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    Peterson’s TACHS and HSPT Exams Skills & Drills Workbook
    Peterson’s TACHS and HSPT Exams Skills & Drills Workbook
    Peterson’s TACHS and HSPT Exams Skills & Drills Workbook
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    Peterson’s TACHS and HSPT Exams Skills & Drills Workbook

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    About this ebook

    Peterson’s® TACHS and HSPT® Exams Skills & Drill Workbook is a no-nonsense study aid filled with more than 1,000 practice questions designed to prepare eighth-grade students for the TACHS and HSPT® exams. When earning a high score is key to getting into the Catholic high school of your choice, targeted practice is the key to success. Filled with questions reflecting the most recent versions of these high-stakes tests, Peterson’s® TACHS and HSPT® Exams Skills & Drills Workbook not only helps you focus on the concepts covered but also familiarizes you with the question types you will encounter on the tests.

    Used on its own or as a companion to Peterson’s® Master the™ Catholic Entrance Exams, the TACHS and HSPT® Exams Skills and Drills Workbook will give you the practice you need to get into the Catholic high school of your choice!

  • More than 1,000 test-like practice questions with comprehensive answer explanations
  • Diagnostic test to identify your strengths and weaknesses so you can focus on the topics that need attention
  • Bonus glossary and synonym/antonym list to help prepare you for the language arts test sections
    • LanguageEnglish
    PublisherPeterson's
    Release dateOct 1, 2020
    ISBN9780768945508
    Peterson’s TACHS and HSPT Exams Skills & Drills Workbook

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      Peterson’s TACHS and HSPT Exams Skills & Drills Workbook - Peterson's

      Chapter 1

      Diagnostic Test

      Appendix Alert

      The answer sheet for the diagnostic test is located in Appendix C, on page 511.

      75 Questions—Untimed

      This diagnostic test contains questions that reflect the subjects and styles of the questions presented on the TACHS and HSPT exams. Although the test is divided by subject matter, the sections are not individually timed. After taking and grading this test, refer to the scoring grid to help you determine on which areas you need to focus.

      Reading

      Comprehension

      Directions: Read the passage carefully. Then mark one answer on your answer sheet—the answer you think is best—for each item.

      Questions 1–8 refer to the following passage.

      ¹Many people do not realize that plants are alive. This mistake is due ³to the fact that ²plants are not so noisy and quick in their ways as animals, and therefore do not attract so much attention to themselves, their lives, and their occupations.

      ⁴When we look at a sunflower, surrounded by its leaves and standing still and upright ⁵in the sunlight, we do not realize at first that it is doing work; we do not connect the ⁶idea of work with such a thing of beauty, but look on it as we should on a picture or a ⁷statue. Yet all the time that plant is not only living its own life, but is doing work of a ⁸kind which animals cannot do. Its green leaves in the light are manufacturing food for ⁹the whole plant out of such simple materials that an animal could not use them at all ¹⁰as food. Even its beautiful flower is creating and building up the seeds which will form ¹¹the sunflowers of the future. All animals directly or indirectly make use of the work ¹²done by plants in manufacturing food, for they either live on plants themselves, or eat ¹³other animals which do so.

      ¹⁴Plants are living, and therefore require food of some kind as well as air and water in ¹⁵the same way, and for the same purposes as do animals. As a rule, we cannot see them ¹⁶breathing and eating, but that is because we do not look in the right way. In our study ¹⁷of plants we must first learn how to see and question them properly, and when we have ¹⁸done this they will show themselves to us and tell us stories of their lives which are quite ¹⁹as interesting as any animal stories.

      —Excerpt from The Study of Plant Life, by M. C. Stopes

      1.  Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

      A.  How to Grow Sunflowers

      B.  Those Lively Plants

      C.  Plants and Animals: A Study in Contrasts

      D.  All Living Things

      2.  The purpose of the flower part of a sunflower plant is to

      A.  generate seeds.

      B.  manufacture food.

      C.  feed animals.

      D.  take in oxygen.

      3.  According to the passage, what effect does sunlight have on plants?

      A.  It keeps them warm.

      B.  It makes them edible.

      C.  It nourishes them.

      D.  It makes plants reproduce.

      4.  Based on the passage, some people do not realize plants are living because

      A.  plants are too perfect to seem alive.

      B.  plants actually are not alive.

      C.  plants perform all of their work below the soil.

      D.  plants perform work that cannot be observed easily.

      5.  What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage?

      A.  To convince the reader that plants are alive and hardworking

      B.  To prove that plants and animals are very similar

      C.  To show why some animals eat plants

      D.  To prove that people cannot live without plants

      6.  The word occupations, as underlined and used in this passage, most nearly means

      A.  employments.

      B.  activities.

      C.  games.

      D.  possesses.

      7.  After reading this passage, a person who takes its advice is most likely to

      A.  learn how to observe plants.

      B.  stop eating plants.

      C.  grow a garden.

      D.  write a book about plants.

      8.  In what way are plants and art alike?

      A.  They are both immobile.

      B.  They are both beautiful.

      C.  They are both easily observed.

      D.  They are both open to interpretation.

      Questions 9–12 refer to the following passage.

      ¹As in the United States today, ancient Athens had courts where a wrong might be ²righted. Since any citizen might accuse another of a crime, the Athenian courts of law ³were very busy.

      ⁴At a trial, both the accuser and the person accused were allowed a certain time to ⁵speak. The length of time was marked by a water clock. Free men testified under oath ⁶as they do today, but the oath of a slave was counted as worthless.

      ⁷To judge a trial, a jury was chosen from the members of the assembly who had reached 30 years of age. The Athenian juries were very large, often consisting of 201, 401, ⁸501, 1,001, or more men, depending upon the importance of the case being tried. Each ⁹juryman gave his decision by depositing a white or black stone in a box. To keep citizens ¹⁰from being too careless in accusing each other, there was a rule that if the person accused ¹¹did not receive a certain number of negative votes, the accuser was condemned instead.

      9.  Which title best fits this passage?

      A.  Athens and the United States

      B.  Justice in Ancient Athens

      C.  Testifying Under Oath

      D.  The Duties of Juries

      10.  People in Athens were frequently on trial in a court of law because

      A.  they liked to serve on juries.

      B.  a juryman agreed to listen to both sides.

      C.  any person might accuse another of a crime.

      D.  the slaves were troublesome.

      11.  An Athenian was likely to avoid accusing another without a good reason because

      A.  the jury might condemn the accuser instead of the accused.

      B.  the jury might be very large.

      C.  cases were judged by men over 30 years old.

      D.  there was a limit on the time a trial could take.

      12.  Which statement is true according to the selection?

      A.  An accused person was denied the privilege of telling his side of the case.

      B.  The importance of the case determined the number of jurors.

      C.  A jury’s decision was handed down in writing.

      D.  A citizen had to appear in court every few years.

      Questions 13–15 refer to the following passage.

      ¹The Tribe of Goats sent a message to the Tribe of Leopards, saying, Let us have a ²Wrestling Match, in an effort to see which is the stronger. Then Leopard took counsel ³with his Tribe, This Tribe of Goats! I do not see that they have any strength. Let us ⁴agree to the contest; for, they can do nothing to me.

      ⁵So, the Goat Tribe gathered all together; and ⁶the Leopard Tribe all together; and they met in a street of a town, to engage in the drumming and dancing and singing⁷ usually preceding such contests.

      ⁸For the wrestling, they joined in thirty pairs, one from each tribe. The first pair ⁹wrestled; and the representative of the Leopards was overcome and thrown to the ground.¹⁰ Another pair joined; and again the Leopard champion was overcome. A third pair joined ¹¹and wrestled, contesting desperately; the Leopard in shame, and the Goat in exultation. ¹²Again the Leopard was overcome.

      ¹³There was, during all this time, drumming by the adherents of both parties. The ¹⁴Leopard drum was now beaten fiercely to encourage their side, as they had already been ¹⁵overcome three times in succession.

      ¹⁶Then, on the fourth effort, the Leopard succeeded in overcoming. Again a pair ¹⁷fought; and Leopard overcame a second time. The sixth pair joined; and Leopard said, ¹⁸Today we wrestle to settle that doubt as to which of us is the stronger.

      ¹⁹So, pair after pair wrestled, until all of the thirty arranged pairs had contested. Of ²⁰these, the Leopard Tribe were victors ten times; and the Goat Tribe twenty times.

      ²¹Then the Leopard Tribe said, We are ashamed that the report should go out among ²²all the animals that we beat only ten times, and the Tomba [Goats] twenty times. So, ²³we will not stay any longer here, with their and our towns near together, for they knew ²⁴that their Leopard Tribe would always be angry when they should see a company of ²⁵Goats passing, remembering how often they were beaten. So, they moved away into the ²⁶forest distant from their hated rivals. In their cherished anger at being beaten, and to ²⁷cover their shame, Leopard attacks a Goat when he meets him alone, or any other single ²⁸beast known to be friendly to the Goats, e.g., Oxen or Antelopes.

      —Excerpt from Where Animals Talk, by Robert Hamill Nassau

      13.  Which of the following best describes the Leopard Tribe?

      A.  They are extremely dignified.

      B.  They are sore losers.

      C.  They are very generous.

      D.  They are frustrated but understanding.

      14.  Which literary technique is used throughout the passage?

      A.  allusion

      B.  metaphor

      C.  foreshadowing

      D.  personification

      15.  The main irony of this passage is that

      A.  leopards are usually considered to be fiercer than goats.

      B.  no goat has ever defeated a leopard in real life.

      C.  the leopards seem as though they will win at first, but the goats win in the end.

      D.  the goats seem angrier than the leopards, but the leopards act out of anger in the end.

      Vocabulary

      Directions: For questions 16–20, choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.

      16.  an arid climate

      A.  moist

      B.  uncomfortable

      C.  dry

      D.  sweltering

      17.  a consummated business deal

      A.  troubled

      B.  postponed

      C.  forced

      D.  completed

      18.  a tentative agreement

      A.  assured

      B.  beneficial

      C.  planned

      D.  uncertain

      19.  a heinous man

      A.  attractive

      B.  intellectual

      C.  calculating

      D.  evil

      20.  a sedentary lifestyle

      A.  busy

      B.  inactive

      C.  exciting

      D.  creative

      Verbal Skills

      Directions: For questions 21–35, choose the best answer and mark the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.

      21.  Knife is to cut as razor is to

      A.  shave.

      B.  stubble.

      C.  blade.

      D.  smooth.

      22.  Sand is to beach as grass is to

      A.  green.

      B.  grain.

      C.  lawn.

      D.  plant.

      23.  Exhausted is to energized as upset is to

      A.  distraught.

      B.  careless.

      C.  excited.

      D.  soothed.

      24.  Belt is to waist as tie is to

      A.  pants.

      B.  neck.

      C.  collar.

      D.  bow.

      25.  Liana is smarter than Merry. Merry is smarter than Darius. Darius is smarter than Liara. If the first two statements are true, the third is

      A.  true.

      B.  false.

      C.  uncertain.

      26.  Grant has black hair. Sarah has black hair. All of the kids on Grant’s soccer team have black hair. If the first two statements are true, the third is

      A.  true.

      B.  false.

      C.  uncertain.

      27.  Aria has more berries than Drue. Yoko has fewer berries than Drue. Aria has more berries than Yoko. If the first two statements are true, the third is

      A.  true.

      B.  false.

      C.  uncertain.

      28.  A superfluous detail is

      A.  important.

      B.  long.

      C.  beautiful.

      D.  unnecessary.

      29.  Transient means the opposite of

      A.  permanent.

      B.  temporary.

      C.  territory.

      D.  sudden.

      30.  Insular means the opposite of

      A.  expansive.

      B.  private.

      C.  total.

      D.  impressive.

      31.  An insipid story is

      A.  fascinating.

      B.  complex.

      C.  uninteresting.

      D.  nonsensical.

      32.  Which word does not belong with the others?

      A.  Clarinet

      B.  Saxophone

      C.  Oboe

      D.  Harp

      33.  Which word does not belong with the others?

      A.  Happiness

      B.  Kindness

      C.  Sadness

      D.  Anger

      34.  Which word does not belong with the others?

      A.  Broccoli

      B.  Asparagus

      C.  Eggplant

      D.  Artichoke

      35.  Which word does not belong with the others?

      A.  Freezing

      B.  Snow

      C.  Rain

      D.  Sleet

      Written Expression/Language

      Directions: In questions 36–45, look for errors in capitalization, punctuation, spelling, and usage. Some of the questions will consist of full sentences to compare; others will provide a short piece of writing to evaluate. Choose the letter of the answer choice that contains the error and mark it on your answer sheet.

      36.  A. The screenwriter concieved a very original plot.

      B.  He was punished for committing an act of deceit.

      C.  Be sure to keep your receipt in case you need to return your purchase.

      D.  No mistakes

      37.  A. If you want to come with us, Bea began, just call me.

      B.  When the bell rings, the teacher explained, take your seats.

      C.  With a little luck, Trey said, I’ll see you next weekend.

      D.  No mistakes

      38.  A. The puppy’s hyperactivity seemed to exasperate the cat.

      B.  You should stretch before exercising.

      C.  Our first guest needs no intraductions.

      D.  No mistakes

      39.  A. My one regret about last summer

      B.   is that I missed seeing Incredibles 2, which

      C.  I would of seen if it had stayed in the theaters a little longer.

      D.  No mistakes

      40.  A. We watched President Barack Obama’s inauguration speech in social studies class.

      B.  My former neighbor’s name is Mr. McCree, but my new neighbor is Ms. Holoway.

      C.  I just got a message from my Aunt, who is coming to visit me next week.

      D.  No mistakes

      41.  A. When you see Trudy next, please told her I miss her.

      B.  I wanted to see her this afternoon, but

      C.  she is practicing for the game she will play tomorrow.

      D.  No mistakes

      42.  A. You need to bring the following items to tomorrow’s test: a pencil, a piece of scrap paper, and an eraser.

      B.  Mom is taking a nap on the sofa; Dad is busy cooking dinner.

      C.  You’ll have to walk your bike instead of riding it home—it has a flat tire.

      D.  No mistakes

      43.  A. Xena is hosting the party at she house

      B.  because the venue we wanted to rent

      C.  was already booked.

      D.  No mistakes

      44.  A. Either you want to join my team nor you do not.

      B.  Deandra plans to major in political science when she gets to college, but Yolanda wants to major in art.

      C.  The math test was super easy; however, the English test was rather challenging.

      D.  No mistakes

      45.  A. This Saturday I am going to see a movie called How to Train Your Dragon.

      B.  Have you read the Lord Of The Rings books?

      C.  Have you ever driven across the Golden Gate Bridge?

      D.  No mistakes

      Math

      Directions: For questions 46–65, chose the correct answer and mark the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.

      46.  A robotic vacuum cleaner can vacuum an entire room in 34 hour. A newer version can vacuum 123 rooms of the same size in the same amount of time. How long would it take the newer model to vacuum one such room?

      A.  15 minutes

      B.  27 minutes

      C.  40 minutes

      D.  45 minutes

      47.  Solve for x: 23x=−9

      A.  −293

      B.  –6

      C.  −272

      D.  −253

      48.  The volume of a rectangular box that measures 1.5 feet thick, 5 feet long, and 30 inches wide is

      A.  225 cubic feet.

      B.  150 cubic feet.

      C.  18.75 cubic feet.

      D.  36.5 cubic feet.

      49.  The members of a peewee baseball team sell pendants at their games to raise money for new uniforms. They pay $4 for each pendant, but then mark up the price 250% over cost. If they sell 100 pendants, how much money will they raise?

      A.  $400

      B.  $500

      C.  $1,000

      D.  $1,450

      50.  A contractor needs 12 paving stones to cover 3 square feet of flooring. How many are needed to cover 140 square feet?

      A.  280

      B.  560

      C.  1,120

      D.  2,240

      51.  Mall patrons are asked to indicate their preference of five different restaurants in the food court. The results are summarized on the following bar graph:

      How many mall patrons answered the survey?

      A.  120

      B.  340

      C.  400

      D.  500

      52.  A can-labeling machine can affix labels to 300 cans every 20 seconds. How long does it take for it to affix labels to 4,500 cans?

      A.  5 minutes

      B.  10 minutes

      C.  15 minutes

      D.  20 minutes

      53.  The total worth of a 15-cent stamps, b 32-cent stamps, c 44-cent stamps, and d 60-cent stamps is ________ dollars.

      A.  abcd

      B.  a + b + c + d

      C.  0.15a + 0.32b + 0.44c + 0.60d

      D.  (0.15 + 0.32 + 0.44 + 0.60) ·

      (a + b + c + d)

      54.  Which of these points has coordinates (–2, 4)?

      A.  Point A

      B.  Point B

      C.  Point C

      D.  Point D

      55.  There are two sump pumps in opposite corners of a basement. During a rainstorm, the probability of sump pump 1 triggering is 35%, and the ­probability that neither sump pump 1 nor sump pump 2 triggers is 41%. What is the probability that sump pump 2 will trigger?

      A.  0.24

      B.  0.50

      C.  0.51

      D.  0.65

      56.  Which of the following is equivalent to 2 · (8−5)2?

      A.  6

      B.  18

      C.  36

      D.  39

      57.  The number of 200 m sprints the members of the tennis team complete in 15 minutes is recorded in this data set:

      8, 11, 7, 7, 6, 8, 12, 5, 9, 7

      What is the mean number of sprints run by this group?

      A.  5

      B.  7

      C.  8

      D.  12

      58.  To convert from centimeters to meters, you would

      A.  multiply by 100.

      B.  multiply by 10.

      C.  divide by 10.

      D.  divide by 100.

      59.  In a county prone to severe weather, a meteorologist records the number of lightning strikes each day during a two-week period. The results are as follows:

      Which of these statements is true?

      A.  mode < median < mean

      B.  mode = median = mean

      C.  mean = median > mode

      D.  mode < mean < median

      60.  If the area of a square is 169 square feet, what is its perimeter?

      A.  13 feet

      B.  52 feet

      C.  104 feet

      D.  338 feet

      61.  Which of the following numbers is prime?

      A.  21

      B.  51

      C.  71

      D.  121

      62.  What is the approximate circumference of the circle with a diameter of 12 centimeters? (Round your answer to the nearest hundredth of a centimeter.)

      A.  18.85 centimeters

      B.  37.70 centimeters

      C.  75.40 centimeters

      D.  113.10 centimeters

      63.  Solve for c: (5c – 1)(4c + 7) = 0

      A.  c=15 and c=−74

      B.  c=−74 and c=−15

      C.  c = 5 and c=74

      D.  c = –5 and c=−47

      64.  Compute:

      3 yards,  1 foot, 9 inches+    6 feet, 5 inches_

      A.  3 yards, 1 foot, 5 inches

      B.  5 yards, 2 feet

      C.  5 yards, 2 feet, 2 inches

      D.  4 yards, 1 foot, 2 inches

      65.  If a=23 and b=34, determine the value of (b−a)2a · b.

      A.  2

      B.  112

      C.  1288

      D.  1288

      Quantitative Skills

      Directions: For questions 66–75, select the correct answer and mark the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.

      66.  Examine A, B, and C and choose the best answer.

      A.  4 · (5−2)2

      B.  42 · 32

      C.  36

      A.  A < B < C

      B.  A < C < B

      C.  A = B and C < B

      D.  A = C and C < B

      67.  Consider the following series. What should the next two terms be?

      2A,D4,8G, _, _, …

      A.  16I, L32

      B.  I16, 32L

      C.  16J, M32

      D.  J16, 32M

      68.  Eighty percent of what number is the product of 35 and 0.4?

      A.  14

      B.  17.5

      C.  28

      D.  32.5

      69.  Examine A, B, and C, and choose the best answer.

      A.  2⁵

      B.  5²

      C.  2 · 5

      A.  A = B = C

      B.  C < B < A

      C.  C < A < B

      D.  B = C and A < B

      70.  Consider the following diagram:

      Choose the best answer.

      A.  y + z = 90

      B.  x = y

      C.  x = 65

      D.  x + y + z = 270

      71.  Consider the following series. What term should fill in the blank?

      8, 17, 26, _____, 44, …

      A.  35

      B.  37

      C.  39

      D.  41

      Ability

      Directions: For question 72, look at the top row to see how a square piece of paper is folded and where holes are punched into it. Then look at the bottom row and choose which answer choice shows how the paper will look when it is completely unfolded.

      72.  

      Directions: In questions 73 and 74, the first three figures are alike in certain ways. Choose the answer choice that corresponds to the first three figures.

      73.  

      74.  

      Directions: For question 75, find the figure that completes the puzzle.

      75.  

      Answer Key and Explanations

      1.  The correct answer is B. The focus of this passage is on how plants are living things that perform various functions even though most people do not notice. Therefore, Those Lively Plants would be an appropriate title for this passage. While the passage does use sunflowers as an example of lively plants, it does not provide instructions for growing sunflowers, so choice A would not be the best title. The passage draws both comparisons and contrasts between plants and animals, so choice C is a misleading title. The passage specifically focuses on plants, but choice D implies that it focuses on a variety of living things, which is inaccurate.

      2.  The correct answer is A. According to the passage, its beautiful flower is creating and building up the seeds which will form the sunflowers of the future. The leaves are responsible for manufacturing food (choice B). While the passage suggests that animals eat plants, it does not specifically state that they eat the flowers of sunflower plants, nor does it imply that being eaten is the purpose of the flowers, so choice C is not the best answer. The passage also states that flowers breathe, but it does not suggest that sunflowers take in oxygen through their flowers, so choice D is incorrect.

      3.  The correct answer is C. The passage suggests that plants convert light into food, so sunlight nourishes them. While sunlight may keep plants warm (choice A) that fact is not really suggested in the passage. While animals eat plants, the passage never implies that light is what makes plants edible (choice B). Seeds are the means by which plants reproduce, so choice D is incorrect.

      4.  The correct answer is D. The author compares plants to nonliving artwork such as pictures and statues, which do not move, and describes how plants are usually observed standing still. The author also explains that plants are neither noisy nor quick in their ways. Based on this information, the reader can infer that some people do not realize plants are living because the work those plants perform cannot be observed easily. While the author comments on the beauty of plants while discussing how some people do not realize that plants are alive, he does not imply that it is the plants’ perfection (choice A) that leads these people to that opinion. Choice B contradicts the main discussion about how plants are alive. The author suggests that the leaves and flowers of plants, which are above, not below, the soil (choice C), do perform work.

      5.  The correct answer is A. The author’s main intent is convincing the reader that plants are alive and hardworking and does so with numerous examples of how they function. While the author does imply some similarities between plants and animals (choice B), proving these similarities is not the purpose of the passage as a whole. Choice C refers to only one detail in the passage that is too minor to capture the main purpose of the passage as a whole. Choice D is true in itself, but the author does not discuss how people benefit from plants much, so it is not the best answer.

      6.  The correct answer is B. While each answer choice can be used as a synonym for occupations, choice B makes the most sense because the author describes the various activities of plants throughout the passage. A plant does perform work, but it cannot really be employed as a human is, so choice A is not the best answer. A plant neither plays games (choice C) nor possesses (choice D) things.

      7.  The correct answer is A. At the end of the passage (lines 16–19), the author explains the importance of beginning a study of plants by learning how to see and question them properly, so choice A is the best answer. The author is not arguing that people should stop eating plants (choice B). The purpose of this passage is to understand plants; it does not provide instructions for growing a garden (choice C), and it does not encourage writing a book about plants (choice D) either.

      8.  The correct answer is B. In lines 5–7 in the second paragraph, the author suggests that people view plants as they view art because both are so beautiful. However, the author contradicts the notion that plants are immobile (choice A) by discussing how hard they work. The author also explains that it is not easy to observe how plants perform their functions, so choice C is not the best answer. While art may be open to interpretation, there is nothing in the passage that suggests plants are also open to interpretation, so choice D is not a strong answer.

      9.  The correct answer is B. Remember that a best title question is asking you to identify the main idea of a passage. This passage provides an overview about court practices—how justice was carried out—in ancient Athens. Although a comparison between the courts of the United States and ancient Athens serves as an introduction to the passage, this comparison goes no further, so choice A is not the best fit. The passage briefly mentions the procedure for testifying under oath (choice C) and the process of how juries came to a verdict (choice D), but these topics are details that are included to support the main idea.

      10.  The correct answer is C. Line 2 of the passage (lines 10–13) states that any citizen might accuse another of a crime, which kept the Athenian courts very busy. Members of the juries were selected from the assembly, but the passage does not state that it was something they enjoyed (choice A). The passage does not address whether a juryman would be an impartial listener (choice B), and it doesn’t say anything about the behavior of slaves, only that their oaths were worthless in the court, so D is not the best answer.

      11.  The correct answer is A. The last sentence of the passage states that a rule existed that if the person accused did not receive a certain number of negative votes from the jury, the accuser was condemned instead. This rule was in place to keep citizens from being too careless in accusing each other. The potential size of the jury (choice B), age of the jury members (choice C), and time limits for testifying (choice D) were not factors in a citizen’s caution when taking another citizen to court.

      12.  The correct answer is B. Of the statements given, only one can be supported in the passage: the importance of a case determined the number of jurors. This information is found in lines 8 and 9 in the third paragraph. The passage states that both the accuser and the accused were given an opportunity to speak and that jury verdicts were determined by counting black and white stones placed in a box, so both choices A and C contradict what’s in the passage. The passage does not mention anything about the number of times a citizen had to appear in court (choice D).

      13.  The correct answer is B. The Leopard Tribe is so angry about losing the wrestling matches with the Goat Tribe that, in addition to relocating to the forest to avoid seeing the Goats, they made a practice of attacking lone goats and any other single beast that the Leopards knew to be friendly to the Goats. That they did so with cherished anger implies that they were very sore losers. This fact also somewhat contradicts the idea that they are extremely dignified (choice A). There is no evidence that supports that they are generous (choice C). While the Leopard Tribe is clearly frustrated by their loss to the Goat Tribe, they are far from understanding (choice D).

      14.  The correct answer is D. Personification is a figure of speech used when a writer describes something that is not human as having human character traits. Throughout this passage, the animals are described as feeling human emotions, such as desperation, exultation, shame, and anger. An allusion (choice A) refers to another work, but that does not happen in this passage. A metaphor (choice B) makes a comparison between two unlike things, but that does not occur in this passage. Foreshadowing (choice C) signals future events before they occur, but that technique is not used in this passage.

      15.  The correct answer is A. People generally think of carnivorous leopards as being fiercer than herbivorous goats, but in this passage, the goats are ultimately better fighters than the leopards. Choice B is an extreme and impossible-to-prove assumption, and such answer choices are best avoided. The Leopard Tribe loses the first three wrestling matches, so choice C is incorrect. The leopards seem angrier than the goats throughout the passage, so choice D is incorrect as well.

      16.  The correct answer is C. Dry is a synonym for arid. Other synonyms are waterless and desertlike.

      17.  The correct answer is D. Completed is a synonym for consummated. Other synonyms are finalized, finished, and accomplished.

      18.  The correct answer is D. Uncertain is a synonym for tentative. Other synonyms are conditional and dependent.

      19.  The correct answer is D. Evil is a synonym for heinous. Other synonyms are monstrous and horrifying.

      20.  The correct answer is B. Inactive is a synonym for sedentary. Other synonyms are stationary and idle.

      21.  The correct answer is A. This analogy is an object-purpose relationship. The purpose of a knife is to cut. The purpose of a razor is to shave.

      22.  The correct answer is C. This analogy is a part-whole relationship. Sand is part of a beach. Grass is part of a lawn.

      23.  The correct answer is D. This analogy is an antonym relationship. Exhausted is the opposite of energized. Upset is the opposite of soothed.

      24.  The correct answer is B. This analogy is an association relationship. A belt is fastened around one’s waist. A tie is fastened around one’s neck.

      25.  The correct answer is B. If Liana is taller than Merry, and she is taller than Darius, then Darius can’t be taller than Liana. Therefore, the third statement is false.

      26.  The correct answer is C. We do not know if Grant and Sarah are on the same soccer team, or anything about the other children on Grant’s team, so there is no way to know if the final statement is true.

      27.  The correct answer is A. Yoko has the fewest berries, so Aria must have more berries than she does. Therefore, the third statement is true.

      28.  The correct answer is D. A superfluous detail is unnecessary.

      29.  The correct answer is A. Transient means passing quickly; the opposite is permanent.

      30.  The correct answer is A. Insular means narrow; the opposite is expansive.

      31.  The correct answer is C. An insipid story is uninteresting.

      32.  The correct answer is D. A clarinet, a saxophone, and an oboe are all woodwind instruments. A harp is a stringed instrument.

      33.  The correct answer is B. Happiness, sadness, and anger are all emotions. Kindness is a personality quality.

      34.  The correct answer is C. Broccoli, asparagus, and artichokes are all green vegetables. An eggplant is not green; it is purple.

      35.  The correct answer is A. Snow, rain, and sleet are forms of precipitation. Freezing is a description of temperature.

      36.  The correct answer is A. The correct spelling is conceived.

      37.  The correct answer is B. The comma following rings belongs within the quotation marks.

      38.  The correct answer is C. The correct spelling is introductions.

      39.  The correct answer is C. This sentence contains a word choice error. It uses the preposition of as a helping verb incorrectly. It should use have, not of.

      40.  The correct answer is C. The word aunt should be capitalized only if it is the first word of a sentence, or if it is used as a title before a proper name, such as Aunt Eunice. Since this sentence does not use aunt in either of those ways, aunt should not be capitalized.

      41.  The correct answer is A. In this complex sentence, the introductory phrase describes something that will happen in the future. However, in the second clause, the verb told is in the past tense. It should have been tell instead of told.

      42.  The correct answer is D. There are no errors in these sentences.

      43.  The correct answer is A. The house belongs to Xena, so the sentence requires the possessive form of the pronoun she, which is her.

      44.  The correct answer is A. There is no such thing as an either/nor construction. This sentence should use the conjunction or instead of nor.

      45.  The correct answer is B. Prepositions such as of and articles such as the should not be capitalized in the middle of titles such as Lord of the Rings.

      46.  The correct answer is B. Let x be the time it takes (in hours) for the newer model to vacuum one room. Set up the proportion:

      34 hour123 rooms=x hour1 room34=(123)xx=3453=34 · 35=920 hour

      Since there are 60 minutes in one hour, this is equivalent to 920 · 60 minutes=27 minutes.

      47.  The correct answer is C. Divide both sides of the

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