32 K , samples/sec to track the signal (here u( t) is the unit function) x( t) = 125 t( u( t) - u( t - 1)(250 - 125 t)( u( t - 1) - u( t - 2)) So that slope overload is avoided, would be (A) 2
-10
(B) 2 -8 (D) 2 -4
65. A message signal with 10 kHz bandwidth is lower side Band SSB modulated with carrier fc1 = 106 Hz frequency the resulting signal is then passed through a Narow Band Frequency Modulator with carrier frequency fc 2 = 10 9 Hz. The bandwidth of the output would be (A) 4 10 4 Hz (C) 2 10 9 Hz (B) 2 106 Hz (D) 2 1010 Hz
(C) 2 -6
61. A zero mean white Gaussian noise is passed through an ideal lowpass filter of bandwidth 10 kHz. The output is then uniformly sampled with sampling period ts = 0.03 msec. The samples so obtained would be (A) correlated (C) uncorrelated (B) statistically independent (E) orthogonal
62. A source generates three symbols with probabilities 0.25, 0.25, 0.50 at a rate of 3000 symbols per second. Assuming independent generation of symbols, the most efficient source encoder would have average bit rate as (A) 6000 bits/sec (C) 3000 bits/sec (B) 4500 bits/sec (D) 1500 bits/sec
66. A medium of relative permitivity e r 2 = 2 forms an interface with free space. A point source of electromagnetic energy is located in the medium at a depth of 1 meter from the interface. Due to the total internal reflection, the transmitted beam has a circular cross-section over the interface. The area of the beam cross-section at the interface is given by (A) 2 p m 2 (C)
p 2
(B) p2 m 2 (D) p m 2
m2
63. The diagonal clipping in Amplitude Demodulation (using envelope detector) can be avoided if RC time constant of the envelope detector satisfies the following condition, (here W is message bandwidth and wc is carrier frequency both in rad /sec) (A) RC < 1 W (B) RC > 1 W
67. A medium is divide into regions I and II about x = 0 plane, as shown in the figure below. An electromagnetic $ x + 3a $ y + 5a $ z is incident wave with electric field E1 = 4 a normally on the interface from region I. The electric file E2 in region II at the interface is
Region I m1=mo er1=4 s1=0 E1 x<0 Region II m2=mo er2=4 s2=0 E2
Fig Q.67
x=0
x>0
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(A) E2 = E1 $ x + 3a $ y + 5a $z (C) 3a
$ x + 0.75 a $ y - 125 $z (B) 4 a . a $ x + 3a $ y + 5a $z (D) -3a
72. If bDC is increase by 10%, the collector to- emitter voltage drop (A) increases by less than or equal to 10% (B) decreases by less than or equal to 10% (C) increases by more than 10% (D) decreases by more than 10% 73. The small signal gain of the amplifier vc vs is (A) 10 (B) 5.3 (D) 10 (C) 5.3
68. When a planes wave traveling in free-space is incident normally on a medium having the fraction of power transmitted into the medium is given by (A) 8/9 (C) 1/3 (B) 1/2 (D) 5/6
69. A rectangular wave guide having TE10 mode as dominant mode is having a cut off frequency 18-GHz for the mode TE30 . The inner broad wall dimension of the rectangular wave guide is (A) 5/3cms (C) 5/2 cms (B) 5 cms (D) 10 cms
Common Data for Question 74, 75 : Let g( t) = p( t)* p( t) where * denotes convolution and p( t) = u( t) - u( t - 1) with u( t) being the unit step function. 74. The impulse response of filter matched to the signal s( t) = g( t) - d( t - 2)* g( t) is given as: (A) s(1 - t) (C) -s( t) (B) -s(1 - t) (D) s( t)
70. A mast antenna consisting of a 50 meter long vertical conductor operates over a perfectly conducting ground plane. It is base-fed at a frequency of 600 kHz. The radiation resistance of the antenna in Ohms is 2 p2 (A) 5 (C) 4 p2 5 p2 (B) 5 (D) 20 p2
75. An Amplitude Modulated signal is given as x AM = 100( p( t) + 0.5 g( t)) cos wc t In the interval. One set of possible values of the modulating signal and modulation index would be (A) t, 0.5 (C) t, 2.0 following Linked Answer Question : Q.75 to Q.85 carry two marks each. Statement of Linked Answer Question 76 & 77: A regulated power supply, shown in figure below, has an unregulated input (UR) of 15 volts and generates a regulated output Use the component values shown in the figure.
Q1 15 V (UR) + 1 kW 10 kW 12 kW vo
Common Data for Question 71,72,73: In the transistor amplifier circuit show in the figure below, the transistor has the parameters: bDC = 60, VBE = 0.7 V, hie , hfe The capacitance can be assumed to be infinite.
12 V 1 kW + vC
(B) t, 10 . (D) t 2 , 0.5
53 kW 5.3 kW
vS
CC
Fig Q.70
71. Under the DC conditions, the collector to- emitter voltage drop is (A) 4.8 Volts (C) 6.0 Volts
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(B) 5.3 Volts (D) 6.6 Volts
6V
24 kW
Fig Q.76
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take 400 m s for an electromagnetic wave to travel from source end to load end and vice versa. At t = 400 m s, the voltage at the load end is found to be 40 volts. 84. The load resistance is (A) 25 Ohms (C) 75 Ohms (B) 50 Ohms (D) 100 Ohms 11. D 16. D 85. The steady state current through the load resistance is (A) 1.2 Amps (C) 0.6 Amps (B) 0.3 Amps (D) 0.4 Amps 21. A 26. C 31. B 36. B
***********
ANSWER
1. C 6. B 2. D 7. C 12. D 17.D 22. B 27. A 32. B 37. D 42. B 47. A 52. B 57. C 62. B 67. C 72. B 77. B 82. C 3. A 8. B 13. A 18. A 23. D 28. C 33. A 38. A 43. D 48. B 53. C 58. D 63. D 68. A 73. A 78. A 83.C 4. C 9. A 14. A 19. C 24. C 29. A 34. B 39. C 44. B 49. D 54. B 59.A 64. C 69. C 74. D 79. 84. 5. A 10 .B 15. D 20. A 25. D 30. D 35. B 40. D 45. D 50. B 55. D 60. B 65. B 70. A 75. A 80. C 85.
41. D 46. B 51. C 56. B 61. B 66. D 71. C 76. C 81. B
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CHAPTER
10.7
EC-09
Q.1 - Q. 20 carry one mark each. 1. The order of the differential equation d 2 y dy 4 -1 + + y = e is dr 2 dt (A) 1 (C) 3 (B) 2 (D) 4 (A) 220 J (C) 13.2 kJ
3
12 V
10 V
0
10 min
(B) 12 kJ (D) 14.4 kJ
2. The Fourier series of a real periodic function has only P. Q. R. S. Cosine terms if it is even sine terms if it is even cosine terms if it is odd sine terms if it is odd
5. In an n-type silicon crystal at room temperature, which of the following can have a concentration of 4 1019 cm-3? (A) Silicon atoms (C) Dopant atoms (B) Holes (D) Valence electrons
Which of the above statements are correct? (A) P and S (C) Q and S (B) P and R (D) Q and R
2
6. The full forms of the abbreviations TTL and CMOS in reference to logic families are (A) Triple Transistor Logic and Chip Metal Oxide Semiconductor (B) Tristate Transistor Logic and Chip Metal Oxide Semiconductor (C) Transistor Transistor Logic and Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (D) Tristate Transistor Logic and Complementary Metal Oxide Silicon 7. The ROC of Z-transform of the discrete time sequence 1 1 x( n) = u( n) - u( -n - 1) is 3 2 1 1 1 (B) z > (A) < z < 3 2 2
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p n
3. A function is given by f ( t) = sin t + cos 2 t. Which of the following is true ? (A) f has frequency components at 0 and 1 / 2 p Hz (B) f has frequency components at 0 and 1 / p Hz (C) f has frequency components at 1 / 2 p and 1 / p Hz (D) f has frequency components at 0.1 / 2 p and 1 / p Hz 4. A fully charged mobile phone with a 12 V battery is good for a 10 minute talk-time. Assume that, during the talk-time, the battery delivers a constant current of 2 A and its voltage drops linearly from 12 V to 10 V as shown in the figure. How much energy does the battery deliver during this talk-time ?
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(C) z <
1 3
(D) 2 < z < 3
11. A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What is the probability that ONLY the first two tosses will yield heads ? 1 (A) 2 1 (C) 2
2
8. The magnitude plot of a rational transfer function G( s) with real coefficients is shown below. Which of the following compensators has such a magnitude plot ?
20 dB
(B)
10
1 C2 2
10
(D)
10
1 C2 2
10
12. If the power spectral density of stationary random process is a sinc-squared function of frequency, the
- 40 dB
shape of its autocorrelation is

(A) (B)
(A) Lead compensator (B) Lag compensator (C) PID compensator| (D) Lead-lag compensator 9. A white noise process X ( t) with two-sided power spectral density 1 10 -10 W/Hz is input to a filter whose magnitude squared response is shown below.
1
(C)
(D)
-10 kHz
10 kHz
13. If f ( z) = c0 + c1 z -1 , then (A) 2 pc1
1 + f ( z) dz is given by z unit circle
(B) 2 p(1 + c0 ) (D) 2 pj(1 + c0 )
The power of the output process Y ( t) is given by (A) 5 10 -7 W (C) 2 10 -6 W (B) 1 10 -6 W (D) 1 10 -5 W
(C) 2 pjc1
14. In the interconnection of ideal sources shown in the figure, it is known that the 60 V source is absorbing power. Which of the following can be the value of the current source I ?
20 V
10. Which of the following statements is true regarding the fundamental mode of the metallic waveguides shown ?
.P: Coaxial
Q: Cylindrical
I 60 V
R: Rectangular
12 A
(A) Only P has no cutoff-frequency (B) Only Q has no cutoff-frequency (C) Only R has no cutoff-frequency (D) All three have cut-off frequencies (A) 10 A (C) 15 A (B) 13 A (D) 18 A
15. The ratio of the mobility to the diffusion coefficient in a semiconductor has the units
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(A) V -1 (C) V . cm
-1
(B) cm. V -1 (D) V . s
20. Two infinitely long wires carrying current are as shown in the figure below. One wire is in the y - z plane and parallel to the y -axis. The other wire is in the x - y plane and parallel to the x -axis. Which components of the resulting magnetic field are non-zero at the origin ?
z 1A
16. In a microprocessor, the service routine for a certain interrupt starts from a fixed location of memory which cannot be externally set, but the interrupt can be delayed or rejected Such an interrupt is (A) non-maskable and non-vectored (B) maskable and non-vectored (C) non-maskable and vectored (D) maskable and vectored 17. If the transfer function of the following network is V0 ( s) 1 the value of the load resistance RL is = Vi ( s) 2 + sCR
+ +
1A x
(A) x, y, z components (C) y, z components
(B) x, y components (D) x, z components
Q. 21 to Q. 60 carry two marks each.

21. Consider two independent random variables X and Y with identical distributions. The variables X and Y 1 1 1 take values 0, 1 and 2 with probabilities , and 2 4 4 respectively. What is the conditional probability P ( X + Y = 2 X - Y = 0) ? (A) 0 (C) 1 6 (B) 1 16
(A) R/4 (C) R 18. Consider the system
(B) R/2 (D) 2 R 1 0 dx = Ax + Bu with A = dt 0 1
p and B = where p and q are arbitrary real numbers. q Which of the following statements about the controllability of the system is true ? (A) The system is completely state controllable for any nonzero values of p and q (B) Only p = 0 and q = 0 result in controllability (C) The system is uncontrollable for all values of p and q (D) We cannot conclude about controllability from the given data 19. For a message signal m( t) = cos(2 pfm t) and carrier of frequency fc , which of the following represents a single side-band (SSB) signal ? (A) cos(2 pfm t) cos(2 pfc t) (B) cos(2 pfc t) (C) cos[2 p( fc + fm ) t ] (D) [1 + cos(2 pfm t) cos(2 pfc t)]
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(D) 1 sin x at x = p is given x-p ( x - p) 2 +... 3! ( x - p) 2 +... 3!
22. The Taylor series expansion of by (A) 1 + (C) 1 ( x - p) 2 +... 3! ( x - p) 2 +... 3!
(B) -1 (D) -1 +
23. If a vector field V is related to another vector field A through V = A, which of the following is true? Note : C and SC refer to any closed contour and any surface whose boundary is C. (A)

V . dl = A. dS
C SC C SC
(B)
A. dl = V . dS
C SC C SC
(C) V . dl = A. dS
(D) A. dl = V . dS
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24. Given that F ( s) is the one-sided Laplace transform of f ( t), the Laplace transform of (A) sF ( s) - f (0) (C) (B)
f ( t) dt is
100 V
1 F ( s) s
F ( t) dt
1 (D) [ F ( s) - f (0)] s (A) 0.2 e -125t u( t) mA (C) 0.2 e -1250 t u( t) mA (B) 20 e -1250 t u( t) mA (D) 20 e -1000 t u( t) mA
25. Match each differential equation in Group I to its family of solution curves from Group II. Group 1 dy y = dx x dy y =dx x dy x = dx y dy x =dx y Group II 1. Circles 2. Straight lines 3. Hyperbolas
P. Q. R. S.
29. In the circuit shown, what value of RL maximizes the power delivered to RL ?
100 V
(A) P - 2, Q - 3, R - 3, S - 1 (B) P - 1, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 1 (C) P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3, S - 3 (D) P - 3, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 2 26. The eigen values of the following matrix are -1 3 5 -3 -1 6 0 0 3 (A) 3, 3 + 5 j, 6 - j (C) 3 + j, 3 - j, 5 + j (B) -6 + 5 j, 3 + j, 3 - j (D) 3, - 1 + 3 j, - 1 - 3 j (A) 2.4 W (C) 4 W (B) 8 W 3
(D) 6 W
30. The time domain behavior of an RL circuit is represented by di + Ri= V0 (1 + Be - Rt / L sin t) u( t). dt V For an initial current of i(0) = 0 , the steady state R value of the current is given by V 2 V0 (B) i( t) (A) i( t) 0 R R L (C) i( t) V0 (1 + B) R (D) i( t) 2 V0 (1 + B) R
27. An AC source of RMS voltage 20 V with internal impedance Z s = (1 + 2 j)W feeds a load of impedance Z L = (7 + 4 j)W in the figure below. The reactive power consumed by the load is
31. In the circuit below, the diode is ideal. The voltage V is given by
1A
(A) 8 VAR (C) 28 VAR
(B) 16 VAR| (D) 32 VAR (A) min( Vi ,1) (C) min( -Vi ,1) (B) max( Vi 1) (C) max( -Vi ,1)
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28. The switch in the circuit shown was on position a for a long time, and is move to position b at time t = 0. The current i( t) for t > 0 is given by
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(A) NAND: first (0,1) then (0,1) NOR: first (1,0) then (0,0) (B) NAND: first (1,0) then (1,0) NOR: first (1,0) then (1,0) (C) NAND: first (1,0) then (1,0) NOR: first (1,0) then (0,0) (D) NAND: first (1,0) then (1,1) NOR: first (0,1) then (0,1) 39. What are the counting states (Q1 , Q2 ) for the counter shown in the figure below?
Q Q Q
A) Causal, LP (C) BIBO, Causal, LTI
(B) BIBO, LTI (D) LP, LTI
42. The 4-point Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) of a discrete time sequence {1,0,2,3} is (A) [0,-2+2j,2,-2-2j] (C) [6,1-3j,2,1+3j] (B) [2,2+2j,6,2-2j] (D) [6-1+3j,0,-1,-3j]
Clock
JK Flip Flop
JK Flip Flop
43. The feedback configuration and the pole-zero locations of G( s) = s2 - 2 s + 2 are shown below. The root s2 + 2 s + 2
(A) 11, 10, 00, 11, 10,... (C) 00, 11, 01, 10, 00,...
(B) 01, 10, 11, 00, 01,... (D) 01, 10, 00, 01, 10,...
locus for negative values of k, i.e. for - < k < 0, has breakaway/break-in points and angle of departure at pole P (with respect to the positive real axis) equal to
Im (s) + + k G(s) O X Re (s) Q P
40. A system with transfer function H ( z) has impulse response h(.) defined as h(2) = 1, h( 3) = -1 and h( k) = 0 otherwise. Consider the following statements. S1: H ( z) is a low-pass filter. S2: H ( z) is an FIR filter. Which of the following is correct? (A) Only S2 is true (B) Both S1 and S2 are false (C) Both S1 and S2 are true, and S2 is a reason for S1 (D) Both S1 and S2 are true, but S2 is not a reason for S1 41. Consider a system whose input x and output y are related by the equation y( t)= x( t - t) h(2 t) dt
-
(A) 2 and 0 (C) 3 and 0
(B) 2 and 45 (D) 3 and 45 s2 + 1 s2 + 2 s + 1
44. An LTI system having transfer function
and input x( t) = sin( t + 1) is in steady state. The output is sampled at a rate ws rad/s to obtain the final output { x( k)}. Which of the following is true? (A) y(.) is zero for all sampling frequencies ws (B) y(.) is nonzero for all sampling frequencies ws (C) y(.) is nonzero for ws > 2, but zero for ws < 2 (D) y(.) is zero for ws > 2, but nonzero for w2 < 2 45. The unit step response of an under-damped second
where h( t) is shown in the graph. Which of the following four properties are
order system has steady state value of -2. Which one of the following transfer functions has these properties ? -2.24 -3.82 (A) 2 (B) 2 s + 2.59 s + 112 . s + 191 . s + 191 . (C) -2.24 s - 2.59 s + 112 .
2
possessed by the system ? BIBO: Bounded input gives a bounded output. Causal: The system is causal, LP: The system is low pass. LTI: The system is linear and time-invariant.
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(D)
-382 s - 191 . s + 191 .

2
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46. A discrete random variable X takes values from 1 to 5 with probabilities as shown in the table. A student calculates the mean of X as 3.5 and her teacher calculates the variance of X as 1.5. Which of the following statements is true ? k P ( X = k) 1 0.1 2 0.2 3 0.4 4 0.2 5 0.1
(D) j =
$ 1 B0 z 2 , r 0 2 m0 x + y
50. A transmission line terminates in two branches, each of length l / 4, as shown. The branches are terminated by 50W loads. The lines are lossless and have the characteristic impedances shown. Determine the impedance Z i as seen by the source.
(A) Both the student and the teacher are right (B) Both the student and the teacher are wrong (C) The student is wrong but the teacher is right (D) The student is right but the teacher is wrong Q. 47 A message signal given by 1 1 1n( t)= cos w1 t - sin w2 t 2 2 is amplitude-modulated with a carrier of frequency wc to generate s( t)= [1 + m( t)]cos wc t What is the power efficiency achieved by this modulation scheme ? (A) 8.33% (C) 20% (B) 11.11% (D) 25% (A) 200W (C) 50W Common Date Questions Common Date for Questions 51 and 52: Consider a silicon p-n junction at room (B) 100W (D) 25W
temperature having the following parameters: Doping on the n-side = 1 1017 cm -3 Depletion width on the n-side = 0.1 mm Depletion width on the p-side = 10 . mm Intrinsic carrier concentration = 1.4 1010 cm -3 Thermal voltage = 26 mV Permittivity of free space = 8.85 10 -14 F.cm -1 Dielectric constant of silicon = 12 51 The built-in potential of the junction (A) is 0.70 V (B) is 0.76 V (C) is 0.82 (D) cannot be estimated from the data given 52. The peak electric field in the device is (A) 0.15 MV . cm -1 , directed from p-region to n-region (B) 0.15 MV . cm -1 , directed from n-region to p-region (C) 1.80 MV . cm -1 , directed from p-region to n-region (D) 1.80 MV . cm -1 , directed from n-region to p-region Common Data for Questions 53 and 54:
48. A communication channel with AWGN operating at a signal to noise ratio SNR >> 1 and bandwidth B has capacity C1 . If the SNR is doubled keeping B constant, the resulting capacity C2 is given by (A) C2 = 2 C1 (C) C2 = C1 + 2 B (B) C2 = C1 + B (D) C2 = C1 + 0.3B
49. A magnetic field in air is measured to be

x y $- 2 $ B= B0 x 2 x2 + y2 y x +y
What current distribution leads to this field ? [ Hint : The algebra is trivial in cylindrical coordinates.] (A) j =

$ 1 B0 z 2 , r 0 2 m0 x + y $ 2 B0 z 2 m 0 x + y2 , r 0
(B) j =
(C) j = 0, r 0
Page 668
EC-09
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Chap 10.7
The Nyquist plot of a stable transfer function G( s) is shown in the figure. We are interested in the stability of the closed loop system in the feedback configuration shown.
Im
Consider the CMOS circuit shown, where the gate voltage VG of the n-MOSFET is increased from zero, while the gate voltage of the p-MOSFET is kept constant at 3 V. Assume that, for both transistors, the magnitude of the threshold voltage is 1 V and the product of the trans-conductance parameter and the (W/L) ratio, i.e. the quantity mCax (W / L), is 1 mA . V -2 .
+ -1-0.5 -j Re
+ -
G(s)
53. Which of the following statements is true? (A) G( s) is an all-pass filter (B) G( s) has a zero in the right-half plane (C) G( s) is the impedance of a passive network (D) G( s) is marginally stable 54. The gain and phase margins of G( s) for closed loop stability are (A) 6 dB and 180 (C) 6 dB and 90 (B) 3 dB and 180 (D) 3 dB and 90 57. For small increase in VG beyond 1 V, which of the following gives the correct description of the region of operation of each MOSFET ? (A) Both the MOSFETs are in saturation region (B) Both the MOSFETs are in triode region (C) n-MOSFET is in triode and p-MOSFET is in saturation region (D) n-MOSFET is in saturation and p-MOSFET is in triode region.
Common Data for Questions 55 and 56: The amplitude of a random signal is uniformly distributed between -5 V and 5 V. 55. If the signal to quantization noise ratio required in uniformly quantizing the signal is 43.5 dB, the step size of the quantization is approximately (A) 0.0333 V (C) 0.0667 V (B) 0.05 V (D) 0.10 V
58. Estimate the output voltage V0 for VG = 15 . V. [Hint : Use the appropriate current-voltage equation for each MOSFET, based on the anser to Q. 57.] Statement for Linked Answer Questions 59 and 60:
56. If the positive values of the signal are uniformly quantized with a step size of 0.05 V, and the negative values are uniformly quantized with a step size of 0.1 V, the resulting signal to quantization noise ratio is approximately (A) 46 dB (C) 42 dB Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 57 and 58 : 5'. If both P1 and P2 are pressed, 'E' is displayed, signifying 'Error'.
Two products are sold from a vending machine, which has two push buttons P1 and P2 . When a button is pressed, the price of the corresponding product is displayed in a 7-segment display.
(B) 43.8 dB (D) 40 dB
If no buttons are pressed, '0' is displayed, signifying 'Rs. 0'. If only P1 is pressed, '2' is displayed, signifying 'Rs. 2'. If only P2 is pressed, '5' is displayed, signifying 'Rs.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

Electronics & Communication Engineering

NODIA & COMAPNY

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electrons by a charging scheme. The charge on (B) -160.2 C (D) -16.02 C

the sphere is (A) 160.2 C (C) 16.02 C

(B) 120 V (D) 30 V

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Fig. P1.1.12 Fig. P.1.1.8

(A) -30 V (C) -20 V

(A) -11 V (C) 8 V

9. For the circuit shown in fig P.1.1.9 the value of voltage vo is

13. The voltage vo in fig. P1.1.11 is always equal to

Fig. P1.1.11 Fig. P.1.1.9

(B) 5 V (D) None of the above

(A) 10 V (C) 20 V 10. R1 = ?

(B) 15 V (D) None of the above

(A) 11.86 W (C) 25 W 15. vs = ?

(B) 10 W (D) 11.18 W

(A) 25 W (C) 100 W

(B) 50 W (D) 2000 W

6 W 5 (A) 320 V (C) 240 V

(B) 280 V (D) 200 V

(A) 18.4 m W (C) 16.6 m W

(B) 9.2 m W (D) 8.3 m W (A) 15.4 V (C) -2.6 V

(B) 2.6 V (D) 15.4 V

29. In the circuit of fig. P.1.1.29 power is delivered by

(A) 2 W (C) 6 W 27. vo = ?

(B) 4 W (D) 8 W (A) delivers 80 W (C) absorbs 40 W

(B) delivers 40 W (D) absorbs 80 W

31. In the circuit of fig. P.1.1.31 dependent source

(A) 6 V (C) -12 V

(B) -6 V (D) 12 V (A) supplies 16 W (C) supplies 32 W

(B) absorbs 16 W (D) absorbs 32 W

(B) 0.05 J J (D) 10 10

(A) 3.5 m F (C) 2.4 m F

(B) 1.2 m F (D) 2.6 m F

38. In the circuit shown in fig. P.1.1.38

iin ( t) = 300 sin 20 t mA, for t 0.

4. (B) W = Qv = 360 J 6. (A)

12. (C) If we go from +side of 1 kW through 7 V, 6 V and 5 V, we get v1 = 7 + 6 - 5 = 8 V

10 + 5 + E + 1 = 0 or E = -16 V 8. (D) 100 = 65 + v2

Req = 125 = 1118 . W

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2 31. (D) Power P = vi = 2 ix ix = 2 ix

ix = 4 A, P = 32 W (absorb) 32. (D) vt 2 - vt1 = 1 C

C = 1.67 mF 41. (D) V = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10, Q = 1 C, C = di dt 200m 4m

1 33. (B) E = Cv 2 = 5 10 -6 100 2 = 0.05 J 2 1 34. (D) vc = c

10 10 idt = (2 10 -3) = 0.2 V 10 -6 100 0

di = 0.01 2( 377 cos 377 t) V dt

For 0 < t < 1 , C